1. The unit of measuring PO2 in blood is a. Mg/dl. b. Gm/dl. c. Ml/min. d. mmHg e. Mmol/l. 2. O2 delivery in the blood equal to a. Mg/dl.

b. Gm/dl. c. Ml/min. d. mmHg e. Mmol/l. 3. Pituitary gland called a. Sweet gland b. Mammary gland c. Master gland d. Purity gland 4. The Symbol ( ST) in the Lab means a. Blank b. Test c. Standard d. Control e. Non 5. CO2 transported in Plasma as a. Bicarbonate ions b. Carbonate ions c. Carbohydrate d. Sulphate ions e. CO2

6. Diseases associated with inherited hemolytic anemia a. Sickle cell diseases b. Thalassaemia c. G6PD d. Hereditary spherocytosis e. ALL. 7. In Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) diagnosis by a. PT b. PTT c. Reduced in fibrinogens level d. Severe Thrombocytopenia *reduced Platelets* e. ALL e. Non 8. B- cell produce a. Antibodies b. Cytokines c. Sugar d. Toxic e. Interferon 9. DAT positive test occurs in Cases such as a. Hemolytic disease of newborn b. Hemolytic Blood transfusion c. Warm reactive autoantibodies d. Cold Reactive autoantibodies e. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobin. f. All.

10. Leukocytes have short life Spain polymorph nuclear multiple lopes and have mobile phygocytosis have receptor for IgG and complement a. Basophiles b. Monocyts c. Lymphocytes d. Neutrophils e. Eosinophils. 11. Leukocytes involved in anaphylactic hypersensitivity and inflammatory reaction a. Basophiles b. Monocyts c. Lymphocytes d. Neutrophils e. Eosinophils. 12. Fixed tissue macrophages are a. Basophiles b. Monocyts c. Lymphocytes d. Neutrophils e. Eosinophils. 13. A guideline reference range for MCV in health patient a. 80-98 fl. b. 27-32 pg c. 31.5-36 g/dl. d. 15.18 mg/dl. e. 13.5-18 g/dl.

14. A guideline reference range for MCH in health patient a. 80-98 fl. b. 27-32 pg c. 31.5-36 g/dl. d. 15.18 mg/dl. e. 13.5-18 g/dl. 15. A guideline reference range for MCHC in health patient a. 80-98 fl. b. 27-32 pg c. 31.5-36 g/dl. d. 15.18 mg/dl. e. 13.5-18 g/dl. 16. Gram positive rods give gray colony color a. Bacillus anthraces b. E.coli c. Shigella d. Mycobacterium e. Non 17. Anticoagulant used in W.B.Cs counting a. Sodium citrate b. Ammonium oxalate c. SPS d. EDITA e. Heparin 18. In manual counting of platelets the solution used is a. Acetic acid b. Normal saline c. Ammonium oxalate reagent d. Dis.Water e. Non
4

19. One of the following test cannot perform using capillary blood a. Hemoglobin b. Platelets c. WBCs d. RBCs e. Bleeding time 20. Neutrophils count in normal patient a. 40 75 % b. 21- 40 % c. 1-6% d. 0 -1 %. 21. Anticoagulant used in ESR test a. Sodium citrate b. Ammonium oxalate c. SPS d. EDITA e. Heparin 22. Raised reticulocyte counts found when there is a. Hemolytic anemia b. Diabetius mellitus c. Pancretic disease d. Stomach ulcer 23. The main HB in infant below 3 months. a. HBA b. HBA2 c. HBF d. HBS

24. Anticoagulant used in prothrobin time assay is a. Sodium citrate b. Ammonium oxalate c. SPS d. EDITA e. Heparin 25. In DIC all the following is increased except a. PT b. APTT c. TT d. Platelets e. None of the above. 26. HAV transmission a. Blood b. Body fluid c. Sexual contact d. Fecal oral 27. HBV transmission a. Blood b. Body fluid c. Sexual contact d. ALL 28. HCV transmission a. Blood b. Body fluid c. Sexual contact d. Fecal oral 29. Enterobacter is a. Gram-negative cocobacillus b. The large negative rod c. The small negative rod

30. Enterococci are typically arranged in pairs and can not be or difficult differentiated from a. Streptococci b. Staphylococci c. Spirochete d. Meningococci 31. Patient comes to the lab. After take meal since two hours the normal level of his glucose is a. 100 150 mg/dl. b. 70 110 mg/dl. c. 50 90 mg/dl. d. 100 150 gm/l. 32. Infective stage of Taenia: a. Larva b. Cercaria c. Embryonated egg d. Cysticercus e. Metacercaria 33. Which is most abundant (prevalence)? a. Plasmodium falciparum. b. P.ovali. c. P.malari. d. P.vivax. 35. The person should not have donated blood within the previous a. 3 month. b. 5month. c. 2 month. d. 1year. 36. Blood grouping antibodies are a. IgG b. IgM c. IgE d. IgD e. IgA
7

37. Antibodies associated in Rh. a. IgG b. IgM c. IgE d. IgD e. IgA 38. When using a gravity water filter fitted with a ceramic filter the porosity is a. 0.22 m b. 0.58 m c. 0.9 m d. 1.22 m 39. Congenital Parasites infected human a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Trypanosoma sp. d. Plasmodium malaria e. Toxoplasma gondii 40. OOcysts found in a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Trypanosoma sp. d. Plasmodium malaria e. Toxoplasma gondii 41. Parasite transmitted through blood transfusion transplacental transmission or ingested parasite in undercooked meat of infected animal a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Giardia lamblia c. Trypanosoma sp. d. Plasmodium malaria e. Toxoplasma gondii
8

42. The dog is definitive host a. Echinococcus granulosis b. Trypanosoma sp. c. Plasmodium malaria d. Toxoplasma gondii. 43. Tissue Nematodes a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Echinococcus granulosis c. Trypanosoma sp. d. Trichinella spiralis e. Toxoplasma gondii 44. Parasite isolated from sputum a. Paragonium watermani b. Echinococcus granulosis c. Trypanosoma sp. d. Trichinella spiralis e. Toxoplasma gondii 45. Parasite cause lung fluke disease a. Trichinella spiralis b. Echinococcus granulosis c. Trypanosoma sp. d. Paragonium westermani e. Toxoplasma gondii 46. In emergency treatment of cuts and bleeding if cut is small. We do a. Wash with area with soap and water b. Apply pressure with apiece of cotton wool c. Disinfected the area with skin antiseptic d. Cove with a water proof dressing e. ALL. 47. The first aid you do if chemical injury to the eye a. Wash the affected eye quickly b. Seek medical attention
9

c. Trans to other place d. Call the physician e. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water. 48. The Acidic chemical injury to the eye neutralized with a. 5% acetic acid b. Boric acid c. Magnesium hydroxide d. Milk e. 5%Sodium bicarbonate. 49. The Alkaline chemical injury to the eye neutralized with a. 5% acetic acid b. Boric acid c. Magnesium hydroxide d. Milk e. 5%Sodium bicarbonate. 50. The first aid you do in chemical burns of skin a. Wash immediately in running water b. Seek medical attention c. Trans to other place d. Call the physician e. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water. 51. Alkaline skin burn neutralized by a. 5% acetic acid b. Boric acid c. Magnesium hydroxide d. Milk e. 5%Sodium bicarbonate.

