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GET
THROUGH
Final FRCR 2A:
SBAs
GET
THROUGH
Final FRCR 2A:
SBAs
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Trademark Notice: Product or corporate names may be trademarks or registered trademarks, and are used only for identification and
explanation without intent to infringe.
Names: Chin, Teck Yew, author. | Shelmerdine, Susan, author. | Ganguly, Akash, author. |
Anosike, Chinedum, author.
Title: Get through final FRCR 2A : SBAs / Teck Yew Chin, Susan Cheng Shelmerdine, Akash Ganguly,
Chinedum Anosike.
Other titles: Get through.
Description: Boca Raton, FL : CRC Press/Taylor & Francis Group, [2017] |
Series: Get through
Identifiers: LCCN 2016054175 (print) | LCCN 2016054780 (ebook) | ISBN 9781498734844 (pbk. : alk. paper) |
ISBN 9781138743991 (hardback : alk. paper) | ISBN 9781315382708 (Master eBook)
Subjects: | MESH: Radiology | Examination Questions
Classification: LCC RC78.15 (print) | LCC RC78.15 (ebook) | NLM WN 18.2 | DDC 616.07/57076--dc23
LC record available at https://lccn.loc.gov/2016054175
Index 425
v
PREFACE
The examination structure of the Fellowship of Royal College of Radiologists (FRCR) Final Part A
examination (CR2A) in clinical radiology is reverting back from the current modular structure to a
single examination. The RCR has approval from the General Medical Council (GMC) and the
change will be effective from spring 2018.
From spring 2018, the examination will consist of two papers, to be taken on the same day,
each consisting of 120 single best answer–type questions per paper. Each paper will be 3 hours
long and will cover a broad range of topics from the radiology core curriculum covering
all modalities.
This book is divided into seven test papers, consisting of 120 mixed SBA-type questions covering
all modules (3 hours per paper for practice). The answers are in sequential order, followed by
a short explanation and relevant discussion around the topic with appropriate references.
vii
ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS
Vijay Kesavanarayanan
Grant Mair
Andrew Baird
Matthew Budak
Oliver Cram
Thomas Hartley
Laura Hinksman
Menelaos Philippou
Jo Powell
Calum Nicholson
Ewen G. Robertson
Nicola Schembri
Magdalena Szewczyk-Bieda
Richard D. White
Struan W.A. Wilkie
Nadeem A. Butt
Lauren L. Millar
Karim Samji
Euan G.C. Stubbs
André Stefan Gatt
Asha Neelakantan
Bappa Sarkar
Mubeen Chaudhry
Ramya G. Dhandapani
ix
AUTHORS
Dr. Teck Yew Chin, MBChB, MSc, FRCR, is a consultant radiologist at Khoo Teck Puat Hospital,
Singapore.
Dr. Susan Cheng Shelmerdine, MBBS, BSc, MRCS, PgCertHBE, FRCR, is a radiology research
fellow at Great Ormond Street Hospital, London, UK.
Dr. Akash Ganguly, MBBS, DMRD, FRCR, is a consultant radiologist at Warrington Hospital,
Warrington and Halton Hospitals NHS Foundation Trust, Warrington, UK.
Dr. Chinedum Anosike, MBBS, MSc, FRCR, is a consultant radiologist at Warrington Hospital,
Warrington and Halton Hospitals NHS Foundation Trust, Warrington, UK.
