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Week ly Optimum Current Q & A P DF – B ased On Recent E x am Trends Third Week of A ugus t (17 t h A ugus t – 23 r d A ugus t 2

National /State News

1. Consider the following statement regarding National Curriculum Framework. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. The board examinations will be conducted twice a year.
B. The National Curriculum Framework for School Education expects all students to be proficient in at least three languages, a t least two of
which are native to India.
C. The NCF has been drafted by the national steering committee headed by former Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) K. Kasturirangan.
D. The NCF increases number of mandatory subjects for Classes 9 and 10 to seven and for Classes 11 and 12 to six.
E. All of the above are correct

• The National Curriculum Framework for School Education was released by

Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan on 23 August 2023.
• National Curriculum Framework for School Education is an important step
towards the implementation of the National Education Policy - 2020.
• The board examinations will be conducted twice a year. The students would
have the option to retain the best score.
• The aim of this step is to reduce the high-pressure environment often
associated with single annual exams.
• The National Curriculum Framework for School Education addresses the entire
educational journey from foundational to secondary stages.
• It covers all the four stages of schooling. It is organised into five parts.
• Mr Pradhan said the efforts are on to
make new textbooks available from next
academic year.
• The Minister said the textbooks for
classes 3 to 12 will be aligned with 21st-
Century requirements.
• The National Curriculum Framework for
School Education expects all students to
be proficient in at least three languages,
at least two of which are native to India.
• According to the framework, class 9 and
10 students will learn three languages.
Out of these, two will be native
languages to India.
• According to the framework, class 11
and 12 students will learn two
languages. Out of these, one will be of
Indian origin.
• As of now, class 9 and 10 students study
two languages and class 11 and 12
students study one language.
• The NCF increases number of
mandatory subjects for Classes 9 and
10 to seven and for Classes 11 and 12
to six.

• Optional subjects have been categorized in three parts in the NCF.

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Week ly Optimum Current Q & A P DF – B ased On Recent E x am Trends Third Week of A ugus t (17 t h A ugus t – 23 r d A ugus t 2

• The first optional group includes art education (both

visual and performing arts), physical education and
vocational education.
• The 2nd group includes Social Science, the Humanities,
and interdisciplinary areas.
• The 3rd group includes Science, Mathematics, and
computational thinking
• For Classes 6 to 8: The NCF states that:
• 20% content would be from the local level for the Social
Science curriculum,
• 30% content would be from the regional level,
• 30% would be from the national level, and
• 20% content would be global.
• The National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020) aims to
devise 4 NCFs, for which a comprehensive strategy has
been worked out jointly by the Ministry of Education
(MoE) and NCERT.
• The National Steering Committee under the
chairmanship of (former ISRO chief) K. Kasturirangan
was set up by the MoE to undertake and develop NCFs.
• These 4 NCFs are -
• National Curriculum Framework for Early Childhood Care
and Education (NCFECCE)
• National Curriculum Framework for School Education
(NCFSE)
• National Curriculum Framework for Teacher Education
(NCFTE)
• National Curriculum Framework for Adult Education
(NCFAE)

2. In August as per report _____________ has become the second state amongst States and UTs in the number of online services provided to
the citizens with the announcement of 913 citizen-centric online services on the e-UNNAT portal.
A. Karnataka
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Haryana
D. Punjab
E. Jammu and Kashmir

• Jammu and Kashmir has become the

second state amongst States and UTs in
the number of online services provided
to the citizens with the announcement of
913 citizen-centric online services on the
e-UNNAT portal.
• This is an important milestone in line with the resolve of the J&K Administration to provide ease, convenience, and accessibi lity of services
to the common man.
• Jammu and Kashmir has overtaken Kerala by providing 911 online services and is second in the country after Madhya Pradesh.
• It is noteworthy that under the 'Digital Jammu and Kashmir Programme' launched in mission mode last year, the number of onlin e services
has rapidly increased from 35 services to 913 services in 2021.

• With the 24x7 availability of services on a single integrated portal as well as the 'Mobile Dost' app, the use of technology has ushered in a
new era of digital governance in Jammu and Kashmir.
• The services have also been linked to the Rapid Assessment System (RAS) for citizen feedback and over 52 lakh SMS have been sent so far
with an approval rating of 86%.
• 300 online services have been linked with an auto appeal system, wherein appeals are forwarded to appellate authorities in ca se of non-
delivery of service within the time limit defined under the Public Service Guarantee Act (PSGA).

3. In August as per report National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) approved the proposal regarding the tiger reserve in the Karauli and
Dholpur districts of Rajasthan.
With this approval, India got its _______ tiger reserve in the Karauli and Dholpur districts of Rajasthan.
A. 52 nd
B. 53 rd
C. 54 th
D. 55 th
E. 56 th

• The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) approved the

proposal regarding the tiger reserve in the Karauli and Dholpur
districts of Rajasthan.
• With this approval, India got its 54th tiger reserve in the Karauli
and Dholpur districts of Rajasthan.
• This is the 5th tiger reserve in Rajasthan after Ranthambore,
Sariska, Mukundra Hills and Ramgarh Vishdhari.
• As per the government data, the tigers number in India has
grown from 2,967 in 2018 to 3,682 in 2022. This is an annual
increase of 6%,
• Madhya Pradesh has the highest number (785) of tigers in the
country.
• It is followed by Karnataka (563), Uttarakhand (560), and Maharashtra (444).
• The tigers number in Rajasthan has grown from 32 in 2006 to 88 in 2022.

4. In August as per report Dr Jitendra Singh unveils new variety "Lotus" flower named ‘Namoh 108’, that has 108 petals.
The flower has been developed by ____________.
A. ICAR-Indian Agricultural Research Institute
B. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited
C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
D. Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture
E. National Botanical Research Institute

• Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science & Technology; MoS PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Atomic En ergy and
Space, Dr Jitendra Singh unveiled the new variety "Lotus" flower developed by Lucknow Institu te CSIR-NBRI (National Botanical Research
Institute) that has 108 petals.
• The lotus named ‘NBRI Namoh 108’ is developed by the CSIR-National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI), a premier plant -based,
multidisciplinary, state-of-the-art National R&D center based in Lucknow.
• The Namoh 108 lotus variety flowers from March to December and is rich in nutrients. This is the first lotus variety whose ge nome is
completely sequenced for its characteristics.

• Dr Jitendra Singh also released apparel made from lotus fibre and perfume ‘Frotus’, extracted from lotus flowers and developed by the
NBRI under the Lotus Research Programme in collaboration with FFDC, Kannauj.
• Dr Jitendra Singh said it is a grand gift to the
relentless zeal and innate beauty of Shri Narendra
Modi, coming as it does in the tenth year of his
tenure as the Prime Minister.
• Dr Jitendra Singh said this project is being
undertaken in Mission mode like the other priority
schemes, - the National Honey and Bee Mission
(NHBM), National Bamboo Mission (NBM),
National Food Security Mission (NFSM), National
Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF), National
Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA), Gokul
Mission, Blue Revolution, Mission Shakti - an
integrated women empowerment programme and
the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-
Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) etc.
• The Minister also released the new variety of Aloe
vera named ‘NBRI-Nihar’, a clonal selection having
approximately 2.5 times high gel yield in
comparison to Aloe vera.
• As per the field observations, 'NBRI-Nihar' is found
least affected against bacterial and fungal
diseases. Two herbal products namely ‘Herbal Cold
Drops’ for curing common cough and cold &
Herbal Anti Dandruff Hair Oil, made by Marc
Laboratories, were also launched by the Minister.

• Dr Jitendra Singh also launched a Database of 500 Raw Drug Repositories of the Institute developed as per Indian Pharmacopoei a
Standards and released a book on roses in CSIR-NBRI Garden, comprising the details of elite varieties conserved at the Botanic Garden.
• On the occasion, an MoU was signed between CSIR-NBRI & M/s Nucleome Informatics, Hyderabad for collaborative research on Cotton.
• The CSIR-NBRI digital Herbarium, a National Repository of flora specimens of India, was also launched to easily dissemin ate information
among the public and a book on ‘Plant Resources of Uttar Pradesh and a Check List’ and ‘e-flora of Uttar Pradesh’ were also released. The
e-flora and book provide a list and information of more than 5,000 plants of Uttar Pradesh.
• Originally established as the National Botanic Gardens (NBG) by the State Government of Uttar Pradesh (U.P.).
• Taken over by CSIR in 1953. Renamed the National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI) in 1978.

5. In August as per report total number of Jan Dhan accounts crossed the 50 crore mark. Out of the total 50 crore accounts _________ per
cent of accounts belong to women.
A. 52 %
B. 56 %
C. 58 %
D. 55 %
E. 61%

• The total number of Jan Dhan accounts crossed

the 50 crore mark.
• Out of the total 50 crore accounts, 56 per cent
of accounts belong to women and 67 per cent

of accounts have been opened in Rural and

Semi-urban areas.
• The total deposits in these accounts are above Rs 2.03 lakh crore.
• Around 34 crore RuPay cards have been issued with these accounts free of cost.
• The average balance in Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) accounts is Rs 4,076.
• More than 5.5 crore of these accounts received Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
• Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was launched on 28th August 2014.
• It was launched to provide universal access to banking facilities to people.
• It is also known as National Mission for Financial Inclusion.
• Under this scheme, Rupay Debit card and Accident Insurance Cover of Rs.1 lakh (enhanced to Rs2 lakhs to new PMJDY acc ounts opened
after 28.8.2018) is provided to account holders.
• An overdraft facility of up to Rs 10,000 is provided to eligible account holders.

6. In August as per report India's first 3D-printed post office building was inaugurated by Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnav in Bengaluru,
Karnataka.
Which of the following designed and constructed the 1,000 sq ft Halasuru Post Office within a time frame of 43 days?
A. NCC Ltd
B. Jaiprakash Associates Ltd
C. Hindustan Construction Co Ltd
D. Reliance Infrastructure Ltd
E. Larsen & Toubro Ltd

• On 18 August, India's first 3D-printed post

office building inaugurated by Union
Minister Ashwini Vaishnav in Bengaluru,
Karnataka.
• L&T Construction completed the post office
structure at Cambridge Layout, Halasuru
using 3D concrete printing technology.
• Using this innovative technology, L&T
Construction designed and constructed the
1,000 sq ft Halasuru Post Office within a
time frame of 43 days.
• Technology approval to Larsen & Toubro Limited (L&T) for 3D concrete printing of structures was given by Building Materials and
Technology Promotion Council along with IIT-Madras.
• 3-D printed buildings are less expensive and also reduce the wastage of building materials. It is environmentally friendly.
• This building accelerates the pace of construction with unique design possibilities.
• Nearly two years ago, Nirmala Sitharaman inaugurated India's first 3D-printed house, built by Tvista Manufacturing Solutions, at the IIT
Madras campus.
• In December 2022, the Indian Army also inaugurated its first two-storey 3D-printed housing unit for soldiers in Ahmedabad Cantt.

7. Recently seen in news Anduri Utsav, popularly known as Butter Festival was celebrated in which of the following state?
A. Uttarakhand
B. Haryana
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh
E. Punjab

• On 17 August, Anduri Utsav, popularly known as Butter Festival, celebrated in Dayara Bugyal of Uttarkashi district, concluded with pomp.
• The festival concluded with the villagers playing 'Holi' by applying each other with milk and butter instead of Gulal.
• In the local Uttarakhandi dialect, Bugyal means meadow or pasture.
• Dayara Bugyal, situated at an altitude of 11,000 feet above sea level, is one of the ancient grasslands of the state.
• Earlier this festival was celebrated by throwing cow dung on each other.
• Now milk, butter, and buttermilk are used instead of cow dung.

8. In August as per report Union Minister Dr Mansukh Mandaviya has inaugurated India MedTech Expo 2023 at which place?
A. Jaipur
B. Bhopal
C. Chennai
D. Gandhinagar
E. Lucknow

• Union Minister Dr Mansukh Mandaviya inaugurated India MedTech Expo 2023.

• India’s first medical technology expo, ‘India MedTech Expo 2023, has been launched in Gandhinagar, Gujarat on 17 August. It w ill conclude
on 19 August.
• This event has been organised on the sidelines of the G20 Health Ministers’ Meeting.
• “MedTech Expo 2023” is inspired by PM Modi’s vision of making India Aatmanirbhar.
• It is a unique platform to showcase the strength and potential of the Indian Medical Devices ecosystem.
• Dr Mandaviya said that India has been recognised as the “Pharmacy of the World”.
• Gujarat is in the top position in terms of the pharmaceutical industry with a 33% share in drug manufacturing and a 28% share of drug
exports.
• Under the automatic route, FDI up to 100% is permitted for the manufacturing of medical devices.
• Technological advancements, miniaturization of devices, incorporation with the Internet of Things (IoT), 3D printing, and cus tomised
medical devices will influence the changes in the field of Medical Devices.
• Recently, the Government launched the Export-Promotion Council for Medical Devices.

9. What is the name of the India’s first long-range side swing revolver?
A. Prabal
B. Shakti
C. Tejas
D. Pratham
E. Prakram

• India’s first long-range side swing revolver 'Prabal' has been launched for civilians and arms dealers.
• It is manufactured by Advanced Weapons and Equipment India (AWEIL) located in Kanpur.
• This 32-bore revolver is capable of accurately hitting targets up to 50 metres away.
• This range is twice that of the revolver currently in production.
• Prabal will become a frontrunner in the field of long-range handguns.
• The innovative design of Prabal eliminates the need to fold the firearm for cartridge insertion and makes the reloading proce ss simple.
• Prabal’s side swings out cylinder making it different from its counterparts.
• The Prabal weighs 675 grams (excluding cartridges) and has an overall length of 187.7 mm.

10. Which of the following has released recommendations on “License Fee and Policy Matters of DTH Services”?
A. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited

B. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited

C. Prasar Bharati
D. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
E. All of the above

• TRAI released recommendations on “License Fee and Policy Matters of

DTH Services”.
• The Information and Broadcasting Ministry should provide a reliable
method for the deduction verification procedure through a single
window site, according to TRAI's recommendation.
• It also stated that DTH Licensee should pay an annual license fee
equivalent to 3 per cent of Adjusted Gross Revenue.
• In the next three years, License Fee for DTH Licensees should be
brought down to zero.
• After the end of the financial year 2026-2027, DTH Licensees should
not be charged any License Fee.
• The Licensee should submit an initial Bank Guarantee of five crore
rupees for the first two quarters from any Scheduled Bank to the
Ministry.
• The DTH operation in India is governed by the policy guidelines for
obtaining the license for providing DTH broadcasting services.
• These guidelines prescribe a License Fee, which is a non-tax cost
imposed on a service provider in exchange for permission of carrying
out a licenced activity.

11. Recently as per report Government is planning to launch 'Mera Bill Mera Adhikar' GST reward scheme in ___________ states.
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 8
E. 4

• Government is planning to launch 'Mera Bill Mera

Adhikar' GST reward scheme in 6 states from
September 1.
• The government will launch the 'Mera Bill Mera
Adhikar' invoice incentive scheme.
• Under this scheme, a cash prize from Rs 10,000 to Rs 1
crore will be provided to six states and Union
Territories.
• It will be launched in the states of Assam, Gujarat and Haryana; and the UTs of Puducherry, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Hav eli.
• Under the Invoice incentive scheme, Cash prizes will be given on uploading GST invoices.
• All invoices issued by Goods and Services Tax (GST) registered suppliers to consumers will be eligible for the 'Mera Bill Mer a Adhikar'
scheme.
• The minimum purchase value for the invoice to be considered for the lucky draw is Rs 200.
• The 'Mera Bill Mera Adhikar' mobile app will be also launched on both IOS and Android platforms.
• The seller's GSTIN, invoice number, amount paid, and tax amount should all be included on the invoice that is uploaded to the app.

12. In August as per report Annual Capacity Building Plan of the Department of Rural Development, Department of Land Resources, and
Ministry of Panchayati Raj has been launched by Union Minister Giriraj Singh in ___________.
A. New Delhi
B. Jabalpur
C. Rewa
D. Jaipur
E. Bhopal

• On 22 August, the Annual Capacity Building Plan of the Department of Rural Development, Department of Land Resources, and Min istry of
Panchayati Raj has been launched in New Delhi.
• The Annual Capacity Building Plan is a comprehensive strategic document designed to assist in the development and improvement of the
skills of individuals.
• The scheme would play a vital role in the delivery of services, implementation of programs, and core functions of governance.
• Along with this, officers will also be imparted training to acquire the necessary skills for better performance, so that the
ministry/department can perform better by achieving public-oriented objectives.
• The annual Capacity Building Plan (ACBP) is a planning document prepared based on the capa city enhancement needs of the officials of
the Ministry/Department/Organization (MDO).
• This is determined through a Capability Needs Analysis (CNA), prioritization of capabilities against the need of the officers , and the
importance of the capability to the Ministry.
• A Capacity Building Unit (CBU) has been created in all three departments to implement and sustain the ACBP.
• For the implementation of ACBP, 2.5% expenditure of the salary head of the department will be earmarked.

13. Recently as per report _____________ in association with the World Economic Forum will establish the ‘India Centre for Advanced
Manufacturing.’
A. Karnataka
B. Odisha
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Uttar Pradesh
E. Haryana

• Tamil Nadu government is planning to set up the ‘India Centre for Advanced Manufacturing’.
• The Tamil Nadu government in association with the World Economic Forum will establish the ‘India Centre for Advanced Manufact uring’ in
Chennai.
• The Tamil Nadu government and the World Economic Forum hosted a public-private discussion for establishing this centre.
• The India Centre for Advanced Manufacturing will support companies in their innovation, sustainability, and R&D endeavours.
• Technology adoption and innovation, industry-academia engagement, and sustainable production will be the key focus area for the
Centre.
• Earlier, Tamil Nadu had established three Centers of Excellence in collaboration with Siemens, G.E., and Dassault Systeme to provide vital
support to start-ups and MSMEs.
• It will enhance Tamil Nadu’s capabilities and attract critical industries like semiconductors, green hydrogen, and solar PV module
manufacturers to the state.

14. In August as per report ______________ state government announced to to launch 'Athidhi Portal' for registration of migrant workers.
A. Goa
B. Maharashtra
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Kerala

E. Punjab

• Kerala is taking proactive measures to address recent incidents involving migrant workers allegedly committing sexual crimes against
children.
• As a solution-oriented approach, the state has launched the Athidhi portal, a user-friendly web platform aimed at streamlining the
registration process for migrant workers.
• The primary objective of the Athidhi portal is to fast-track the registration of ‘guest workers’ and ensure that no one is left out.
• The portal offers a comprehensive and inclusive solution, allowing contractors, employers, and individual workers to register easily.
• The details entered in the portal will be carefully examined by the enrolling officer, who will issue a unique ID for each wo rker.
• This move demonstrates the government’s commitment to safeguarding the safety and well-being of all residents, including migrant
workers.

15. In August as per report Border Roads Organization begins the construction of the world’s highest motorable road in eastern L adakh
at a height of __________.
A. 19,100 feet
B. 19,200 feet
C. 19,500 feet
D. 19,800 feet
E. 19,400 feet

• Border Roads Organization begins the construction of the world’s highest motorable road in eastern Ladakh at Mig La -Fukche road.
• The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) has begun the construction of a high-altitude road in Ladakh at 19,400 feet near LAC.
• Likaru-Mig La-Fukche road will be 64 kilometres long. It will connect Likaru with Fukche.
• It will be the world’s highest motorable road.
• At present, the world’s highest road is Umling La road in Ladakh at a height of 19,024 feet. This 52 -km road connects Chishumle to
Demchok.
• The infrastructure construction along LAC is crucial for security reasons due to the ongoing standoff with China.
• Soon Sela tunnel will be inaugurated by Prime Minister Modi. It will be the highest and longest bi-lane tunnel in the world

16. Recently as per CVC report, the highest number of corruption complaints
were registered against the employees of ______________.
A. Union Home Ministry
B. Railways
C. Banks
D. Insurance
E. Defence

• As per a CVC report, the highest number of corruption complaints were

registered against Union Home Ministry employees.
• In 2022, the highest number of corruption complaints were registered
against employees of the Union home ministry.
• It is followed by employees of railways and banks.
• Last year, the home ministry received 46,643 complaints against its
employees.
• 10,580 complaints were received against railway employees and 8,129
against bank employees.

• A total of 1,15,203 complaints were received against all categories of

officers and employees across central government departments and
organisations.
• Out of these, 85,437 were disposed of and 29,766 were pending for more than three months.
• As per the report, the railways had disposed of 9,633 complaints while 17 were pending disposal.
• Banks had disposed of 7,762 corruption complaints and 367 were pending.
• 7,370 complaints were registered against the employees of the Government of National Capital Territory Delhi.
• As per the CVC report, 987 complaints were registered against those working in insurance companies.

17. In August as per report _____________ state government has launched Solid Waste Management Project.
A. Odisha
B. Karnataka
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Kerala
E. Tamil Nadu

• As 90 per cent of the State’s population is projected to live in cities and towns by 2035, Kerala is bracing up for stronger garbage
management by converting the challenge into opportunity,
• Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan launched the Rs 2,400-crore Kerala Solid Waste Management Project (KSWMP) amid the second phase of
‘Malinya Muktham Navakeralam’ campaign which is bolstering the infrastructure to achieve the target in the current financial year.
• The KSWMP, which is being carried out in association with the World Bank and Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank, covers state’s entire
93 urban local bodies (ULBs) to be self-sufficient in clearing garbage by March 2024, besides helping them chart out and implement
sustainable solid waste management for the next 25 years.

18. Recently seen in news Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao yojna is associated with which of the following state?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Odisha
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka
E. Uttar Pradesh

• MP CM Shivraj Singh Chouhan will

inaugurate Mukhyamantri Seekho-
Kamao yojna.
• The implementation of the
Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao yojna
(Chief Minister's Learn-Earn scheme) is
beginning on 22 August 2023.
• The scheme has facilitated on-the-job
training along the lines of learn and
earn along with skill development.
• Chief Minister will inaugurate the scheme by distributing contract letters to the youth.
• In the first phase of the 'Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao' scheme, One lakh youth is targeted to be included.
• It has been started for the youth in the age group of 18 to 29 years.
• Under this scheme, training will be provided to the selected youth according to the requirement of industries.
• Along with training, the selected youth will also get an 8 to 10 thousand rupees stipend.

