NHB AM 2019 Previous Year Paper PDF

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Previous Year Paper

National Housing Bank

2019
National Housing Bank 2019 Previous Year Paper

Reasoning & Computer Aptitude

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
There are 9 persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X who live on nine different floors of a building but
not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is as 1st floor and just above floor is as 2nd
floor and so on till the topmost floor is as 9th floor. Each one of them has a different profession i.e.
Teacher, Lawyer, Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Chartered Accountant, Banker, Clerk and Manager
(not necessarily in the same order) and like different mobiles viz. Apple, HTC, One plus, Lenovo,
Asus, Sony, Samsung, Oppo and LG (not necessarily in the same order). U lives on an odd-
number floor below the floor on which S lives. There are 5 floors gap between the floor on which
U and Q live. The person who is Manager lives at the topmost floor. There are 2 floors gap
between the floors of S and W. S lives on an even-number floor but below the floor number 6 and
is Architect. W lives above the floor of S and likes LG mobile and lives immediately above the
person who is Doctor. There are three persons live between the one who like Asus and Sony
mobile. U likes HTC mobile and P likes Apple mobile and is Chartered Accountant and Manager
respectively. There is one floor gap between the one who is Teacher and Lawyer. R lives
immediately below the floor on which X lives who likes Samsung. Lenovo is liked by S. R does not
like Asus. The one who likes One plus and Sony mobile is Teacher and Clerk respectively. Not
more than two persons live between the persons who is Doctor and the person who is Banker. T
lives on 6th floor and lives immediately above the one who is Engineer and likes Oppo.

Question No. 1
If V is related to Engineer, Q is related to Doctor similarly X is related to?
Options :
1. Clerk
2. Teacher
3. Manager
4. Banker
5. Chartered Accountant
Answer : Chartered Accountant

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Question No. 2

The person who likes Sony mobile has what profession?

Options :

1. Doctor
2. Architect
3. None
4. Lawyer
5. Clerk
Answer : Clerk

Question No. 3

Which of the following combination is true?

Options :

1. S- Lenovo - Banker
2. U- Apple - Chartered Accountant
3. V- One plus - Doctor
4. Q- LG - Engineer
5. X- Samsung - Doctor
Answer : X- Samsung – Doctor

Question No. 4

Who among the following lives exactly between the floor on which V and X live?

Options :

1. W
2. No one
3. T
4. P
5. None of these
Answer : T

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Question No. 5

Which mobile is liked by the person who lives on 6th floor?

Options :

1. One plus

2. Lenovo

3. Oppo

4. None of these

5. HTC

Answer : Oppo

Direction:- Study the given information and answer the questions:

When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it

arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and its

rearrangement.

Input: 23 past 63 quarter 53 champ 14 warm 42 learn 56 provide

Step I: 57 23 63 quarter 53 champ 14 warm 42 learn provide past h

Step II: quarter g 57 23 53 champ 14 warm 42 learn provide past h 62

Step III: 52 quarter g 57 23 14 warm 42 learn provide past h 62 champ l

Step IV: learn j 52 quarter g 57 23 14 warm provide past h 62 champ l 43

Step V: 22 learn j 52 quarter g 57 14 provide past h 62 champ l 43 warm j

Step VI: provide f 22 learn j 52 quarter g 57 past h 62 champ l 43 warm j 15

Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.

As per the rules followed in the given steps find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 34 board 25 raise 17 unit 53 meeting 48 relief 29 order

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Question No. 6

Which element is exactly between ‗relief‘ and ‗28‘ in last step of the given arrangement?

Options :

1. meeting
2. 52
3. raise
4. j
5. none of these
Answer : j

Question No. 7

What is the position of ‗board‘ from the left end in the fifth step?

Options :

1. Sixth
2. Eighth
3. Fifth
4. Tenth
5. None of these
Answer : Eighth

Question No. 8

Which of the following is the sixth step of the arrangement based on the given input?

Options :

1. 24 board j relief j 52 order j 49 unit g 28 meeting h 35 raise i 16


2. board j 24 relief j 52 order j 49 unit g 28 meeting k 35 raise i 16
3. board j 24 relief j 52 j order 49 unit g 28 meeting h 35 raise i 16
4. 24 relief j 52 order j 49 board 17 unit g 28 meeting h 35 raise i
5. There is no such step
Answer : There is no such step

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Question No. 9

In which step the elements ‗raise 17 relief unit g 28 ‘ found in the same order?
Options :
1. Step V
2. Step IV
3. None of these
4. Step III
5. Step VI
Answer : Step III

Question No. 10

In step VI ‘24‘ is related to ‗raise‘ and in step III, ‗52‘ is related to ‗h‘. In the same way in step II ‗34‘
is related to?
Options :
1. 28
2. relief
3. g
4. unit
5. meeting
Answer : relief

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below:

Seven boxes P, L, A, X, M, D and B are placed one above another but not in the same order.
Each box has different number of balls i.e. 57, 38, 93, 25, 90, 43 and 56, again not in the same
order. There are two boxes placed between A and B. More than three boxes gap between the
boxes which has 25 and 90 balls, which is placed above of the box which contains 25 balls. There
are two boxes gap between D and X, which has 56 balls. There are two boxes gap between M
and which has 57 balls. M is placed above of D. Box which has 38 balls was placed just above of
D and just below of A. Box A, D and B don‘t have 57 balls. Box P is placed above of L, which has
93 balls.

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Question No. 11

Which of the following box is placed just below of B?

Options :
1. D
2. X
3. L
4. P
5. None of these
Answer : P

Question No. 12

Which of the following pair of combinations is correct as per the given information?

Options :
1. D – 25
2. A – 25
3. B - 56
4. Both 1 and 3
5. Both 2 and 3
Answer : D – 25

Question No. 13

Which of the following box contain 43 balls?

Options :

1. X
2. D
3. B
4. P
5. None of these
Answer : None of these

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Question No. 14

How many boxes are placed between B and M?

Options :

1. Two

2. One

3. None

4. More than three

5. Three

Answer : Three

Question No. 15

Which of the following box contain 38 balls?

Options :

1. B

2. D

3. M

4. P

5. None of these

Answer : M

Direction:- In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action

numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the

basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested courses of

action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

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Question No. 16

Statement: There has been an unprecedented increase in the number of requests for berths in

most of the long distance trains during the current holiday season.