10

52. Acidic skin Burn neutralized by a. 5% acetic acid b. Boric acid powder c. Magnesium hydroxide d. Milk e. Sodium bicarbonate powder. 53. The first aid you do in swallowing of an acid or alkali chemical or poisons. a. Wash immediately in running water b. Seek medical attention c. Trans to other place d. Call the physician e. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water. 54. The first aid you do in swallowing of infected material a. Wash immediately in running water b. Immediately Seek medical attention c. Trans to other place d. Call the physician e. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water. 55. If acid has been Swallowed neutralize by a. 5% acetic acid b. Boric acid powder c. Drinking 8 %Magnesium hydroxide d. Milk e. C or D. 56. If alkali has been swallowed neutralize by a. Drinking lemon juice b. 1 % acetic acid. c. A or b d. Drinking 8 %Magnesium hydroxide e. Milk.

11

57. Taenia saginata diagnostic by a. Gravid segment b. Ova in stool c. Cyst d. Trophozoite e. Larva in stool. 58. Beef tap worm a. T.saginata b. T.solium c. Schistosoma hematobium d. Entamobia histolytica e. Fasciola hepatica 59. Pork tap worm a. T.saginata b. T.solium c. Schistosoma hematobium d. Entamobia histolytica e. Fasciola hepatica 60. Infective stage in malaria a. Cyst b. Trophozoit c. Ova d. Sporozoites e. Larva. 61. When to collect blood for malaria blood should be collected. a. As soon as malaria is suspected b. Before the patient receive anti malarial drug c. A and b d. After symptoms appear e. After rising in temperature
12

62. Balantidum coli in a. Stomach b. Large intestin c. Small intestin d. Liver 63. Ancylostoma diagnostic by a. Ova in stool b. Larva in stool c. Cyst in stool d. Trophozoite 64. Fasciola live in a. Liver and bile duct b. Pancrease c. Stomach d. Kidney

65. Fasciola Diagnostic by a. Ova in stool b. Larva in stool c. Cyst in stool d. Trophozoite 66. Infective stage in Fasciola a. Larva b. Cyst c. Metacercaria d. Cercaria 67. Naturally occurring stable bacteria that lack a rigid cell wall a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
13

b. E.coli c. Mycoplasma d. Enterobacteriacae 68. Gram positive bacteria stained a. Dark purple b. Yellow c. Green d. Red 69. Gram negative bacteria may appear as gram positive when a.Smear is tool thick b. Cell wall damage by antibiotic therapy c.Over decolorization d. Use old iodine e.Smear from old culture

70. Gram positive organisms may appear as gram negative when a.Cell wall damage by antibiotic therapy b. Over decolorization c.Use old iodine d. Smear from old culture e.All. 71. The biochemical test differentiate S.pneumonia from other streptococci a. Catalase b. Coagulase c. Citrate d. Bile solubility
14

72. Biochemical test differentiate between two streptococci group a. Catalase b. Coagulase c. Citrate d. Bile solubility 73. Test differentiate staphylococci from streptococci a. Catalase b. Coagulase c. Citrate d. Bile solubility 74. Hydrogene peroxide used in catalase reaction concentration is a. 3% b. 40% c. 100% d. 50%

75. Test used occasionally to assist in the identification of enterobacteria a. Catalase b. Coagulase c. Citrate d. Bile solubility 76. Appositive citrate test reaction is obtained with a. Enterobacter b. Cambylobacter c. Chylamidia d. Salmonella 77. Test is important in identification of enterobacteria a. Catalase
15

b. Coagulase c. Citrate d. Bile solubility e. Indole 78. Amino acid used in Indole test a. Tryptophane b. Cystin c. Phenylalanin d. Serin 79. Indol production in Indol test detected by a. Kovaks or Ehrlich reagent b. Drabkin c. Fehling d. All.

80. Test used to assist the identification of Enterococci (Enterococcus sp.) a. Litmus milk decolorization b. Coagulase c. Citrate d. Bile solubility e. Indole 81. Bacillary dysentery caused by a. Shigella b. Cambylobacter c. Chylamidia d. Salmonella

16

82. On MacConkey agar ,shigellan and Salmonella produce colonies its color is a. Colorless b. Red c. Pink d. White 83. When immediate delivery to the laboratory is not possible, refrigerate the urine at a. 4 6 C b. 40 C c. 1 2 C d. 2 8 C 84. Haemophilus influenza grow well in a. Chocolate agar b. MacConky c. Blood agar d. Manitol salt agar

85. Blood parasite a. Plasmodium sp. b. Trypanosoma sp c. Leishmania sp. d. Filaria sp. e. All. 86. Media selected for culturing the blood to isolate aerobic organism a. Columbia agar b. Blood agar c. Chocolate agar d. Nutrient agar 87. Media is recommended to isolate strict anaerobic organism
17

a. b. c. d. e.

Thioglycollate broth medium Chocolate agar MacConky Blood agar Manitol salt agar

88. Normal semen Counting a. 20 x 106 b. 200 x106 c. 10 x 106 d. 50 x 106 89. Normal semen pH a. 7.2 b. 8.3 c. 4.6 d. 5

90. Normal range of ASO test a. Up to 200 Iu/ml. b. Up to 100 Iu/ml. c. Less than 50 mg/dl d. 70 110 mg/dl. 91. Biochemical test is rapidly and simply performed to detect strepto-pyogenes and enterococcus a. PYR b. Coagulase c. Citrate d. Bile solubility e. Indole
18

92. Haemophilus influenza cause a. Scarlet fever b. Q fever c. Pneumonia d. Dysentery e. Trachoma 93. In elderly diabetic patients the renal threshold for glucose a. Often raised b. Often decrease c. Dos not change d. None. 94. An elevated sodium level is known as a. Hypernatraemia b. Hyponatraemia c. Hypercholestremia d. Hyperkalaemia

95. A raised potassium level is known as a. Hypernatraemia b. Hyponatraemia c. Hypercholestremia d. Hyperkalaemia 96. By using clinical flam photometer sodium and potassium results are displayed in a. Mg/dl. b. Gm/dl. c. Ml/min. d. mmHg e. Mmol/L.
19

97. which stain most commonly used in microbiology a. Leishman stain b. Romanosky stain c. Gram stain d. Gimsa stain e. ALL. 98. The Rhesus blood group system consists of six genes a. Cc,Dd,Ee b. Cc,Hh,Aa c. Gg,Aa,Cc d. Ww,Ff,Cc e. Hh,Ss,Qq 99. Hyperglycemic hormones a. Amylase b. Insulin c. Lipase d. Glycogene e. Trypsin 100. Hypoglycemic hormones a. Amylase b. Insulin c. Lipase d. Glycogene e. Trypsin 101. Herpes simplex virus types a. DNA virus b. Herpevirus c. Human virus d. ALL.