19. Recently seen in news Datia Airport is located in which of the following state?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Assam
C. Nagaland
D. Jharkhand
E. Manipur

• On 21 August, the foundation stone of Datia Airport in Madhya Pradesh was laid by Chief Minister Shri Shivraj Singh Chouhan a nd Union
Minister Jyotiraditya M. Scindia.
• This airport is being developed at a cost of Rs 50 crore and is expected to be completed by February 2024.
• This includes renovation of the existing 1810-meter-long runway and the construction of an apron that can accommodate two 19-seater
aircraft and a 750-square-meter terminal building and ATC tower.
• The terminal building will have the capacity to accommodate 100 passengers during peak hours.
• In Madhya Pradesh, the aircraft movements (per week) increased from 506 (in 2014) to 554 (in 2021), which currently stands at 956.
• This is a jump of 72.5% (compared to 2021) and 89 percent (compared to 2014).
• The development work at Datia airport to handle 19-seater aircraft will further enhance regional connectivity.
• This will also help in promoting tourism in the region.

20. In August as per report ____________ launched the "Chief Minister's Green Fellowship Programme," aimed at spreading awareness on
climate change besides other aligned goals.
A. Odisha
B. Maharashtra
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Karnataka
E. Tamil Nadu

• Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M K Stalin launched the "Chief Minister's Green Fellowship Programme," aimed at spreading awareness on
climate change besides other aligned goals.
• Implementing green initiatives in districts is one of the key objectives, under which 40 "green fellows," have been selected by knowlege
partner of the programme, state-run Anna University's Institute of Energy Studies.
• A programme lead and four research associates form part of the fellowship initiative.
• Of the 40 appointees, 38 will be focusing on one district each and two others shall function at the state level.
• Fellows of the green programme have a two-year tenure and they get a stipend of Rs 60,000 per month.
• The fellows of the green initiative called on Stalin at the Secretariat, marking the inauguration of the programme.
• The Department of Environment and Climate Change of the State government is the implementing agency for the Chief Minister's Green
Fellowship Programme.
• At the end of the tenure and on successful completion of the fellowship programme, the green fellows would be conferred the P ost
Graduate Diploma in Climate Change and Sustainability by the Anna varsity.

21. In August as per report the cabinet gave approval for the continuation of the North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme
(NESIDS) with an approved outlay of ________ crore.
A. Rs. 7139.50 crore
B. Rs. 6139.50 crore
C. Rs. 5139.50 crore
D. Rs. 8139.50 crore
E. Rs. 4139.50 crore

• Recently, the cabinet gave approval for the continuation of the North East Special Infrastructure Development Scheme (NESIDS) with an
approved outlay of Rs. 8139.50 crore.
• It was approved by the Government of India as a Central Sector Scheme in 2017.
• Under the scheme guidelines of NESIDS, 100% of the central funding is provided to the State Governments of North Eastern Regi on.
• The funding is provided for projects of physical infrastructure relating to water supply, power, and connectivity, enhancing tourism, and
Social infrastructure relating to primary and secondary sectors of education and health.
• It was approved by the Government of India as a Central Sector Scheme in 2017.
• Under the scheme guidelines of NESIDS, 100% of the central funding is provided to the State Governments of North Eastern Regi on.
• The funding is provided for projects of physical infrastructure relating to water supply, power, and connectivity, enh ancing tourism, and
Social infrastructure relating to primary and secondary sectors of education and health.
• The objective of scheme is to supplement the efforts of the different Central Ministries & Departments for uncovered development/welfare
activities.
• These schemes help in gap-filling support to the eight North Eastern States as per their felt needs by taking up projects.

22. In August as per report __________state government has launched the first-ever night street racing circuit of india.
A. Telangana
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Odisha
E. Uttar Pradesh

• On 16 August, a new street circuit was launched in Chennai by the Government of Tamil Nadu and RRPL, in which night races wil l also be
held.
• The state government has partnered with Racing Promotion Private Limited (RRPL) for the project.
• RRPL is also the promoter of the Indian Racing League
and F4 Indian Championship.
• Tamil Nadu Youth Welfare and Sports Development
Minister Udhayanidhi Stalin inaugurated the circuit.
• As far as the track is concerned, it is 3.5 km long, based
around the Island Ground located in the heart of the
city.
• It will also become the first street circuit in India and
South Asia to host a night race. The track will be
extended to Napier Bridge.
• The newly launched track will host a few events like
the F4 Indian Championship and the Indian Racing
League on December 9-10.

23. In August as per report Ministry of Road Transport and

Highways has rolled out an indigenous star-rating
system for crash testing cars.
Called the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme
(NCAP), the rating system will be voluntary and will
come into effect from __________.
A. 1 st November , 2023
B. 1 st September , 2023
C. 1st October, 2023
D. 1 st December , 2023

E. 1 st Janaury , 2024

• The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has rolled out an indigenous star -rating system for crash testing cars.
• Under the new system, vehicles will be assigned between one to five stars indicating their safety in a collision.
• Called the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (NCAP), the rating system will be voluntary and will come into effect from October 1,
2023.
• It is a testing protocol, wherein automobiles in India shall be accorded Star Ratings based upon their performance in crash tests.
• Under the Bharat NCAP, cars voluntarily nominated by automobile manufacturers will be crash tested as per protocols laid down in the
soon-to-be-published Automotive Industry Standard 197.
• The testing protocols adopted by the Bharat NCAP are modelled on the Global NCAP.
• While India has mandatory crash test norms for cars, the Bharat NCAP rating will be of superior standard and will be aligned with global
crash-test protocols.
• Unlike in other countries where the NCAP are carried out by non-government entities, there will be a Bharat NCAP Authority in India.
• The programme is applicable to passenger vehicles with not more than eight seats in addition to the driver’s seat with gross vehicle weight
not exceeding 3,500 kgs.
• Only the base model of a particular variant will be tested.
• Cars will be assigned a rating between one star to five stars after being evaluated on three parameters:
• adult occupant protection,
• child occupant protection, and
• safety assist technologies present in the car.
• The first two parameters will be calculated with the help of three different kinds of tests:
• A frontal offset test where a vehicle is driven at 64 kmph and with 40% overlap into a deformable barrier which represents th e oncoming
vehicle,
• This replicates a crash between two cars of the same weight.
• The side impact test at 50 kmph, and
• The pole-side impact test (where a car is crashed into a rigid pole sideways) at 29 kmph.
• Original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) across the country have already sent in 30 models for crash testing.

24. In August as per report ______________ launched the 'My Bengal, Addiction Free Bengal' Campaign under the 'Nasha Mukt Bharat
Abhiyan'.
A. Narendra Modi
B. Amit Shah
C. Rajnath Singh
D. Droupadi Murmu
E. Piyush Goyal

• President Droupadi Murmu launched the 'My Bengal, Addiction Free Bengal' Campaign under the 'Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyan'.
• ‘My Bengal, Addiction-Free Bengal’ campaign has been organized by the Brahma Kumaris.
• She said that the central and state governments were working hard on vario us aspects to curb the problem.
• Droupadi Murmu said that this menace can be stopped through a spiritual awakening, medication, social solidarity and politica l will.
• She appreciated organisations like Brahma Kumaris for discussing such issues and working to solve them.
• Around 15.8 million children aged between 10 and 17 years are addicted to Drugs substances in India.
• Nasha Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan (NMBA) was launched on 15th August 2020 by the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment in the 272
most vulnerable districts.

25. In August as per report __________state government launched 'Gramin Mitra' scheme to provide govt services at people's doorstep,
promote digital empowerment in rural areas.

A. Maharashtra
B. Punjab
C. Haryana
D. Goa
E. Bihar

• The Goa government launched its flagship scheme “Gramin Mitra” to provide doorstep delivery of government services across the state
and promote digital empowerment in rural areas.
• The scheme will bridge the digital divide and promote digital empowerment in the rural parts of the state.
• The programme aims to empower rural communities with access to information and opportunities that can transform their lives a nd drive
socio-economic growth.
• Under the initiative, people can request public services by simply calling the dedicat ed call centre number, which operates from 8 am to 8
pm, seven days a week.

26. In August as per report ___________ becomes the first institution of its kind in the country to use the Block Chain
technology for transparent and tamper-proof recording of evidence, digitally.
A. RajasthanForensic Science Laboratory
B. Delhi Forensic Science Laboratory
C. Karnataka Forensic Science Laboratory
D. Odisha Forensic Science Laboratory
E. Telangana Forensic Science Laboratory

• Delhi Lieutenant Governor (LG) VK Saxena launched the Block Chain technology in the Inter-Operable Criminal
Justice System (ICJS) for the e-forensic application of the Delhi Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL) and Delhi Police at
Raj Niwas.
• With this, Delhi FSL becomes the first institution of its kind in the country to use the Block Chain technology for
transparent and tamper-proof recording of evidence.
• Delhi Police has already trained about 1,500 personnel to operate this new technology and over 3,000 forensic
samples are being processed and analysed using the Block Chain technology.
• The Block Chain Technology integrated with the e-forensic app of the DFSL will ensure that evidence (material
samples) submitted from the scene of crime to the DFSL for analysis and reporting, remains free of human
interface or interference.

27. In August as per report _____________ launched an ambitious campaign to showcase India as a premier wedding
destination globally.
A. Ministry of Culture
B. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
C. Ministry of Women and Child Development
D. Ministry of Tourism
E. Ministry of Education

• The Ministry of Tourism launched an ambitious campaign to showcase India as a premier wedding destination globally.
• Wedding tourism campaign also aims to unlock the potential of India’s huge wedding industry.
• This campaign also envisions to explore avenues of great potential, for scaling tourism in India to new heights.
• The campaign begins with profiling about 25 key destinations across the country, exploring how India fits into their wedding aspirations in
more than one way.

• G Kishan Reddy, Union Minister for Tourism.

28. In August as per report Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region signed mou with ______________ to provide MDoNER with
technical support on fast-tracking progress on the SDGs.
A. UNEP
B. OECD
C. FAO
D. WEF
E. UNDP

• Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER) and UNDP, entered into an MoU wherein UNDP would provide MDoNER with
technical support on fast-tracking progress on the SDGs; monitoring, evaluation and capacity building; support Aspirational districts and
blocks; support in the deployment of emerging technologies in governance and in scaling up good practices.
• UNDP has been key partner in promoting data-driven decision-making, especially through the North East Region District SDG Index.
• MoS also stated that the NER District SDG Index helped in forming the flagship PM-DevINE scheme, which provides infrastructure and
social development funding to boost livelihood opportunities in the region, especially for women an d youth.
• The United Nations Development Programme is a United Nations agency tasked with helping countries eliminate poverty and achie ve
sustainable economic growth and human development.
• Headquarters: New York,United States, Founded: 22 November 1965, United States, Head - Achim Steiner.

29. In August as per report ___________ edition of India Region Conference of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association was
inaugurated by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla in Udaipur.
A. 3 rd
B. 5 th
C. 7 th
D. 9 th
E. 1 st

• The 9th India Region Conference of the Commonwealth Parliamentary Association was inaugurated by Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla in
Udaipur.
• The theme of the conference is 'Strengthening Democracy and Good Governance in the Digital Age'.
• The inaugural session was also be addressed by Chief Minister of Rajasthan Ashok Gehlot, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha Harivansh,
and Speaker of Rajasthan Legislative Assembly, Dr. CP Joshi.
• The closing ceremony of the conference will be addressed by Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar on 22 Aug ust 2023.
• Rajasthan is hosting this conference for the first time. 17 Speakers of legislative assemblies, Deputy Speakers, and chairmen of Legislative
Councils will take part in the conference.
• The conference will have two sessions. In the first session, there will be discussion on topics like digital empowerment, and improving the
skills of public representatives in the direction of good governance.
• In the second session, the focus will be on the role of public representatives in strengthening the country through democratic institutions.

30. Recently seen in news Bhagwan Birsa Munda Jodaraste Scheme is associated with which of the following state?
A. Bihar
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Karnataka
D. Jharkhand
E. Maharashtra

• Maharashtra government has decided to

implement the Bhagwan Birsa Munda
Jodaraste Scheme.
• The state cabinet has decided to
implement the Bhagwan Birsa Munda
Jodaraste Scheme to connect all tribal
villages in 17 state districts with main
roads.
• The project will be implemented at Rs
5,000 crore and nearly 6,838 km of roads
will be constructed as part of the scheme.
• Under this scheme, all the tribal padas
will be connected by perennial roads.
• The Tribal Development Department will
form a separate committee for these
roads.
• These roads will be built by Public Works Department.
• The construction of roads will remove the difficulty in providing basic facilities to tribal people.
• In another decision, the Maharashtra cabinet also decided to repeal the 45 -year-old Maharashtra Casinos (Control and Tax) Act, 1976,
• The Maharashtra government will also give special rations during the upcoming Ganeshotsav and Diwali festivals under the Anty odaya
food scheme.
• This special ration will comprise one kg each of semolina, chana dal, sugar, and one litre of cooking oil.
• The Maharashtra government has also decided to increase the stipend amount for government Industrial Training Institutes (ITI) trainees
from 40 rupees to 500 rupees.

31. Recently seen in news Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden which entered the World Book of Records (London)
as Asia's largest such park is located in __________.
A. Nainital
B. Ladakh
C. Lucknow
D. Chandigarh
E. Srinagar

• The Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden in Srinagar recently entered the World Book of Records (London) as
Asia's largest such park.
• Indira Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden, previously Model Floriculture Centre, is a tulip garden in Srinagar,
Jammu and Kashmir.
• It is the largest tulip garden in Asia,spread over an area of about 30 hectares.
• It is situated on the foothills of the Zabarwan Range with an overview of Dal Lake.
• The garden was opened in 2007 with the aim to boost floriculture and tourism in Kashmir Valley.
• The garden is built on a sloping ground in a terraced fashion consisting of seven terraces.
• The garden houses about 48 varieties of tulip flowers. The garden also has several types of other flowers,
including daffodils, hyacinths, roses, narcissus, and other ornamental plants.

32. What is the hieght of the Nataraj statue that will be installed at Bharat Mandapam ahead of G20 meet?
A. 15 feet
B. 30 feet
C. 20 feet

D. 25 feet
E. 50 feet

• Bharat Mandapam, which will host the G20 meeting of world leaders next
month, will get a new attraction - a 30-feet Nataraj statue.
• The statue, to come from Tamil Nadu, will be placed at the revamped Pragati
Maidan complex.
• The giant statue is made of ashtadhatu (eight metals), which is considered
sattivik (pure) in Hinduism, and does not decay.
• The grand convention hall, which will host the main meeting also has India's
longest chandelier, measuring 100 metres.
• It also has a crystal chandelier in one of its principal galleries, called the
'Window of Delhi' which offers a bird's eye view of the city and India Gate.
• Sanjay Singh, director of Arcop Associates and architect of the project, told reporters that the chandelier has been sourced from Czech
Republic's famed crystal valley.

33. Recently as per report _____________became the first state in India to operationalize an Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)
Microsite.
A. Manipur
B. Punjab
C. Haryana
D. Mizoram
E. Assam

• The National Health Authority (NHA) had announced 100 Microsites project for accelerated adoption of Ayushman
Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) across the country.
• Mizoram becomes the first state in India to operationalize an ABDM Microsite in its capital cit y Aizawl. Under this,
all healthcare facilities including the private clinics, small hospitals and labs in the region shall be made ABDM-
enabled and will offer digital health services to the patients.
• The ABDM Microsites are defined geographical regions where focused outreach efforts would be made to onboard
small and medium scale private healthcare providers.
• NHA had previously overseen Microsites pilots in Mumbai, Ahmedabad and Surat. The learnings and experiences
from these pilots have been incorporated in the overall structure of 100 Microsites project under ABDM.
• Besides Mizoram, other states including Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra and
Chhattisgarh have also made significant progress regarding implementation of ABDM Microsit es. More such
microsites are expected to be operational in the next few weeks.
• Types of facilities to be covered under a Microsite:
• Private facilities such as standalone clinics, polyclinics, nursing homes, small hospitals (preferably <10 beds), labs,
pharmacies, and any other healthcare facilities wherein health records are generated.
• Health Facilities and Health Professionals from all the systems of medicine.
• Categories of a Microsite: Any State/UT can choose to implement any of the following categories of Microsites as
per the regional priorities.
• Category A Microsite: A microsite which consists of at least 1000 facilities, inclusive of all types of health facilities,
as mentioned above
• Category B Microsite: A microsite that consists of at least 500 facilities but less than 1000 facilities, inclusive of all types of health facilities,
as mentioned above.
• These Microsites would be majorly implemented by State Mission Directors of ABDM, while the financial resources and overall g uidance
would be provided by NHA.

• An interfacing agency under this program will have an on-ground team to reach out to the healthcare providers in the area.

34. In August as per report Pelma mine situated in __________will become the first opencast mine under MDO (Mine Developer and Operator)
mode.
A. Bihar
B. Jharkhand
C. Chhattisgarh
D. Odisha
E. Madhya Pradesh

• SECL’s Pelma mine will become the

first opencast mine in Chhattisgarh
under MDO (Mine Developer and
Operator) mode. South Eastern
Coalfields Limited (SECL) has signed
an agreement with Pelma Collieries
to operate Pelma opencast mine
located in Raigarh area.
• Pelma Collieries will operate the mine for the next 20 years, under which Pelma Collieries will be responsible for all activi ties related to
designing, financing, procurement, construction, operation and maintenance of the project.
• A total of more than 219 million tonnes of coal is proposed to be extracted from the mine during a period of 20 years, with an annual
target of 15 million tonnes of coal. High quality G-12 grade coal will be extracted from the mine.
• MDO mode is a novel concept of mine operation under which Government and private enterprises will work together to fulfil the country's
energy needs. This will help in expansion of coal production of SECL and will play an important role in achieving 1 billion t onne production
target of Coal India.
• Ketki UG of Bishrampur area has achieved the distinction of becoming the first coal mine in India to produce coal on MDO mode.

35. What is the name of the mobile app which allows citizens to report incidents of illegal coal mining through geo -tagged photographs and
textual information?
A. Coal Kranti
B. Coal Sathi
C. Koyla Mitra
D. Koyla Darpan
E. Khanan Prahari

• The mobile app Khanan Prahari,

which allows citizens to report
incidents of illegal coal mining
through geo-tagged photographs
and textual information, is a
significant step taken by the
Ministry of Coal towards curbing
illegal coal mining activities.
• The corresponding web portal
called as Coal Mine Surveillance &
Management System (CMSMS)
has been developed in association
with the Bhaskaracharya Institute
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• Illegal coal mining poses a threat to the environment, the lives of those involved in illegal mining, and the general decay i n the traditional
subsistence base and the country's economy.
• The objective of the Khanan Prahari mobile app and CMSMS web portal is to encourage public participation through reporting about
illegal coal mining.
• So far, the Khanan Prahari mobile app has received a significant response, with a total of 483 complaints regis tered. Out of these, 78
complaints have been verified as accurate and appropriate actions have been taken accordingly.

36. In August as per report ____________has topped Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan ranking 2023 by securing 187 out of 200 points.
A. Surat
B. Gurugram
C. Indore
D. Dehradun
E. Bhopal

• Indore has topped Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan ranking 2023 by securing 187 out of 200 points.
• Indore has topped in the ‘over 10-lakh population category’. Indore AQI was 84 (Satisfactory).
• Agra and Thane are in second and third position with 186 and 185.2 points, respectively.
• Gwalior was in 43rd position in the 10-lakh category by securing 117 points.
• Bhopal came fifth with 181 points and Jabalpur seventh with 172 points.
• In the Survey, three of the first five awards have been secured by Madhya Pradesh for cities with a population of
more than 10 lakhs. Indore stood first, Agra second, Thane third, Srinagar fourth and Bhopal 5th.
• In the cities with 3 lakh-10 lakh, Ujjain (182 points) and Sagar (170.7 points) are at 5th and 9th p ositions.
• The ranking of cities was not based on the measurement of air quality parameters but on the actions taken by
the cities to improve air quality in different domains.
• The self-assessment reports were based on the action taken on different parameter s including solid waste
management, road dust management, management of construction and demolition waste, control of vehicular
emissions, etc.
• CPCB evaluated the self-assessment reports and supporting documents uploaded by 131 cities and gave the
highest score to Indore.
• National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was implemented in non-attainment cities.
• Self-assessment is also done by the cities on the online portal “PRAN” (Portal for Regulation of Air pollution in
Non-Attainment ) in the National Clean Air Programme for the purpose of pollution control.

37. In August as per report _______________ launched a new software PRAISA that will make online payment
compulsory for Panchayati Raj institutions in the state, ending the practice of cheque payment to contract ors
and vendors.
A. Karnataka
B. Tami Nadu
C. Haryana
D. Gujarat
E. Punjab

• To ensure transparency, the Gujarat government launched a new software that will make online payment compulsory for Panchayat i Raj
institutions in the state, ending the practice of cheque payment to contractors and vendors.
• Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel launched the Panchayati Raj Accounting Information System Automation, or PRAISA, at a state -level
programme of 'Meri Mati Mera Desh' in Gandhinagar.
• PRAISA will make the administration of the state Panchayats Department paperless and more effective as financial and accounting
transactions of all the 33 districts and 248 taluka panchayats will be handled through this online platform.
• From now onwards, financial transactions worth Rs 34,000 cr ore of these Panchayati Raj institutions, local self-governed bodies, will be
handled in a transparent manner through PRAISA.
• PRAISA can also be linked with the Gujarat CM Dashboard as well as dashboards of the Integrated Financial Management System ( IFMS)
and Public Financial Management System (PFMS) for the purpose of remote monitoring.