xi
ABBREVIATIONS
ABC – Aneurysmal Bone Cyst
ABPA – Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis
AC – Acromio-clavicular
ACA – Anterior Cerebral Artery
ACE – Angiotensin Converting Enzyme
ACL – Anterior Cruciate Ligament
ACOM – Anterior Communicating Artery
ADC – Apparent Diffusion Coefficient
ADEM – Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis
AED/A&E – Accident and Emergency (department)
AFP – Alpha Fetoprotein
AICA – Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery
AIDS – Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
ALP – Alkaline Phosphatase
ALPSA – Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion
ALT – Alanine Aminotransferase
AML – Angiomyolipoma
AP – Anterior Posterior
ARDS – Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
ASD – Atrial Septal Defect
AST – Aspartate Aminotransferase
ATN – Acute Tubular Necrosis
AVM – Arteriovenous Malformation
AVN – Avascular Necrosis
BCG – Bacillus Calmette–Guerin
BPH – Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy
CA – Carbohydrate Antigen
CADASIL – Cerebral Autosomal-Dominant Arteriopathy with Subcortical Infarcts and
Leukoencephalopathy
CBD – Common Bile Duct
CBF – Cerebral Blood Flow
CBV – Cerebral Blood Volume
CC – Coracoclavicular
CCAM – Congenital Cystic Adenomatoid Malformation
xiii
CDH – Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
ABBREVIATIONS
xiv
ETT – Endotracheal Tube
ABBREVIATIONS
EUS – Endoscopic Eltrasound
EVAR – Endovascular (Aortic) Aneurysm Repair
FAI – Femoroacetabular Impingement
FAPS – Familial Adenomatous Polyposis Syndrome
FB – Foreign Body
FCD – Fibrous Cortical Defect
FCL – Fibular Collateral Ligament
FD – Fibrous Dysplasia
FDG – F18 Fluorodeoxyglucose
FESS – Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery
FEV – Forced Expiratory Volume
FLAIR – Fluid Attenuation Inversion Recovery
FMD – Fibromuscular dysplasia
FNA – Fine Needle Aspiration
FNH – Focal Nodular Hyperplasia
GCA – Giant Cell Arteritis
GCS – Glasgow Coma Score
GCT – Giant Cell Tumour
GI – Gastrointestinal
GIST – Gastro Intestinal Stromal Tumour
GLAD – Glenolabral Articular Disruption
GRE – Gradient-Recalled Echo
GVHD – Graft Versus Host Disease
HCC – Hepatocellular Carcinoma
HCG – Hysterosalpingogram
HCM – Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
HELLP syndrome – Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme Levels, and low Platelet syndrome
HHV – Human Herpes Virus
HIDA – Hepatobiliary Iminodiacetic Acid
HIV – Human Immunodeficiency Virus
HNPCC – Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colon Cancer Syndrome
HOCM – Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy
HRCT – High Resolution Computed Tomography
HSV – Herpes Simplex Virus
HU – Hounsfield Unit
IBD – Inflammatory Bowel Disease
ICA – Internal Carotid Artery
ICU – Intensive Care Unit
IJV – Internal Jugular Vein
INR – International Normalised Ratio
xv
IPF – Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
ABBREVIATIONS
xvi
MTR – Magnetisation Transfer Ratio
ABBREVIATIONS
MTT – Mean Transit Time
NAA – N-Acetylaspartate
NAFLD – Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease
NAHI – Non-Accidental Head Injury
NAI – Non-Accidental Injury
NASH – Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis
NF – Neurofibromatosis
NG(T) – Nasogastric (Tube)
NHL – Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma
NICE – National Institute for Health and Care Excellence
NOF – Non-Ossifying Fibroma
NPH – Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
NSE – Neuron-Specific Enolase
NSIP – Nonspecific interstitial pneumonitis
OA – Osteoarthritis
OCD – Osteo-Chondral Defect
OCP – Oral Contraceptive Pill
OFD – Osteo Fibrous Dysplasia
OGD – Oesophago-Gastroduodenoscopy
OKC – Odontogenic Keratocyst
OM – Occipito-Mental/Osteomyelitis
PAN – Polyarteritis Nodosa
PCA – Posterior Cerebral Artery
PCKD – Polycystic Kidney Disease
PCL – Posterior Cruciate Ligament
PCOM – Posterior Communicating Artery
PCOS – Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
PCP – Pneumocystis Pneumonia
PDA – Patent Ductus Arteriosus
PE – Pulmonary Embolism
PET – Positron Emission Tomography
PHACE syndrome – Posterior fossa malformations, Haemangioma Arterial anomalies, Cardiac
defects, Eye abnormalities, sternal cleft and supra-umbilical raphe syndrome
PICA – Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery
PIN – Posterior Interosseous Nerve
PIPJ – Proximal Inter-Phalangeal Joint
PKU – Phenylketonuria
PMF – Progressive Massive Fibrosis
PML – Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy
PNET – Primitive Neuroectodermal Tumour
xvii
POEMS syndrome – Polyneuropathy, Organomegaly, Endocrinopathy, Monoclonal gammopathy,
ABBREVIATIONS
xviii
SUFE – Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis
ABBREVIATIONS
SWI – Susceptibility Weighted Imaging
TA – Truncus Arteriosus
TACE – Transcatheter Arterial Chemoembolisation
TAG-72 – Tumour Associated Glycoprotein
TAPVR – Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return
TB – Tuberculosis
TCC – Transitional Cell Carcinoma
TFC – Triangular Fibrocartilage
TGA – Transposition of Great Arteries
THR – Total Hip Replacement
TIPS – Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt
TKR – Total Knee Replacement
TME – Total Mesorectal Excision
TOF – Tetralogy Of Falot/Time-Of-Flight
TRUP – Transurethral Resection of Prostate
TRUS – Trans Rectal Ultrasound
TS – Tuberous Sclerosis
TSH – Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
TT-TG – Tibial Tuberosity–Trochlear Groove
TURP – Transurethral Resection of the Prostate
TVS – Trans-Vaginal Scan
UAC – Umbilical Artery Catheter
UAE – Uterine Artery Embolisation
UBC – Unicameral Bone Cyst
UCL – Ulnar Collateral Ligament
UFE – Uterine Fibroid Embolisation
UIP – Usual Interstitial Pneumonia
UPJ – Uretero-Pelvic Junction
US – Ultrasound
UTI – Urinary Tract Infection
UVC – Umbilical Venous Catheter
VHL – Von Hippel–Lindau
VISI – Volar Intercalated Segment Instability
VNA – Vanillylmandelic Acid
VSD – Ventricular Septal Defect
VUJ – Vesico-Ureteric Junction
VUR – Vesico-Ureteric Reflux
XGP – Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis
βhCG – beta Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
xix
CHAPTER 1
TEST PAPER 1
Questions
Time: 3 hours
1. A 30-year-old man has been involved in an Road Traffic Accident (RTA). Aortic injury is
suspected. CT angiogram shows a fusiform dilatation at the anteromedial aspect of the aortic
isthmus with a steep contour superiorly, gently merging with the proximal descending
thoracic aorta inferiorly. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Pseudoaneurysm
B. Coarctation of the aorta
C. Ductus diverticulum
D. Aortic nipple
E. Avulsed left subclavian artery
2. A 40-year-old man on the third cycle of chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
presents with dysphagia and odynophagia. A recent blood count revealed neutropenia.
