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Exam

Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) If you are deciding between personal interviews or computer-assisted interviewing, you are at 1)
which step of the questionnaire design process?
A) Specify the type of interviewing method.
B) Determine the content of individual questions.
C) Eliminate bugs by pretesting.
D) Arrange the questions in proper order.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

2) "Do you like to fly when traveling short distances?" is an example of a(n) ________. 2)
A) implicit assumption B) generalization
C) implicit alternative D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

3) Most "why" questions about the use of a product or choice alternative involve two aspects: 3)
________ and ________.
A) attributes of the product; influences leading to knowledge of the product
B) how the product is used; influences leading to knowledge of the product
C) attributes of the product; how the product is used
D) none of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

4) The type of method influences questionnaire design. Considering how the questionnaire is 4)
administered under each method, which method is most appropriate if lengthy, complex, and
varied questions need to be asked?
A) personal interview B) mail questionnaire
C) Internet questionnaire D) telephone interview
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

1
5) "Are you in favor of a balanced budget?" is an example of a(n) ________. 5)
A) implicit alternative B) generalization
C) implicit assumption D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

6) ________ is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, and 6)
phone number.
A) Qualifying information B) Identification information
C) Basic information D) Classification information
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

7) Which of the following statements is true about difficult questions? 7)

A) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the identification section.
B) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the classification section.
C) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the section on basic information.
D) All of the statements are correct.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

8) Which of the following is not a type of structured question? 8)

A) dichotomous B) scale
C) multiple choice D) open-ended
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

9) ________ is information that relates directly to the research problem. 9)

A) Qualifying information B) Identification information
C) Basic information D) Classification information
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

2
10) ________ specify the set of response alternatives and the response format. 10)
A) Structured questions B) Filter questions
C) Unstructured questions D) Branching questions
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

11) Which of the following is not an objective of a questionnaire? 11)

A) A questionnaire must translate the information needed into a set of specific questions that the
respondents can and will answer.
B) A questionnaire should minimize response error.
C) A questionnaire must uplift, motivate, and encourage the respondent to become involved in
the interview, to cooperate, and to complete the interview.
D) A questionnaire must be easy to use.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

12) Respondents' inability to remember leads to three types of error. Which of the errors listed below is 12)
not mentioned in the text as one of the types of errors created by respondents?
A) recall error B) creation error C) omission error D) telescoping
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

13) ________ are questions used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the interviewer 13)
to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.
A) Opening questions B) Multiple choice questions
C) Leading questions D) Branching questions
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

3
14) Which statement is not true about pretests? 14)
A) To the extent possible, a pretest should involve administering the questionnaire in an
environment and context similar to that of the actual survey.
B) The project director, the researcher who developed the questionnaire, and other key members
of the research team should conduct some pretest interviews.
C) A variety of interviewers should be used for pretests.
D) It is a good practice to employ only experienced interviewers to conduct pretests.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

15) Which of the words below is an ambiguous word? 15)

A) often B) once
C) never D) none of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

16) The respondents' ability to remember an event is influenced by all of the following except________. 16)
A) the event itself
B) where you were when the event occurred
C) the time elapsed since the event
D) the presence or absence of events that would aid memory
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

17) Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives? 17)
A) The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of alternatives
appear.
B) Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people selecting that
alternative.
C) When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives at the end of the
list have a greater chance of being selected.
D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

4
18) Which of the following is not a part of the questionnaire design process? 18)
A) Arrange questions in proper order. B) Specify the type of interviewing method.
C) Develop sampling plan. D) Reproduce the questionnaire.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

19) Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one are decisions 19)
involved with ________.
A) determining the order of scales B) individual question content
C) choosing question wording D) choosing question structure
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

20) What is the one acute problem of dichotomous questions? 20)

A) The response can be influenced by the wording of the question.
B) There is potential for position bias.
C) It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
D) none of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

21) The information that is of the most importance to the research project and should be obtained first 21)
is ________.
A) qualifying information B) identification information
C) basic information D) classification information
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

22) When developing questionnaire questions, if you are considering order position bias and the set of 22)
all possible response alternatives, you are developing ________ questions.
A) multiple choice B) branching
C) scale D) dichotomous
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

5
23) Typically, a questionnaire is only one element of a data-collection package that might also include 23)
all of the following except ________.
A) a data code book B) some reward
C) fieldwork procedures D) communication aids
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

24) Which of the following statements are true concerning questionnaire design for international 24)
marketing research?
A) Unstructured or open-ended questions should be used with caution in countries with high
illiteracy rates.
B) The questionnaire may have to be suitable for administration by more than one method.
C) It is desirable to have two or more simple questions rather than a single complex question.
D) All of the above statements are true.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