38. In August as per report ___________ has become India's first carbon-negative garrison with the commissioning of a 5-megawatt (MW)
solar power plant.
A. College Of Military Engineering, Dapodi
B. Army War college, Mhow
C. Air Defence College, Gopalpur
D. Armed Forces Medical College Pune
E. College of Military Engineering, Pune

• Pune-based College of Military Engineering (CME)

announced that it has become India’s first carbon-
negative garrison with the commissioning of a 5-
megawatt (MW) solar power plant.
• The new solar plant will enhance the total solar
power capacity of CME to 7 MW.
• The College of Military Engineering started the
journey to become carbon-negative in 2021 with the
establishment of a 2-megawatt solar power plant
that efficiently fulfilled their energy demands.
• In its second phase, the recent 5 MW solar power
plant's commissioning stands as a pivotal moment in
realising the objectives outlined in the ‘National
Solar Mission’ initiated by the Central government.
• The term ‘carbon negative’ signifies an entity's capacity to emit fewer carbon dioxide and carbon dioxide equivalent (CO2e) g reenhouse
gases than it removes.
• The CME was established in 1948 and it trains officers of all ranks from the Indian Army, Navy and Air Force.
• Globally, the military sector is responsible for about 5.5 percent of all greenhouse gas emissions, according to the 2022 Con flict and
Environment Observatory report.

International / Report News

39. In August as per report PM Modi took part in the BRICS Business Forum Leaders’ Dialogue in Johannesburg on 22 August 2023.
What is the theme of the 15th BRICS Summit?
A. Broad Vision, Shared Prosperity
B. BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Mutually Accelerated Growth, Sustainable Development and Inclusive
Multilateralism.
C. BRICS Partnership for Global Stability, Security and Prosperity
D. BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Development, Integration and Industrialization
E. BRICS: Stronger Partnership for a Brighter Future

• PM Modi took part in the BRICS Business Forum Leaders’

Dialogue in Johannesburg on 22 August 2023.
• He addressed the BRICS Business Forum Leaders' Dialogue in
Johannesburg, South Africa.
• While addressing the BRICS Business Forum Leaders' Dialogue,
he said that despite economic turmoil in the global economy,
India remains the fastest-growing major economy in the world.
• He said that India will soon become a five trillion dollar
economy.
• PM Modi reached South Africa on 22 August to attend the 15th
BRICS Summit.
• He was received by Deputy President of South Africa Paul
Mashatile.
• The theme of the BRICS Summit is BRICS and Africa: Partnership
for Mutually Accelerated Growth, Sustainable Development and
Inclusive Multilateralism.
• PM Modi will also take part in BRICS-Africa Outreach and BRICS
Plus Dialogue event.
• From South Africa, PM Modi will go to the Greek capital Athens.
He will go to Athens at the invitation of Prime Minister of Greece
Kyriakos Mitsotakis. This will be his first visit to Athens.
• BRICS include Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. BRICS
represent over 42% of the global population, 23% of world GDP,
and 18% of global trade.

40. Recently as per report India-Bangladesh friendship bridge,the Maitri Setu, is all set to be functional soon.
It has been built over the _____________river.
A. Sangu River
B. Teesta River
C. Kushiyara River
D. Dhaleshwari River
E. Feni River

• India-Bangladesh friendship bridge, the Maitri Setu, is all set to be functional soon.
• It has been built over the Feni River, which flows between the Indian boundary in Tripura and Bangladesh.
• Length: It spans 1.9 kilometres joining Sabroom (in Tripura) with Ramgarh in Bangladesh.
• The name ‘Maitri Setu’ symbolises growing bilateral relations and friendly ties between India and Bangladesh.
• The construction of the bridge has been overseen by National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Ltd.
• It is a pre-stressed concrete bridge. It has a single-span structure that allows for the smooth flow of traffic and cargo.
• Feni River forms part of the India-Bangladesh border.
• In May this year, the Sittwe port, also in the Rakhine state of Myanmar, which was constructed by India was inaugurated. The port
connects with Mizoram in northeastern India via the Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Corridor, the construction of which is close to
completion.
• The Kaladan Multimodal Transport Corridor is not confined to connecting Mizoram to Myanmar but it also encompasses India’ s expanded
outreach to the prosperous Southeast Asian economies.

41. In August as per report ___________launched the Universal Pension Scheme, which aims to bring citizens above the age of 18 years under
pension coverage.

A. India
B. Bangladesh
C. Nepal
D. Pakistan
E. Bhutan

• On 17 August, the Prime Minister of Bangladesh,

Sheikh Hasina launched the Universal Pension
Scheme, which aims to bring citizens above the
age of 18 years under pension coverage.
• She launched the pension scheme by attending a
virtual ceremony from his official residence in
Dhaka.
• Out of the total six planned packages, four
different packages—Pragati, Surokkha, Samta,
and Prabashi—were initially introduced under
the universal pension scheme.
• The remaining two packages will be launched later.
• The schemes will ensure a lifelong pension facility for the participating citizens.
• The Pragati package will cover private job holders, while the Surokkha is designed for self-employed individuals.
• The Samta package will cover low-income people and the Prabashi package for migrant Bangladeshis.
• Any citizen above the age of 18 years can participate in the Universal Pension Scheme by paying installments till the age of 60 years, to get
a pension facility during retirement life.
• A person above the age of 50 years can also join this scheme but the person will have to pay the installments continuously for 10 years.

42. In August as per report India has signed MoU with ___________on sharing of India Stack.
A. Australia
B. Egypt
C. Maldives
D. Japan
E. Trinidad and Tobago

• India has signed MoU with Trinidad and Tobago on sharing of India Stack.
• They also agreed for cooperate in the areas of digital transformation by means of capacity building, training programmes, exc hange of
best practices, etc.
• Since June 2013, India has signed MoUs with other countries to share India Stack. These countries are Armenia, Sierra Leone, Suriname,
and Antigua & Barbuda.
• Many countries like Mauritius, Saudi Arabia are at an advanced stage of finalizing cooperation on India Stack .
• Last month, a similar MoU was signed with Papua New Guinea.
• India Stack is a collection of open APIs and digital public goods. These aim to facilitate identity, data, and payment servic es on a large
scale.
• India Stack is the name given to a collection of different technology products and frameworks. Its components are owned by different
agencies.
• Aadhaar products like e-auth and e-KYC are owned by the Unique ID Authority of India.
• Digilocker is owned by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
• UPI is owned by the National Payments Corporation of India.

43. What is the name of the tropical storm that has brought flash floods to California in the month of August 2023 ?
A. Ilsa
B. Hilary
C. Doskuri
D. Mandous
E. Khanun

• Tropical Storm Hilary hit the US state of California and brought flash floods.
• Hilary is the first tropical storm to hit Southern California in 84 years.
• It has brought flash floods, isolated tornadoes, high winds and power outages.
• The US National Hurricane Center warned of catastrophic and life-threatening flooding.
• Hilary made landfall on the north of Mexico's Baja California Peninsula with a speed of 100
kilometres per hour.
• The tropical storm reached California after causing heavy rains in the Baja California
peninsula.
• A hurricane is a strong tropical cyclone that comes in the Atlantic Ocean or northeastern
Pacific Ocean.

44. In August as per report United States, Japan, and __________signed a new security pledge, in
which the three countries committed to consult each other in the event of a security crisis or
threat in the Pacific region.
A. India
B. Australia
C. France
D. Bangladesh
E. South Korea

• Ahead of the Camp David summit, the US, Japan, and South Korea agreed on a
new security pledge.
• The United States, Japan, and South Korea signed a new security pledge, in which
the three countries committed to consult each other in the event of a security
crisis or threat in the Pacific region.
• On August 18, US President Joe Biden welcomed South Korean President Yoon Suk
Yeol and Japanese Prime Minister Fumio Kishida for a summit at the Camp David
presidential retreat in Maryland.
• Details about the new “duty to consult” commitment emerged at the summit.
• The move is one of several joint efforts the leaders announced during the day-long
summit.
• The three countries are looking to strengthen security and economic ties amid
continuing nuclear threats from North Korea and growing concerns about Chinese
provocations in the Pacific.
• The "duty to consult" pledge is intended to acknowledge that t he three countries
share a "fundamentally interrelated security environment" and that a threat to
any one country is a threat to all.
• Under the pledge, the three countries agree to consult, share information and
align their messaging with each other in the event of a threat or crisis.
• The United States has more than 80,000 troops between the two countries.
• This is the first summit that Biden held at Camp David during his presidency.

45. Recently new strain of the novel coronavirus (COVID-19) was identified in the United Kingdom last month.
It has been named __________.
A. Aoura
B. Cristina
C. Eris
D. Kepler
E. Zeouro

• A new strain of the novel coronavirus (COVID-19) was identified in the United Kingdom last
month.
• It has been named the 5.1 variant, code-named Eris. It is a strain of Omicron.
• Patients in the United States, Europe and Asia have also been found infected w ith Eris.
• It is currently not clear whether any EG.5.1 variants have been reported in India and as per
scientists there is no concern due to the nature of the virus and the country’s past
exposure.
• The WHO has classified the EG.5 as a Variant of Interest (VOI). At time of writing, it is not a
Variant of Concern (VOC), which is one step worse that a Variant of Interest.
• Eris is also the name of one of the largest dwarf planets in our solar system — Eris is the
Greek goddess of chaos. But, notes Gregory, the nickname is unlikely to cause a big wave
in itself.

46. In August as per report Indian Coast Guard signed MoU with ______________ Coast Guard
to enhanced maritime cooperation.
A. Maldives
B. Egypt
C. UAE
D. Israel
E. Philippines

• In a significant step towards bolstering the

bilateral cooperation between India and
Philippines, Indian Coast Guard has signed a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Philippine Coast Guard (PCG) on enhanced
maritime cooperation.
• The MoU was signed by DG Rakesh Pal,
Director General Indian Coast Guard and CG
Admiral Artemio M Abu, Commandant, PCG at
the Coast Guard Headquarters, New Delhi on
22 August 2023.
• The MoU inked seeks to enhance the professional linkage between the two Coast Guards in the domain of Maritime Law Enforcement
(MLE), Maritime Search & Rescue (M-SAR) and Marine Pollution Response (MPR).
• The first ever bilateral meeting between both the maritime agencies signifies the dedication in strengthening the professiona l bonds by
sharing best practices, conducting joint exercises and enhancing training collaborations.
• Capital: Manila, Currency – peso.

47. According to the latest data from the World Resources Institute's Aqueduct Water Risk Atlas, __________ trillion in GDP (31% of global
GDP) will be exposed to high water stress by 2050.
A. $50 trillion
B. $60 trillion
C. $80 trillion
D. $90 trillion
E. $70 trillion

• According to the latest data from the World Resources Institute's

Aqueduct Water Risk Atlas, the global community is confronting an
unparalleled water emergency, with 25 nations, equivalent to a
quarter of the world's population, currently grappling with
exceptionally elevated levels of annual water stress.
• A quarter of the world population living in twenty-five countries uses
80% of their available water each year and experiences extreme water
stress.
• Bahrain, Cyprus, Kuwait, Lebanon and Oman are the five countries with
the most severe water shortages. Bangladesh stays in the 56th position
on the list.
• On a global scale, approximately 4 billion individuals, constituting half
of the world's population, encounter water stress for at least one
month annually.
• This figure might escalate to nearly 60% by the year 2050.
• $70 trillion in GDP (31% of global GDP) will be exposed to high water
stress by 2050, up from $15 trillion (24% of global GDP) in 2010.
• Just 4 countries-India, Mexico, Egypt, and Turkey-will account for over
half of the exposed GDP in 2050, as per the report, which is released
every four years.
• The report revealed that 25 nations, comprising a quarter of the world's population, undergo exceedingly severe water stress annually.
Among them, Bahrain, Cyprus, Kuwait, Lebanon, and Oman encounter the greatest impact. These regions could be vulnerable to water
scarcity even during a brief period of drought.
• By 2050, an additional 1 billion people are expected to live with extremely high water stress, even if the world limits globa l temperature
rise to 1.3 degrees C to 2.4 degrees C (2.3 degrees F to 4. 3 degrees F) by 2100.

48. In August as per report ______________ launched a program to combat desertification using artificial intelligence (AI).
A. China
B. Japan
C. UAE
D. Saudi Arabia
E. India

• A program launched by the Saudi Environment

Ministry to combat desertification using artificial
intelligence (AI).
• The program is a collaboration between the
Environment ministry, the National Center for
Vegetation Development and Combating
Desertification, and the King Abdullah University
of Science and Technology.
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• The program aims to study the status of vegetation cover in the Kingdom and contribute to afforestation projects and the goal s of the
"Green Saudi" initiative.
• Saudi Arabia, a dry country already affected by climate change, has a significant challenge from desertification.
• The program will use AI to identify areas most vulnerable to desertification. For this, other data including satellite imager y will be
analysed.
• The use of remote sensing technology will be employed to track changes in vegetation cover, r ainfall, and plant health over time.
• The program will also create methods to lessen the effects of desertification, such as enhancing water management, encouragin g
sustainable agriculture, and planting trees and shrubs.
• Saudi Arabia is also implementing several other initiatives to combat desertification using AI-driven programs.
• These include the "Green Saudi" initiative to plant 10 billion trees across the country and the "National Center for Plant De velopment and
Desertification Prevention" to develop drought-resistant plants and improve water management practices.
• The upcoming Saudi Green Initiative (SGI) Forum, is to be held in Riyadh on October 23 -24.
• It will mark a milestone in Saudi Arabia's historic effort to transform its oil-based economy into a cleaner and more sustainable one.

49. In August as per report ____________ and Khalifa University of the United Arab Emirates (UAE) has developed a innovative cooling
solution electronics applications.
A. IIT Ropar
B. IIT Kanpur
C. IIT Delhi
D. IIT Madras
E. IIT Bombay

• An innovative cooling solution has been developed for electronics applications.

• It has been developed by researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology-Madras and
Khalifa University of the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
• The researchers developed an electro-hydrodynamics-based method.
• Their findings were published in the journal Applied Thermal Engineering.
• Professor S Vengadesan, his research student R. Vishnu and Ahmed Alkaabi and Deepak
Selvakumar from Khalifa University co-authored the research paper.
• The researchers have made significant strides in advancing heat management for
miniature electronic devices.
• Miniaturized electronic components are extensively used both in space missions and
consumer electronics. This leads to heat generation.
• Micro/mini-channel heat sinks are best suited for dissipating heat in High-performance
computing processors.
• The researchers aim to disrupt the smooth flow inside the mini-channels through the use
of plate electrodes.

50. In August as per report ____________ discovered a demon particle that could lead to the
making of superconductors that can operate in room temperature.
A. USA
B. Japan
C. France
D. Italy
E. Germany

• Researchers at the University of Illinois recently discovered a demon particle that could lead to the making of superconductors that can
operate in room temperature
• Scientists recently discovered a 'demon particle' that could lead to superconductors that conduct electricity at room tempera ture.
• The demon particle was first predicted by theoretical physicist David Pines in 1956.
• Pines theorised that electrons passing through a solid would exhibit unique behaviours and that these behaviours could lead t o the
formation of a new type of particle that he called a "demon par ticle."
• Superconductors are certain metals or alloys that can conduct electricity without resistance, but for that to happen, the tem perature needs
to be below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Superconductors are used in operations such as levitating trains and hi ghly accurate magnetic
resonance imaging (MRI) machines.

51. In August as per report _________ has launched an autonomous driverless bus service.
A. Canada
B. New York
C. California
D. Australia
E. San Francisco
F.

• San Francisco has launched an autonomous shuttle service -- less than a week after California regulators approved the expansion of
robotaxis despite traffic and safety concerns.
• The free shuttle will run daily in a fixed route called the Loop around Treasure Island, the site of a former US Navy base in the middle of
San Francisco Bay. The Loop makes seven stops, connecting residential neighborhoods with stores and community centers. About 2,000
people live on the island.
• The all-electric vehicle, which doesn’t have a driver’s seat or steering wheel, is staffed with an attendant who can drive the bus with a
handheld controller if necessary.
• The shuttles are operated by Beep, an Orlando, Florida-based company that has run similar pilot programs in more than a dozen U.S.
communities, including service at the Miami Zoo, Mayo Clinic and Yellowstone National Park.
• The boxy shuttle, which can sit up to 10 passengers, will operate 9 a.m. to 6 p.m. every day and circle the Loop every 20 min utes. The city
has two shuttles — one can charge while the other ferries passengers.

52. According to a study titled “Fanning the Flames: G20 Provides Record Financial Support for Fossil Fuels”, G20 members spent
approximately Rs _____________ lakh crore to support fossil fuels in 2022.
A. Rs 120 lakh crore
B. Rs 140 lakh crore
C. Rs 122 lakh crore
D. Rs 132 lakh crore
E. Rs 116 lakh crore

• G20 countries spent a record $1.4 trillion to support fossil fuels in 2022.
• According to a study titled “Fanning the Flames: G20 Provides Record Financial Support
for Fossil Fuels”, G20 members spent approximately Rs 116 lakh crore to support fossil
fuels in 2022.
• This study has been released by the International Institute for Sustainable Development
(IISD) and its partners.
• The support to fossil fuels includes fossil fuel subsidies ($1 trillion), investments by state-
owned enterprises ($322 billion) and lending from public financial institutions ($50
billion).
• The report comes ahead of the Leaders’ Summit in Delhi on September 9 -10.
• Despite the increasingly devastating impacts of climate change, G-20 countries continue
to spend massive amounts of public money on fossil fuels.
• The G20 countries have the responsibility to transform fossil-based energy systems.
• As per the report, the taxes on fossil fuels in G20 member countries at present don’t
reflect their costs to society as many members failed to impose windfall taxes on record
profits.
• Researchers estimated that by establishing minimum carbon taxes levels of $25 –
75/tCO2e, depending on the country's income, G20 nations could generate an a dditional
$1 trillion annually.

53. In August as per report _____________ have reached an agreement to develop an autonomous university rating system.
A. ASEAN
B. G-20
C. SAARC
D. BRICS
E. European Union

• BRICS nations have reached an agreement to introduce a new university ranking system.
• BRICS Education Ministers have reached an agreement to develop an autonomous university rating system.
• BRICS Education Ministers gathered in the Mpumalanga province of South Africa.
• The main subject of the meeting was the need for accountable and pertinent education and training in the modern global landscape.
• Konstantin Mogilevsky, Deputy Minister of Science and Higher Education in Russia, emphasized the need for a new evaluation fr amework.
• Representatives from the Ministries of Education of Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa supported this proposition.
• China's Deputy Minister of Education emphasized the importance of the upcoming rating system being based on qualitative rathe r than
quantitative benchmarks.

54. In August as per report _____________ Food and Drug Administration has approved the first respiratory syncytial virus vaccine for use in
women during pregnancy to protect babies.
A. India

B. Australia
C. USA
D. UK
E. Japan

• The first respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) vaccine has been approved for use in women during pregnancy to protect the baby.
• Pfizer has developed this respiratory syncytial virus vaccine.
• Its approval allows the vaccine to be given to women 32 to 36 weeks of pregnancy to prevent Lower Respiratory Tract Infection s (LRTD)
and severe disease in infants up to six months of age.
• Maternal vaccination can prevent a large number of hospitalizations due to RSV.
• The syncytial virus is considered a common cause of illness in children, while infants are at the highest risk of severe illness.
• RSV is a common respiratory virus that usually causes mild, cold-like symptoms but can also lead to severe illness and hospitalization.
• The vaccine, name Abrysvo, is already approved for use in adults aged 60 and older to block infection from the disease.
• This disease kills an estimated 1,60,000 people globally each year.
• It is estimated that 58,000 to 80,000 children under the age of five are hospitalized each year in the United States due to R SV infection.

55. In August as per report India and the __________ countries agreed to review their free trade pact for goods by 2025.
A. ASEAN
B. BRICS
C. SCO
D. EU
E. BIMSTEC

• India and the ASEAN countries agreed to review their

free trade pact for goods by 2025.
• A Joint Committee of the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods
Agreement (AITIGA) created a roadmap for the
review of the pact and to finalize the terms of
reference for the fresh negotiations.
• The AITIGA review will now take place at the India-
ASEAN Leaders’ Summit scheduled in early
September.
• The review of the AITIGA was a demand from Indian
businesses for a very long time.
• The review of AITIGA will enhance and diversify trade while addressing the current issues in bilateral trade.
• ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement was signed and entered into force on January 1, 2010.
• ASEAN and India signed the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods (TIG) Agreement in 2009.
• India and ASEAN are also working on increasing private-sector engagement.

Banking / Economy News

56. In August as per report RBI has asked the banks to provide borrowers the option to switch from floating to fixed interest rate.
RBI said the banks and other lenders shall implement personal loan instructions by _________.
A. 31 st August, 2023
B. 31 st November, 2023
C. 31 st March, 2024
D. 31 st October, 2023
E. 31 st December, 2023
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• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) asked all regulated

entities (REs), including banks and NBFCs, to give
personal loan borrowers an option to switch over
from a floating rate to a fixed rate regime at the
time of resetting interest rates.
• In a circular on ‘Reset of floating interest rate on
equated monthly instalments (EMI) based personal
loans the central bank said the borrowers will also
be given the choice to opt for enhancement in EMI
or elongation of the tenor.
• RBI said the banks and other lenders shall
implement personal loan instructions by 31
December, 2023.
• They will have to implement personal loan
instructions for both existing as well as new loans
by December 31, 2023.
• Personal loans will have both categories of fixed
and floating interest rates.
• The borrowers should be provided an option to
switch over to a fixed rate according to the board-
approved policy of regulated entities.
• The number of times a borrower will be allowed to
switch during the tenor of the loan should be
specified in the policy.
• As per the RBI definition, personal loans are the
loans given to individuals and consist of consumer
credit, education loan, loans given for the creation
or enhancement of immovable assets (such as
housing loans), and loans given for investment in
financial assets (shares and debentures).
• A floating interest rate is an interest rate that changes periodically.
• The rate of interest moves up and down, or "floats," reflecting economic or financial market conditions.
• A floating interest rate can also be referred to as an adjustable or variable interest rate because it can vary over the term of a debt
obligation.
• A floating interest rate uses a reference rate as the base.
• In order to arrive at the floating rate, a spread (or margin) is added to the reference rate.
• Floating Interest Rate = Base Rate + Spread
• Floating interest rates can be modified quarterly, half-yearly or annually.

