Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

MAINS-2024 MODEL TEST - RRB CLERK MAINS

REASONING
Direction: (1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-

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tions given below.
Eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table.
Some are facing the center and some are facing away from the center, but not
necessarily in the same order.
Two persons are sitting between D and H (on either left or right), and both
are facing the same direction. B is second to the right of H and both are facing
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opposite directions. The number of persons sitting between D and B is same as
between C and B. G is immediate right of C. E is third to the left of A, who is not
an immediate neighbour of B. The immediate neighbors of A are facing the same

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direction. E is facing away from the center. E and F are facing opposite directions.
The immediate neighbors of D are facing the opposite direction.
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1. How many persons are sitting between F and G to the left of G?
1) One 2) Three 3) No one 4) Two 5) More than Three
2. Who is second to the left of B?
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1) C 2) A 3) H 4) G 5) F
3. What is the position of C from B?
1) Third to the right 2) Third to the left 3) Second to the right
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4) Second to the left 5) Fourth to the right
4. Who amongst the following pair is facing each other?
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1) FC 2) DE 3) GF 4) AH 5) BG
5. Which among the following is the ODD ONE?
1) B 2) C 3) G 4) E 5) D
Direction: (6-7) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below. Find out the correct conclusions in given below conclusions
based on the statements.
6. Statements: G > N = H; D = H  L; L > B = V
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Conclusions: I. N  V II. B < G
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
7. Statements: J  N = V  B; V = M  C; C = Y  F = L
Conclusions: I. C  B II. L  V
1) Only conclusion II follows 2) Both conclusions I and II follow
3) Only conclusion I follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Either conclusion I or II follows
Direction: (8-12) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.
Twelve persons are sitting in two parallel rows with six persons in each row.
A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in row 1 facing North and P, Q, R, S, T and U are
sitting in row 2 facing South. The persons in both the rows are facing each other,
but not necessarily in the same order.
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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

U is second to the right of one who is facing C and both are not sitting at any
end of the row. Two persons are sitting between C and D. S is third to the left of Q
and is not immediate to U. B is immediate right of E. D and E are not immediate
neighbors. The number of persons sitting between B and C is the same as be-
tween Q and R. D and R are not facing each other. The one who is facing T is
immediate to E. Less than two persons sitting between T and P. A is not facing U.
8. How many persons are sitting to the left of F?
1) Three 2) Two 3) Four 4) One 5) No One
9. Who is facing P?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) F

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10. The number of persons sitting to the right of A is the same as _____ of ____.
1) Left, S 2) Right, R 3) Left, C 4) Right, T 5) Left, P
11. If row-1 persons are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right then who is
facing C?
1) S 2) R 3) U 4) P 5) Q
12. Which among the following is the ODD ONE?
1) AC 2) PS
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Direction: (13-15) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.

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Two persons Sam and Manu starts walking from the same point Z.
Sam starts walking in West direction after walking 12km he reaches point C
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and he takes right turn. From point C he walks 15km to reach point T. From point
T he takes right turn and walks 2km to reach point N. From point N he takes left
turn and walks 7km to reach point K. From point K he takes again left turn and
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walks 13km to reach point V and stops walking.

Manu start walking in South direction from point Z and walks 14km to reach
point G. From point G he takes left turn and walks 5km to reach point B. From
C
point B he takes again same direction and walks 21km to reach point S, then he
takes right turn and walks 22km to reach point H. From point H he takes left turn
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and walks 11km to reach point J and stops there.

13. What is the shortest distance between point N and S?
1) km 2) 18km 3) km 4) 17km 5) 16km
14. Point J is in which direction from point V?
1) South-East 2) South-West 3) North-East 4) North-West 5) East
15. Which among the following is the ODD ONE
1) CS 2) TJ 3) GJ 4) BH 5) SV
C
Direction: (16-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.
Eight members - P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are living in a building that has four
floors, but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1 just
above it is numbered 2 and so on... till the top floor is numbered 4. Each floor
contains two Flats viz. Flat-1 and Flat-2. Flat-1 is West of Flat-2.
P lives in an even-numbered floor, but not in the even-numbered Flat. Only
one floor between the P’s floor and Q’s floor but both are not live in the same Flat.
U lives South-West of Q. The number of floors above U is same as below S. W lives
two floors above R. T and V live in immediate floors. P lives below T, who doesn’t
live in an odd-numbered Flat.
16. What is the floor and Flat number of S?
1) 3rd floor, 2nd Flat 2) 2nd floor, 1st Flat 3) 4th floor, 1st Flat
4) 4th floor, 2nd Flat 5) 2nd floor, 2nd Flat

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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

17. Who lives in 3rd floor and 1st Flat?

1) Q 2) W 3) T 4) V 5) U
18. If S and P interchange and R and V interchange their positions, then who lives
with R?
1) U 2) P 3) S 4) Q 5) T
19. Which among the following is the ODD ONE?
1) ST 2) PR 3) UV 4) SV 5) TQ
20. Who amongst the following person lives with U?
1) R 2) W 3) P 4) Q 5) V
21. How many meaningful English words can be formed using the second, fourth,
sixth, and seventh letters of the given word ‘SCLEROTIUM’ after rearranging all

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the letters in alphabetical order?
1) One 2) Three 3) No one 4) Two 5) More than three
Direction: (22-24) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.
Seven pillars - J, K, L, M, N, O and P are of different heights are castled in a
row. Pillar J is taller than just two pillars. Pillar L is taller than pillar O, which is
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shorter than pillar J. At least two pillars are taller than pillar L. Pillar P is taller
than Pillar N and both the pillars are not either tallest or shortest. Pillar M is not
as much tall as pillar O. Pillar N is shorter than at least three pillars. The second
shortest pillar height is 172cm and the third tallest pillar height is 214cm. All

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pillar heights are whole numbers only.
22. Which pillar is the shortest?
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1) P 2) K 3) O 4) L 5) M
23. What is the possible height of pillar K?
1) 213cm 2) 173cm 3) 215cm 4) 216cm 5) Either 3 or 4
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24. How many pillars are taller than pillar L?