20

102. A Carbon dioxide enriched atmosphere is required for the growth of a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Neisseria meningitides c. Brucella sp. d. Streptococcus pneumonia e. All. 103. A cervical not a vaginal swab is required for the most successful isolation from womens a. Trichomonas vaginalis b. N.gonorrhoea c. S.hematobium d. Ascaris lumbercoid 104. The nature of Antibodies a. Glycoprotein b. Polysaccharide c. Lipids d. Cardiolipin

105. Immunoglobin consists of five parts of Antibodies (Pentamoric). a. IgG b. IgM c. IgD d. IgA e. IgE 106. Heparin tube color a. Red b. Blue c. Green d. Yellow
21

107. In the beta HCG test the result is a. MIu/ml b. U/L c. Mu/L d. MIu/dl. 108. The process of pathogenic infection to human a. Adherences Penetration Multiplication b. Penetration Adherences- Multiplication c. Multiplication Adherences- Penetration 109. Paul-Bunnell test is positive in: a. Multiple myeloma b. Hodgkins disease c. Infectious mononucleosis d. All of the above 110. In the lab. An individual must wear a. Wearing lab coat b. Eye glasses c. Gloves d. ALL 111. Hepatitis virus infect a. Kidney b. Liver c. Stomach d. Pancreases 112. HAV virus transmitted a. Blood b. Sexually c. Feco-oral d. ALL 113. Normal range of cholesterol
22

a. b. c. d.

3 -7.8 mmol/l 116 300 mg/dl. A and b 70 110 mg/100 ml.

114. A good complement fixing antibodies a. IgG b. IgM c. IgD d. IgE 115. Normal plasma clot APTT a. 36 50 Sec. b. 1 16 Sec. c. 12 15 Sec. d. 1 4 min 116. Normal plasma Prothrombin time (PT) a. 36 50 Sec. b. 11 16 Sec. c. 12 15 Sec. d. 1 4 min 117. Normal plasma clot Thrombin time (TT). a. 36 50 Sec. b. 11 16 Sec. c. 12 15 Sec. d. 1 4 min 118. EDITA tube color a. Red b. Blue c. Green d. Lavender 119. Sodium citrate tube color
23

a. b. c. d.

Red Blue Green Yellow

120. The general blood donor is : a. A blood group. b. B blood group. c. O blood group. d. AB blood group. 121. The general blood recipient is: a. A blood group. b. B blood group . c. O blood group. d. AB blood group. 122. A person with A blood group can receive blood from: a. A blood group donor. b. B blood group donor. c. O blood group donor. d. A and C 123. Morphological features of C.diphtheria are best developed on: a. Blood agar. b. Blood tellurite agar. c. Loeffler serum slope. d. Chocolate agar 124. The following parasite can seen in the blood a. Malaria b. Filaria c. Lishmania d. Trypanosoma e. All of the above
24

125. Which of the following does not used in ziehl-nelsen stain? a. Carbon fuchsine b. Acid alcohol c. Methylene blue d. Malachite green e. Crystal violet 126. Philadelphia chromosome is a specific chromosomal abnormality that is associated with. a. ALL b. AML c. CML d. None. 127. The two principal gonadotropins in vertebrates are a. LH b. FSH c. A and B d. ADH

128. Hormones from cortex a. Thyroxin b. Oxytocin c. Prolactin d. Cortesol 129. A device for measuring the osmotic strength of a solution a. Osmometer b. Spectrophotometer c. Flam photometer d. ELISA 130. Life Spain of platelets in bags stored at R.T.
25

a. b. c. d.

35 day 41 day 3 months 5 day

131. ANA test in the lab. Diagnosis by a. PCR b. Spectrophotometer c. Flam photometer d. ELISA 132. Cells not contain nucleus. a. Erythrocyte b. Leukocyte c. Platelets d. blast cell 133. One of the following tests not performed in chemical section in the lab. a. Liver enzymes b. Hormones c. Bowne marrow aspiration d. Creatinine 134. B. cell maturation in a. Bon marrow b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Liver 135. T. cell maturation in a. Bon marrow b. Thymus c. Spleen d. Liver

26

136. Which of the following immunoglobulins is present normally in plasma at the highest concentration? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgD e. IgE 137. Which immunoglobulin is the principal one found in secretions such as milk? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgD e. IgE 138. life span of RBCs is a. 120 days b. 90 c. 100 d. 30

139. Rice watery stool can caused by a. Salmonella b. Vibro cholera c. Shigella d. E.coli 140. Human scabies diagnosed by a. Skin scraping of lesion b. Thin blood film c. Radiological test d. Thin stool film e. Serological test of all above
27

141. Which the following catheters collect urine specimen in prolonged period a. Hard b. Soft c. Italian d. Foley 142. Nutrient agar is a. Basic media b. Differential media c. Selective media d. Enriched media 143. Which of the following parasite cause cerebral malaria a. Plasmodium falcibarum b. Plasmodium vivax c. Plasmodium malaria d. Plasmodium ovale

144. Albert stain is used to diagnose a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Mycoplasma c. Enterobacteriacae d. Coryenbacterium diphtheria 145. Which of the following transmit the malaria a. Male anopheles mosquito b. Female anopheles mosquito c. Sand fly d. Tse tse fly
28

146. In potential diabetic patient, the confirming test used is a. Random blood sugar b. Fasting blood sugar c. Oral blood sugar tolerance d. All of the above 147. Which of the following organism oxidase positive a. Psedomonas only b. Nessieria only c. E.coli d. Psedomonas & nessieria 148. Normal reticulocyte in adult is a. 0.2 0.5 % b. 2 5 % c. 0.2 2 % d. 1 2 %

29

149. Which of the following leukocyte responsible for parasitic & allergic reaction a. Lymphocyte b. Neutrophile c. Monocyte d. Basophile e. Eosinophile 150. which of the following produce by staph.auerus & not produced by other staph a. DNA produce b. Coagulase c. Catalase d. Ureaase 151. Which of following organs participate in billrubin? a. Heart b. Kidney c. Pancrease d. Liver 152. In emergency case which of the following test do for glucose a. Fast blood sugar b. Random blood sugar c. Oral blood sugar tolerance d. Post prandial blood sugar 153. Deficiency in folate & vitamin B12 cause a. Megaloblastic Anemia b. Liver cirrhosis c. Kidney failure d. Kala azar

30

154. Which of the following organism are capsulated? a. E.coli b. Salmonella c. Klebsiella 155. Genital disease can caused by the following a. Gonorrhea only b. Trichomonas only c. Gonorrhea & trichomonas d. Non of the above 156. Which of the following immunoglubin have four molecules? a. IgG b. IgE c. IgA d. IgM 157. Which of the following gram negative rod cause dysentery? a. E.coli b. Salmonella c. Shigella d. Staph.aureus 158. Immunoglobulin produced by a. Fat cell b. Mast cell c. Plasma cell 159. Which of the following is true? a. RH-ve person safely donate for person RH+ve person b. RH+ve person safely donate for person RH-ve person c. A blood group person donate for B group person d. All of the above

31

160. which of the following organ excrete the uric acid a. kidney b. Pancreas c. Stomach d. Liver 161. Which of the following can't donate blood a. Person have Hb>13 mg/dl b. Woman is pregnant c. Person free from syphilis d. ALL 162. Which of the following transmitted through blood transfusion a. Malaria b. Aids c. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) d. All of the above 163. If infant has Rh+ve & mother RH-ve must give a. Anti-D immunoglubin b. Anti-E immunoglubin c. Anti-C immunoglubin d. Anti-e immunoglubin e. Anti-c immunoglubin 164. Migration of protein in electrophoresis depend on a. Weight of component only b. Charge of component only c. Shape size of component d. Weight & charge of component e. All of the above