Courses of Action: I. The railway authority should immediately increase the capacity in each of

these trains by attaching additional coaches. II. The people seeking accommodation should be

advised to make their travel plan after the holiday.

Options :
1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. either I or II follows
4. neither I nor II follows
5. both I and II follow
Answer : Only I follows

Question No. 17

Statements:

The Minister questioned the utility of the space research programme and suggested its

replacement by other areas of felt national needs.

Conclusions:

I) Exploring the space does not contribute to critical national needs.

II) Research should be oriented to national needs.

Options :
1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Either I or II follows
4. Neither I nor II follows
5. Both I and II follow
Answer : Both I and II follow

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Direction:- Following question consists of a statement followed by two assumptions


numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Question No. 18

Statement: "Use our product to improve memory of our child. It is based on natural herbs and

has no harmful side effects." - An advertisement of a pharmaceutical company.

Assumptions:

I. People generally opt for a medical product which is useful and has no harmful side effects.

II. Improving memory of child is considered as important by many parents.


Options :
1. Only assumption I is implicit
2. Only assumption II is implicit
3. Both I and II are implicit
4. Either I or II is implicit
5. Neither I nor II is implicit
Answer : Both I and II are implicit

Direction:- Each of the following question consists of a statement followed by 2 arguments

I and II. Give answer

Question No. 19

Statement: Drinking and rave parties have become fashion among the present college youth
which diverts them from studies.
Arguments:
I. The state government should make it a rule to disallow the students from entering Pubs and
Bars.
II. The parents as well as the colleges should impose strict discipline among the college going

youth.

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Options :

1. if only argument I is strong

2. if only argument II is strong

3. if either I or II is strong

4. if neither I nor II are strong

5. if both I and II follow

Answer : if only argument II is strong

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below:

Seven persons are there in a family of three generations. There are two married couples in the

family. V is the granddaughter of Y. X is the daughter of Y. U is the spouse of T who is the

daughter of Q. V who is the sibling of S is the only daughter of U. X is unmarried.

Question No. 20

If X is married to N then how is N related to T?

Options :

1. Father

2. Brother-in-law

3. Father-in-law

4. Brother

5. None of these

Answer : Brother-in-law

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Question No. 21

How is X related to S?

Options :

1. Mother-in-law

2. Maternal Aunt

3. None of these

4. Sister-in-law

5. Niece

Answer : Maternal Aunt

Question No. 22

How is Y related to U?

Options :

1. Father-in-law

2. Father

3. Mother-in-law

4. Either 1 or 3

5. None of these

Answer : Either 1 or 3

Direction:- In each of the questions below is given some statements followed by some

conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at

variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of

the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly

known facts.

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Question No. 23

Statement:

Some Pages are Copy


Only a few Copy are Times
All Pages are Paste
Conclusion:
I. All Copy can never be Times
II. All Pages can be Times
III. Some Paste are not Times.
Options :
1. Only II and III follow
2. Only II follows
3. Only I and II follow
4. Only III follows
5. None follows
Answer : Only I and II follow

Question No. 24
Statement:
Some Displays are Designs
Only a few Designs are Elements
Only Element is Data
Conclusion :
I. All Data can be Design
II. Some Elements are not Design
III. All Elements are Display is a possibility
Options :
1. Only II and III follow
2. All follow
3. Only I and II follow
4. Only II follows
5. Only I and III follow
Answer : Only II follows

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Question No. 25

Statement: Only a few foxes are sharps.

No sharp is tasty.

Only goods are tasty.

Conclusion:

I. No goods is sharp.

II. All foxes being goods is a possibility.

III. All goods being tasty is a possibility.

Options :

1. Only II and III follow

2. Only II follows

3. Only I and II follow

4. Only I and III follow

5. Only I follows

Answer : Only II and III follow

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Eight persons Esha, Vicky, Taru, Sagar, Ajit, Ricky, Arpit and Kunal are sitting in a straight line.
Some of them are facing north while some are facing south, but not necessarily in the same order.
Sagar sits third to the left of the one who sits second to the right of Taru. Arpit is an immediate
neighbor of neither Taru nor Kunal. Esha does not face south direction. More than two persons sit
between Ricky and Ajit. Only two persons sit between Arpit and Vicky. Kunal sits fourth to the
right of the one who sits immediate left of Sagar. Arpit does not face same directions as Vicky. Ajit
sits to the left of Kunal and faces opposite direction to Kunal. Sagar and Taru neither sit at any of
the extreme ends nor sit adjacent to each other. Those who sit at extreme ends do not face same
direction. Ricky sits second to the left of Vicky.

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Question No. 26

Four of the following five belong to a group in a certain way, find which of the one does not belong

to that group?

Options :

1. Taru
2. Vicky
3. Sagar
4. Ricky
5. Ajit
Answer : Sagar

Question No. 27

How many persons sit between Sagar and Taru?

Options :

1. Two
2. Four
3. No one
4. Three
5. One
Answer : Four

Question No. 28
Who among the following sits immediate right of Arpit?
Options :
1. Ricky
2. Esha
3. Sagar
4. None of these
5. Taru
Answer : None of these

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Question No. 29

How many persons are facing north direction?

Options :

1. Six

2. Three

3. Four

4. Two

5. Five

Answer : Four

Question No. 30

Which of the following pair sit at the extreme ends?

Options :

1. Vicky, Arpit
2. Esha, Vicky
3. Esha, Ricky
4. Ricky, Arpit
5. Kunal, Ricky
Answer : Esha, Ricky

Direction:- Study the following information to answer the given questions:

In a certain code,

―language join question certain‖ is written as ‗15%Q, 8%W, 22$G, 13%C‘

―surge tribe anticipated highest ‖ is written as ‗24$P, 6$W, 5$T, 17$K‘

―literal comment sense exaggerated ‖ is written as ‗22$Q, 13$K, 6$G, 20$Z‘

―worst travel celebrated widely ‖ is written as ‗5%T, 2$Q, 22%G, 2%K‘

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Question No. 31

Which of the following denotes ‘19 $Q 16 %P 22 $C‘ code?

