Participant Guide CSP Exam Prep Course 1 1 PDF

CSP Exam Prep
Course
Langlois Weigand & Associates, Inc.
Topic Title | Speaker/Presenter Name | Event | Date 0

Welcome Course Participant
ASSP is an authorized provider of CEUs by the International Association for Continuing Education and Training
(IACET). This course is eligible for a CEU award. To receive CEUS, you need to:
▪ Actively participate in the course

▪ Complete the activities and assignments
After this course, you can obtain the CEUs you received for the course attended. Simply log-in to your account at
www.assp.org and click the “Transcripts” tab. You can also contact ASSP’s customer service team at
[email protected] or +1.847.699.2929 to request your transcript.
Finally, your feedback on this course is important. We continuously assess our programs to ensure we are
meeting your professional and education needs. After your course ends, please take a moment to complete the
course evaluation that you will receive via e-mail.
On behalf of ASSP, thank you for attending this course!
Best Regards,
Tracy Flaherty
Sr. Education Program Specialist
EDUCATION
YOU CAN TRUST AND ACCESS
Drive results at your organization and advance your understanding of safety all from the convenience of
your office, home or anywhere an Internet connection is available. Take advantage of our online courses with
interactive video lectures, virtual discussions and scenario-based/real-world assessments. Courses include:
Prevention Through Design Essential Risk Assessment Tools

4 Weeks | 1.4 CEUs 4 Weeks | 1.4 CEUs
Z590.3 Standard included Build a solid foundation on how to mitigate risk
Develop a foundational understanding and learn before it leads to injuries and catastrophic events.
from hazard identification, risk assessment practical Practice using risk assessment tools to identify
applications and case studies. hazards, analyze and evaluate.
Implementing ISO 45001 Risk Assessment

4 Weeks | 2.1 CEUs 5 Weeks | 2.1 CEUs
IS0 45001 Standard included Develop skills to help proactively manage and
Understand this game-changing safety and health identify workplace risks that you might not find any
standard about engaging management, identifying other way. Identify ways you can identify hazards,
organizational responsibilities, promoting risk-based then analyze and evaluate the risks they pose.
approaches and assessing risk.
Safety Management Specialist
Managed Fall Protection Certification Preparation
5 Weeks | 2.1 CEUs Self-Paced | 2.1 CEUs
ANSI/ASSP Z359.2-2017 Standard included Earn the Safety Management Specialist certification
Become an expert in how to protect your and show you have the skills to manage operations
organization from the perils associated with safely and use safety management systems.
employees falling from heights.
Learn more at ASSP.org/Education

See you next year!
SAVE THE DATE

June 6 – 9, 2021
Denver, CO
For more information visit Safety.ASSP.org
ENHANCE YOUR KNOWLEDGE
ASSP has the books every safety professional needs to build a reference library that
enhances their on-the-job knowledge. Visit our online store to browse and buy the latest
titles from industry experts.
Accident Investigation Introduction to Risk Management Tools

Techniques Fall Protection for Safety Professionals
Safety Professionals Safety Professionals Safety Supervision

Handbook, Volume 1 Handbook, Volume 2
Learn more at assp.us/safetybooks

INTRODUCING THE NEW Z10
The ANSI/ASSP Z10.0-2019 is the U.S. Occupational Health and
Safety Management Systems Consensus Standard
What’s new?
▪▪ Emphasis on process and system
improvement
▪▪ Integrates with other management
systems
▪▪ Aligns with ISO 45001 for
organizations desiring conformance
to both standards
Benefits
▪▪ Improve your organization’s
performance
▪▪ Provide a safe and healthy
environment for your workers
▪▪ Reduce your risk of occupational
injury, illness and fatalities
Safety is a process, not an outcome to be achieved.

For all the latest news about Z10.0, go to assp.us/standards
TAB 1
CSP
EXAM
PREPARATION
COURSE
Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc.

19317 W. Piney Point
Baton Rouge, LA 70817
OFC (225) 755-4099
CSP EXAM PREPARATION COURSE AGENDA
Day 1
A.M. Introduction, Probability, Statistics and Engineering Economy
P.M. Advanced Science and Math

Management Systems
Day 2
A.M. Risk Management, Advanced Safety Concepts
P.M. Emergency Preparedness, Fire Prevention, and Security

Occupational Health and Ergonomics
Day 3
A.M. Environmental Management Systems
P.M. Training/Education, Law, and Ethics
Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc.

19317 W. Piney Point
Baton Rouge, LA 70817
(225) 755-4099
[email protected] [email protected]
https://sites.google.com/site/langloisweigandschedule/home
Copyright—March, 2020
Copyright© Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc., Page 2

ABOUT THE INSTRUCTORS
C. David Langlois, CSP is President of Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc. Prior
to entering the consulting field full-time, Mr. Langlois served as an Instructor at
Louisiana State University from 1981 until 1989. He holds a Bachelor of Science
in Industrial Technology from LSU and a Masters Degree in Business
Administration from the University of North Dakota. He has over 35 years
experience in the safety and training field. He has presented programs at several
regional and national conferences. Mr. Langlois has served as President of the
Greater Baton Rouge Chapter of ASSE, Vice President, Region VI from 1986-1990,
and VP, Communications from 1990-91. He was named a Fellow by ASSE in 2010.
Michael A. Weigand, CSP is Vice President of Langlois, Weigand & Associates,

Inc. Before entering the consulting field full-time he served as an Instructor at
Louisiana State University from 1980 until 1989. He holds a Bachelor of Science
degree in Occupational Safety & Health from Our Lady of Holy Cross College in
New Orleans, LA, a Masters Degree in Safety Management from the University of
Arizona, and a Doctor of Education in Safety Education from Texas A&M
University. He has over 40 years experience in the safety & health career field. In
addition to teaching the ASP/CSP Refresher seminar for both NIOSH and ASSE,
he has presented programs at several regional and national conferences.

SEMINAR OBJECTIVES
1. Provide participants with an intensive review of the materials, skills, and

knowledge considered essential for successfully passing the Examination.
2. Enhancing the professional competencies of participants.
This will be accomplished by:
* Identifying certification requirements of the Board of Certified Safety

Professionals for the CSP designation.
* Reviewing test taking strategy, test format, scoring procedures, and recent
examination results.
* Identifying the principle reference materials available.
* Discussing the range and scope of information covered in the exam.
* Utilizing a "testing" format to review content materials.
* Providing an opportunity to practice solving analytical (math) problems.
* Providing opportunities for discussion and questions.
* Identifying limitations in exam preparation.
2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018

Exams 1,257 1,272 1,438 1,922 1,875 2,074
Pass 74.6% 83.1% 80.4% 78.2% 87.6% 89.3%
Rate
Mean 107.43 107.37 109.1 109.1 118.6 118.8
Note: The Passing Score on all Versions is 63%% (CSP9) (110/175)

(CSP10--_______)

TEST-TAKING STRATEGY
In order to do your absolute best, consider the following:
Reduce anxiety by being adequately prepared for the examination.
When taking the exam:
A. General
▪ Read the instructions carefully
▪ Monitor the TIME - keep track of your progress
▪ Answer the questions you know or can work first - if you are
unsure or the problem appears unduly complicated, skip over
and come back as time permits
▪ Remember, one question one point
▪ Finish the test - there is no penalty for guessing
B. Specific
▪ Read each question thoroughly identifying key ideas, words,

exceptions, or phrases. You may want to draw a sketch to help
understand its intent
▪ Anticipate the obviously correct answer
▪ Eliminate any obviously incorrect answers
▪ Select the most appropriate response by the process of

elimination
▪ Mark the answer key accurately

CONVERSIONS
1. 1 mile = __________ ft = ____________km
2. 1 cu ft = __________ gallons
3. 1 gal = __________ liters
4. 1 kg = _________ g
5. 1 liter = __________ milliliters
6. 1 gal of water = __________ lbs
7. 1 liter = _________ cm3 = _________ g of water = _____ kg of water
8. 1 m3 = _______ liters = ________ kg of water
9. 1 meter = ___________ millimeters
10. 1 meter = ___________ feet
11. 1 meter = __________ cm
12. 1 Pa = __________ N/m2
13. 1 kPa = _________ pascals

Other Conversions to Know (Not a Complete List)
Acceleration of Gravity = 32.2 ft/sec2 = 9.8 m/sec2
Avagadro's Number = 6.02 x 1023 atoms or molecules/gram-mole
1 atm = 14.7 psi = 760 mm Hg = 29.92 inches Hg = 101.3 kPa
1 mole of gas = 22.4 liters @ 0° C; 1 mole of gas = 24.45 liters @ 25° C, 1 atm
Density of water = 1 g/cm3 = 1 kg/liter = 8.34 lb/gal = 62.4 lb/ft3
Change in Water Pressure = .433 psi/ft = 9.8 kPa/m
Absolute Temperature Kelvin equals Celsius plus 273
1 watt = 1 joule per second
Other Conversions or Constants may be provided in the body of the question.

There is no longer a formula sheet for the exam. There may also be additonal
equations which are "decoys," not needed to solve the problem.

CALCULATOR
1. 312 961 (USE THE x2 KEY)
2. √324 = 18
3. 304 = 810,000
4. Log 100 = 2
5. Antilog of 3 = 1,000
6. e-5 = 0.007
7. 5! = 120
8. 1/0.02 = 0.02-1 = 50
9. SIN 30o = 0.5
10. Arcsine 0.5 = 30o
11. (5.43 x 1012) x (6.78 x 107) = 3.68 x 1020
12.  = Button
Note: There is an on-screen calculator for use on the exam.

PROBABILITY
Probability - ratio of ways an event can occur in a specified manner to the total
number of ways the event can occur
R B G
Mutually Exclusive - occurrence of one outcome excludes the possibility of

another (if coin toss results in heads, it can't be tails)
Independent Event - occurrence of one event does not affect subsequent events
(coin toss turning up heads on first toss does not affect outcome of second toss)
Dependent Event - occurrence of one event does affect subsequent events

(selection of a single card from deck does affect the outcome of the second choice)
Addition Rule - the probability that one of several mutually exclusive events will
occur is the sum of the separate probabilities [OR]
Multiplication Rule - the probability that two (or more) independent events will
occur is the product of their separate probabilities [AND]

Sample Problems
1. A machine produces 0.02 defective parts. The probability that none of ten
parts sampled will be defective is ____________.
Ps + Pf = 1
0
1
2. The probability that some of the above parts are defective is 2
_________. 3
.
.
.
.
10 .
1.00
3. The probability that all of the above parts are defective is ____________.

STATISTICS
There are two major branches of statistics: descriptive and inferential
Descriptive - summary information about a population (measures of central

tendency, variance) [See Venn Diagram]
Inferential - generalizing from sample to population (prediction, inference)
Mean - sum of measurements divided by the total number of measurements
Median - middle value when measurements are arranged in order
Mode - measurement that occurs most often (highest frequency)
Range - difference between smallest and largest measurements
Standard Deviation - positive square root of the variance (indicates how closely
the measurements vary about the mean) (BCSP )
Σ(x 2 )
s= Sample Standard Deviation
N −1
Σ(x 2 )
σ= Population Standard Deviation
N
Note: In the above equations x = X − X

The Normal Distribution
34% 34%
13.5% 13.5%
2.5% 2.5%
-3 -2 -1 0 +1 +2 +3
54 76 98 120 142 164 186
Average Score—120 Standard Deviation--22
NOTE: ± 1 sd = 68% ± 2 sd = 95% ± 3 sd = 99.7%
Determine the following using these data points: 8, 12, 25, 25, 28, 36, and 41
1. Median - ____________
2. Mode - ____________
3. Range - ___________
4. Mean - ___________ (use calculator’s statistics function)
5. Sample Standard Deviation - ________ (use calculator’s statistics function)
6. Population Standard Deviation - _______(use calculator’s statistics function)
Note: The approximate standard deviation can be determined by dividing the range
by four.

Sample Questions
1. This bell curve indicates the results of the latest environmental monitoring.
What best describes these scores?
1. Exposures have a wide range of concentrations
2. The measurements are too high, and evacuation is required
3. The concentrations are IDLH
4. Concentrations are closely grouped about the mean
2. This curve describes the age of your employees. How would you interpret
this data?
1. The company needs to start hiring older workers now
2. The company has no concerns in the immediate future
3. There is a shortage of experience workers
4. No problems for the next 100 years
3. Which of the following graphs illustrates the concentration of a hazardous

material in your workplace is high in a number of employee samples?
1. Graph on the right because it right skewed
2. Graph on right because it is pointed right
3. Graph on the left because it is left skewed
4. Graph on the left because of the concentration

ENGINEERING ECONOMY
Present Value - value today of a future payment or series of payments at a set

interest rate for a fixed number of years
Annuity - a series of payments of a fixed amount for a specified number of years

(payments are made at the end of the year)
P = Present Value (Present Worth) BCSP Formulas

F = Future Value (Compound Sum)
A = Amount of cash flow per time period (annually, quarterly, monthly)
i = Interest rate per time period
n = # of time periods
NOTE: A, i, and n must all refer to same time period.
F = P(1 + i)n P = F(1 + i)-n
(1 + i)n − 1 i(1 + i)n

P = A( ) A=P ( )
i(1 + i)n (1 + i)n − 1
i (1 + i)n − 1
A=F ( n
) F=A ( )
(1 + i) − 1 i

SAMPLE QUESTIONS:
1. You have just bought a certificate of deposit for $10,000.00. If the APR is
5% and the time 5 years, how much interest will you make over the life of
the CD if interest is compounded annually? One of these formulas may be
used to solve this problem.
1. $11,600
2. $12,800 F = P(1 + i)n
3. $5,400
4. $2,800 P = F(1 + i)-n
2. The initial cost of a safety project will be $10,000. This project costs
$2,000.00 per year to maintain, but will save the company $4,000 each year
over its life expectancy of 6 years at 7%. Should the company invest in the
startup?
1. Yes, it is financially attractive
2. Yes, it is going to save lives
3. No, it is financially undesirable
4. No, it is not going to work anyway
i (1 + i)n − 1
A=F ( ) F=A ( )
(1 + i)n − 1 i
(1 + i)n − 1 i(1 + i)n

P = A( ) A=P ( )
i(1 + i)n (1 + i)n − 1

3. You have borrowed money to train all employees in hazardous waste disposal
procedures. The balloon loan balance of $14,000 is due in 4 years. If the
interest rate is 12%, how much should you deposit each year if you are going
to meet the balloon payment? (Sinking Fund)
1. $2,900
2. $3,900
3. $5,300
4. $6,400
i (1 + i)n − 1
A=F ( ) F=A ( )
(1 + i)n − 1 i
(1 + i)n − 1 i(1 + i)n

P = A( ) A=P ( )
i(1 + i)n (1 + i)n − 1
4. You are planning to save $1,000.00 per month for the next 30 years.
The APR is 6 percent. How much money will be in your savings account?
1. $360,000
2. $720,000
3. $1,000,000
4. $2,000,000
i (1 + i)n − 1
A=F ( ) F=A ( )
(1 + i)n − 1 i

Summary of Engineering Economy Equations:
Note: Assume 5% annual compounding for all of the examples.
1. P=F What is the present value (lump) of a future value (lump).
Example: What amount would someone have to offer you today in

exchange for receiving $1,000 in five years? (Ans. $780)
2. F=P What is the future value (lump) of a present value (lump).
Example: If you buy a CD today for $1,000 that matures in five years,
how much will it be worth when it matures? (Ans. $1,280)
3. F=A What is the future value (lump) of periodic money transfers.
Example: If you save $1,000 per year for five years, how much will you
have at the end? (Ans. $5,530)

4. A=F Periodic transfer amount of a future sum (lump).
Example: What amount would you have to deposit annually for the next
five years to have $1,000? (Ans. $180)
5. P=A What is the present value (lump) of periodic money transfers.
Example: If you were to receive annual checks of $1,000 for the next five
years, how much would it be worth today? (Ans. $4,330)
6. A=P Periodic transfer amount of a present sum (lump).
Example: What amount would you have to receive annually for the next
five years to equal an offer of $1,000 today? (Ans. $230)

ENGINEERING ECONOMY PRACTICE
1. What is the present value of $10,000 five years from now if the interest rate
is expected to be 7%?
2. How much money should be in the bank if a one-time deposit of $20,000 is

made and left for 20 years at 9% interest?
3. What is the present value of an annuity that will pay $1,000 at the end of
each of the next three years and the interest rate is 8.5%?
4. How much money must be deposited today for the balance to equal $50,000
in 20 years if the interest rate is 7%?

ENGINEERING ECONOMY PRACTICE ANSWERS
Question Answer Formula
1. 7,100 P=F [...]
2. 112, 000 F=P [...]
3. 2,600 P=A [...]
4. 12,900 P=F [...]

TAB 1 TAB 2
Sample Questions
1. Which of the following best describes the term mechanical advantage?

1. Ratio of the output force of a machine to the input force
2. Forces along a parallel line pulling away from the center
3. Forces along a parallel line pushing toward the center
4. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
2. A five-part block and tackle is used to lift a load of 50 kg. If the friction is
10% for each sheave, what force will be required?
1. 160 N
2. 320 N F = ma BCSP
3. 650 N F = Force in newtons
4. 820 N m = mass in kilograms
a = 9.8 m/sec2
Note: To lift a load 10 meters, the pull line must be pulled 50 meters.

3. Given the following diagram, what is the compression force in member BC?
1. 10,700 N
2. 19,200 N
3. 22,900 N A
4. 29,400 N
F = ma BCSP
1.5 m
F = Force in newtons
m = mass in kg
a = acceleration of gravity
(9.8 m/sec2 ) B C
3m
980 kg
Truss Rules:
4. Which members of the following truss are in compression?

1. AB & CD
2. AE & ED
3. BE & CE B C
4. BC & AE
E
A D

5. Which members of the following truss are in compression?
1. AE & DE
Load
2. AB & CD
3. AB & BC A E D
4. BC & AE
B C
6. Which of the following describes a “Competent Person" for crane

inspections?
1. One who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in
the surroundings or working conditions, which are unsanitary,
hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to
take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them
2. One who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or
professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training and
experience, has successfully demonstrated his ability to solve or resolve
problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project
3. Certification provides independent verification of a certain level of
expertise in a particular area. Basically, it means you have completed
the steps required to receive a particular designation. Certification is
conferred when you prove that you have obtained the specified abilities
and knowledge (CSP, CIH)
4. Licensed means that the business or person has passed the minimum
requirements to obtain a license from the state (Driver’s License)
7. When should running wire ropes (wound on drums or passed over sheaves)
be replaced (1926.1413)?
1. No significant kinking, severe wear (crushing), bird caging
2. No significant corrosion or electric arc damage
3. Six randomly distributed broken wires in one rope lay or three broken
wires in one strand in one rope lay
4. The competent person makes the inspection on the last day of the year
and decides to spend any unencumbered funds

Note: A rope lay is the length along the rope in
which one strand makes a complete revolution
around the rope.

8. Crane inspections are conducted with two inspection types, frequent which
are done at daily to monthly intervals, and periodic which are done monthly
to annual intervals. For example, inspections of hooks for deformation or
cracks is a monthly inspection and requires a written record with signature
of inspector and date. Another inspection is the rated load or proof test
which is conducted at ______ percent of the rated load for overhead or
gantry cranes.
1. 110
2. 125
3. 140
4. 200
9. Which of the following is not correct regarding construction crane distances

from power lines?
1. No minimum if line is de-energized
2. 20 feet
3. According to a table if voltage is known
4. Any distance when the crane operator is certified
10. Crane operators must take written and practical exams administered by any
of the following except:
1. An accredited crane operator testing organization
2. Employer audited program meeting OSHA requirements
3. Qualification by the US Military
4. State Board of Industrial Hygiene
Correct Agency--Licensed by an accredited government entity
Other Crane Notes:

If operator is unable to see the power line or elevated warning line, a
dedicated spotter must be used

11. Regulations and best practices require forklifts to be inspected daily. This
may result in individual policies where the inspections are performed before
each shift. During operations, which type of forklift would be required
inside a paint spray booth? (Note: What type of Hazardous Location is this?)
1. E
2. ES
3. EE
4. EX
NFPA 70 (NEC); Article 500
Class I, Div 1 ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors

can exist under normal operating conditions, or exist
frequently due to repair or leakage, or where
breakdown or repair might release ignitable
concentrations and might also cause simultaneous
failure of electric equipment
Class I, Div 2 volatile flammable liquids or gases are handled,

processed or used, but are normally confined within
closed containers or closed systems
Class II, Div 1 combustible dust in the air under normal operating
conditions sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable
mixtures, ------
Class II, Div 2 sufficient quantities of dust not normally present, ------
Class III, Div 1 location in which easily ignitable fibers are handled,
manufactured, or used
Class III, Div 2 easily ignitable fibers are stored

12. If you plot stress (psi) vs strain (percent elongation) on a graph, the point
marked "A" on the line would indicate:
1. Elastic limit—maximum stress a material may be subjected and return to
original shape
2. Yield point—intensity of stress beyond which the changing length
increases rapidly with little if any increase in stress
3. Ultimate tensile strength—greatest stress that can be produced in a body
before failure
4. Safety factor—ultimate stress divided by allowable stress
B C
A
STRESS
STRAIN
13. A sprinkler system usually requires one riser per 40,000 square feet of area,
and 0.2 gpm/square foot for 1,500 square feet of surface area of ordinary
combustibles. The system is designed for delivery of 600 gpm at 50 psi and
the allowance for a hose stream is 250 gpm. What is the device called to
maintain pressure in the fire sprinkler system when there is no fire?
1. Vertical supply lines in a sprinkler system
2. Jockey pump
3. Water supply used to manually extinguish a fire
4. Factor use in calculating flow rates from nozzles, sprinklers…

14. What is the required pressure for a fire protection sprinkler with a K value of
5.6, protecting 120 ft2 with a density of 0.22 gpm per ft2?
1. 22 psi
2. 34 psi P = (Q/K)2 BCSP
3. 49 psi
4. 56 psi P = Pressure (psi)
K= Sprinkler constant
Q (flow rate) = gpm
15. How much pressure would be lost to