57. In August as per report ____________ has launched banking services on WhatsApp.
A. Airtel Payments Bank
B. Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank
C. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank
D. Andhra Pradesh Grameena Bank
E. Bank of Maharashtra

• Karnataka Vikas Grameena (KVG) Bank has launched banking services on WhatsApp.
• Shreekant M Bhandiwad Chairman of Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank, launched WhatsApp banking
services.
• With the help of WhatsApp banking services, customers will be able to seamlessly connect with the bank.
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• They will be able to avail a number of banking services through the WhatsApp banking channel.
• Customers can know the balance in their account, last five transactions and information about bank deposits/loan products, th e rate of
interest and digital products.
• WhatsApp banking would be available 24X7, including on holidays.
• Karnataka Vikas Grameena Bank is an Indian Regional Rural Bank sponsored by Canara Bank. It is headquartered in Dharwad, Karnataka.

58. According to a study by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), 5 states accounted for more than half of the total bank-assisted investment
proposals made during the year 2022-23.
As per report ____________attracted the highest number of proposals for new investments and the project cost stood at Rs 43, 180 crore.
A. Maharashtra
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. Karnataka
E. Tamil Nadu

• According to a study by the

Reserve Bank of India (RBI), 5
states accounted for more than
half of the total bank-assisted
investment proposals made
during the year 2022-23, mirroring
the skewed pattern of
industrialization in the country.
• The RBI study gives an indication
of how attractive states are
among investors.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) found
that the 5 states accounted for 57.2
per cent of the total investment
proposals in the year (or Rs
2,01,700 crore in total project cost),
higher than 43.2 per cent share
during 2021-22.
• Uttar Pradesh attracted the highest number of proposals for new investments and the project cost stood at Rs 43,180 crore. Gu jarat
followed suit with Rs 37,317 crore. Odisha was at No. 3 with Rs 11,810 crore.
• The study by the central bank ascribed the new investments in these states to a slew of factors that include their inclination towards
improving the ease of doing business, large and growing markets and their strategic location, thereby attracting investors to wards them.
• Kerala, Goa and Assam have fared poorly in the bank-assisted investment proposals.
• Maharashtra and Karnataka were placed at No.4 and 5 with investments of Rs 7,900 crore and Rs 7,300 crore.
• Overall investment plans: It shot up by 79.50% with a record capital outlay of Rs 352,624 crore - the highest since 2014-15.
• As many as 547 projects got assistance from banks and financial institutions during 2022 -23 with a record high total project cost of Rs
2,66,547 crore as compared to 401 projects with a total project cost of Rs 1,41,976 crore during 2021-22.
• Investment in green field (new) projects accounted for the largest share of 93.1% in the total cost of projects financed by b anks and FIs
during 2022-23, in line with the trend seen in the past.

59. In August as per report Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) notified the green hydrogen standard for India, outlining the
emission thresholds for production of hydrogen that can be classified as ‘green’.
As per report _____________ will be the nodal authority for accreditation of agencies for the monitoring, verification and certification for
green hydrogen production projects.
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A. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited

B. Energy Efficiency Services Limited
C. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
D. Solar Energy Corporation of India
E. Bureau of Energy Efficiency

• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) notified the

green hydrogen standard for India, outlining the emission
thresholds for production of hydrogen that can be classified as
‘green’.
• The notification specifies that a detailed methodology for
measurement, reporting, monitoring, on-site verification and
certification of green hydrogen and its derivatives will be specified
by the MNRE.
• Green hydrogen is the name given to hydrogen gas that has been produced using renewable energy, such as wind or solar power, which
create no GHG emissions.
• India became one of the few countries to have a definition for green hydrogen.
• The ministry has decided to define green hydrogen as having a well-to-gate emission of not more than two kg carbon dioxide (CO2)
equivalent per kg hydrogen (H2).
• The well-to-gate emission includes water treatment, electrolysis, gas purification,drying and compression of hydrogen . The scope of the
definition encompasses both electrolysis-based and biomass-based hydrogen production methods.
• The notification specifies that the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power will be the nodal authority for
accreditation of agencies.
• These agencies will take care of the monitoring, verification and certification for green hydrogen production projects.
• The government launched the National Green Hydrogen Mission (Jan, 2023) with an aim to produce 5 million metric tonne (MMT) g reen
hydrogen per annum with an associated renewable energy capacity of about 125 giga watt (GW) by 2030.
• The mission has an outlay of Rs 19,744 crore up to 2029 -30.
• The Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme is a major financial measure under t he mission with an
outlay of Rs 17,490 crore.
• The programme proposes two distinct financial incentive mechanisms to support domestic production of electrolysers and produc tion of
green hydrogen.
• These incentives are aimed at enabling rapid scale-up, technology development and cost reduction.
• The definition of green hydrogen brings a lot of clarity to the mission of making India a global green hydrogen hub.

60. In August as per report __________has unveiled the Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN) 4.0 protocol to enable lending on the cash
flow bases to micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs).
A. Reserve Bank Innovation Hub
B. Indian Financial Technology and Allied Services

C. Reserve Bank Information Technology Private Limited

D. Securities and Exchange Board of India
E. Indian Software Products Industry Round Table

• Software Industry think tank, Indian

Software Products Industry Round Table
(iSPIRT) has reportedly unveiled the Open
Credit Enablement Network (OCEN) 4.0
protocol to enable lending on the cash flow
bases to micro, small and medium
enterprises (MSMEs).
• OCEN will have two features, registry and product network that will help to unlock lending on cash -flow bases to match scale, complexity
and needs.
• OCEN is a framework of application programming interfaces (APIs) that facilitates interaction between loan agents, lenders, collection and
disbursement partners, derived data providers and account aggregators. Until now, OCEN was available only on the Centre’s e -
marketplace GeM SAHAY and other pilots across the country.
• According to the report, the credit gap for MSMEs is USD 17-24 trillion and less than 11 per cent of MSMEs have access to formal credit.
OCEN is meant to solve these problems by creating a short-tenor framework and small ticket loans, allowing remote lenders to operate in
distant geographies and providing consented access to alternate sources of data.
• Furthermore, the report suggests OCEN 4.0's wave one partners are loan agents Spice Money, Indifi and Finagg. While its lende rs include
ICICI Bank, Kotak Bank, Union Bank and Axis Bank.
• Disseminare and Finarkein Analytics, among others, count as technology service providers.
• OCEN has been used so far to give short-tenor loans ranging from Rs 168 to Rs 8 lakh.
• As defined, OCEN is a framework of APIs developed over an agreed-upon framework between three four players -
• Borrowers: Individuals or MSMEs looking to source credit lines for various reasons.
• Lenders: Banks, NBFCs, or other financial institutions with capital and access to core banking networks willing to offer credit lines to
borrowers.
• Loan Service Providers (LSPs): Any digital platform such as a web or mobile app that has an existing pool of customers intere sted in
availing credit facilities.
• Technology Service Providers (TSPs) – Fintech organisations that bring borrowers, lenders, and platforms onboard onto the OCEN protocol.
Embedded Finance providers are an example of TSPs.
• The OCEN protocol has been built on seven critical principles acronymed as MODEALS ( Minimalism, Openness, Diversity, Embeddability,
Agnosticism, Layered Innovation, Security)
• The OCEN protocol uses 3 fundamental layers of IndiaStack to ensure safe and secure processing of loans. These are,
• Aadhaar card – to verify borrower’s identity
• Account Aggregators – (for Data Authorisation)
• UPI (for Processing Payments).
• There are three layers to India Stack — digital identification, payments, and data storage and validation.
• OCEN was launched at the Global FinTech Festival in 2020.

61. In August as per report ___________ has introduced its mobile banking app'iris' which aims to reform India’s
digital banking landscape.
A. Yes Bank
B. Bandhan Bank
C. Canara Bank
D. Axis Bank
E. HDFC Bank

• Private lender YES Bank introduced its state-of-the-art mobile banking app 'iris' by YES Bank.
• The app is designed to cater to both existing and new customers. The app allows flexibility and personalization, enabling customers to
access over 100 features on a single platform.
• Equipped with a host of features, the app comprises a sleek and intuitive user interface that aims to offer a simplified bank ing experience
for users of all age groups and backgrounds.
• ‘iris’ by YES BANK is a comprehensive financial proposition that has been co-created based on the valued feedback received from YES BANK
customers.
• Mr. Prashant Kumar, Managing Director & CEO, YES BANK.

62. In August as per report ___________ has launched a first-of-its-kind multi-branded credit card 'Avios Visa Infinite Credit Card' for all
customers, in partnership with British Airways Executive Club and Qatar Airways Privilege Club.
A. Bandhan Bank
B. IndusInd Bank
C. Canara Bank
D. Axis Bank
E. HDFC Bank

• IndusInd Bank has launched a first-of-its-kind multi-branded credit card - 'IndusInd Bank Avios Visa Infinite Credit Card' for all customers, in
partnership with British Airways Executive Club and Qatar Airways Privilege Club.
• This credit card aims to offer best-in-class rewards and benefits to customers, across travel, wellness and lifestyle experiences.
• Adding an extra touch of luxury, the card is available in a sleek 'metal card' variant, tailored to meet t he needs of our valued customers.
• IndusInd Bank Limited is an Indian financial services headquartered in Mumbai. IndusInd Bank was inaugurated in April 1994 by then
Union Finance Minister Manmohan Singh. The Bank has representative offices in London, Du bai and Abu Dhabi. Mr. Sumant Kathpalia -
CEO IndusInd Bank.

63. Which of the following has developed first hydrogen bus that reached Leh on 17th August as part of 3 -month-long process of field-trials?
A. NTPC
B. ONGC
C. BPCL
D. IOCL
E. HPCL

• Towards achieving Carbon-Neutral Ladakh, NTPC is setting up Hydrogen Fuelling Station, Solar Plant and
providing five Fuel Cell buses for operation on intracity routes of Leh.
• The first hydrogen bus reached Leh on 17th August, 2023 as part of a 3 -month-long process of field trials,
roadworthiness tests and other statutory procedures.
• This will be India’s first ever deployment of hydrogen buses on public roads.
• The first-of-its-kind Green Hydrogen Mobility Project at 11,562 ft is co-located with dedicated Solar plant of 1.7
MW for providing renewable power.
• A unique feature of this project is that the fuel cell buses are designed for operation in sub -zero temperatures in
rarefied atmosphere, which is typical for high altitude locations.
• NTPC is committed to achieve 60 GW of Renewable Energy capacity by 2032 and be a major player in Green Hydrogen Technology and
Energy Storage domain.
• The company is taking up several initiatives towards decarbonization such as Hydrogen blending, Carbon Capture, EV buses and Smart
NTPC Townships.

64. In August as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently launched a Centralised Web Portal, UDGAM for the public to search for their
unclaimed deposits across multiple banks at one place.
UDGAM stands for ____________.
A. Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Asset information
B. Unclaimed Drawing – Gateway to Access information
C. Unclaimed Deposits – Globalizationto Access information
D. Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access Investment
E. Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access information

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently launched a Centralised Web Portal,
UDGAM (Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access inforMation), for the public to
search for their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks at one place.
• It has been developed by RBI for use by members of public to facilitate and make
it easier for them to search their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks at one
place.
• Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt Ltd (ReBIT), Indian Financial
Technology & Allied Services (IFTAS), and participating banks have collaborated
on developing the portal.
• The portal will enable users to either claim the deposit amount or make their
deposit accounts operative at their respective banks.
• Customers can register on the 'Udgam' platform using their mobile number.
• Once registered, they can search for unclaimed deposits under their name and provide additional inputs such as PAN, voter ID, driving
licence and passport number.
• Customers can then retrieve their deposits by completing a KYC process with their branch.
• In case the deposit-holder has passed away, their nominee will be required to submit documents.
• To begin with, users would be able to access the details of their unclaimed deposits in respect of seven banks currently avai lable on the
portal.
• The search facility for remaining banks on the portal would be made available in a phased manner by October 15, 2023
• According to RBI, "Unclaimed Deposits" refers to funds held in savings or current accounts that have remained inactive for du ration of 10
years, or in the case of fixed deposits (FDs), have not been withdrawn within 10 years from the maturity date.

65. In August as per report ____________announced

the launch of its mutual fund and life insurance
services from Gujarat's GIFT City.
A. State Bank Of India
B. Indian Bank
C. Canara Bank
D. HDFC Bank
E. Axis Bank

• The HDFC Bank Group announced the launch of

its mutual fund and life insurance services from
Gujarat’s GIFT City.
• While HDFC International Life and Re has been
set up by HDFC Life, HDFC AMC International
(IFSC) has been set up by HDFC Asset
Management Company.
• According to a joint statement issued by HDFC
AMC and HDFC Life, the newly-launched HDFC
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International Life and Re branch will offer dollar-

denominated life and health insurance products
to non-resident Indians (NRIs) under the brand
name HDFC Life International.
• The products offered by HDFC Life International includes “US Dollar Global Education Plan”, which is designed to help parents build a
dollar-denominated corpus to meet future expenses for their child’s overseas education. Meanwhile, HDFC AMC International proposed
to launch six funds, which would feed into different HDFC MF schemes covering strategies on equity and hybrids.
• HDFC AMC International (IFSC) will also provide portfolio management services to eligible global institutional investors .
• In India, life insurance penetration is just 3.2% of GDP, compared to the global average of 7%.
• Similarly, the penetration of mutual funds in India is 17% of GDP, while the world average is 80% of GDP.

66. In August as per report Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) signed a performance-focused memorandum of
understanding (MoU) with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
As part of this MoU, the Centre has set a target to achieve _________crore in revenue from operations in the financial year 2023-2024
(FY23) and Rs 5,220 crore in FY24.
A. Rs 4,150 crore
B. Rs 4,650 crore
C. Rs 4,782 crore
D. Rs 4,350 crore
E. Rs 4,987 crore

• The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA), a

government of India enterprise responsible for advancing
renewable energy, has signed a performance-focused
memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the Ministry of New
and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
• As part of this MoU, the Centre has set a target to achieve Rs
4,350 crore in revenue from operations in the financial year 2023-
2024 (FY23) and Rs 5,220 crore in FY24.
• In the previous financial year, IREDA achieved revenue from
operations of Rs 3,482 crore, surpassing the target of Rs 3,361
crore.
• Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) is a Mini
Ratna (Category–I) non-banking financial institution under the
administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy (MNRE).
• It is a Public Limited Government Company established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution (NBFC) in 1987.
• IREDA has been notified as a “Public Financial Institution” under Section 4 ‘A’ of the Companies Act, 1956, and registered as NBF C with the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

67. In August as per report Cleartrip has partnered with _________ to introduce an innovative travel proposition for Bank credit cardholders.
A. Axis Bank
B. Bandhan Bank
C. Indian Bank
D. Canara Bank
E. DBS Bank

• Cleartrip, a subsidiary of Flipkart, has joined forces with Axis Bank, a

prominent private sector bank in India, to introduce an innovative travel
proposition for Axis Bank credit cardholders.
• This collaboration aims to provide a range of travel benefits to both existing
and new cardholders who book through Cleartrip.
• Cleartrip is a global online travel company, headquartered in Mumbai. The
company operates an online travel aggregator website for booking flights,
train tickets, hotel reservations, and activities in India and the Middle East
countries.
• Ayyappan R., CEO of Cleartrip.

68. In August as per report CAMSfinserv has onboarded all ____________ Asset
Management Companies serviced by CAMS as financial information
providers on the AA platform, making it the first in the industry to provide
access to mutual fund data.
A. 15
B. 17
C. 19
D. 21
E. 12

• CAMSfinserv, one of the first RBI licensed Account Aggregators (AA) in India,
has onboarded all 17 Asset Management Companies serviced by CAMS as
financial information providers on the AA platform, making it the first in the
industry to provide access to mutual fund data.
• Customers will be able to access and share both their mutual fund holdings
and bank account transactions from a single and secure platform, track their
investments, identify areas where they can save and make better financial
decisions.
• CAMSfinserv is leading Account Aggregator with 54 entities including banks,
MFs, insurers, depositories and GSTN live on its platform as Financial
Information Providers.
• An Account Aggregator is a non-banking financial company engaged in the
business of providing, under a contract, the service of retrieving or collecting
financial information pertaining to its customer.

69. In August as per report __________has initiated an intermodal interline

agreement with AccesRail, aimed at enhancing connectivity options for
passengers across Europe.
A. IndiGo
B. Aksa Air
C. Air India
D. Spicejet
E. Vistara

• Air India, a Tata Group airline, has initiated an intermodal interline agreement with AccesRail, aimed at enhancing connectiv ity options for
Air India passengers across Europe, even in remote areas without airports.

• This strategic accord permits Air India travelers to embark on journeys using a single intermodal ticket, incorporating ground -based train
and bus connections to over 100 cities and towns in countries such as Austria, Belgium, Germany, The Czech Republic, Hungary, Italy, and
the United Kingdom.
• This extended accessibility is facilitated through Air India’s European gateways of Amsterdam, Birmingham, London Heathrow, L ondon
Gatwick, Milan, and Vienna.
• Notably, this partnership extends the benefit of Air India’s baggage allowance to its passenger s using these rail and bus operator services,
aligning the experience with that of Air India’s own flights.
• Air India is presently executing an ambitious five-year transformation roadmap under the banner of Vihaan.AI, which recently unveiled a
fresh Brand Identity, complete with a new livery and logo.

70. In August as per report ____________has withdrawn the e-auction notice it served on Bollywood actor Sunny Deol for the sale of his
immovable and movable assets to recover total dues aggregating ₹55.99 crore.
A. State Bank Of India
B. Bank Of Baroda
C. Punjab National Bank
D. Indian Bank
E. Canara Bank

• Bank of Baroda (BoB) has withdrawn the e-auction notice it served on Bollywood actor Sunny
Deol for the sale of his immovable and movable assets to recover total dues aggregating
₹55.99 crore plus interest and cost from December 26, 2022, less recovery up to date.
• The public sector bank reportedly cited “technical reasons” for withdrawing the e-auction
notice.
• The box office success of Sunny Deol-starrer Gadar 2 seemed to have prompted the Bank to
quickly initiate moves to collect dues the Bollywood actor apparentlyowes it, going by the
Bank’s e-auction notice dated August 19, 2023.
• BoB had issued an e-auction sale notice under SARFAESI Act, 2002 for the sale of immovable
and movable assets of Sunny Deol (Ajay Sing Deol).
• As per the public sector bank’s e-auction sale notice, it intended to auction land admeasuring 599.44 square meters underneath a structure
known as Sunny Villa situated at Gandhigram Road, Juhu, Mumbai. The reserve price for the property has been set at Rs 51.43 crore.

71. In August as per report Capital market regulator Sebi has notified rules to strengthen investor grievance redressal mechanism wherein
complaints will have to be addressed by the entities concerned within ________ days.
A. 15 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 30 days
E. 21 days

• Capital market regulator Sebi has notified rules to strengthen investor grievance redressal mechanism
wherein complaints will have to be addressed by the entities concerned within 21 days.
• The new rules also come against the backdrop of increasing participation of invest ors in the securities
markets.
• Now, merchant bankers, debenture trustees, registrar to an issue, share transfer agent and a know your
client registration agency will redress investor grievances within 21 days.
• The rules will also be applicable to portfolio managers, investment advisers and research analysts.

• Sebi can also recognise a body corporate for handling and monitoring the grievance redressal
process within the stipulated time.
• The new framework will be called Sebi's Facilitation of Grievance Redressal Mechanism Rules 2023.
• In June, the regulator's board approved a proposal to revamp Sebi Complaint Redress System
(SCORES) to strengthen the process of redressal of investors' grievances.
• The board approved the proposal to boost investor grievance handling mechanism through SCORES
and linking the new platform with the Online Dispute Resolution (ODR) mechanism.

72. In August as per report ____________launched 'Video Re-KYC' which will give individual resident
customers an alternative way to complete the periodic updation of their 'know your customer'
(KYC) documents without having to physically visit the branch.
A. Punjab National Bank
B. Canara Bank
C. State Bank Of India
D. Indian Bank
E. Bank of Baroda

• State-owned Bank of Baroda launched 'Video Re-KYC' which

will give individual resident customers an alternative way to
complete the periodic updation of their 'know your customer'
(KYC) documents without having to physically visit the branch.
• To avail the Video KYC facility, customers must be Indian residents, above 18 years of age and must
have their Aadhaar number and original PAN Card.
• Video Re-KYC calls will be undertaken during business hours (10:00AM to 6:00PM) on all working
days.
• Periodic updation of KYC (Re-KYC) is a mandatory requirement of the RBI and customers need to
immediately update their KYC documents with the bank when KYC update is due.
• BoB introduced video KYC in 2021 to open full-fledged digital savings accounts. The bank has now
extended video KYC for Re-KYC facility for the convenience of its customers.

73. Which was the first country to launch the World’s First Publicly Offered Sovereign Blue Bond with
the help of UNDP?
A. South Africa
B. Sri Lanka
C. India
D. Australia
E. Indonesia

• Gabon on August 15, 2023 announced a $500 million debt -for-nature swap. In Africa, it is the
largest such deal signed by any country to refinance its debt and conserve marine resources.
• Debt-for-nature swaps allow heavily indebted developing countries to seek help from financial
institutions in the developed world with paying off their debt if they agree to spend on conservation
of natural resources.
• Gabon’s debt has been restructured under a Blue Bond in the world’s second-largest debt-for-
nature swap.

• In May 2023, Indonesia issued a first-of-its-kind Blue Bond in the Japanese debt capital market, raising JPY 20.7 billion (US$ 150 million).
This issuance marks the world’s first publicly offered sovereign Blue Bond aligned with International Capital Market Association (ICMA)
principles.
• In May 2023, the world’s largest debt swap to conserve oceans was signed by Ecuador. The country had exchanged $1.6 billion
denominated bonds for a new $656 million loan.
• Under the debt-for-nature swap, Gabon has agreed to a deal with the Bank of America, the US International Development Finance
Corporation (USDFC) and The Nature Conservancy (TNC), to refinance $500 million in national debt toward marine conservation e fforts in
the country.
• This is the fourth project under TNC’s “Blue Bonds for Ocean Conservation” strategy. Gabon is the fourth country to partner with TNC on a
Blue Bonds project after Seychelles, Belize and Barbados.
• In March 2023, the high-seas treaty agreed upon by the world offered an opportunity to protect 30 per cent of the world’s oceans and lands
by 2030.

