INJSO - 2024

Indian National Junior Science Olympiad (INJSO) – 2024

Indian Association of Physics Teachers (IAPT)

QUESTION PAPER / SOLUTION

Roll Number: Date: 3rd February 2024

Duration: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

Please Note:
1) Please write your roll number in the space provided above.
2) Use of non-programmable scientific calculators is allowed.
3) The answer-sheet must be returned to the invigilator. You can carry this question
paper with you.
4) Section I of this question paper has 15 questions.
i. For each question in this section, only one of the four options is a correct answer.
ii. For each question, a correct answer will earn 3 marks, a wrong answer will earn (–1)
mark, and an un-attempted question will earn 0 marks.
iii. If you mark more than one option, it would be treated as a wrong answer.
5) Section II contains 9 questions worth 5 marks each. There is no negative marking.
iv. For each of these questions one or more option(s) may be correct.
v. You will get full credit for each question only if you mark all correct options and no
wrong option. There are no partial marks for these 9 questions.
6) Section III contains 11 questions.
vi. For all the questions in this section, the process involved in arriving at the solution
is as important as the final answer. Valid assumptions / approximations are
perfectly acceptable. Please write your method clearly, explicitly stating all the
reasonings/ assumptions / approximations.
vii. In case you fall short of writing space for any question, you can ask for an extra sheet.
You can ask for maximum of two extra sheets.

Happy Solving

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USEFUL CONSTANTS

Gravitational constant G ≈ 6.674 × 10−11 N m2/kg2

Gravitational acceleration g ≈ 10 m/s2
Mass of electron me ≈ 9.109 × 10−31 kg
Charge of an electron e ≈ 1.602 × 10−19 C
Avogadro constant NA ≈ 6.022 × 1023/mol
Specific heat capacity of water s = 4.2 J / (g 0 C)
Density of water ρw = 103 kg/m3
Universal gas constant R ≈ 8.314 J / (mol K) and 0.0821 L.Atm/mol.K
Atmospheric pressure 1 atm ≈ 101 325 Pa
Molar volume of gas at STP VSTP ≈ 22.4 L
STP 273 K and 1 atm
Molar volume of gas at 1 atm and 100 ◦C V100 ≈ 30.6 L
Permitivity of free space ϵ0 ≈ 8.854 × 10−12 C 2N−1m−2
Radius of the Earth R⊕ ≈ 6400 km
Radius of the Moon Rmoon ≈ 1700 km

Element Atomic Atomic Element Atomic Atomic

Number Mass Number Mass

H 1 1.0 Cl 17 35.5
C 6 12.0 K 19 39.0
N 7 14.0 Ca 20 40.0
O 8 16.0 Fe 26 56.0
Na 11 23.0 Zn 30 65.4
Al 13 27.0 Ag 47 107.9
S 16 32.0 Au 79 197.0

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Section – I (consolidated Answer key is provided in the last page)

1. From the characteristics of each of the organisms provided in the table below, identify the four organisms,
namely P, Q, R and S - from one of the options:

Symmetry Germ layers Coelom Notochord

P Bilateral Triploblastic Eucoelomate Present

Triploblastic
Q Bilateral Pseudocoelomate Absent

R Radial Diploblastic Special cavity Absent

S Asymmetry No Germlayers Special cavity Absent

A. P = Fish, Q = Roundworm, R = Starfish, S = Sponge

B. P = Frog, Q = Filarial worm, R = Jelly fish, S = Hydra
C. P = Bird, Q = Hook worm, R = Hydra, S = Sponge.
D. P = Snake, Q = Earth worm, R = Jelly fish, S = Flatworm

Answer: C
Reason – Snake and Earthworm have bilateral symmetry among which only snake is vertebrate
(notochord). Sponge is asymmetric while Jellyfish has radial symmetric with Diploblastic germ
layer.

2. The graph below shows the activity spectra of two

proteolytic enzymes P (bold line) and Q (dotted line).
Identify the combination that identifies the source of
the enzymes correctly.

A. P – Mouth and Q – Stomach

B. P – Stomach and Q – Duodenum
C. P – Duodenum and Q – Stomach
D. P – Stomach and Q – Ileum

Answer: D

Reason – Proteolytic enzymes are synthesized as inactive enzymes (pro-form) and cleaved in the
acidic stomach where their activity is maximum (optimal) at Acidic pH of the stomach ~2.3. Similarly
other enzymes released in the intestine (as acid gets neutralized by Bile) get activated in the
Ileum/Intestine where the pH becomes slightly alkaline

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The intraluminal pH is rapidly changed from highly acid in the stomach to about pH 6 in the
duodenum. The pH gradually increases in the small intestine from pH 6 to about pH 7.4 in the terminal
ileum. The pH drops to 5.7 in the caecum, but again gradually increases, reaching pH 6.7 in the
rectum.

3. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up biochemical reactions in living organisms. The active site
is the region of an enzyme where substrate molecules bind and undergo a chemical reaction. The following
figure demonstrates the process of enzyme-substrate reaction.

There are some molecules termed as enzyme inhibitors which bind to an enzyme and inhibit its activity
or prevent them from working in a normal manner. It is important to note that both the substrate and
inhibitor binding to the enzyme, are reversible reactions. The important types of inhibitors classified into
the following three types:
(i) Competitive inhibitor directly binds to the enzyme’s active site.
(ii) Non-competitive inhibitor binds to a location other than the active site which in turn affects active
site and therefore the enzyme activity.
(iii) Uncompetitive Inhibitor binds to the enzyme-substrate complex and slows the rate of reaction to
form the enzyme-product complex.
A group of researchers working on various plant extracts evaluated their lipase activity using a fixed
concentration of enzyme with/without a fixed concentration of inhibitor, each reaction tested at varying
substrate concentrations (all other factors were maintained constant), they found some interesting results.
One of the extracts showed the pattern of inhibition as shown in the graph below.

Based on the above pattern of activity of the two reactions, which of the following best concludes the
result.

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A. Uncompetitive inhibition
B. Competitive inhibition
C. Non-competitive inhibition
D. Unexplainable by the given data.

Answer: B
Since the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the same exact site on the enzyme (active site), at
low conc. of substrate the inhibitor is effective in occupying the active site more often, leading to
decrease in enzyme activity. However, as we keep increasing substrate concentration, being a
reversible reaction, it outcompetes inhibitor concentration and finally at a very high substrate conc.
leads to restoring the level of enzyme activity (as it was without inhibitor). Hence because this
inhibitor binds to the active site, this is an example of competitive inhibition.

4. A U-shaped glass tube based experiment is depicted below. The two arms are separated by a selectively
permeable membrane fixed at the center that allows only water molecules to pass through it. The arm “P”
is filled with 10 ml distilled water while arm “Q” is filled with Red Blood Cells (RBC) suspended in
10 ml of an isotonic sucrose solution. Each arm contains 10mL of solution at 0 min and can accommodate
up to a maximum of 12 mL capacity. After 30 minutes, the observation would be:

P Q

Water

RBC

Sucrose molecules

Selective permeable
membrane

A. The water level in “P” would be lower than initial while solution level in “Q” will rise with an
increase in RBC size.
B. The water level in “P” will rise above initial level while in “Q” it will fall with a decrease in RBC
size.
C. The water level in “P” would be lower than initial while water level in “Q” will rise with a decrease
in RBC size.
D. The water level in “P” will remain the same as initial while level in “Q” will rise with an increase in
RBC size.

