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Cambridge IGCSE: Co-Ordinated Sciences 0654/22

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Cambridge IGCSE: Co-Ordinated Sciences 0654/22

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lnklinh2008
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Cambridge IGCSE™

CO-ORDINATED SCIENCES 0654/22


Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) May/June 2023
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.


*2701806778*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet


Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB23 06_0654_22/5RP
© UCLES 2023 [Turn over
2

1 Which is not a characteristic of all living organisms?

A excretion
B growth
C photosynthesis
D sensitivity

2 The diagram shows a specialised cell from a plant.

Z
Y
X

Which structures not found in animal cells are shown in the diagram and which structure often
found in other plant cells is missing?

structures structure found


not found in in other plant
animal cells cells

A W and X chloroplast
B X and Y nucleus
C Y and Z nucleus
D Z and W chloroplast

3 Which row shows the elements and the small molecules that are used to make the larger
molecules?

small larger
elements
molecule molecule

A carbon, hydrogen and oxygen glucose fats


B carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen amino acids fats
C carbon, hydrogen and oxygen glucose proteins
D carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen amino acids proteins

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23


3

4 Which type of molecules speed up chemical digestion?

A carbohydrates
B enzymes
C hormones
D fatty acids

5 The graph shows the effect of increasing light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis of a
submerged aquatic plant.

rate of
photosynthesis
X

light intensity

Which factor is limiting the rate of photosynthesis at X?

A carbon dioxide concentration


B humidity
C light intensity
D temperature

6 What is one of the functions of bile?

A denaturing lipase
B digesting fats
C emulsifying fats
D increasing acidity

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23 [Turn over


4

7 The diagram shows the circulatory system of a mammal.

lungs

X Y

heart

rest of body

Which row shows the correct names for blood vessels X and Y and for chamber Z?

X Y Z

A pulmonary artery aorta left ventricle


B vena cava pulmonary vein left ventricle
C vena cava aorta right ventricle
D pulmonary artery pulmonary vein right ventricle

8 During cold weather, warm blooded animals, such as mammals and birds, require more food.

Which statement explains the reason for this?

energy required to
rate of
maintain constant
respiration
body temperature

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23


5

9 The diagram shows an experiment using the shoots of seedlings.

light

control shoot shoot five


at start days later

light

lightproof cover shoot five


placed over shoot tip days later
at start

Which statement explains why the covered shoot tip does not grow towards the light?

A The lightproof cover decreases auxin production by the shoot tip.


B The lightproof cover keeps auxin distribution even on all sides of the shoot.
C The lightproof cover prevents auxin from diffusing from the shoot tip.
D The lightproof cover stimulates cell elongation without requiring auxin.

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23 [Turn over


6

10 The diagram shows a section through a flower.

P
Q

Which labelled structures are the anther and the ovary?

anther ovary

A R P
B R Q
C S P
D S Q

11 Which process results in the development of strains of antibiotic-resistant bacteria?

A artificial selection
B discontinuous variation
C natural selection
D selective breeding

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23


7

12 The diagram shows a food web.

jellyfish
turtles

phytoplankton
zooplankton

fish

shellfish
seabirds

Which groups of organisms are both primary and secondary consumers?

A fish and jellyfish


B fish and shellfish
C seabirds and turtles
D shellfish and zooplankton

13 The flow diagram shows the consequence of the overuse of fertilisers on farm land.

leaching fast growth death of fast growth death of


   
fertiliser of algae algae of X fish

Which group of organisms is represented by X?

A decomposers
B fish
C invertebrates
D plants

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23 [Turn over


8

14 Hexane and octane are liquid hydrocarbons that mix together.

Which apparatus is used to separate a mixture of these two liquids?

A B C D

xxxxxxxxx

heat
xxxxxxxxx

heat

15 When solid zinc carbonate is heated, a different solid and a gas are formed.

Which type of change occurs?

A chemical
B exothermic
C physical
D separation

190
16 An atom of osmium is represented by 76 Os.

How many neutrons are in this atom?

A 76 B 114 C 190 D 266

17 Aqueous potassium bromide reacts with aqueous silver nitrate to produce a cream precipitate.

What is the ionic equation for this reaction?

A Ag+(aq) + Br–(aq)  AgBr(s)

B Ag2+(aq) + 2Br–(aq)  AgBr2(s)

C K+(aq) + NO3–(aq)  KNO3(s)

D 2K+(aq) + NO32–(aq)  K2NO3(s)

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23


9

18 Which statement about the extraction of aluminium from its ore by electrolysis is correct?

A Aluminium gains electrons from the anode.


B Aluminium ions are oxidised at the cathode.
C Aluminium ore is called cryolite.
D Aluminium oxide is in the electrolyte.

19 Which statement explains why increasing the concentration of reactants increases the rate of a
reaction?

A The proportion of particles that possess the activation energy is greater.


B The particles collide more frequently.
C The particles collide more slowly.
D The particles collide with greater energy.

20 Copper(II) sulfate is produced by reacting copper(II) oxide with dilute sulfuric acid.

The stages in the process to produce pure dry crystals are listed.