1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) Six
Direction: (25-29) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
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tions given below.
Seven persons - J, K, L, M, N, O and P are purchasing different articles viz.
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Clips, Dress, Perfume, Bangles, Shoe, Suit, and Watch in a shopping mall in the
same week starting from Monday to Sunday at the same time, but not necessarily
in the same order.
O buys after at least four persons. At least four persons buy between O and
the one who buys Watch. The number of persons buys after one who buys Watch
is same as number of persons buys before N. Two persons buy between N and the
one who buys Suit. J buys before O but not to the one who buys Suit. One person
buys between one who buys Bangles and J. P buys immediate before L. Neither P
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nor L buys either Watch or Suit. More than three persons buy between K and one
who buys Shoe. Three persons buys between one who buys Shoe and one who
buys Clips. The one who buys Perfume is buys immediate after M, but before to
the one who buys Dress.
25. Who buys Dress?
1) J 2) O 3) L 4) N 5) M
26. L buys which article?
1) Clips 2) Watch 3) Bangles 4) Perfume 5) Dress
27. The one who buys Perfume is buys on which week day?
1) Wednesday 2) Monday 3) Thursday 4) Sunday 5) Friday
28. How many persons buys before M?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) One 5) Five
29. Which among the following is the ODD ONE?
1) Thursday – Watch 2) Wednesday – O 3) Sunday – Dress
4) Tuesday – Perfume 5) Friday – P
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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

Direction (30-31): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
30. Seven persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a straight line facing North,
but not necessarily in the same order. Who is at the right end?
Statement I: Only three persons are sitting between G and E. D is immediate left
of G. F is third to the right of D. B is to the right of F but not immediate.
Statement II: Only one person is sitting between B and C. A is second to the left
of C. Three persons are sitting between C and D. G is immediate right of D.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II is not required to answer the question

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2) The data in either statement I or data in statement II is sufficient to answer
the question
3) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I is not required to answer the question
4) The data in both the two statements I and II together is necessary to answer
the question
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5) The data in neither statement I nor in statement II is sufficient to answer the
question
31.

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Eight boxes - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are arranged one above another in a stack,
but not necessarily in the same order. Which box is at bottom most?
d
Statement I: Box S is below the only three boxes. Two boxes are in between box S
and box P. Box U is immediate above the box P.
Statement II: Box V is immediate above box R. Only one box in between box R and
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box Q. Box U and box W are immediate boxes.

1) The data in both the two statements I and II together is necessary to answer
the question
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
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data in statement I is not required to answer the question
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3) The data in either statement I or data in statement II is sufficient to answer

the question
4) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II is not required to answer the question
5) The data in neither statement I nor in statement II is sufficient to answer the
question
32. How many letters (as per the English alphabetical order) are there between the
fifth and eighth letters of the word ‘HEADCOUNT’?
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1) 12 2) 10 3) 11 4) 13 5) 9
Direction: (33-37) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-
tions given below.
Six persons - J, K, L, M, N, and O are born in the same year of three differ-
ent months viz. March, April, and May of two different dates 5th and 16th, but not
necessarily in the same order. Only two persons are born in the each month of
given two dates only.
L is born in the month which has odd number of days, but not on the odd
numbered date. O and L are born in neither same date nor in the same month. At
least two persons are elder than O. J and O born on the same date. J is younger
than M. N is elder than M, but not the eldest.
33. How many persons are elder than K?
1) One 2) No one 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than Three

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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

34. M is born in which month and date?

1) May – 5th 2) May – 16th 3) April – 5th 4) April – 16th 5) March – 5th
35. Who is born in March – 16th?
1) K 2) L 3) N 4) J 5) M
36. The number of persons elder than N is the same as number of persons younger
than _____.
1) J 2) M 3) K 4) L 5) O
37. Which among the following is the ODD ONE?
1) April – 5th – M 2) May – 16th – J 3) March – 16th – K
4) April – 16th – O 5) May – 5th – N
Direction: (38-40) Study the following information carefully and answer the ques-

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tions given below.
A family contains nine members - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I with two
married couples. A is the Son of H. G is the Sister-in-law of A. Only E is the
Sibling of A and both are not the same gender. D is the Father-in-law of F. C is
the Brother of I. B is the Daughter of F. I is the Sibling of B. F has only one Son. E
is unmarried.
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38. How is I related to G?
1) Mother 2) Aunt 3) Nephew 4) Niece 5) Cousin
39. How is E related to F?
1) Niece 2) Aunt

E 3) Sister-in-law 4) Brother-in-law 5) Uncle

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40. Which among the following is the ODD ONE?
1) DE 2) HA 3) AB 4) FC 5) FI
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
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41. By _______ key we can capture screen of current desktop.

1) BREAK 2) scrLK 3) Esc 4) PrtScr 5) NumLk
42. While working in MS word 2013, the ____ is used to select the whole word
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document.
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1) Alt + A 2) Shift + A 3) Ctrl + S 4) Ctrl + A 5) Alt + S

43. Domain names are assigned on the network. An educational institution is generally
given the ______ domain name.
1) .edu 2) .org 3) .net 4) .com 5) .inst
44. Trackball is _______
1) an output device 2) a programming language
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3) a monitor 4) an input device 5) a software
45. A Computer memory is
1) limitless 2) finite 3) infinite 4) unlimited 5) limitable
46. PCs in intranet _______.
1) are not available to the world outside the intranet
2) are available to the world outside the intranet
3) do not use TCP/IP for communication
4) cannot use FTP protocol for file transfers
5) can be accessed by all internet users
47. A workbook is a file that contains one or more ________ to help you organize data.
1) storyline scenes 2) powerpoint 3) slides
4) pages 5) worksheets

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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

48. How do you add audio in your MS PowerPoint 2013 presentation?

1) 1. Select Insert > MPEG.
2. Select Sound on My PC.
3. In the Insert Audio dialog box, select the audio file you want to add.
4. Select Insert.
2) 1. Select Insert > Audio.
2. Select Audio on My PC.
3. In the Insert Audio dialog box, select the audio file you want to add.
4. Select Insert.
3) 1. Select Media Insert.
2. Select Audio on My PC.

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3. In the Insert Audio dialog box, select the audio tile you want to add.
4. Select Insert.
4) 1. Select Insert > AVI.
2. Select Sound on My PC.
3. In the Insert Audio dialog box, select the audio file you want to add.
4. Select Insert.
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5) 1. Select Formal > Media.
2. Select Audio on My PC.

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3. In the Insert Audio dialog box, select the audio file you want to add.
4. Select Insert
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49. How many nibble constitute one byte ?
1) Six 2) Four 3) Three 4) Five 5) Two
50. The numeric keypad on the keyboard consist of ________ keys.
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1) 16 2) 18 3) 15 4) 14 5) 17
51. Which of the following is NOT an operating system ?
1) Oracle 2) LINUX 3) MacOS 4) Windows 5) DOS
52. How do you insert a picture in Microsoft Word 2013 ?
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1) Select Insert > Pictures (for a picture on your PC) or Online Pictures (for a
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picture that's on the web) > Select the picture you want, and then select Include
2) Select Insert TAB > Pictures (for a picture on your PC) or Online Pictures (for a
picture that's on the web) > Select the picture you want, and then select Insert
3) Select Review tab > Pictures (for a picture on your PC) or Online Pictures (for a
picture that's on the web) > Select the picture you want
4) Select Home TAB > Images (for a picture on your PC) or Online Pictures (for a
picture that's on the web) > Select the picture you want, and then select Include
5) Select Include TAB > Pictures (for a picture on your PC) or Online Pictures (for
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a picture that's on the web) > Select the picture you want, and then select Insert
53. Every computer on the Internet is identified by a unique
1) System Name 2) Internal Processor Address
3) Internet protocol Address 4) Integrated Processor
5) Company Name
54. _____ is used while connecting the Projector to the computer system.
1) VGA Port 2) Parallel Port 3) Game port
4) FireWire port 4) Ethernet port
55. A _________ can refer to any kind of software interface to networking hardware.
1) Hub 2) Switch 3) Repeater
4) Gateway 5) Network interface
56. Which of the following is NOT a utility software ?
1) Avast Antivirus 2) Windows Explorer 3) Windows 7
4) Microssoft Excel 5) WinRAR
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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