Pd = 4.52 Q1.85 BCSP
friction for 200 feet of 6-inch steel pipe
C1.85 d4.87
(i.d. 6.065 in) and providing a flow of
1,850 gpm? The C factor is 100.
Hazen-Williams Formula
1. 18 psi
Pd = Pressure drop (psi/ft)
2. 31 psi
Q = gpm (gallons per minute)
3. 47 psi
C = Coefficient of friction loss
4. 78 psi
d = Inside diameter (inches)

16. The capacity and pressure ratings of fire pumps must be adequate to meet
flow and pressure demand of the property. Fire pumps are designed to
provide their rated capacity with a safety factor built in (150 percent of rated
capacity at 65 percent of rated pressure). Determine the rated capacity and
pressure of a pump where the estimated water demand for the sprinkler and
hose stream is 1300 gpm at 90 psi. Assume you will meet this demand with
a pump:
A. Using 130 percent of its rated capacity
B. The inlet gage pressure at maximum flow is 0 psi
C. The manufacturer’s pump characteristic curve indicates at 1300 gpm the
pump is at 75 percent of rated pressure
1. 1300 gpm at 90 psi
2. 1300 gpm at 120 psi
3. 1000 gpm at 120 psi
4. 1000 gpm at 90 psi
17. Given the following diagram, what is the minimum height of the dike
required to contain the contents of the largest tank plus a 10% allowance for
precipitation? The tanks are 12 meters and 8 meters in diameter, and both
are 8 meters high.
1. 150 cm
2. 175 cm
3. 230 cm 16 m
4. 275 cm
40 m
V = π r2h = Ah
V = volume
π = constant
r = radius
h = height
A = Area

18. A water storage tank on your facility is filled to capacity with the elevations
shown in the diagram. Water weighs 62.4 pounds per cubic foot. What is
the pressure at the plant level?
1. 50 psi
p = .433psi/ft (h) (sg)
2. 110 psi
p = pressure in psi
3. 200 psi
h = depth in feet
4. 250 psi
sg = specific gravity
Elev 1200 ft
Elev 1150 ft
Elev 1050 ft
Elev 950 ft

19. A four foot by six-foot container is ten feet deep
and filled with 50% water and 50% oil by volume
with a specific gravity of 0.8. What is the pressure
at the bottom of the tank?
1. 1.7 psi
2. 3.9 psi
3. 12.2 psi
4. 62.4 psi
p = 0.433 psi/ft (h)(sg)

p = pressure (psi or kPa)
h = height (feet or meters)
sg = specific gravity
p = 9.8 kPa/m (h)(sg) (metric)
20. What is the pressure at the bottom of the tank if it is 75% oil and 25% water
by volume?
1. 1.7 psi
2. 3.7 psi
3. 7.4 psi
4. 14.7 psi

21. Pyrophoric describes:
1. Materials that ignite spontaneously when exposed to air
2. A violent reaction which occurs when two materials come in contact
with each other
3. The process where materials decompose in the presence of heat
4. A rapid burning fire which produces flame speed that travels slower than
the speed of sound
22. Why are CO2 fire extinguishers suitable for a gasoline fire?
1. The carbon dioxide destroys the fire and the environment
2. Carbon dioxide interacts with the gasoline to form diesel
3. The cooling effect is minimally invasive to the fuel source
4. It smothers the oxygen and, because it's so cold, it also removes heat
23. Hot work permits are designed to remove flammable materials from an area
prior to conducting work such as welding. While this is a safety precaution
the welders are also exposed to the fumes by welding on various materials.
A common condition is known as metal fume fever and caused by:
1. All known metals produce carcinogens, teratogens and mutagens
2. Jewelry metals such as gold, silver, and platinum
3. Composite materials containing resins, glues, and exotic minerals
4. Zinc oxide (ZnO) or magnesium oxide (MgO), which are themselves
created by heating or welding certain metals, particularly galvanized
steel or stainless steel (chromium)
The signs and symptoms of metal fume fever are nonspecific but are
generally flu-like and include fever, chills, nausea, headache, fatigue,
muscle aches, joint pains, lack of appetite, shortness of breath, pneumonia,
chest pain, blood pressure change, and cough. Another hazard from
welding is flashburn or welder's flash which impacts the cornea. Also
known as ultraviolet keratitis.
24. Which of the following is not a recommended practice for hot work permits?
1. Remove all combustibles a minimum of 35 feet from the operation
2. Fire extinguishers shall be readily available
3. All unnecessary personnel shall be evacuated from the structure
4. Ducts, conveyors that may carry sparks to other areas are shut down

25. Soil type determines slope in trenching and excavations. As the soil
becomes less cohesive, the slope with the horizontal:
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Changes incrementally
4. Moves little
Soil Slope Angles
1 1 1
3/4 1 1 1/2
Table V:2-1. Allowable Slopes

Soil type Height:Depth ratio Slope angle
Stable Rock Vertical 90°
Type A ¾:1 53°
Type B 1:1 45°
Type C 1½:1 34°
Type A(short-term) ½:1 63°
(For a maximum excavation depth of 12 ft)

Soil Classifications
Stable Rock is natural solid mineral matter that can be excavated with vertical
sides and remain intact while exposed. It is usually identified by a rock name
such as granite or sandstone. Determining whether a deposit is of this type
may be difficult unless it is known whether cracks exist and whether or not the
cracks run into or away from the excavation.
Type A Soils are cohesive soils with an unconfined compressive strength of

1.5 tons per square foot (tsf) (144 kPa) or greater. Examples of Type A
cohesive soils are often: clay, silty clay, sandy clay, clay loam and, in some
cases, silty clay loam and sandy clay loam. (No soil is Type A if it is fissured,
is subject to vibration of any type, has previously been disturbed, is part of a
sloped, layered system where the layers dip into the excavation on a slope of
4 horizontal to 1 vertical (4H:1V) or greater, or has seeping water.
Type B Soils are cohesive soils with an unconfined compressive strength

greater than 0.5 tsf (48 kPa) but less than 1.5 tsf (144 kPa). Examples of other
Type B soils are: angular gravel; silt; silt loam; previously disturbed soils
unless otherwise classified as Type C; soils that meet the unconfined
compressive strength or cementation requirements of Type A soils but are
fissured or subject to vibration; dry unstable rock; and layered systems sloping
into the trench at a slope less than 4H:1V (only if the material would be
classified as a Type B soil).
Type C Soils are cohesive soils with an unconfined compressive strength of

0.5 tsf (48 kPa) or less. Other Type C soils include granular soils such as
gravel, sand and loamy sand, submerged soil, soil from which water is freely
seeping, and submerged rock that is not stable. Also included in this
classification is material in a sloped, layered system where the layers dip into
the excavation or have a slope of four horizontal to one vertical (4H:1V) or
greater.

26. What is the maximum deceleration fall distance?
1. 1.5 feet
2. 2.0 feet
3. 3.5 feet
4. 6.0 feet
ABC's of Fall Protection
ANCHORS:
Anchors are a secure point of attachment. Anchorage connectors vary by
industry, job, type of installation and structure. They must be able to support
the intended loads and provide a sufficient factor of safety for fall arrest.
BODY SUPPORT:
Body support is typically a full body harness. Harnesses distribute fall forces
over the upper thighs, pelvis, chest and shoulders. They provide a
connection point on the worker for the personal fall arrest system when
working at heights.
CONNECTORS:
Connectors such as shock absorbing lanyards or self retracting lifelines
connect a worker's harness to the anchorage.
DESCENT & RESCUE:

These are devices used to raise or lower a fallen injured worker to safety or
retrieve him from a confined space.

27. A submerged solid container with a mass of 500,000 kg is lifted from the
bottom of a freshwater lake with a crane. The container is 4 meters by 6
meters by 10 meters high and rests vertically on the bottom. As the crane
lifts the container from the lake, the cable breaks when 5 meters of the
container is out of the water. What was the force on the cable when it
failed?
1. 1,325,000 N F = ma V = lwh
2. 1,880,000 N F = Force (newtons) V = volume
3. 2,250,000 N m = mass (kg) l = length
4. 3,725,000 N 2
a = acceleration (9.8 m/sec ) w = width
BCSP h = height

28. A container with a mass of 200 kg (440 lbs) V = 16 μ s (metric)
falls off the back of a truck and slides 50 meters
(165 feet) before coming to rest. The coefficient V = velocity in km/hr (mph)
of friction is 0.3. How fast was the truck moving? u = coefficient of friction
1. 41 km/hr (26 mph) s = distance in meters (feet)
2. 62 km/hr (39 mph) V = 30 μ s (English)
3. 84 km/hr (53 mph)
4. 95 km/hr (59 mph)
29. What is the total current in this circuit?

1. 11.7 amps 5Ω 5Ω
2. 14.4 amps 110 V 50 Ω
3. 22.9 amps 5Ω 5Ω
4. 24.2 amps
B
Rseries = R1 + R2 +....Rn
1 = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ...1/Rn

Rparallel
30. What is the current at Point B?
1. 11 amps E = IR E = volts
2. 14 amps I = amps
3. 20 amps BCSP R = ohms
4. 25 amps
E
I R
Note: Total resistance in a parallel system is always less than the smallest resistor.
31. Biological monitoring to determine the effectiveness of both engineering and
PPE used to control benzene exposure can best be determined by:
1. Urine test after the work shift to detect for phenols
2. Saliva test for amphetamine, methamphetamines, cocaine, opiates,
marijuana, oxycodone, methadone, estrogen, and testosterone
3. Blood test for lead, hepatitis, HIV
4. Hair samples tested for marijuana. amphetamines, including
methamphetamine, MDMA (ecstasy)
32. Exhaust ventilation systems require the replacement of exhausted air.

Replacement air is often called make-up air. If make-up air is not provided:
1. The employees will open the windows
2. The velocity of the ventilation system will be increased dramatically
3. A slight positive pressure will be created
4. A slight negative pressure will be created
33. What is the leading cause of Indoor Air Quality (IAQ) complaints?
1. Ventilation systems
2. Contaminants
3. Outside sources, exhausts, pollen, smoke, construction dusts, etc.
4. No particularly observable causes
34. The absolute closure of a pipe, line, or duct by the fastening of a solid plate
(such as a spectacle blind or a skillet blind) that completely covers the bore
and that is capable of withstanding the maximum pressure of the pipe, line,
or duct with no leakage beyond the plate is known as:
1. Lockout-Tagout
2. Closure (Sealing)
3. Blanking (Blinding)
4. Capture (Binding)
35. Energy sources include electrical, mechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic,

chemical, thermal, or other sources in machines and equipment which can be
hazardous to workers. During the servicing and maintenance of machines
and equipment, the unexpected startup or release of stored energy can result
in serious injury or death to workers. What system or process is required to
prevent injuries or incidents for these hazards?
1. Confined Space Permit
2. Hot Work Permit
3. Risk Assessment Program
4. Lockout/Tagout Program

36. A confined space is large enough to enter and perform work, has limited or
restricted means for entry or exit, and is not designed for continuous
occupancy. A permit required confined space entry procedure requires
atmospheric testing in this order.
1. Oxygen, carbon dioxide and nitrogen
2. Nitrogen, flammability, and toxic mold
3. Oxygen, combustible gases or vapors, and toxic gases or vapors
4. Nitrogen, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide

37. What is the volume of 100 grams of nitrogen (N2) at 25o C and one
atmosphere?
22.4 L @ 0o C 24.45 L @ 25o C
1. 43 liters 1 atm, STP 1 atm, NTP
2. 87 liters BCSP BCSP
3. 174 liters
4. 255 liters
6.024 X1023 Atomic Weight

Avogadro’s 1 mole Molecular Weight
Number
BCSP
H Hydrogen C Carbon N Nitrogen O Oxygen

Atomic Number: 1 Atomic Number: 6 Atomic Number: 7 Atomic Number: 8
Atomic Mass: 1.0097 Atomic Mass: 12.01 Atomic Mass: 14.01 Atomic Mass: 16
38. Which of the following best describes a carcinogen?

1. An agent that can produce or accelerate the development of malignant or
potentially malignant tumors (asbestos, benzene, chromium)
2. An agent that affect the genetic material of the exposed organism. It
may cause cancer, birth defects or undesirable effects in later
generations. (bromine, sodium azide, x-rays, gamma rays, alpha
particles, ultraviolet radiation)
3. An agent, which can cause a birth defect. It is usually something in the
environment that the mother may be exposed to during pregnancy.
(herpes, rubella (German measles), thalidomide)
4. An agent which is toxic to the ear, specifically the cochlea or auditory
nerve and sometimes the vestibular system, for example, as a side effect
of a drug; symptoms of include partial or profound hearing loss, vertigo,
and tinnitus; may be reversible, temporary, or permanent
39. What is toxicity?
1. Ability of a substance to produce an unwanted effect when the chemical
has reached a sufficient concentration at a certain site in the body
2. The calculated dose of a substance that is expected to kill 50 percent of a
defined experimental animal population, by any route other than
inhalation (weight per kilogram)
3. The concentration of a substance that is expected to kill 50 percent of the
experimental animal population exposed by airborne materials (ppm)
4. The concentration of a chemical substance is believed to be a level to
which a worker can be exposed day after day for a working lifetime
without adverse effects
Note: There are TLVs for physical agents as well as chemical substances.
TLVs for physical agents include those for noise exposure, vibration, ionizing
and non-ionizing radiation exposure and heat and cold stress. Strictly speaking,
TLV is a reserved term of the American Conference of Governmental Industrial
Hygienists (ACGIH).

40. In air sampling, the absorption of a material is defined as the:
1. Capture of a gas or vapor accomplished by passing an airstream
containing the gas or vapor through a liquid
2. Retention of gaseous substance chemically unchanged on the surface of
a sorbent such as activated charcoal retaining organic vapors
3. The property of a material to allow fluids (such as water, water vapor or
oil) to diffuse through it to another medium without being chemically or
physically affected
4. A bacterium, virus, or other microorganism that can cause disease
41. Which of the following best describes nanotechnology

1. The branch of technology that deals with dimensions and tolerances of
less than 100 nanometers, especially the manipulation of individual
atoms and molecules (nanometer = one-billionth of a meter or
0.000000001 meter)
2. The study of microorganisms, which are unicellular or cell-cluster
microscopic organisms. This includes eukaryotes (contains nucleus)
such as fungi and protists and prokaryotes (no nucleus) such as bacteria
and certain algae. Viruses are also included
3. The branch of medicine which deals with the incidence, distribution, and
possible control of diseases and other factors relating to health
4. The scientific study of the measurements and proportions of the human
body
42. The study of human characteristics for the appropriate design of the living
and work environment is the formal definition of:
1. Physiology
2. Psychology
3. Ergonomics
4. Biomechanics

43. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for application of the
Revised NIOSH Lifting Equation?
1. Production line inspection while seated
2. Lifting unstable loads for 4 hours per shift
3. Regular two-hand lifts for full 8-hour shift
4. Lifting unstable loads less than 10 kilograms
RWL = LC x HM x VM x DM x AM x FM x CM
BCSP
RWL-Recommended Weight Limit
D LC-Load Constant (23 kg or 51 lb)
HM-Horizontal Multiplier
VM-Vertical Multiplier
DM-Distance Multiplier
AM-Asymmetric Multiplier
H FM-Frequency Multiplier
V
CM-Coupling Multiplier
L L
LI = =
LI RWL
RWL
BCSP
LI = Lifting Index
L = Load (kg or lbs)
RWL= Recommended Weight Limit (kg or lb)

44. A safety professional has collected the following data about a lifting task:
H = 25 cm, V = 75 cm, D = 70 cm, and the loads are lifted at the rate of four
per minute for 90 minutes per shift. There is no angle of asymmetry.
The coupling is rated as good. The boxes weigh 18 kilograms.
According to NIOSH, find the LI.
1. 0.81
2. 1.23
3. 1.78
4. 2.05
RWL = (23) (25/H) [1-(0.003|V-75|)] [0.82 + (4.5/D)] (1- 0.0032A) (FM) (CM)
BCSP
RWL-Recommended Weight Limit

LC = 23 kg or 51 lb LI = Lifting Index
H-Horizontal Distance L = Load
V-Vertical Distance from floor at start of lift
D-Distance (vertical movement) L
A -Angle of Asymmetry LI =
F-Frequency of lifts RWL
C-Coupling with load
Note: What is the impact of changing the frequency of lifts? What is the impact
of changing the duration while maintaining the same frequency?

45. Tendonitis is best described as:
1. Inflammation of the tendon-muscle junction
2. Cumulative trauma involving inflammation of the connective
sheath tissue usually associated with repetitive hand movements; it can
lead to carpal tunnel syndrome
3. A condition involving the narrowing of the connective sheath
tissues of the thumb
4. A condition sometimes described as "tennis elbow" is characterized by
the inflammation of the bony prominence of the elbow
46. Which of the following is not a goal of an ergonomics program?

1. Reduce physical and mental stresses
2. Increase comfort and health on the job
3. Reduce human errors on the job
4. Make work more socially acceptable
47. Many factors impact ergonomic issues in the work environment. The most
common issues are:
1. Force, load, posture, distance, and shift
2. Load, timing, lighting, temperature, upper body strength
3. Force, repetition, posture, vibration, and contact stresses
4. Load, size of container, container contents, packaging material
48. Which of the following is used to test for visual acuity (amount of critical
detail that can be discriminated)?
1. Snellen Letter Test
2. Briggs-Meyer Type Indicator
3. Stanford-Binet
4. Wonderlic Test
49. Which of the following is considered the most abused drug in the US today?
1. Alcohol
2. Marijuana
3. Pain relievers
4. Cocaine

50. You have implemented the following steps for your company’s substance
abuse program:
A. A written substance abuse policy
B. A supervisory training program
C. An employee education and awareness program
D. Access to an Employee Assistance Program (EAP)
E. A drug testing program, where appropriate
One final consideration must be made, what happens if a current employee

tests positive for one of the specifically identified drugs?
1. Terminate immediately
2. Transfer in accordance with Human Relations Policies
3. File complaint with local authorities for immediate intervention
4. Follow applicable laws, regulations, and policies in your location
51. The three tiniest bones in the body form the coupling between the vibration
of the eardrum and the forces exerted on the oval window of the inner ear.
Formally named the malleus, incus, and stapes; they are commonly referred
to in English as:
1. Outer, Middle, and Inner
2. The Three Vibrations
3. The hammer, anvil, and stirrup
4. Nina, Pinta, and Santa Maria

52. The bottom layer of skin containing the cushioning (fatty) layers is the:
1. Dermatitis
2. Resilient layer
3. Sweat glands level
4. Subcutaneous layer
53. Electric arc welding produces an intense flash which may produce a
condition commonly known as flashburn or welders flash from the
ultraviolet radiation. What part of the eye is most affected by flashburrn?
1. Iris
2. Cornea
3. Pupil
4. Retina

54. A 0.5 curie cobalt-60 source was damaged in a vehicle crash. The meters in
the area are damaged, and the container is suspected compromised and
unable to adequately protect the workers. The radiation level is given as
7,500 mR/hr at one foot. The recommended control level is 40 mR/40 hr
per week for a 40-hour week (1.0 mR/hr). What is the minimum safe
distance from the scene?
1. 35 feet I2 = I1 (d1 )2 I1 = initial intensity.
2. 90 feet (d2)2 I2 = final intensity
3. 150 feet d1 = initial distance
4. 2,000 feet upwind BCSP d2 = final distance
Inverse Square Law
? ft 1 ft

55. An employee noise exposure for an eight-hour day is recorded as
follows: 1 hr at 85 dBA, 4 hrs at 88 dBA, and 3 hrs at 91 dBA. What is the
percent dose using a 3-decibel exchange rate if 85 dBA for 8 hours equals
100%?
1. 130%
 N Ci 
2. 180% D = 100  
3. 260%  i =1 Ti 
8
T=
4. 340% BCSP
2 (L−85) / 3 D = Dose percent
Allowed by 3 dB C = actual time
BCSP T = allowed time
Exchange Rate
dBA Hrs
85 8
88 4 TWA = 10.0 x Log10 [D/100] + 85 (NIOSH) (BCSP)
91 2
TWA = Time Weighted Average (3 decibel exchange)
94 1
D = Dose (%)
97 .5
56. What is the TWA for this employee?

1. 84 dB
2. 89 dB
3. 94 dB
4. 98 dB

57. A painter is using MIBK solvent base paint in a spray booth at a steady
evaporation rate of one quart per hour. How many cubic feet per minute of
dilution ventilation are required to maintain a concentration at or below the
TLV? (TLV = 50 ppm, s.g. = 0.7, MW = 100, K = 6)
1. 3,400 cfm
2. 5,900 cfm
3. 11,300 cfm Q = 403 x 106 x SG x ER x K BCSP
4. 677,000 cfm MW x C
Q = cubic feet per minute (cfm)
SG = specific gravity
ER = pts/min
K = safety factor
MW = molecular weight
C = TLV concentration

How are pressures determined in a duct? (American Conference of Governmental
Industrial Hygienists, Industrial Ventilation: A Manual of Recommended
Practice for Design)
Note: Capture velocity is 10% of the Duct Velocity at One Diameter from the Intake.
Discharge Velocity is 10% of the Duct Velocity at 30 Diameters.