74. In August as per report _________becomes the first Indian private life insurer to launch a 24X7
inbound contact centre to offer before and after sales services to consumers.
A. Future Generali India Life Insurance
B. AVIVA Life Insurance
C. ICICI Prudential Life Insurance
D. HDFC Life Insurance
E. SBI Life Insurance

• SBI Life Insurance, one of the most trusted private life insurance companies in the country, launched its dedicated 24X7 inbo und contact
centre to address before and after purchase queries related to comprehensive insurance solutions provided by the compan y.
• SBI Life, thus, becomes the first private life insurance company in the country to have such an extensive customer care suppo rt, which
aligns with the company's commitment in enriching customer experience and addressing their insurance needs/queries at their
convenience.
• SBI Life's 24X7 inbound contact centre is made available to both existing and prospective consumers, 365 days a year.
• Through the 24X7 customer care support, the insurance company aims to redefine seamless accessibility and interaction with trained
professionals.
• SBI Life Insurance one of the most trusted life
insurance companies in India, was incorporated in
October 2000 and is registered with the Insurance
Regulatory and Development Authority of India
(IRDAI) in March 2001.
• Mr. Mahesh Kumar Sharma, MD & CEO, SBI Life
Insurance.

75. In August as per report ______________has

secured an order worth ₹2,500 crore for
construction of the largest urea plant in Australia
and one of the largest in the world.
A. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
B. Tata Projects
C. Coal India
D. National Thermal Power Plant
E. Larsen & Toubro (L&T)

• Larsen & Toubro (L&T) has secured an order worth ₹2,500 crore for the fabrication and supply of pipe rack modules for a 2.3 -MMTPA urea
plant for Perdaman Chemicals and Fertilizers Pty in Australia.
• The contract was awarded to L&T Energy Hydrocarbon by Saipem & Clough JV (SCJV) and the plant will be constructed in the Burr up
Peninsula, about 20 km north of Karratha, Western Australia.
• It will be the largest urea plant in Australia and one of the largest in the world.
• Seventy per cent of the plant will be fabricated in India at L&T’s Kattupalli modular fabrication facility. About 1,160 mt of equipment will
be delivered in 25 months and 50,000 mt of modules in 32 months.
• Larsen & Toubro Ltd, commonly known as L&T, is an Indian multinational conglomerate company, with business interests in engineering,
construction, manufacturing, technology, information technology and financial services, headquartered in Mumbai. Anil Manibha i Naik is
the Group Chairman of Larsen & Toubro Limited.

76. Recently as per report India will receive _______ million from the G20 Pandemic Fund for strengthening animal health system of the
country.
A. USD 20 million
B. USD 10 million
C. USD 15 million
D. USD 30 million
E. USD 25 million

• India will receive USD 25 million from the G20 Pandemic Fund for strengthening animal health
system of the country.
• The fund that was established under Indonesia's G20 Presidency is targeted at low -to middle-
income countries to finance efforts like surveillance, research, and better access to vaccines,
among others measures.
• According to the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, the G20 Pandemic Fund has approved India's USD 25 -million
proposal for strengthening animal health security in the country for pandemic prep aredness and response.
• The Pandemic Fund received around 350 Expressions of Interest (EoI) and 180 full proposals in the first call with grant reque sts totalling
more than USD 2.5 billion against an envelope of only USD 338 million.
• The Pandemic Fund's Governing Board has approved "19 grants" under its first round of funding allocations aimed to boost resilience to
future pandemics in 37 countries across six regions on July 20.
• The impact of the project would be to reduce the risk that a pathogen will emerge from animals (domesticated and wildlife) to be
transmitted into the human population endangering the health, nutritional security, and livelihoods of vulnerable populations .
• The project will be implemented in collaboration with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) as the lead implementing entity with The World
Bank and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).

77. In August as per report ___________ has secured a loan of 1.85 billion Japanese yen (about Rs 105 crore) from JBIC financing to finance a
11.5 MW waste-to-energy project of KPC Gas Power Corporation in Karnataka.
A. Power Grid Corporation of India
B. Power Finance Corporation
C. Rural Electrification Corporation
D. NHPC Limited
E. GAIL Limited

• State-owned Power Finance Corporation has secured a loan of 1.8 5 billion Japanese yen (about
Rs 105 crore) from JBIC financing.The funds will be used to finance a 11.5 MW waste-to-energy
project of KPC Gas Power Corporation in Karnataka.
• This loan agreement was signed under the long-term facility of JPY 30 billion provided by JBIC to PFC.

• The waste-to-energy project will result in the effective utilisation of 600 tonne per day of segregated municipal solid waste for energy
generation.
• The project is based on incineration using moving grate technology from Hitachi Zosen India Pvt Ltd.The loan was signed at JBIC New Delhi
office by Parminder Chopra, CMD, PFC and Nobumitsu Hayashi, Governor, JBIC.

78. In August as per report __________ has partnered with FinTech platform provider Jocata to offer digital lending products to customers.
A. Equitas Small Finance Bank
B. Jana Small Finance Bank
C. Bank Of Baroda
D. Airtel Payment Bank
E. Tamilnad Mercantile Bank

• Tamilnad Mercantile Bank (TMB) has partnered with FinTech platform provider Jocata to offer
digital lending products to customers.
• TMB said it would leverage Jocata’s low-code Digital Lending Platform (DLP) to drive its digital
transformation strategy, providing MSMEs with an end-to-end digital, personalised, and
experience-led value proposition.
• Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Limited is a bank headquartered at Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu, India.
• TMB was founded in 1921 as the Nadar Bank, but changed its name to Tamilnad Mercantile Bank
in November 1962. MD & CEO S. Krishnan.

79. In the current financial year, the Government e-marketplace (GeM) crossed the Gross Merchandise Value of one lakh crore rupees.
GeM has achieved this milestone in a record time of __________ days in the current fiscal year against 243 days in the last f iscal.
A. 145
B. 185
C. 195
D. 175
E. 165

• In the current financial year, the Government e-marketplace (GeM) crossed the Gross
Merchandise Value of one lakh crore rupees.
• GeM has achieved this milestone in a record time of 145 days in the current fiscal year against
243 days in the last fiscal.
• The average GMV per day has increased from INR 412 crore per day in FY 22 -23 to INR 690 crore
per day in FY 23-24.
• Since its establishment, GeM has crossed 4.91 Lakh crore rupees in Gross Merchandise Value and
has facilitated over 1.67 crore orders on the platform.
• The contribution of the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), Central Ministries and State
Governments in this achievement is 54%, 26% and 20% respectively.
• GeM is an online platform for the procurement of goods and services by government
departments, public sector units, and other agencies.
• It was launched in 2016 as a part of the government's "Digital India" initiative.
• Its main aim is to bring transparency, efficiency, and cost-effectiveness to public procurement.

80. In August as per report CCI has imposed penalty on Abu Dhabi Investment Authority (ADIA) of ___________ for making false declarations
before the CCI while availing the green channel facility in a deal about acquisition of a stake in UPL Sustainable Agri Solut ions Ltd (UPL
SAS).
A. Rs 55 lakh
B. Rs 30 lakh
C. Rs 45 lakh
D. Rs 60 lakh
E. Rs 15 lakh

• CCI has imposed penalties of Rs 55 lakh on Abu Dhabi Investment Authority (ADIA) and TPG Group.
• CCI has imposed penalty on ADIA for making false declarations before the CCI while availing the green
channel facility in a deal about acquisition of a stake in UPL Sustainable Agri Solutions Ltd (UPL SAS).
• The acquirers shall pay the penalty within 60 days of the issue of order by the Competition Commission of
India (CCI).
• Penalty of ₹5 lakh has been imposed under Section 43A for ‘gun jumping’.
• Penalty of ₹50 lakh has been imposed for making false declaration before CCI while availing green
channel facility.
• Green channel is an automatic system of approval for certain mergers, amalgamations and acquisitions. It
was introduced by an amendment to the Combination regulations in August 2019.

81. According to the third edition of the India Retirement Index Study (IRIS) India’s retirement index has increased to _________ from 44
witnessed across the past two editions.
A. 41
B. 47
C. 37
D. 26
E. 12

• Urban India’s retirement index has increased to

47 from 44 witnessed across the past two
editions.
• According to the third edition of the India
Retirement Index Study (IRIS), over two-thirds of
millennials feel secure with their current
savings/investments for retirement.
• Max Life Insurance in partnership with KANTAR
(world's leading marketing data and analytics
company) has conducted the IRIS 3.0.
• It assesses urban India’s readiness to live a
healthy, peaceful, and financially secure retired
life.
• Millennials, who were polled for the first time in IRIS 3.0, outperformed others in terms of retirement readiness.
• The retirement index consists of three sub-indices-health, finance, and emotion.
• The health awareness has moved up by 3 points from 41 in IRIS 2.0 to 44 in IRIS 3.0.
• According to the IRIS 3.0 study, about 1 in 3 urban Indians are worried about their savings depleting within five years of re tired life.
• 2 out of 5 individuals have not begun investing for retirement yet.
• The IRIS 3.0 study finds out that 64% of urban Indians are familiar with National Pension System (NPS). Only 16% invest by mak ing
contributions.

• According to IRIS 3.0, urban Indian women are now at par with men in retirement readiness.
• Notably, 52 per cent of women consider retirement planning the foremost financial priority, closely followed by 48 per cent of men who
share the same view.

82. According to an analysis by Moody’s Investor Services the median working age for Asia’s top economies is _____.
A. 42
B. 51
C. 50
D. 48
E. 45

• India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and the Philippines stand out amid Asia’s massive shrinkage of working -age populations.
• The developing economies of India (0.4%), Pakistan (4.7%), Bangladesh (0.2%), and the Philippines (1.3%) hold up the bright side.
• According to an analysis by Moody’s Investor Services, the median working age for Asia’s top economies is 50.
• These economies include China, Singapore, Korea, Japan, Thailand, Hong Kong and others.
• The analysis says that nine of these major Asian economies are consistently showing a fall in working-age populations.
• India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and the Philippines hold up the bright side.
• The average working age in India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and the Philippines is 25 years old.
• Governance and infrastructure can foster a demographic dividend in economies witnessing growth in working -age populations.
• As per the report, in 2022, young and wealthier population positively
impacted banks, technology services, and telecommunications. The
ageing population negatively impacted the economy.
• As per Asian Development Bank, Asia’s elderly population is projected
to reach nearly 923 million by 2050.

83. As per RBI data, banking system liquidity stood at __________ as of

August 21.
A. Rs 251 billion
B. Rs 351billion
C. Rs 236 billion
D. Rs 296 billion
E. Rs 245 billion

• The liquidity of the banking system in India fell into deficit for the first
time in FY24.
• As per RBI data, banking system liquidity stood at Rs 236 billion ($2.84
billion) as of August 21.
• The liquidity fell into deficit after RBI’s temporary liquidity withdrawal
move and tax outflows.
• The liquidity surplus had hit a high of 2.8 trillion rupees at the start of
August 2023.
• However, liquidity has been declining especially after RBI asked banks to
hold an incremental cash reserve ratio (CRR) of 10% on increase in
deposits between May 19 and July 28.
• This has led to withdrawal of over one trillion rupees.

84. RBI has increased the upper limit of an offline payment transaction from ₹200 to ₹500.
RBI has issued the directive to increase the upper limit under Section 10 (2) read with Section 18 of the ______________.
A. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
B. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
C. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
D. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002
E. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007

• RBI has increased the upper limit of an offline payment transaction from ₹200 to ₹500.
• RBI has issued the directive to increase the upper limit under Section 10 (2) read with Section 18
of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
• The directive to increase the upper limit has come into effect immediately.
• Though the upper limit has been increased, the total limit for offline transactions on payment
instrument remains to be ₹2,000.
• The used limit can be replenished only in online mode with AFA (additional factor
authentication).
• The announcement of increasing the upper limit of an offline payment transaction was made in
the Statement on Development and Regulatory Policies dated August 10, 2023.

85. In August as per report Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has acquired __________ per
cent shareholding in Jio Financial Services Ltd, the demerged non-banking financial services arm
of the Reliance Industries.
A. 7.77 per cent
B. 6.66 per cent
C. 9.91 per cent
D. 8.20 per cent
E. 3.20 per cent

• Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has acquired 6.660 per cent shareholding in Jio Financial
Services Ltd, the demerged non-banking financial services arm of the Reliance Industries. “
• Jio Financial Services listed on the stock exchanges on August 21, listing at Rs 265 – close to the
discovered price of Rs 261.85.
• The market capitalisation of the financial services company stood at close to Rs 1.60 lakh crore.
• The LIC said that the cost of acquisition of Jio Financial Services is 4.68 per cent of the pre-
demerged cost of Reliance Industries.
• The Life Insurance Corporation, as of 30 June, 2023, holds a 6.49% stake in Reliance Industries.
• Earlier in July, Reliance Industries had transferred Rs 15,500 crore of cash and liquid investments
to Jio Financial Services which was formed following the demerger of Reliance Industries’
financial services businesses.

86. In August as per report ___________ announced the launch of two lending products Kisan Credit Card (KCC) and unsecured micro, small
and medium enterprises (MSME) loans to customers powered by the Public Tech Platform for Frictionless Credit (PTPFC), introd uced by the
Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH).
A. Indian Bank
B. State Bank Of India
C. HDFC Bank
D. Canara Bank

E. Axis Bank

• Axis Bank, one of the largest private sector banks in India announced the launch of
two lending products powered by the Public Tech Platform for Frictionless Credit
(PTPFC), introduced by the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH), a wholly owned
subsidiary of the RBI.
• The Reserve Bank of India had earlier in the week announced the launch of the
PTPFC.
• Axis Bank will offer Kisan Credit Card (KCC) and unsecured MSME loans to small
business customers, powered by the platform.
• Both the products will be offered in a completely digital manner and require no
submission of documents by customers.
• As a pilot, Kisan Credit Cards will be offered in Madhya Pradesh and will be
available to customers for upto Rs. 1.6 lakh to start with.
• MSME loans will be available across the country and will offer loans upto Rs. 10 lakh
to customers.
• As part of the pilot, Axis Bank will leverage the PTPFC for accessing data for
customers in a consented and secure manner.
• These include PAN validation, Aadhaar eKYC, Account Aggregator data, verification
of land records and penny drop service to validate bank accounts.

87. In August as per report ___________launched Jeevandhara saving account for senior citizens and offers multiple free benefits for the
elders.
A. Indian Bank
B. Canara Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. State Bank Of India
E. Axis Bank

• Canara Bank has introduced Canara Jeevan Dhara, a special savings bank
account for pensioners, and prospective pensioners.
• All the employees who retired on a voluntary basis or normal retirements are
also eligible.
• The bank offers two variants depending on the pension credit. Diamonds account
is for up to Rs 50,000 and Platinum account is for above Rs 50,000.
• Under this account, the bank will offer 0.75% above the deposit rate for senior
citizens.
• Concession on medical expenses up to 25 percent for Canara Bank Jeevan Dhaara
customers.
• Canara Bank is an Indian public sector bank based in Bangalore. Established in 1906 at Mangalore by Ammembal Subba Rao Pai, t he bank
was nationalized in 1969. CEO: K. Satyanarayana Raju.

88. In August as per report government has imposed a ___________ percent export duty on onions December 31, 2023.
A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 10%
D. 25%

E. 35%

• The government on imposed an export duty of 40% on onions with immediate

effect to check price rise and improve supplies in the domestic market.
• This export duty is valid till December 31, 2023.
• As per the data by the consumer affairs ministry, the all-India average retail price
of onion was ruling at Rs 30.72.
• Rating agency Crisil in its report on August 4, had warned that onion could be next
tomato and the retail price might touch Rs 60/70 per kg by month-end.
• The onion prices continue to rise this month and experts were saying that prices
are likely to rise more in September.
• India's annual retail inflation rose sharply to a 15-month high of 7.44% in July
from 4.87% the previous month, fuelled by a sharp jump in vegetable and cereal
prices.
• The figures breached the upper end of the RBI's inflation band of 2% -6% for the
first time in five months.

89. In August as per report Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified a
reduction in the valuation of rent-free accommodation to staff provided by
employers.
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified amendments to the Income
Tax Rules which will come into effect from _____________.
A. 1 st October, 2023
B. 1 st September, 2023
C. 1 st November, 2023
D. 1 st December, 2023
E. 1 st January, 2024

• The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified a reduction in the valuation of rent -free
accommodation to staff provided by employers.
• The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified amendments to the Income Tax Rules
which will come into effect from September 1.
• As per the notification, where unfurnished accommodation is provided to employees other
than the central or state government employees and such accommodation is owned by the
employer then the valuation shall be:
• (i) 10 per cent of salary (reduced from 15 per cent) in cities having population exceeding 40
lakh as per 2011 census (earlier, 25 lakh as per 2001 census)
• (ii) 7.5 per cent of salary (reduced from 10 per cent) in cities having population exceeding 15
lakh but not exceeding 40 lakh as per 2011 census (earlier, 10 lakhs but not exceeding 25
lakhs as per 2001 census).
• Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is a statutory authority functioning under the Central
Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
• The CBDT is a part of the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance.
• The CBDT is headed by Chairman and also comprises of six members, all of whom are ex-
officio Special Secretary to the Government of India.

90. In August as per report ____________unveiled an advanced multilingual multimodal AI translation and transcription model named
'SeamlessM4T.'
A. Amamzon
B. Apple
C. Google
D. Microsoft
E. Meta

• Meta, the technology company formerly known as Facebook, recently unveiled an advanced multilingual multimodal AI translation and
transcription model named 'SeamlessM4T.'
• SeamlessM4T, which stands for Massively Multilingual and Multimodal Machine Translation, is an advanced multilingual multimod al AI
translation and transcription model.
• It was developed by Meta, the technology company formerly known as Facebook.
• SeamlessM4T is capable of performing various tasks including speech-to-text, speech-to-speech, text-to-speech, and text-to-text
translations.
• SeamlessM4T supports speech recognition for nearly 100 languages.
• SeamlessM4T brings together diverse spoken data sources to provide a comprehensive multilingual and multimodal translation experience
from a single model.
• It performs the entire translation task in one go, unlike other large translation models that divide translation across different systems.
• Last year, the company introduced No Language Left Behind (NLLB), a text -to-text translation model that supports 200 languages,
integrated into Wikipedia as a translation provider.

91. In August as per report __________ launched the Talent Connect portal that will bridge the gap between recruiters and digitally skilled
and certified candidates.
A. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India
B. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
C. Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry
D. Bureau of Indian Standards
E. National Association of Software Services Companies

• With an aim to connect future-ready digital talent with the

industry, National Association of Software Services
Companies (Nasscom) launched the Talent Connect portal.
This portal will bridge the gap between recruiters and
digitally skilled and certified candidates.
• The portal, which has been in work for the last one-and-a-
half year already has 100,000 candidates and has seen
corporates such as Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Tech
Mahindra and Salesforce recruiting from it.
• The platform, for the first time, is also making an attempt to
bridge the gap of skill-based talent to employers, rather
than the current practice of academic focused talent base.
• The portal focuses on two segments of skilling—core IT skills
and emerging tech skills. Core IT skills cater to work profiles
such as customer care executives, help desk roles, data entry
etc.
• The emerging tech skills focus on the latest full stack tech capabilities, programming skills like Java, Python etc, data scientists and cyber
security expertise.
• Almost 80 per cent of the learner base on the portal is coming from tier 2 & 3 cities.

• The portal works in tandem with Nasscom’s training ecosystem which includes the government
skilling schemes, the Future Skill Portal which is also part of the Talent Connect brings with it an
ecosystem of 200 partners, as well as contributions from tech players like Salesforce, Google etc.
• The National Association of Software and Service Companies is an Indian non-governmental
trade association and advocacy group that primarily serves the Indian technology industry.
Founded in 1988. Debjani Ghosh - President of NASSCOM.

92. In August as per report __________and the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) have
signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) to simplify their infrastructure expansion works.
A. NDMC
B. NTPC
C. GAIL
D. NHPC
E. SAIL

• GAIL India and the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) have signed a memorandum of
understanding (MoU) to streamline their infrastructure expansion works.
• This pertains to the networks of highways and gas pipelines across the country which get mired in
complex permissions and long-drawn transactional procedures.
• The agreement between the highways authority and the natural gas company, signed on 3
August, 2023, is aimed at accelerating grant of crossing permissions, standardising financial
procedures, and building dispute-resolution mechanisms.
• The agreement will be valid until 2026, and may be extended depending upon a mutual
agreement between the two entities.
• GAIL Limited is a central public sector undertaking under the ownership of the Ministry of
Petroleum and Natural Gas, Government of India. Headquarters: New Delhi, Sandeep Kumar
Gupta; (Chairman & MD).

93. In August as per report Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has
chosen to lower the minimum capital requirement for Foreign Reinsurance Business (FRBs) to
__________ crore from Rs 100 crore.
A. Rs 80 crore
B. Rs 75 crore
C. Rs 60 crore
D. Rs 50 crore
E. Rs 25 crore

• The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has chosen to lower the
minimum capital requirement for Foreign Reinsurance Business (FRBs) to Rs 50 crore from Rs 100
crore.
• This amendment is among other revisions in the reinsurance segment aimed at positioning India as a global insurance hub.
• During its 123rd Authority meeting, the insurance regulator sanctioned a series of amendments to the Reinsurance Regulations to
harmonise and streamline the existing regulations applicable to Indian insurers, Indian reinsurers, Foreign Reinsurance Branches (FRBs),
and International Financial Services Centre Insurance Offices (IIOs).
• Alongside lowering the capital requirement, IRDAI has also restructured the order of preference to four categories fr om the existing six
levels. According to the new system, Category 1 will encompass Indian Reinsurers, including the sole company GIC Re

• Category 2 will comprise International Financial Services Centre Insurance Offices IIOs (which invest 100 per cent of retained premiums
emanating from insurers in India in the DTA) and FRBs.
• Category 3 will consist of ‘Other IIOs’, and Category 4 will include other Indian Insurers (only in respect of per -risk facultative placements in
the insurance segment for which the Insurer is registered to transact business) and cross-border reinsurers (CBRs).
• The regulatory framework for IIOs is assured to align with International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) regulat ions to
eliminate dual compliance.