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Answer: A
Water will dialyze from low conc. to high conc. of solute increasing the level in Q, thereby diluting
the solute which will be relatively hypotonic for the RBCs and therefore water will move into the
RBCs (by osmosis) thereby increasing their size.

5. The components of a reflex arc are shown in the flow diagram.

receptor → sensory neuron → synapse → relay neuron → synapse → motor neuron → effector

Which component is responsible for ensuring that the nerve impulses travel in one direction only?
A. motor neuron
B. receptor
C. sensory neuron
D. synapse

Answer: D
It is known that at the synapse – the signal is transmitted by release of vesicles (packets of chemical
information) from the neuron to the motor neuron to the effector cell – and that’s what causes
unidirectionality of the process. Otherwise electrical signals can flow in both directions from the
axon/body to the dendrites.

6. 24 karat gold is 100% pure gold. 18 karat gold is an alloy made by mixing 18 parts of gold with 6 parts
of copper by weight. The cost of pure gold is 5560 INR/gram. When it comes to diamonds, 1 carat means
a diamond which weighs 200 mg. The cost of diamond is 65,000 INR/carat. If you buy a 15-gram
ornament made with 18 karat gold and a 2-carat diamond embedded into it, which of the following
statement is NOT true?
A. You get more atoms of gold than carbon in the ornament.
B. You pay more per atom of carbon than per atom of gold in the ornament.
C. You get almost same number (within 5%) of atoms of gold and copper in the ornament.
D. The major cost of the ornament is for the gold component in it.

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Answer: D
Cost of 2-carat diamond = 2 x 65000 = 1,10,000 INR
Mass of gold in the ornament = (18/24) (15g – 0.4g) = 10.95 g
Cost of gold = 10.95 x 5560 = 60,882 INR
Major cost of the ornament is for the diamond.
Atomic wt of gold = 197 g/mol
No. of atoms of gold = (10.95/197) x 6.022 x 1023 = 0.335 x 1023
Cost of a single atom of gold = 60882/(0.335 x 1023) = 1,81,737 x 10-23 INR
Mol wt of carbon = 12 g/mol
No. of atoms of carbon = (0.4/12) x 6.022 x 1023 = 0.200 x 1023
Cost of a single atom of carbon = 1,10,0000/ (0.200 x 1023) = 5,50,000 x 10-23 INR
Mass of copper in the ornament = (6/24) x 14.6 g = 3.65 g
Mol wt of Cu = 63.5 g/mol
No. of atoms of Cu = 3.65/63.5 x 6.022 x 1023 = 0.346 x 1023

7. India has been implementing an Ethanol Blending Program (EBP) to increase the ethanol content in petrol.
The use of ethanol can reduce greenhouse gas emissions. Ethanol, like petrol, burns in the internal
combustion engine to produce water and carbon dioxide. What is the decrease in carbon dioxide emission
resulting from using E20 fuel (consider 20% ethanol by mass in petrol) in place of just petrol. Ethanol is
C2H5OH and Petrol is C8H18.
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 10%
D. 7.5%

Answer: D
C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O
2C8H18 + 25O2 → 16CO2 + 18H2O
No of moles of ethanol in 20 g = 20/46 = 0.435
No of moles of petrol in 80 g = 80/114 = 0.712
No of moles of CO2 produced by 100g of E20 = (0.435*2) + (0.712*8) = 6.484 moles
No of moles of CO2 produced by 100 g of petrol = 100/114*8 = 7.018 moles
Percentage change in CO2 emission = (7.018 – 6.484)/7.018 *100 = 7.6%

8. Ammonia (NH3) and hydrogen chloride (HCl) react to form solid ammonium chloride.
𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔) + 𝐻𝐶𝑙(𝑔) → 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙(𝑠)

Gauge #1 Gauge #2

Length = 5 cm

Length = 20 cm

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In a cylinder of radius 5 cm with two chambers as shown above, 4 gram of ammonia and 4 gram of
hydrogen chloride were placed in the respective compartments. After keeping at 25⁰C, the plate
separating the two chambers was removed that enables the cylinder to have a single compartment. The
cylinder was allowed to come back to 25⁰C.
The pressure reading in gauge #1 in the initial setup and for gauge #2 after the process were:
A. 4.12 atm and 1.03 atm
B. 6.85 atm and 1.95 atm
C. 6.85 atm and 4.68 atm
D. 4.12 atm and 1.22 atm

Answer: B
No of moles of HCl = 4/36.5 = 0.110
No of moles of NH3 = 4/17 = 0.235
No of moles of ammonia remaining = 0.235-0.110 = 0.125 moles
Pressure in gauge 1 = 0.110 x 8.314 x 298/[(3.14 x 0.05 x 0.05 x 0.050) x 1.013 x 105] = 6.85 atm
Pressure of gauge 2 after the process
= (0.125 x 8.314 x 298)/[(3.14 x 0.05 x 0.05 x 0.2) x 1.013 x 105] = 1.95 atm.

9. Rainwater runoff in which of the following cases is likely to have the highest electrical conductivity?
A. Water flowing over rocky area
B. Water flowing through mounds of sand dumped a decade ago
C. Water flowing down a municipal waste dumped a year ago
D. Water flowing down broken concrete dumped a year ago

Answer: C
Water flowing over rocky areas contain very little dissolved minerals, because the rate of
dissolution is very low (it is low solubility minerals in rocks which keeps them stable over years
inspite of annual rains). Carbonic acid in the rain is a weak acid - and the slightly increased
solubility of rock minerals is still slow compared to municipal waste.
The sand was dumped a decade ago, all the free ions would be expected to be washed away
over time. Municipal waste typically contains a variety of substances, including organic
matter, dissolved ions from household waste, pieces of metal etc..
In this waste, decomposition keeps happening over long time resulting in small soluble organic
ions, sulphates, nitrates, chlorides, alkali metal ions, etc. Water can rapidly leach a variety of
substances from municipal waste, including organic matter, metallic compounds, and minerals
formed. This can result in higher concentrations of ions in the leachate, leading to higher
electrical conductivity.
The main minerals in concrete are relatively insoluble under typical environmental conditions,
which limits the rate at which they can dissolve into water (that is why concrete buildings can
stay for years).

10. Standard reduction potential, often denoted as E°, is a measure used in electrochemistry to indicate the
tendency of a species (a reduction reaction) to gain electrons and be reduced. E° quantifies the relative
ease or difficulty with which a species can be reduced or oxidized under standard conditions. The more

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positive the standard reduction potential of a species, the greater its tendency to act as an oxidizing agent
in a chemical reaction. Conversely, species with more negative standard reduction potentials are more
likely to act as electron donors.
Given the following standard reduction potentials for the redox species:

Chemical species Standard Reduction Potential Eº (V)

Fe2+(aq) becoming Fe(s) –0.44
2+
Cu (aq) becoming Cu(s) +0.34
Zn2+(aq) becoming Zn(s) –0.76
Ag+(aq) becoming Ag(s) +0.80

When arranging these species in pairs in an electrochemical cell, which one of the following statements
is correct, under standard conditions:
A. Fe2+(aq) becomes Fe(s) when paired with all Cu(s), Zn(s) and Ag(s)
B. Fe2+(aq) becomes Fe(s) when paired to Ag(s) and Cu(s); and Fe(s) becomes Fe2+ when paired with
Zn2+(aq)
C. Fe becomes Fe2+ when paired with Ag1+(aq), Cu2+(aq); and Fe2+(aq) becomes Fe(s) when paired
with Zn(s)
D. Fe(s) becomes Fe2+(aq) only when paired with Zn2+(aq)