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165. Transmit through sexual intercourse a. Tricurus tricura b. N.gonorrhoea& Trichomonas vaginalis c. Sternglyoids stercuralis d. S.hematobium e. Ascaris lumbercoid 166. In the 1923, Alexander flaming discovered the penicillin from a. Penecillium sp b. Candida sp c. Aspirigulus s d. Streptococci 167. Red blood cell synthesis in bone marrow from a. Fate cell b. Cord cell c. Myeloid cell d. Stem cells 168. Leukemia characterized by a greatly increased in leukocyte count a. ALL b. AML c. CML d. None. 169. Platelets synthesis in bone marrow from a. Fate cell b. Cord cell c. Myeloid cell d. Megakaryocyte

33

170. Granulocytic leukemia a. ALL b. AML c. CML d. None. 171. In Pregnancy test we measure a. LDH b. Estrogen c. HCG d. HCG 172. The cause of chaga's disease: a. Trypanosoma gambiense b. Trypansoma rhodesiense c. Trypansoma cruzi d. Leishmania braziliense 173. Normal range of uric acid? a. 2-5 mg/dl. b. 3-7 c. 5-10 d. 70 -110 mg/dl 174. Normal range of cholesterol? a. 140-200 mg/dl b. 50-130 mg/dl. c. 100-190 mg/dl d. 70-110mg/dl 175. Which of the following happen in prolonged fast a. Kenton in urine b. Hyperglycemia c. Hypocholestremia
34

176. Infective stage of S.mansoni a. Embrynoated eg b. Larva c. Cercaia d. Oocyst 177. Which of the following produce by staph.auerus & not produced by other staph? a. DNAase produce b. Coagulase c. Catalase d. Citrate 178. The Urease test done to diagnostic of a. S.pyogen b. S. auerus c. Proteus d. E.coli 179. The cause of sleeping sickness: a. Trypanosoma gambiense b. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Trypanosoma rhodesiense d. (a) & (c) 180. Cause Kala- azar: a. leishmania tropica b. leishmania braziliense c. leishmania donovani d. leishmania Mexicana 181. Cause oriental sore: a. Plasmodium ovale b. Leishmania tropica c. Leishmania donovani d. Trypanosome rhodesiense
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182. All of the following test use in myocardial except a. Creatinin b. Creatinin clearance c. sGPT d. sGOT 183. Adrenal gland upside of? a. Liver b. Kidney c. Brain d. Heart 184. Eosinphil raised in the following except? a. Allergic b. Parasitic disease c. Hodgkin disease d. Bacterial disease 185. The Lowest rang of platelets' a. 450.000 b. 150.000 c. 75.000 d. 110.000 186. Factor II of blood clotting is: a. Christmas factor b. Fibrinogen c. Prothrombin d. Thromboplastin 187. Factor I of blood clotting is: a. Christmas factor b. Fibrinogen c. Prothrombin d. Thromboplastin
36

188. One of the intrinsic pathways a. Factor XI b. Factor XIII c. Factor I d. Factor VII 189. Test for Intrinsic pathway: a. Bleeding time b. Thrombin time c. Prothrombin time d. Partial thromboplastin time PTT 190. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by: a. Echo virus b. Coxsaki virus c. Epstein Barr virus EBV d. Cytomegalo virus 191. Factors present only in Extrinsic Pathway a. Factor XI b. Factor XIII c. Factor I d. Factor VII 192. Malaria diagnosis by a. Thick blood film b. Thin blood film c. Skin scraping d. X-ray 193. Taenia saginate diagnosis by a. Egg in stool b. Egg in Urine c. Larva d. Cystecercus
37

194. Ascaris lumbricoides infection stage a. Embroynated egg in stool b. Trophozoit c. Cyst d. Larva 195. Biochemistry test used sample except a. Urine. b. Whole blood c. Serum d. Stool e. Bone marrow aspiration 196. Which if the following leukocyte normally not found in blood film? a. Basophile b. Monocyte c. Lymphocyte d. Neutrophils e. Eosinoph 197. The contamination of lens of microscope which cause eye infection? a. B. anthrax b. S.pyogenes c. Staph.aureus d. Clostredium tetani 198. Pathogens can enter the body through? a. Dry skin b. Wet skin c. Unbroken skin d. Scratch skin

38

199. In ABO the anti A container color? a. Yellow b. Blue c. Red d. Colorless 200. In ABO the anti A container color? a. Yellow b. Blue c. Red d. Colorless 201. In ABO the Rh container color? a. Yellow b. Blue c. Red d. Colorless 202. The Normal range of HDL a. 50- 80 b. 70-100 c. 100-150 203. Urine samples culture in a. CLED ager and Blood agar. b. CLED agar c. MacConky agar d. XLD 204. Which of the following is a gram positive rod? a. Corynebacterium onlya b. Listeria only c. A and B d. Shigella e. E.coli
39

205. What of the following is TRUE about Bacillus anthracis? a. Causes anthrax disease b. Gram positive c. H2S 206. Yellow brown barrel-shaped egg, colorless producing plug polar a. Ascaris b. Tenia soliom c. Trichuris trichiura d. Entamoeba hcaistolyti 207. MCV measuring Unit a. FL (Fimtolitre) b. Pg (Picogram) c. g/l d. Mg/dl. 208. MCH measuring Unit a. FL (Fimtolitre) b. Pg (Picogram) c. g/l d. mg/dl. 209. MCHC measuring Unit a. FL (Fimtolitre) b. Pg (Picogram) c. g/l d. Mg/dl. 210. More abundant leukocyte a. Basophile b. Monocyte c. Lymphocyte d. Neutrophils e. Eosinoph
40

211. ELEK test use for a. Neisseria b. Diphtheria c. Brodella d. Proteus 212. To detect CMV a. Spectrophotometer b. Flam photometer c. ELISA d. Microscope 213. Gram Negative stained more easy than gram Positive because a. Gram -ve cell wall is thin while gram +ve is thick b. Gram +ve cell wall is thin while gram -ve is thick c. Gram -ve cell wall Contain more peptidoglycan d. ALL 214. To detect AML we use a. Sudan black b. Gimsa stain c. Field stain d. Leishman stain 215. Flask shape parasite is a. Giardia lambilia b. E. Histolica c. Malaria d. Filaria 216. Hemophilia A & B are defected in a. X- linked dominant b. X-linked recessive c. Y linked dominant d. Y linked recessive
41

217. Gondotropic hormone a. LH b. ADH c. Estrogen 218. Action of Neutrophil is a. Antibody production b. Antibody reaction c. Granule circulation d. IG production 219. Parasite in urine a. Schistosoma heamatobium b. Malaria. c. Leishmania d. Toxoplasmosis 220. XLD media a. Selective b. Diferentiat c. Basic d. Enriched 221. Best media for sputum culture a. Blood agar and chocolate b. MaCconky c. CLED d. Manitol salt agar 222. HbA1C for a. 1-2 Weeks b. 2-4 Weeks c. 4-6 Weeks d. 6- 8 Weeks
42

223. One test in the following can diagnose anemia : a. CBC b. PT c. PTT d. Platelets e. Leukocyte 224. Westrgren test used for a. ESR b. HB c. AG-AB reaction d. PT 225. The following test do in chemical lab except a. CBC b. Creatinin c. sGPT d. Uric acid 226. .. Can growth in aeorobic and anaeorobic except a. Clostridium b. Salmonella c. Shigella d. E.col e. Haemophillus f. Lactobacilus 227. Salmonella transmitted via a. Blood transfusion b. Sexual c. Ingestion contaminated food d. Inhalation