1 Leave to crystallise in a cool place.


2 Filter the reaction mixture.
3 Press the crystals between dry filter papers.

4 Add copper(II) oxide until it is in excess.

5 Heat the filtrate to concentrate it.


6 Heat the dilute sulfuric acid.

What is the correct order for these stages?

A 642531

B 641253

C 642513

D 462153

21 The box lists four substances.

Br2 CO Cu Na

Which substance is an element that forms a basic oxide and coloured compounds?

A Br2 B CO C Cu D Na

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23 [Turn over


10

22 Car engines produce pollutant gases.

Which gases are removed by catalytic converters?

A carbon monoxide, nitrogen monoxide and sulfur dioxide


B carbon monoxide and nitrogen monoxide only
C nitrogen monoxide and sulfur dioxide only
D carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide

23 In the blast furnace, which substance is added to make slag?

A calcium carbonate
B carbon dioxide
C carbon monoxide
D coke

24 Which catalyst is used in the Contact process?

A iron

B phosphoric(V) acid
C nickel

D vanadium(V) oxide

25 Which statements about limestone are correct?

1 It contains calcium oxide.


2 It is used to manufacture lime.
3 It neutralises acidic industrial waste products.
4 It neutralises alkaline soil.

A 1 and 3 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 2 and 4

26 Naphtha is obtained by the fractional distillation of petroleum.

Which statements about naphtha are correct?

1 It burns to form carbon dioxide and water.


2 It is a mixture of hydrocarbons.
3 It is present in bottled gas.
4 The main component of naphtha is methane.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23


11

27 The structure of an addition polymer is shown.

H CH3

C C

CH3 H n

Which monomer is used to make this polymer?

A B C D
H H CH3 CH3 H H H CH3

C C C C C C C C

H H H H CH3 H H CH3

28 The diagram shows the speed–time graph for an object moving in a straight line.

speed

0
0 10
time / s

Which statement about the motion of the object is not correct?

A The acceleration is constant during the first 10 s.


B The acceleration steadily increases and then becomes constant.
C The rate of change of speed is constant during the first 10 s.
D The speed steadily increases and then becomes constant.

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23 [Turn over


12

29 A uniform beam has a mass of 12 kg and a length of 4.0 m. The beam rests on horizontal ground.

One end of the beam is now raised from the ground by a vertical force F. The other end of the
beam remains in contact with the ground and acts as a pivot.

F
uniform beam

240Nm
240Nm
2.0m 2.0m
4.0 m
pivot middle
moment = fd
The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg. m/d = f
240/4 = 60N
What is the value of F ?

A 6.0 N B 24 N C 60 N D 240 N

30 A solid block of weight 14 N rests on a horizontal table. The pressure on the table due to the block
is 70 Pa.

What is the area of the surface of the block in contact with the table?

A 0.20 m2 B 5.0 m2 C 98 m2 D 980 m2

31 Which object is mainly responsible for the energy stored in tides in the sea?

A Mars
B the Earth
C the Moon
D the Sun

32 Which statement about gas particles is not correct?

A Increasing the temperature of a gas makes the gas particles move more slowly.
B The gas particles are in constant random motion.
C The pressure of a gas is caused by the collision of gas particles with the container.
D Very small particles suspended in a gas are in constant random motion.

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23


13

33 Two methods of cooking are grilling under a red-hot heater and frying in a shallow metal pan.

heater
food shallow
metal pan
air

food

method 1: grilling method 2: frying

How does thermal energy pass through the air to reach the food in method 1 and how does
thermal energy pass through the bottom of the metal pan in method 2?

method 1 method 2

A convection conduction
B convection radiation
C radiation conduction
D radiation radiation

34 An object is placed in front of a plane mirror on a wall.

What are the characteristics of the image formed?

A same size as object and inverted top to bottom


B same size as object and laterally inverted (left to right)
C smaller than object and inverted top to bottom
D smaller than object and laterally inverted (left to right)

35 A ray of light in air enters glass at an angle of incidence of 34.

The refractive index of glass is 1.5.

What is the angle of refraction of the ray of light in the glass?

A 22 B 24 C 56 D 57

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23 [Turn over


14

36 Which material is used for the core of an electromagnet?

A aluminium
B copper
C iron
D steel

37 There is a current-carrying wire perpendicular to the page.

The direction of the current is into the page.

Which diagram shows the pattern and direction of the magnetic field around the wire?

A B

current current
into page into page

C D

current current
into page into page

38 When a straight conductor moves through a magnetic field, an electromotive force (e.m.f.) is
induced between the ends of the conductor.

Which factor does not affect the magnitude of the induced e.m.f.?

A the length of conductor in the field


B the resistance of the conductor
C the speed at which the conductor moves
D the strength of the magnetic field

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23


15

39 Cables transmit electrical power.

The power input to the cables is constant, but the voltage input is increased.

What happens to the power loss from the cables, and what happens to the current in the cables?

power loss current in


from cables cables

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

40 The diagram shows a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field. The direction of the current
is shown.

current

N S

In which direction is the force on the wire due to the magnetic field?

A downwards
B to the left
C to the right
D upwards

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2023 0654/22/M/J/23


The Periodic Table of Elements
Group

© UCLES 2023
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2
H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
16

85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

0654/22/M/J/23
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium nihonium flerovium moscovium livermorium tennessine oganesson
– – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).

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