Answer: C

11. A converging beam is about to converge at O. However, on introducing an optical element AB (a mirror
or a lens) the point of convergence shifts from O to a new location. Column 1 is list of optical elements
and column 2 is a list of possible image locations. Match the optical element with the location where the
light is made to converge due to their intervention.
A

P1 P2 P3 O P4

B
Optical element

Column 1 Column 2
a) Convex lens of a certain focal length f p) P1
b) Convex lens of focal length greater than f q) P2
c) Plane mirror r) P3
d) Concave lens s) P4

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A. a–r;b–q;c–s;d–p
B. a–q;b–r;c–p;d–s
C. a–r;b–q;c–p;d–s
D. a–q;b–r;c–s;d–p

Answer: B
Convex lens will increase the convergence and hence the point shift toward the optical element. Higher
the focal length, convergence is lesser. Hence shorter focal length will converge to nearer point (P 2)
and longer focal length to point (P3). Concave lens being divergent lens will shift the point of
convergence further. Plane mirror will form a real image in front of it.

12. A body of mass m dropped from a height ℎ reaches the ground with a speed of 1.2√𝑔ℎ. The work done
by air-resistance is
A. 0.12 mgh.
B. −0.12 mgh.
C. −0.28 mgh.
D. 0.28 mgh.

Answer: C
Work done by gravity = 𝑚𝑔ℎ.
Work done by air resistance be 𝑊.
Change in kinetic energy is
1 1 2 1
𝑚𝑣 2 − 0 = 𝑚(1.2√𝑔ℎ) = 𝑚1.44gh = 0.72gh.
2 2 2
Total work done = Change in kinetic energy
𝑚𝑔ℎ + 𝑊 = 0.72𝑔ℎ.
𝑊 = 0.72𝑔ℎ − 𝑚𝑔ℎ = −0.28𝑚𝑔ℎ

13. Six-point charges are placed at A, B, C, D, E and F on a regular hexagon. If a test charge (+1 nC) is placed
at any point on XY and it is found to go in the upward direction (in D
figure). Line XY is on bisector of sides EF and BC. Then the charge
distribution can be respectively
E C
A. +q, –q, –2q, +2q, +q, –q
B. –q, –q, –2q, +q, +q, +2q X Y
C. +2q, +q, –q, –2q, –q, +q
F B
D. +q, –2q, –q, +q, +2q, +q

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Answer: C
The charge configuration as in option c is shown in figure below.
The direction of forces on 1 nC at any position is upward.
-2q

-q -q

X Y

q q

2q

14. A bar magnet is let free to fall from some height staring from rest through a hollow conducting cylinder.
Then identify speed-time graph (v - t graph) that best explains its motion.

v v

A. B.

t t

v v

C. D.

t t

Answer: D

Before entering the cylinder, it is like a free-falling body, so v-t would be straight line. Then
acceleration decreases due to eddy current, and velocity attains terminal velocity. After coming out
of the tube it again behaves like a free-falling body.

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15. A block of mass 10 kg is suspended from a rigid support via two

identical spring balances S1 and S2. Another block of mass 6 kg is S1 S2
suspended from bottom of 10 kg block via a third spring balance S3.
All the spring balances are assumed to be massless. The block of mass R1 R2
6 kg (Relative Density =10) is fully immersed in water contained in a 10 kg
big container. The arrangement is shown in the adjacent figure. If the
readings (in kg - wt) on spring balances S1, S2 and S3 are R1, R2, R3 S3
respectively, choose the correct option (assume all the springs stretch
R3
within the elastic limits).

R1 R2 R3
A. 5.0 5.0 5.4 6 kg

B. 8.2 8.2 6.4

C. 10.0 10.0 5.4
D. 7.7 7.7 5.4

Answer: D
F1 =F2 =F (say)
For vertical equilibrium of blocks
T + 10g – 2F = 0 … (1)
6g – T – Th = 0 … (2)
The upthrust is Th = Volume of 6 kg block × density of
water × g
= (6/density of block) × density of water × g
= 6 (1/10)g = 0.6g
Hence, from eq. (2)
6g – T – 0.6g = 0
i.e. 5.4g – T = 0 … (3)
Solving eqns. (1) and (3)
F = 7.7g and T = 5.4g
Hence R1 = R2 =7.7 kg-wt, R3 = 5.4 kg-wt

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Section - II
16. The figure below shows the ultrastructural details of a plant cell. Some parts are labelled as L, M, N, O
and P. Identify the correct statement(s) w.r.t to these labels.

A. O is a granule of reserve food Glycogen.

B. L is concerned with spindle fibre formation.
C. M and P are energy transducers.
D. N helps in aerobic respiration.

Answer: D only
N is mitochondria which is the powerhouse of the cell as it makes ATP via aerobic respiration. A is
untrue because storage in plants is Starch and NOT glycogen.

17. You are trying to demonstrate to your friends that plants require the presence of light to produce oxygen.
To do this you assemble the experimental system shown below and make your observations at the
beginning and the end of the experiment after 6 hrs. Which setup(s) from the ones below would be useful
as a control for your experiment?

A. The setup as above, but placed in a dark room.

B. The setup as above, but placed in a dark room with holes in the top of the container
C. The setup as above, but with the plant removed from the pot.
D. The setup as above, but with a constant supply of CO2

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Answer: A & C
A controls for the role of light in oxygen evolution by the plant while C controls for the plant itself
being responsible for oxygen evolution. In B. by making an open system, oxygen from the
environment will also be measured thereby making the control irrelevant. Also in D although CO2
will lead to more O2 release, it is NOT a control for requirement of light for photosynthesis (as the
original aim of the expt) – rather an added experiment that proves that plants require CO2 for carbon
fixation and a result of that is O2 evolution.

18. Hemophilia is commonly called bleeder’s disease. It is a X-linked recessive disorder. Males are more
frequently affected by this. If ‘H’- is the normal gene, ‘h’-is its recessive allele, trace the genotype and
phenotype of Mr. Ramesh’s family. Mr. Ramesh is normal and non-hemophilic. His father is also non-
hemophilic. Ramesh marries Radha, who is also normal, and her father is also non-hemophilic. This
couple has 3 children, one boy and two girls, who are all normal. One of the daughters marries a man who
is also normal. She has a son (Ramesh’s grandson) who is hemophilic. Which of the following outcome(s)
will result from the genetic trace between the F1, F2 and F3 generations.

A. Ramesh’s mother is definitely not a carrier.

B. Radha must be a carrier.
C. Ramesh’s son-in law may be a carrier.
D. Ramesh’s daughter must be carrier.

Answer: B and D

Radha can be a carrier since the mutation is on her X and so although Ramesh is normal (with one
non-faulty X), their girl-Child can become a carrier which can then pass on the disease to the
grandchildren. Also Ramesh’s daughter HAS to be a carrier as that is the only way one of the
grandchildren can get the disease. Ramesh’s mother can be a carrier too but ends up passing the
normal X to Ramesh- hence he doesn’t have the disease.

19. Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is an important ingredient of vinegar. A sample of 50.0 mL of a commercial
vinegar is titrated against a 0.5 M NaOH solution. 14 mL of the base was needed for the titration to be
completed. Which of the following describes the acetic acid content in the vinegar?
[The density of the solution is 1 g/mL]
A. ~ 0.25 mole %
B. ~ 8400 ppm
C. ~ 0.14 Molar
D. ~ 4 % weight

Answer: A, B and C
Molarity of acetic acid solution = (0.5 M * 14 mL)/50 mL = 0.14 M
Mass of acetic acid = 0.14 M * 0.05 L * 60 g/mol = 0.42 g
Mass of solution assuming the density of solution to be 1 g/mL = 50 g
Ppm = (0.42/50) * 1000000 = 8400 ppm

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Mole% = (0.14/55.5)*100 = 0.25%

20. As xenobiotic substances, such as drug molecules, enter the bloodstream, the body needs an effective
mechanism to eliminate these substances. The liver plays a crucial role in this clearance process.
Diazepam, a drug, being a lipophilic (fat-loving) molecule with relatively low water solubility, undergoes
metabolic transformation within the liver into desmethyldiazepam, oxazepam, and various other
metabolites as it circulates through this organ.

Which statement(s) are true for this process:

A. The liver metabolizes diazepam into compounds that exhibit a greater affinity for lipids than
diazepam itself, thereby prolonging the drug's presence in the body.
B. The liver transforms diazepam into metabolites that are more polar than diazepam, facilitating their
elimination through urine.
C. Desmethyl diazepam possesses increased polarity compared to diazepam due to the presence of a
polar N-H bond.
D. Oxazepam is less polar than diazepam because it contains one less methyl (CH3) group.

Answer: B and C

21. Ms. Ruhina teaches her students the concept of pH. She defines pH as negative logarithm to the base ten
of hydrogen ion concentration, and says pure water at 25 oC has a pH of 7. On a hot summer day when
the temperature was 40 oC, she wants to demonstrate that the pH of distilled water is 7 to her class. On
measuring the pH of packaged distilled water with a simple pH meter, the value obtained was 6.77.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are offer(s) the best explanation for this discrepancy?
A. At a higher temperature, the extent of ionization of water has increased and, hence, the water has
become acidic.

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B. At a higher temperature, the extent of ionization of water has increased by ~3% and as a result,
the “neutral” value for pH is indeed 6.77
C. At a higher temperature, the extent of ionization has increased and a solution with pH = 7 at this
temperature is slightly alkaline.
D. At a higher temperature, the extent of ionization of water has increased by ~ 70% and as a result,
the “neutral” value for pH is indeed 6.77

Answer: C and D
pH = 7
[H+] = 10-7
pH = 6.77
[H+] = 10-6.77
Percentage Change in hydrogen ion concentration = [10-6.77 – 10-7] *100 / 10-7 = 70%

𝑅
22. Three resistors 3 , 𝑅 and 2𝑅 are connected in such a way that their equivalent resistance is R. The
respective electrical power consumed by the resistor are P1, P2 and P3. Then choose the correct option/s.
A. P1 is greater than P2
B. P3 is lesser than P2
C. P2 is greater than P1
D. P1 is greater than P3

Answer: B, C & D

For equivalent resistance the connection must be as shown in the figure below.

𝑅 𝑅
3

2𝑅

𝑅 2𝐼 𝐼
If the current in 3
is I, then current in 𝑅 is 3
and in 2𝑅 it is 3. Power consumption in each of the
resistance is
𝑅 2
𝑃1 = 𝐼
3
4𝐼 2
𝑃2 = 𝑅
9
𝐼2
𝑃3 = 2𝑅
9
Thus 𝑃2 > 𝑃1 > 𝑃3

23. Amount of heat H1 and H2 are supplied respectively to a hollow and a solid metallic sphere of same
material and same radius.
A. The volume expansion will be same for both, if H1 = H2.

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B. Hollow sphere will expand more than solid sphere, if H1 = H2.

C. The solid sphere will expand more than hollow sphere if H1 = H2.
D. If they are heated up to the same temperature, amount of expansion will be same for both.

Answer: B & D
The mass of hollow (m1) is less than solid sphere (m2). Since heat supplied is same, the temperature
attained is different.
𝑚1 𝑆𝑡1 = 𝑚2 𝑆𝑡2
And hence 𝑡1 > 𝑡2 . That is temperature of hollow sphere is more than that of solid sphere.
The volume expansion is higher if the temperature is more. Hence Hollow sphere will expand more.
D is correct since expansion will depend on temperature of the bodies.

24. Like charges repel, and unlike charges attract. Magnitude of force (F) between two stationary point
𝐾𝑄 𝑄
charges Q1 and Q2 separated by a distance r is expressed as 𝐹 = 12 2 (Coulomb’s Law) where K is a
𝑟
positive constant. Consider four-point charges Q1, Q2, Q3 and Q4 lying in a straight line as shown in the
figure besides. The distance between any two consecutive charges is the same. Here Q1 = +2mC and
Q3 =+1mC. If Q2 and Q4 are in equilibrium, correct option is / are.
44
A. 𝑄2 = + 9 𝑚𝑐 and 𝑄4 = +4 𝑚𝑐
44
B. 𝑄2 = − 𝑚𝑐 and 𝑄4 = +4 𝑚𝑐 2 mC 1 mC
9
C. 𝑄2 = +
44
𝑚𝑐 and 𝑄4 = −4 𝑚𝑐 Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4
9
D. If 𝑄2 = 0 , Q4 cannot be in equilibrium.

Answer: B & D or Only B

Let the distance between two consecutive charges = X

For equilibrium of Q2
𝐾 2𝑄2 1𝑄2 𝑄2 𝑄4 𝐾𝑄2 𝑄4
𝑋2
( 1 − 1
− 4
) =0 and 𝑋2
(1 − 4
) =0 and 𝑄4 = 4𝑚𝐶

For equilibrium of Q4
𝐾 2𝑄4 𝑄2 𝑄4 1𝑄4 𝐾𝑄4 2 𝑄2
𝑋2
( 9 + 4
+ 1
) =0 and (
𝑋2 9
+ 4
+ 1) = 0
2 𝑄2 𝑄2 11 44
i.e. 9
+ 4
+1=0 and 4
=− 9
or 𝑄2 = − 9
𝑚𝐶

Further, if Q2 = 0 forces on Q4 due to Q1 and Q3 both will be attractive and in same direction. Hence
the resultant force on Q4 will never be zero. Hence option (D) is true.

Section - III

25. (a) The structure of an animal cell plasma membrane is shown below. The bi-layered plasma membrane
is made up of both proteins & polar lipids along with carbohydrates found attached to either proteins

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and/or lipids. Some proteins are embedded in the membrane while others exist more towards the internal
surface of the membrane (internal proteins) & or on the external part (surface/external proteins).
(1.5 marks)

Facing outside of the cell

F
I G
E

Facing the cytoplasm (inside)

Based on above information, identify the labels (of each letter) and choose the correct options:
(i) E is a lipid molecule
(ii) F is bi-layered lipid
(iii) G is a transmembrane protein
(iv) H is the polar part of the molecule
(v) E is entirely polar
(vi) H & I are both non-polar
(vii) I is polar.
With respect to nature of plasma membrane, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

ANSWER: I, III & IV are true.