58. Given the following diagram for a SP = -5”
round duct system, what is the flow
rate in cfm flowing through the TP = -2”
Duct B?
1. 3,180 cfm
D
2. 5,480 cfm B = 12” C
3. 6,930 cfm
4. 7,810 cfm
A
Q = AV BCSP V = 4005VP BCSP Note: Recommended angle

Q = cfm V = Velocity (ft/min) connecting Duct A to the
A = area (sq ft) VP = Vel. Press (inches water) main duct is 30-60 degrees.
V = velocity (ft/min)
A = π r2 TP = SP + VP BCSP
A = Area TP = Total Press
π = button SP = Static Press 30-60◦
r = radius VP = Velocity Press

59. Using the following diagram, determine the velocity 6 inches from the
intake of a 12 inch unflanged round duct if the duct velocity is 600 fpm.
1. 60 fpm
2. 120 fpm
3. 180 fpm
4. 300 fpm
60. To qualify as HEPA by US government standards, an air filter must remove

(from the air that passes through) 99.97% of particles that have a size of
0.3 µm. These filters typically use glass fiber media and are available in
thicknesses of 6” and 12”. These have pressure drop of 1-inch w.g. when
clean and generally need to be replaced when the pressure drop exceeds:
1. 2 inch-w.g.
2. 4 inch-w.g.
3. 6 inch-w.g.
4. 12 inch-w.g.
Air Flow
HEPA Filter

61. A furniture drying area contains 100 ppm
of a solvent. If the volume of the room is
ln( ) = -Q'
C2
100,000 cubic feet, the ventilation rate
2,000 cfm, how long to reduce the (t
2 - t1)
concentration to 25 ppm?
C1 V
1. 35 minutes BCSP
2. 69 minutes C1 = initial concentration
3. 138 minutes C2 = final concentration
4. 215 minutes Q' = ventilation rate in cfm
V = volume of room
t1 = start time
t2 = end time

62. Determine the TWA of the following chlorine exposure:
2.0 hours at 0.5 ppm 3.0 hours at 1.0 ppm
1.0 hour at 2.0 ppm 2.0 hours at 1.5 ppm
1. 2.3 ppm
2. 1.9 ppm
3. 1.1 ppm TWA = C1T1 + C2T2 +...CnTn
4. 0.7 ppm ∑T
C = Concentration (ppm)
T = Time (hrs)
63. Which of the following best describes the preferred method of evaluating
worker exposure to airborne chemicals?
1. Personal air sampling near the employee’s breathing zone
2. Area air samples to evaluate background concentrations, locate sources
of exposure or evaluate the effectiveness of control measures
3. Grab samples to measure the airborne concentration of a substance over
a short time period (usually less than 5 minutes)
4. An air sample collection device made up of five components: an air inlet
orifice, a collection device, an airflow meter, a flow-rate control valve,
and a suction pump

64. A container of toluene spilled in a closed room. The contents completely
evaporated and produced a concentration of 90 ppm. How many liters were
lost in the spill? The room volume is 5,000 cubic meters. The specific
gravity is 0.86, molecular weight is 92.
1. 2 liters
2. 4 liters
3. 7 liters ppm = mg/m3 x 24.45 BCSP
4. 10 liters MW
ppm = parts per million
mg = milligrams
m3 = cubic meters
MW = Molecular weight
1 g water = 1 cm3
1 kg water = 1 L

65. What is the TLV of the following mixture:
50% heptane (TLV 400 ppm or 1640 mg/m3)
30% methyl chloroform (TLV 350 ppm or 1910 mg/m3)
20% perchloroethylene (TLV 25 ppm or 170 mg/m3)
1. 75 ppm
2. 125 ppm
1
3. 250 ppm
TLV =
 f 
4. 610 ppm m
f f
 1 + 2 + ... + n 
 TLV1 TLV2 TLVn 
f = fractional share of mixture as a decimal
TLV = Threshold Limit Value in mg/m3
BCSP

66. A sample reveals the xylene exposure for an 8-hour period was 105 ppm.
The PEL for xylene is 100 ppm. The SAE (sampling and analytical errors)
for this method is 0.10. What can you conclude from these results?
1. The UCL is ≤ 1, a violation does not exist according to OSHA
2. The LCL is > 1, a violation exists, according to OSHA
3. The LCL ≤ 1, and the UCL > 1, a possible overexposure exists
4. There is no overexposure or violation
Standardized concentration:
Y = X/PEL
X = Measured Exposure
CL = Confidence Level
UCL = Y + SAE (Upper)
LCL = Y – SAE (Lower)

67. A cylinder of compressed gas contains 30 liters at 25º C, 1atmosphere at
sea level. The cylinder is placed in an oven and the temperature
is raised to 625º C. What is the pressure?
1. 1 atm
2. 3 atm P1V1 P2 V2
3. 6 atm =
4. 25 atm T1 T2
Gas Laws: Absolute Pressure and Temperature P = absolute pressure
Absolute Pressure equals atmospheres V = volume
Absolute Temperature Kelvin equals Celsius plus 273 T = absolute temperature
Absolute Temp. Rankine equals Fahrenheit plus 460 Combined Gas Law
BCSP BCSP

68. How many kilograms of nitrogen are in a
cylinder if the volume is 25 liters, the PV = nRT BCSP
pressure is 2,500 psig, and the
temperature is 25 degrees Celsius? P = absolute pressure (psia)
1. 2 kg V = volume (liters)
2. 5 kg n = number of moles
3. 8 kg R = gas constant
4. 14 kg T = absolute temperature (K)
Value of Gas Constant (BCSP) Ideal or Perfect Gas Law
Absolute Pressure
Volume Temp. moles atm psi
mm 1 atm = 14.7 psi = 760 mm Hg
Hg = 29.92 inches of Hg
K g 0.08205 1.206 62.4 = 101.3 kPa
liters
R g 0.0456 0.670 34.6

Radiation data for a 100 millicurie cobalt 60 source are given as follows:
Half-life Atomic No. Concrete Shielding Energy (MeV) Quanta per

Thickness Disintegration
1/10 Val ½ Val Beta Gamma
5.27 yr 27 9.0 in 2.6 in 0.3 1.3, 1.2 0.99+
69. How many milliroentgens per hour S6CE BCSP

would be expected at a distance of S = Strength in R/hr or mR/hr
one foot from the unshielded source? C = Curie (Ci) or millicurie (mCi)
1. 660 mR/hr E = MeV’s
2. 1,500 mR/hr
3. 2,880 mR/hr
4. 4,220 mR/hr
1 gray = 100 rad BCSP
1 sievert = 100 rem
1 curie = 3.7 x 1010 Becquerel
1 Becquerel = 1 disintegration/second
70. A container dated June, 2011, was found in the storage room. Contents are
described as 1 kg of cobalt-60 (half-life 5.27 years). How much should be
left in June, 2019? The following formula may be useful.
1. 0.35 kg
2. 0.65 kg Nt = No (.5) (# half-lives)
3. 0.99 kg
Nt = amount left (grams, moles, atoms)
4. 1.25 kg
No = beginning amount
t = time passed (years, months, days)

71. Which of the following labels would be appropriate for a Class 4 laser?
1. 3.
2. 4.
The International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) is a global organization that prepares and
publishes international standards for all electrical, electronic and related technologies. The IEC
document 60825-1 is the primary standard that outlines the safety of laser products. Classification is
based on calculations and determined by the AEL as with the ANSI standard, but the IEC standard also
incorporates viewing conditions:
▪ Class 1 lasers are very low risk and "safe under reasonably foreseeable use", including the use of
optical instruments for intra-beam viewing.
▪ Class 1M lasers have wavelengths between 302.5 nm and 4000 nm, and are safe except when
used with optical aids (e.g. binoculars).
▪ Class 2 lasers do not permit human access to exposure levels beyond the Class 2 AEL for
wavelengths between 400 nm and 700 nm. Any emissions outside this wavelength region must
be below the Class 1 AEL.
▪ Class 2M lasers have wavelengths between 400 nm and 700 nm, and are potentially hazardous
when viewed with an optical instrument. Any emissions outside this wavelength region must be
below the Class 1M AEL.
▪ Class 3R lasers range from 302.5 nm and 106 nm, and is potentially hazardous but the risk is
lower than that of Class 3B lasers. The accessible emission limit is within 5 times the Class 2
AEL for wavelengths between 400 nm and 700 nm, and within 5 times the Class 1 AEL for
wavelengths outside this region.
▪ Class 3B lasers are normally hazardous under direct beam viewing conditions, but are normally
safe when viewing diffuse reflections.
▪ Class 4 lasers are hazardous under both intra-beam and diffuse reflection viewing conditions.
They may cause also skin injuries and are potential fire hazards.

72. Foreign Material Exclusion (FME) is defined as:
1. The process of preventing the introduction of outside debris into an area
or areas where that debris poses an economic risk or safety hazard
2. Any article or substance, alien to an aircraft or system, which could
potentially cause damage. External hazards include bird strikes,
hail, ice, sandstorms, ash-clouds or objects left on the runway
3. Restriction of Hazardous Substances, also known as Directive
2002/95/EC, originated in the EU and restricts the use of specific
hazardous materials found in electrical and electronic products (EEE).
4. REACH Certificate of Compliance is a document certifying that a
product is compliant with the EU REACH regulation No 1907/2006.
Testing report or statement issued by a third-party testing organization.
(Registration, Evaluation, Authorization and restrictions of CHemicals)
73. The process of comparing a company’s performance with another company,

usually an exemplary performer, for design/management controls is called:
1. External auditing
2. Comparative sampling
3. Benchmarking
4. Comparison performance evaluation (CPE)
74. Using progressive discipline, a minor rule infraction is disciplined by a(n):

1. Oral reprimand
2. Written reprimand
3. One-day suspension
4. Three-day suspension
75. During a tour of a plant, a safety professional sees an unsafe condition,

followed by an employee performing an unsafe act. The best response is to:
1. Ignore it
2. Verbally warn the employee
3. Prepare a written report to the department head
4. Call the supervisor for action
76. Addressing occupational safety and health needs in the design and redesign
processes to prevent or minimize the work-related hazards and risks
associated with the construction, manufacture, use, maintenance and
disposal of facilities, materials, equipment and processes is the definition of:
1. Prevention through Design
2. System Safety Design
3. Computer Aided Design
4. Progressive Management Systems
77. Which of the following government agencies have adopted and/or
implemented the Global Harmonization System (GHS)?
1. DOL, DOT, EPA, CPSC
2. DOL, ANSI, ASTM, ASME
3. ASSP, AIHA, ABHP, NSC
4. DHS, DHHR, UL, NFPA
78. All of the following describe the GHS except:

1. Every chemical is analyzed with standardized laboratory tests
2. The lab data is compared to the classification criteria in the GHS standard
describing the nature and severity of the chemicals’ hazards
3. The hazard classification, along with other required information, is
documented in a consistent 16-part format (Safety Data Sheet-SDS)
4. The GHS is coordinated with the NFPA 704 Standard System for the
Identification of Hazards on a scale from 0 to 4.
79. Which of the following symbols represents acute toxicity under GHS?
1. _____________ 3. __________________
2. __________________ 4. ___________________

GHS Pictograms
1.___________________
2.______________________
3.______________________
4._______________________
5.________________________

80. You have just been appointed the special SHE advisor to the company Vice-
President of Risk Management. In your new position, you have been asked
to prepare a brief overview of the corporation’s long-range management
systems regarding safety, health and the environment. You begin your
research and discover many elements, processes, and systems available
today. You develop your briefing for the top management team, make your
presentation, and in your conclusion, you make the following statement:
1. Quality and environmental systems are frequently in conformance with
international voluntary consensus standards, or they share many basic
concepts and principles with them…. The company should begin
implementation of the best available option to achieve company goals.
2. Organizational and management systems are so varied and sometimes
exotic, there is no consistency in their design. The best solution for the
corporation is to select one system and implement this without regard to
costs, components, or long-range plans.
3. There are several systems available for adoption, and the corporation
should form a study committee to analyze the options. After a thorough
analysis, the committee should recommend a course of action to
implement independent of any other management systems in place.
4. The reliability of current systems is sufficient under current requirements.
The corporation should not take any actions not mandated by regulations,
codes, laws, or international suggestions. Any actions above the legal
minimum are completely unnecessary.
81. According to traditional Risk Management Processes, there are six

components: identification, analysis, reduction, financing, evaluation,
and administration. Risk assessment is usually described in three steps,
identification, analysis, and evaluation. Which of these describes
identification?
1. The process of finding, recognizing and recording risks
2. Developing an understanding of the risk, consequences and probabilities
3. Comparing the estimated levels of risk with risk criteria defined when
the context was established, to determine the level and type of risk
4. Methods including qualitative (high-low), semi-quantitative (rating
scales), and quantitative (probabilities)

82. Pure risk is defined as the expectation of an event which will only produce a
loss should it occur. Which of the following is an example of pure risk?
1. CSP Exam
2. Fire
3. Business ventures
4. Investment in stocks
83. Speculative risk is defined as the result of an event which will produce a
gain or loss should it occur. Which of the following is an example of a
speculative risk?
1. Fire
2. Flood
3. Hurricane
4. Business venture
84. Companies and individuals are classified as risk averters or risk takers.
When the company accepts the losses, it is called assumption or retention of
risk. In addition, there are at least four other ways risk managers must
evaluate to best handle the risks which companies decide to take. Which of
the following defines the loss control or loss prevention option?
1. Reduce losses through inspections, training, etc.
2. Movement of the risk to an insurance company or leasing company
3. Delay risks by not accepting goods or products until delivered or
installed
4. Multiple locations so loss of one does not cause total failure
85. Which best describes an insurance company which is out to make a profit?
1. Captive
2. Stock, capitalized, stakeholder owned
3. Mutual company
4. Lloyds of London
86. Risk is generally considered to be composed of three elements: frequency,

probability, and severity. Which of the following describes probability?
1. How often a task or event occurs
2. Likelihood of event happening
3. Results of events and outcome
4. Any condition which results or may result in injury, death, or property
damage

87. Which of the following does not represent a risk financing technique?
1. Contractual transfers
2. Retention
3. Insurance
4. Risk Avoidance
Risk Management Terms
Risk—absence of certainty, chance of a loss, threat or exposure, financial loss

greater than expected
Loss—unintentional and undesired impact on the finances of the organization;

property loss, liability loss, income loss
Risk Management—process by which an organization can identify, manage, reduce,

avoid, and finance the risks of accidental loss
Risk Control Techniques—avoidance, reduction, segregation, contractual transfer
Enterprise Risk Management Model

Hazard Risk—liability torts, property damage, natural disasters
Financial Risk—pricing risk, asset risk, currency risk, liquidity risk
Operational Risk—customer satisfaction, product failure, integrity,
reputational risk
Strategic Risk—competition, social trends, capital availability
Hazard—condition or situation that creates or increases the chance of extent of a loss
Exposure—relative measure of an actual or potential loss, measured against a base
Peril—cause of a loss
Pure Captive—wholly owned by single parent
Group Captive—multiple parents without other affiliation
Associative Captive—multiple parents belonging to a particular industry or

professional association

SHE Related Standards
◼ ANSI/ASSP Z10-2019--Occupational Health and Safety Management

Systems
◼ Risk Assessment Matrix
◼ OSHA VPP—Voluntary Protection Program
◼ ISO 9000—Quality Management Systems
◼ ISO 14000—Environmental Management Systems
◼ ISO 19000—Auditing Management Systems
◼ ISO 31000—Risk Management
◼ ISO 45001-2018—Occupational Health and Safety
◼?

88. The ANSI/ASSP Z10 describes a successful occupational health and safety
management system combining two essential elements. They are:
1. Employers and employees willing to meet and discuss common concerns
2. All levels of management and senior union officials
3. Capital assets and corporate liabilities
4. Top management leadership and effective employee participation
89. Which of the following did not contribute to the writing of the
ANSI/ASSP Z10?
1. Business and labor groups
2. Professional Societies and their members
3. Government agencies
4. ISO
90. The ANSI/ASSP Z10 and the ISO 45001 standards require risk reduction
efforts be based on a preferred order of controls: eliminate the hazard,
substitute less hazardous materials or equipment, engineering controls,
warnings and administrative controls, and the final option is:
1. Fire the offenders
2. Relocate tools and processes to a new location
3. PPE
4. Meet with the company safety committee
91. The Z10 standard imposes significant emphasis on accountability by the:

1. Safety, Health, and Environmental Professional
2. Safety Professional only
3. Company Board of Directors
4. Senior Management Officials
92. The ISO 31000 was developed to ensure that risk:

1. Done in the least expensive but efficient manner
2. Managed effectively, efficiently, and coherently across an
organization
3. Developed into a self-sustaining entity within the corporation
4. Moves to adopt the best available technology
93. According to the 31000 Standard, risk is managed by:

1. Identifying, analyzing, and evaluating
2. Engineering, administrative and PPE
3. Listing, assigning responsibility and follow-up
4. Evaluating, testing, and implementing a risk management process

94. According to the Risk Assessment Matrix below, Risk Reduction is required
when:
1. Severity is Catastrophic, and Probability is Frequent
2. Severity is Critical, and Probability is Remote
3. Severity is Critical, and Probability is Improbable
4. Severity is Catastrophic, and Probability is Remote
95. The Risk Assessment Matrix is a device designed to:

1. Make all risk decisions in a simple objective manner
2. Reduce risk assessment to a statistical model
3. Prioritize the elimination or reduction of risks
4. Make management decisions without human intervention
96. Which of the following would be an advantage of the Risk Assessment

Matrix?
1. It is somewhat subjective and tends to have significant variations
2. Sometimes difficult to define scales unambiguously
3. May be difficult to apply across a wide range of circumstances
4. Provides a rapid ranking of risks into different significant levels
97. Which of the following describes the Probability Category of “Remote?”

1. Likely to occur frequently
2. Will occur several times in the life of an item
3. Likely to occur sometime in the life of an item
4. Unlikely but possible to occur in the life of an item
5. So unlikely, may assume it will never occur
Risk Assessment Matrix

Probability
Hazard
A B C D E
Severity
Frequent Probable Occasional Remote Improbable
I
Red Red Red Orange Yellow
Catastrophic
II
Red Red Orange Yellow Yellow
Critical
III
Orange Orange Yellow Yellow Yellow
Marginal
IV
Yellow Yellow Green Green Green
Negligible

98. OSHA’s VPP programs are designed to recognize outstanding efforts of
employers and employees who have achieved exemplary occupational safety
and health. Which of the following is not an OSHA VPP program?
1. Star
2. Merit
3. Star Demonstration
4. VPP Star Provider
99. Which elements are essential to the VPP success model?

1. Safety, Health, & Environmental, Human Resources, and Legal
2. OSHA, EPA, MSHA
3. Employer, employees, state government
4. OSHA, employer, labor
100. The OSHA VPP program lists four elements of a Safety and Health
Management System. These are: 1) Management leadership and employee
involvement; 2) Worksite analysis; 3) Hazard prevention and control; and:
1. Independent safety and health audits
2. Safety and health training
3. Safety, health, environmental, and security awareness
4. Certification by an independent third party
101. The VPP model describes a PSM Level 1 Auditor as an OSHA employee
with experience in the chemical processing and refining industries. This
training may be through the OSHA Training Institute (OTI) or by experience
which includes accident/incident investigation, worksite analysis and:
1. First Aid
2. Mutual Aid Planning
3. Hazard prevention and control
4. Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)
102. Which of the following best describes ISO 9001?

1. Safety, health, and environmental standard
2. Quality management standard
3. Environmental management standard
4. System safety and engineering standard
103. ISO 9001 and 14001 are best known worldwide for their:
1. Ease of attainment
2. Safety and health accomplishments
3. Environmental requirements
4. Generic management system standards
104. According to ISO 9001, the standardized definition of quality refers to:
1. Six Sigma or better
2. Quality achieved by implementation of SQC
3. Those features of a product (or service) which are required by the
customer
4. Product standards only
105. The objective is for ISO 14001 to control environmental impact of the
organization’s actions and:
1. Continually increase the environmental performance as measured
against objectives
2. Raise the minimum requirements for International Certification
3. Continually monitor the quality control for service organizations
4. Minimize the impact of global trading partners in all aspects of quality
and environmental registration and certification
106. There are generally four reasons given for obtaining ISO 14001 certification:
1. Money, money, money, and money
2. Time, money, effort, and market share
3. Right thing to do, reduced liability, market share, and costs
4. Public image, profit-sharing opportunities, advertising, and legal
107. In the case of ISO 14001, the efficient and effective management of
processes is going to affect whether everything has been done to ensure a
product will have the least harmful impact on the environment, at any stage
in its life cycle:
1. Without causing an economic hardship
2. With the minimum amount of hazardous waste generation
3. Either by pollution, or by depleting natural resources
4. With maximum protection for endangered species
108. Standards are developed by groups of individuals, companies, associations,

etc. The groups meet and compile measurements, systems, tools, and
processes. What best describes the ANSI standards?
1. Best Available and Safest Technology (BAST-BSEE)
2. As Low As Reasonably Achievable (ALARA-NRC)
3. Voluntary Consensus Standards
4. Economically Viable Application of Best Available Technology
(EVABAT-ISO 14001)
BSEE-Bureau of Safety and Environmental Enforcement (DOI)

NRC-Nuclear Regulatory Commission
109. The ISO 45000 outlines the elements of an Occupational Health and Safety
Management System. The key elements of this standard are:
1. SHES Auditing and Certification
2. Managing the Safety and Health Professionals
3. High-level structure, identical core text, and common definition
4. Coordinating the governmental, legal, and regulatory standards
110. ISO 45000 defines a management system as:

1. People working toward a common objective
2. An organization system defined by lines of authority
3. The people, property, and environment necessary to achieve mission
objectives of an organization
4. Set of interrelated or interacting elements of an organization to establish
policies and objectives and processes to achieve those objectives
111. ISO 19011 is designed to provide recommendations for:

1. Statistical Quality Control
2. Quality and Environmental Management Systems Audits
3. Safety, Health, Environmental, and Security Audits
4. Safety and Health Level 5 Auditing Procedures
112. An audit is conducted of a company’s ISO 14001 management system.