Options :
1. meaning apart train
2. respect ability tuned
3. aspect aptitude enter
4. interact forward carry
5. None of these
Answer : interact forward carry

Question No. 32

The code for the word ‗currently levelled‘ is

Options :
1. 15%F 13*L
2. 16#N 14%S
3. 28%Y 15%V
4. None of these
5. 13%G 22$W
Answer : 13%G 22$W

Question No. 33

The code ‗12 $C ‘ denotes which of the following word?

Options :
1. family
2. preview
3. matured
4. gesture
5. None of these
Answer : matured

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Question No. 34

Which of the following is the code for ―appropriate‖?

Options :
1. 24$R
2. 21$W
3. 13%G
4. 34%Y
5. None of these
Answer : 24$R

Question No. 35

Which of the following is the code for ‗linear important growth stimulate ‘?

Options :
1. 29%C, 26$E, 19%L, 26$E
2. 16$O, 6$V, 13%K, 18%T
3. 6$L, 18%E, 21%E, 20$C
4. 5$E, 13%L, 15$E, 13%C
5. None of these
Answer : 16$O, 6$V, 13%K, 18%T

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the questions:

P & Q means P is 3m in north of Q

P % Q means P is 15m in south of Q

P @ Q means P is 12m in east of Q

P # Q means P is 6m in west of Q

H # U, P & Q, V % H, Q & N, N @ V, P # M.

The questions below are based on the above statement

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Question No. 36

Which point is the farthest point for V?

Options :
1. U
2. Q
3. M
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
Answer : M

Question No. 37

What is the total distance between M and N?

Options :
1. 9m
2. 6m
3. 12m
4. 21m
5. None of these
Answer : 12m

Question No. 38
In a row of all facing the north, Madhu is Thirteenth from the left end and Seema is fifteenth from
the right end. Rakesh, who is second to the right of Madhu, is fifth to the left of Seema in the row.
How many persons are there in the row?
Options :
1. 34
2. 32
3. 33
4. 40
5. None of these
Answer : 34

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Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions:

MIPA5N%T7B4#JE$2TD*18H3U6@9FW&K

Question No. 39

How many numbers in the given series are immediately preceded by a consonant and

immediately followed by a symbol?

Options :

1. One

2. Two

3. None

4. Three

5. None of these

Answer : One

Question No. 40

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which of the following

does not belong to the group?

Options :

1. PNI

2. 7#T

3. 2*T

4. U93

5. None of these

Answer : 2*T

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Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Eight persons go to different cities one after another. Person who goes to Raipur goes before the
person who goes to Shimla and after O. There are as many persons go after L as before the
person who goes to Udaipur. P goes before Q and after the person who goes to Gwalior. Two
persons go between M and N who goes Ahmedabad after L and before K. Not more than three
persons go after J who goes just before the person who goes to Udaipur. Person who goes to
Chandigarh go before the person who goes to Gwalior and after the person who goes to Kolkata.
Three persons go between K and L who goes to Bengaluru.

Question No. 41

Number of persons goes between J and K is same as the number of persons goes between M

and _____?

Options :
1. Person who goes to Chandigarh
2. P
3. Person who goes to Bengaluru
4. None of these
5. N
Answer : Person who goes to Bengaluru

Question No. 42

Which of the following city does J go?

Options :

1. Raipur
2. Kolkata
3. Chandigarh
4. None of these
5. Gwalior
Answer : Gwalior

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Question No. 43

Who among the following goes to Chandigarh?

Options :
1. M
2. O
3. J
4. K
5. None of these
Answer : O

Question No. 44

How many persons go before the person who goes to Gwalior?

Options :
1. Five
2. None
3. Four
4. Three
5. None of these
Answer : Four

Question No. 45

Four of the following five are alike in certain way and hence form a group, find the one which does

not belong to that group?

Options :
1. J- Gwalior
2. L- Ahmedabad
3. P- Raipur
4. M- Chandigarh
5. K- Shimla
Answer : J- Gwalior

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General Awareness & Computer Knowledge

Question No. 46

How many working groups have been formed by CBIC to suggest ways to facilitate exports,

especially through ecommerce, and improve compliance by way of curbing tax evasion?

Options :

1. 4

2. 3

3. 5

4. 6

5. 2

Answer : 3

Question No. 47

The _______________ and Indian Space Research Organization(ISRO) signed an agreement on

the selection

Options :

1. Indian Navy

2. Indian Army

3. Indian Air Force

4. NITI Ayog

5. NASA

Answer : Indian Air Force

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Question No. 48

Who is current Union Commerce and Industry minister of India?

Options :
1. Piyush Goyal
2. Suresh Prabhu
3. Hardeep Singh
4. Puri Som Parkash
5. None of the above
Answer : Piyush Goyal

Question No. 49

Prime Minister Narendra Modi was honoured with the 'Order of Zayed', the _________'s highest

civilian award, on Saturday in recognition of his pivotal role in

Options :
1. Iran
2. Israel
3. Indonesia
4. UAE
5. Burma
Answer : UAE

Question No. 50
Who was appointed as new Election Commissioner?
Options :
1. Sushil Chandra
2. Rajeev Kumar
3. Piyush Singh
4. Rakesh Agarwal
5. Ashwani Kumar
Answer : Sushil Chandra

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Question No. 51

The Reserve Bank of India has initiated the process to set up a digital PCR. What is the full form

of PCR?

Options :
1. Private Credit Registry
2. Public Credit Registry
3. Public Card Registry
4. Payment Credit Ratings
5. Public Credit Ratings
Answer : Public Credit Registry

Question No. 52

Raavan- Enemy of Aryavarta is a book written by

Options :
1. Amish Tripathi
2. Jhampa Lahiri
3. Venkaiah Naidu
4. Sophie Ansel
5. None of the above
Answer : Amish Tripathi

Question No. 53

The Kanger Valley National Park is located in

Options :
1. Rajasthan
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Karnataka
5. Odisha
Answer : Chhattisgarh

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Question No. 54

India on 26th Feb successfully test fired a Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile (QRSAM) from a

test range off the coast of Chandipur. In which state the Chandipur coast is located?

Options :

1. Odisha

2. Telangana

3. Kerala

4. Gujarat

5. Tamil Nadu

Answer : Odisha

Question No. 55

The design of the National War Memorial has a layout comprising four chakras. Which of the

following chakra is not one of them?