43

228. Bacteria cause Pharyngitis a. Staph. auereus b. Diphtheria c. TB d. Streptococcus pyogenes 229. All are true about platelet except a. Can save for 7 days when added special fluid b. Can save for 5 days when added special fluid c. Defect cause prolonged bleeding time d. Normal 150,00 450,000 230. If blood clot occur that is called a. Heamolysis b. Blood coagulation c. Thrombosis d. Purification 231. Substance can not trans and absorbed without a factor a. Iron b. Vitamin B12 c. Folic acid d. Vitamin A 232. The main site of production of ATP in the cell is the a. Cell wall b. Cell membrane c. Cytoplasm d. Mitochondria 233. Lactobacilli isolated in a. Throat swab b. Ear c. Urine d. Stool

44

234. Number of bonds in Antibodies a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 235. Antibodies contain four IG a. Ig M b. Ig A c. Ig D d. IgE e. IgG 236. We can diagnose W.bancrofti by investigate a. Blood smear b. Urine Exam. c. A and B d. Stool smear 237. Which organisms cause syphilis a. Chlostridium b. Salmonella c. Shigella d. T.palidium e. Haemophillus 238. Which one of the following is not an anticoagulant? a. Heparin b. Citrate c. Phosphate d. EDITA e. Floride

45

239. Prolonged bleeding time commonly occurs in a. Damage to vascular endothelium b. Defect platelets function c. Reduction Platelets number d. Disorder of blood coagulation e. ALL 240. Prolonged bleeding time commonly occurs in a. Defect PT b. Defect PTT c. Reduction Platelets number d. Reduction W.BC. e. ALL 241. Permanent deferral of a donor occurs in a. Hepatitis b. AIDS c. A and B d. Mumps e. Rubella 242. A chronic carrier state may occur in a. HBV b. AIDS c. E.coli d. Mumps e. Rubella 243. A pheresis is the collection of a. CSF b. Bone marrow aspiration c. Blood component d. 24 h. urine

46

244. The total leukocytes count less than 4,000/cmm is found in a. Typhoid infection b. Leukopenia e. S.Pyogenes c. A and B 245. Primary homeostasis a. Platelets adhesion (Plug) b. RBCs destruction c. W.B.Cs formation d. Prothrombin time 246. Glucose-6-phosphate enzymes are present in a. W.B.Cs b. Erythrocyte c. Plasma d. Platelets 247. Bordetalla pertussis is the cause of e. Scarlet fever a. Whopping chough b. Rheumatic fever c. Pneumonia 248. Which of the following media is not selective? a. Nutrient agar b. XLD media c. MaCconky d. Blood agar 249. Blood collected on plain tube (without anticoagulant) must a. Be incubate at 37c for 30 min b. Not be clotted c. Be hemolysed d. Be mixed
47

250. HIV or human immunodeficiency: a. Aids b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis B d. Hepatitis A 251. The all ABO group true except: a. AB group transfusion only to person AB b. A group transfusion to group A and O group c. O group can transfusion into person have A and B and O group d. O group the contain both Antigen A and B 252. Platelet normal range:a. 10010(12) b. 2010 (9) c. 10010(9) d. 100010(9) 253. The gram stains use for: a. Mycobacteruim b. Borrela c. Dipheteria d. E.coli 254. All component of blood except: a. Platelet b. Red cells and white c. Plasma d. Cell wall

48

255. Can transfusion from blood: a. Whole blood b. Platelets c. Red cells and white cells d. All the above 256. The general Trans O group to: a. A group b. B group c. O group d. ALL groups 257. Thrombocytopenia sees in: a. Megaloplastic anemia b. APlastic anemia c. Iron deficiency d. Pernicious anemia 258. G6PD is enzyme formation in: a. Muscle b. Brain c. Liver d. All above 259. ESR measured a. Millimeters b. Centimeter c. Milligram d. Dl. 260. The Thrombopoietin synthesis in: a. Liver b. Kidney c. A and B d. Thymus
49

261. Which from the following NOT include in cell wall of bacteria: a. Pilli. b. Cell membrane. c. Flagella. d. Definite nucleus 262. Hyperparathyroidism hormone cause: a. Increase calcium b. Decrease calcium c. Not affected 263. Strong antigen: a. Vitamin b. Carbohydrate c. Proteins d. Glycoprotein 264. ANA is: a. Allergy b. Sideroblastic anemia c. Graft-rejection d. Autoimmune disease 265. The myeloid leukemia is: a. High the leukocyte b. low the leukocyte c. Normal leukocyte 266. Optichin test for : a. Streptococci pyogene b. Streptococci pneumonia c. Streptococci agalatia

50

267. Tania saginate transmission: a. Ingestion beef meet b. Ingestion pork meet c. Sexual d. Feco-oral 268. Wuchereria Bancrofti diagnose: a. Microscopic examination of blood smears b. Microscopic examination of concentrated urine c. Microscopic examination of stool smear d. Microscopic examination of blood or urine smears 269. Malaria detection a. Blood smear b. Urine c. Body fluid d. Stool 270. Enterbactericea can infection in: a. Urinary tract only b. Steam blood-urinary tract- chest c. Gastrointestinal disease only d. Urinary tract - Gastrointestinal disease 271. All the following are Enterbacterice except a. E.coli - Shigella b. Klebsiella - Serratia c. Proteus Enterobacter d. Citerobacter salmonella 272. Hb account for 96% is consisting of: a. 3 chains and 2 chains b. 2 chains and 2 chains c. 2 chains and 2 chains d. 2 chains and 3 chains
51

273. In The Elisa light produced from: a. Conjugate only b. substrate only c. conjugate and substrate d. Buffer 274. Pancreatic enzyme a. Insulin b. Creatine c. Glucose d. Amylase 275. In the formol-ether technique the parasite found in: a. ether layer b. formol layer c. sediment d. Fecal deprise 276. Normocytic Normochromic anemia found in a. Pernicious anemia b. Megaloplastic anemia c. a plastic anemia d. iron deficiency 277. One is always non motile gram negative rods: a. Haemophilus Influenza b. Shigella c. E.coli d. Salmonella e. Borditella Pertusis 278. One is motile gram ve rods: a. Haemophilus Influenza b. Bacillus anthracis c. Pseudomonas aerogenes d. Vibrio cholera
52

279. Neonatal jaundice is a. Hemolytic jaundice b. Obstructive jaundice c. Hepatic jaundice d. physiological jaundice 280. The blood cells that play a major role in preventing infection of the body are a. Erythrocyte b. Leukocyte c. Platelets d. Blast Cells 281. The dimeric Antibodies is a. IgG b. IgM c. IgE d. IgD e. IgA 282. All of the following are gram positive rods except a. Bacillus b. Mycobacterium c. Lactobacillus d. Listeria e. Corynebacterium f. Closteridium 283. Morphology of Candida albicans is a. White,Cream colonies b. Red colonies c. Yellow Colonies d. Pink colonies