What provides the minimum acceptable verification that the company is
reviewing proposed or new legal requirements?
1. An e-mail from a contract review service showing the dates and times of
the editor
2. A letter from the company’s law firm, stating the date of the review
3. A document identifying the date of review of new or proposed legal
requirements, and determinations of applicability as reviewed by
management
4. A notarized consultant’s report showing a thorough review within the
past six months, with the appropriate check lists included

Elements of ANSI/ASSP Z10 (Follows the Plan-Do-Check-Act format of ISO)
1.0 Scope, Purpose and Application

2.0 Definitions
3.0 Management Leadership and Employee Participation
4.0 Planning
5.0 Implementation and Operation
6.0 Evaluation and Corrective Action
7.0 Management Review
Hierarchy of Controls for ANSI/ASSP Z10
1. Elimination
2. Substitution of less hazardous materials, processes, operations, or equipment
3. Engineering Controls
4. Warnings
5. Administrative Control
6. Personal Protective Equipment
Key ANSI/ASSP Z10 definitions:
Employee A person who is employed by the organization, or by a

contractor to the organization when that person is under
the day-to-day control of the organization
Ensure To make every reasonable effort to fulfill the

requirement
Organization A public or private company, corporation, firm,

enterprise, authority, or institution, or part or
combination thereof, that has its own management
functions
Hazard A condition, set of circumstances, or inherent property

that can cause injury, illness or death
Risk An estimate of the combination of the likelihood of an

occurrence of a hazardous event or exposure, and the
severity of injury or illness that may be caused by the
event or exposure

ISO Concepts:
Plan: establish the objectives and processes necessary to deliver results in
accordance with customer requirements and the organization's policies.
Do: implement the processes.
Check: monitor and measure processes and product against policies, objectives
and requirements for the product and report the results.
Act: take actions to continually improve process performance

ISO 9001
1. Management Responsibility
The quality policy shall be defined, documented, understood, implemented
and maintained.
Responsibilities and authorities for all personnel specifying, achieving and
monitoring quality shall be defined.
In-house verification resources shall be defined, trained and funded.
A designated management person sees that the Q91 program is implemented
and maintained.
2. Quality System
Procedures shall be prepared.
Procedures shall be implemented.
3. Contract Review
Incoming contracts (and purchase orders) shall be reviewed to see whether
the requirements are adequately defined, agree with the bid and can be
supplied.
4. Design Control
The design project shall be planned.
Design input parameters shall be defined.
Design output, including crucial product characteristics shall be
documented.
Design output shall be verified to meet input requirements.
Design changes shall be controlled.
5. Document Control
Generation of documents shall be controlled.
Distribution of documents shall be controlled.
Changes to documents shall be controlled.
6. Purchasing
Potential subcontractors and sub-suppliers shall be evaluated for their ability
to provide stated requirements.
Requirements shall be clearly defined in contracting data.
Effectiveness of the subcontractor's quality assurance system shall be
assessed.
7. Customer-Supplied Material
Any customer-supplied material shall be protected against loss or damage.
8. Product Identification & Traceability
The products shall be identified and traceable by item, batch or lot during all
stages of production, delivery and installation.
9. Process Control
Production (and installation) processes shall be defined and planned.
Production shall be carried out under controlled conditions: documented
instructions, in-process controls, approval of processes and equipment, and
criteria for workmanship.
Special processes that cannot be verified after the fact shall be monitored
and controlled throughout the processes.
10. Inspection and Testing

Incoming materials shall be inspected or verified before use.
In-process inspection and testing shall be performed.
Final inspection and testing shall be performed prior to release of finished
product.
Records of inspection and test shall be kept.
11. Inspection/Measuring/Test Equipment

Equipment used to demonstrate conformance shall be controlled, calibrated
and maintained.
Identify measurements to be made.
Identify affected instruments.
Calibrate instruments (procedures and status indicators).
Periodically check calibration.
Assess measurement validity if found out of calibration.
Control environmental conditions in metrology lab.
Measurement uncertainty and equipment capability shall be known.
Where test hardware or software is used, it shall be checked before use and
rechecked during use.
12. Inspection and Test Status

Status of inspections and tests shall be maintained for items as they progress
through various processing steps.
Records shall show who released conforming product.
13. Control of Nonconforming Product

Nonconforming product shall be controlled to prevent inadvertent use or
installation.
Review and disposition of nonconforming product shall be formalized.

14. Corrective Action
Problem causes shall be identified.
Specific problems and their causes shall be corrected.
Effectiveness of corrective actions shall be assessed.
15. Handling, Storage, Packaging & Delivery

Procedures for handling, storage, packaging and delivery shall be developed
& maintained.
Handling controls shall prevent damage and deterioration.
Secure storage shall be provided. Product in stock shall be checked for
deterioration.
Packing, preservation and marking processes shall be controlled.
Quality of the product after final inspection shall be maintained. This might
include delivery controls.
16. Quality Records

Quality records shall be identified, collected, indexed, filed, stored,
maintained and dispositioned.
17. Internal Quality Audits

Audits shall be planned and performed.
Results of audits shall be communicated to management.
Any deficiencies found shall be corrected.
18. Training
Training needs shall be identified.
Training shall be provided.
Some tasks may require qualified individuals.
Records of training shall be maintained.
19. Servicing
Servicing activities shall be performed to written procedures.
Servicing activities shall meet requirements.
20. Statistical Techniques

Statistical techniques shall be identified.
Statistical techniques shall be used to verify acceptability of process
capability and product characteristics.

The Documented Requirements of ISO 14001 are:
4.1 Environmental Policy
• 4.2 Planning
• 4.2.1 Environmental Aspects
• 4.2.2 Legal and Other Requirements
• 4.2.3 Objectives and Targets
• 4.2.4 Environmental Management Program(s)
• 4.3 Implementation and Operation
• 4.3.1 Structure and Responsibility
• 4.3.2 Training, Awareness, and Competence
• 4.3.3 Communication
• 4.3.4 EMS Documentation
• 4.3.5 Document Control
• 4.3.6 Operational Control
• 4.3.7 Emergency Preparedness and Response
• 4.4 Checking and Corrective Action
• 4.4.1 Monitoring and Measurement
• 4.4.2 Corrective and Preventative Action
• 4.4.3 Records
• 4.4.4 EMS Audit
• 4.5 Management Review
NOTE: According to ISO 14001, once the amount of time for an audit is
established, the on-site time is supposed to be about 80% of the total time, and
20% is for planning, preparation, and report writing. (Ratio of 4:1)
Environment--Surroundings in which an organization operates, including air,

water, land, natural resources, flora, fauna, humans, and their interrelation.
NOTE -- Surroundings in this context extend from within an organization to the
global system.
Environmental Impact--Any change to the environment, whether adverse or

beneficial, wholly or partially resulting from an organization's activities, products
or services.
Environmental Management System Audit--A systematic and documented

verification process of objectively obtaining and evaluating evidence to determine
whether an organization's environmental management system conforms to the
environmental management system audit criteria set by the organization, and for
communication of the results of this process to management."

ISO 14000 Environmental Management System (EMS) Model
3.2 Continual
4.2 Define Policy Improvement
3.18 Prevention of
Pollution
Products,
Services,
and 4.3.1 Identify Aspects
Activities
4.3.3 Identify
PD CA
4.3.2 Legal
Requirements Objectives
Targets and Programs
4.4 Implementation
and Operation
4.4.1 Resources, Roles,
responsibility and authority
4.4.2 Competence, Training &
Awareness
4.4.3 Communication
4.4.4 Documentation
4.5.1 Monitoring & Measurement 4.5 Checking 4.4.5 Document Control
4.5.2 Preventive & Corrective Action 4.4.6 Operational Control
4.5.3 Records 4.4.7 Emergency Preparedness
4.5.4 EMS Audit
4.6 Management
Review

ISO 31000 Summary
The definition of "risk" is no longer "chance or probability of loss", but "effect of

uncertainty on objectives" ... thus causing the word "risk" to refer to positive
consequences of uncertainty, as well as negative ones.
A broad new definition for stakeholder was established in ISO 31000, "Person or
persons that can affect, be affected by, or perceive themselves to be affected by a
decision or activity." It is the verbatim definition given for the term "interested
party" as defined in ISO 9001:2015.
Risk management is "coordinated activities to direct and control and organization

with regard to risk". It again elaborates risk management framework as a "set of
components that provide the foundations and organizational arrangements for
designing, implementing, monitoring, reviewing and continually improving risk
management processes throughout the organization". According to ISO 31000,
risk management process is a "systematic application of management policies,
procedures and practices to the tasks of communication, consultation, establishing
the context, identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, monitoring and reviewing
risk".
ANSI/ASSP/ISO 45001-2018
The 45001 follows the standardized format of ISO.
1. Scope
2. Normative References
3. Terms and Definitions
4. Context of the Organization
5. Leadership
6. Planning
7. Support
8. Operation
9. Performance Evaluation
10. Improvement
The Elements of the OH&S program include:
1. Leadership, commitment and policy, including worker participation
2. Planning, hazard identification, assessment
3. Support, resources, competence, participation
4. Operations planning and control, hierarchy of controls, management of

change, contractors, emergency planning
5. Performance Evaluation, audit
6. Improvement, continuous and on-going
In the Standard:
“shall” indicates a requirement
“should” indicates a recommendation
“may” indicates a permission
“can” indicates a possibility or a capability

113. What is the technique called when forecasts are presented in writing to a
group leader, summaries returned to the group leader, and a decision is
reached without the group ever meeting?
1. Problem-solving
2. Delphi Technique
3. Web-Conferencing
4. Distance Meeting
114. Pareto Analysis is a statistical technique in decision-making used for the

selection of a limited number of tasks that produce significant overall effect.
It uses the Pareto Principle (also known as the 80/20 rule) the idea that by
doing 20% of the work you can generate 80% of the benefit of doing the
entire job. The principle of "distinguishing the significant few from the
trivial many" was developed by:
1. The Peter Principle—Lawrence J. Peter--Canadian educator and
"hierarchiologist"; employees are promoted to level of incompetence
2. Parkinson's Law--Cyril Northcote Parkinson--British naval historian;
work expands to consume the amount of time allotted
3. W. Edwards Deming-American engineer, statistician, professor, author,
lecturer, and management consultant; 14 key principles for management
for transforming business effectiveness
4. Vilfredo Pareto--Italian engineer, sociologist, economist, political
scientist, and philosopher

115. The following chart is an example of a project management tool
which allows for coordination of multiple tasks during planning and
actual working stages. It is commonly known as a:
1. Scheduling Chart
2. Gantt Chart
3. PERT Chart
4. BCSP Chart
4/30/12 5/20/12 6/9/12 6/29/12 7/19/12 8/8/12
Task 1
Task 2
Task 3
Task 4
Task 5
Task 6
Task 7
Task 8
116. What type of chart is used to sequence activities for scheduling and timing?
It is also used to determine the critical path.
1. ISO Chart
2. S&T Chart (Scheduling and Timing Chart)
3. PERT Chart (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)
4. PSM Chart (Process Safety Management)

117. What is the primary objective of a RACI Chart?
1. Timing
2. Budgeting
3. Assignments
4. Finance
118. Which of the following defines Responsible in a RACI chart?

1. This team member does the work to complete the task. Every task needs
at least one, but okay to assign more
2. This person delegates work and is the last one to review the task or
deliverable before completion; some tasks Responsible and
Accountable are the same
3. Every deliverable is strengthened by review and consultation from more
than one team member; consulted parties are typically the people who
provide input based on either how it will impact their future project
work or their domain of expertise on the deliverable itself
4. These team members simply need to be kept in the loop on project
progress, rather on the details of the project

119. The work required to successfully complete a project or contract is described
in the agreement. This description is known as the:
1. Disclaimer
2. Event Tree
3. Privity of Contract (POC)
4. Scope of Work (SOW)
120. A company is considering the outsourcing of some maintenance work. The

initial announcement for contract proposals is usually announced or released
in a Request for Proposal (RFP). Which of the following describes a
contractual relationship to the hiring company?
1. The company managing the work controls the workers’ time, methods
of work, and withholds payroll taxes from the wages
2. The hiring company has the right to control or direct only the result of
the work and not what will be done and how it will be done
3. An organization or individual selling products or services with
independent transactions
4. A worksite at which two or more entities are performing tasks that will
contribute to the completion of a common project. The entities may or
may not be related contractually. The contractual relationship may or
may not be in writing.
121. Prevention through Design (PTD) or Safety by Design encompasses all of

the efforts to anticipate and design out hazards to workers in facilities, work
methods and operations, processes, equipment, tools, products, new
technologies, and the organization of work. This includes all of the
following except:
1. Eliminating hazards and controlling risks to workers to an acceptable
level “at the source” or as early as possible in the life cycle of items or
workplaces
2. Including design, redesign and retrofit of new and existing work
premises, structures, tools, facilities, equipment, machinery, products,
substances, work processes and the organization of work
3. Enhancing the work environment through the inclusion of prevention
methods in all designs that impact workers and others on the premises
4. Incorporating a cost-benefit analysis at all stages of system development

122. For a Management of Change process to be effective, it should incorporate
the following considerations: 1) technical basis for the proposed change;
2) impact of change on safety and health; 3) modifications to operating
procedures; 4) necessary time period for the change; and 5):
1. Program evaluation
2. Authorization requirements for the proposed change
3. Management analysis including financial impact
4. Incident investigation for all unexplained results
123. Which of the following is not included in a Management of Change Program

for Process Safety Management?
1. Modifications to equipment
2. Modifications to procedures
3. Alterations to processing conditions
4. Replacement in kind
124. Which of the following requires review and approval by a written

Management of Change procedure?
1. Operator manages pressures between upper and lower operating levels
2. Employees maintain temperatures plus or minus safe production range
3. Maintenance personnel calibrate flow rates to design specifications
4. Engineers experiment with temperatures over 150% of maximum levels
125. Temporary changes should have time limits established/monitored. What is

a primary objective of the Management of Change for this?
1. Updates to the PSM to the new standards for experimental purposes
2. Establish new higher control limits in the event of natural disasters
3. Ensure equipment/procedures are returned to original/design conditions
4. Provide an alternative operation for new hires

126. What is the first step in developing a Business Continuity Plan?
1. Business analysis
2. Identify critical functions
3. Organize a team and plan
4. Train, test, exercise, and evaluate
Business Continuity Plan Development
127. Which is the most effective leadership style for emergencies?

1. Autocratic
2. Democratic
3. Free rein
4. Situational
128. What is span of control?

1. Each employee reports to only one individual
2. The number of employees reporting to one individual
3. The company owns all aspects of the production process
4. The company owns little or none of the production process
129. An organization's culture is defined by its values, rituals, jargon, norms,

stories, and symbols. Which of the following defines values?
1. Principles designed to guide employee behavior
2. Rules of the game, often modeled after key leaders
3. Language of the organization
4. Ceremonial acts that convey organizational values as well as how
employees function

130. This mechanical engineer and one of the first management consultants is
often referred to as the "Father of Scientific Management."
1. Frederick W. Taylor
2. Frank Gilbreth
3. Douglas McGregor
4. Chris Argyris
131. Who is known for the development of the Hierarchy of Needs?

1. Abraham Maslow
2. B. F. Skinner
3. Elton Mayo
4. Frederick Herzberg

132. SHE audits are designed to provide management information about the
performance of the organization and the employees. Which of the following
is of the most concern to management?
1. Performance in accordance with acceptable standards and codes
2. Meeting the ethical standards set by the US
3. Costs and operational effectiveness
4. Meeting financial objectives of the Board of Directors
133. Which of the following organizational systems would be most appropriate

for a one-of-a-kind special project?
1. Functional
2. Divisional
3. Geographic
4. Matrix

Matrix (task force) Functional
PRESIDENT
PROJECT MANAGER
Finance Engineering
Maintenance HRD
ELECTRICAL PROPULSION WEAPONS LIFE SUPPORT
Production
Supervisor
Employees
Divisional Geographic
PRESIDENT
GENERAL MANAGER
TRACTOR GRADER DOZER MOWER

NORTH SOUTH EAST WEST
Customer
Sales Manager
Government Education Industrial Consumer

134. When every individual in a universe has an equal and independent chance of
selection, the technique is known as:
1. Random sample
2. Stratified sample
3. Systematic sample
4. Cluster sample
135. How is the coefficient of variation determined?

S
1. Divide standard deviation by the mean C.V. =
2. Multiply the SD by the variance X
3. Square root of geometric mean (𝑋̅) C.V. = Coef. of Variation
4. Sum of the squares S = standard deviation
̅
X = average
136. The managers of a corporation are paid an average of $4,800 per month
while the hourly work force averages $780 per week. The standard
deviation of the managers salary is $820, and the workers is $64. Which of
the following statements is most correct?
1. There cannot be a comparison between monthly and weekly salaries
2. There is more variation of the workers' salaries than the managers
3. There is more variation of the managers' salaries than the workers
4. There is no difference in the variation between the two groups

137. The correlation coefficient indicates:
1. The relationship between your actual and desired weight
2. The strength of the relationship between two variables
3. The direction of the relationship between two variables
4. Both the strength and direction of the relationship between two
variables
N(XY) − (X)( Y)

Pearson’s r r=
BCSP [ N(X 2 ) − (X) 2 ][ N(Y 2 ) − (Y ) 2 ]
Spearmans’s 6 ∑(D) 2
Rank Coefficient rs = 1-
BCSP N(N 2 − 1)
Correlation Coefficient
-1.0 -0.9 -0.9 -0.4 -0.4 0.0 0.4 0.4 0.9 0.9 1.0
High Low No Low High
r = + 1.0 r = -1.0 r = 0.0

138. Individual plant safety audit scores and the plants’ injury frequency rates for
the year, along with their respective rankings are tabulated in the table.
What is the Spearman rank coefficient of correlation between the rankings of
the audit scores and the rankings of the injury rates?
1. +0.96
2. +0.89
3. -0.86
4. -0.96
Plant Audit Score (X) Rank (x) Injury Rate (Y) Rank (y)
A 50 10 10.0 10
B 65 8 8.5 8
C 82 5 5.0 4
D 85 4 7.0 6
E 73 7 8.0 7
F 75 6 5.5 5
G 92 3 4.0 3
H 95 2 3.0 2
I 55 9 9.0 9
J 98 1 2.0 1
Y y
X x
139. Which of the following statements is the best interpretation of the table?
1. High audit scores tend to be associated with low injury rates.
2. High audit scores tend to be associated with high injury rates.
3. Low audit scores tend to be associated with low injury rates.
4. There is no correlation between audit scores and injury rates.

140. Given a set of data, to increase the
probability your findings are not Ha - Research Hypothesis
due to chance, you would use a Ho - Null Hypothesis
"p" value of: P - Confidence Value
1. 0.01 p - Probability of Error
2. 0.10 Control Group
3. 0.20 Experimental Group
4. 0.25
141. You are conducting a study at your facility on the culture of safety. This
study is done by a survey of the employees. This research would be
described as:
1. Quantitative
2. Qualitative
3. Employee-Involved
4. Participative
142. You have conducted a research study and have found a large variance in a
key element. What would be your next course of action?
1. Check your sample size
2. Review the key element
3. Evaluate the key element for cause and effect
4. Accept the results as found and publish
143. Your recent survey of employee attitudes toward safety has a confidence
value of 90%. The management team has requested you evaluate your
findings and determine a confidence value of 95%. The best way to
accomplish this is:
1. Request a bigger budget
2. Hire more staff
3. Recalculate your data
4. Increase the sample size

Research Methodology Notes
Quantitative or qualitative? A quantitative approach will mean you will need

substantial datasets, as well as the inclusion of tables and statistics in your final
submission. This information could come from a variety of sources - remember to
acknowledge them! A qualitative approach will probably mean conducting
interviews or focus groups or observing behavior. Ask yourself if you are prepared
to do this and think about the best way of getting the answers you want from
people. Will you stop people in the street? Will you conduct telephone interviews?
Deductive or inductive? Deductive research is theory-testing, which is often linked

to datasets, surveys or quantitative analysis. Inductive research is theory
generating, and is often linked to qualitative interviews.
Empirical or theoretical? An empirical study could involve close analysis of

statistics or some form of qualitative research. However, a theoretical study brings
its own challenges, and you may be called upon to compare theories in terms of
their applicability.
Once you have decided upon your approach, you can write out a research design,
i.e. how you are going to approach the project. Now look a little at the research
methods that you have studied. Apart from matching your research to your general
sense of objective/subjective reality, it is important to ensure that you match your
methodology to the problem you are pursuing.
Type I Error-- often referred to as a "false positive" and is the process of the false
rejection of the null hypothesis when it is true.
Type II Error--the opposite of Type I error and is the false acceptance of the null
hypothesis; also referred to as a false negative.
The two most common types: perception and knowledge surveys. Perception
surveys pose questions about what the subjects feel or think on a given topic.
Knowledge surveys present questions to determine what the subjects think they
“know” as factual information.
Perception Question: How important is Wi-Fi in your hotel?

Very Important Somewhat Important Not Important
Knowledge Question: How many have served as President of the United States?
1. 33 2. 44 3. 100

144. The BCSP has just released the latest exam results. The average score was
125 and the standard deviation 15. A group of 21 people took the ASP
Preparation Workshop prior to the above exam. Their average score was
133 and the standard deviation 11. Are the scores of the seminar
participants significantly better than the average score at the p = 0.05 level?
1. Yes
2. No
3. Maybe
4. Cannot be determined with given information
__ Ha-
X−μ
t= n
s
Ho-
t = t test score BCSP
̅ = sample mean
X
µ = population mean
𝑠 = sample standard deviation P-
n = sample size
df = n-1 p-

Table of Percentage Points of the t Distribution (BCSP)

This information may be useful in the next three questions. Your facility made
1,000 widgets with an average life expectancy of 500 hours with a standard
deviation of 100 hours.
145. What percent of the widgets
will fail in the first 225 hours? z= X- BCSP
1. 0.1 % 
2. 0.3 % z = z score, number of sd from the mean
3. 2.5% X = test score
4. 3.8% µ = population mean
 = population standard deviation
146. What is the probability of

failure before 600 hours? -3 -2 -1 0 +1 +2 +3
1. 0.03
2. 0.27
3. 0.68
4. 0.84
147. If a widget fails at 700 hours, what is the percentile?