Options :

1. Amar Chakra

2. Veerta Chakra

3. Tyag Chakra

4. Rakshak Chakra

5. Sanatan Chakra

Answer : Sanatan Chakra

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Question No. 56

Atal Kisan - Majdoor canteens will be open by which of the following state to provide meals at
concessional rate?
Options :
1. Bihar
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Haryana
4. Maharashtra
5. None of these
Answer : Haryana

Question No. 57
India‘s tallest railway pier bridge — 100 m tall, across river Makru in the Tamenglong district of

Manipur was built by?

Options :
1. Border Roads Organisation
2. Eastern Frontier Railway Construction Organisation
3. Northeast Frontier Railway Construction Organisation
4. Ministry of Transport and Highways
5. None of these
Answer : Northeast Frontier Railway Construction Organisation

Question No. 58
In which of the following place ―Operation Nakail‖ was launched by the police authorities?
Options :
1. Indore
2. Kanpur
3. Saharanpur
4. Ghaziabad
5. None of these
Answer : Ghaziabad

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Question No. 59

Which one of the following dams is in Odisha?

Options :
1. Hidkal Dam
2. Panchet Dam
3. Karjan Dam
4. Indravati Dam
5. Kohira Dam
Answer : Indravati Dam

Question No. 60

24 February is celebrated annually as ________.

Options :
1. Central Excise Day
2. National Deworming Day
3. World Radio Day
4. National Science Day
5. None of these
Answer : Central Excise Day

Question No. 61

Who was named as EY Entrepreneur of the Year 2018 at the EY World Entrepreneur of the Year
Award (WEOY) in Monte Carlo?
Options :
1. Siddhartha Singh
2. Siddhartha Sharma
3. Siddhartha Lal
4. Siddhartha Kher
5. Siddhartha Kumar
Answer : Siddhartha Lal

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Question No. 62

Where is the headquarters of Suryoday Small Finance Bank?

Options :

1. Varanasi
2. Bengaluru
3. Guwahati
4. Navi Mumbai
5. Chennai
Answer : Navi Mumbai

Question No. 63

Which of the following is currency of China?

Options :

1. Yuan
2. Yen
3. Ringgit
4. Rufiya
5. Tenge
Answer : Yuan

Question No. 64

Who was named as brand ambassador of PUMA and would lead PUMA‘s #DoYou conversation
that aims to motivate women across the nation to be strong and accomplish their goals?
Options :
1. P V Sindhu
2. Saina Nehwal
3. Hima Das
4. Vinesh Phogat
5. Mary Kom
Answer : Mary Kom

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Question No. 65

Which of the following city will host the 4th Internet of Things (IoT) India Congress in 2019?

Options :

1. Mumbai

2. Bengaluru

3. Pune

4. Kochhi

5. Chennai

Answer : Bengaluru

Question No. 66

Recently India agreed to set up a Joint Working Group on Counter Terrorism to develop a

comprehensive approach to combat the menace, including cross- border terrorism, terrorist

financing and recruitment of terrorists with ________?

Options :

1. France

2. Russia

3. Morocco

4. Bangladesh

5. Germany

Answer : Morocco

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Question No. 67

Train 18, the 16-coach train which is built in 18 months at a cost of Rs 97 crore by the Integral

Coach Factory Chennai, is names as what Express?

Options :

1. Shatabdi

2. Rajhdhani

3. Vande Bharat

4. Bharat Train

5. Ek Bharat

Answer : Vande Bharat

Question No. 68

What is the name of the common digital currency that is launched by the central banks of the UAE

and Saudi Arabia?

Options :

1. Maher

2. Aber

3. Rafa

4. Takka

5. Aufa

Answer : Aber

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Question No. 69

Rajasthan Day is celebrated on 30th March every year on which the state Rajasthan came into

existence as it was previously known as Rajputana. In which year the state was formed?

Options :

1. 1949

2. 1950

3. 1947

4. 1962

Answer : 1949

Question No. 70

Which state government will set up 1,000 ‗gaushalas‘ or cow shelters in the State in the next four

months to accommodate around one lakh stray cows and their progeny?

Options :

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Odisha

5. Gujarat

Answer : Madhya Pradesh

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Question No. 71

European Investment Bank tied up with which bank to finance the renewable energy sector by

providing new support for wind energy projects through India?

Options :
1. Canara
2. SBI
3. PNB
4. Syndicate
5. Andhra
Answer : SBI

Question No. 72

Who has signed as brand ambassador of PNB MetLife, a life insurance company?

Options :
1. Saina Nehwal
2. Hima Das
3. P V Sindhu
4. Vinesh Phogat
5. Marry Kom
Answer : P V Sindhu

Question No. 73

‗One Family, One Job‘ scheme was launched by which state?

Options :
1. Assam
2. Odisha
3. Meghalaya
4. Bihar
5. Sikkim
Answer : Sikkim

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Question No. 74

Who is appointed as the Managing Director & CEO of the IDFC First Bank?

Options :
1. S Balakrishnan
2. V Vaidyanathan
3. V K Swamy
4. Rakesh Sood
5. None of these
Answer : V Vaidyanathan

Question No. 75

What is the minimum paid up equity capital required for payments bank?

Options :
1. 600 Cr
2. 500 Cr
3. 300 Cr
4. 200 Cr
5. 100 Cr
Answer : 100 Cr

Question No. 76

How many regional rural banks (RRB) will combine to form Tamil Nadu Grama Bank?

Options :
1. 4
2. 3
3. 5
4. 2
5. 6
Answer : 2

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Question No. 77

ISRO has successfully launched EMISAT and 28 customer satellites by which launch vehicle from

Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota?

Options :
1. PSLV- C44
2. PSLV-C46
3. PSLV- C47
4. PSLV- C45
5. PSLV-C49
Answer : PSLV- C45

Question No. 78

When was Midday Meal Scheme started?

Options :
1. 1990
2. 1995
3. 1998
4. 2001
5. 2005
Answer : 1995

Question No. 79
The first district court in India to allow e-payments of court fee, judicial deposits, fines and
penalties is
Options :
1. Pune District Court
2. Mangaluru District Court
3. Visakhapatnam District Court
4. Indore District Court
5. None of these
Answer : Pune District Court

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Question No. 80

Which of the following e-commerce company that partnered with the Federation of Indian Micro

and Small & Medium Enterprises (FISME) to encourage MSMEs to sell products online through e-

commerce?