He is referred for a barium swallow, which shows several linear ulcers with ‘shaggy borders’
in the upper oesophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Candida oesophagitis
B. CMV oesophagitis
C. Post-radiotherapy stricture
D. TB oesophagitis
E. Pharyngeal pouch
3. A contrast CT scan shows an incidental renal cyst that is hyperdense with thick septations
and a mural nodule. What is the Bosniak classification?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 2F
D. Type 3
E. Type 4
4. A 33-year-old man with short stature and normal intelligence is being investigated for lower
back pain. MRI of the thoracolumbar spine shows marked central stenosis with short
pedicles. A comment of bullet-shaped vertebra with progressive narrowing of the lumbar
interpedicular distance was noted on the report. Which of the following conditions is
most likely?
A. Hurler’s syndrome
B. Congenital pituitary dwarfism
C. Achondroplasia
D. Thanatophoric dysplasia
E. Hunter’s syndrome
1
Chapter 1 TEST PAPER 1: QUESTIONS
5. A 75-year-old woman is admitted under the physicians with confusion and dementia. She
has a history of spontaneous intracranial haemorrhage and has been diagnosed with
amyloid angiopathy. The most specific MR sequence for diagnosis of multifocal intracranial
cortical–subcortical microhaemorrhages in cerebral amyloid angiopathy is:
A. T1W spin echo
B. STIR
C. T2W spin echo
D. Gradient echo
E. FLAIR
6. Regarding sporting injuries involving the upper limbs, all of the following statements are
correct, except:
A. Anomalous anconeus epitrochlearis muscle results in Posterior Interosseous Nerve (PIN)
entrapment.
B. Atrophy of extensor muscles can be seen in chronic PIN neuropathy.
C. Partial thickness tears of the biceps can involve either the long or short heads.
D. Cubital tunnel syndrome is the most common elbow neuropathy.
E. Oedema of flexor carpi ulnaris and ulnar nerve thickening suggests cubital tunnel
nerve entrapment.
7. An obese 25-year-old man presents with atypical chest pain. Cardiac MR demonstrates
asymmetrical hypertrophy of the interventricular septum, primarily affecting the
anteroinferior portion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Dilated cardiomyopathy
E. Constrictive pericarditis
8. A 65-year-old diabetic with a history of alcohol excess is referred for a barium swallow
following a history of dysphagia. The study shows several small, thin, flask-shaped structures
along the cervical oesophagus oriented parallel to the long axis of the oesophagus. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Feline oesophagus
B. Pseudodiverticulosis
C. Glycogenic acanthosis
D. Traction diverticulum
E. Idiopathic eosinophilic oesophagitis
9. A 21-year-old woman with infertility undergoes US that shows a 2-cm right adnexal mass
with posterior acoustic enhancement. Another multilocular cyst is seen in the left ovary.
Further evaluation with MR shows multiple small lesions in both the ovaries and pouch of
Douglas, which were hyperintense on fat-suppressed T1W images with shading sign on
T2W images. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Dermoid
B. Endometrioid carcinoma of the ovary
C. Endometriosis
D. PCOS (polycystic ovarian syndrome)
E. Pelvic inflammatory disease
10. A young man presents to the ENT clinic with deepening of the voice. Going through his
history and clinical notes, the consultant reviews a recent plain radiograph report of his
2
Chapter 1 TEST PAPER 1: QUESTIONS
hands, which describes cystic changes in the carpal bones along with enlarged phalangeal
tufts and metacarpals. What is the next appropriate imaging investigation?