1. 16th percentile
2. 50th percentile
3. 68th percentile
4. 98th percentile

148. As the Safety Director of your company, you are concerned about the
number of first aid and recordable cases involving new employees (less than
one year of experience) versus the number of cases involving the more
experienced employees. A survey of the employee incident/accident data
reveals the following:
NEW EE'S OLD EE'S TOTAL
FIRST AID 25 60 85
RECORDABLE 15 100 115
TOTAL 40 160 200
Can you be 99% sure that any

differences observed in the k (o j − e j ) 2
above data are not due to χ2 = Σ
chance? j=1 ej
1. Yes 2 = Chi Square test
2 No o = observed frequency
3. Maybe e = expected frequency
4. Sometimes e = (sum of row)(sum of column)/total
Ha- df =degrees of freedom
df = (# rows - 1)(# columns - 1)
Ho- BCSP
P-
CHI SQUARE SOLUTIONS MATRIX
p-
(oj-ej)2
oj ej oj-ej
ej
100
60
15
25
Total (∑)

Upper Percentage Points of the Chi Square Distribution (BCSP)

STATISTICS SUMMARY
Coef of Variation compares the percent variations of two or more groups by

measures of central tendency, even though measurements
use different reference basis (standard deviation ÷ mean)
Coef Correlation determines the strength and direction of the relationship

between two variables (age vs. salary)
t test compares the sample group average to the population

average to show if the sample performs differently; also
known as the "students' t"
z score determines the location of a single score in the normal

distribution: percent of the area under a normal curve;
the number of standard deviations from the mean
Chi square determines if there is a statistically significant difference

between observed and expected frequencies in a sample
or survey

149. In a plant that manufactures flammable fingernail polish remover, the
wiring in the open processing area should be:
1. Class I, Division 1
2. Class I, Division 2
3. Class II, Division 1
4. Class II, Division 2
NFPA 70 (NEC); Article 500
Class I, Div 1 ignitable concentrations of flammable gases or vapors can exist under
normal operating conditions, or exist frequently due to repair or leakage,
or where breakdown or repair might release ignitable concentrations and
might also cause simultaneous failure of electric equipment
Class I, Div 2 volatile flammable liquids or gases are handled, processed or used, but
are normally confined within closed containers or closed systems
Class II, Div 1 combustible dust in the air under normal operating conditions sufficient
to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures, ------
Class II, Div 2 sufficient quantities of dust not normally present, ------
Class III, Div 1 location in which easily ignitable fibers are handled, manufactured, or
used
Class III, Div 2 easily ignitable fibers are stored
______________________________________________________________________________________________________
Note: Division 1--Gases, dusts, fibers are normally present (Paint spray booth)
Division 2--Gases, dusts, fibers are not normally present (Stored containers)

150. To prevent confusion and serious consequences of mixing gas cylinders,
different colors and/or different valve outlet threads have been designed for
most cylinders in the medical and industrial fields. The reference is:
1. ANSI/CGA V-1-2005
2. Underwriters Laboratories
3. Factory Mutual Insurance
4. National Safety Council
151. It is the responsibility of the employer to ensure point of operation guards on

mechanical power presses. Point of operation guards include the following
except:
1. Fixed barrier
2. Interlocked barrier
3. Adjustable barrier
4. Presence sensing device
152. This agreement signed in 1987 by many industrial nations, proposed to end
the production of certain CFC’s (chlorofluorocarbons) by the signing
nations. This Protocol on Substances That Deplete the Ozone Layer is
known as:
1. The Montreal Protocol
2. The Ozone Treaty of 1987
3. NAFTA
4. European Union Treaty on CFC
153. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

is an organization comprised of 34 nations formed in 1948 to improve:
1. Management Systems in Industrial Nations
2. Vehicle emissions and industrial pollutant standards
3. International Banking Agreements and Treaties
4. The economic and social well-being of people around the world
The OECD provides a forum in which governments can work together to

share experiences and seek solutions to common problems. We work with
governments to understand what drives economic, social and environmental
change. We measure productivity and global flows of trade and investment.
We analyze and compare data to predict future trends. We set international
standards on a wide range of things, from agriculture and tax to the safety
of chemicals. (Headquarters: Paris, France)

154. Given the following diagram, what is the specific gravity of the liquid?
1. 9.0
2. 4.0
3. 3.0
4. 1.5

EPA Summary
NEPA (1969) -- National Environmental Policy Act - one of the first laws ever
written that establishes the broad national framework for protecting our
environment. NEPA's basic policy is to assure that all branches of government
give proper consideration to the environment prior to undertaking any major
federal action that significantly affects the environment. NEPA requirements are
invoked when airports, buildings, military complexes, highways, parkland
purchases, and other federal activities are proposed. Environmental Assessments
(EAs) and Environmental Impact Statements (EISs), which are assessments of the
likelihood of impacts from alternative courses of action, are required from all
Federal agencies and are the most visible NEPA requirements.
MPRSA (1972) - Marine Protection, Research, and Sanctuaries Act - banned

ocean dumping; Unless authorized by a permit, the MPRSA generally prohibits
(1) transportation of material from the US for the purpose of ocean dumping; (2)
transportation of material from anywhere for the purpose of ocean dumping by US
agencies or US-flagged vessels; (3) dumping of material transported from outside
the US into the US territorial sea [MPRSA section 101]. Under MPRSA, standard
for permit issuance is whether the dumping will "unreasonably degrade or
endanger" human health, welfare, or the marine environment [MPRSA sections
102(a) and 103(a)] Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is charged with
developing ocean dumping criteria to be used in evaluating permit applications
FIFRA (1972) - Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act - control of

distribution, sale and uses of materials, study consequences and registered users
take exam. The primary focus of FIFRA was to provide federal control of
pesticide distribution, sale, and use. EPA was given authority under FIFRA not
only to study the consequences of pesticide usage but also to require users
(farmers, utility companies, and others) to register when purchasing pesticides.
Through later amendments to the law, users also must take exams for certification
as applicators of pesticides. All pesticides used in the U.S. must be registered
(licensed) by EPA. Registration assures that pesticides will be properly labeled and
that if in accordance with specifications, will not cause unreasonable harm to the
environment.

TSCA (1976) - Toxic Substances Control Act - regulates development (testing
by manufacturers), distribution, and marketing of chemical substances PCB's,
Asbestos. The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) of 1976 was enacted by
Congress to give EPA the ability to track the 75,000 industrial chemicals currently
produced or imported into the United States. EPA repeatedly screens these
chemicals and can require reporting or testing of those that may pose an
environmental or human-health hazard. EPA can ban the manufacture and import
of those chemicals that pose an unreasonable risk. Also, EPA has mechanisms in
place to track the thousands of new chemicals that industry develops each year
with either unknown or dangerous characteristics. EPA then can control these
chemicals as necessary to protect human health and the environment. TSCA
supplements other Federal statutes, including the Clean Air Act and the Toxic
Release Inventory under EPCRA.
RCRA (1976) - Resource Conservation and Recovery Act - hazardous waste

management through issuance of standards and regulations covering generation,
transportation, storage, treatment and disposal of hazardous waste (Toxic,
Reactive, Ignitable, and Corrosive); TCLP–Toxicity Characteristic Leaching
Procedure Test; Records are required to be kept for three years. RCRA
(pronounced "rick-rah") gave EPA the authority to control hazardous waste from
the "cradle-to-grave." This includes the generation, transportation, treatment,
storage, and disposal of hazardous waste. RCRA also set forth a framework for the
management of non-hazardous wastes. The 1986 amendments to RCRA enabled
EPA to address environmental problems that could result from underground tanks
storing petroleum and other hazardous substances. RCRA focuses only on active
and future facilities and does not address abandoned or historical sites.
A life-cycle assessment (LCA) is a tool that can be used to evaluate the

potential environmental impacts of a product, material, process, or activity.
An LCA is a comprehensive method for assessing a range of environmental
impacts across the full life cycle of a product system, from materials acquisition to
manufacturing, use, and final disposition. LCA study results help to promote the
responsible design and redesign of products and processes, leading to reduced
overall environmental impacts and the reduced use and release of more toxic
materials. LCA studies identify key materials and processes within the products'
life cycles that are likely to pose the greatest impacts, including occupational and
public toxicity impacts. These assessments allow businesses to make product
improvements through environmentally sound process, material, and design
choices.

CERCLA (1980) - Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation,
and Liability Act (CERCLA), commonly known as Superfund, was enacted by
Congress on December 11, 1980. This law created a tax on the chemical and
petroleum industries and provided broad Federal authority to respond directly to
releases or threatened releases of hazardous substances that may endanger public
health or the environment. Over five years, $1.6 billion was collected and the tax
went to a trust fund for cleaning up abandoned or uncontrolled hazardous waste
sites. CERCLA: established prohibitions and requirements concerning closed and
abandoned hazardous waste sites; provided for liability of persons responsible for
releases of hazardous waste at these sites; and established a trust fund to provide
for cleanup when no responsible party could be identified. The law authorizes two
kinds of response actions: Short-term removals, where actions may be taken to
address releases or threatened releases requiring prompt response.
Long-term remedial response actions, that permanently and significantly reduce

the dangers associated with releases or threats of releases of hazardous substances
that are serious, but not immediately life threatening. These actions can be
conducted only at sites listed on EPA's National Priorities List (NPL). CERCLA
also enabled the revision of the National Contingency Plan (NCP). The NCP
provided the guidelines and procedures needed to respond to releases and
threatened releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, or contaminants. The NCP
also established the NPL. CERCLA was amended by the Superfund Amendments
and Reauthorization Act (SARA) on October 17, 1986. Spill response includes
planning, PPE, mitigation and decontamination.
HSWA (pronounced "hiss-wa")—The Federal Hazardous and Solid Waste

Amendments are the 1984 amendments to RCRA that required phasing out land
disposal of hazardous waste. Some of the other mandates of this strict law include
increased enforcement authority for EPA, more stringent hazardous waste
management standards, and a comprehensive underground storage tank program

CAA - Clean Air Act (70, 77, 90) - regulation of air pollution; control of
designated contaminants. The Clean Air Act is the comprehensive Federal law that
regulates air emissions from area, stationary, and mobile sources. This law
authorizes the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency to establish National
Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) to protect public health and the
environment. The goal of the Act was to set and achieve NAAQS in every state by
1975. The setting of maximum pollutant standards was coupled with directing the
states to develop state implementation plans (SIP's) applicable to appropriate
industrial sources in the state. The Act was amended in 1977 primarily to set new
goals (dates) for achieving attainment of NAAQS since many areas of the country
had failed to meet the deadlines. The 1990 amendments to the Clean Air Act in
large part were intended to meet unaddressed or insufficiently addressed problems
such as acid rain, ground-level ozone, stratospheric ozone depletion, and air toxics.
The two types of vapor-cloud dispersion models are plume (continuous
release such as smokestack) and puff (sudden release of material forming a
cloud).
CWA - Clean Water Act - (72, 77) - (NPDES) water quality standards, effluent
limitations, treatment methods, discharge permits, dredging; NPDES - National
Pollutant Discharge Elimination System. Growing public awareness and concern
for controlling water pollution led to enactment of the Federal Water Pollution
Control Act Amendments of 1972. As amended in 1977, this law became
commonly known as the Clean Water Act. The Act established the basic structure
for regulating discharges of pollutants into the waters of the United States. It gave
EPA the authority to implement pollution control programs such as setting
wastewater standards for industry. The Clean Water Act also continued
requirements to set water quality standards for all contaminants in surface waters.
The Act made it unlawful for any person to discharge any pollutant from a point
source into navigable waters, unless a permit was obtained under its provisions. It
also funded the construction of sewage treatment plants under the construction
grants program and recognized the need for planning to address the critical
problems posed by nonpoint source pollution. Subsequent enactments modified
some of the earlier Clean Water Act provisions. Revisions in 1981 streamlined the
municipal construction grants process, improving the capabilities of treatment
plants built under the program.

Changes in 1987 phased out the construction grants program, replacing it with the
State Water Pollution Control Revolving Fund, more commonly known as the
Clean Water State Revolving Fund. This new funding strategy addressed water
quality needs by building on EPA-State partnerships. Over the years, many other
laws have changed parts of the Clean Water Act. Title I of the Great Lakes Critical
Programs Act of 1990, for example, put into place parts of the Great Lakes Water
Quality Agreement of 1978, signed by the U.S. and Canada, where the two nations
agreed to reduce certain toxic pollutants in the Great Lakes. That law required EPA
to establish water quality criteria for the Great Lakes addressing 29 toxic pollutants
with maximum levels that are safe for humans, wildlife, and aquatic life. It also
required EPA to help the States implement the criteria on a specific schedule.
SARA (1986) - Superfund Amendments Reauthorization Act -EPCRA -

Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (1986) - free-
standing provision of law contained in Title III of SARA. Required reporting of
hazardous materials releases, emergency planning; establishment of State
Emergency Response Commissions (SERC) and Local Emergency Planning
Committees (LEPC) The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act
(SARA) amended the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation,
and Liability Act (CERCLA) on October 17, 1986. SARA reflected EPA's
experience in administering the complex Superfund program during its first six
years and made several important changes and additions to the program. SARA:
stressed the importance of permanent remedies and innovative treatment
technologies in cleaning up hazardous waste sites; required Superfund actions to
consider the standards and requirements found in other State and Federal
environmental laws and regulations; provided new enforcement authorities and
settlement tools; increased State involvement in every phase of the Superfund
program; increased the focus on human health problems posed by hazardous waste
sites; encouraged greater citizen participation in making decisions on how sites
should be cleaned up; and increased the size of the trust fund to $8.5 billion.
SARA also required EPA to revise the Hazard Ranking System (HRS) to ensure
that it accurately assessed the relative degree of risk to human health and the
environment posed by uncontrolled hazardous waste sites that may be placed on
the National Priorities List (NPL). The most cited environmental regulation is
the mislabeling of chemicals and hazardous wastes.
The term in situ, "in its original place," or "on-site", means unexcavated and
unmoved. In situ soil flushing and natural attenuation are examples of in situ
treatment methods by which contaminated sites are treated without digging up or
removing the contaminants.

OPA - Oil Pollution Act (90)- Passed after the Exxon Valdez spill to improve
navigation and control of transportation and storage of substances such as crude
oil, improve reaction to ocean spills by making equipment more readily available.
The Oil Pollution Act (OPA) of 1990 streamlined and strengthened EPA’s ability
to prevent and respond to catastrophic oil spills. A trust fund financed by a tax on
oil is available to clean up spills when the responsible party is incapable or
unwilling to do so. The OPA requires oil storage facilities and vessels to submit to
the Federal government plans detailing how they will respond to large
discharges. EPA has published regulations for aboveground storage facilities; the
Coast Guard has done so for oil tankers. The OPA also requires the development
of Area Contingency Plans to prepare and plan for oil spill response on a regional
scale.
Source Reduction
Recycling
Treatment
Disposal
Sample Question:
Which of the following is an example of treatment?
1. Reduce packaging material or use re-usable containers, bags, etc.
2. Recycle plastic containers or use paper instead of plastic
3. Stabilization, neutralization, or incineration
4. Landfills and composting
Summary of How to Manage Waste Materials

155. Environmental Ethics can be defined as the disciplined reflection about
moral relationships to the natural world. The natural world and
environmental ethics includes:
1. Human beings and animals
2. Animals and plants
3. Human beings, human culture, plants, animals and inanimate matter
4. Traditions, habits, codes, practices, laws, and regulations
156. In the United States, the basic framework for protection of the environment
is contained in:
1. The Library of Congress
2. The National Environmental Policy Act (1969)
3. The Federal Emergency Management Administration (FEMA)
4. The Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)
157. Underground Storage Tanks (UST’s) are defined as tanks plus attached
piping having at least 10% of the combined volume located underground.
Which of the following is not a UST requirement?
1. Leak detection system
2. Spill, overfill and corrosion protection
3. Financial responsibility
4. Double lined metal construction
158. How are soil columns classified?

1. Particle size
2. Mineral content
3. Soil depth
4. Hydrocarbon content
159. How is asbestos removed from water?

1. Filtration through sand and other media
2. Centrifugal collectors
3. Reverse osmosis
4. Settling ponds
160. The Clean Air Act of 1970 requires a Risk Management Plan (RMP) for
certain releases over a threshold amount for the facility’s:
1. Inventory above maximum levels
2. Reportable quantities
3. Worst-case scenario
4. Materials considered Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH)

161. Which act gives the EPA the authority to establish regulations and programs
to ensure safe waste disposal?
1. TSCA
2. RCRA
3. CERCLA
4. SARA
162. The Unified Area Command (UAC) is the organization to oversee the
management of multiple incidents handled by the Incident Command
System (ICS), or to oversee:
1. Interstate events
2. International events
3. Large or multiple incidents to which several Incident Management
Teams have been assigned
4. Events caused by terrorism
163. ICS is a standardized on-scene incident management concept specifically

designed to allow responders to adopt an integrated organizational
structure equal to the complexity and demands of any single incident or
multiple incidents without:
1. Being hindered by jurisdictional boundaries
2. Concerns of fugitive emissions
3. Interference by local ordinances
4. DOT Labeling requirements
164. Which of the following best describes the "on-scene incident commander?"
1. The closest most-senior Fire Chief on the scene and First Responder
2. The designated official by the Governor by Executive Order
3. The oldest official regardless of experience
4. The most senior official on site who has the responsibility for controlling
the operations at the site
165. What percent of the total U.S. solid waste stream is classified as Hazardous?
1. 1%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4. 25%

166. Who is responsible for the raw materials, manufactured products,
by-products, and intermediate goods and the associated generation of
wastes and pollutants from facilities?
1. Local government officials
2. Federal government since it affects Interstate Commerce
3. Owner or operator of the facility
4. Stockholders under Corporate Social Responsibility
167. A waste is a hazardous waste under RCRA if it is a waste on the F, K, P,

or U List. An option is to be classified as a characteristic waste if it is:
1. Flammable, combustible, toxic, or poisonous characteristics
2. Bacteria, virus, protozoa, or toxic mold
3. Toxic mold, Toxic Bacteria, or Toxic Waste
4. Toxic, Reactive, Ignitable, or Corrosive
168. Which of the following materials would not be stored together?

1. Paint thinner and paint solvents
2. Ammonia and chlorine
3. Copper and zinc
4. Oil and grease
169. If ammonia is present in excess (which it may or may not be, depending on
your mixture), toxic and potentially explosive liquid hydrazine may be
formed. While impure hydrazine tends not to explode, it's still toxic, plus it
can boil and spray hot toxic liquid. Which of the following equations best
illustrates this result? (Note: N2H4 is Hydrazine)
1. 2NH3 + NaOCl N2H4 + NaCl + H2O
2. H2SO4 + 2NaOH Na2SO4 + 2H2O
3. C3H8 + 5O2 3CO2 + 4H2O
4. H2O + NaCl H2O + NaCl
170. Which of the following is classified as a small quantity generator?

1. 100 kg or less of hazardous waste; or 1 kg or less of acutely hazardous
waste per month
2. More than 100 kg but less than 1,000 kg of hazardous waste per month
3. 1,000 kg or more per month of hazardous waste, or more than 1 kg of
acutely hazardous waste
4. There is no such thing as a small quantity generator

171. The leading causes of underground storage tanks releases are:
1. Paint peeling
2. Corrosion
3. Piping leaks, spills and overfilling
4. Excessive rainfall
172. An organized group of employees, designated by the employer, that is

expected to control actual or potential leaks or spills of hazardous
substances requiring close approach to the substance is called a(n):
1. ICS
2. First Responder Team (FRT)
3. HAZMAT Team
4, Volunteer Fire Department
173. A Hazard and Operability Study is a study used to identify problems

associated with potential hazards and deviations in plant operations from the
design specifications and is carried out by a multi-disciplinary team
following a structure that includes a series of guide words (HAZOP)
(1910.119). Which of the following describes Root Cause Analysis?
1. The analysis of a major loss to prevent reoccurrence concerned with
identifying the original causes and
OR
not just the obvious symptoms
2. A graphical technique for representing the mutually exclusive sequenced
of events according to the functioning /not functioning of the various
systems to mitigate consequences (qualitatively & quantitatively)
3. A combination of Fault Tree and Event Tree analysis; starts from a
critical event and analyzes consequences by means of a combination of
YES/NO logic gates
4. A simple diagrammatic way of describing and analyzing the pathway of
a risk from causes to consequences; combination of the thinking of a
fault tree analyzing the cause of an event (knot of the bow tie) and an
event tree analyzing the consequences

Event Tree
Cause-Consequence Analysis

Bowtie Diagrams

174. Fault tree analysis is defined as the:
1. System safety technique utilizing deductive analysis that starts with an
undesired event and analyzes the way the undesired event can occur
2. System safety technique which calculates the probability of human
operating errors
3. System safety technique which is the initial effort to identify potentially
hazardous components within a system during the design phase
4. System analysis technique which identifies the way failures occur and
investigates their impact upon one another as well as other parts of the
system
THERP-Technique for Human

Deductive–>General Error Prediction
to Specific Deductive—General to Specific
Inductive –>Specific
PHA-Preliminary Hazard to Analysis
General
FMEA-Failure Mode and Effects Analysis Inductive—Specific to General
AND

175. Which of the following describes the System Safety Engineering Report
(SSER)?
1. The report which consists of a compilation of the production phase
inputs that identifies and documents the hazards of the final product or
system, provides definite conclusions about the safety integrity of the
product and the way specific hazards have been controlled
2. A safety case should provide a clear, comprehensible and defensible
argument, supported by evidence, that a system is acceptably safe to
operate in a particular environment
3. A rough valuation method for early-stage startups. The RFS-method
uses a base-value of a comparable startup for the valuation of a
company. This base-value is then adjusted for 12 standard risk factors:
Management, Stage of the business, Legislation/Political,
Manufacturing (or supply chain), Sales and marketing, Funding/capital
raising, Competition, Technology, Litigation, International risk,
Reputation, Exit value)
4. A field of study related to process improvement methodologies such as
lean management, Six Sigma, lean Six Sigma, organization
development, motivation, instructional technology, human factors,
learning, performance support systems, knowledge management, and
training. It is focused on improving performance at the societal,
organizational, process, and individual performer levels
176. The plan which identifies the tasks to be accomplished in the total safety
program for the evolution of the system and is considered the key to a
successful program is the:
1. System Safety Engineering Report (SSER)
2. System Safety Program Plan (SSPP)
3. Job Instruction Training (JIT)
4. Long-range Plan (LRP)
177. Which one of the following will not allow equipment to continue to operate?
1. Fail-passive
2. Fail-active
3. Fail-operational
4. Combination of events leading to the top event in a Fault Tree

178. Given the Fault Tree and the probabilities of basic events below, what is the
calculated probability of the occurrence of the fatal accident?
X1 = 0.0025 X2 = 0.050 X3 = 0.005 X4 = 0.00050
1. 1.2 x 10-4 Boolean
2. 1.3 x 10-6 Postulates
3. 6.9 x 10-6 BCSP
4. 3.1 x 10-10
A+0=A
A•1= A
A + A' = 1
A • A' = 0
A•A=A
A+A=A

179. An airplane has two engines, each with a probability of success of 0.90.
What is the probability that the airplane will arrive safely if one or both
engines working will ensure a safe arrival?
1. 0.50
2. 0.75
3. 0.92 A
4. 0.99
B
A B
Ps + Pf = 1
A A’ Parallel—Multiply Probability of Failure

Series—Multiply Probability of Success

180. A component has six parts connected in series, each with a probability of
failure of 0.05. Determine the probability of component failure.
1. 0.26
2. 0.30
3. 0.70
4. 0.74

181. A widget is made of three components called wiglets. Wiglet "A" has a 0.30
probability of success (Ps), wiglet "B" has a Ps of 0.45, and wiglet "C" has Ps
of 0.60. Calculate the Ps if wiglets B and C are functionally in parallel and
wiglet A is in series.
1. 0.23 B
2. 0.30
3. 0.39
4. 0.46 A

182. A group of 20 chips are in a piece of equipment. What is the probability of
two and only two chips failing if the chips are known to be 0.03 defective?
One or more of the following equations may help solve this problem.
1. 0.10
2. 0.26
3. 0.75
4. 0.98
P(r) = (λt)r e-λt BCSP
r!
Poisson Probability Formula

R (t) = e−t P = probability
λ = average or rate
R = Reliability BCSP t = time, trials
λ = average or rate r = number of occurrences
t = time, trials e = natural log base
e = natural log base ! = factorial

183. Which of the following equations would you use to determine the present
value of the annual maintenance costs of your newly purchased production
machine?
1. 3.
n i(1 + i)n
(1 + i) − 1 A=P ( )
P = A( ) (1 + i)n − 1
i(1 + i)n
2. 4.
i (1 + i)n − 1
A=F ( ) F=A ( )
(1 + i)n − 1 i
184. The expected value of a contract is

Profit Probability Result
defined as the most representative
value of a group of data yet does 50,000.00 0.75
not have to be one of the data
points. What is the expected value 40,000.00 0.10
of the contract if the contract 20,000.00 0.10
proposal has the following
(5,000.00) 0.05
probability of profit (loss)?
1. $32,750 Expected
2. $35,250 Value
3. $38,550
4. $43,250
185. What is your annual ROI if you spend $10,000.00 on a safety improvement
plan, and after one year, the calculated return to the company is $10,750.00?
1. 3.75%
ROI = Net Return
2. 7.50%
Initial Investment
3. 8.25%
4. 10.50%

186. How many widgets must be manufactured to cover a direct loss of $100,000
due to an employee injury if the widgets sell for $100 and the profit is 10%
on each widget?
1. 1,000
2. 10,000
3. 100,000
4. 1,000,000
187. What is the total dollars in sales to produce this same $100,000?
1. $1,000
2. $10,000
3. $100,000
4. $1,000,000
188. To effectively communicate safety rules to employees, the company

must utilize four elements. These are:
1. Time, money, talk, and action
2. Sender, message, receiver, and feedback
3. Bias, mood, thoughts, and words
4. Meetings, meetings, meetings, and meetings
Message
Sender Receiver
Feedback
189. What are the four parts of a training/learning objective?