57. In which of the following, the data can be erased and recorded over numerous
limes ?
1) CD-R 2) DVD-R 3) DVD 4) DVD-RW 5) CD-ROM
58. In which of the following form data is stored in computer ?
1) Characters 2) octal 3) binary 4) hexadecimal 5) decimal
59. In MS PowerPoint 2013, the ______ shortcut is used to close a presentation.
1) Alt + W 2) Alt + C 3) Ctrl+W 4) Ctrl+C 5) Esc
60. Which of the following comprises of the software components in a computer system ?
1) Secondary devices 2) Memory 3) Programs
4) Keyboard 5) BIOS
61. In MS word 2013 shortcut key for 'change case" of selected text is ______.

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1) SHIFT + F3 2) SHIFT + F4 3) ALT+F3 4) CTRL+F3 5) CTRL+F4
62. Which of the following does NOT represent a hardware of a computer system ?
1) Mouse 2) Motherboard 3) Monitor
4) JAVA 5) CMOS
63. Which of the following is used to connect scanners and printers to the computer
system ?
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1) Modem Port 2) PS/2 Port 3) Serial Port 4) Parallel Port 5) Ethernet Port
64. What is the name of the international community devoted to developing open web
standards ?

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1) World Wide Web Community 2) World Wide Webinar
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3) World Wide Web Consortium 4) Community of Web Developers
5) WWW Google Community
65. What are softwares that are freely distributed to users on a trial basis called ?
ee

1) MATLAB 2) MS Word 365 3) Freeware

4) MS Word 2019 5) Shareware(s)
66. While working in MS Excel 2013, which of the following option is used as a shortcut
to autosum ?
C
1) Alt + Enter 2) Tab + Enter 3) Shift + = 4) Alt + = 5) Alt + Space
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67. While working on the keyboard, the keys present on the keyboard which are
arranged in a row at the top of the keyboard are referred to as
1) Typing Keys 2) Refresh Keys 3) Function Keys
4) Numbering Keys 5) Navigation Keys
68. What does an optical storage device use to write and read ?
1) Pin 2) Incoherent light 3) Laser
4) Stylus needle 5) Pen
69. What unit is used to measure the speed of processor ?
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1) Kilobyte 2) byte 3) ampere 4) hertz 5) Gigabyte
70. Adding binary number 1111 with 1110, what would be the result ?
1) 11101 2) 111111 3) 11100 4) 11001 5) 101011
71. Which of the following enables the user to draw images and graphics using the
stylus as we draw on paper with a pencil ?
1) Projector 2) Scanner 3) Digitizer 4) Light pen 5) Plotter
72. UNIX operating system is written in ________ language.
1) Basic 2) Cobol 3) Pascal 4) C 5) Fortran
73. With respect to emails, what does Bcc stand for ?
1) Backup Confident Contact 2) Booked Common Contact
3) Blind Carbon Copy 4) Backed Contact Copy
5) Basic Contact Carrier
74. Which command in MS-DOS is used lo display the version of MS-DOS ?
1) ver 2) ve 3) version 4) vers 5) verify
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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

75. Which of the following is NOT a web browser ?

1) Safari 2) Opera 3) Firefox 4) Yahoo 5) Google Chrome
76. A protocol is a ________ that basically defines a language that devices can use to
communicate.
1) hardware connector 2) language translator and interpreter
3) programming function 4) set of rules and standards
5) compiler
77. Which of the following is categorized as character printer ?
1) Chain Printer 2) Page Printer 3) Line Printer
4) Dot Matrix Printer 5) Drum Printer
78. What is any kind of unwanted, unsolicited digital communication, often an email,

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that gets sent out in bulk ?
1) Spam 2) Spammer 3) Inbox 4) Outbox 5) spamming
79. The microprocessor brought the ________ generation of computers, as thousands
of integrated circuits were built onto a single silicon chip.
1) Fourth 2) Second 3) Mark I 4) Third 5) First
80.
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Which of the following memory is used for manufacturing cache memories ?
1) RAM 2) Registers 3) SRAM 4) DRAM 5) Cells
GENERAL AWARENESS
81.

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Which lender has inked a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Investor
Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) to spread awareness on
d
investment and fraudulent schemes?
1) City Union Bank 2) IndusInd Bank 3) DBS Bank
4) YES Bank 5) Axis Bank
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82. In February 2024, which of the following merchant-led digital payments provider
said it has been granted a payment aggregator (PA) licence by the Reserve Bank
of India under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007?
1) Mswipe 2) Due 3) Fondy 4) CARD91 5) NEU12
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83. The Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) has put in place fresh guidelines for small and
medium enterprises looking to migrate from its SME platform to the main board,
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whereby the applicant will be required to have a net worth of at least _______ for
the preceding two financial years.
1) Rs. 10 crore 2) Rs. 15 crore 3) Rs. 18 crore 4) Rs. 25 crore 5) Rs. 30 crore
84. BOB Financial Solutions Limited (BFSL), a wholly owned subsidiary of Bank of
Baroda, has been rebranded as ‘BOBCARD Limited’ with the tagline “______.”
1) Trust and Excellence 2) Just Simplicity3) Support All the Way
4) Credit Reimagined 5) Banking On More
85. Which of the following Bank raises $300 Million through inaugural Sustainable
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Finance Bond Issue?
1) HDFC Bank 2) ICICI Bank 3) State Bank of India
4) Union Bank of India 5) Canara Bank
86. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has canceled the Certificate of Registration of
Chennai-based Ind Bank Housing Ltd. This company was set up in which year?
1) 1985 2) 1996 3) 1991 4) 2000 5) 2008
87. What is the current limit for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the space sector,
specifically in the area of Satellite Establishment and Operations that is permitted
exclusively through the Government route?
1) 51% 2) 49% 3) 100% 4) 75% 5) 48%
88. Which institution signed an agreement with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to
integrate the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) of India and the National Payments
Interface (NPI) of Nepal?
1) Nepal Bank Limited 2) State Bank of India
3) Rastriya Banijya Bank
4) Nepal Rastra Bank 5) Nepal Central Bank
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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

89. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has (in January 2023) approved the
proposed merger of Fincare Small Finance Bank Limited into and with which
small finance bank?
1) Ujjivan Small Finance Bank 2) Equitas Small Finance Bank
3) AU Small Finance Bank
4) Jana Small Finance Bank 5) Capital Small Finance Bank
90. The Interim Union Budget 2024-25 has allocated Rs.6.21-lakh crore to the Ministry
of Defence. This is ______ of the total Budget expenditure.
1) 10.25% 2) 13.04% 3) 20.56% 4) 05.55% 5) 16.56%
91. With the board approval, Fino Payments Bank submits an application for an SFB
license.How much should the bank’s net worth or minimum paid-up voting equity
capital be maintained?
1) Rs.100 crores 2) Rs.400 crores 3) Rs.300 crores

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4) Rs.500 crores 5) Rs.200 crores
92. How many seats did the BJP win from Uttar Pradesh in the Rajya Sabha elections
held in February 2024?
1) Seven 2) Six 3) Eight 4) Four 5) Five
93. In January 2024, Hyderabad DLabs at the Indian School of Business (ISB) launched
'Build for Billions', a startup accelerator programme, themed around financial
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inclusion for the informal economy, in partnership with Reserve Bank Innovation
Hub (RBIH) and which bank?
1) Bank of India 2) State Bank of India 3) Union Bank of India
4) Indian Bank 5) Indian Overseas Bank

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94. Which fintech startup has partnered with five Indian banks to introduce a virtual
ATM service?
d
1) FinCo 2) Paymart 3) CashTech 4) BankEase 5) Easymart
95. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has recently cut the minimum
application size in case of public issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal Instruments
(ZCZP) by NPOs on Social Stock Exchange from _________ to Rs. 10,000.
ee

1) Rs.5 lakh 2) Rs.4 lakh 3) Rs.3 lakh 4) Rs.1 lakh 5) Rs.2 lakh
96. The Government of India initiated a scheme worth Rs.340 crore, through the
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), for upgradation and strengthening of the
laboratory network in the country. BIS works under which ministry?
C
1) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
2) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
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3) Ministry of Textiles
4) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
5) Ministry of Labour and Employment
97. MILAN is a nine-day mega naval exercise in Visakhapatnam with the participation
of around 50 navies. In February 2024, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh officially
inaugurated the ______ edition of MILAN 2024, the flagship naval exercise hosted
by the Indian Navy in Visakhapatnam.
1) 12th 2) 13th 3) 14th 4) 15th 5) 16th
98. In February 2024, Union Minister for Education and Skill Development Dharmendra
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Pradhan inaugurated India’s inaugural Skill India Centre (SIC) in which district
of Odisha?
1) Balasore 2) Cuttack 3) Bhadrak 4) Sambalpur 5) Jajpur
99. Which of the following digital payment app partnered with Axis Bank for the
settlement of merchant payments?
1) Paytm 2) India Pay 3) Post Pay 4) Bank Pay 5) DakPay
100. Which of the following statements accurately describe Zero-Based Budgeting
(ZBB)?
I) Zero-Based Budgeting was initially introduced in India during the Union Budget
of 1987.
II) Zero-Based Budgeting entails the prioritization of all government expenditures.
III) Zero-Based Budgeting involves conducting a cost-benefit analysis of all
programs, ensuring that those deemed most crucial remain operational if they
are yielding positive results.
Which statement(s) among the options provided are correct?
1) Only (I) and (II) 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III)
4) Only (I) and (III) 5) All (I), (II) and (III)
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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

101. According to the new rule, any telecom company allows any seller to sell SIM
without registration then in such a situation a fine of ________ lakh can be imposed
on him.
1) Rs 1 lakh 2) Rs 2 lakhs 3) Rs 5 lakhs 4) Rs 10 lakhs 5) Rs 20 lakhs
102. With which country has the Ministry of AYUSH signed an agreement to promote
Ayurveda?
1) Cambodia 2) Thailand 3) Nepal 4) Brazil 5) Bhutan
103. Who was recently appointed as the Chairperson of Lokpal by President Draupadi
Murmu?
1) Pinaki Chandra Ghosh 2) Kapil Sibal
3) Ajay Manikrao Khanvilkar 4) Prashant Bhushan 5) Vikram Singh
104. Kerala is the most preferred state to work for employable talent in the country,

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with Kochi being the top choice among Indian cities for female job aspirants,
according to the ‘India Skills Report 2024’, released by talent assessment firm
Wheebox in partnership with organisations including Confederation of Indian
Industry (CII) and All India Council for Technical Education. Which of the following
state was ranked second and third respectively?
ha
1) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
3) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
2) Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
4) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
5) Karnataka and Telangana
105. Of the four astronaut candidates for Gaganyaan, three are group captains, and

1) Angad Pratap

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one of them is a wing commander. Who is the wing commander?
2) Prashant Nair 3) Shubanshu Shukla
d
4) Ajit Krishnan 5) None of these
106. Union Minister Dr. Where did Mansukh Mandaviya launch the AYUSH-ICMR
Advanced Centre?
1) New Delhi 2) Ahmedabad 3) Kolkata
ee

4) Chennai 5) Visakhapatnam
107. Which Indian was awarded honorary knighthood by Britain's King Charles III?
1) Gautam Adani 2) Sunil Bharti Mittal 3) Mukesh Ambani
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4) Uday Kotak 5) Anil Ambani
108. How many crores of rupees have been approved for 'PM-Surya Ghar Muft Bijli
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Yojana'?
1) 50,000 crores 2) 60,000 crores 3) 75,000 crores
4) 90,000 crores 5) 32,000 crores
109. Which bank has entered into a strategic bancassurance alliance with Edelweiss
Tokio Life Insurance to offer life insurance?
1) Jana Small Finance Bank 2) ESAF Small Finance Bank
3) Equitas Small Finance Bank
4) Ujjivan Small Finance Bank 5) AU Small Finance Bank
C
110. India's first indigenously designed 155 mm smart ammunition will be developed
by _______ in partnership with Munitions India Limited to achieve indigenization
in the defence sector.
1) IIT Delhi 2) IIT Kanpur 3) IIT Bombay 4) IIT Madras 5) IIT Roorkee
111. In the global ranking of stock markets by market capitalization, where does India
stand currently?
1) 1st 2) 2nd 3) 4th 4) 6th 5) 8th
112. During the occasion of Emmanuel Macron, the French President's visit to India
for the 75th Republic Day celebrations where he was the Chief Guest, which
corporation signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Airbus Helicopters
for setting up a final assembly line (FAL) in India for H125 helicopters?
1) Reliance Industries Limited 2) Mahindra Group
3) Larsen Toubro 4) Tata Group 5) Bharat Forge Limited
113. Which year has the Indian Army declared as the "Year of Technology Absorption"
to emphasize modernization and operational efficiency?
1) 2026 2) 2025 3) 2024 4) 2027 5) 2028
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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