94. In August as per report ____________has been ranked as the world's strongest dairy brand by the Brand Finance Food and Drink Report
2023.
A. Fonterra
B. Danone
C. Lactalis
D. Mother Dairy
E. Amul

• Amul has been

ranked as the
world’s strongest
dairy brand by the
Brand Finance Food
and Drink Report
2023.
• The report
evaluates and ranks
the strongest and
most valuable food,
dairy, and non-
alcoholic beverage
brands.
• The report, conducted by UK-based Brand Finance, the world’s leading brand valuation consultancy, affirms Amul’s unwavering
commitment to quality, innovation, and consumer trust.
• Amul has not only been ranked as the strongest dairy brand globally but also the second strongest food brand wor ldwide, trailing only
behind the renowned American chocolate brand, Hershey.
• Amul’s impressive feat in the prestigious report doesn’t stop there. The Amul brand has also been ranked amongst the top 30 m ost valuable
food brands out of 5000 brands in the world.

• Amul has also secured the seventh spot on the list of the world’s most valuable dairy brands, with an impressive valuation of $3 billion.
• Amul is the largest FMCG brand in India with annual sales turnover of Rs 72,000 crores (US $ 9 billion) and an out standing example of the
power of the farmer’s cooperative movement.
• It was born in 1946, before India gained freedom, and marked its 75th anniversary recently.

95. In August as per report __________has signed an MoU with RITES for construction of railway siding at Pasighat, Arunachal Pradesh, for
NHPC’s 2,880 MW Dibang Multi Purpose Project.
A. Power Grid Corporation of India
B. Power Finance Corporation
C. NHPC Limited
D. Rural Electrification Corporation
E. GAIL Limited

• NHPC Limited, India’s premier hydropower company, has signed an MoU with RITES, a Miniratna Schedule 'A' Central Public Sector
Undertaking under the Ministry of Railways, for construction of railway siding at Pasighat, Arunachal Pradesh, for NHPC’s 2,8 80 MW
Dibang Multi Purpose Project.
• NHPC Limited is India’s premier Hydropower Company. NHPC’s total installed capacity is 7,097.2 MW of renewable power (includi ng Wind
& Solar), through its 25 power stations including 1,520 MW through subsidiaries.
• RITES Limited is a Miniratna (Category–I) Schedule ‘A’ Public Sector Enterprise and a leading player in the transport consultancy and
engineering sector in India, providing diversified services across sectors and wide geographical reach.

96. In August as per report Indian cricketer Sachin Tendulkar flagged off the Mumbai Half Marathon.
The event was organised by __________.
A. HDFC Life Insurance Company Limited
B. HDFC ERGO General Life Insurance
C. Max Life Insurance Company
D. Ageas Federal Life Insurance.
E. Bank Of India Investment Managers Private

• Legendary Indian cricketer Sachin Tendulkar flagged off the Mumbai Half Marathon.
• The presence of the legendary cricketer made the ambience at the event even more exciting and one
to remember for local residents, who participated in the marathon.
• The event was organised by Ageas Federal Life Insurance.
• Ageas Federal Life Insurance Mumbai Half Marathon is a marquee event that celebrates running in the beautiful city of Mumbai. This
#FutureFearless Run aims to encourage healthy lifestyle and build a community of fitness enthusiasts. We are back with the 6th edition on
20 August 2023.
• Chhagan Bombale from Hingoli district in Maharashtra retained the men's half-marathon title in the Ageas Federal Life Insurance Mumbai
Half Marathon for the second year in succession.
• The women’s half marathon (21.1k) was comfortably won by 25 -year-old Bharti from Sonepat, Haryana.

97. In August as per report _____________ launched the UPI Interoperable Digital Rupee mobile application as a part of the Reserve Bank of
India’s Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) pilot project.
A. ICICI Bank
B. RBL Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. Bandhan Bank

E. Canara Bank

• UPI interoperable digital rupee mobile app has been introduced by Canara Bank.
• Canara Bank is the 1st bank in both the public and commercial sectors to offer this feature via its CBDC mobile app called the Canara
Digital Rupee app.
• With the launch of this feature, customers can scan merchant UPI QR codes using the Canara Digital Rupee app and make payment
through digital currency.
• This feature also empowers merchants to accept digital currency payments through their existing UPI QR codes along with UPI -based
payments without going through a separate onboarding process for CBDC.
• The launch of the mobile application enabled with UPI int eroperability will further digitalize Indian economy.
• Canara Bank:
• It was founded in July 1906. It is headquartered in Bengaluru.
• K. Satyanarayana Raju is its CEO. The government has merged Syndicate bank with Canara bank.

98. In August as per report __________for the first time, partnered with Jio a telecom operator to offer streaming services as part of a bundled
prepaid plan.
A. Amazon Prime
B. Disney Hotstar
C. Apple Tv
D. Netflix
E. Sony LIV

• Netflix has, for the first time, partnered with a telecom operator to offer
streaming services as part of a bundled prepaid plan.
• Jio announced the launch of Jio prepaid plans with a bundled Netflix
subscription.
• A Netflix subscription is already available on select Jio Postpaid and Jio
Fiber plans, but this is the first time that a Netflix subscription will be
available on a prepaid plan.
• Netflix will be available on ₹1,099 and ₹1,499 plans, each valid for 84
days.
• Netflix is an American subscription video on-demand over-the-top
streaming service owned and operated by Netflix, Inc.
• Headquarters: Los Gatos, California, United States.

99. In August as per rerport Zerodha received the regulatory green signal to establish asset management company
named ‘Zerodha Fund House’ in partnership with ___________.
A. Shopify
B. Acko Insurance
C. Smallcase
D. BillDesk
E. CredAvenue

• Zerodha is all set to enter the asset management space as the company received the regulatory green signal to
establish Zerodha Fund House.
• Nithin Kamath mentioned that Vishal Jain will join as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) to build the AMC.

• The AMC will be built in partnership with the fintech platform Smallcase.
• Zerodha Fund House will soon launch its first new fund offer (NFO).
• A new fund offer (NFO) pertains to the initial issuance of shares of a fund by an investment firm to potential investors.
• Much like an initial public offering (IPO) in the realm of stocks, the primary aim of NFOs is to secure funds for the investment vehicle and
entice potential investors.

100.In August as per report _________has become the first public sector bank to extend the facility of execution of online locker agreement
through the Digital Document Execution (DDE) platform of National E-Governance Services Limited (NeSL).
A. Bandhan Bank
B. Canara Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. Indian Bank
E. HDFC Bank

• Indian Bank announced that it has become the first public sector bank to extend the facility of execution of online locker ag reement
through the Digital Document Execution (DDE) platform of National E-Governance Services Limited (NeSL).
• Online locker agreement, which is available round the clock, will enhance customer convenience and reduce the turn -around time of the
agreement execution.
• DDE is a fully automated contract execution platform with paperless e-stamp and electronic signature (e-Sign) facility.
• The e-Sign facility includes Aadhaar-based (OTP/Biometric) and dongle-based digital signature.
• The platform offers individual and multiple signatories to execute documents in sequence, which will facilitate joint account holders also to
execute onlocker agreements at their ease.
• Indian Bank is an Indian public sector bank, established in 1907 and headquartered in Chennai. CEO: Shanti Lal Jain.

101.In August as per report Infor Nexus has partnered with ________ Bank and launched a pre-shipment financing solution for small and
medium-sized enterprises (SME) suppliers in the former's supply chain ecosystem.
A. DBS Bank
B. RBL Bank
C. Indian Bank
D. Bandhan Bank
E. Axis Bank

• Infor Nexus™ has partnered with DBS Bank and have launched a pre-shipment financing solution for small and medium-sized enterprises
(SME) suppliers in the former's supply chain ecosystem.
• This solution utilises historical data from the Infor Nexus™ platform to provide data-based lending solutions that help suppliers meet their
working capital requirements.
• The partnership between the two, until now, primarily focused on availing early payments to the suppliers on a post -shipment basis.
• DBS Bank Limited, often known as DBS, is a Singaporean multinational banking and financial services corporation headquartered at the
Marina Bay Financial Centre in the Marina Bay district of Singapore.

102.In August as per report _________ has become the first major airline to set up a leasing unit at IFSC Gift City in Gujarat.
A. Air India
B. IndiGo
C. Spice Jet
D. Go First
E. Aksa Air

• Air India has become the first major airline to set up a leasing unit at IFSC Gift City in Gujarat.
• The airline’s six A350s, which are slated to be
inducted into the Tata-owned airline’s fleet, will come
through the said leasing firm AI Fleet Services IFSC
Limited under a financial lease.
• The estimated project cost is ₹7,253 crore.
• According to the Ministry of Corporate Affairs data,
Vinod Hejmadi, who is also the CFO of Air India,
Kalpana Rao, also the Company Secretary of Air India,
and Abhijit Menon are part of its top management.
• Both Hejmadi and Menon will be Directors at the said
entity. The entity has an authorised capital of ₹50
crore and a paid-up capital of ₹30 crore.
• Air India has placed an order for the procurement of
470 aircraft from Airbus and Boeing through leasing
and financing.
• Out of these 470 aircraft, the near-term delivery of six
Airbus A350 aircraft (long-range, wide-body. twin-
engine jet airliner) is planned to be financed through
the proposed entity.
• Air India’s order includes both wide-body as well as narrow-body aircraft. Its order comprises 34 A350-1000s, six A350-900s, 20 Boeing 787
Dreamliners, and 10 Boeing 777X widebody aircraft, as well as 140 Airbus A320neos, 70 Airbus A321neos, and 190 Boeing 737 MAX
narrow-body aircraft.

103.In August as per report ___________has developed an open-source software which allows countries to effectively manage national data
and processes for trading carbon credits.
A. ADB
B. IMF
C. UNEP
D. UNESCO
E. UNDP

• UNDP has developed an open-source software which allows countries to effectively manage national data and processes for trading
carbon credits.
• The software, called the National Carbon Registry, has recently been accredited as a digital public good (DPG).
• As a DPG, the registry uses open-source code, which allows countries to replicate and adapt the information to fit their own needs and
contexts. The registry’s modules, software and technical documentation can be reused and tailored by countries, which c ould potentially
reduce production costs and implementation timelines.
• The registry follows national and international best practices based on inputs from countries and is a result of ongoing work by the
Digital4Climate (D4C) Working Group, which includes UNDP, the World Bank, the United Nations Framework Convention of Climate
Change (UNFCCC) and the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) among others.
• The initiative is also supported by a community of practice for knowledge exchange.
• Built as an interoperable digital system, it can be integrated with national measurement, reporting and verification (MRV) syst ems and
international digital systems such as UNDP’s voluntary cooperation platform and the global platform Climate Action Data Tru st (CAD
Trust) launched by the World Bank.
• Developing countries will need more than US$6 trillion by 2030 to finance their climate action goals (as listed in their Nati onally
Determined Contributions, or NDCs).
• Development of the National Carbon Registry has benefited from the contribution of the Norwegian Agency for Development Cooperation
(Norad) and the Government of Japan. UNDP’s voluntary cooperation platform and the World Bank’s Climate Warehouse Program wer e
both funded by the Government of Switzerland.
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104.What is the shareholding percentage of Bank of Baroda in Nainital Bank?

A. 56.98
B. 98.57
C. 84.56
D. 78.96
E. 53.69

• State-owned Bank of Baroda (BoB) planned to sell its

majority stake in Nainital Bank.
• The board of directors of the bank has approved
divestment of its majority shareholding in Nainital
Bank Limited (NBL).
• BoB currently holds 98.57 per cent of the total equity
share capital of NBL.
• The Mumbai-based BoB had taken over Nainital Bank
in 1973 on the directions of the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI).
• The Nainital Bank Limited is a scheduled commercial
bank founded in 1922. The bank is a subsidiary of
Bank of Baroda which is under the ownership of
Ministry of Finance of the Government of India.
Nikhil Mohan (MD & CEO).

105.In August as per report Competition Commission of India (CCI) has slapped a fine of __________ lakh on Axis Bank for failing to notify the
regulator about its acquisition of a stake in CSC e-Governance.
A. Rs 10 lakh
B. Rs 20 lakh
C. Rs 40 lakh
D. Rs 80 lakh
E. Rs 60 lakh

• The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has

slapped a fine of Rs 40 lakh on Axis Bank for
failing to notify the regulator about its
acquisition of a stake in CSC e-Governance.
• The transaction under consideration comprised
acquisition of a 9.91 per cent stake in CSC e-
Governance by Axis Bank and got completed in
November 2020.
• Axis Bank is required to pay the penalty within
60 days from the date of order, as per order
passed on August 9.
• CSC e-Governance Services India Ltd is a special-purpose vehicle set up by the electronics and information technology ministry to oversee
the implementation of the common services centre scheme.

106.In August as per report Reserve Bank of India has released detailed guidelines for the Infrastructure Debt Fund -NBFCs. Which of the
following statement is incorrect?
A. The NBFC shall have a minimum NOF of Rs 300 crore.
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B. The NBFC shall have CRAR of 12 percent with earning profits for the last three years.
C. NBFC should have been in existence for at least 5 years with net NPAs shall be less than 3 per cent of the net advances.
D. Under the earlier guidelines, an IDF-NBFC was required to be sponsored by a bank or an NBFC-Infrastructure Finance Company (NBFC-
IFC).
E. IDF-NBFC shall raise funds through issue of either rupee or dollar denominated bonds of minimum five-year maturity.

• Reserve Bank of India has released detailed

guidelines for the Infrastructure Debt Fund-
NBFCs.
• Reiterating the key changes announced at the
time of MPC meet, the central bank prescribed
conditions under which all NBFCs shall be
eligible to sponsor IDF-MFs with prior
approval.
• The NBFC shall have a minimum NOF of Rs 300
crore and CRAR of 15 percent with earning
profits for the last three years and its
performance shall be satisfactory.
• As per the central bank, the NBFC should have
been in existence for at least 5 years with net
NPAs shall be less than 3 per cent of the net
advances.
• Also, after the investment in the IDF-MF, the
CRAR of the NBFC shall not be less than the
regulatory minimum prescribed for it.
• As prescribed, the NBFC shall continue to maintain the required level of NOF after accounting for investment in the proposed IDF-MF.
• Under the earlier guidelines, an IDF-NBFC was required to be sponsored by a bank or an NBFC-Infrastructure Finance Company (NBFC-
IFC).
• The requirement of a sponsor for an IDF-NBFC has now been withdrawn and shareholders of IDF-NBFCs shall be subjected to scrutiny as
applicable to other NBFCs, including NBFC-IFCs.
• Under the earlier arrangement, IDF-NBFCs were required to enter into a tripartite agreement with the concessionaire and the project
authority for investments in the Public Private Partnership (PPP) infrastructure projects having a project authority.
• The requirement of the tripartite agreement has now been made optional.
• IDF-NBFC shall raise funds through issue of either rupee or dollar denominated bonds of minimum five-year maturity.
• The entities can raise funds through shorter tenor bonds and commercial papers (CPs) from the domestic market to the ex tent of up to 10
per cent of their total outstanding borrowings with a view to facilitate better asset -liability management (ALM).
• They can also raise funds through loan route under external commercial borrowings (ECBs).
• However, such borrowings shall be subject to minimum tenor of five years and the ECB loans should not be sourced from foreign branches
of Indian banks.

107.In August as per report Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued comprehensive guidelines regarding penal charges in loan accounts in an
effort to promote fairness, transparency, and accountability in the lending practices of financial institutions.
These guidelines are applicable to __________.
A. Small Finance Banks
B. Local Area Banks
C. Regional Rural Banks
D. Non-Banking Financial Companies
E. All of the above

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued comprehensive guidelines regarding penal charges in loan accounts in an effort to promote
fairness, transparency, and accountability in the lending practices of financial institutions.
• These guidelines are applicable to all commercial banks, including Small Finance Banks, Local Area Banks, and Regional Rural Banks, as
well as Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), and All India Financial Institutions.
• The RBI's move comes as part of its ongoing efforts to ensure that borrowers are treated fairly and to address customer grievance s arising
from divergent practices in the imposition of penal charges.
• Under the new guidelines, financial institutions are required to adhere to the key principles.
• The guidelines emphasize that any penalty imposed for non-compliance with material terms and conditions of a loan contract shall be
treated as 'penal charges' rather than 'penal interest.'
• This means that penal charges should not be added to the rate of interest charged on the advances, and no further interest should be
computed on such charges.
• The quantum of penal charges should be reasonable and commensurate with the level of non -compliance. These charges should be clearly
disclosed to customers in the loan agreement in terms and conditions, and the Key Fact Statement (KFS).
• Additionally, they should be prominently displayed on the financial institution's website under the section dedicated to inte rest rates and
service charges.
• The guidelines ensure fairness by mandating that penal charges for loans sanctioned to individual borrowers (for purposes oth er than
business) should not be higher than those applicable to non-individual borrowers facing similar non-compliance.
• These instructions will come into effect from January 1, 2024. Financial institutions are expected to revise their policy frameworks
accordingly and ensure the implementation of the new guidelines for all fresh loans availed or renewed from the effective dat e.
• Existing loans will transition to the new penal charges regime on the next review or renewal date, or within six months of th e effective
date of these instructions, whichever is earlier.

108.In August as per report IIFL Home Finance has received debt funding of ________ from International Finance Corporation (IFC).
A. $100 million
B. $200 million
C. $300 million
D. $400 million
E. $500 million

• IIFL Home Finance has received debt funding of $100 million from IFC, which is a member of the World Bank Group.
• This is a six-year money with a coupon of 8.32%. Non-convertible debentures (NCDs) has been issued for it.
• As part of the partnership, 50% of funding is earmarked for promoting housing finance for women borrowers.
• Remaining 50% is dedicated to financing green housing for buyers.
• The entire facility will be deployed for affordable housing.
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• It will help increase access to housing finance among economically weaker sections (EWS) and low -income groups
(LIG), including women borrowers in India.
• IIFL Home Finance Limited (IIFL HFL) is a subsidiary of IIFL Finance.
• International Finance Corporation (IFC) is an international development finance institution. It was formed in 1956.
It is headquartered in Washington, US.

Appointment News

109.In August as per report Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd. (BPCL) has announced__________as its new brand
ambassador.
A. Sourav Ganguly
B. Hardik Pandya
C. Virat Kohli
D. Rahul Dravid
E. Sachin Tendulkar

• Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL), an Indian Oil Marketing

Company has announced the current head coach of the Indian cricket team,
Rahul Dravid as its new brand ambassador.
• As per the company, Rahul Dravid will endorse BPCL’s Pure for Sure initiative
and range of MAK lubricants.
• Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited is an Indian public sector undertaking
under the ownership of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas,
Government of India.
• G. Krishnakumar, C&MD, BPCL.

110.Recently as per report __________ has been appointed as Chairman and Managing Director (CMD), of Power Finance Corporation Limited
(PFC) by Government of India with effect from 14th August, 2023.
A. Parminder Chopra
B. Alka Mehta
C. Sushil Chandra
D. Arun Kumar Singh
E. Gurdeep Kaur

• Parminder Chopra became the first woman to be appointed as head of the Power Finance Corporation.
• On August 17, Power Finance Corporation Limited (PFC) appointed Parminder Chopra as Chairman and
Managing Director (CMD).
• Her appointment took effect on August 14, 2023, making her the first woman to lead the company.
• Earlier, she was holding the additional charge of Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) with effect from
June 1, 2023, and Director (Finance) of PFC with effect from July 1, 2020.
• Parminder Chopra was honored with the 'Icon of the Year' and 'Finance Leader of the Year' awards for his
significant contribution to the field of business, finance, society, and nation.
• Power Finance Corporation Ltd (PFC) was formed in 1986. It is headquartered in New Delhi.
• Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) is its subsidiary.
• PFC is the largest infrastructure finance company dedicated to the power sector.
• It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Power.

111.In August as per report Reserve Bank Of India has approved the appointment of P R Seshadri as Managing Director & CEO of the
_________ for a period of three years with effect from October 1, 2023.
A. RBL Bank
B. Bandhan Bank
C. South Indian Bank
D. Indian Bank
E. Karnataka Bank

• The Reserve Bank of India has approved the appointment of P R Seshadri as the Managing Director and
chief executive officer of the Kerala-based South Indian Bank.
• The appointment will be for a period of three years with effect from October 1.
• Prior to this, Seshadri had served as managing director and CEO of The Karur Vysya Bank (KVB), managing
Director and Regional Sales and Distribution Head, Citibank (Asia Pacific), managing director and regional
head of Lending, Businesses, Citibank among others.
• South Indian Bank Limited is a major private sector bank headquartered at Thrissur in Kerala, India

112.In August as per report _________has been elected as one of the four vice-presidents of World Athletics.
A. Bhupender Choudhary
B. Brij Bhushan Sharma
C. Mohan Lal
D. Kalyan Choubey
E. Adille Sumariwalla

• Adille Sumariwalla became a member of the powerful World Athletics Executive Board after
he was elected as one of the four vice presidents, the highest post occupied by an Indian in the
global track and field governing body.
• The 65-year-old Sumariwalla, currently the president of Athletics Federation of India (AFI)
since 2012, received the third highest number of votes cast during the WA elections held two
days ahead of World Championships.
• Ximena Restrepo, Raúl Chapado, Adille Sumariwalla and Jackson Tuwei have been elected as
World Athletics Vice-Presidents at the 54th World Athletics Congress.
• The four candidates who get the highest number of votes out of the eight in fray for vice
presidents' post get a seat in the WA Executive Board, the highest decision making body of the
world body.
• The Executive Board consists of the president, four vice presidents, three appointed members and a chief executive officer (n on voting).
• Sumariwalla, an Olympian 100m runner, has also been a member of the WA Council since 2015.
• Sebastian Coe, president of World Athletics since 2015, was re-elected as head of track and field’s governing body on a third and final four -
year mandate.
• The 66-year-old, a two-time Olympic 1500m champion for Britain in 1980 and 1984, stood unopposed in the vote of the World Athletics
Congress in Budapest, two days ahead of the start of the world championships in the Hungarian capital.