1. Start, middle, ending, follow-up
2. Audience, behavior, condition, degree
3. Antecedent, behavior, consequence, results
4. Preparation, presentation, try, follow-up

190. The best example of a well-designed training objective is:
1. Students will learn to appreciate classical music in six weeks
2. All employees will demonstrate emergency procedures in 12 steps
3. New employees will be able to extinguish a trash can fire with a multi-
purpose dry chemical fire extinguisher within 2 minutes
4. Maintenance employees will demonstrate all steps for lockout/tagout
procedure to the best of their ability or satisfaction of the supervisor
191. Which of the following is not one of the four adult learning needs?
1. Need to know why–application to immediate challenges
2. Need to apply experience–opportunity to share and discuss
3. Need to be in control–flexible environment, voice concerns
4. Need to fail–chance to try new things and learn from failures
192. To determine the elements of a training program, including training and non-
training needs, understanding the problem, save time and money, and
identify the impact of training, the safety training professional must first:
1. Prepare a budget for approval
2. Analyze the management culture
3. Interview the potential instructors
4. Assess current worker performance
193. After determining that training is necessary, the next steps in the correct
sequence are as follows:
1. Design, acquire materials, deliver the training, and evaluate
2. Design, administer pre-test, train, and re-train
3. Administer pre-test, train, administer post-test, train again
4. Define participants, recruit instructors, train, and give final exam
194. The three most common types of training techniques used in industry are:
1. Lecture, lecture, and lecture
2. On-the-job training (OJT), group methods, and individual methods
3. JSA, JIT, JHA
4. Case study, role playing, and simulation
195. One principle of adult learning suggests we learn best through three senses.
According to this theory, the most important of these senses used to acquire
information is:
1. Hearing (auditory learners)
2. Seeing (visual learners)
3. Touch or activity (kinesthetic learners)
4. Smelling (olfactory learners)
196. In general, employees in a training course will remember: 90% of what they
say and do; 70% of what they say; and 50% of what they see and hear.
Therefore, the most appropriate type of training for a lockout/tagout program
would be a:
1. Videotape from a catalog recommended by the corporate office
2. Lecture from the safety director followed by question and answer period
3. Demonstration by the instructor with practice simulation and discussion
4. Panel discussion among the employees after viewing a slide presentation
197. You are planning a training program for the maintenance department in
lockout/tagout procedures. The best training aid to show the mechanics the
techniques and safety precautions required by the standard is by using a:
1. Job Safety Analysis (JSA)
2. Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)
3. Class Discussion
4. Roundtable Discussion
198. What is the best communication style for presenting the latest safety, health
and environmental data and statistics to the management team?
1. Analytical—data, numbers, facts
2. Intuitive—big picture, no details, gets to the conclusion
3. Functional—details, time schedule, one step at a time
4. Personal—emotional language, making connections, feelings.
199. What is the unique advantage of CBT?

1. Record Keeping
2. Photographs and charts
3. OSHA compliance records
4. Customize training to individuals
200. Which of the following is the first step to implement a CBT program?
1. CBT is the first step to train all line and staff personnel
2. CBT is the second step for line, first step to train the training staff
3. CBT is the supplemental option to traditional training methods
4. A needs analysis must be conducted before any decisions to use CBT
201. The annual refresher training requirement for hearing conservation is due
soon. As the consultant hired to conduct this training, you decide to:
1. Hold a committee meeting with the attendees
2. Call a panel of experts together to discuss the standard
3. Present a summary lecture with case studies for the employees
4. Cover the standard completely to ensure knowledge of the subject
202. Bloodborne pathogens are microorganisms such as viruses or bacteria that
are carried in blood and can cause disease in people. There are many
different bloodborne pathogens, including malaria, syphilis, and brucellosis,
and most notably Hepatitis B (HBV), Hepatitis C (HCV) and the Human
Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). An expert visits your facility to present the
latest information on this subject. All employees gather in the cafeteria for a:
1. Conference
2. Lecture
3. Panel
4. Site visit
203. Which of the following is the most important after the training course?
1. Final examination
2. Feedback for further improvement
3. Management review and summary
4. Elimination of unnecessary Power Point slides
204. Employees have not had an opportunity to practice confined space entry
procedures since the last turnaround ten months ago. The law of learning
concerning this is called the:
1. Law of Frequency-repetition
2. Law of Recency-learned last
3. Law of Readiness-value of training
4. Law of Disuse-skills or knowledge not used
205. The new training director has developed a new employee orientation
program to be administered by the Human Relations department. It involves
an active program illustrating the importance of safety. This is called the:
1. Law of Effect-enjoyment
2. Law of Primacy-priority
3. Law of Intensity-involvement
4. Law of Disuse-skills or knowledge not used
206. The corporation has issued a new directive that all training courses will
administer a final exam to determine the effectiveness of training. These
tests shall have the additional characteristics of validity and reliability of
measurements. Which of the following is an example of test validity?
1. General knowledge test
2. Multiple choice test of safety terms
3. Relevance of the test to job knowledge and skills
4. Test results in lowest scoring employees being retrained or reassigned

207. Reliability is defined as the consistency in measuring employees' knowledge
and abilities. In other words, each time the test is given; it returns the same
basic scores or results. Which of the following is an example of reliability?
1. Each group of new employees scores about the same average and
standard deviation on the orientation final exam
2. All subcontractors take the same general safety test
3. The annual confined space test for both day and night shift
4. Lockout/tagout testing for production and maintenance employees
208. Norm-referenced grading systems, in which the student’s performance is

compared to the performance of the other students, is not appropriate in
which of the following situations?
1. Evaluation of twenty applicants for five new openings
2. Ranking of the seven contractors for your new office building
3. Final test for the maintenance department on confined space entry
4. Listing the top finishers in the recent 10K run for charity
209. Criterion-referenced systems depend on everyone’s performance against a

predetermined standard of conduct or behavior. Which case below would be
an example of criterion referenced evaluation?
1. Rank all employees by order of hiring date
2. Naming the top ten finalists in the safety slogan contest
3. Listing the top ten most frequent violations in the plant
4. Competency exam for all employees in hazard communication standard
210. It is time to train the employees on the emergency evacuation plans. Prior to
the training, you administer a pretest, and following the training you
administer a post-test using the same questions. You choose to use multiple
choice test questions because:
1. Responses require selection from only two choices (True-False)
2. It provides an opportunity to demonstrate a skill (Performance)
3. Responses can provide good diagnostic information if alternatives are
carefully constructed (Distractors)
4. They provide an opportunity for students’ expression but are difficult to
score (Essay)

211. A training needs analysis is being conducted in a company. Which of the
following is the fundamental question that should be asked?
1. Is management committed to the training objectives?
2. Do the trainers have the skills required to properly conduct the training?
3. Will training resolve the organization’s needs?
4. Can we believe the training analysis is fair and accurate?
Note: Some sources identify three (3) learning theories:

Behavioral--routine and frequent reinforcement
Cognitive--how information is processed and remembered
Motivational--knowledge or skill desired by the individual
212. Which of the following best describes the purpose of evaluation activities?
1. The best cost-benefit ratio as determined by the Finance Department
2. Students feel engaged and appreciated upon completion of the course
3. Exercises reflect the course content and validity of subject matter
4. Goals and content are compatible with the mission and needs of the
organization
213. Which of these describes the evaluation of training as Reaction Evaluation?

1. How trainees feel about the program
2. Assessing the amount and quality (oral and written tests)
3. Change behavior patterns to conform to some standard
4. Efficiency, reduction in turnover and grievances, incident reduction
Dr. Donald Kirkpatrick’s Four Levels of Learning Evaluation
1. Reaction - The degree to which participants find the training favorable, engaging
and relevant to their jobs
2. Learning - The degree to which participants acquire the intended knowledge,
skills, attitude, confidence and commitment based on their participation in the
training
3. Behavior - The degree to which participants apply what they learned during
training when they are back on the job
4. Results - The degree to which targeted outcomes occur as a result of the training
and the support and accountability package

214. Effective trainers are effective communicators. They deliver training that
is concise and understood by the audience. In addition, the following are
important except:
1. Use of appropriate style and language
2. Empathy with the audience
3. Effective listening as the message is being delivered
4. Complete the lesson plan on the announced schedule
215. A company recorded 24 cases last year which are classified as recordable for
their recordkeeping process. If the company uses an index rate of 100
employees at 40 hours per week and 50 weeks per year, what is the
calculated annual incidence rate for 950,000 hours?
1. 2.4 Number of cases x index standard hours
2. 3.2 Actual hours of exposure
3. 5.1
4. 7.5 Note: Index standard hours = Rate Constant
216. A company recorded 35 cases last year which are classified as recordable for
their recordkeeping process. If the company uses an index rate of 100
employees at 36 hours per week and 48 weeks per year, what is the
calculated annual incidence rate for 950,000 hours?
1. 1.8
2. 3.5 Number of cases x index standard hours
3. 6.4 Actual hours of exposure
4. 8.5
Note: Index standard hours = Rate Constant

217. The annual incidence rate for last year is compared to previous years in the
following table. What can you conclude?
2014 2015 2016 2017 2018

2.3 2.6 3.5 4.6 5.1
1. The company is making substantial strides in reducing the injury rate,

and should consider nominating the company for national recognition
2. Senior management is doing all it can in loss reduction efforts, no
further action required at this time
3. SHE should advise the executive team that additional efforts are
necessary to return the company to a better performance
4. SHE should initiate a comprehensive review of safety practices by the
senior managers and department heads
218. The best security for a computer system is to:

1. Rotate the programmers and controllers
2. Train the programmers on the charts
3. Lock the tapes in the vault
4. Use passwords and codes
219. There are four major types of software hazards in which the undesired signal
1--causes an unwanted event; 2--causes out-of-sequence event; 3-- prevents
needed event; and the 4th type is when the undesired signal:
1. Causes an event that is out of tolerance
2. Causes unexpected shutdown of operations
3. Causes power failure
4. Terminates programmer and safety manager

SAMPLE COMPUTER TERMINOLOGY
ASCII American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Buffer Memory area used for temporary storage during input/output operations
CAD Computer Aided Design
CBT Computer Based Training
DBMS Data base management system
DNS Domain Name System, registration of domain names

DSL Digital Subscriber Line
Extranet Company intranet with limited access by outsiders for business purposes
FTP File Transfer Protocol
GIF Graphics Interchange Format
GUI Graphical User Interchange

HTML Hypertext Markup Language–Web language
HTTP Hypertext transfer protocol
HTTPS Hypertext transfer protocol secure mode
ISP Internet Service Provider
JPEG Joint Photographic Export Group

LAN Local area network
MIME Multipart Internet Mail Extension
Protocol System of rules/ procedures governing communications
PDF Portable Document Format
RAM Random access memory–temporary memory while power is on

ROM Read only memory–permanent memory
SQL Structured Query Language
TIF Tagged Image File Format
TCP/IP Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
URL Uniform Resource Locator–Protocol for web address

USB Universal Serial Bus–connector replacing serial port for printers,
cameras, scanners, game sticks, etc.
VOIP Voice Over Internet Protocols
VPN Virtual private network
WAN Wide area network

220. Which of the following is not a recommended practice to protect employees
on company property, including employee parking areas?
1. Manned guard stations or controlled access at all entrances
2. Lighted approaches, parking and sidewalks
3. Short landscape plants and open fences
4. Tall landscape plants and remote parking for regular employees
221. Employees working at facilities should have background checks if employed

in a safety or security sensitive position. Which of the following is not?
1. Commercial driver transporting hazardous or nuclear material
2. Captain or master of a vessel containing a chemical cargo
3. Pilot of a commercial airplane
4. Groundskeeper of local community park
222. Which of the following will not be a resource for developing a mutual aid
plan?
1. Local TV stations
2. Area hospitals
3. Law enforcement agencies
4. BCSP Foundation
223. Managing security risks involves the concepts of risk management. The
traditional steps are: Avoidance, Reduction, Diversification, Transfer, and
the last step is:
1. Acceptance
2. Camouflage
3. Retreat
4. Surrender
224. Which of the following concerns should be included in the emergency plan?
1. Public water supplies and treatment facilities
2. Schools, medical facilities, residential and business parks
3. Wetlands, wildlife, lakes, and streams
4. All of the above

225. Workplace violence is any act or threat of physical violence, harassment,
intimidation, or other threatening disruptive behavior that occurs at the work
site. It ranges from threats and verbal abuse to physical assaults and even
homicide. It can affect and involve employees, clients, customers and
visitors. Which of the following should be included in Workplace Violence
Program?
1. Discourage employees to report and log all incidents and threats of
workplace violence
2. Never report violent incidents to the local police
3. Avoid discussing the circumstances of the incident with staff members
4. Investigate all violent incidents and threats, monitor trends in violent
incidents by type or circumstance, and institute corrective actions
226. What is the first step in developing a vehicle/fleet safety program?

1. Initiate a driver training program
2. Purchase only the best available vehicle technology
3. Write a safety policy developed, supported and enforced by management
4. Implement the minimum driver’s requirements required by law
227. Which of the following is not part of a driver safety program?

1. Initiate a driver training program
2. Develop standards for collision avoidance
3. Establish competency and skills levels
4. Hire only drivers who claim excellence
228. Which of these is not a requirement for certification as an Unmanned

Aircraft Systems (UAS) Remote Pilot Certificate?
1. At least 16 years of age
2. Read, speak, write, and understand English
3. Physical and mental condition to fly a drone
4. Pass the FAA IQ test
229. Recreational drone rules include all of the following except:

1. Fly drone at or below 400 feet
2. Drone must be kept in line of sight
3. Never fly over groups of people, stadiums, athletic events
4. Flying over accidents, disasters, emergency response teams

230. Instructions explain how to use a product safely while warnings identify
dangers inherent to the product or dangers that may result from its use or
misuse. Some of the characteristics of warnings are readability, practicality,
effectiveness, durability, compatibility, reliability, and placement. Based on
these statements, why are knives not required to have hazard warning labels?
1. Not specifically covered in the law
2. No place to affix label
3. Obvious hazard
4. Only OSHA knows
231. Which of the following symbols/marks indicates a product meets all the
essential requirements of the relevant European Directives for toy safety,
machinery, low-voltage equipment?
1.
2. UL©
3. FM™
4. EU-UL
232. The United States employs the CPSC (Consumer Product Safety
Commission) to protect consumers against substantial risks to injury from
products. The EU employs a system to facilitate the effective and consistent
notification of non-food consumer products. This system is called:
1. EUCPSC - European Union Consumer Product Safety Commission
2. RAPEX - Rapid Exchange of Information System
3. EUROPA - European Resources/Protection Alert Notification System
4. GHCPEU - General Health and Consumer Protection/European
Commission
233. The goals of Project Management are communication, control, and risk
management. Project Management is best described as:
1. Planning, organizing, staffing, directing, and controlling resources
2. The discipline of managing projects successfully through the projects
life cycle
3. The process of estimating and predicting costs and benefits
4. Estimating the total time and money spent to take a construction project
from conception to completion, including retirement

234. Part of Project Management includes risk assessment which identifies the
potential risks and determines the probability of occurrence and the effect on
the project. Risk avoidance develops a plan to:
1. Pay for losses
2. Avoid the penalties for failure to complete the project on time
3. Make budget variances as small as possible
4. Create a plan that minimizes the opportunity for the hazard to occur
235. The elements of a Project Plan are:

1. Scope, Tasks, Resources, Estimating, Scheduling, and Monitoring
2. Tell, Show, Do, Check
3. Meetings, Meetings, Meetings, and Meetings
4. Plan, Organize, Staff, Direct, Control, Budget
236. Which of the following is the least desirable response to a reporter during an
emergency?
1. I will brief you on the details later
2. No comment
3. You should talk to the Manager when details become available
4. A company spokesperson will brief you when the situation is stable
237. When you arrive at the scene of an Emergency Response, the press is
waiting. If you are pressed for an update, you should:
1. Grant an interview immediately and explain what you have heard
2. Refer to the Executive VP (your boss) after situation under control
3. Say "No Comment" and send the press home
4. Wait for the Plant Manager to arrive to brief everyone
238. Fifteen minutes after your arrival at the scene of a fire in the warehouse,
a supervisor reports the initial findings: five seriously injured and
hospitalized. The Plant Manager directs you to call the press together and
make a brief statement concerning the situation, but not revealing the names
of the injured or details of the incident, pending investigation. You should:
1. Refuse to comply
2. Notify OSHA, then brief the press
3. Notify local authorities immediately
4. Proceed as directed with proper clearance and approval

239. The four elements needed for a legally binding contract are:
1. Plan, Do, Check, Act
2. Oral, Verbal, Implied, and quasi-contract
3. Attorneys, accountants, advisors, and consultants
4. Offer, Acceptance, Agreement (legal purpose), Consideration
Offer--There must be a definite, clearly stated offer to do something. An offer will

lapse:
• when the time for acceptance expires;

• if the offer is withdrawn before it is accepted; or
• after a reasonable time in the circumstances (generally the greater the value of
the contract, the longer the life of the offer).
Acceptance--Only what is offered can be accepted. This means that the offer must
be accepted exactly as offered without conditions. If any new terms are suggested
this is regarded as a counter offer which can be accepted or rejected. Acceptance is
usually made in the same manner in which the offer is made.
Agreement--A contract requires that the parties intend to enter into a legally
binding agreement. That is, the parties entering into the contract must intend to
create legal relations and must understand that the agreement can be enforced by
law.
Consideration--In order for a contract to be binding it must be supported by

valuable consideration. That is to say, one party promises to do something in return
for a promise from the other party to provide a benefit of value (the consideration)
240. A client has refused to pay your consulting fee due to a disagreement on the
extent of consulting services rendered. Both sides agree to allow an
independent third-party decide the issue. This is referred to as:
1. Binding arbitration
2. Good faith negotiation
3. Liberal interpretations
4. A gentleman's agreement

241. Which of the following best describes negligence?
1. Failure to exercise the care toward others which a reasonable or prudent
person would do in the circumstances, or taking action which such a
reasonable person would not. There must be a “duty” and the law
determines who owes duty to another.
2. Any legal responsibility, duty or obligation. May arise from contracts
or in consequence of torts committed
3. A negligent or intentional civil wrong not arising out of a contract or
statute. Intentional may include battery, defamation and negligence.
An act that injures someone in some way, and for which the injured
person may sue the wrongdoer for damages. Legally referred to as
civil wrongs.
4. An event sufficiently related to a legally recognizable injury to be held
the cause for that injury. The two elements required are the activity
must produce a foreseeable risk, and the injury by be caused directly by
the defendant’s negligence.
242. An expert witness is:

1. One which, not being expressly made, the law implies by the fact of
the sale
2. A verbal or written statement that guarantees that a product is of a
certain quality or will work in a certain way or for a certain amount of
time
3. A person who is a specialist in a subject, often technical, who may
present his/her expert opinion without having been a witness to any
occurrence relating to the lawsuit or criminal case
4. A provision in an agreement under which one or both parties agree not
to hold the other party responsible for any loss, damage, or legal
liability

243. A playground has a defective apparatus which causes injury to a child. The
parents file a suit for the injury. While the owner of the playground is not
found negligent, the defendant is found liable under strict liability. Which of
the following best describes strict liability?
1. The actions of an injured individual who may have also contributed or
caused his/her own injury. Bars recovery by the plaintiff.
2. The injured party may still recover some of his or her damages even if
he or she was partially to blame for causing the accident.
3. In the common law of contract provides that a contract cannot confer
rights or impose obligations arising under it on any person or agent
except the parties to it
4. Absolute legal responsibility for an injury that can be imposed on the
wrongdoer without proof of carelessness or fault
244. What type of insurance protects the manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer,

service representative against claims for bodily injury or property damage
which might arise from the use of a product?
1. Product Liability
2. Hold Harmless Agreement
3. Performance Bond
4. Disclaimer Contract
245. An employee operating a company car is injured when struck by another

vehicle. After paying for all damages and compensation for the employee,
the company compensation carrier files for recovery of all payments from
the other driver’s insurance company. This is known as:
1. Strict Liability
2. Subrogation
3. Quid Pro Quo
4. Hold Harmless
246. Which of the following would be a legal/regulatory requirement of the