114. Prime Global Cities Index Q3 2023 has been released by real estate consultant
Knight Frank India on 01 November 2023. Mumbai has got which place among 46
cities globally in terms of price rise of luxury homes?
1) First 2) Second 3) Third 4) Fifth 5) Fourth
115. What is the name of the grassroots-level talent-identification programme started
by the Union Sports Ministry, aimed at school-going children?
1) Prithvi 2) Yuva Khiladi 3) Samarth 4) Kirti 5) Pratibha
116. The Krishnaraja Sagar dam is located in which State?
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Karnataka
4) Telangana 5) Gujarat
117. Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the submarine optical fibre
cable project, implemented at a cost of Rs.1,072 crore, where was the project

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inaugurated in?
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Andaman and Nicobar islands
3) Lakshadweep 4) Kerala 5) Puducherry
118. Who has been appointed as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of PhonePe's
international payments business, which is owned by Walmart?
1) Ritesh Kumar
4) Ritesh Pai
ha 2) Ritesh Gupta 3) Ritesh Sharma
5) Ritesh Verma
119. With which country's Coast Guard is India conducting the "Sea Defenders-2024"
exercise?
1) Australia 2) Japan

E 3) USA 4) France 5) Germany

120. In February 2024, Union Minister of Education Dharmendra Pradhan inaugurated
d
the 52nd edition of the New Delhi World Book Fair at Bharat Mandapam. What is
the theme of the New Delhi World Book Fair 2024?
1) Multilingual India: A Living Tradition 2) Literature Unbounded
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3) Global Literary Connections

4) Books and Beyond 5) Celebrating Literary Diversity
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (121-125): In the following question, one part of the sentence may
C
have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the
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option corresponding to it. (Avoid punctuation errors)

121. The late Ice Age population of Eurasia, among central Europe and Lake Baikal in
Siberia, was never large.
1) The late Ice Age population of Eurasia,
2) among central Europe and 3) Lake Baikal in Siberia,
4) was never large. 5) No error
122. Perhaps as early as 30,000 years ago, and certain by 20,000, late Ice Age bands
were hunting and foraging to the east of Lake Baikal.
C
1) Perhaps as early as 30,000 years ago,
2) and certain by 20,000, late Ice Age
3) bands were hunting and foraging
4) to the east of Lake Baikal. 5) No error
123. The emergence of the US as a superpower by the mid-twentieth century is one of
the most striking change of modern history.
1) The emergence of the US as a
2) superpower by the mid-twentieth century
3) is one of the most striking
4) change of modern history. 5) No error
124. A crucial factor in this growth of population was another feature of the New
World, the large scale emigration to Europe.
1) A crucial factor in this growth of 2) population was another feature
3) of the New World, the large
4) scale emigration to Europe. 5) No error
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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

125. Some expert believe that human predators helped in the process of extinction by
exploiting slow-breeding mammals like the mammoth and mastodon.
1) Some expert believe that human predators
2) helped in the process of extinction
3) by exploiting slow-breeding mammals
4) like the mammoth and mastodon. 5) No error
Directions (126-130): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, fits the
blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully?
126. NASCAR Nextel Cup Series was first held in 1960 in an _____ by NASCAR to stage
a Memorial Day weekend race to compete with the open-wheel Indianapolis 500.

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1) pursuing 2) seeks 3) attempt 4) tackled 5) aims
127. The purchase included a standing mansion and outbuildings, which were
____________ converted for use as a school.
1) eventual 2) instant 3) immediately 4) prompt 5) direct
128. Max Berg _______ Centennial Hall to serve as a multifunctional structure to host
“exhibitions, concerts, theatrical and opera performances, and sporting events”.
ha
1) arranging 2) construct 3) designed 4) creating 5) describe
129. The field for the PGA Championship is sometimes regarded as the strongest in
professional golf, ____________ having the highest “strength of field rating”.
1) common 2) consistent 3) infrequent 4) routinely 5) rare

E
130. Their story was kept secret for more than 40 years after the war, until it was
____________ in 1996.
d
1) conceal 2) declassified 3) publicize 4) displays 5) exhibits
Directions (131-135): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), and (D) are given in
bold. If two of these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful
ee

and grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will
make the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your
answer. If all the words are appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
131. The IMF slashed (A) China’s forecast to a growth of 1.2%, asset (B) data on
C
industrial production, retail sales, and fixed citing (C) investment that, it said,
suggested a contraction (D) of about 8% in the first quarter.
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1) DA 2) CA 3) DB 4) DC 5) CB
132. The pandemic has seen several countries displaying backyards (A) and cooperation
providing essential (B) supplies to others even while tackling (C) the novel
coronavirus in their own solidarity (D).
1) BA 2) CB 3) DC 4) DA 5) CA
133. India might not run out (A) of hydroxychloroquine as the national taskforce (B)
for COVID-19 had recommendation (C) on weak, aneDCotal evidence to make
C
the relied (D).
1) DC 2) BA 3) DB 4) CB 5) DA
134. In projecting an annual expansion (A) in Asia’s largest economy, the optimistically
(B) is rather fund (C) foreseeing a sharp rebound (D) in activity over the rest of
the year.
1) CA 2) DC 3) BA 4) DB 5) CB
135. Till recently India relied (A) solely on other countries for worsens (B) supplies
and may look to others for essential (C) materials if the situation test (D).
1) CB 2) DC 3) CA 4) DB 5) BA
Directions (136-138): In the question given below two statements are given.
Connect them by choosing the word given in options in the best possible way
without changing the intended meaning.
136. A. The menace of cybercrime is not confined to state
B. It is a concern all over the globe.
1) having 2) or 3) but 4) as 5) None of these

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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

137. A. For generations, the people of India consumed millets and pulses-based food.
B. Now the consumption pattern changed due to market strategies of developed
countries.
1) in spite of 2) despite of 3) not 4) but 5) None of these
138. A. There were other obstacles
B. The mild persecutions of the church
1) owing 2) besides 3) due 4) as 5) None of these
Direction (139-143): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and
(E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the
given question.
(A) He will seek to thwart the Clean Power Plan, which sets national standards
to limit carbon-dioxide emissions from power plants, and withdraw from the Paris

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deal itself.
(B) Now that the agreement has entered into force, the country is bound to it for
four years.
(C) The world’s governments are starting to act on their pollution-cutting pledges.
(D) The president-elect has claimed that global warming is a hoax intended to
ha
frustrate American businesses.
(E) However, none of his options is easy.
139. Which of the following will be FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

2) B

E
140. Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 3) C 4) D 5) E
d
141. Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
142. Which of the following will be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
ee

143. Which of the following will be FIFTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (144-147): Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite
C
meaning of the given word.
144. Decent
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1) Polite 2) Proper 3) Prudent 4) Unrefined 5) Gentle