53

284. Staph aureus can be differentiate from strepto pyogenes because it a. Contain Catalase enzyme b. Contain Coagulase enzyme c. Contain urease enzyme d. Contain Citrate enzyme 285. Which of the following of immunoglobulin inflexible: a. IgG b. Ig M c. Ig A d. Ig D 286. Hypocalcaemia in patient occur if the level of calcium is: a. 16 b. 12 c. 10 d. 7.5 287. One test in the following can diagnose iron deficiency: a. CBC b. Cretinin c. sGPT d. Uric acid 288. The maximum store of the platelet is : a. 35 days b. 7 days c. 5 days d. 120

54

289. In agglutination test the antigen used is: a. Soluble b. Insoluble c. All of the above d. Non of the above 290. Which of the following tubes used in serology tests : a. Plan tube b. EDTA tube c. Heparin tube d. Lavender tube e. Green tube 291. Hormone replication of RBCs: a. Erythropoietin b. Creatin kinas c. Amylase d. Progesterone 292. Brucella Mellitensis is a. Obligatory aerobic bacteria b. Obligatory anaerobic bacteria c. Facultative anaerobic bacteria d. Micro-aerophilic bacteria 293. Variation in RBCs size: a. Microcyrosis b. Macrocytosis c. Aniso cytosis d. Poiklocytosis

55

294. Growth hormone secreted from: a. Thyroid gland b. Pituitary gland c. Parathyroid gland d. Adrenal gland 295. Most common method used to detect hormone: a. Microscope b. Flamcytometer c. ELIZA d. PCR 296. All the following estimation can be done on plasma EDTA blood except: a. Glucose b. Cholesterol c. Urea d. Calcium 297. Lenses near the slide in light microscope: a. Objective b. Stage c. Eye lenses d. Arms 298. Gas gangrene cause by : a. Clostridium botulism b. Clostridium tetani c. Clostridium prefringers 299. The cause of plague: a. Y.enterocolitica b. Yersinia pestis c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Non of the above
56

300. Storage temperature of platelets a. 37 C b. 35 40 c. 22 27 d. -4 301. Trachoma is caused by: a. Mycoplasma b. Chlamydia c. Richettsia d. Mycobacterium 302. Its function is to transport oxygen from the lung to the tissue: a. Haptoglobin b. Hemoglobin c. Bilirubin d. Myoglobin 303. Leukocyte count become >4000 in: a. Infection b. Malignancy c. ALL above d. Non above 304. Responsible for cellular immune: a. T- cell b. B-cell c. NK cell d. Plasma cell 305. Bacteria Trans from animal:a. Toxo plasm b. Brucella c. E.coli d. Strepto pyogenes
57

306. Reject donor because:a. Age between 17-60 b. Wight above 50 c. Hb in male above 13.5 d. Donor pregnant 307. Gout disease caused by:a. Uric acid b. Urea c. Glucose d. Calcium oxalate 308. Best way to determine electrolyte:a. HPLC b. Spectrophotometer c. Flam photometer d. Thin layer chromatography 309. Yellow brown egg a. Ascaris lumbrcoid b. Schistosoma mansoni c. Giardia lamblia d. Entamoeba histolytica 310. Pathogen should do:a. Infect-transmitted-Reproduce b. Reproduce- Infect-Tans c. transmitted Infect Reproduce d. ALL e. Non above

58

311. The Ag in ABO system:a. A.B.C b. A.B.O c. A.B.H 312. Reticulocyte stain with super vital to show:a. RNA b. Organs c. Network d. Nucleus 313. In chemistry lab use:a. Green tube b. Red tube c. Blue tube d. Lavender 314. In stool conce. Method should not use with:a. S.mansoni b. Fascioloa egg c. H.nana d. A & C e. Ascaris 315. Give double zone in blood agar:a. -hemolytic streptococci b. -hemolytic streptococci c. ALL d. Non 316. In AML we see:a. Blast cell more 20% b. No blast cells c. More increase in WBCs d. ALL
59

317. EDITA tube has a color:a. Purple b. Green c. Blue d. Yellow 318. Hot air oven temp. a. 121 C for 15 min b. 180 C for 30 min c. 160 C for 30 min d. ALL 319. Chinese litter sees in:a. C. diphtheria b. S.pyogenes c. Staph aureus d. E.coli 320. Detection of hepatitis- C by:a. Anti-B b. Anti-A c. Anti-C d. Anti-D 321. We done the following exam for donor except:a. HIV b. HCV c. H BV d. H AV 322. Lipid and clot factor remove to obtain:a. Plasma b. Plasma protein c. Serum d. Non above
60

323. In blood group use:a. Known cell with unknown serum b. Unknown cell with known serum c. Know cell with unknown cell d. Unknown cell with unknown serum 324. Start zeal nelsin stain with a. Malachite green b. Crystal violet c. Carbol fuchcin d. Safranin 325. The gene in ABO system:a. A.B.C b. A.B.O c. A.B.H d. A.B.D 326. Hb range in adult:a. 13.5 - 17.5 gm/dl. b. 12 -16 gm/dl c. 13.5 - 17.5 mg/dl. d. 11 15 gm/dl. 327. Hb used in:a. Utilize therapy anemia b. Diagnosis anemia c. Utilize therapy of jaundice d. ALL 328. To detect Ab use:a. Indirect antibodies test b. Direct antibodies test c. Spectrophotometer d. ALL
61

329. In the plain tube what happen to the sample: a. Cloting b. Hemolysis c. Not cloted d. Seperated 330. The HB which found in 96% is: a. 2alpha + 2 beta b. 2alpha + 2 delta c. 2alpha + 2 gamma d. 2alpha + 3 beta 331. The most common blood group is: a. O blood group b. A blood group c. B blood group d. AB blood group 332. The antibody of blood group is: a. Anti A and B b. Anti A and C c. Anti A and O d. All of the above 333. We can differentiate from gram (-)and gram (+) by: a. Cell wall b. Cell membrane c. Nucleus d. Cytoplasm 334. The cell wall of gram(+) contain : a. Peptedo glycogen and techoic acid b. Peptedoglycan only c. Techoic acid only d. Celleluse and pectin
62

335. The foundmental of erythrocyte production is: a. Erythropiotein b. Thyroxin c. Growth hormones d. ADH 336. leukocyte increase incase : a. Chemotherapy b. Radiation c. Bacterial infection d. All of the above e. None of the above 337. The triple granule, which is the most aboundent in leucocyte, is: a. Netrophil b. Eosinophil c. Basophil d. Lymphocyte 338. Which of the following will increase the calcium concentration: a. None restricted foods b. Prolonged fast c. prolonged application of tourniquet d. None restricted drug 339. Ferritin measure a. Hemolytic anemia b. Aplastic anemia c. Iron diffeciancy anemia d. Megaloblastic anemia

63

340. The following index sensitive and will measure the total of iron deficiency anemia a. Transferrin b. Fereitin c. TIBC d. Hb electrophoresis e. All of the above 341. To differentiate between hemophilia A and B a. Leukocyte count b. Factor assay c. PT and PTT assay d. All of the above 342. The following microorganism will not take the gram stain: a. E.coli b. Streptococcus c. Staphylococci d. Mycobacterium sp 343. The following parasite will not take the gimsa stain: a. leishmanai. b. Trypanosoma c. Schistosoma d. Malaria e. Filaria 344. Plasmodium will transfer by: a. Mosquito b. Fly c. Mite d. All of the above