Safety, Health, and Environmental System?
1. ISO 14000
2. ANSI/AIHA/ASSP Z.10
3. PSM 1910.119
4. OSHAS 18000

247. Workers' Compensation is intended to provide coverage for certain
work-related illnesses or injuries. Which of the following is
considered a Temporary Partial Disability?
1. Employee restricted to limited duty for limited time, full recovery
2. Employee unable to work for a limited time, full recovery
3. Employee has lost capacity permanently (back injury)
4. Employee has permanently lost wage-earning capacity, no return
Workers’ Compensation Definitions:

Temporary Partial Disability
Temporary Total Disability
Permanent Partial Disability
Permanent Total Disability
248. A company has a NAICS code of 541690 and a WC insurance Manual Rate
of $4.25 per hundred. This means that the company pays:
1. $4.25 per one hundred employees
2. $4.25 per one hundred claims
3. $4.25 per one hundred dollars of coverage
4. $4.25 per one hundred dollars of payroll
249. Your company was just notified by the WC insurance company that the
Experience Modifier for your company next policy year will be 1.6. This
means that the company:
1. Will pay less for insurance
2. Will pay more for insurance
3. Will pay 1.6 times the manual rate
4. Is going to be dropped since the number is greater than one
Manual Rate—Rate per $100 of payroll, based on NAICS code in each state
Experience Modifier—Ratio of actual to expected losses for first three of
last four policy years
Retrospective—Cost plus program based on actual losses; company in effect
pays any WC costs plus administrative costs and insurance company profit
NAICS—North American Industrial Classification System, up to six
numbers

250. Retrospective rating of worker compensation insurance premium's
adjustment is based on ______ year's loss experience.
1. The immediate past
2. Next
3. Last 2
4. Last 3
$ $
L L
O O
S S
S S
E E
S S
YEAR YEAR
251. A workers’ compensation loss ratio is:

1. The average cost per claim
2. The ratio of claims to cost of benefits
3. Computed by placing the benefits paid over premium received
4. The past years versus the current year’s loss experience
Loss Ratio = ______________________
Note: WC ratio of .6--.7 is acceptable
252. Which of the following is best used to determine a contractor's safety and
health experience?
1. Incidence Rate
2. Severity Rate
3. Lost Workday Rate
4. Experience Modifier

253. You have just been informed of a compromise by a CSP. While the
misconduct does not directly impact your employer, the BCSP Code of
Ethics requires that you:
1. Notify the state Attorney General
2. Notify the Executive Director of ASSP
3. Contact your Board of Directors
4. Inform the Board of Certified Safety Professionals
254. You have conducted an audit of a company’s safety and health program. As
an independent consultant you are preparing your final report to the
management team. A representative of the management team contacts you
and requests the report before the final report is presented for a “review.”
What is your response?
1. Send the report as requested
2. Refuse to send the report
3. Send the report to the whole management team
4. Send the report to an independent third party
255. A good friend and fellow safety professional at a competing firm calls and
requests a copy of your company’s confined space program. While not a
private program, it was developed and implemented for your company’s use.
What is your best response to this request?
1. Send a copy from your personal email account
2. Send a copy from the company email account with copies to legal
3. Send a copy after approval from your supervisor or manager
4. Refuse to share any information with the company
256. You have expertise in Process Safety Management (PSM). An opportunity

to provide consulting services presents itself to you at a nearby company.
Should you accept the generous offer for consulting outside your regular
job?
1. Accept quickly before the offer is withdrawn
2. Accept the offer and request vacation time from your normal job duties
3. Accept the offer after notifying your manager
4. Accept the offer after notifying your manager and compliance with any
company policies and procedures

257. The BCSP’s Code of Ethics requires all the following except:
1. Hold paramount the safety and health of people, environment and
property
2. Be honest, fair and impartial
3. Issue public statements only in an objective and truthful manner
4. Undertake any and all assignments when RFP's are clearly identified
258. You have been requested by your employer to destroy some potentially
damaging files concerning past hazardous waste disposal procedures.
You should:
1. Comply with a lawful order
2. Follow instructions with noted objections
3. Refuse to destroy the files and contact BCSP
4. Refuse to destroy the files and notify other responsible parties
259. Complaints from the employees include headaches, nausea, weakness, and
dizziness. You have an IH Consultant take samples of the materials in use,
and the report comes to you indicating exposures less than one-half the
allowable levels. Your next step is:
1. Conduct attitude survey
2. Tell employees not to worry
3. Contact the CEO
4. Meet with the employees to alleviate their concerns
260. How long should training and inspection records be maintained?

1. 1 year and a day
2. 3 years
3. 5 years
4. By regulation or company policy, whichever is longer
261. The definition of sustainability is:

1. The ability to neither create nor destroy matter
2. The quality of not being harmful to the environment or depleting natural
resources, and thereby supporting long-term ecological balance
3. Maintain the Law of Diminishing Returns
4. Biological, Environmental, and Physical equilibrium

262. The three pillars of sustainability are:
1. Social, environmental, and economic
2. Time, money, and energy
3. Legal, regulatory, and licensing
4. Engineering, education, and enforcement
263. Which of the following would be an example of a sustainable practice?

1. Expanding a city landfill for all household wastes
2. Constructing a new incinerator for combustible liquids
3. Developing a program to bury all wrecked vehicles
4. Raising the building A/C thermostats from 75 degrees to 78 degrees F
264. Your facility is expanding, and the new facility will require additional
electric power. Which of these options will satisfy those requirements and
be considered a “sustainable” development option?
1. Incorporate green space on your property
2. Installation of efficient water fixtures
3. Implement a crop rotation schedule
4. Installation of solar panels
265. Which of the following best describes the General Data Protection
Regulation (GDPR)?
1. GPDR is a world-wide standard on security of private data
2. A US regulation on public relation notices effective January 1, 2020
3. The General Data Policy for Social Media and Medical Records
4. A wide data protection law that supersedes various national privacy
Law; the EU enacted the law in 2016 but delayed enforcement
until May 25, 2018

Some GDPR Concepts and Descriptions
A firm must comply with a complex series of rules that includes:
• Allow customers to see and delete the data that concerns them
• Provide notice of data breaches in 72 hours
• Make data policies transparent to an average person (i.e. don’t hide
privacy stuff in legalese no one reads)
• Hire a Chief Data Officer in some cases
• Follow “privacy by design” principles
It is an EU Directive by has implications for US based companies if

companies have business or customers in Europe. It has rules and fines
for violations. Maximum fines are the higher of 4% of world-wide
revenue or 20 million euros.
266. The United Association of Casualty Inspectors was formed in 1911. This
organization eventually became known as the:
1. American Society of Safety Professionals (ASSP)
2. American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA)
3. National Safety Council (NSC)
4. Underwriters’ Laboratories (UL)
267. The activities of the Association of Iron and Steel Electrical Engineers
formed in 1912. In 1913, this group led to the development of the:
1. ASSP
2. SSS
3. NSC
4. NFPA

268. What is the name of the ASSP journal?
1. Professional Consultant
2. Safety Journal of America
3. Journal of ASSP
4. Professional Safety
269. What is the name of the official journal of the System Safety Society?
1. System Safety Society Journal
2. Safety for Systems Engineers
3. Journal of System Safety
4. Systems Journal
270. What is the name of the official AIHA journal?

1. Occupational Hazards
2. Today in Industrial Hygiene
3. Journal of Occupational & Environmental Hygiene (JOEH)
4. The Synergist Magazine
271. What is the name of the journal published by NFPA for professional fire
fighters?
1. NFPA Journal
2. Professional Firefighter
3. National Fire Journal
4. Firefighters Journal
272. The monthly magazine of the Institute of Industrial and Systems Engineers
(IISE) is:
1. ISE Magazine
2. The Industrial Engineering Journal
3. Fundamentals of Engineering
4. Today in Industrial Engineering
273. The NSC monthly magazine is:

1. NSC Monthly
2. Safety + Health News
3. Principles of Safety and Health
4. Safety and Health Journal of NSC

274. The official journal from the Society of Fire Protection Engineers is:
1. Fire Technology
2. Fire Protection Engineering
3. Fire Protection Today
4. Fire Protection Magazine
275. Which of the following organizations have certification requirements for

people in safety, health, and environmental areas?
1. ABIH, BCSP, ABHP
2. ACGIH, ASSP, BCSP
3. BCSP, NSC, AIHA
4. ASSP, NSC, ANSI
276. The current membership organizations of BCSP are:

1. BCSP, ABIH, and ABHP
2. ACGIH, NSC, ASSP, AIHA, and ABHP
3. AIHA, ASSP, IISE, NFPA, NSC, NESHTA, SFPE, and SSS
4. ANSI, NFPA, UL, ASTM, ASME, NSC, and FM
277. The accreditation agency of the BCSP is:

1. ASME
2. NFPA
3. NFPA
4. ANSI
278. In order to maintain certification as a CSP, you must earn _____ points in a
five-year period.
1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 25
279. Which of the following will not earn maintenance points for CSP?
1. Doing work involving SHE in more than 50% of the job
2. Membership in a professional safety organization
3. Being an officer or committee member of a safety organization
4. Taking a course to improve your personal finances
280. When should you take the CSP Exam? ________________________

Acronyms and Abbreviations for Safety-related Organizations
ACGIH American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists—

produces Threshold Limit Values (TLV’s)
ANSI American National Standards Institute—hard hats, safety glasses,

face shields,
ASME American Society of Mechanical Engineers—boilers and pressure

vessels
ASTM American Society of Testing Materials—foot protection and more
CHEMTREC Chemical Transportation Emergency Center—chemical spills,

fires and explosions information
FM Factory Mutual—combustible liquid containers,

cabinets, fire doors (Insurance Company)
ISO International Organization for Standardization—world’s largest

developer of voluntary International Standards. International
Standards give state of the art specifications for products, services
and good practice, helping to make industry more efficient and
effective. Developed through global consensus, they help to break
down barriers to international trade.
NFPA National Fire Protection Association—Life Safety Code (101),

extinguishers (10), sprinklers (13), National Electric Code (70)
NIOSH National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health—US

Government organization for research, testing and on-site
health studies, respirator certification
NRTL Nationally Recognized Testing Lab

UL Underwriters Laboratories—NRTL
Listed— product has been tested to and complies with the
Applicable Standard and maintains periodic inspection to
assure production of the listed products are in accordance with the
listing (process and testing)
Recognized— process is evaluated but products have been
evaluated only for specific properties, a limited range of hazards, or
suitability for use under limited conditions (emphasis on process)

Occupational Illnesses, Diseases, and Conditions
Anthrax bacterial infection usually found in agricultural regions

Asbestosis progressive, difficult breathing from exposure to asbestos
Brucellosis bacteria in farmers, veterinarians, and laboratory workers
Byssinosis cotton dust, hemp, and flax fiber exposure (Brown Lung)
Cataracts painless loss of vision from microwaves, ionizing
radiation, napthalene...
Coronavirus COVID-19, fever, cough, shortness of breath,
Emphysema victims have difficulty in exhaling
Erysipeloid bacterial infection from skin of fish, seals, whales
H1N1 subtype of influenza A, also known as swine flu
Hantavirus virus originally found in deer mouse droppings
Hepatitis virus affecting liver
Histoplasmosis fungus from bird droppings

Influenza viral infection such as H1N1 (swine flu)
Leptospirosis bacterial infection in mammals, deer, cattle
Mesothelioma tumor caused by exposure to asbestos
Newcastle’s Disease viral infection in birds
Pneumoconiosis literally translated means dusty lung, ex. Asbestosis,

silicosis, and talcosis
Pulmonary edema fluid in the lungs
Q Fever bacterial infection from livestock (sheep, goats, cattle)
Rabies virus from animals (dogs, raccoons, skunks, horses)
Raynaud’s Phenomenon vibration or cold weather constriction of blood vessels
Rubella virus, German measles
SARS severe acute respiratory syndrome

Silicosis difficulty in breathing from silica exposure
Talcosis difficulty in breathing from talc fiber exposure
Tetanus bacterial infection (lockjaw)
Tinnitus ringing in ears
Trichinosis parasite in pork or bear

Tuberculosis bacterial infection of lungs
Tularemia bacteria from fleas, ticks, rabbits, rodents (Rabbit Fever)
West Nile Virus virus transmitted by mosquitoes
Woolsorters disease pulmonary anthrax, bacterial infection of lungs from
wool or other infected hair
Zika virus transmitted by mosquito bites causing birth defects
How to Develop & Implement an Active Shooter/Armed Assailant Plan
All workplaces are potential targets for an active shooter or armed assailant.
42%
of active shooter incidents since the year 2000 have occurred in the workplace, according to the FBI.

SAFETY, HEALTH, ENVIRONMENTAL & SECURITY EVENTS
1867 - Factory Inspectors in Massachusetts
1911 - Triangle Shirtwaist Fire, March 25, 146 died
1911 - ASSE, workers' compensation law in Wisconsin
1913 - NSC
1937 - Hindenburg, May 6, atmospheric electric charge
1940 - Tacoma Narrows Bridge
1942 - Coconut Grove Fire, November 28, Boston, MA, 492 deaths
1947 - Texas City disaster, 561 deaths, ammonium nitrate & oil
1967 - Apollo - Oxygen enriched atmosphere, January 27
1970 - OSHA, Public Law 91-596, Williams-Steiger Act
1974 - Kepone Spill in James River, 1976 EE’s complaints to OSHA
1976 - TCDD release, Seveso, Italy
1976 - RCRA, TSCA,
1974 - Nypro cyclohexane oxidation plant explosion, Flixborough,
England, June 1; 28 died
1977 - 747's Canary Islands KLM, Panama, March 27, 582 died
1977 - Beverly Hills Supper Club fire, Kentucky, May 26, 165 died
1977 - Mine Safety and Health Act, MSHA, Public Law 95-164
1978 - Love Canal, 240 families ordered to evacuate, August 2
1979 - 3-Mile Island, March 28
1980 - MGM Grand fire, Las Vegas, November 21, 85 died
1981 - Hyatt Hotel, Kansas City
1982 - Times Beach, MO; CDC warning of dioxin (TCDD)
1984 - Bhopal, December 3, methyl isocyanate, 2,500 died
1985 - Union Carbide - Institute, West Virginia
1986 - Challenger, January 28
1986 - Chernobyl, April 26
1986 - EPCRA, SARA
1989 - Valdez oil spill, March 24
1989 - Philips 66, Houston, October 23, 26 died
1992 - PSM standard (1910.119)
2001 - World Trade Center, Pentagon attack, UAL 93, September 11
2003 - Shuttle Columbia, February 1
2005 - British Petroleum Fire and Explosion, Houston, 15 died,
170+ injured, March 23
2010 - Deepwater Horizon Fire and Spill, April 20, 11 died
2011 - Tsunami hits Japan nuclear plants, 15,881 died, March 11
2012 - Hurricane Sandy, October 22-31, 285 deaths
2013 - Typhoon Haiyan, November 8
2015 - Himalaya Earthquake, over 800 deaths
2016 - Hurricane Mathew, East coast US
2018 – California Camp Fire, 88 deaths, burned 17 days, 153,300 acres
These published references provide reasonable coverage on the subject matter associated
BLUEPRINT REFERENCES with the CSP10 Examination Blueprint. Examination items are not necessarily taken directly
CSP10 from these sources. You may have alternate editions of these references in your library that
also present acceptable coverage on the subject matter, as well as other useful references.
Title & Auxiliary Information

2015 TLVs and BEIs: Based on the Documentation of the Threshold Limit Values for Chemical Substances and Physical Agents
& Biological Exposure Indices
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ANSI/AIHA Z10-2012: Occupational Health and Safety Management Systems

American National Standards Institute, Inc. (2012). Fairfax, VA: American Industrial Hygiene Association.
ANSI/ASSE A10.12-1998 (R2005): Safety Requirements for Excavation

American National Standards Institute, Inc. (2005). Des Plaines, IL: American Society of Safety Engineers.
ANSI/ASSE A10.33-1998 (R2004): Safety and Health Program Requirements for Multi-Employer Projects
ANSI/ASSE Z10-2012 (R2017): Occupational Health and Safety Management Systems

American National Standards Institute, Inc. (2017). Park Ridge, IL: American Society of Safety Engineers.
ANSI/ASSE Z359.13-2009: Personal Energy Absorbers and Energy Absorbing Lanyards

ANSI/ASSE Z490.1-2016: Criteria for Accepted Practices in Safety, Health and Environmental Training
American National Standards Institute, Inc. (2015). Park Ridge, IL: American Society of Safety Engineers.
ANSI/ASSE Z590.3-2011 (R2016): Prevention Through Design, Guidelines for Addressing Occupational Hazards and Risks in
Design and Redesign Processes
ANSI/ASSP/ISO 45001-2018: Occupational Health and Safety Management Systems, Requirements with Guidance for Use
American National Standards Institute, Inc., American Society of Safety Professionals, et al. (2018). Park Ridge, IL: American Society of Safety Professionals.
ANSI/ITSDF B56.1-2012: Safety Standard for Low Lift and High Lift Trucks; Revision of ANSI/ITSDF B56.1-2009
ANSI Z88.2-1992: Respiratory Protection

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Accident Prevention Manual for Business & Industry: Environmental Management; 2nd Edition
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Galbraith, M. W. (2004). Malabar, FL: Krieger Publishing Company.
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Rafiullah, N. (2017).
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Approaches to Training & Development; 3rd Edition

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Basic Concepts of Industrial Hygiene
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Motor Fleet Safety and Security Management; 2nd Edition

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Popov, G., Lyon, B. K., et al. (2016). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
Risk Assessment: Theory, Methods, and Applications

Rausand, M. (2011) Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
Risk Management and Insurance Guidebook for Industry, The

MacWilliam, K. (2001). Rockville, MD: Government Institutes.

Risk Management Essentials; 2nd Edition
The National Alliance Research Academy Risk and Insurance Studies. (2014). Austin, TX: The National Alliance Research Academy.
Risk Management Tools for Safety Professionals

Lyon, B. K. & Popov, G. (2018). Park Ridge, IL: American Society of Safety Professionals.
Root Cause Analysis: Improving Performance for Bottom-Line Results; 4th Edition
Latino, R. J., Latino, K. C., et al. (2011). Boca Raton, FL: Taylor & Francis Group, LLC.
Safety by Objectives: What Gets Measured & Rewarded Gets Done; 2nd Edition
Petersen, D. (1996). New York, NY: Van Nostrand Reinhold.
Safety Culture and Effective Safety Management

Swartz, G. (2000). Itasca, IL: National Safety Council.
Safety Manager's Guide to Fire Protection

Trebisacci, D. G. & Carson, W. G. (2004). Quincy, MA: National Fire Protection Association, Inc.
Safety Professionals Handbook, The: Management Applications; 2nd Edition

Haight, J. M. (2012). Des Plaines, IL: American Society of Safety Engineers.
Safety Professionals Handbook, The: Technical Applications; 2nd Edition

Haight, J. M. (2012). Des Plaines, IL: American Society of Safety Engineers.
Safety Professional's Reference & Study Guide; 2nd Edition

Yates, W. D. (2015). Boca Raton, FL: Taylor & Francis Group, LLC.
Safety Training Ninja, The

McMichael, R. (2019). Park Ridge, IL: American Society of Safety Professionals.
Standard Mathematical Tables and Formulae, CRC; 32nd Edition

Zwillinger, D. (2012). Boca Raton, FL: Taylor & Francis Group, LLC.
Statistics for Health Professionals

Shott, S. (1990). Philadelphia, PA: W. B. Saunders Company.
Structured On-The-Job Training: Unleashing Employee Expertise in the Workplace

Jacobs, R. L. & Jones, M. J. (1995). San Francisco, CA: Berrett-Koehler Publishers, Inc.
System Safety Engineering and Management; 2nd Edition

Roland, H. E. & Moriarty, B. (1990). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
System Safety Engineering: Design Based Safety

Ericson, C. A. (2015). Charleston, NC: CreateSpace, Inc.
System Safety for the 21st Century

Stephans, R. A. (2004). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
Telling Ain't Training: Updated, Expanded, & Enhanced; 2nd Edition

Stolovitch, H. D. & Keeps, E. J. (2011). Alexandria, VA: ASTD Press.
Training Design Basics; 2nd Edition

Carliner, S. (2015). Danvers, MA: ASTD Press.
Training in Organizations: Needs Assessment, Development, & Evaluation; 4th Edition

Goldstein, I. L. & Ford, J. K. (2002). Belmont, CA: Wadsworth CENGAGE Learning.
Violence at Work; 3rd Edition

Chappell, D. & Martino, V. D. (2006). Geneva, UK: International Labour Office.
Workplace Violence Prevention Handbook, The

Philpott, D. & Grimme, D. (2009). Lanham, MD: Government Institutes.

Additional References
Young, Glenn, Background Math for the Board of Certified Safety Professionals’ Safety
Certification Examinations, ASSP, Des Plaines, Il, 2003.
ASSP Refresher Guide (assp.org)
Span International (spansafetyworkshops.com) Now part of ClickSafety
CertiStep by Datachem Software (certistep.com)
Bowen EHS smartphone app
Khanacademy.org (website with 3-5 minutes math and science videos)
Basic textbooks in mathematics, chemistry, physics, statistics, psychology, biological sciences,

communications, training, and business.
APPS
Bowen EHS - Free questions plus more available for purchase
Pocket Prep - Free questions plus question of the day plus more available for purchase
Quizlet - Make your own question database plus access to others with registration

TAB 1 TAB 2 TAB 3
.CSP9 and CSP10 Blueprints
% of % of CSP10
DOMAIN TITLE th
CSP9 4 Qtr 2019?
Advanced Science and Math 7.4% 9.95%
Management Systems 19.5% 13.34%
Risk Management 10.3% 14.49%
Advanced Safety Concepts 22.9% 14.69%
Emergency Preparedness, Fire Prevention, and Security 9.1% 10.59%
Occupational Health and Ergonomics 8.0% 12.05%
Environmental Management Systems 6.3% 7.38%
Training/Education 9.1% 10.18%
Law and Ethics 7.4% 7.33%
The following information is extracted from the BCSP’s publications, CSP10 Blueprint,
and A Complete Guide to Safety Certification, First Edition, May, 2019. The documents are
available at bcsp.org in a pdf format. The Complete Guide is 44 pages long. It includes details
on all BCSP certifications.