Options :

1. Snapdeal

2. Flipkart

3. Pepperfry

4. Amazon India

5. None of these

Answer : Amazon India

Question No. 81

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) proposed a new set of framework for REITs and

InvITs (Infrastructure Investments Trusts). What does ―E‖ represent in ―REIT‖?

Options :

1. Estate

2. External

3. Empowerment

4. Exchange

5. None of these

Answer : Estate

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Question No. 82
India became the _____ largest steel producing country according to the world steel association
report, released in January 2019?
Options :
1. 3rd
2. 5th
3. 4th
4. 2nd
5. None of these
Answer : 2nd

Question No. 83
What is the name of the agri-digital platform launched by Bank of Baroda along with 6 other firms?
Options :
1. Baroda Krishi
2. Baroda Agri
3. Baroda Kisan Sathi
4. Baroda Farming
5. Baroda Kisan
Answer : Baroda Kisan

Question No. 84
Reserve Bank of India(RBI) penalised Karnataka Bank with Rs. ___________ , for the delay
caused in following the guidelines mentioned in ‗Time bound implementation and strengthening of
SWIFT related controls.
Options :
1. 5 Crore
2. 2 Crore
3. 6 Crore
4. 4 Crore
5. None of these
Answer : 4 Crore

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Question No. 85

The highest number of free LPG connections is distributed in which of the following state as a part

of the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)?

Options :

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Bihar

3. Gujarat

4. Madhya Pradesh

5. Maharashtra

Answer : Uttar Pradesh

Question No. 86

Which of the following shows current status of the window –

Options :
1. Tool bar
2. Status bar
3. Scroll bar
4. Address bar
5. None of these
Answer : Status bar

Question No. 87

Which of the following connects other computers through telephone lines?

Options :
1. Fire wire
2. AMIDI
3. Disk Controller
4. Modem
5. None of these
Answer : Modem

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Question No. 88

__________ is a thin plate or board that contains electronic components.

Options :
1. Circuit board
2. ROM
3. Scanner
4. Hard disk
5. None of these
Answer : Circuit board

Question No. 89

A ______________ is a program that decides whether traffic coming into a server or going out

should be allowed.

Options :
1. Router
2. Proxy
3. Antivirus
4. Firewall
5. IPS
Answer : Firewall

Question No. 90

Which of the following is an output device?

Options :
1. Scanner
2. keyboard
3. mouse
4. printer
5. CPU
Answer : printer

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Question No. 91

__________is the process that connects to a network without the use of cables.

Options :
1. Open source
2. Distribution
3. Free source
4. Centralization
5. None of these
Answer : None of these

Question No. 92

A permanent storage device that stores information using electricity, such as a flash drive or

memory card.

Options :
1. Optical Storage Device
2. Input Device
3. Electronic Storage Device
4. Magnetic Storage Device
5. None of these
Answer : Electronic Storage Device

Question No. 93

Process of placing data in a temporary working area for another program to process in known as–

Options :
1. Debugging
2. Patching
3. Spooling
4. Porting
5. None of these
Answer : Spooling

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Question No. 94

If we press CTRL + ESC it will

Options :

1. Undo the last command

2. Spell check

3. Open the start menu

4. Close a Window

5. None of these

Answer : Open the start menu

Question No. 95

The process that starts Operating System when the user turns on a computer system is known as

_________.

Options :

1. Thrashing

2. Freezing

3. Booting

4. Compressing

5. None of these

Answer : Booting

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English Language

Directions (Q.96-98): In each question below, a sentence is given with a part of it printed in
bold type. That part may contain a grammatical error. Each sentence is followed by
phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4). Find out which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold to
correct the error, if there is any, and to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and
correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘ No correction is required’ , mark 5) as the
answer.

Question No. 96

From testing to mortality, India‘s official statistics has cracks through which women could be
slipping.
Options :
1. Have cracks throughout which
2. Had cracks through that
3. Has cracks among which
4. Have cracks through which
5. No correction is required
Answer : Have cracks through which

Question No. 97
The student community is been left in severe distress by the tribulations of the COVID-19
pandemic.
Options :
1. Have been left in
2. Has been left in
3. Had being left with
4. Was been left with
5. No correction required
Answer : Has been left in

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Question No. 98

Many of these students rightly saw their dedication to gaining an education on a secure path to

freeing themselves from the chains of prejudice and penury.

Options :

1. To gain an education so

2. To gaining an education with

3. To gaining an education as

4. To be gaining an education so

5. No correction required

Answer : To gaining an education as

Directions (Q.99-103): In each of the questions, a sentence is divided into five parts namely
A, B, C, D and E in which one of the parts is given in bold and is grammatically and
contextually correct. You have to identify which fragment, apart from the bold one, is
correct in terms of grammar and usage.

Question No. 99

The fact the shares of Reliance Industries (A)/ are trading near all-time highs (B)/ showed that

investors are (C)/ salivating to the prospect (D)/ of another large stake sale (E) .

Options :
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. All are correct
Answer : B

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Question No. 100

In a matter of a few months, the virus has been spread (A)/ in the region imperiling the life of a

billion people (B)/ by savaging economies and (C)/ exposing the iniquitous societies living for

(D)/ an almost non-existent, pathetic and crumbling public health infrastructure (E).

Options :

1. D

2. A

3. C

4. E

5. All are correct

Answer : E

Question No. 101

The size of the oil spill at the ship (A)/ and the extent of the environmental harm (B)/ were not

known, but the disaster (C)/ has the potential to be the worse since 1991 (D)/ when 260,000

tonnes of oil leaked of the Angolan coast (E).

Options :

1. D

2. C

3. A

4. B

5. All are correct

Answer : C

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Question No. 102

As the market liberalises and renewable energy grows, (A)/ blockchain offers a way to (B)/ better

handle the increasingly complex (C)/ and decentralised transactions between users,(D)/ large-

and small-scale producers, retailers and even traders and utilities (E).

Options :

1. A

2. C

3. E

4. B

5. All are correct

Answer : All are correct

Question No. 103

Bank charges imposed to (A)/ savings account holders hurt the poor (B)/ the most who

probably adapted banks (C)/ from hesitation and do not have much knowledge (D)/ about the

banking system (E).