145. Urged
1) Appetite 2) Compulsion 3) Craving 4) Hindrance 5) Desperate
146. Estimate
1) Fact 2) Assessment 3) Conclusion 4) Appraisal 5) Guess
147. Abandon
1) Desert 2) Cherish 3) Abdicate 4) Dump 5) Forsake
Directions (148-149): In each question, there is a statement followed by three
C
starters which are denoted by (A), (B) and (C). Each starter is a group of first few
words of the sentence which on proper completion, is supposed to convey the
same meaning of the original statement. Find out which one or more starters can
form grammatically correct sentence(s) to convey the same meaning of the original
statement.
148. He was occupied with important matters. He had no leisure to see visitors.
A. No leisure to see……
B. Being occupied…..
C. Occupying important matters……
1) Only A 2) only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and B 5) None of these
149. The letter was badly written. I had great difficulty in making out hits content.
A. The letter having…….
B. Having great difficulty……
C. Making out the content…….
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and C 5) None of these

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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

Directions (150-160): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it.
Is the current status quo good for a majority of farmers? An Indian engaged
in industry or any aspect of the services sector (this includes a waiter in a
restaurant) earns more than an average farmer. This anomaly is not common in
all countries. So, despite all the pro-farmer laws and protection, why do farmers
in India earn less? A recent study by RBI showed that a potato farmer gets only
28 per cent of what the consumer pays. Across all crops, the farmgate price is 40-
60 per cent less than the consumer price.The real challenge is how to encourage
growth while protecting the poor. I argue that, first, a social safety net needs to
be created to provide direct income transfers to the vulnerable and then factor
markets involving labour and agricultural land need to be reformed to ensure

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productivity-enhancing growth. And how does India ensure growth which benefits
the poor? Here, I argue that employment creating growth in the manufacturing
and services sector is the only way to lift the poor out of poverty and enable
millions to move to higher-wage productive jobs. Despite a narrow tax base, India
has created a comprehensive social safety net, which can cushion growth-enabling
market reforms. India’s Food Security Act guarantees highly subsidised wheat
ha
and rice. Accurate targeting of food entitlements to the bottom 67 per cent
through Aadhaar identification and digital ration cards paired with E-POS machines
in fair price shops has considerably reduced the leakage of subsidised grains.
The National Social Assistance programme intends to provide direct income support

E
to over 40 million elderly landless agricultural workers, poor women-headed
households and families with physically-challenged children. Today, with over 18
d
million Aadhaar seeded accounts, a large share of this transfer is reaching the
intended. India also provides income support annually to 145 million farmers,
paying out Rs 75,000 crore. This benefits all farmers while MSP benefits only 6
ee

per cent of farm produce. The safety nets constructed on the back of Jan Dhan
accounts, mobile connectivity and Aadhaar identification have improved the
delivery of benefits in a wide range of sectors, from housing to scholarships. Of
course, providing income support to all the vulnerable sections is still a work in
C
progress. But if state support for social safety net has to become sustainable,
wide-ranging growth, which will broaden the tax base, is essential. India’s growth
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itself can be designed to reduce the number of people who need state support.
The agriculture and labour reforms recently passed create the conditions for
productivity-enhancing growth, benefiting millions of small farmers and
unorganised workers. Let us take a look at what the farm laws achieve and how
they will change the status quo. The Green Revolution, along with public
investments in irrigation and fertiliser subsidies, has expanded India’s agricultural
production. However, farmers have not gained proportionately from production
growth as 40-60 per cent of the value is appropriated by intermediaries. Status
C
quo-its laws have created this mess.
150. According to the author what can be the best way to lift the vulnerable from their
susceptible conditions
1) Higher wages 2) more employment opportunities
3) more produce through hybridisation
4) continues monitoring of financial condition
5) social safety net for financial transfers
151. According to the passage how the deprived people are going to be supported
1) Creating employment 2) reformation in productivity
3) through digital ration cards
4) National social assistance Programme 5) enhancing standard of living
152. Identify any one of the social nets that made the delivery of benefits more accessible
to the poor
1) mobile connectivity 2) various welfare schemes
3) promising politicians
4) Natural resources 5) existence of more farmers

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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

153. Indian agricultural production has been expanded due to

1) Welfare activities to farmers 2) technology in 20th century
3) green revolution 4) political support 5) social networking agencies
154. What is meant by anomaly?
1) True and worthy 2) abnormally 3) effective
4) very impressive 5) continuous
155. According to the author what is the central theme of the passage
1) Benefits to agriculture labourers 2) performance of farmers
3) conditions of farmers
4) misery of farmers 5) great efforts farmers
156. Which one of the following statements are true?
I. farmers in India are less paid

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II. Farmers are largely supported by the Indian government
III. Farmers would get more benefits according to RBI reports
1) I only 2) II only c) I and II only 4) III only 5) I and III only
157. Choose correct meaning for farm gate price
1) Notional price of a produce 2) declared prices by government 3) Highest price
ha
for agricultural produce
4) least price for produce 5) Market prices
158. Specify the expectation of the author through this passage
1) Indian farmers to be given government support

E
2) Indian farmers need training
3) Indian farmers to be given more opportunities
d
4) Indian farmers has to visit other countries
5) Indian farmers are to be punished
159. Choose a suitable antonym for agglomeration
1) decentralize 2) communication 3) translation 74) collection 5) situation
ee

160. Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the word underlined in the given
sentence.
…………..providing income support to all the vulnerable sections is still a work in
C
progress
1) strong 2) large 3) small 4) weak 5) rare
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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (161-166): Refer the table and answer the given question:
In the given table shows the ratio of the speed of the stream to the speed of
the boat in still water and downstream speed is given, find the answer of the
following question.
Ratio of speed of
Downstream speed
Boats stream to speed of
C
(in Km/hr)
boat in still water
A 1:5 18

B 3:5 16

C 5:8 13

D 1:3 12

E 2:3 15

161. Find the total distance travelled by boat A if it takes 20 hours to travel a total
distance in upstream and downstream?
1) 324 km 2) 256 km 3) 288 km 4) 196 km 5) 364 km
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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

162. If the distance travelled in the upstream direction by boat B and boat C are the
same. Find the ratio of time taken by boat C to boat B?
1) 5: 4 2) 5: 7 3) 3: 5 4) 4: 3 5) 5: 9
163. Boat B travelled a distance of 192 km in downstream and the same in upstream
while boat C travelled a distance of 78 km downstream and the same in upstream.
Find the difference between the time taken by boat B and that by boat C?
1) 34 hrs 2) 24 hrs 3) 38 hrs 4) 20 hrs 5) 28 hrs
164. If the speed of boat F in still water is 20 km/hr more than that of boat B and the
speed of the stream is same as the speed of boat A in still water. Find the total
time taken by boat F to cover the same distance that boat E covered in upstream