25) When developing a questionnaire, to ensure that the information obtained fully addresses all 25)
components of the problem, the researcher should ________.
A) have a clear idea of the target population
B) review components of the problem and the approach
C) prepare a set of dummy tables
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

26) ________ is socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to classify respondents. 26)
A) Qualifying information B) Identification information
C) Basic information D) Classification information
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

6
27) When determining if a question is necessary, in some situations it may be necessary to ask 27)
questions that are not directly related to the information that is needed. Which of the reasons stated
below were given in your text as reasons why questions not related to the information needed
might be included in the questionnaire?
A) to disguise the purpose or sponsorship of the project
B) to establish involvement and rapport
C) to generate client support for the project
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

28) "Describe your college experience" and "What is your occupation?" are ________ questions. 28)
A) structured B) unstructured C) filter D) dichotomous
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

29) Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions? 29)
A) Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research.
B) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.
C) Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured
questions.
D) Unstructured questions are good as first questions on a topic.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

30) Which of the following statements is not true about unstructured questions? 30)
A) Unstructured questions can suffer from order or position bias.
B) Open-ended questions are useful as opening questions.
C) Precoding can overcome some of the disadvantages of unstructured questions.
D) Open-ended questions are useful in exploratory research.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

7
31) ________ is the translation of the desired question content and structure into words that 31)
respondents can clearly and easily understand.
A) The questionnaire design process
B) Overcoming inability to answer
C) Question wording
D) Determining the content of individual questions
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

32) All of the statements below are ways in which the researcher can encourage respondents to provide 32)
information they are unwilling to give except ________.
A) use randomized techniques
B) preface the question with a statement that the behavior of interest is common
C) provide response categories rather than asking for specific figures
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

33) Observational forms should specify the who, what, and when of the behavior to be observed. The 33)
forms should also specify all of the items below except ________.
A) where B) way C) whether D) why
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

34) Which statement is correct concerning the effect on subsequent questions? 34)
A) The inverted funnel approach is particularly useful when information has to be obtained
about respondents' general choice behavior and their evaluations of specific products.
B) The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings or have not
formulated a point of view.
C) As a rule of thumb, general questions should precede specific questions to prevent specific
questions from biasing responses to general questions.
D) All are correct.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

8
35) The great weakness of questionnaire design is lack of ________. 35)
A) accuracy B) precision C) theory D) consensus
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

36) When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why, and way) are used 36)
when ________.
A) choosing question wording
B) determining the content of individual questions
C) defining the issue
D) avoiding generalizations and estimates
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

37) Choosing between the questions "Do you think the distribution of soft drinks is adequate?" 37)
(Incorrect) and "Do you think soft drinks are readily available when you want to buy them?"
(Correct) are examples of situations that pertain to ________.
A) using ordinary words B) avoiding ambiguous words
C) using positive and negative statements D) avoiding leading questions
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

38) When developing a questionnaire, the following guidelines: (1) use positive and negative 38)
statements, (2) avoid implicit alternatives, and (3) avoid leading questions, are used when
________.
A) determining the content of individual questions
B) choosing question wording
C) designing questions to overcome the respondent's inability to answer
D) arranging questions in proper order
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

9
39) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of structured questions? 39)
A) Coding and processing of data are much less costly and time consuming.
B) Showing respondents the list of possible answers produces biased responses.
C) Considerable effort is required to design effective multiple choice questions.
D) It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

40) A(n) ________ is a question that gives the respondent a clue as to what answer is desired or leads 40)
the respondent to answer in a certain way.
A) filter question B) implicit alternative
C) structured question D) leading question
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

41) "Is the respondent informed?" and "Can the respondent remember?" and "Can the respondent 41)
articulate?" are all questions asked in the ________ stage of the questionnaire design process.
A) choosing question wording B) specify the type of interviewing method
C) overcoming unwillingness to answer D) overcoming inability to answer
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

42) ________ that measure familiarity, product use, and past experience should be asked before 42)
questions about the topics themselves.
A) Branching questions B) Dichotomous questions
C) Filler questions D) Filter questions
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

43) ________ refer to open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words. 43)
A) Branching questions B) Dichotomous questions
C) Structured questions D) Unstructured questions
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

10
44) A(n) ________ describes how the analysis will be structured once the data have been collected. 44)
A) dummy table B) dummy plan
C) analysis table D) none of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