Options :

1. A

2. C

3. E

4. D

5. All are correct

Answer : E

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Direction (Q.104-108): In the following questions, each sentence has two blanks. Choose

the appropriate set of words for the blanks that best fits in the context of the sentence:

Question No. 104

Since public money is ________ for the banking sector, banks have a ________ towards the

owners of that money, that is, the general public.

Options :

1. Attractive, role

2. Important, responsibility

3. Important, due

4. Dangerous, fear

5. None of these

Answer : Important, responsibility

Question No. 105

With its own deployments matching the Chinese deployments, India is now not in a hurry to
________and wants that the Chinese should honour their __________ made during the Corps
Commander-level talks held in July and go back to their permanent locations.
Options :

1. Deescalate, commitments

2. Escalate, discussion

3. Alleviate, commitments

4. Supervise, Charge

5. None of these

Answer : Deescalate, commitments

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Question No. 106


Researchers in cell biology found ________ evidence of an ________ cell architecture.
Options :
1. Framing, important
2. Peculiar, extra
3. Mounting, intricate
4. Rising, minor
5. None of these
Answer : Mounting, intricate

Question No. 108


In the case of late nineteenth century cell research, progress was _______ by competition among
the various attitudes and issues ________ from cell biology and biochemistry.
Options :
1. Raised, coming
2. Fueled, derived
3. Caught, assumed
4. Collected, extracted
5. None of these
Answer : Fueled, derived

Question No. 108


________ oneself a professional is an ethical act because it is not a silent and private act, but an
_________ and public one.
Options :
1. Demanding, complicated
2. Announcing, awkward
3. Professing, excluding
4. Professing, articulated
5. None of these
Answer : Professing, articulated

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Directions (Q.109 – 113): In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. Against each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once surrounded and protected by vast wilderness, many of the national parks are adversely
__(109)__ by activities outside their boundaries. The National Park Organic Act established the
national park system and empowered the Secretary of the Interior to __(110)__ activities within
the parks. Conditions outside park boundaries are not subject to regulation by the Park Service
unless they involve the direct use of park resources. Several approaches to __(111)__ the
national parks from external degradation have been proposed, such as one focusing on
__(112)__ federal legislation granting the National Park Service broader powers over lands
adjacent to the national parks. Legislation addressing external threats to the national parks twice
passed the House of Representatives but died without action in the Senate. Also brought to the
table as a possible remedy is giving the states bordering the parks a significant and meaningful
role in developing federal park management policy. Because the livelihood of many citizens is
linked to the management of national parks, local politicians often __(113)__ state involvement in
federal planning. But, state legislatures have not always addressed the fundamental policy issues
of whether states should protect park wildlife.

Question No. 109

Choose the most appropriate word.

Options :

1. Effect

2. Affected

3. Imposed

4. Discovered

5. None of these

Answer : Affected

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Question No. 110


Choose the most appropriate word.
Options :
1. Disclose
2. Arrange
3. Manage
4. Showcase
5. None of these
Answer : Manage

Question No. 111

Choose the most appropriate word.

Options :

1. Protecting
2. Limiting
3. Enforcing
4. Withstanding
5. None of these
Answer : Protecting

Question No. 112

Choose the most appropriate word.

Options :
1. Achieving
2. Performing
3. Withholding
4. Enacting
5. None of these
Answer : Enacting

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Question No. 113

Choose the most appropriate word.

Options :

1. Encourage
2. Restrict
3. Reject
4. Protest
5. None of these
Answer : Encourage

Directions (Q.114-120): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words/ Phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
Since the late 1970‘s, in the face of a severe loss of market share in dozens of industries,
manufacturers in the United States have been trying to improve productivity—and therefore
enhance their international competitiveness—through cost-cutting programs. However, from 1978
through 1982, productivity—the value of goods manufactured divided by the amount of labor
input—did not improve; and while the results were better in the business upturn of the three years
following, they ran 25 percent lower than productivity improvements during earlier, post-1945
upturns. At the same time, it became clear that the harder manufacturers worked to implement
cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive edge.
With this paradox in mind, I recently visited 25 companies; it became clear to me that the cost-
cutting approach to increasing productivity is fundamentally flawed. Manufacturing regularly
observes a ―40, 40, 20‖ rule. Roughly 40 percent of any manufacturing-based competitive
advantage derives from long-term changes in manufacturing structure and in approaches to
materials. Another 40 percent comes from major changes in equipment and process technology.
The final 20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-cutting. This rule does not imply that
cost-cutting should not be tried. The well-known tools of this approach—including simplifying jobs
and retraining employees to work smarter, not harder—do produce results. But the tools quickly
reach the limits of what they can contribute.

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Another problem is that the cost-cutting approach hinders innovation and discourages creative
people. As Abernathy‘s study of automobile manufacturers has shown, an industry can easily
become prisoner of its own investments in cost-cutting techniques, reducing its ability to develop
new products. And managers under pressure to maximize cost-cutting will resist innovation
because they know that more fundamental changes in processes or systems will wreak havoc
with the results on which they are measured. Production managers have always seen their job as
one of minimizing costs and maximizing output. This dimension of performance has until recently
sufficed as a basis of evaluation, but it has created a penny-pinching , mechanistic culture in most
factories that has kept away creative managers.
Every company I know that has freed itself from the paradox has done so, in part, by developing
and implementing a manufacturing strategy. Such a strategy focuses on the manufacturing
structure and on equipment and process technology. In one company a manufacturing strategy
that allowed different areas of the factory to specialize in different markets replaced the
conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years the company regained its competitive
advantage. Together with such strategies, successful companies are also encouraging managers
to focus on a wider set of objectives besides cutting costs. There is hope for manufacturing, but it
clearly rests on a different way of managing.

Question No. 114

Improvement in productivity would automatically lead to which of the following outcomes?

Options :

1. Increase in sales

2. Improvement in competing ability on an international level

3. Personal growth

4. Enhanced performance

5. None of these

Answer : Improvement in competing ability on an international level

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Question No. 115

Which of the following words appears most similar in meaning to the word sufficed as used in the

passage?