64

345. When the micro invades, the body B-cell will secret and it will transfer to a. Memory cell b. Plasma cell c. Phygocytic cell d. Cytotoxic 346. Glycogen will formation in a. Liver b. Kidney c. Stomach d. Brain 347. Which of the following parasite will cause abscess in liver? a. E.hostolytica b. Malaria c. Ascaris lumbrcoid d. Tricurus tricura 348. Reliable method to measure the PH is a. PH meter b. Litmus paper c. Indicator d. none of the above 349. The proper result of individual a. When the result be more than the normal value b. When the result be close to the normal value c. When the result be less than normal value d. All of the above

65

350. The following tests we doing in emergency cases except a. Electrolyte b. Glucose c. Blood gases d. Albumin 351. Malaria diagnostic by a. Thin blood film b. Gimsa c. Gram stain d. None of the above 352. Candida albicans a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Molds d. Parasite 353. TORCH means a. Pathogenes cause abortion b. Toxoplasma c. Roubella d. Cytomegalovirus e. Herpes f. ALL 354. Poikilocytosis is: a. Variation in red cell size b. Variation in red cell color c. Variation in red cell shape d. None of the above

66

355. Food poisoning caused by a. Closteridium tetani b. E.coli c. Cambylobacter d. Closteridium perfringens 356. Anti diuretic hormone will secret from posterior pituitary gland a. Decrease urine volum b. Increase urine volum c. Decrease sugar volum d. Decrease protein volum 357. Blood plasma consists of a. 90 % Water and 10 % other component b. 10 % Water and 90 % other component c. 50 % Water and 50 % other component d. 99% water and 1 % other component 358. Arterial blood for a. Blood chemical b. Hormones c. Blood gases d. Enzyme 329. In the plain tube what happen to the sample: a. Cloting b. Hemolysis c. Not cloted d. Seperated 330. The HB which found in 96% is: a. 2alpha + 2 beta b. 2alpha + 2 delta c. 2alpha + 2 gamma d. 2alpha + 3 beta
67

331. The most common blood group is: a. O blood group b. A blood group c. B blood group d. AB blood group 332. The antibody of blood group is: a. Anti A and B b. Anti A and C c. Anti A and O d. All of the above 333. We can differentiate from gram (-)and gram (+) by: a. Cell wall b. Cell membrane c. Nucleus d. Cytoplasm 334. The cell wall of gram(+) contain : a. Peptedo glycogen and techoic acid b. Peptedoglycan only c. Techoic acid only d. Celleluse and pectin 335. The foundmental of erythrocyte production is: a. Erythropiotein b. Thyroxin c. Growth hormones d. ADH 336. leukocyte increase incase : a. Chemotherapy b. Radiation c. Bacterial infection d. All of the above e. None of the above
68

337. The triple granule, which is the most aboundent in leucocyte, is: a. Netrophil b. Eosinophil c. Basophil d. Lymphocyte 338. Which of the following will increase the calcium concentration: a. None restricted foods b. Prolonged fast c. prolonged application of tourniquet d. None restricted drug 339. Ferritin measure a. Hemolytic anemia b. Aplastic anemia c. Iron diffeciancy anemia d. Megaloblastic anemia

340. The following index sensitive and will measure the total of iron deficiency anemia a. Transferrin b. Fereitin c. TIBC d. Hb electrophoresis e. All of the above 341. To differentiate between hemophilia A and B a. Leukocyte count b. Factor assay c. PT and PTT assay
69

d. All of the above 342. The following microorganism will not take the gram stain: a. E.coli b. Streptococcus c. Staphylococci d. Mycobacterium sp 343. The following parasite will not take the gimsa stain: a. leishmanai. b. Trypanosoma c. Schistosoma d. Malaria e. Filaria 344. Plasmodium will transfer by: a. Mosquito b. Fly c. Mite d. All of the above

345. When the micro invades, the body B-cell will secret and it will transfer to a. Memory cell b. Plasma cell c. Phygocytic cell d. Cytotoxic 346. Glycogen will formation in a. Liver b. Kidney c. Stomach
70

d. Brain 347. Which of the following parasite will cause abscess in liver? a. E.hostolytica b. Malaria c. Ascaris lumbrcoid d. Tricurus tricura 348. Reliable method to measure the PH is a. PH meter b. Litmus paper c. Indicator d. none of the above 349. The proper result of individual a. When the result be more than the normal value b. When the result be close to the normal value c. When the result be less than normal value d. All of the above

350. The following tests we doing in emergency cases except a. Electrolyte b. Glucose c. Blood gases d. Albumin 351. Malaria diagnostic by a. Thin blood film b. Gimsa c. Gram stain d. None of the above
71

352. Candida albicans a. Virus b. Bacteria c. Molds d. Parasite 353. TORCH means a. Pathogenes cause abortion b. Toxoplasma c. Roubella d. Cytomegalovirus e. Herpes f. ALL 354. Poikilocytosis is: a. Variation in red cell size b. Variation in red cell color c. Variation in red cell shape d. None of the above

355. Food poisoning caused by a. Closteridium tetani b. E.coli c. Cambylobacter d. Closteridium perfringens 356. Anti diuretic hormone will secret from posterior pituitary gland a. Decrease urine volume b. Increase urine volume c. Decrease sugar volume d. Decrease protein volume
72

357. Blood plasma consists of a. 90 % Water and 10 % other component b. 10 % Water and 90 % other component c. 50 % Water and 50 % other component d. 99% water and 1 % other component 358. Arterial blood for a. Blood chemical b. Hormones c. Blood gases d. Enzyme 359. The API 20E system used in identification of enterobacteriacae consider a. Methods a. Genetics b. Biochemical c. Immune d. Serological 360. Pelger-Huet anomaly in neutrophil character by a. Hyposegmented b. Hypersegment c. Toxic granules d. ALL 361. Lamb in Flow cytometry a. Halogen b. Light c. Laser d. Electrons 362. Which of the following factor affect on erythropoises a. Folic acid b. Vitamin B12 c. Hypoxia
73

d. All 363. Number of light chain in Antibodies a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 364. Tubes used in sugar analysis a. Brown b. Blue c. Red d. Green 365. All the following related to immune assay except a. ELISA b. Immuno-flourescence c. Immuno-diffusion test d. Immuno- Immunorecipent 366. Pseudomonas is: a. large mucous amount b. Small amount of mucous c. No mucous d. None of the above 367. N.gonorrehea a. Gram-negative rods only b. Oxidase positive only c. Gram-negative rods and oxdase positive d. Gram-negative cocci and oxidase positive 368. The following character is TRUE about Pseudomonas aeruginosa a. Motile- Oxidase positive - Non-lactose ferment-Gram negative rods
74

b. Motile- Oxidase positive -lactose ferment-Gram negative rods c. Non-Motile Oxidase positive- Non-lactose ferment-Gram negative rods d. Motile- Oxidase Negative- Non-lactose ferment-Gram Positive rods 369. Stool sample containing Pus due to a. Amoebic dysentery b. Bacillary dysentery c. Giardiasis d. Ascaris lumbercoid 370. In Blood transfusion we may use a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Potasium d. Phosphate 371. The word "decontamination" what of the following meaning is true a. Reduction or removal of agents b. Increase toxicity c. Treat the agents d. ALL 372. All of the following bacteria cell components except a. Cell wall b. Cell membrane c. Nucleus d. Cytoplasm e. Pilli f. Mitochondria 373. Adeno virus is: a. RNA genome
75

b. Double shield capsule c. DNA virus 374. Bacteriological culture media are generally sterilized by a. The autoclave b. The oven c. Filteration d. Bunsen burne 375. Eye swab cultur in a. MaCconky b. CLED c. Chocolate d. XLD 376. HIV Transmitted by a. Blood b. Urine c. Semen d. Body fluid e. All 377. The following index sensitive and will measure the of iron deficiency anemia: a. Transferen b. Feretin c. TIBC d. HB Concentration e. ALL of above 378. Erythropoietin secreted from a. Kidney b. liver c. Stomach d. Brain
76