45) When trying to overcome respondents' unwillingness to answer, the researcher might list the 45)
possible responses a respondent might make. More specifically, the list is an effort by the
researcher to ________.
A) obtain sensitive information
B) increasing the unwillingness of respondents
C) reduce the effort required of the respondents
D) put the information request in context
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

46) When developing a questionnaire, if the researcher is asking him/herself if the word means what 46)
he/she intended; if it has any other meanings; if the word has more than one pronunciation; or if a
simpler phrase is suggested, then he/she is probably concerned with ________.
A) avoiding ambiguous words B) using defining the issue
C) avoiding leading questions D) using ordinary words
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

47) "Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?" is an example of a ________. 47)
A) branching question B) double-barreled question
C) structured question D) dichotomous question
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

11
48) The first step in the questionnaire design process is ________. 48)
A) determine the content of individual questions
B) specify the information needed
C) identify the form and layout
D) specify the type of interview method
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

49) Which of the following is not a reason why a respondent might be unwilling to answer a particular 49)
question?
A) The situation or context may not seem appropriate for disclosure.
B) The respondent may not be informed.
C) Too much effort is required.
D) No legitimate purpose or need for the information requested is apparent.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

50) Which of the following practices should be avoided when reproducing the questionnaire? 50)
A) Surveys directed at different respondent groups can be reproduced on different colored
paper.
B) Directions or instructions should be placed as close to the questions as possible.
C) Sideways formatting and splitting should be done to conserve space.
D) If the printed questionnaire runs to several pages, it should take the form of a booklet.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

51) A ________ is a single question that attempts to cover two issues. 51)
A) double-barreled question B) branching question
C) dichotomous question D) structured question
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

12
 52) ________ is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the purpose of 52)
improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems.
A) Posttesting B) Funneling C) Telescoping D) Pretesting
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

53) The statement "Questions should be specific, not general." pertains to the ________ aspect of 53)
questionnaire development.
A) use unambiguous words B) avoid implicit alternatives
C) avoid generalizations and estimates D) avoid implicit assumptions
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

54) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of unstructured questions? 54)
A) Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured
questions.
B) Coding of responses is costly and time consuming.
C) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.
D) Unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

55) "What is your occupation?" is a free-answer question. 55)

Answer: True False
Explanation:

56) Two apparently similar ways of posing a question always yield the same information. 56)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

57) Dichotomous questions cannot have neutral alternatives such as "don't know" or "no opinion." 57)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

58) To minimize discomfort, it should be made clear at the beginning of the interview that respondents 58)
are not obligated to answer a question that makes them uncomfortable.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

13
59) The steps in the questionnaire design process are interrelated and the development of a 59)
questionnaire will involve some iteration and looping.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

60) When developing questions, the researcher should avoid leading questions like "What is your 60)
favorite brand of toothpaste?"
Answer: True False
Explanation:

61) A principal disadvantage of unstructured questions is that potential for interviewer bias is high. 61)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

62) Respondents may be unwilling to answer a particular question because too much effort is required 62)
or they may not remember the information that is being asked.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

63) Questions such as "What did you have for lunch a week ago?" are correct questions because 63)
consumers are very good at remembering quantities of products consumed.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

64) The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings or have not 64)
formulated a point of view.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

65) Another name for questionnaire is schedule instrument. 65)

Answer: True False
Explanation:

66) Respondents may not be able to respond because they are unable to articulate a response, they may 66)
not be informed, or they may not remember.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

67) Opening questions should be used to get at the purpose of the questionnaire quickly. 67)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

68) Respondents with responses that are difficult to articulate should be given aids such as pictures, 68)
maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

14
69) All aspects of the questionnaire should be tested, including question content, wording, sequence, 69)
form and layout, question difficulty, and instructions.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

70) All questions on a questionnaire should contribute to the information needed or serve some specific 70)
purpose.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

71) There is evidence that the response to a question is influenced by the directionality of the question. 71)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

72) The inverted funnel is a strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the sequence 72)
starts with the general questions that are followed by progressively specific questions in order to
prevent specific questions from biasing general questions.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

73) The more diversified the respondent group, the more difficult it is to design a single questionnaire 73)
that is appropriate for the entire group.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

74) In questionnaire design, assigning a code to every conceivable response before data collection is 74)
called pre-coding.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

75) Information should be obtained in the following order: basic, identification, classification. 75)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

76) Qualifying questions should not serve as opening questions. 76)

Answer: True False
Explanation:

77) Protocol analysis and debriefing are two commonly used procedures in pretesting. 77)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

78) A questionnaire is a major source of response error. 78)