113.In August as per report to mark the 200th birth anniversary of Arya Samaj founder Dayanand Saraswati this year, the government has
formed a high-level committee headed by ____________.
A. Amit Shah
B. Nitin Gadkari
C. Rajnath Singh
D. Piyush Goyal

E. Narendra Modi

• To mark the 200th birth anniversary of Arya Samaj founder Dayanand

Saraswati this year, the government has formed a high-level committee headed
by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• The panel has ministers Amit Shah, Smriti Irani, G Kishan Reddy and Anurag
Thakur as ex-officio members, besides leader of Opposition Mallikarjun Kharge.
• Governors and Chief Ministers of Gujarat, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan,
Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Bihar, Uttarakhand, West Bengal and Assam, where the
celebrations are likely to be held, have been included in the committee.
• In February this year, PM Modi inaugurated the year-long celebrations
commemorating the 200th birth anniversary of Dayanand Saraswati in Delhi.
• Swami Dayanand Saraswati was a philosopher, social leader and founder of the
Arya Samaj, a reform movement of Vedic dharma.
• He established the Arya Samaj on April 7, 1875, in Bombay -- with 10 principles
that are beautifully based purely on God, soul and nature.
• He was the first to give the call for Swaraj as "India for Indian" in 1876.
• The Dayanand Anglo Vedic schools came into existence in 1886 to realize the
vision of Swami Dayanand Saraswati.
• The first DAV School was established in Lahore with Mahatma Hansarjas the headmaster.

114.In August as per report Election Commission of India (ECI) has signed an mou with _____________ to be the ‘National Icon’ for voter
awareness and education.
A. Amitabh Bachchan
B. Pankaj Tripathi
C. Rahul Dravid
D. Sourav Ganguly
E. Sachin Tendulkar

• Sachin Tendulkar would be the ‘National Icon’ for voter awareness and education for the Election Commission
of India (ECI).
• A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) will be signed with Sachin Tendulkar for three years at a function on
23 August 2023.
• The MoU will be signed in the presence of Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar.
• Through this partnership, the Election Commission aims to bridge the gap between citizens, particularly youth and urban popul ations, and
the electoral process.
• The Election Commission is trying to address the challenges of urban and youth apathy.
• In 2022, the Election Commission selected actor Pankaj Tripathi as the National Icon.
• M.S. Dhoni, Aamir Khan, and MaryKom had been the ECI National Icons during the 2019 Lok Sabha Elections.

115.In August as per report Infosys has roped in _________ as ambassador for the brand and Infosys’ Digital
Innovation, in a three-year partnership.
A. Lionel Messi
B. Cristiano Ronaldo
C. Rafael Nadal
D. Roger Fedrer
E. Magnus Carlsen

• IT major Infosys has roped in tennis star Rafael Nadal as ambassador for the brand
and Infosys’ Digital Innovation, in a three-year partnership.
• To mark Nadal’s first-ever collaboration with a digital services company, Infosys and
Nadal’s coaching team are developing an AI-powered match analysis tool.
• This personalised tool will be available in real time to Nadal’s coaching team to
simultaneously track insights from his live matches, when he is back on tour, along
with historical data from his earlier matches.
• Previously, as the digital innovation partner for the ATP Tour, Roland-Garros,
Australian Open, and The International Tennis Hall of Fame, Infosys has helped
reimagine the tennis ecosystem for fans globally by leveraging AI, cloud, data
analytics, and digital experiences.
• Previously too, companies have made such moves — when Accenture signed with
golfer Tiger Woods. Albeit, the company ended its arrangement as Woods was
involved in a scandal. Bijoor notes that it is a risk one has to take while appo inting an
ambassador.
• Infosys Limited is an Indian multinational information technology company that provides business consulting, information tech nology and
outsourcing services. The company was founded in Pune and is headquartered in Bangalore. CEO: Salil Parekh.

116.In August as per report Srettha Thavisin has been elected as the new prime minister of which of the following country?
A. Thailand
B. Cambodia
C. Laos
D. Myanmar
E. Malaysia

• Srettha Thavisin has been elected as the new prime minister

of Thailand.
• Srettha Thavisin has been elected after months of political
deadlock.
• After a deadlock, Thailand has been administered by a
caretaker government since March.
• In May, the election was won by the Move Forward party
led by liberal Pita Limjaroenrat.
• However, Pita Limjaroenrat fell 51 votes short of the
majority needed from Thailand’s bicameral National
Assembly.
• Srettha Thavisin belongs to the Pheu Thai Party. He required
375 votes to become premier. He won 482 votes.
• Its capital is Bangkok. Baht is its currency. It is a unitary
parliamentary semi-democratic constitutional monarchy.

117.In August as per report ___________ has been appointed as the new chairperson of the National
Green Tribunal (NGT).
A. Justice Prakash Shrivastava
B. Justice Sanjana Gupta
C. Justice Arun Govil
D. Justice Pankaj Mehta
E. Justice Kalyani Verma

• Justice Prakash Shrivastava has been appointed as the new chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT).
• The former Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court, Shrivastava has assumed the charge from 23 August.
• On July 6, 2023, the Center had appointed Justice Sheo Kumar Singh as the Acting chairperson after the retirement of Justice Adarsh Kumar
Goel.
• On August 21, Justice Srivastava's appointment order was issued.
• Justice Srivastava was the Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court from October 11, 2021, to March 30, 2023.
• National Green Tribunal (NGT):
• It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of environmental disputes.
• The central government appoints the chairperson of the NGT in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI).
• It handles cases pertaining to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources in India.
• India is the third country in the world to establish NGT after Australia and New Zealand.

118.In August as per report a nine-member committee headed by __________ has been set up by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) to review
functioning of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
A. K Vijay Raghavan
B. N suresh Patel
C. Kamlesh Verma
D. S Somnath
E. Rajnath Singh

• A nine-member committee headed by former Principal Scientific

Advisor to government, K Vijay Raghavan, has been set up by the
Ministry of Defence (MoD) to review functioning of Defence
Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and suggest
“restructuring and redefining” of its role to improve the output of
the state-owned agency, aiding government’s move to make India
self-reliant in military sector.
• Defence minister Rajnath Singh gave the nod for review of the
DRDO functioning more than a fortnight back and the committee
has been asked to submit its report in three month’s time.
• After the committee submits its report, the ministry plans to have a
brainstorming session on it with the help of domain experts
including from abroad.
• The move comes after Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India came up with a report last December, indicting the DRDO for
declaring 20 mission mode projects ‘successful’ despite not achieving their objectives.
• Earlier too, Dr P Rama Rao Committee was constituted to review the functioning of the DRDO.
• All the recommendations by the Committee were accepted by the DRDO but for creation of a Board of Research for Advanced Defence
Sciences (BRADS) to function on the lines of Defence Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA) of USA.

119.In August as per report Dabur India Ltd has recently signed on __________as the brand ambassador of
its newly launched gel toothpaste - Dabur Red Bae Fresh Gel.
A. Kartik Aaryan
B. Ayushman Khurana
C. Ranveer Singh
D. Alia Bhatt
E. Kiara Advani

• Dabur India Ltd has recently signed on current youth heartthrob Kartik Aaryan as the face of its
newly launched gel toothpaste - Dabur Red Bae Fresh Gel.
• his extension on the powerhouse mother brand 'Dabur Red', which is the World's No. 1 Ayurvedic
Toothpaste brand present in every 1 in 3 households in India, will further strengthen the franchise
penetration, especially among the younger Indian population.
• Dabur Ltd is an Indian multinational consumer goods company, founded by S. K. Burman and
headquartered in Ghaziabad.

120.In August as per report ____________has been appointed part-time Chairman of UIDAI.
A. Neelkanth Mishra
B. Amit Agarwal
C. Ajit Choudhary
D. Sanjana Gupta
E. Vani Malhotra

• Neelkanth Mishra has been appointed part-time Chairman of UIDAI.

• After Nandan Nilekani, he will be the 2nd non-bureaucrat to chair UIDAI.
• Neelesh Shah and IIT Delhi Professor Mausam has been appointed as members of the UIDAI.
• The Chairperson and the Members will hold the office for three years or up to the age of 65 years,
whichever is earlier, from the date on which they assume office.
• Neelkanth Mishra is Chief Economist with Axis Bank. He is also part of the Economic Advisory
Council to the Prime Minister of India.
• Nilesh Shah is the Managing Director (MD) of Kotak Mahindra Asset Management.
• Unique Identification Authority Of India (UIDAI) was established as a statutory authority under
the Aadhaar Act 2016.
• It works under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• Amit Agrawal is the Chief Executive Officer of the Unique Identification Authority of India.
• It consists of a Chairperson, two part-time Members and the Chief Executive Officer (CEO).

121.In August as per report Central Vigilance Commission has reconstituted Advisory Board on Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF). Who will
chair the reconstituted ABBFF?
A. Rajnikant Mishra
B. Suresh N Patel
C. Ravikant Singh
D. Nandan Nilekani
E. Partha Pratim Sengupta

• The Advisory Board on Banking and Financial Frauds

(ABBFF) has been reconstituted by the Central Vigilance
Commission (CVC).
• Suresh N Patel, former Central Vigilance Commissioner, will
chair the reconstituted ABBFF.
• In addition to the Chairman, ABBFF have four members.
The term of Chairman/Members will be for two years with
effect from August 21.
• The four members of ABBFF are Ravikant, Rajnikant
Mishra, David Rasquinha and Partha Pratim Sengupta.

• ABBFF carries out the first level examination of bank frauds before recommendations or references are made to investigation b y agencies
like Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
• All PSBs, public sector insurance companies, and public sector financial institutions are now required to refer all matters o f frauds involving
₹3 crore and above to the ABBFF for advice.
• The ABBFF will be headquartered in New Delhi. It will have to ordinarily, within a month of receipt of the initial reference, tender the
advice.

122.In August as per report ___________has announced its partnership with five badminton players – Lakshya Sen, Satwiksairaj Rankireddy,
Chirag Shetty, Treesa Jolly, and Gayatri Gopichand to enhance its brand presence within the country and connect with its audience.
A. DBS Bank
B. Bandhan Bank
C. RBL Bank
D. Axis Bank
E. Canara Bank

• DBS Bank India has announced its partnership with five badminton players – Lakshya Sen, Satwiksairaj Rankireddy, Chirag Shetty, Treesa
Jolly, and Gayatri Gopichand.
• The partnership enables the bank to enhance its brand presence within the country and conn ect with its audience.
• Lakshya Sen is a former world junior number one, with recent wins including the Canada Open and notable performances at the U S Open,
Japan Open, and the 2021 World Championships.
• Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy ranked number two in the Badminton World Federation (BWF) World Rankings and reigning
Asian champions, they also won three BWF Worl Tour titles this year, Indonesia Open 2023 (Super 1000), Korea Open 2023 (Super 500),
and Swiss Open 2023 (Super 300).
• Gayatri Gopichand and Treesa Jolly are India’s young women’s sensation, making their mark at the All-England Championship 2022, and
clinched medals at the Commonwealth Games and at Badminton Asia Mixed Team Championships 2023.
• DBS is a leading financial services group in Asia with a presence in 19 markets, headquartered and listed in Singapore.

Days and Obituary News

123.Every year on ____________ World Mosquito Day is observed to commemorate the discovery made by Sir Ronald Ross in 1897.
A. 17 th August
B. 18 th August
C. 25 th August
D. 20 th August
E. 15 th August

• Every year on 20 August, World Mosquito Day is observed

• It is observed to commemorate the discovery made by Sir Ronald Ross in 1897.
• In 1897, Sir Ronald Ross discovered that the malaria parasite is transmitted to humans by Anopheles mosquitoes.
• World Mosquito Day is organized annually by the London School of Hygiene and Tropical Medicine.
• In 2023, more than three million dengue cases and more than 1,500 dengue-related deaths have been reported so far globally.
• Argentina, Peru, and Bangladesh have experienced the largest outbreaks of dengue in their history, while Paraguay has seen a shar p rise
in chikungunya cases.

124.World Photography Day is celebrated every year on _________.

A. 17th August

B. 18th August
C. 25th August
D. 19 th August
E. 15th August

• World Photography Day is celebrated every year on August 19.

• This year's World Photography Day theme is “Landscapes”.
• The Word ‘Photography’ was first coined by Sir John Herchel in 1939.
• In 1861, Thomas Sutton had taken the first durable colour photograph. The first digital photograph was taken in 1957.
• This day is observed to commemorate the invention of the daguerreotype, a photographic process developed by Louis Daguerre in 1837.

125.Every year on ___________ World Senior Citizen’s Day is observed to increase awareness about the issues of elderly people.
A. 19 th August
B. 20 th August
C. 21 st August
D. 17 th August
E. 16 th August

• Every year on August 21, World Senior Citizen’s Day is observed.

• It is observed to increase awareness about the issues of elderly people.
• In 1988, Former US President Ronald Reagan officially founded the World Senior Citizen’s Day.
• On 14 December 1990, the General Assembly of the United Nations (UN) declared 21 August as Wor ld Senior Citizen’s Day.
• Senior citizens are an important part of any society. Health complications, loneliness, and lack of financial support are some common
issues of senior citizens.
• The Government of India has launched several welfare schemes for senior citizens, including the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Scheme,
National Programme for the Health Care of Elderly (NPHCE), Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana, etc.

126.World Humanitarian Day is observed annually on _________.

A. 15 th August
B. 16 th August
C. 19 th August
D. 21 st August
E. 20 th August

• World Humanitarian Day is observed annually on August 19.

• World Humanitarian Day is dedicated to honouring humanitarian efforts and recognising the contributions of those who work tir elessly to
provide aid and assistance to people in need, particularly in times of crisis and conflict.
• The day commemorates the tragic bombing of the United Nations headquarters in Baghdad in 2003, which claimed the lives of 22 people,
including UN envoy Sergio Vieira de Mello.
• The theme of World Humanitarian Day 2023 is #NoMatterWhat.

127.What is the name of the Adobe co-founder who passed away in August 2023?
A. Dr. Peter Hendricks
B. Dr. Shantanu Narayen
C. Dr. Charles Geschke

D. Dr. John Warnock

E. Dr. Gilbert Roger

• Photoshop maker Adobe’s co-founder John Warnock died aged 82.

• Warnock co-founded Adobe in 1982 with Charles Geschke.
• He retired as CEO in 2000 and was chairman of the board, a position he shared with Geschke, until 2017.
• Adobe Inc., originally called Adobe Systems Incorporated, is an American multinational computer software
company incorporated in Delaware and headquartered in San Jose, California.

128.In August as per report CR Rao passed away at the age of

102. He was a renowned____________.
A. Statistician
B. Actor
C. Doctor
D. Writer
E. Film-Director

• India’s most distinguished statistician Calyampudi

Radhakrishna Rao passed away at the age of 102.
• He was awarded the 2023 International Prize in Statistics.
• He is known for the Cramer-Rao Lower Bound and the Rao-
Blackwell Theorem and many other results.
• He served as the Director of the Indian Statistical Institute
and worked as Professor in many institutions.
• He was awarded Padma Bhushan in 1968 and Padma
Vibhushan in 2001.
• Rao received the SS Bhatnagar Prize in 1963 and was
elected as a “fellow of the Royal Society” in 1967.

129.What is the name of the Wagner Chief, who died in a plane crash in
Russia?
A. Dmitri Utkin
B. Yevgeny Prigozhin
C. Andrei Troshev
D. Sergei Shoigu
E. Brendi Yegolkov

• Yevgeny Prigozhin was the leader of the Wagner mercenary group that
led a brief armed rebellion against the Russian military.
• Prigozhin was among 10 passengers on board the plane that crashed in
the northern region of Moscow on 23 August.
• A plane flying from Moscow to St. Petersburg crashed in the Tver region,
killing all passengers, including the 3 pilots.
• According to reports, Dmitri Utkin, the commander of the mercenary
group Wagner and one of the founders of the group, was also killed in
the incident.

• Reasons ranging from technical problems to explosions in the aircraft are being expressed.
• Just 2 months earlier, Yevgeny Prigozhin had led a brief rebellion against the Russian army.
• It was considered the biggest challenge against the regime since President Vladimir Putin came to power.

Sports Award Books News

130.What is the name of the Indian athlete who has been banned for four years by NADA for failing an out -of-
competition doping test?
A. Priya Chouhan
B. Sahilee Singh
C. Hima Das
D. Abinash Sable
E. Dutee Chand

• Top Indian athlete Dutee Chand, the current national 100m record holder, has been banned by the National Anti-
Doping Agency for four years.
• She has been banned by NADA for failing an out-of-competition doping test for Selective Androgen Receptor
Modulator (SARM) in December last year.
• The ban will be effective from January 3 this year, which is the date of issue of the letter by NADA.
• On December 5, 2022, all his results from the date of sample collection will be considered disqualified and will
result in forfeiture of medals, points, and prizes.
• The presence of a Banned Substance in an Athlete's Sample or the use or attempted use of a Banned Substance
by an Athlete is an Anti-Doping Rule Violation in accordance with Article 2.1 and Article 2.2 of the NADA ADR.
• However, NADA has given Dutee an opportunity to provide an explanation of the presence of the
substance in her sample in the form of written submissions, statements, and supporting evidence
relating to AAF.
• Dutee is an Asian Games medallist, having won silver medals in the 100m and 200m women's
events in the 2018 edition of the event.
• She also won a bronze medal at the Asian Championships in 2013, 2017 and 2019.
• In 2019, she became the first Indian woman sprinter to win a gold medal in the 100m event at the
Universiade.

131.In August as per report World wrestling body suspended membership of___________.
A. Wrestling Federation of India
B. Iran Wrestling Federation
C. Pakistan Wrestling Federation
D. Wrestling Federation Bangladesh
E. All of the above

• United World Wrestling (UWW) has suspended the Wrestling Federation of India for not
conducting elections on time.
• Due to Suspension, Indian wrestlers couldn’t compete at the upcoming World Championships
under the Indian flag.
• The Indian wrestlers will have to compete as ‘neutral athletes’ at the Olympic-qualifying World
Championships.
• In April, the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) appointed an ad-hoc committee to run the affairs of
the wrestling federation and directed to hold fresh elections in 45 days.
• The elections were delayed multiple times due to protests against Brij Bhushan Singh.
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• On 28 April 2023, UWW warned that it could suspend the Indian federation if it didn’t conduct the
election on time.
• Indian wrestlers can compete under the Indian flag in the Asian Games starting from 23
September in Hangzhou.
• The Wrestling Federation of India is the governing body of wrestling in India. Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh is the current presi dent of WFI.

132.What will be the new name of the Khelo India Women’s League?
A. Namo Women's League
B. Shakit Women's League
C. Bharat Women's League
D. Shrestha Women's League
E. Asmita Women’s League

• On 22 August, The Khelo India Women’s

League will officially be known as the Asmita
Women's League announced by Union Minister
for Youth Affairs and Sports Anurag Singh
Thakur.
• The abbreviation of "Asmita" is Achieving
Sports Milestone by Inspiring Women Through
Action.
• The 'Asmita Portal' serves as a comprehensive
resource, providing valuable insights into
upcoming leagues, among other features.
• This will enable any school, college, government, or private organization to host the 'Asmita Mahila League' and be a part of Khelo India's.
• The Khelo India team conceived the idea and developed this portal, which is a significant step towards the digitization of In dian sports.
• The Government has promoted women's sports and has paved the way for better opportunities, facilities, and world -class infrastructure at
the elite and grassroots levels.

133.Who is the author of the book titled 'The Importance of Shinzo Abe: India, Japan and the Indo-Pacific?’
A. Sanjana Gupta
B. Sandeep Sahu
C. S Jaishankar
D. Sanjaya Baru
E. Amitav Ghosh

• Shinzo Abe Prime Minister of Japan from 2006-07 and 2012-2020, was assassinated in July last year in
the western Japanese city of Nara while giving a campaign speech for the ruling Liberal Democratic
Party.
• He was the son of a former Foreign Minister, Shintaro Abe, and grandson of a former Prime Minister,
Nobusuke Kishi, who had been the first Japanese PM to visit India
• The Importance of Shinzo Abe, edited by former journalists and public policy analyst Sanjaya Baru, is a
fitting homage to the memory of the former Japanese prime minister.
• Sanjaya Baru has done signal service in bringing together experts from India and Japan to discuss Shinzo Abe’s path-breaking contribution
to global geopolitics and architecting the important Indo-Japan relations within the ambit of the concept of Indo-Pacific.
• The 16 essays by people who knew Abe or his work well makes for insightful and absorbing reading to celeb rate the statesman as much as
the geopolitical strategist. They give a sense of the void Abe has left behind.

• The book is divided into three neatly divided sections. While the first examines the domestic politics of Abe, the second is devoted to an
examination of his impact on India-Japan relations. The third examines in detail Abe’s conceptualisation of the Indo-Pacific and the Quad.

134.In August as per report __________ became the 2nd Indian woman wrestler to won a Gold medal at the 2023 U20 World Wrestling
Championships in Jordan.
A. Sanjana Gupta
B. Nitika Verma
C. Savita Kaur
D. Harshita Mor
E. Priya Malik

• Priya Malik won a Gold medal at the 2023 U20 World Wrestling Championships in Jordan.
• She became the 2nd Indian woman wrestler to win the U20 world championship.
• Last year, Antim Panghal became the first Indian woman to win a junior world title in wrestling in Sofia, Bulgaria.
• Priya is from Haryana. She defeated Laura Celine Kuehn of Germany in the women's 76kg freestyle wrestling final.
• Priya has now won both the U17 2021, and 2022 and U20 world titles.

135.Which of the following is seventh franchise of the Ultimate Table Tennis (UTT) from the 2024 edition?
A. Patna Patriots
B. Delhi Patriots
C. Bengaluru Patriots
D. Jaipur Patriots
E. Bhopal Patriots

• New franchise Jaipur Patriots will represent Pink City in the next Ultimate Table Tennis League
which will be a big boost to the region's TT fraternity.
• Ultimate Table Tennis has announced Jaipur Patriots, owned by World of Krida Pvt Ltd, as the
seventh franchise and the latest addition to the league's dynamic franchise roster.
• The franchise-based league, promoted by Niraj Bajaj and Vita Dani under the auspices of the
Table Tennis Federation of India (TTFI), successfully concluded its fourth season in July and
continues to grow in stature with the addition of another franchise.
• Jaipur Patriots will join Goa Challengers, Chennai Lions, Dabang Delhi TTC, U Mumba TT,
Bengaluru Smashers and Puneri Paltan Table Tennis for Season 5. The franchisee will extend the
league's reach to a state and enable further popularisation of the sport in the country.
• Ultimate Table Tennis has been a game-changer for Indian table tennis since its inception in
2017.
• UTT returned in July with its fourth edition after a three-year hiatus. The event, staged in Pune, saw Goa Challengers claim its maiden title.