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and downstream in a total of 36 hours?
1) 12 hrs 2) 8 hrs 2) 20 hrs 4) 16 hrs 5) 27 hrs
165. If the speed of boat D in still water is increased by 33.33% and the speed of the
stream remains the same. Find the respective ratio of the total time taken before
ha
the change in speed to after the change in speed of boat D? (Consider distance is
same in both the conditions)
1) 45: 67 2) 34: 45 3) 45: 32 4) 36: 47 5) 29: 45
166. Find the total time taken by boat E is what percent more or less than that by boat

E
D to cover the same distance?
d
1) 45% 3) 30% 3) 70% 4) 56% 5) 60%
167. There are mixture A and mixture B of water and alcohol. Mixture A contains 45%
of alcohol and mixture B contains 35% of alcohol. Both mixtures are mixed such
ee

that the final mixture contains 61% of water. Find what percentage of mixture B
is less or more than mixture A in the new mixture?
1) 30% 2) 50% 2) 25% 4) 65% 5) 60%
C
168. If the ratio of the present age of a family consists of father, mother, Dolly and
Sonu are 6:5:2:1. The average age of the father and Sonu is 28 years. Find the
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sum of the age of Dolly’s uncle and aunty? (If uncle was born after 6 years of
dolly’s father and aunty was 4 years older than Dolly’s mother)
1) 56 yrs 2) 60 yrs 3) 86 yrs 4) 45 yrs 5) 74 yrs
169. The sum of the radius of a circle and the breadth of a rectangle having a length
of 32 m is 46 m. If the ratio of the circumference of the circle to the perimeter of
the rectangle is 44: 25, then find the difference between the area of the rectangle
C
and that of the circle (in m²)?
1) 1456 2) 1888 3) 2156 4) 2016 5) 2560
170. A has two articles of the same cost price. He has sold both articles to B at Rs 160
each. If the profit % on the first article for A (calculated on CP) is 60% more than
the profit % on the second article for A (calculated on SP) and B sold the first
article at Rs. _______ and earns a profit which is 20% less than the profit earned
by A on the first article, then what comes in the blank place?
1) Rs. 190 2) Rs. 208 3) Rs. 256 4) Rs. 180 5) Rs. 245
171. Boat Q travels 432 km in upstream in 36 hrs. The speed of another boat P in still
water is 50% of the speed of boat Q in downstream and the speed of stream for
both boat P and Q is the same i.e. 12 km/hr. Find the distance travelled by boat
P in downstream in 18 hours?
1) 450 km 2) 360 km 3) 480km 4) 640 km 5) 540 km

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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

172. 300 m long Train A crosses Train B of 180 m in length which is running in the
5
opposite direction in 5 sec. If the speed of train B is 20% more than that of
11
train A, then find the time taken by both trains to cross each other, when they
are running in the same direction?
1) 75 sec 2) 60 sec 3) 108 sec 4) 45 sec 5) 30 sec
173. Biber and Amber start a business with an investment of Rs.44000 and Rs.68000.
After some months, Johnny joins them with an investment is 12.5% more than
the average initial investment of Biber and Amber. If at the end of the year, the
profit share of Amber out of the total Profit of Rs.16590 is Rs.8160, then find

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Johnny invested for how many months?
1) 8 2) 9 3) 3 4) 5 5) 7
174. A bag contains some balls of 3 different colors in which red balls are 6 and some
White and Yellow balls. If a ball is drawn randomly, the probability of getting a
4 2
White ball is
9
ha
and the probability of getting a yellow ball is
9
. Find the total
balls in the bag?
1) 24 2) 14 3) 26 4) 18 5) 20
175.

E
‘N’ men can do a piece of work in 21 days working 8 hours each day. The number
of days taken by N men is 70% of the number of days taken by (N – 1) men,
d
working 6 hours a day. Find in how many days (N + 3) men working ten hours in
a day can complete the same work?
1) 12 days 2) 10 days 3) 14 days 4) 20 days 5) 24 days
ee

Direction (176- 180): In each of the following questions, two quantities I and II
are given below. You are expected to solve them and find the correct relation
between them.
176. Quantity I: Mixture ‘A’ contains 60% of milk and the rest is water. 20 litres of
C
milk is added to the mixture ‘A’ and then, 50% of the mixture ‘A’ is taken and
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poured into an empty container ‘B’. When 20 litres of water is added to container
‘B’, the ratio of milk and water becomes 5:6 then find the initial quantity of milk?
Quantity II: 25L
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I = Quantity II, relation cannot be established
4) Quantity I  Quantity II 5) Quantity I  Quantity II
177. Quantity I: The speed of the boat is 12km/hr more than that of the current. The
C
time taken by the boat to cover 240 km downstream is 3 hours more than the
time taken by the boat to cover 60km upstream. If the boat can cover ‘n’ km
downstream in 1.5 hours then find the value of ‘n’?
Quantity II: x2 – 75x + 1250 = 0
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I = Quantity II, relation cannot be established
4) Quantity I  Quantity II 5) Quantity I  Quantity II
178. Quantity I: A invested an amount of Rs.16000 for 2 years at simple interest.
After 2 years, he increased his amount to 120% of the previous amount. If after 4
years of increasing amount, he received a total interest (for 6 years) of Rs.16320,
what is the rate of interest? (Rate of interest is the same in both cases)
Quantity II: 25% of 576 – 12% of 1100 =?
1) Quantity I  Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I = Quantity II, relation cannot be established
4) Quantity I > Quantity II 5) Quantity I  Quantity II
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Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

179. Quantity I: Pipe A and Pipe C take 'X' and 'X+4' hours to fill the tank. Pipe B takes
30 hours to fill the same tank. Pipe A and Pipe C opened in starting and after 6
hours Pipe A is closed and Pipe B is opened and the remaining tank was filled in
6 hours. Find the value of 'X'?
Quantity II: 2Y2 – 13Y + 21 = 0, find the value of ‘Y’
1) Quantity I  Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I > Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II, relation cannot be established
180. A, B and C started a business and invested for 6, 8 and 12 months respectively.
The ratio between investment of A and B is 3: x, and that of B and C is 7: 9. If the

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ratio between A’s and B’s share in profit is 5: 6 and the difference between C’s
share to B’s share in profit are 2340.
Quantity I: Three times of A’s profit share.
Quantity II: Two times of B’s profit share.
1) Quantity I  Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
ha
3) Quantity I > Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II, relation cannot be established
Direction (181 – 185): Study the following information carefully and answer the
related questions.