Answer: True False
Explanation:

15
79) A "don't know" option does not appear to reduce uninformed responses without reducing the 79)
overall response rate or the response rate for questions about which the respondents have
information.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

80) A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the response rate. 80)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

81) Filter questions enable the researcher to filter out respondents who are not adequately informed. 81)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

82) A principal disadvantage of structured questions is that potential for interviewer bias is high. 82)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

83) Information on demographic characteristics such as marital status, education, household size, 83)
occupation, income, and dwelling unit may have to be specified differently for different countries,
as these variables may not be directly comparable across countries.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

84) The responses obtained from the pretest should be coded and analyzed. 84)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

85) The questionnaire or research instrument should be biased in terms of the country in which it will 85)
be used.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

86) Creation error is the inability to recall an event that actually took place. 86)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

87) Respondents that are unwilling to give responses should be given aids such as pictures, maps, and 87)
descriptions to help them articulate their responses.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

88) A questionnaire is an informal set of questions for obtaining information from respondents. 88)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

89) The researcher has the ethical responsibility of designing the questionnaire so as to obtain the 89)
required information in a biased manner.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

16
 90) Unstructured questions reduce cultural bias because they do not impose any response alternatives. 90)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

91) Pretests are best done by personal interviews, even if the actual survey is to be conducted by mail, 91)
telephone, or electronic means.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

92) Omission error takes place when a respondent "remembers" and event that did not actually occur. 92)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

93) Observational forms and questionnaires require adequate pretesting. 93)

Answer: True False
Explanation:

94) Respondents exhibiting order or position bias tend to check the first or last statement in a list. 94)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

95) A standardized questionnaire or form will ensure comparability of the data, increase speed and 95)
accuracy of recording, and facilitate data processing.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

96) Choosing question structure is probably the most difficult task in developing a questionnaire. 96)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

97) To control for order bias, several forms of the questionnaire should be prepared with the order in 97)
which alternatives are listed varied from form to form.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

98) Forms for recording observational data are more difficult to construct than questionnaires. 98)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

99) Free-response questions are good as first questions on a topic. 99)

Answer: True False
Explanation:

100) The researcher can manipulate the context in which the questions are asked so that the questions 100)
seem appropriate.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

17
 101) Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should not be drawn from the same 101)
population.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

102) Respondents do not answer questions on which they are not informed. 102)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

103) An alternative that is not explicitly expressed in the options is an explicit alternative. 103)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

104) Mentioning the sponsor of a project in the question might bias the respondent towards the sponsor. 104)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

105) Omission, telescoping, and creation are errors that may occur if the respondent has a problem 105)
remembering the information asked in the questionnaire.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

106) Sensitive topics should be placed at the beginning of the questionnaire to get the difficult questions 106)
over with.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

107) Research indicates that questions that rely on unaided recall can underestimate the actual 107)
occurrence of an event.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

108) What criteria should the researcher use when deciding whether to use a neutral alternative with dichotomous
questions?
Answer: If a neutral alternative is not included, respondents are forced to choose between "yes" and "no" even if
they feel indifferent. On the other hand, if a neutral alternative is included, respondents can avoid taking
a position on the issue, thereby biasing the results. The following guidelines are offered: If a substantial
proportion of the respondents can be expected to be neutral, include a neutral alternative. If the
proportion of neutral respondents is expected to be small, avoid the neutral alternative.

18
109) What techniques can the researcher use when trying to overcome a respondent's inability to answer?
Answer: · To determine if respondents are informed, filter questions should be used to measure familiarity,
product use, and past experience. The filter questions should be asked before questions about the topics
themselves. A "don't know" option reduces uninformed responses without reducing overall response rate
for questions. Hence, this option should be provided when the researcher expects that respondents may
not be adequately informed about the subject of the question.
· To help the respondent remember, researchers should provide respondents with aids such as
pictures, maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.
· To help the respondent articulate responses, the researcher should provide the respondent various
alternative descriptions of the area of interest so that the respondent could pick out the one they like best.

110) If a researcher were trying to overcome the unwillingness of respondents to answer by considering the effort
required of the respondents, what might he/she do to make the respondent more willing to respond? Develop
an example question (showing the incorrect and correct way to best overcome the respondents unwillingness to
answer) to clarify your response.
Answer: The researcher should minimize the effort required by providing lists of options for respondents to check
off instead of asking respondents to provide their own list. (The student should provide his/her own
supporting example like the department store example given in Chapter 10.)