Reason – simple nature of the proteins mentioned as a function of their hydrophobic and functional
properties. (0.5 mark each – total 1.5 marks)

(b) Whenever a solid food molecule approaches a cell, then plasma membrane surrounds it & engulfs
the food particle (phagocytosis), and the food vacuole pinches off into the cytoplasm. As a result the
orientation of the membrane proteins get altered, as the membrane of the vacuole now faces
inside-out. Identify the arrangement of these molecules in the altered plasma membrane of the
vacuole and pick the correct one from the options below. (1 mark)

A. B. C. D.

Answer: A

Reason: because the membrane ultrastructure does not change, just the inside and outside facing
topologies change. (1 mark)

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(c) In another experiment, a scientist isolated the food vacuoles

from the cells & put them in a solution that increased the
stability of the vacuolar membrane. In the second part of
the experiment, when she added a small amount of salt to
the stabilizing solution, the membrane still seemed to
remain intact. To decipher what had happened, she
performed a protein estimation assay on the samples before
(Pinitial) and after addition of the salt (Psalt). She divided the
values of her salt-treated readings by the corresponding
protein readings of the same fraction-type (X axis) from
the original solution (before adding the salt). Her data is
depicted in the graph →
Based on her data, which of the following interpretation(s) is/are true
A. The decrease is due to external proteins that dissociate into the stabilizing solution.
B. The increase is due to external proteins that dissociate into the stabilizing solution.
C. The decrease is due to dissociation of transmembrane proteins into the vacuole.
D. The increase is due to dissociation of internal proteins into the stabilizing solution.
(1.5 marks)

Answer: D

Reason – as the inside of the membrane now becomes the outside of the vesicle and the weakly
associated proteins from that side (previously intracellular proteins) will now dissociate and
leach out into the stabilizing solution. (1.5 marks)

26. (a) The growth and development of a vertebrate embryo begin immediately after fertilization. The Table
below shows some of the events (S to Y) between fertilization and birth. (3 marks)
Table

S Development of the heart

T Placenta forms

U Hormones are released by the mother to start contractions

V Implantation of the embryo in the lining of the uterus

W Embryo forms into a ball of eight cells

X Development of nervous system

Y Fertilized ovum divides into two cells by mitosis

Put the events into the correct sequence from Y onwards (in the table provided in the answer sheet).

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Answer:

Y W V T S X U
This is the simple progression of events that lead to fertilization and development.
(0.5 marks for each consecutive right answer, total 3 marks, if chain breaks, then only marks upto
where the chain is intact)

(b) Cells of a tissue having an average doubling time of 12h were analysed by dye-staining for DNA-
chromosomes. In a hypothetical experiment described below, the different phases of the cell cycle
were observed among the dividing tissue. One could distinctly observe 1-2 dark stained nucleoli,
within each interphase nucleus. Sample P was untreated while Sample Q (similar tissue) was treated
with a newly discovered drug for 24h, before staining and analysis. Based on your interpretation of
the data provided, choose the correct statement(s). (1 mark)

P Q
A. The drug acts like an enhancer of cell division
B. The drug acts to stall the cells in anaphase
C. The drug acts to accelerate metaphase in the cells
D. The drug acts like an enhancer of chromosome disruption

Answer: B
Reason: No of mitotic cells remain the same – so its not enhancing cell division, more number of
Anaphase cells are visible; and because Anaphase comes after metaphase – cells are getting slowed
down or blocked/stalled in Anaphase, which are not proceeding to telophase; and hence the number of
those cells are over-represented. If the drug was to accelerate metaphase, then lesser number
of metaphase cells would be visible at any given point of time, as the cell cycle will be shorter, and
overall proportions of Anaphase and Telophase cells will be larger among the mitotically active cells
(which is clearly NOT the case). The multiple chromosomes of anaphase do not happen due to
chromosome disruption – the morphology of V shaped chromosomes zipping apart is HIGHLY typical
of anaphase.
(1 marks)

(c) In each of the following stages of the cell cycle of a diploid organism (not provided in sequence),
indicate whether the chromosome number is haploid (H), diploid (D) or could be either (E). Also
depending on if the chromosomes have replicated (R, sister chromatids joined at the kinetochore) or
not replicated (N/R), state the corresponding chromosome status in each phase of the cell cycle.

*interkinesis – phase between Meiosis I and Meiosis II (5 marks)

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Chromosome number Chromosome status Cell cycle phase

G2
Meiotic metaphase I
Mitotic metaphase
Meiotic interkinesis
G1

Answer:
Chromosome Chromosome status Cell cycle phase
number
D R G2
D R Meiotic metaphase I
D R Mitotic metaphase
H R Meiotic interkinesis
D N/R G1
(0.5 marks each – total 5 marks)

(d) Which of these phenomenon can be equated to or most closely represent the corresponding activity
associated with a phase of the cell cycle? Choose your options from the following: prophase, metaphase,
anaphase, interphase, S phase. Each option can be used only once. (5 marks)

Analogous to the status of DNA in the cell Phase of cell cycle

Teams when “in-a-tie” at a tug of war
Transition from a bowl of cooked noodles to a dehydrated pack
Serving equal portions of a cake to their two children
Noodles in its most relaxed form –cooked noodles in a bowl
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
(Note: A "TUG OF WAR" is a game where two groups pull/tug a tight-rope between the two, with the
aim of one team tugging the opposing team beyond a midpoint, OR to eventually dragging down the
opposing team completely towards one side).

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Answer:
Status of DNA Phase of cell cycle
Teams when “in-a-tie” at a tug of war Metaphase
Transition from a bowl of cooked noodles Prophase
to a dehydrated pack
Serving equal portions of a cake to their Anaphase
two children
Noodles in its most relaxed form –cooked Interphase
noodles in a bowl
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) S phase

These can be molecularly equated to the status of DNA chromosome compaction in each of these
phases of mitosis. In PCR primers anneal to allow DNA pol (Taq Pol) to copy the template DNA
and that’s what happens in S phase. (1 marks each, total 5 marks)

27. An experimenter tried to recapitulate the experiments done by Charles Darwin. He performed a series of
experiments on phototropism (growth towards light) of the coleoptile (the cap that covers the first leaves
of new seedlings of grass). The treatments they used are described in the first column of the table below:

Treatment Results: Growth towards light

I. Coleoptile untreated. Allowed
II. Tip of coleoptile cut off. Prevented
III. Opaque cap placed over coleoptile tip. Prevented
IV. Coleoptile cut halfway through. Allowed
V. Transparent cap placed over coleoptile tip. Allowed
VI. Opaque sleeve placed over base of coleoptile. Allowed

After the treatment, the plants were allowed to grow (as shown below) for a week and the observations
are as in the figure below (corresponding results are tabulated above).

(a) Comparison of treatments I and II shows which of the following option(s)? (1.5 marks)
A. Growth is promoted by cutting off the tip
B. The tip is the site of auxin synthesis.
C. The tip is necessary for the response to light.
D. There is a range of responses to a single treatment.

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Answer: Only C (1.5 marks). If additional options are marked then zero marks

(b) The fact that the effect of cutting off the tip (treatment II) is not simply due to wounding of the plant
is demonstrated by comparison of which of the treatments? Pick the correct option (s) from below:
(1.5 marks)
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. IV, V and VI

Answer: Only B (1.5 marks) If additional options are marked then zero marks

(c) Comparison of treatment III, V, and VI shows that… [pick the correct option(s) from below]:
(1.5 marks)
A. the tip plays a role in sensing the light
B. the base plays a role in sensing the light
C. confinement of the tip inhibits the response to light
D. confinement of the base facilitates the response to light

Answer: A (1.5 marks) If additional options are marked then zero marks

(d) To test the hypothesis that the response to light involves differential cell elongation, an experimenter
could… [pick the correct option(s) from below]: (1.5 marks)
A. measure the distance between marks made on the seedling after it has bent.
B. count the number of cells visible in a cross section of the coleoptile.
C. compare the length of cells on the sides of the stem towards, and away from the light.
D. repeat the experiment using light of a different wavelength

Answer: C (1.5 marks) If additional options are marked then zero marks

28. Can a healthy person spend overnight for 8 hours in an airtight room with all the windows and doors
closed without ventilation? Let’s find out! Consider a closed room of 10 × 10 × 10 ft.
I. Find out the volume of the room. Assume about 27 litres is equal to one cubic ft at normal temperature
and pressure.
II. Find out the initial total volume of air in the room.
III. Then at the rate of 21% of oxygen in air, calculate the total amount of oxygen present in the closed
room.