Options :
1. Suffered
2. Survived
3. Sufficient
4. Exemplary
5. None of these
Answer : Sufficient

Question No. 116

Which of the following words appears most opposite in meaning to the word implement as used in
the passage?
Options :
1. Enforce
2. Hinder
3. Enact
4. Explore
5. None of these
Answer : Hinder

Question No. 117


Why did the manufacturers lose their ‗competitive edge‘?
Options :
1. By trying to implement cost-cutting.
2. By trying to increase the costs.
3. By changing the methods applied in the manufacturing process.
4. All of the above
5. None of the above
Answer : By trying to implement cost-cutting.

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Question No. 118

Cost - cutting approach proves more negative, rather than giving positive outcomes.

According to the information provided in the passage, the above statement is:

Options :
1. Definitely false
2. Probably false
3. Definitely true
4. Probably true
5. None of these
Answer : Probably true

Question No. 119

What among the following is / are one of the drawback/s of the cost-cutting approach?

Options :
1. It forces companies to avoid creativity.
2. It blocks innovative methods.
3. It neglects productivity.
4. Both 1 & 2
5. None of these
Answer : Both 1 & 2

Question No. 120

The process of manufacturing follows which of the following rules?

Options :
1. 20, 60, 20
2. 40, 40, 20
3. 20, 40, 40
4. 30, 20, 50
5. None of these
Answer : 40, 40, 20

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Quantitative Aptitude

Direction:- The questions given below contain two statements numbered I and II giving
certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Give answer

Question No. 121


What is the length of a rectangular playground?
I. The breadth of a rectangular playground is 1/2 of its length.
II. The area of that hall is 3200m2.
Options :
1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient.
2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient.
3. If either statement I or II is sufficient.
4. If both statement I and II together are not sufficient.
5. If both statement I and II together are sufficient, but neither of them alone is sufficient.
Answer : If both statement I and II together are sufficient, but neither of them alone is
sufficient.

Question No. 122


How much will it cost to paint the outer side of a cube measuring 6 feet on each side?
I. The cost of paint is Rs 30 per kg.
II. One kg of paint covers 30 square feet.
Options :
1. If statement I alone is sufficient but statement II alone is not sufficient.
2. If statement II alone is sufficient but statement I alone is not sufficient.
3. If either statement I or II is sufficient.
4. If both statement I and II together are not sufficient.
5. If both statement I and II together are sufficient, but neither of them alone is sufficient.
Answer : If both statement I and II together are sufficient, but neither of them alone is
sufficient.

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Direction:- In each of the question given below has one question and two statement

marked I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are

sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and.

Question No. 123

Jagriti was twice as old as her friend Pallvi 3 years ago. What is the present age of Pallavi?

I. Present age of Jagriti is 27 years.

II. The ratio of their present ages is 9 : 5.

Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement

II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in

statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. If the data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the

question.

4. If the data even in both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

and

5. If the data in both the statement I and II together are needed to answer the question

Answer : If the data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to

answer the question.

Direction:- Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give
answer.

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Question No. 124

How many boys are there in the class?

I. The number of girls is 30% of the number of boys.

II. The ratio of the number of boys to that of girls is 3:5.

Options :
1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer : If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.

Question No. 125

What is the speed of a boat in still water?

I. The boat covers a distance of 120km in 5 hours while running upstream.

II. It covers the same distance in 3 hours while running downstream.

Options :
1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Answer : If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

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Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

The following pie chart shows the degree distribution of books bought by the people in 5

different stores in December 2018.

Some males and females bought those books.

Question No. 126

If the number of males who bought the books in Store E is 52 more than the number of females

who bought the books in Store E, then find the total number of females who bought the books in

store E?

Options :
1. 151
2. 146
3. 172
4. 163
5. None of these
Answer : 163

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Question No. 127

If the total number of people bought the books from shop P is 20% more than the total number of

people bought the books from shop D, find the total number of people bought the books from

shop P and B together?

Options :

1. 640

2. 720

3. 560

4. 480

5. None of these

Answer : 720

Question No. 128

Find the ratio between the total numbers of people bought the books from store E to the total

number of people bought the books from store C?

Options :

1. 5:8

2. 7:6

3. 4:3

4. 7:8

5. None of these

Answer : 7:8

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Question No. 129

If in the month of February 2019, the total number of people bought the books from all the given

book stores is increased by 25% while comparing with the month of December 2018 and the

percentage distribution in Feb 2019 is same as Dec 2018, then find the total number of people

bought books in store A and B together in the month of Feb 2019?

Options :

1. 840

2. 900

3. 720

4. 660

5. None of these

Answer : 900

Question No. 130

Find the difference between the average number of people bought the books from store B and C

together and the average number of people bought the books from store D and E together?

Options :

1. 84

2. 90

3. 72

4. 60

5. None of these

Answer : 90

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Question No. 131

A dishonest dealer marks up the price of his goods by 50% & gives a discount of 10% to the

customer. He also uses a 900 gram weight instead of a 1 kg weight. Then find the profit percent

gain by the dealer.

Options :

1. 30%

2. 40%

3. 50%

4. 22%

5. None of these

Answer : 50%

Question No. 132

Two Stations A and B are 750 km apart. A bus leaves station A from station B and at the same

time another bus leaves station B to A. Both the bus meet 15 hours after they start moving. If the

bus starts from station A is 10 km/hr faster than the other one, then find the ratio between the

speeds of both the bus?

Options :

1. 4 : 3

2. 31 : 19

3. 18 : 7

4. 3 : 2

5. none of these

Answer : 3 : 2

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Question No. 133

Vishwas has Rs. 3500. He gives this money to Manoj on simple interest and after 4 years

received the double amount. If the interest rate is 5% more than the previous, in how many years

this amount will be doubled?

Options :

1. 3(1/3) years

2. 2(1/3) years

3. 6(1/3) years

4. 2(1/2) years

5. None of these

Answer : 3(1/3) years

Question No. 134

Nikhil and Vikas started a business by investing Rs. (x+10000) and Rs. (x-10000) respectively.

Nikhil withdrew Rs. 40000 at the end of the 10th month. If it is known that Vikas‘s share of 1st

year‘s profit of Rs. 2900 was Rs. 1200, then find the value of of ‗x‘.