111) Pretesting refers to the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents to identify and eliminate
potential problems. Discuss what the researcher expects to gain from pretesting the questionnaire.
Answer: All aspects of the questionnaire should be tested. Subsequent pretests done after changes are made from
an initial pretest should reveal problems peculiar to the interviewing method. The project director, the
researcher who developed the questionnaire, and other key members of the research team should
conduct some pretest interviews to gain a feel for potential problems and the nature of expected data.
Experienced interviewers can easily perceive uneasiness, confusion, and resistance in the respondents.
New interviewers can help the researcher identify interviewer-related problems. Analysis of pretest
responses can serve as a check on the adequacy of the problem definition and the data and the analysis
required to obtain the necessary information. Analysis of pretest data helps to ensure that all data
collected will be utilized and that the questionnaire will obtain all the necessary data.

19
112) Discuss at least three things that the researcher who is developing a questionnaire can do to increase the
willingness of the respondent to answer.
Answer: Using the following techniques may encourage respondents to provide information that they are
unwilling to give:
· Place sensitive topics at the end of the questionnaire. By then, initial mistrust has been overcome,
rapport has been created, legitimacy of the project has been established, and respondents are more
willing to give information.
· Preface the question with a statement that the behavior of interest is common. For example, before
requesting information on credit card debt, say, "Recent studies show that most Americans are in debt."
This technique is called the use of counter-biasing statements.
· Ask the question using the third-person technique; phrase the question as if it referred to other
people.
· Hide the question in a group of other questions that respondents are willing to answer. The entire list
of questions can then be asked quickly.
· Provide response categories rather than asking for specific figures. Do not ask, "What is your
household's annual income?" Instead, ask the respondent to check the appropriate income category:
under $25,000, $25,001-$50,000, $50,001-$75,000, or over $75,000. In personal interviews, give the
respondents cards that list the numbered choices. The respondents then indicate their responses by
number.
· Use randomized techniques. In these techniques, respondents are presented with two questions, one
sensitive and the other a neutral question with a known probability of a "yes" response (e.g., "Is your
birthday in March?") They are asked to select one question randomly, for example by flipping a coin. The
respondent then answers the selected question "yes" or "no," without telling the researcher which
question is being answered. Given the overall probability of a "yes" response, the probability of selecting
the sensitive question, and the probability of a "yes" response to the neutral question, the researcher can
determine the probability of a "yes" response to the sensitive question using the law of probability.
However, the researcher cannot determine which respondents have answered "yes" to the sensitive
question.

113) What are the guidelines for the placement of branching questions?
Answer: Placement of branching questions is important and the following guidelines should be followed: (1) the
question being branched (the one to which the respondent is being directed) should be placed as close as
possible to the question causing the branching, and (2) the branching questions should be ordered so that
the respondents cannot anticipate what additional information will be required. Otherwise, the
respondents may discover that they can avoid detailed questions by giving certain answers to branching
questions.

20
Another random document with
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 Fig. 42. A transsection through the posterior region of the œsophagus of the
hibernating animal, under low magnification; e, epithelium; cm, circular muscles;
lm, longitudinal muscles; mm, muscularis mucosa; sm, submucosa; s, serosa.

In the posterior region of the œsophagus, as may be seen by

comparison of figures 41 and 42, the wall as a whole is about one
third thicker than in the anterior region just described, though how
much of this difference is due to different degrees of distension or
contraction it is hard to say.
The epithelium, e, is in the tissue studied thrown into less
complicated folds than in the anterior region, and is not so thick.
The submucosa, sm, if the entire layer may be so called, has
about the same thickness and structure as in the more anterior
region; but instead of the small and widely scattered bundles of
longitudinal muscle fibers there is a distinct layer of muscle which
may be called the muscularis mucosa, mm, lying about midway
between the epithelium and the circular muscle layer.
The muscularis mucosa is somewhat variable in thickness and is
thrown into folds that correspond to the larger folds of the epithelium
and the submucosa; one of these folds is shown in Figure 42. The
fibers of the muscularis mucosa are apparently all longitudinal in
position.
Outside of the submucosa is a layer of circular muscle fibers, cm;
it is here somewhat wider and more dense than in the anterior
region.
The longitudinal muscle layer (Fig. 42, lm) is much wider and more
compact than in the anterior region. The fibers are indistinctly divided
into large irregular masses as shown in the figure.
The serosa (Fig. 42, s) is a varying but fairly thick layer that is
quite distinct from the longitudinal muscle layer. It consists of the
usual connective tissue groundwork with scattered blood-vessels.
The epithelium, as was said above, is thicker and somewhat more
folded in the anterior than in the posterior region, and in the former
region is partially ciliated while in the latter cilia are entirely wanting.
With these exceptions the epithelium is practically the same in the
two regions.
 Figure 43 represents the epithelium from the anterior region as
seen under high magnification. The outlines of all the cells could not
be determined but if each nucleus represents a cell there are twenty-
five or thirty layers of cells. The nuclei are arranged in two dense,
irregular groups, one along the base of the epithelium, the other
about two thirds of the distance from the base to the free border. The
basal nuclei are perhaps slightly larger and more rounded than those
of the distal group. Between these two groups are numerous more
scattered nuclei; while scattered through the epithelium, except near
the free border, are smaller, round nuclei that stain somewhat darker
than the rest; these, from their size and appearance, seem possibly
to belong to an invisible network of connective tissue that has
penetrated the epithelium from the surrounding mucosa.
 Fig. 43. The epithelium of the anterior region of the œsophagus of the
hibernating animal, under high magnification.