136.In August as per report ___________has signed up as one of International Cricket Council’s (ICC) top-tier sponsors for the 2023 World Cup
in India, which will be held between October 5 and November 19.
A. Mastercard
B. Paytm
C. Tata Group
D. Reliance Industries
E. Adani Sportsilne

• Digital payments company Mastercard has signed up as one of International Cricket Council’s (ICC) top -tier sponsors for the 2023 World
Cup in India, which will be held between October 5 and November 19.
• With this, Mastercard joins ICC’s other global partners MRF Tyres, Booking.com, Aramco and Emirates.
• Mastercard will continue its rich legacy of sports sponsorships to provide unique experiences to its cardhold ers and customers through
exclusive benefits.
• Mastercard's tie-up with the ICC highlights the brand's commitment to cricket and adds to the global technology company's prestigious
international sports sponsorship portfolio which includes associations with the likes of UEFA Champions League and the PGA Tour.
• The ICC is the global governing body for cricket representing 108 members.

137.In August as per report __________ won the FIDE World Cup.
A. Magnus Carlsen
B. R Praggnanandhaa
C. D Gukesh
D. Fabiano Caruna
E. Nijjat Abbasov

• Magnus Carlsen won the FIDE World Cup for the first
time. He defeated India’s Praggnanandhaa in the final.
• After the first two classical games ended in draws,
Carlsen clinched the first tie-break. The second tie-break
ended in a draw.
• R Praggnanandhaa became the youngest player to
reach the chess World Cup final.
• He became the third youngest player after the
legendary Bobby Fischer and Carlsen to qualify for the
Candidates tournament.
• Fabiano Caruana and Nijat Abasov finished the
tournament in third and fourth spots, respectively.
• The winner get a cash prize of Rs 90,93,551 ($110k) and
the runner-up get around Rs 66,13,444 ($80k).
• In the Women's finals, Aleksandra Goryachkina won the
title by defeating Nurgyul Salimova.
• Russian Goryachkina, playing as a neutral, had been a
runner up in 2021.
• FIDE World Cup 2023 was held at Baku, Azerbaijan from
29 Jul – 25 August.

138.In August as per report __________ became the first Indian after Vishwanthan Anand to reach the semifinals of the FIDE World Cup.
A. R Praggnanandhaa
B. D Gukesh
C. Arjun Eglaisi
D. Nihil Sarin
E. Leon Modenka

• R Praggnanandhaa reach in semifinals of the FIDE World Cup.

• R Praggnanandhaa becomes the first Indian after Vishwanthan Anand to reach the
semifinals of the FIDE World Cup.

• He drew the match against his higher-ranked opponent Fabiano Caruana.

• Out of four Indians, who had made it to the quarterfinals, Praggnanandhaa only
reached the semi-final.
• Magnus Carlsen defeated Nijat Abasov in another semi-final match.
• FIDE World Cup is taking place in Baku, Azerbaijan from 30 July to 24 August 2023.

139.In August as per report India has achieved 2nd rank at the 16th International
Olympiad on Astronomy and Astrophysics (IOAA).
16th IOAA was held from the 10th to the 20th August 2023 in __________.
A. China
B. Brazil
C. Poland
D. Australia
E. Japan

• India has achieved 2nd rank at the 16th International Olympiad on Astronomy and
Astrophysics (IOAA).
• India has achieved 2nd rank with four gold and one silver medal. The United
Kingdom achieved the first rank with five golds.
• 16th IOAA was held from the 10th to the 20th August 2023 in Chorzow, Poland.
• A total of 236 students from 50 nations took part in the IOAA.
• They collectively won 27 gold, 41 silver, and 50 bronze medals across all categories.
• Prof. Surhud More from Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune, and Pritesh Ranadive from HBCSE-TIFR,
Mumbai led the Indian team.

140.In August as per report ___________ has won the gold medal in the girls' under-17 category at the Asian Junior Squash Championship.
A. Sanjana Gupta
B. Antim Phangal
C. Priya Malik
D. Savita Kumari
E. Anahat Singh

• India's Anahat Singh has won the gold medal in the girls' under -17 category at the Asian Junior
Squash Championship.
• On 20 August, Anahat won the title by defeating Hong Kong's Ena Kwong 3-1 in the final in
Dalian, China.
• Earlier, Anahat had defeated Doyce Lee of Malaysia in the quarterfinals and Whitney Isabelle
Wilson of Malaysia in the semifinals.
• This is Anahat's second gold and third medal so far.
• In 2022, she won her first gold medal in the girls' under-15 category at the Asian Junior Squash
Championships in Thailand.
• In 2019, she won the U-11 title during the British Junior Open Squash and the U -13 title in the Dutch Junior Open Squash.
• Earlier in 2023, Anahat won the British Junior Open squash under-15 category by defeating Egypt's Sohaila Hazem in the final.

141.In August as per report Spain defetaed _________ by 1-0 to become the world champion in FIFA Women World Cup in Sydney.
A. Australia

B. Germany
C. England
D. Brazil
E. Argentina

• Spain has won over England by 1-0 to become the world

champion in FIFA Women World Cup in Sydney.
• Captain Olga Carmona's strike in the 29th minute proved
decisive.
• Spain's national football team became only the second
country, after Germany, to win both the Men’s and
Women’s World Cups.
• Spain's national football team is also known as La Roja.
• The 2023 FIFA Women's World Cup was the 9th edition of
the FIFA Women's World Cup.
• It took place from 20 July to 20 August 2023. It was jointly
hosted by Australia and New Zealand.
• It was the first FIFA Women's World Cup to have more than
one host nation.
• Following in the footsteps of Germany, USA, Norway, and
Japan, Spain has now become the fifth country and the third
European nation to claim victory in the Women's World Cup
since its inception in 1991.
• Sweden defeated co-hosts Australia 2-0 in Brisbane to take
third place at the FIFA Women's World Cup 2023.
• Spain's Salma Paralluelo and Aitana Bonmati picked up
Young Player of the Tournament and Golden Ball,
respectively.
• Japan's Miyazawa Hinata picked up the Golden Boot award
with a total of five goals.
• England's Earps was awarded the Golden Glove following
her incredible campaign, including key saves in the final
against Spain.

142.In August as per report ________ was awarded Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award for 2020-21.
A. Amjad Ali Khan
B. Banasthali Vidyapith
C. Gopalkrishna Gandhi
D. Mohammad Azharuddin
E. Shubha Mudgal

• Former vice president M Hamid Ansari conferred the 25th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award for 2020-21 on Banasthali Vidyapith, a
residential institution for women in Rajasthan.
• The award was handed over to Siddhartha Shastri of the institution in the presence of Congress Parliamentary Party chairperso n Sonia
Gandhi and Congress president Mallikarjun Kharge.
• The award, instituted in 1992 to mark the golden jubilee of the Quit India Movement, is given to an individual or institution for special
contribution towards peace, communal harmony and national unity, and carries a cash reward of Rs 10 lakh and a citation.

• Siddhartha Shastri of Banasthali Vidyapith said the institution was set up in 1935 from a modest beginning of five girl stude nts in mud huts
by Pandit Hiralal Shastri, a freedom fighter who went on to become Rajasthan’s first chief minister.

Science Technology Defence And Environment

143.In August as per report the Indian Navy’s INS Vagir a Scorpene-class submarine, has been deployed to ___________ for the first time on an
extended-range mission.
A. Maldives
B. Japan
C. Australia
D. UAE
E. Saudi Arabia

• For the first time, the Indian Navy’s INS Vagir, a Scorpene-class submarine,
has been deployed to Australia on an extended-range mission.
• INS Vagir will participate in various exercises with the Royal Australian Navy
(RAN) units on the West Coast of Australia. On the country’s East coast, INS
Sahyadri and INS Kolkata and other aircraft are involved in Exercise Malabar -
23, which began August 11 and will go on till August 21.
• This is the first time that the Royal Australian Navy is hosting the exercise. It
first participated in the exercise in 2020, during the thick of the military
standoff between India and China in eastern Ladakh.
• AUSINDEX—a separate exercise between India and Australia will be held bet ween 22 and 24 August.
• It is a Kalvari-class submarine, which includes vessels, such as the INS Kalvari, INS Khanderi, INS Karanj, INS Vela and INS Vagsheer.
• It is the fifth Scorpène-class submarine.
• This class of submarines have Diesel Electric transmission systems.
• These are primarily attack submarines or ‘hunter-killer’ types which means they are designed to target and sink adversary naval vessels.
• It is built under Project-75 by the Mazgaon Docks Ltd, under technology transfer from the Naval Group of Fr ance
• INS Vagir is capable of undertaking diverse missions including anti-surface warfare, anti-submarine warfare, intelligence gathering, mine
laying and surveillance missions.
• It has advanced stealth features and is also equipped with both long-range guided torpedoes and anti-ship missiles.

144.Recently as per report India with which of the following country will launch Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX)?
A. Japan
B. China
C. Russia
D. UAE
E. Australia

• In a joint effort, the space agencies of India and Japan

are embarking on the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission
(LUPEX). This mission, slated for a 2025 launch, aims to
assess the feasibility of establishing a lunar base,
investigate the presence of water ice, and advance
surface exploration technologies.

• It is a collaborative venture between Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (I SRO).
• LUPEX will use a rover and lander to study the possibility of establishing a base on the Moon, the availability of water ice, and surface
exploration technologies.
• JAXA and ISRO are developing the rover and lander, respectively.
• The rover will carry not only the instruments of ISRO and JAXA but also those of the US space agency NASA and the European Sp ace
Agency (ESA).
• Proposed instruments onboard LUPEX:
• Ahmedabad-based Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), an autonomous unit of the Department of Space, has proposed multiple
instruments in the LUPEX mission mainly to carry out measurements on the surface and subsurface near the permanently shadowed polar
region of the Moon.
• The objective of one of the proposed instruments — Permittivity and Thermo-physical investigation for Moon’s Aquatic Scout (PRATHIMA)
— is in-situ detection and quantification of water-ice mixed with lunar surface and sub-surface soil using a rover/lander platform.
• The aim of another proposed instrument — the Lunar Electrostatic Dust EXperiment (LEDEX) — is to detect the presence of charged dust
particles and to confirm the dust levitation process in the volatile-rich polar region, and to estimate the approximate dust size and flux of
charged levitated dust particles.
• The mission will provide valuable insights into the lunar polar region and will help to pave the way for future human expl oration of the
Moon.

145.In August as per report India has become the first nation to land on the South Pole of the Moon. What is the name of the India’s Next Moon
mission which is to launched in 2025 with the help of Japan?
A. SLIM
B. BERESHEET
C. Chandrayaan 4
D. LUPEX
E. DRACO

• India has become the first nation to land on the South Pole of the Moon.
• The Vikram lander touched down perfectly near the lunar South Pole.
• ISRO Chairman S Somnath thanked everyone for their support.
• The Project Director of the Chandrayaan 3 mission P Veeramuthuvel said
that India had demonstrated its capabilities of soft landing on the Moon.
• The Mission Director M Sreekanth also thanked the whole team of ISRO.
• India has become 4th country after USSR, U.S. and China to make a soft
landing on the lunar surface.
• After the soft landing, the ISRO command centre established the
communication link between the Chandrayaan-3 Lander and Mission
Operations Complex (MOX) at ISRO Telemetry, Tracking, and Command
Network (ISTRAC), Bengaluru.
• Chandrayaan-3 is a follow-on mission to Chandrayaan-2.
• It was launched on 14 July 2023 from Satish Dhawa n Space Centre’s
Second Launch Pad in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
• Chandrayaan-3 landed on the lunar surface at around 6:04 pm on 23 August 2023. It has a mission life of one lunar day (14 Earth Days).
• The mission objectives of Chandrayaan-3 are: To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on the Lunar Surface.
• To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon.
• To conduct in-situ scientific experiments.
• Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX) is a joint mission of the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and the Indian Sp ace
Research Organisation (ISRO).
• JAXA is developing a rover while a lander is being
developed by ISRO.

• The rover will carry not only the

instruments of ISRO and JAXA but
also the instruments of US space
agency NASA and the European
Space Agency (ESA).
• The main aim of LUPEX mission is
to explore the lunar polar region's
suitability for establishing a base
on the Moon for sustainable
activities.
• It will also collect information
about the availability of lunar
water-ice resources and
demonstrate lunar surface
exploration technologies.
• Ahmedabad-based Physical
Research Laboratory (PRL) has
proposed many instruments for
the LUPEX mission to carry out
measurements on the surface and
subsurface near the polar region.
• Permittivity and Thermo-physical
investigation for Moon's Aquatic
Scout (PRATHIMA) instrument will
be part of this mission.

146.Consider the following statement regarding INS Vindhyagiri. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. President Droupadi Murmu launched INS Vindhyagiri, the last in the series of three Project 17A (Alpha) frigates.
2. It was built by the Indian Navy at Kolkata-based Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE).
3. Project 17A Frigates are the follow-on class of the Project 17 (Shivalik Class) Frigates
4. Only 1 and 2
5. All of the above are correct

• President Droupadi Murmu launched the advanced stealth frigate ‘Vindhyagiri’ for the Indian Navy in Kolkata.
• The ship was built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd’s (GRSE) facility at Kolkata.
• Stealth frigate Vindhyagiri is the sixth vessel rolled out as part of the Project 17A Frigate.
• The five other ships – INS Nilgiri, Udaygiri, Himgiri, Taragiri, and Dunagiri – were launched between 2019 and
2022.
• The P17A ships are guided missile frigates.
• They are 149 metres long, with a displacement of approximately 6,670 tonnes and a speed of 28 knots.
• These ships are capable of neutralising threats in all three dimensions of air, surface and sub -surface.
• Project 17 Alpha frigates (P-17A) were launched by the Indian Navy in 2019.
• Project 17A Frigates are the follow-on class of the Project 17 (Shivalik Class) Frigates, with improved stealth
features, advanced weapons and sensors and platform management systems.
• The project was launched by the defence forces of India to construct a series of stealth guided -missile frigates.
• These frigates are currently being constructed by two companies - Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders (MDL) and Garden
Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE).
• Under Project 17A program, a total of four ships by MDL and three ships by GRSE are under construction.
• The project's first five ships have been launched by MDL and GRSE, between 2019 -2022.
• The first stealth ship launched under Project 17A was the Nilgiri, which was launched in 2019.
• Udaygiri, the second ship, was launched in May 2022.
• Project 17A ships have been designed in-house by Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau WDB.
• Aligning with country's resolute commitment to Aatma Nirbharta, a substantial 75% of the orders for equipment
and systems of Project 17A ships are from indigenous firms, including Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises
MSMEs.

147.In August as per report ___________ launched the mobile application ‘FloodWatch’ that gives information related
to the flood situation and forecasts up to 7 days on a real-time basis to the public.
A. India Meteorological Department
B. National Institute of Ocean Technology
C. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
D. Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services
E. Central Water Commission

• Recently, the Chairman of Central Water Commission (CWC) launched the mobile application, "FloodWatch.
• This app gives information related to the flood situation and forecasts up to 7 days on a real-time basis to the public.
• The in-house developed user-friendly app has readable and audio broadcast and all the information is available in 2
languages, viz. English and Hindi.
• Other feature of the app includes real-time flood monitoring where users can check up-to-date flood situation
throughout the country.
• The app utilizes near real-time river flow data from various sources.
• The app also provides flood forecast at nearest location where users can check the flood advisory at the station nearest to t hem on the
Home Page itself.
• The app will also provide State-wise/Basin-wise Flood Forecast (up to 24 hours) or Flood Advisory (up to 7 days) which can be accessed by
selecting specific stations, state wise or basin wise from the dropdown menu.
• Central Water Commission is a premier Technical Organization of India in the field of Water Resources.
• It is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and
Ganga Rejuvenation.

148.In August as per report ___________ commenced the process of integrating its cutting-edge Agnibaan SubOrbital Technological
Demonstrator (SOrTeD) at its private launchpad at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR in Sriharikota.
A. Skyroot
B. Pixxel
C. DRDO
D. ISRO
E. AgniKul Cosmos

• Chennai-based start-up AgniKul Cosmos recently commenced the process of integrating its
cutting-edge Agnibaan SubOrbital Technological Demonstrator (SOrTeD) at its private
launchpad at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR in Sriharikota.
• Agnibaan SOrTeD is a single-stage launch vehicle powered by AgniKul’s patented Agnilet
engine, which is an entirely 3D-printed, single-piece, 6 kilonewton (kN) semi-cryogenic
engine.
• Unlike traditional sounding rockets that launch from guide rails, Agnibaan SOrTeD will lift
off vertically and follow a predetermined trajectory to perform a precisely orchestrated set
of manoeuvres during flight.
• It is a customisable launch vehicle that could be launched in one or two stages.
• The rocket stands 18 metres tall and has a mass of 14,000 kg.
• It is capable of carrying payloads up to 100 kg to an altitude of 700 km in five different
configurations.
• The rocket's first stage could have up to seven Agnilet engines, depending on the mission,
which are powered by Liquid Oxygen and Kerosene.
• The rocket is also designed for launch from more than 10 different launch ports.
• To ensure its compatibility with multiple launch ports, AgniKul has built a launch pedestal
named 'Dhanush' that will support the rocket's mobility across all its configurations.
• The Agnilet engine, which powers the entire operation, is t he world’s sole single-piece 3D-printed engine.

149.In August as per report Central Government has approved the construction of __________ fleet support ships (abbreviated FSS) worth Rs.
20,000 crore.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6

D. 7
E. 8

• Central Government has approved the construction of five fleet support

ships (abbreviated FSS) worth Rs. 20,000 crore.
• The vessels will help replenish naval warships at sea by supplying items like
ammunition, fuel, and food.
• The five FSS will be constructed by state-run, Visakhapatnam-based
Hindustan Shipyard Limited (abbreviated the HSL).
• The approval came through following repeated delays of over nine years.
The FSS project was first proposed back in 2014.
• However, the project also encountered continuous delays.
• First of all, owing to the significant differences between the HSL and the
Korean design consultant firm Hyundai Heavy Industries, and secondly, with
the
• Turkey-based shipyard TAIS owing to Turkey’s stance on Jammu and
Kashmir following the amendment in Article 370.
• The project is expected to generate thousands of new job opportunities
over an extended phase and boost the capabilities of all industries aligned
with the assignment, per the report.
• Each ship will weigh about 45,000 tons and be successfully delivered in eight years.

150.In August as per report ____________ has developed India’s first indigenous e-tractor ‘CSIR Prima ET11’ which was launched by Union
Minister of State for Science and Technology Dr. Jitendra Singh.
A. Sonalika Tractors
B. Mahindra and Mahindra Tractors
C. IIT Kanpur
D. CMERI, Durgapur
E. IIT Madras

• India’s first indigenous e-tractor ‘CSIR Prima ET11’ has been developed by the Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute (CMERI),
Durgapur. Union Minister of State for Science and Technology Dr.
• Jitendra Singh launched this e-tractor developed by Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute- Central Mechanical Engineering
Research Institute, Durgapur.
• Dr Jitendra Singh gave the mantra of ‘5 S’- showcasing, stakeholders, startups, synergising and strategising industry linkage, for the
success of R&D conducted at government-run scientific laboratories.
• On the occasion, Dr Jitendra Singh released a book by CSIR-CIMAP and a compendium on 75 technologies developed by CSIR. The Minister
took keen interest in the CMERI developed recycling vehicles and products.
• The CSIR-CMERI will be celebrating the theme-based campaign “One Week One Lab” from 11-15 September 2023, showcasing the
laboratory's cutting-edge research, products and technologies, expertise and facilities to various stakeholders.
• E-tractor refers to an electric tractor. It is also used like a normal tractor for pulling or pushing heavy loads, plowing the fields a nd doing
various farm work. This tractor is powered by electricity, which is usually stored in a battery.

151.What was the name of the Russian spacecraft that crashed into the moon and Russia’s Moon mission failed?
A. Explorer 1
B. Soyuz-2
C. Spektr-R

D. Sputnik 1
E. Luna-25

• Luna-25 spacecraft of Russia crashed into the moon and

Russia’s Moon mission failed.
• The Luna-25 spacecraft suffered an accident shortly after
completing a vital manoeuvre in preparation for landing.
• The Russian space agency Roscosmos said on August 19, it
was planned to issue an impulse to form its pre-landing
elliptical orbit.
• It said the communication with the Luna-25 spacecraft
was interrupted.
• Roscosmos said the measures taken on August 19 and 20
to search for the device and get in contact with it did not
give any results.
• A specially formed interdepartmental commission will deal
with the issues of clarifying the reasons for the loss.
• It was to land near the lunar South Pole at the crater Boguslawsky. It was a Russian lunar lander mission by Roscosmos.
• It lifted off on 10 August 2023 atop a Soyuz-2.1b rocket from the Vostochny Cosmodrome.

152.In August as per report __________ successfully test-fired ASTRA at an altitude of about 20 thousand feet near the coast of Goa.
A. Rafale
B. Sukhoi -30
C. C 17 –GlobeMaster
D. Mirage 2000
E. Tejas

• Light Combat Aircraft Tejas successfully test-fired ASTRA at an altitude of about 20 thousand feet.
• The ASTRA indigenous Beyond Visual Range air-to-air missile has been successfully fired off the
coast from Goa.
• The missile was fired from the aircraft at an altitude of about 20 thousand feet.
• All objectives of the test have been achieved. It was the perfect launch.
• This test is a step towards overcoming potential future sanctions due to geopolitical ramifications
on arms trade.
• This launch would enhance the combat capabilities of Tejas and reduce dependency on imported
weapons.
• Indian Air Force has already successfully integrated the ASTRA missile with the Sukhoi 30 -MKI
combat aircraft.
• ASTRA is an air-to-air missile and is capable of destroying highly manoeuvring supersonic aerial
targets.
• The range for Astra Mk-1 is around 110 km. The Mk-2 with a range over 150 km is under
development and Mk-3 version with a longer range is being envisaged.
• It is designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Laboratory, Research
Centre Imarat and other laboratories of DRDO.

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