Options :

1. Rs. 42000

2. Rs. 50000

3. Rs. 34000

4. Rs. 65000

5. None of these

Answer : Rs. 42000

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Question No. 135


The average age of a group of persons going for tour to Shimla is 11 years. 15 new persons with
an average age of 4 years join the group and their average age becomes 6 years. The number of
persons initially going for tour is?
Options :
1. 4 yrs
2. 2 yrs
3. 6 yrs
4. 12 yrs
5. 10 yrs
Answer : 6 yrs

Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are 2000 tourists (Male + Female) went for places in India like Manali, Auli, Dalhousie and
Solang. The percentage of total tourist went for Manali and Auli is 20% and 12% respectively. The
ratio of total tourist went for Dalhousie and Solang is 3:2. Total number of male tourist went for
Dalhousie is 50% of total tourist went for Dalhousie. The total male tourist went for Solang is
same as total female tourist went for Dalhousie. Total male to that of female tourist went for Auli is
2: 3. Total male tourist went for Manali is 18 more than the total female tourist went for Solang.

Question No. 136

Find the difference between the total Female tourists went for Dalhousie to that of total Male

tourists went for Manali?

Options :
1. 168
2. 330
3. 254
4. 210
5. None of these
Answer : 254

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Question No. 137


Find the ratio between the total tourists went for Solang to that of total Male tourists went for Auli?
Options :
1. 11:4
2. 17:3
3. 15:7
4. 12:5
5. None of these
Answer : 17:3

Question No. 138


Find the difference between the Male tourists to that of Female tourists went for all the given
places together?
Options :
1. 114
2. 173
3. 157
4. 132
5. None of these
Answer : 132

Question No. 139


Total Male tourists went for Dalhousie and Solang together is approximately what percentage of
total number of Female tourists went for Manali and Auli together?
Options :
1. 209%
2. 273%
3. 257%
4. 132%
5. None of these
Answer : 209%

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Question No. 140

Total Female tourists went for Dalhousie and Manali together is approximately what percentage

more/less than total tourists went for Auli and Dalhousie together?

Options :

1. 29% less

2. 31% more

3. 38% less

4. 23% more

5. None of these

Answer : 38% less

Direction:- Study the information carefully and answer the question asked below.

Following table shows the different rate by which population of countries P,Q,R and S increased

or decreased in given 3 year as compared to previous year.

Total Population in P, Q, R and S (2017) = 30000

Ratio of Population in Country P, Q, R and S (2017) is = 3:3:4:5

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Question No. 141


Total Population in P in 2020 is how much more or less than the total population in Country Q in
2020?
Options :
1. 512
2. 612
3. 552
4. 492
5. 382
Answer : 552

Question No. 142


Total number of populations in 2020 from all the country is increased or decreased by what % in
2017 from all countries together?
Options :
1. 15.52% increase
2. 12.46% decrease
3. 8.22% increase
4. 17.5% decrease
5. None of these
Answer : 15.52% increase

Question No. 143


Population from all countries in 2019 is how much more or less than the population from all in
2020?
Options :
1. 45725
2. 42635
3. 41595
4. 43975
5. None of these

Answer : 43975

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Question No. 144


Find the difference between total population from Q and S in 2019 to P and R in 2018.
Options :
1. 5365
2. 5155
3. 5545
4. 5685
5. 5295
Answer : 5295

Question No. 145


Which country has highest increase in the population as compared to 2017 to 2020?
Options :
1. S
2. R
3. Q
4. P
5. Both 1 & 3
Answer : P

Question No. 146


The ratio of the length of two trains A and B is 4:9 and the ratio of the time taken by both trains to
cross a man standing on a platform is 2:3. If the speed of the train A is 36 km/h find the speed of
the train B in m/s?
Options :
1. 30 m/s
2. 15 m/s
3. 20 m/s
4. 19 m/s
5. None of these
Answer : 15 m/s

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Question No. 147

A shopkeeper marked the price of an article 20% above the cost price and offers two successive

discounts of 12% and 8%. If the cost price of the article is Rs.1400, find the selling price of the

article?

Options :

1. Rs.1578.721

2. Rs.1218.243

3. Rs.1360.128

4. Rs.1406.242

5. None of these

Answer : Rs.1360.128

Question No. 148

4 years ago, the average age of the family of 5 members is 24 years. A baby is born now; the

average age of the family is same as before. Find the age of the baby?

Options :

1. 3 yrs

2. 5 yrs

3. 2 yrs

4. 7 yrs

5. 4 yrs

Answer : 4 yrs

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Question No. 149

If a boat travels 21 km more in downstream than in upstream in 3 hours and if the speed of the

Boat in still water is 23 kmph. Find the distance travelled by boat in downstream in 2 hours?

Options :

1. 50 km

2. 64 km

3. 184 km

4. 134 km

5. 53 km

Answer : 53 km

Question No. 150

From a rectangular sheet of length 20 cm and breadth 16 cm, 'x' equal sized circles of radius 3.5

cm are cut. Find the value of 'x', if the area of remaining sheet is 89 cm2?

Options :

1. 6

2. 10

3. 3

4. 12

5. None of these

Answer : 6

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Direction:- Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

The following bar graph shows the total number of employees (Officers and clerks) in 6 different
companies in a certain year.

Question No. 151

If the ratio between the total number of officers to that of clerks in the company P and R is 3 : 5

and 3 : 13 respectively and the percentage of clerks in the company Q is 80%, then find the sum

of the total number of officers in the company P, Q and R together?

Options :

1. 438

2. 546

3. 662

4. 714

5. None of these

Answer : 546

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Question No. 152

If the ratio between the total number of officers to that of clerks in the company S is 4 : 9 and the

total number of male officers in company S is 50% of total number of female officers, then the

total number of clerks in company S is what percentage of total number of female officers in

company S?

Options :

1. 360%

2. 240%

3. 350.2%

4. 337.5%

5. None of these

Answer : 337.5%

Question No. 153

Find the average number of employees in all the given companies together except company S?

Options :

1. 756

2. 568

3. 622

4. 474

5. None of these

Answer : 756

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Question No. 154

If the ratio between the total number of officers to that of clerks in company T is 4:7 and the

percentage of total number of officers in company U is 30%, then find the difference between the

total number of clerks in company T to that of company U?

Options :

1. 456

2. 268

3. 522

4. 336

5. None of these

Answer : 336

Question No. 155

Total number of employees in company P, R and T together is approximately what percentage of

total number of employees in company Q, S and U together?

Options :

1. 64%

2. 88%

3. 76%

4. 52%

5. None of these

Answer : 88%

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