The free border of the epithelium consists of long, ciliated,

columnar cells in which the cell walls may be easily seen. The cilia
are of average length and even in this anterior region are not
everywhere present; possibly they are arranged in bands, but the
material at hand was not sufficient to determine this. As was noted
above, cilia are wanting in the posterior region.
The only differences noted in the anterior region of the
œsophagus between the feeding and the hibernating conditions are
in the muscularis mucosa and the epithelium. As was noted above,
the muscularis mucosa is practically absent in the hibernating stage,
being represented only by a few small, scattered bundles of
longitudinal muscle fibers; while in the feeding stage there is a
narrow but fairly distinct layer to represent the muscularis mucosa.
 Fig. 44. The epithelium of the anterior region of the œsophagus of
the feeding animal, under high magnification.

The difference in the appearance of the epithelium is not striking.

The nuclei are somewhat larger in the feeding stage and, instead of
being crowded into a basal and a median zone, as noted in the
hibernating conditions, they form a dense basal zone, but show no
indication of medial zone. From the dense basal zone the nuclei
become more scattered towards the free surface and are rarely
found closer to the surface than is shown in Figure 44. The smaller
nuclei scattered among the larger ones, noted in connection with the
hibernating stage, are not here seen.
As in the hibernating stage cilia are present on some but not all
cells of this region.
The only noticeable difference between the feeding and
hibernating conditions of the posterior region of the œsophagus is in
the epithelium, which, as in the feeding condition of the anterior
œsophagus, exhibits but one zone of closely set nuclei, that at the
base of the epithelium.
The Stomach. The stomach was sectioned in three regions, as
shown in Figure 35: (1) in the cardiac region very near the opening
of the œsophagus; (2) in the middle or fundic region; and (3) in the
region near the opening of the pylorus. The first two sections are in
the first or large region of the stomach; the third section is in the
second or small region of the stomach (Fig. 35).
The wall as a whole is thickest in the fundus, being there
practically twice as thick as in the pyloric and half again as thick as in
the cardiac region. This great thickening is due mainly to a
thickening of the middle or oblique layer of muscle, which is here
remarkably developed. The mucosa is of nearly uniform thickness in
the different regions and will be described later.
Since there is no striking difference beside that of thickness in the
general structure of the wall of the different regions, the pyloric
region, as seen under low magnification, will now be described (Fig.
45).
 The mucosa, m, consists of fairly long glands underlaid by a well-
marked muscularis mucosa, mm, the latter exhibiting a compact
circular layer over a wider but more scattered layer of longitudinal
fibers. A considerable amount of fibrous connective tissue lies
among the muscle fibers. The circular layer of the muscularis
mucosa sends towards the surface numerous strands or septa
between the glands; six or eight of these are seen in the figure.
These strands are not nearly so numerous in the large region of the
stomach. As was said, the outer or longitudinal layer of the
muscularis mucosa is wider but less compact than the circular and
its bundles of fibers are seen in the figure as a layer of large,
scattered dots just beneath the circular layer.
The submucosa, sm, is of average thickness and density. In the
fundic and cardiac regions it seems to extend between the circular
and oblique layers; at any rate, there is a considerable layer of
connective tissue between these two muscular layers.
The circular muscular layer, cm, is of only moderate thickness and
is of rather a loose character. In the pyloric region it is not very
distinct from the underlying oblique layer, but in the other regions, as
has just been said, it is separated from the oblique layer by a
considerable layer of connective tissue like that of the submucosa.
The oblique layer, om, even in this section of the pyloric region is
the thickest of the three muscle layers; while in the cardiac, and
especially in the fundic, regions it is of great thickness, as was noted
above, and is made up of larger bundles with less intervening
connective tissue.
 Fig. 45. A transsection through the wall of the
pyloric region of the stomach of the feeding animal,
under low magnification; m, mucosa; om, oblique
muscles; other letters as in Figure 42.
 The outer or longitudinal muscle layer, lm, is comparatively little
developed and consists of small rather scattered bundles of muscles
with a correspondingly large amount of connective tissue. This
connective tissue passes insensibly into that of the surrounding
serosa, s, a loose, vascular layer of varying thickness and density,
shown very thick in Figure 45, but often much thinner.
So far as could be determined, the mucous membrane has the
same structure in both anterior and middle regions of the stomach.
That of the pyloric or small region, although fixed, stained, et cetera,
just as carefully as the rest, did not show cell details sufficiently well
to draw; the ducts of the glands in this region are fairly distinct but