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A normal healthy person at rest or sleeping consumes 250 ml of oxygen per minute. If he is locked in the
room for 8 hours.
IV. Calculate the total amount of oxygen utilised by him in 8 hours.
V. Find out the difference in amount of oxygen between the initial and after 8 hours of oxygen content
in the room.
VI. State whether the person is dead or alive!!
Write down every step of your calculations clearly for each corresponding step (i-vi), with precise
description of what is being calculated with the corresponding formula in words. (6 marks)

Answer:
(I) The volume of the room = 10 X 10 x 10 ft = 1000 cubic ft. (0.5 marks)
(II) If in 1 cubic ft. 27 litre of air is present at normal temperature and pressure,
Total volume of air in the room= 27 X 1000 = 27,000 litres of air. (0.5 marks)
(III) Total volume of oxygen present in 27,000 litres of air at the rate of 21% will be
27000 X 21/ 100 = 5670 or expressed in moles; 253.12 moles or in mass; 8100g (8.1 Kg)
(1 mark)
(IV) If a man at rest/ sleeping consumes 250 ml/cc of oxygen, calculate the total amount of oxygen
consumed by man sleeping in the room for 8 hours will be:
250 X 60 (minutes/hour) X 8 (hours) = 120,000mililitres or (120 litres) or expressed in moles;
5.36 moles or in mass; 171.42g (0.171 Kg) (1 mark)
(V) Initial amount of oxygen in air in the room = 5670 litres
Amount of oxygen after the consumption by man in 8 hours = 120 litres (1 mark)
So, still 5670-120 = 5550 litres of oxygen is present. or expressed in moles; 247.76 moles
or in mass; 7928.8g (7.92 Kg) (1 mark)
(VI) Man will be very much alive. (1 mark)
Marks should be allotted to the steps as well, even if the previous answer is wrong and the current
answer as per the values and correct formulae taken are accurate. A previous error cannot be carried
forward in the deduction of marks.
If formula is correct and answer wrong – 0.5 marks.
If formula is wrong and answer is correct – 0 marks.

29. Airplanes are equipped with emergency slides that are used when an aircraft lands on water. The
emergency slide is rolled up and stored underneath the emergency door and is deployed when the
emergency exit on an aircraft is opened. This enables people to exit the aircraft and slide out. The aircraft
emergency slide must be very quickly inflated and expanded out. Sometimes, this inflation process is
carried out by a chemical reaction. The chemical that is commonly used is the thermal decomposition of
sodium azide (NaN3). When the emergency lever is pulled in the aircraft for opening the emergency slide,
an igniter compound ignites, and the resulting heat degrades sodium azide to form nitrogen gas. This is
the same phenomenon that is used in many car air bags. (13 marks)

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a) Dry Sodium azide in an inert atmosphere upon heating undergoes a decomposition reaction. One of
the products is nitrogen gas. The other is a reactive metal. Write a balanced equation for the
decomposition of sodium azide.
Answer: 2NaN3 (s) → 2Na (s) + 3N2 (g) or 2NaN3 → 2Na + 3N2

b) What is the mass of nitrogen gas released when 100 grams of sodium azide is decomposed?

Answer:
Molecular weight of sodium azide = 23 + 3(14) = 65 g/mol
Number of moles of sodium azide = 100 g/65 g/mol = 1.538 mol
Number of moles of nitrogen gas released = 3/2*1.538 mol = 2.307 mol
Molecular weight of nitrogen gas = 28 g/mol
Mass of nitrogen gas released = 2.307 * 28 = 64.596 g
c) The emergency chute connects the emergency exit with the land surface, as shown below. The width
of the chute is 120 cm and the depth is 60 cm. What is the volume of gas that needs to be filled in
the chute?

Answer:
Length of the chute = √(62 + 32 ) = 6.708 m = 670.8 cm
Volume of the chute = 120 * 60 * 670.8 = 4829760 cm3 = 4.83 m3

d) To achieve the volume requirement, how much sodium azide should be carried on an aircraft with 6
emergency slides? The pressure inside the chute is 1.3 atm and assume the temperature to be 273K.

Emergency door
Aircraft body wall
3 meters

6 meters

Land surface

High-energy nitrogen compounds are known for their energetic properties, often used as powerful
explosives, propellants, or components in pyrotechnics. These compounds contain a significant
amount of energy stored within their molecular structure due to the presence of multiple nitrogen
atoms, often in a highly strained or unstable configuration. Some high energy nitrogen compounds
like TNT (trinitrotoluene) are used as explosives. TNT (C7H5N3O6) breaks down to give only nitrogen
gas, hydrogen gas, carbon monoxide gas and elemental solid carbon.

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Answer:
1 atm = 1.013 * 105 Nm-2
PV = nRT
(1.3 atm * 1.013*105) * (6 * 4.83) = n * 8.314 * 273
n = 1681.43 moles of nitrogen gas
Number of moles of sodium azide = 2/3*1681.43 = 1120.95 moles
Mass of sodium azide required = 1120.95 mol * 65 g/mol= 72861.92 g = 72.862 kg

e) Write a balanced equation for the decomposition of TNT.

Answer: 2C7H5N3O6 (s) →2C (s) + 12CO (g) + 3N2(g) + 5H2 (g)

f) How many moles of total gas is released in the decomposition of 1 mole of TNT?

Answer: 10 moles of gas

g) If 140 grams of nitrogen gas was obtained from the complete decomposition of TNT, how much TNT
was used?

Answer:
Mass of one mole of nitrogen gas = 28 g
Number of moles of nitrogen gas = 140 g / 28 g/mol = 5 mol
Number of moles of TNT = 2/3*5 = 3.333 moles
Mass of TNT used = 3.333 * 227 g/mol = 756.591 g

30. Manufacturing of H2SO4: The manufacturing of sulfuric acid (H2SO4) is an important process. Contact
process is an industrial process that involves burning of elemental sulphur in presence of oxygen to sulfur
dioxide (SO2). The sulfur dioxide gas is then purified and cooled to remove impurities and moisture,
resulting in a relatively pure SO2 gas. The purified SO2 gas is mixed with excess air and passed over a
solid catalyst at 450⁰C and 1-2 atmospheric pressure to convert the SO2 into sulfur trioxide (SO3).
Vanadium(V) oxide (V2O5) on a solid support is commonly used as the catalyst. The sulfur trioxide is then
mixed with a carefully controlled amount of water to form sulfuric acid. This is a highly exothermic
reaction and must be carefully controlled to prevent overheating and ensure the safety of the process.
Sulfuric acid can be further concentrated by dissolving SO3 in dilute H2SO4, thus steadily increasing the
concentration of H2SO4. Ultimately, further dissolution of SO3 into H2SO4 results in the formation of
oleum (H2S2O7) also known as fuming sulfuric acid.
Concentrated H2SO4 is quite often used as a dehydrating agent. It reacts with glucose to give a brittle
spongy black mass of carbon. The other organic matter that reacts strongly with concentrated H 2SO4
include skin, cellulose, plant and animal matter.
Sulfide minerals are one of the major ores that are used for extraction of the different metals. Oxidation
of these minerals like iron pyrite (FeS) leads to formation of H2SO4 and during rainy season it forms
aqueous solution. The acidic nature of this solution is responsible for dissolution of metal ores and
generates highly toxic stream. (13 marks)
a) Write balanced equations for the 4 major reactions in the Contact process leading to formation of
oleum as described above.