A. CT brain pre- and post-contrast
B. MRI brain
C. MRI pituitary pre- and post-contrast
D. Chest X-ray
E. Lateral view of the skull
11. A 77-year-old man with gradual onset dementia shows multifocal abnormalities on cranial
CT and MRI. He has been recently diagnosed with amyloidosis. All of the following
conditions may be present in central nervous system amyloidosis, except:
A. Occurrence in elderly patients
B. Multifocal subcortical intracranial haemorrhages
C. Cerebral and cerebellar atrophy
D. Non-communicating hydrocephalus
E. Typical occurrence in normotensive patients
12. An 11-year-old boy with left shoulder pain has a shoulder X-ray, which shows a lucent lesion
in the metaphysis. This has distinct borders and lies in the intramedullary compartment. It is
orientated along the long axis of the humerus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aneurysmal bone cyst
B. GCT
C. Simple bone cyst
D. Chondroblastoma
E. Non-ossifying fibroma
13. A 50-year-old secretary presents with epigastric pain, nausea and weight loss. She also complains
of bilateral swollen ankles. She is referred for a barium meal as she is unable to tolerate an
oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy (OGD). The examination shows thickened folds in the fundus
and body of the stomach; the antrum was not involved. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Lymphoma
C. Eosinophilic gastroenteritis
D. Leiomyoma
E. Ménétrier’s disease
14. A 58-year-old woman undergoes an echocardiogram followed by cardiac MRI for
investigation of exertional dyspnoea. The cardiac MRI was reviewed at the X-ray meeting,
and the radiologist diagnosed concentric hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Which of
the following did the radiologist see?
A. Thickening of the interatrial septum at 7 mm
B. Thickening of the entire LV wall measuring 17 mm at end diastole
C. Nodular high signal in the interventricular septum on T2
D. Thickening of the LV wall measuring 14 mm with normal systolic function
E. Thickened LV with delayed hyperenhancement of midwall
15. A 50-year-old builder is involved in a high-speed RTA. CT is performed according to trauma
protocol, demonstrating extra-peritoneal rupture of the bladder. Which of the following best
describes this?
A. Contrast pooling in the paracolic gutters.
B. Contrast outlining small bowel loops.
C. Flame-shaped contrast seen in the perivesical fat.
D. CT cystogram is usually normal.
E. Intramural contrast on CT cystogram.
3
Chapter 1 TEST PAPER 1: QUESTIONS
16. An elderly patient on long-term dialysis presents to the orthopaedic clinic with right shoulder
pain. Plain films show juxta-articular swelling and erosions of the humerus, but the
joint space is preserved. MRI shows a small joint effusion and the presence of low- to
intermediate-signal soft tissue on all sequences covering the synovial membrane
extending into the periarticular tissue. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Amyloid arthropathy
B. Gout
C. Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD)
D. Pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS)
E. Reticuloendotheliosis
17. A 33-year-old woman with recurrent episodes of optic neuritis with waxing and waning upper
limb weakness is referred for an MRI brain with high suspicion of demyelination. All of
the following are MR features of acute multiple sclerosis (MS) lesions of the brain, except:
A. High signal intensity on FLAIR
B. ‘Black hole’ appearance
C. Incomplete ring-like contrast enhancement
D. Increase in size of lesion
E. Mass effect
18. A 14-year-old boy complains of left knee pain and limp. He also has medial thigh pain.
On examination, he has full range of movement with some discomfort on internal
rotation. AP and lateral X-rays of the knee and femur are normal. What is the next
investigation?
A. CT
B. Bone scan
C. MRI
D. Frog leg lateral of the hips
E. US
19. A 30-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath and fatigue. CT shows enlargement
of the right atrium, right ventricle and pulmonary artery and normal appearance of the left
atrium. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. VSD – Ventricular Septal Defect
B. ASD – Atrial Septal Defect
C. Bicuspid aortic valve
D. Coarctation of the aorta
E. Mitral valve disease
20. A 50-year-old man is referred to a gastroenterologist with a 6-month history of intermittent
epigastric pain and nausea. He is referred for a barium meal test due to a failed OGD –
oesophago-gastroduodenoscopy. The study shows an ulcer along the lesser curve of the
stomach. Which of the following is a malignant feature of a gastric ulcer?
A. The margin of the ulcer crater extends beyond the projected luminal surface.
B. Carman meniscus sign.
C. Hampton’s line.
D. Central ulcer within mound of oedema.
E. The ulcer depth is greater than the width.
21. Which of the following characteristics is typical of prostate cancer?
A. Low on T1 High on T2
B. Low on T1 Low on T2
C. Isointense on T1 High on T2
4
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OUR FALLEN HERO.
His city, his State, and his country will build for him a shaft, but his
greatest monument will be in the hearts that mourn his death.
A great and loving soul has passed.
IN MEMORIAM.