the deeper parts of the glands have the appearance of series of
alveoli or large adipose cells. What the significance of this condition
may be the writer is not able to say, but since the structure of this
region of the gastric mucous membrane is not clear no attempt will
be made to describe its appearance under higher magnification than
was employed in the figure above. However, as will be noted below,
there is probably no great difference between the pyloric mucosa
and that of the other regions of the stomach.
 Fig. 46. The glands of the middle or fundic region of the stomach of the
hibernating animal, under high magnification; A, through duct; B, through body of
gland; C, through fundus of gland.
 Figure 46 shows portions of typical glands from the mucosa of the
middle region of the stomach, the posterior border of the large
stomach cavity; A is a longitudinal section through two ducts where
they open to the surface; B is a similar section through the body of a
gland below the region of the duct; C is a transsection through the
bottom or fundus of a gland; all are drawn with a camera under the
same magnification.
As is seen in Figure 45, under low magnification, the duct is about
one third of the entire length of the gland. The lumen of the duct is
fairly wide, that of the body of the gland is reduced to a mere slit,
while that of the fundus is quite wide.
One, two, or possibly more, glands may open to the surface
through one duct, as is shown in Figure 46. There is nothing peculiar
about the epithelium of these glands. Near the opening of the duct
the cells are of a typical columnar character with finely granular
cytoplasm, each with a nucleus at its basal end.
In the deeper parts of the duct the cells become shorter until in the
body of the gland (Fig. 46, B) they are cuboidal in outline.
The bodies of the glands are so closely packed together that it is
difficult to pick out an individual tube that will show details clearly
enough to draw with a camera lucida. So far as could be observed
all of the cells of this region of the gland are alike.
The bottom or fundus of the gland, as seen in Figure 46, C, is
somewhat enlarged and has a wide lumen. The cells are of the same
general character as in the more distal parts of the gland except that
they are somewhat more columnar or pyramidal than in the body of
the gland. The nuclei of the body and fundus are usually somewhat
larger and more nearly spherical than in the columnar cells of the
duct.
The feeding animals from which tissues were taken were
considerably smaller than the hibernating specimen, so that the
stomach walls were proportionately thinner; but, so far as could be
discovered, there was no difference in structure.
The relative thickness of the entire wall in each of the three
regions sectioned was about the same as described above.
As has been said, the mucosa on the pyloric or small region of the
stomach from the hibernating animal was so poorly fixed that its
structure could not be made out. In the feeding stage the mucosa of
this region was as well fixed as any of the other tissues and showed
that its structure is essentially like that shown in Figure 46, except
that the glands are proportionately not quite so long as in the fundic
and cardiac regions, and are somewhat more open—that is, they
have wider lumina; their lining cells are all of one kind and are
unchanged from what was seen in the hibernating condition.
The Small Intestine. Three regions of the small intestine will be
described: (1) an anterior, just caudad to the stomach; (2) a middle;
and (3) a posterior, one half inch cephalad to the rectum or large
intestine (Fig. 35).
As might be expected, the general structure of the wall of the
intestine is essentially the same in all three regions, the slight
differences noticeable being due mainly to variations in the thickness
of the various layers.
The middle and posterior regions have about the same diameter,
while the diameter of the anterior region is considerably greater, due
partly to the greater diameter of the lumen but mainly to the greater
thickness of the constituent layers, especially the mucosa. The
mucosa is also thrown into more numerous and complicated folds in
the anterior than in the middle and posterior regions; the complexity
of the mucosa seems to diminish as the intestine is followed caudad.
In the anterior region the mucosa may form at least one half of the
entire thickness of the wall, while in the posterior region it may form
less than one third of the thickness of the intestinal wall. The minute
structure of the intestinal epithelium will be described below.
The chief peculiarity of the intestinal wall is the apparent total
absence of a submucosa (Fig. 47). As will be described later, the
mucosal epithelium is laid upon the usual bed of fibrous and
lymphatic tissue, the tunica propria (Fig. 47, tp).
At the outer border of the tunica propria, and with no tissue
corresponding to a submucosa between it and the circular muscular
layer, is a thin and indistinct layer that has the appearance of a
longitudinal layer of muscle fibers; this should correspond to the
muscularis mucosa (Figs. 47, 48, 49, and 51, mm).
 Fig. 47. A transsection of the wall of the anterior region of the small intestine of
the hibernating animal, under low magnification; ln, lymph node; tp, tunica propria;
other letters as in Figure 42.