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Answer:
S (s) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g)

2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) V2O5 , 450 oC, 1-2 atm 2SO3 (g)
SO3 (g) + H2O (l) → H2SO4 (aq)
H2SO4 (aq) + SO3 (g) → H2S2O7 (aq)

b) There are four steps in the process for manufacturing H2SO4. In a well optimized industrial process,
yields for each step in the process can exceed 98%. Sahil starts a new industry using the contact process
to manufacture H2SO4 in India. In the trial runs, he has optimization issues in the conversion of SO2
to SO3. He finds the purity of SO3 gas is low and the chief contaminant is SO2.
Gas out

Reactor Catalyst bed

Gas in
Choose all the correct steps that Sahil should take to optimize this process?
I. He should increase particle size of catalyst
II. He should increase the size of catalyst bed
III. He should increase the flow rate of SO2
IV. He should increase the contact time/residence time of SO2 with the catalyst bed
V. He should increase the concentration of oxygen in the air that he is using.
VI. He should increase the pressure of the gases in the reactor.
VII. He should increase the ratio of oxygen to SO2

Answer:
He should increase the size of catalyst bed
He should increase the contact time/residence time of SO2 with the catalyst bed
He should increase the pressure of the gases in the reactor.
He should increase the concentration of oxygen in the air that he is using.
He should increase the ratio of oxygen to SO2

c) After optimizing the process, Sahil finds that his overall yield did increase. His final yield for each
reaction is given below. What is the amount of H2SO4 Sahil gets when he uses 1000 kg of pure sulfur
in the process? And what is the overall percentage yield?
Step 1 yield = 95%
Step 2 yield = 88%
Step 3 yield = 99%

Write a balanced equation for what happens to glucose on contact with H2SO4.

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Answer:
Molecular weight of sulfur = 32 g/mol
Number of moles of sulfur = 1000 * 1000 g / 32 g/mol = 31250 mol
Expected Number of moles of sulfur dioxide = 31250 mol
Step 1 yield = 95%
Actual number of moles of sulfur dioxide obtained = 95/100*31250 = 29687.5 mol
Expected number of moles of sulfur trioxide = 29687.5 mol
Actual number of moles of sulfur trioxide = 88/100 * 29687.5 = 26125 mol
Expected number of moles of sulfuric acid = 26125 mol
Actual number of moles of sulfuric acid obtained = 99/100*26125 = 25863.75 mol
Mass of sulfuric acid obtained = 25863.75 * 96 g/mol = 2482920 g
Overall percentage yield = 25863.75/31250*100 = 82.764%

C6H12O6 (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → 6C (s) + 6H2O (l) + H2SO4 (aq)

d) H2SO4 is a strong dibasic acid. Write a step wise equation to show its dissociation in water.

Answer:
+
H2 SO4 + H2 O → HSO−4 + H3 O
+
HSO− 2−
4 + H2 O → SO4 + H3 O

31. Titrations are a common laboratory technique used in analytical chemistry to determine the concentration
of a substance in a solution. They involve the controlled addition of a reagent (known as the titrant) to a
sample (known as the analyte) until a chemical reaction is complete. In a titration it is critical to know the
exact concentration of the titrant to determine the concentration of an analyte. In Sahil’s industry, the
Quality Control department decides to make 1.0 Litre of 0.05 M of H2SO4 solution for some titration
activity and the work is assigned to John. To make this solution, John opens an old bottle of sulfuric acid
marked as 98% [by mass] (Density 1.8 g/mL) and takes out 5 mL of the liquid into a beaker. After about
15 minutes he comes back and adds 1.0 Litre of water to the concentrated sulfuric acid to dilute it. Then
he labels the beaker as 1 Litre 0.05 M H2SO4.
There are several mistakes that John has made in his preparation. Can you list out at least 3 mistakes that
John made, why is it a mistake and what is the remedy for the mistake? (4 marks)

Answer:
When John left the sulfuric acid open to atmosphere for 15 minutes, some of the sulfur trioxide gas
would have escaped, thereby changing the density of the acid solution. Instead, he should have carried
out the dilution immediately.

A standard flask of volume 1 L has to be used to make the dilution instead of adding 1L of water to 5
mL of the acid in a beaker. He prepared a solution of volume 1.005 L instead of 1.000 L leading to a
decrease in the final concentration than the expected value.

1L of 0.05 M sulfuric acid contains 4.9 g of sulfuric acid. By adding 5 mL of 98% sulfuric acid of
density 1.8 g/mL, he has added 8.82 g (=0.98*5*1.8) of sulfuric acid which is more than what is

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required to prepare 0.05 M of sulfuric acid. Instead he should have used 2.8 mL (=4.9/(.98*1.8)) of the
concentrated acid.

Dissolution of concentrated acid in water is a highly exothermic reaction. One has to add concentrated
acid dropwise to excess of water with constant swirling/stirring to prevent build up of large amount of
heat that can make the acid spurt out and/or the container to crack. Here, John adds water to the acid
which is a safety hazard. Instead, he could have taken some water in the standard flask. Added the acid
dropwise with constant swirling and then made up the solution to 1 L with water.

32. The concept of centre of masses plays an important role in analysing the dynamics of collection of
particles and extended objects. The position of centre of mass (CM) represents the point where entire mass
can be assumed to be concentrated. In a simple case as shown the position of centre of mass (Xcm) can be
expressed as (ms and xs are the masses and positions of the respective particles). All positions are
measured with respect to same reference point along the same line.
𝑚1 , 𝑥1 𝑚2 , 𝑥2 𝑚3 , 𝑥3
𝑚1 𝑥1 + 𝑚2 𝑥2 + 𝑚3 𝑥3 + ⋯
𝑋𝐶𝑀 =
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 + 𝑚3 + ⋯
Based on the above information answer the following questions (5 marks)
a) The centre of mass of the system of three particle given in the figure is given by.

2kg, −6cm 10kg, 0 cm 8 kg, 4 cm

Answer:
2X(−6)+8X4 20
𝑋𝐶𝑀 = = = 1 cm
2+10+8 20

b) Two particles of mass 6 kg and 9 kg are separated by 12 cm. If the centre of mass is at the origin
then find x1 and x2.
𝑥1 𝑥2

6kg CM 9 𝑘𝑔
12 cm

Answer:
9𝑥2 −6x1
6+9
= 0 or 9𝑥2 − 6𝑥1 = 0 or 3𝑥2 = 2𝑥1
And 𝑥2 + 𝑥1 = 12
Solving the two equations, we get is 𝑥1 = 7.2 cm and 𝑥2 = 4.8 cm

c) The 6 kg mass is displaced by 3 cm towards right. By what distance the 9 kg mass be moved in
order that the position of CM of the system does not change.
Answer: 6Δ𝑥1 = 9Δ𝑥2 or 6 × 3 = 9Δ𝑥2 or Δ𝑥2 = 2cm towards left.