EXAMINATION BLUEPRINT
CSP10
Domain 1
Advanced Sciences and Math • 9.95%
Knowledge of:
1. Core concepts in anatomy and physiology
2. Core concepts in chemistry (e.g., organic chemistry, general chemistry, and biochemistry)
3. Core concepts in physics (e.g., forms of energy, weights, forces, and stresses)
4. Mathematics (e.g., geometry, algebra, trigonometry, finance and accounting, engineering, and economics)
5. Statistics for interpreting data (e.g., mean, median, mode, confidence intervals, probabilities, and pareto analysis)
6. Core research methodology
7. Microbiology (e.g., nanotechnology, waterborne pathogens, and bloodborne pathogens)
Skill to:
1. Calculate required containment volumes and hazardous materials storage requirements
2. Calculate statistics from data sources
Domain 2
Management Systems • 13.34%
Knowledge of:
1. Benchmarks and performance standards/metrics
2. How to measure, analyze, and improve organizational culture
3. Incident investigation techniques and analysis (e.g., causal factors)
4. Management of change techniques (prior, during, and after)
5. System safety analysis techniques (e.g., fault tree analysis, failure modes and effect analysis [FMEA], Safety Case
approach, and Risk Summation)
6. The elements of business continuity and contingency plans
7. Types of leading and lagging safety, health, environmental, and security performance indicators
8. Safety, health, and environmental management and audit systems (e.g., ISO 14000, 45001, 19011, ANSI Z10)
9. Applicable requirements for plans, systems, and policies (e.g., safety, health, environmental, fire, and emergency action)
10. Document retention or management principles (e.g., incident investigation, training records, exposure records,
maintenance records, environmental management system, and audit results)
11. Budgeting, finance, and economic analysis techniques and principles (e.g., timelines, budget development, milestones, resourcing,
financing risk management options, return on investment, cost/benefit analysis, and role in procurement process)
12. Management leadership techniques (e.g., management theories, leadership theories, motivation, discipline,
and communication styles)
13. Project management concepts and techniques (e.g., RACI charts, project timelines, and budgets)
Skill to:
1. Analyze and/or interpret data (e.g., exposure, release concentrations, and sampling data)
2. Apply management principles of authority, responsibility, and accountability
3. Compare management systems with benchmarks
4. Conduct causal factors analyses
5. Develop, implement, and sustain environmental, safety, and health management systems
6. Evaluate and analyze survey data
7. Perform gap analyses
8. Demonstrate business need via financial calculations (e.g., return on investment, engineering
economy, and financial engineering)
CSP10 Examination Blueprint | V.2019.04.25 Board of Certified Safety Professionals E: [email protected] | W:

Domain 3
Risk Management • 14.49%
Knowledge of:
1. Hazard identification and analysis methods (e.g., job safety analysis, hazard analysis, human performance
analysis, and audit and causal analysis)
2. Risk analysis
3. Risk evaluation (decision making)
4. The risk management process
5. The costs and benefits of risk assessment process
6. Insurance/risk transfer principles
Skill to:
1. Apply risk-based decision-making tools for prioritizing risk management options
2. Calculate metrics for organizational risk
3. Conduct hazard analysis and risk assessment
4. Select risk treatment or controls using the hierarchy of controls
5. Explain risk management options and concepts to decision makers, stakeholders, and the public
Domain 4
Advanced Application of Key Safety Concepts • 14.69%
Knowledge of:
1. Principles of safety through design and inherently safer designs (e.g., designing out hazards during design
phase, avoidance, elimination, and substitution)
2. Engineering controls (e.g., ventilation, guarding, isolation, and active vs. passive)
3. Administrative controls (e.g., job rotation, training, procedures, and safety policies and practices)
4. Personal protective equipment
5. Chemical process safety management (e.g., pressure relief systems, chemical compatibility, management of
change, materials of construction, and process flow diagrams)
6. Redundancy systems (e.g., energy isolation and ventilation)
7. Common workplace hazards (e.g., electrical, falls, same level falls, confined spaces, lockout/tagout, working
around water, caught in, struck by, excavation, welding, hot work, cold and heat stress, combustibles, laser, and
others)
8. Facility life safety features (e.g., public space safety, floor loading, and occupancy loads)
9. Fleet safety principles (e.g., driver and equipment safety, maintenance, surveillance equipment, GPS
monitoring, telematics, hybrid vehicles, fuel systems, driving under the influence, and fatigue)
10. Transportation safety principles (e.g., air, rail, and marine)
11. Materials handling (e.g., forklifts, cranes, hand trucks, person lifts, hoists, rigging, manual, and drones)
12. Foreign material exclusion (FME) and foreign object damage (FOD)
13. Hazardous materials management (e.g., GHS labels, storage and handling, policy, and security)
14. Multi-employee worksite issues (e.g., contractors and temporary or seasonal employees)
15. Sources of information on hazards and risk management options (e.g., subject matter experts, relevant best
practices, published literature, and SDS)
16. The safety design criteria for workplace facilities, machines, and practices (e.g., UL, NFPA, NIOSH, FM, and ISO)
17. Tools, machines, practices, and equipment safety (e.g., hand tools, ladders, grinders, hydraulics, and robotics)
18. Workplace hazards (e.g., nanoparticles, combustible dust, heat systems, high pressure, radiation, silica dust,
powder and spray applications, blasting, and molten metals)
19. Human performance
Skill to:
1. Calibrate, use, and maintain data logging, monitoring, and measurement equipment
2. Identify relevant labels, signs, and warnings
3. Interpret plans, specifications, technical drawings, and process flow diagrams

bcsp.org

Domain 5
Emergency Preparedness, Fire Prevention, and Security • 10.59%
Knowledge of:
1. Emergency/crisis/disaster response planning/business continuity (e.g., nuclear incidents, natural disasters,
terrorist attacks, chemical spills, fires, active violent attacks, and public utilities)
2. Fire prevention, protection, and suppression systems
3. The transportation and security of hazardous materials
4. Workplace violence and prevention techniques (violence on employees)
Skill to:
1. Manage active incidents (e.g., emergency, crisis, disaster, and incident command system)
Domain 6
Occupational Health and Ergonomics • 12.05%
Knowledge of:
1. Advanced toxicology principles (e.g., symptoms of an exposure, LD50, mutagens, teratogens, and ototoxins)
2. Carcinogens
3. Ergonomics and human factors principles (e.g., visual acuity, body mechanics, lifting, vibration,
anthropometrics, and fatigue management)
4. How to recognize occupational exposures (e.g., hazardous chemicals, radiation, noise, biological agents,
heat/cold, infectious diseases, nanoparticles, and indoor air quality)
5. How to evaluate occupational exposures (e.g., hazardous chemicals, radiation, noise, biological agents, heat/cold,
infectious diseases, ventilation, nanoparticles, and indoor air quality), including techniques for measurement,
sampling, and analysis
6. How to control occupational exposures (e.g., hazardous chemicals, radiation, noise, biological agents,
heat/cold, ventilation, nanoparticles, infectious diseases, and indoor air quality)
7. Employee substance abuse
8. The fundamentals of epidemiology
9. Occupational exposure limits (e.g., hazardous chemicals, radiation, noise, biological agents, and heat)
Skill to:
1. Conduct exposure evaluation (e.g., chemicals, SDS, ergonomic, ventilation, and environment [calibrations and calculations])
2. Use sampling equipment
3. Interpret data from exposure evaluations (e.g., adjusted shift calculations, use correct sampling method, and use
correct analytical method)
Domain 7
Environmental Management Systems • 7.38%
Knowledge of:
1. Environmental protection and pollution prevention methods (e.g., air, water, soil, containment, soil vapor
intrusion, and waste streams)
2. How released hazardous materials migrate/interact through the air, surface water, soil, and water table
3. Sustainability principles
4. Waste water treatment plants, onsite waste water treatment plants, and public water systems
5. Registration, evaluation, authorization and restriction of chemicals (REACH) and restriction of hazardous substances (RoHS)
Skill to:
1. Use waste management practices (e.g., segregation and separation, containment, disposal, chain of custody, and policy)
2. Conduct hazardous waste operations (e.g., spill clean-up and remediation)

bcsp.org

Domain 8
Training/Education • 10.18%
Knowledge of:
1. Education and training methods and techniques (e.g., classroom, online, computer-based, AI, and on-the-job training)
2. Training, qualification, and competency requirements
3. Methods for determining the effectiveness of training programs (e.g., determine if trainees are applying training on the job)
4. Effective presentation techniques
Skill to:
1. Perform training needs assessments
2. Develop training programs (e.g., presentation skills and tools)
3. Develop training materials
4. Conduct training
5. Assess training competency
6. Develop training assessment instruments (e.g., written tests and skill assessments) to assess training competency
Domain 9
Law and Ethics • 7.33%
Knowledge of:
1. Legal issues (e.g., tort, negligence, civil, criminal, contracts, and disability terminology)
2. Protection of confidential information (e.g., privacy, trade secrets, personally identifiable information, and
General Data Protection Regulation [GDPR])
3. Standards development processes
4. The ethics related to conducting professional practice (e.g., audits, record keeping, sampling, and standard writing)
5. The relationship between labor and management
6. BCSP Code of Ethics
7. Workers’ compensation (e.g., injured worker’s compensation)
Skill to:
1. Interpret laws, regulations, and consensus codes and standards
2. Apply concepts of BCSP Code of Ethics

bcsp.org
Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc., Page 170

Certified Safety Professional
ACADEMIC AND/OR TRAINING REQUIREMENT

All individuals applying for the CSP must have a bachelor’s degree or higher in any field from an accredited
institution.
There is no waiver of the academic requirement and proof of a minimum qualifying degree must be provided.
For U.S. degrees, BCSP requires the school to hold institutional accreditation recognized by the Council for
Higher Education Accreditation (CHEA) (chea.org) and/or the U.S. Department of Education (ed.gov).
Continuing education courses, seminars, and certificate programs are not a substitute for, and do not receive
credit toward, the academic requirement.
Unaccredited degrees are a growing concern and some states have laws making it illegal to use unaccredited
degrees. Applicants and certificants cannot use unaccredited degrees, and the use is a violation of the BCSP
Code of Ethics.
BCSP requires all degrees from colleges and universities outside the United States be evaluated for U.S.
equivalency. More information can be found at bcsp.org.
EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENT
CSP candidates must have four (4) years of professional safety experience to sit for the CSP exam.
Professional safety experience must meet the following criteria to qualify:
Professional safety must be the primary function of the position. Collateral duties in safety are not counted.
The position's primary responsibility must be the prevention of harm to people, property, or the environment,
rather than responsibility for responding to harmful events.
Professional safety functions must be at least 50% of the position duties. BCSP defines full-time as at least 35
hours per week. Part-time safety experience is allowed if the applicant has the equivalent of at least 900 hours
of professional safety work during any year (75 hours per month or 18 hours per week) for which experience
credit is sought.
The position must be at a professional level. This is determined by evaluating the degree of professional
charge by which there is a reliance of employees, employers, or clients on the person's ability to identify,
evaluate, and control hazards through engineering and/or administrative approaches.
The position must have breadth of professional safety duties. This is determined by evaluating the variety of
hazards about which the candidate must advise, and the range of skills involved in recognizing, evaluating, and
controlling hazards.

BCSP QUALIFIED CREDENTIAL REQUIREMENT
Applicants who meet all eligibility requirements including experience and education must hold one (1) of the
following credentials at the time they apply for the CSP:
Associate Safety Professional (ASP); Graduate Safety Practitioner (GSP); Transitional Safety Practitioner (TSP)
Certified Industrial Hygienist® (CIH®)
Chartered Member of the Institution of Occupational Safety and Health (CMIOSH)
Canadian Registered Safety Professional (CRSP)
CP-12 Professional Certificate in Safety and Occupational Health, U.S. Army Combat Readiness Center (ACRC)
Certified Safety Engineer (CSE), as administered by the State Administration of Work Safety (SAWS), People’s
Republic of China (PRC)
Master in Occupational Safety and Health, International Training Centre of the International Labour
Organization (ITC-ILO)
Member in the Institute of Safety Professionals of Nigeria (MISPN)
National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health (NEBOSH) National or International Diploma in
Occupational Health and Safety
Professional Member of the Singapore Institution of Safety Officers (SISO)
Diploma/Certificate in Industrial Safety, as issued by the State Government Departments/Boards of Technical
Education, Government of India
CSP FEES
Application Fee: $160.00 Individual Exam Fee: $350.00
Exam Bundle Fee (optional): $600.00 Exam bundles include an examination authorization, an online self-
assessment, and a second exam attempt if the first is unsuccessful.
Eligibility Extension Fee: $100.00 Renewal Fee: $180.00
CSP EXAMINATION
The CSP examination contains 200 multiple-choice items with four (4) possible answers and only one (1)
correct answer. You will have FIVE AND A HALF (5.5) hours to complete the CSP examination. Examinations
are closed book, and accessing external reference materials during your examination is not permitted. For use
during the examination, the testing center will provide you with materials for working out calculations by
hand.
CSP RECERTIFICATION
CSPs must remain up-to-date with changes in professional practice by earning and submitting 25
recertification points every five (5) years. Additional information regarding recertification can be found in the
Recertification Guide, located at ww.bcsp.org/safety-certification/recertification.

BCSP Certification Process
Obtain Exam Authorization
BCSP’s Certification Management System (CMS) allows candidates to complete certification

applications online at bcsp.org. Once your application has been submitted and approved, you
will be eligible to purchase your examination. You may visit youtube.com/BCSPTube and use
the BCSP CMS Tutorial | Purchasing Your Examination video for instructions. If you need
special examination facilities or accommodation arrangements for documented disabilities
(consistent with the Americans with Disabilities Act and the American Disabilities
Amendment Act), you must request the accommodation with BCSP at the time you purchase
your exam. Accommodation requests should be emailed to [email protected] . Failure
to request at the time of exam purchase may impact your ability to have the accommodation
provided at the testing center. Pearson VUE has a listing of items that are considered comfort
aids and do not require preapproval. This list is available at:
https://home. pearsonvue.com/test-taker/testaccommodations/Comfort-aids.aspx.
After your payment is processed, you will receive the Examination Authorization Letter, which
will remind you of the eligibility end date. This date is very important, because you must sit for
your examination by that date. You may purchase another Examination Authorization if you are
eligible and wish to take the exam again.
Schedule Your Exam
To ensure examination time and location availabilities, BCSP recommends you schedule the
exam at least six (6) to eight (8) weeks in advance. Please visit pearsonvue.com/bcsp to
schedule online or by phone. You will need your Candidate ID, on your Examination
Authorization Letter. You can only change your examination date if you contact Pearson VUE
at least one full business day prior to your already scheduled date.
United States/U.S. Territories and Canada +1 866-717-3653; 8:00AM-8:00PM ET, M-F

TDD: +1 866-717-3653; 9:00AM-6:00PM ET, M-F
NOTE: International Pearson VUE testing locations will be found at www.pearsonvue.

com/BCSP. You must call and schedule your test appointment in the region in which you will
test. Do NOT call a local testing center to schedule your appointment. Local testing centers are
not authorized to schedule, reschedule, cancel, or confirm BCSP examination appointments.
Save all examination appointment confirmation emails until after you complete your
examination. If you fail to schedule an appointment and sit for your examination, you forfeit
your Examination Authorization. Candidates who do not pass a BCSP examination are
required to wait six (6) weeks before retaking the exam.

Arrive for Testing
You are expected to arrive early at the testing center. If you are 15 or more minutes late, you
will not be allowed to enter and will forfeit your non-refundable Examination Authorization.
You must bring a valid, unexpired, government-issued ID bearing your name as on file
with BCSP, a photo, and signature. A government-issued ID that is missing a visible
signature, or one that has an embedded signature, must be supplemented with an original (not
photocopied), valid (unexpired) ID that has at least a matching name and recent photograph or a
matching name and signature. If you are testing in a country NOT of your citizenship, your
passport will be required.
Acceptable identifications include a permanent North American state or provincial driver’s
license/identification card, military identification card, national identification card, permanent
resident card, European Identity card, Permanent Account Number (PAN) ID (India only), or
passport.
Candidates testing in Japan may use a valid unexpired government-issued ID that does not
include a signature as their primary ID, such as a Japanese Driver’s License, National Identity
Card (My Number Card), Basic Resident Register Card (Juki Card), Residence Card (Alien
Card), Special Permanent Resident Certificate, or Physical Disability Certificate. Other IDs
with a photo issued by the government of Japan are acceptable if they contain the issuer’s name
and official seal.
NOTE: Your name on the provided ID must exactly match your name on file with BCSP.
You may bring one or two calculators into the secure testing room as long as they both are
among the brands and models listed:
• Casio models FX-115, -260, or -300
• Hewlett Packard models HP 10 or HP 12
• Texas Instruments models TI-30, -34, or -36
Different versions of the above models will be permitted. For example, the HP-12C and TI-30X
calculators will be permitted, as they are versions of these models. If the candidate does not
have one of the approved calculators, he or she can use the online calculator that is part of the
exam. Test centers do not provide calculators or allow candidates to bring in non-approved
models.
You must comply with all security processes (i.e., biometric scanning, etc.) at testing
centers. Please contact the location prior to the exam to learn about their specific procedures.
As you sign in, the testing center staff will provide you with materials for working out
calculations by hand. You are not allowed to take any notes, books, papers, purses, hats, coats,
jackets, pagers, mobile phones, electronic devices or other materials into the secure testing
room. You may not access other personal belongings until you complete your examination. The
only exceptions are comfort aids and approved accommodations consistent with ADA/ADAA.

BCSP Code of Ethics
This code sets forth the code of ethics and professional standards to be observed by holders of
documents of certification conferred by the Board of Certified Safety Professionals.
Certificants shall, in their professional activities, sustain and advance the integrity, honor, and
prestige of the profession by adherence to these standards:
HOLD paramount the safety and health of people, the protection of the environment and
protection of property in the performance of professional duties, and exercise their obligation
to advise employers, clients, employees, the public, and appropriate authorities of danger and
unacceptable risks to people, the environment, or property.
BE honest, fair, and impartial; act with responsibility and integrity. Adhere to high standards of
ethical conduct with balanced care for the interests of the public, employers, clients,
employees, colleagues, and the profession. Avoid all conduct or practice that is likely to
discredit the profession or deceive the public.
ISSUE public statements only in an objective and truthful manner and only when founded
upon knowledge of the facts and competence in the subject matter.
UNDERTAKE assignments only when qualified by education or experience in the specific
technical fields involved. Accept responsibility for their continued professional development
by acquiring and maintaining competence through continuing education, experience,
professional training, and keeping current on relevant legal issues.
AVOID deceptive acts that falsify or misrepresent their academic or professional qualifications.
Not misrepresent or exaggerate their degree of responsibility in or for the subject matter of
prior assignments. Presentations incident to the solicitation of employment shall not
misrepresent pertinent facts concerning employers, employees, associates, or past
accomplishments with the intent and purpose of enhancing their qualifications and their work.
CONDUCT their professional relations by the highest standards of integrity and avoid
compromise of their professional judgment by conflicts of interest. When becoming aware of
professional misconduct by a BCSP certificant, take steps to bring that misconduct to the
attention of the Board of Certified Safety Professionals.
ACT in a manner free of bias with regard to religion, ethnicity, gender, age, national origin,
sexual orientation, or disability.
SEEK opportunities to be of constructive service in civic affairs and work for the advancement
of the safety, health, and well-being of their community and their profession by sharing their
knowledge and skills.
Approved by the BCSP Board of Directors November 2, 2012 Effective January 1, 2013.

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CSP Exam Prep

Langlois Weigand & Associates, Inc.

Topic Title | Speaker/Presenter Name | Event | Date 0

▪ Actively participate in the course

On behalf of ASSP, thank you for attending this course!

Prevention Through Design Essential Risk Assessment Tools

Implementing ISO 45001 Risk Assessment

Learn more at ASSP.org/Education

SAVE THE DATE

Accident Investigation Introduction to Risk Management Tools

Safety Professionals Safety Professionals Safety Supervision

Learn more at assp.us/safetybooks

Safety is a process, not an outcome to be achieved.

Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc.

A.M. Introduction, Probability, Statistics and Engineering Economy

P.M. Advanced Science and Math

A.M. Risk Management, Advanced Safety Concepts

P.M. Emergency Preparedness, Fire Prevention, and Security

A.M. Environmental Management Systems

P.M. Training/Education, Law, and Ethics

Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc.

Copyright© Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc., Page 2

Michael A. Weigand, CSP is Vice President of Langlois, Weigand & Associates,

Copyright© Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc., Page 3

1. Provide participants with an intensive review of the materials, skills, and

2. Enhancing the professional competencies of participants.

This will be accomplished by:

* Identifying certification requirements of the Board of Certified Safety

* Identifying the principle reference materials available.

* Discussing the range and scope of information covered in the exam.

* Utilizing a "testing" format to review content materials.

* Providing an opportunity to practice solving analytical (math) problems.

* Providing opportunities for discussion and questions.

* Identifying limitations in exam preparation.

2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018

Note: The Passing Score on all Versions is 63%% (CSP9) (110/175)

Copyright© Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc., Page 4

In order to do your absolute best, consider the following:

Reduce anxiety by being adequately prepared for the examination.

When taking the exam:

▪ Read the instructions carefully

▪ Monitor the TIME - keep track of your progress

▪ Remember, one question one point

▪ Finish the test - there is no penalty for guessing

▪ Read each question thoroughly identifying key ideas, words,

▪ Anticipate the obviously correct answer

▪ Eliminate any obviously incorrect answers

▪ Select the most appropriate response by the process of

▪ Mark the answer key accurately

Copyright© Langlois, Weigand & Associates, Inc., Page 5

1. 1 mile = __________ ft = ____________km

3. 1 gal = __________ liters

5. 1 liter = __________ milliliters

6. 1 gal of water = __________ lbs

7. 1 liter = _________ cm3 = _________ g of water = _____ kg of water

8. 1 m3 = _______ liters = ________ kg of water

9. 1 meter = ___________ millimeters

10. 1 meter = ___________ feet

11. 1 meter = __________ cm

1. 1 mile = ft = __km

7. 1 liter = _____ cm3 = _ g of water = _ kg of water

8. 1 m3 = _ liters = __ kg of water