The circular, cm, and longitudinal, lm, muscle layers are compact,
and are distinct from the other layers of the wall; the former is
approximately twice the thickness of the latter. The relative thickness
of all the layers in the three regions of the intestine may be seen by
comparing Figures 47, 48, and 49.
 Fig. 48. An outline of a transsection of the wall of the middle
region of the small intestine of the hibernating animal, under low
magnification; lettering as in Figure 42.

The serosa, s, which is of about the same character in the three

regions under discussion, is a distinct and fairly dense layer of
connective tissue with numerous blood-vessels.
The general appearance of the mucous membrane as a whole is
sufficiently clear in the low-power drawing described above, so that
all that need be shown under a higher magnification is the epithelium
(Fig. 50). The upper part of this figure represents the lower end of
one of the intestinal glands cut longitudinally, below which is the end
of another gland in transverse section. Between the two sections is
the compact tunica propria of lymphatic tissue.
The section from which this particular figure was drawn was in the
anterior region, but the corresponding part of a section in either of
the other regions would have practically the same appearance.
The epithelium is of the stratified columnar type. The superficial
cells are very tall and narrow, with the nuclei generally at or near the
bases, though an occasional nucleus may be seen near the free end
of a cell. Below the tall columnar cells are four or five rows of nuclei
which represent smaller, irregular cells, though the cell walls could
not always be determined between the closely packed nuclei. No
goblet cells are to be seen at any place.

Fig. 49. An outline of a transsection through the

wall of the posterior region of the small intestine of the
hibernating animal, under low magnification; lettering
as in Figure 42.
 The relative diameters of the three regions of the small intestine in
the feeding condition are about the same as noted for the
hibernating stage; that is, the anterior region has the greatest
diameter and the other regions are smaller and have about the same
average diameter.
The most marked difference between the intestine during
hibernation and feeding is in the relative thickness of the mucosa
and muscular layers. As described for the hibernating stage, so in
the feeding stage, the mucosa is relatively the thickest in the anterior
regions and diminishes in thickness caudad; but while, in the
hibernating stage, it forms, in the anterior region, as much as half of
the entire thickness of the wall, in the feeding condition it forms, in
the same region, at least two thirds of the entire wall and in the
middle and posterior regions more than half of the wall.
 Fig. 50. Part of the mucous membrane of the anterior region of
the small intestine of the hibernating animal, under high
magnification. The upper part of the figure shows a part of a gland
cut longitudinally, the lower part of the figure shows another gland
cut transversely; e, epithelium; tp, tunica propria.
 The feeding animals being the smaller, the diameter of the
intestine was considerably less than in the hibernating stage; but the
actual thickness of the mucosa was practically the same, so that the
difference in diameter was due to the difference in the thickness of
the muscular and fibrous layers. It is therefore probable that the
differences noted above are due rather to the differences in the size
of the animals from which the tissues were taken than to the different
conditions of hibernation and feeding. The point to be noticed is that
the increase in the diameter of the intestine is due almost if not
entirely to an increase in thickness of the connective tissue and
muscle layers.
No difference in the complexity of the folds of the mucosa of the
two stages can be noticed.
The thickness of the fibro-muscular part of the wall of the intestine
varies considerably on different sides of the same region, but it
consists of the same layers in about the same relative amounts.
 Fig. 51. An outline of a transsection of the wall of
the middle region of the small intestine of the feeding
animal, under low magnification; m, mucosa; other
letters as in Figure 42.
 Figure 51 represents in outline the wall of the middle region of the
small intestine during feeding.
The epithelium is of the same thickness in the two stages, and the
only difference in its character that can be seen under a high
magnification is that, in the middle region at least, the nuclei are not
crowded so close together at the basal ends of the cells as in the
hibernating stage but are scattered more towards their free ends.