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33. A ball is thrown up with a velocity u from a tall building of height h. The position of the ball from the
ground level is measured with respect to time. The data is provided in the table below.
(5 marks)

Time (s) Position (m)

1 114
3 106
5 50

From the given data find the initial value of u, height of building h and acceleration due to gravity g,

Answer:
1
The equation of motion is 𝑦 = ℎ + 𝑢𝑡 − 2 𝑔𝑡 2 . From the given data we have
1
114 = ℎ + 𝑢 − 2 𝑔 or 228 = 2ℎ + 2𝑢 − 𝑔
9
106 = ℎ + 3𝑢 − 2 𝑔 or 212 = 2ℎ + 6𝑢 − 9𝑔
25
50 = ℎ + 5𝑢 − 𝑔 or 100 = 2ℎ + 10𝑢 − 25𝑔
2
Solving the three equations simultaneously, the value of
ℎ = 100 m, 𝑢 = 20 m s−1 and 𝑔 = 12 m s −2

34. The knowledge of universal law of gravitation and the circular motion helps you to obtain the relation
between the period and the radius of the circular orbit. Orbits of solar planets are nearly circular. The
following table provides the mean radii of solar planets and the corresponding period. Plot an appropriate
graph and hence calculate mass of the Sun. Showcase your skills of approximation techniques and short
listing the data. (10 marks)
–11 2 –2
Given: Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67 x 10 Nm kg

Planet Mean Radius in AU Time Period in Earth Years

1 Mercury 0.39 0.24
2 Venus 0.72 0.62
3 Earth 1.00 1.00
4 Mars 1.52 1.88
5 Jupiter 5.20 11.90
6 Saturn 9.58 29.5
7 Uranus 19.22 84.00
8 Neptune 30.05 164.80

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Answer:
𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝑚𝑣 2
Universal law of gravitation, 𝐹 = 𝑅2
and Equation of circular motion 𝐹 = 𝑅
.
𝑚𝑣 2 𝐺𝑀𝑚 𝐺𝑀
Equating, = ⇒𝑣= √ .
𝑅 𝑅2 𝑅
2𝜋𝑅 𝑅
Time period is given by, 𝑇 = 𝑣
= 2𝜋𝑅√𝐺𝑀.
4𝜋2 𝑅3 4𝜋2 𝑅3 4𝜋2
Squaring, 𝑇 2 = 𝐺𝑀
⇒𝑀 = 𝐺𝑇 2 . i.e., 𝑀 = 𝐺 (𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒)
We can now treat the data to get the slope.

Planet R in AU 𝑹𝟑 (AU)3 T in Earth Years 𝑻𝟐 (Yr)2

1 Mercury 0.39 0.059 0.24 0.0484
2 Venus 0.72 0.373 0.62 0.3844
3 Earth 1.00 1 1.00 1
4 Mars 1.52 3.511 1.88 3.5344
5 Jupiter 5.20 140.60 11.90 141.61
6 Saturn 9.58 879.217 29.5 870.25
7 Uranus 19.22 7100.02 84.00 7056
8 Neptune 30.05 27135.22 164.80 27159.04

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2.55×(365×24×60×60)2
From the graph, 𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒 = 2.5×(1.49×1011 )3
= 1.01 × 301 × 10−21

𝑆𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒 = 307.02 × 10−21 𝑠 2 𝑚−3

4𝑋3.142
The mass of sun is 𝑀 = 6.67×10−11 ×307×10−21 = 1.93 × 1030 𝑘𝑔

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35. It is known that when a small spherical ball of radius r

At t = 0,
moves inside water, water exerts a resistive force Fr on released from A
the ball opposite to direction of motion, expressed as rest System moves
𝐹𝑟 = (6π × 10−3 )𝑟𝑣 in SI units. Where v is the speed down on
of the ball. Two small solid balls A and B of radius r and release
2r respectively, made up of same material, are tied at B
two ends of a massless thread and the system (Ball B
hanging from ball A via thread) is just immersed in a
pond filled with water as shown in the adjacent figure. Water
At instant t = 0, the system is released from rest and
allowed to fall vertically inside water. At t = t1 s, the
system attains a constant velocity. Compute

(a) Mass of ball A and Ball B

(b) Tension in the thread at t = 0 s
(c) Acceleration of the system at t = 0 s
(d) Tension in the thread at t >> t1 s
(e) Velocity of the system at t >> t1 s

(Given: Density of material of balls = 2.5 g cc–1, Density of water =1 g cc–1, Radius of Ball A = 1 mm,
g = 9.8 m s–2 ) (10 marks)

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Answer:
Putting all values in SI
4 4 22
(a) Mass of ball A: 𝑚 = π𝑟 3 𝑑 = ( ) (0.001)3 (2.5 × 103 )
3 3 7
−5
𝑚 = 1.0476 × 10 kg
4
Mass of ball B: 𝑚B = 3 π(2𝑟)3 𝑑 = 8𝑚
= 8.380 × 10−5 kg
(b) At t = 0 s system is at rest hence Fr=0.If downward acceleration of the system is a, then the
eq. of vertical motion are :
𝑇1 + 𝑚𝑔 − 𝑇ℎ1 = 𝑚𝑎 … (1)
8𝑚𝑔 − 𝑇1 − 𝑇ℎ2 = 8𝑚𝑎 … (2)
𝑇ℎ2 = 8𝑇ℎ1 … (3)
Putting this in eqn. (2) and solving eqns. (1) and (2) we get
𝑇1 = 0
(c) At t = 0, substituting 𝑇1 = 0 in eqn. (1)
denisty of water 1 6mg
𝑚𝑎 = 𝑚𝑔 − 𝑇ℎ1 = 𝑚𝑔 [1 − ( )] = 𝑚𝑔 (1 − ) =
density of ball 2.5 10
6g
𝑎= = 5.88 m s−2
10
(d) At t >> t1 s, Let the system will be falling with a uniform velocity v (a = 0).
If Fr =F on ball A then Fr= 2F on ball B. Then the eq. of vertical motion are:
𝑇2 + 𝑚𝑔 − 𝑇ℎ1 − 𝐹 = 0 … (4)
8𝑚𝑔 − 𝑇2 − 8𝑇ℎ1 − 2𝐹 = 0 … (5) (since Th2 =8 Th1)
Solving eq. (4) and (5) for eliminating F, we get
6𝑚𝑔
𝑇2 = 2(𝑚𝑔 − 𝑇ℎ1 ) = 2 ( 10 ) = 1.2 × 1.0476 × 10−5 × 9.8 = 1.23 × 10−4 N
At t >> t1 : Solving eqns. (4) and (5) for eliminating mg and Th1,
3
we get 𝐹 = 𝑇2 = 1.5 × 1.23 × 10−4 N = 1.845 × 10−4 N
2
−3 )𝑟𝑣
(6π × 10 = 1.845 × 10−4 N
1.845×10−4
𝑣= 6×3.14×10−3 ×10−3
= 9.79 m s −1

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Section 1 and 2 Answer keys

Q No Answer KEY
1 C
2 D
3 B
4 A
5 D
6 D
7 D
8 B
9 C
10 C
11 B
12 C
13 C
14 D
15 D
16 D
17 A and C
18 B and D
19 A, B and C
20 B and C
21 C and D
22 B, C and D
23 B and D
B and D or
24 also only B

***********************

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