E
The data regarding the number of students who passed and failed in the annual
d
exam of a school in four different years.
The total number of students in 2020 is 136, out of which 76 students
failed. 100% more students passed in 2021 as compared to that in the previous
ee

year. Only one more student passed in 2021 as compared to that in 2019. The
number of students who failed in 2021 is 30 and 34 more students failed in 2020
than that in 2022.
C
In 2022, the number of students who failed is 50% less than the number of
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students who passed. Total students in 2019 and 2020 together are 306.
181. In 2019, the number of female students is 22 less than the number of passed
students, then how many male students are in 2019?
1) 51 2) 97 3)119
4) 73 5) Cannot be determined
182. If the average number of students who passed in 2018, 2019 and 2020 is 75, then
find the difference between the number of students who passed in 2018 and that
C
in 2022 is?
1) 38 2) 42 3) 20 4) 46 5) 26
183. What is the ratio of the number of students who failed in 2019 to the number of
students who failed in 2022?
1) 7: 3 2) 11: 9 3) 17: 14 4) 19: 21 5) 31: 34
184. If the total number of female students in 2022 is 56, out of which only 14 failed,
then what percentage of the number of male students passed in 2022?
1 2
1) 25% 2) 33 % 3) 50% 4) 66 % 5) 75%
3 3
185. The number of students who passed in 2020 and 2021 together is approximately
what percentage more than the number of students who failed in 2019 and 2021
together?
1) 65% 2) 122% 3) 160% 4) 27% 5) 254%

18
Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

Direction (186 -190): In each of these questions a number series is given. In

each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
186. 11, 15, 22, 37, 61, 96, 144
1) 11 2) 22 3) 37 4) 61 5) 15
187. 2, 7, 17, 49, 109, 212, 372, 604
1) 17 2) 49 3) 109 4) 372 5) 604
188. 5, 46, 318, 1599, 4781, 4756

r’s
1) 318 2) 1599 3) 4781 4) 4756 5) 46
189. 1562.5, 1250, 1000, 810, 640, 512
1) 1250 2) 1562.5 3) 640 4) 810 5) 512
190. 8, 27, 64, 190, 568, 1702
1) 8 2) 64
ha 3) 27 4) 568 5) 1702
191. There are _____ students in a class, and the average weight of the students is 20

E
kg. When two new students include in the class average weight becomes 22 kg.
After these four students left the class, whose weight was half of the weight of
d
the two students included previously, the average weight of the students becomes
25 kg.
ee

1) 24 2) 16 3) 25 4) 18 5) 10
192. The ratio of age of a man to his elder son is 20: 9, and the ratio between the age
of his wife and his younger son is 3: 1. If the difference between the age of the
elder son and younger son is 6 years (Man has only two sons and no daughter),
C
and the average age of the family is 26.5 year, then find the age of wife?
Sr

1) 24 yrs 2) 32 yrs 3) 34 yrs 4) 36 yrs 5) 40 yrs

193. Pipe P alone can fill a cistern in 20 hours. Pipe P and pipe Q when opened
together can fill half of the cistern in ‘x’ hours. Pipe Q alone can fill 75% of the
5
cistern in 5 hours. What is the value of ‘x’?
8
C
15 35 26 30 60
1) hrs 2) hrs 3) hrs 4) hrs 5) hrs
11 9 8 11 11
194. The volume of a cylinder and height is 13860 m2 and 10 meters. If the length of
the rectangle is 4 meters more than the radius of the cylinder and its perimeter
is 80 meters, then find the breadth of the rectangle?
1) 12 2) 20 3) 15 4) 21 5) 18
195. Vignesh invested Rs.36000 in scheme A offering 12.5% per annum simple interest
for 2 years. After 2 years, he withdraws the total amount and invests in scheme
B which offers 20% per annum compound interest for three years. Find the
interest earned by Vignesh from scheme B?
1) Rs. 28750 2) Rs. 32760 3) Rs. 29870 4) R. 34500 5) Rs. 31500

19
Sreedhar's CCE RRB CLERK M A I N S : TA RGET M A I N S

Direction (196-200):Refer to the data and answer the given question.

Given Line graph shows the percentage distribution of the lengths of
different trains and their respective speed. The sum of the lengths of all five
trains is 2000m
80
72
70 70
60 63
54
50 50
40
30 26%
24%

r’s
20% 18%
20
12%
10
0
A B C D E
ha
percentage distribution of length of the train speed km/hr

196. If train A and B are moving in the opposite direction, then in how much time they
will cross each other? (in seconds)
1) 36.8 2) 30

E 3) 26.4 4) 48 5) 20.5
197. What is the ratio of the time taken by train A and train D respectively to cross a
d
platform of length 300m?
1) 18:23 2) 36:41 3) 23:17 4) 41:26 5) 36:31
198. If train B is moving with 20% more speed, then find the length of platform (mt)
ee

crosses by it in 36.6 seconds?

1) 130 2) 210 3) 180 4) 150 5) 240
199. Train A started from station X towards station Y. At the same time, train B
started from station Y towards X. if the distance between station X and Y is 840
C
km, then find the time taken by train A to reach station Y after meeting with
train B?
Sr

1) 7hrs 2) 8 hrs 3) 3 hrs 4) 5 hrs 5) 10 hrs

200. Train D started from station M towards station N at 5 P.M. Train E started from
station N towards M at 10 P.M. If both the trains meet at 2:00 am, then find the
total distance between the two stations (M & N)?
1) 640 km 2) 900 km 3) 720 km 4) 880 km 5) Cannot be determined

KEY
1.5 2.2 3.1 4.4 5.5 6.2 7.3 8.4 9.4 10.3 11.2 12.5 13.4
C
14.1 15.5 16.3 17.2 18.3 19.5 20.1 21.4 22.5 23.4 24.1 25.4 26.3
27.5 28.1 29.3 30.2 31.1 32.2 33.2 34.4 35.3 36.1 37.5 38.4 39.3
40.5 41.2 42.4 43.1 44.4 45.2 46.1 47.5 48.2 49.5 50.5 51.1 52.2
53.3 54.1 55.5 56.3 57.4 58.3 59.5 60.3 61.1 62.4 63.4 64.3 65.5
66.4 67.3 68.3 69.4 70.1 71.3 72.4 73.3 74.1 75.4 76.4 77.4 78.1
79.1 80.3 81.2 82.1 83.2 84.4 85.1 86.3 87.3 88.4 89.3 90.2 91.5
92.3 93.3 94.2 95.5 96.2 97.1 98.4 99.1 100.1 101.4 102.2 103.3 104.4
105.3 106.1 107.2 108.3 109.2 110.4 111.3 112.4 113.3 114.5 115.4 116.3 117.3
118.4 119.3 120.1 121.2 122.2 123.4 124.4 125.1 126.3 127.3 128.3 129.4 130.2
131.5 132.4 133.1 134.5 135.4 136.3 137.4 138.2 139.5 140.3 141.1 142.4 143.2
144.4 145.4 146.1 147.2 148.2 149.4 150.5 151.4 152.1 153.3 154.2 155.4 156.1
157.1 158.1 159.4 160.4 161.3 162.4 163.5 164.2 165.3 166.5 167.2 168.3 169.2
170.2 171.5 172.2 173.4 174.4 175.3 176.1 177.3 178.4 179.3 180.3 181.4 182.1
183.3 184.2 185.2 186.5 187.1 188.4 189.4 190.3 191.4 192.4 193.4 194.3 195.2
196.3 197.2 198.1 199.4 200.2

20