379. B hemolytic a. S.pyogens b. S.agalactia c. S.pneumonia d. A and B 380. Heprenized syringe use to collect __________ sample a. Synovial b. CSF c. Venous d. Arterial

381. One of these test effected by slight hemolytic a. Potassium b. Blood glucose c. Triglyceride d. Cholesterol 382. ESR effected by a. Viscosity b. Cell shape c. Anticoagulant d. All of the above 383. Turbidity measured by a. Spectrophotometer b. Flam photometer c. Flowcytometer d. Nephelometer 384. Test performs in blood banking lab. a. HBVc Ab
77

b. HBVs Ag c. HBVs Ab d. ALL 385. Hereditary acid a. Fatty acid b. Amino acid c. Folic acid d. Acid alcohol 386. The most problem in Pregnancy a. Fetus +ve and mother ve b. Fetus ve and mother +ve

78

387. The XLD color a. Blue b. Green c. Red d. Yellow 388. Differential test for a. Erythrocyte b. Leukocyte c. Platelets d. Blast cell 389. Bacteria cause scarlet fever a. Streptococci G.B b. Streptococci G.A c. Streptococci G.C d. Streptococci G.D 390. Streptococci are a. -hemolytic b. -hemolytic c. -hemolytic d. ALL 391. Intermediate host of toxoplasma a. Cat b. Mice c. Human d. Pork 392. Perianal specimen diagnose a. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Tainia saginata c. Entrobius vermicularis d. Enta.histolytica
79

393. Function of Estrogen: a. Increase Oogenesis b. Stimulate contraction of uterus c. Increase basal metabolic d. Thyroxin production 394. Safety in the Lab include vaccination of stuff against a. HAV b. HCV c. HBV d. ALL 395. Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a patient's iron stores: a. Albumin b. Transferrin c. Haptoglobin d. Ferritin 396. One of the following is kidney function a. sGPT b. Creatin kinase c. Acid phosphates d. Creatinin 397. One of the following is Cardiac function a. sGPT b. LDH c. Acid phosphates d. Creatinin 398. Increase In thalassemia a. HbA b. HbA2 c. HbF d. HbS
80

399. The main groups in ABO system a. A-B-O group b. B-C-D group c. A-B-H group d. R- H group 400. Different between Entamoba histolytica and Entamobia coli a. Cytoplasm b. Cell wall c. Number of nucleus d. Color 401. Different between Salmonella and Shigella a. Indol test b. Motility c. Gram stain d. Catalase 402. Which of the following is responsible for humoral response: a. Neutrophils b. Basophils c. B lymphocytes d. Monocytes 403. Largest cells in blood film a. Monocyte b. Lymphocyte c. Neutrophil d. Eosinophil 404. Haemocytometer used in counting a. Erythrocyte b. Leukocyte c. Platelets d. Semen e. ALL
81

405. Media contain blood, hematin and DNA a. Blood agar b. MaCconky c. Chocolate agar d. XLD 406. Toxoplasma gondii diagnostic from a. Stool b. Urine c. Blood d. CSF 407. We can detect Shigella from a. Blood b. Urine c. Body fluid d. Stool 408. All the following microscopic structure except a. Ocular lenses b. Objective lenses c. Stage d. Wavelength adjustment 409. Neutrophil characters by a. Neutrophil low alkaline phosphates b. Neutrophil normal alkaline phosphates c. Neutrophil high alkaline phosphates d. All of the above 410. Serum is plasma without a. Lipid b. Cholesterol c. Fibrinogen d. Fibrin
82

411. For lipid investigation measure a. LDL, TG and HDL b. Albumen c. LDH d. ALL 412. Enzyme related to liver a. Amalyse b. Albumin c. ALT, AST d. Prothrombin 413. One of the following is electrolyte a. Na b. Urea c. Glucose d. Albumin 414. Media used in antibiotic sensitivity a. MaCconky b. Blood agar c. CLED d. Muellen Hinton 415. Parasite in stool a. Malaria b. Trypanosoma c. Schistosoma d. Leishmania 416. Catalyse negative ,Optichin positive bacteria a. Staph aureus b. S.pyogenes c. S.pneumonia d. S.agalactia
83

417. CAMP is confirmatory test for a. Streptococcus Group A b. Streptococcus Group B c. Streptococcus agalactia d. B and c 418. Normal person,with healthy condition but Ketone bodies appear in his Urine due to a. Drugs b. Prolonged fast c. None restricted food d. UTI 419. Reject Blood donor if:a. Temperature more than 38.5 b. Blood pressure120/80 c. Heart pulse rate 72/min 420. Methylen blue component of a. Leishman stain b. Giemsa stain c. Sudan black d. Gram stain 421. Bacterial growth depend on growth of other bacteria in media a. Satillitism b. Antagonism c. Degradiation d. CoFactor 422. AB father and B mother give phenotype except a. A b. AB c. B d. O
84

423. Blood collect in anticoagulant tub should be a. Gently mix b. Clot c. Hemolysis d. Put in water bath 5 min 424. AML different from ALL in Bleeding and Purpura a. More Increased WBCs b. Granule neutrophile c. Auer rods 425. CPDA anticoagulant to store blood for : a. 45 b. 21 c. 10 d. 35 426. Blood collect in anticoagulant tube should be: a. Hemolysis b. Not gently mix c. Not cloted e. Put in water bath 5 min 427. The colonies of Mycobacteria in Lowenstein Jensen medium a. Rough ,pale color b. Smoth .black c. Yellow brown d. Raised , dry cream 428. Zile-Neelsen stain for staining a. Mycobacteria b. E.coli c. Corynebacterium diphteria d. Salmonella
85

429. All are blood function except : a. Hormone production b. Oxygen transport c. Wast transport d. Neutrient absorbtion e. Buffer system 430. The (u) unit use to evaluation? a. Protein in serum b. Hemoglobin c. Hormone assay d. Enzymatic activity 431. A semen specimen , contain source of the spermatozoa energy is a. Glucose b. Mannose c. Fructose d. Sucrose 432. During reaction of 2 chemical substances , the color produced asses by : a. Spectrophotometer b. Flame photometer c. ELISA d. PCR 433. Non streptococci: a. S.pyogenes b. S.agalatiate c. S.aureus d. S.pneumonia

86

434. HIVand Hepatitis transmited by a. Blood b. Urin c. Body fluid d. All of above 435. Bacteria arranged in chinese litters? a. C.diphteriae b. E,coli c. Salmonella d. Staph.aureus 436. Autoclave sterilize in. a. 121c-20 min b. 125-35 min c. 115-35 min d. 160c-45-60 min 437. Media use fo differentiate between L.F and N.L.F? a. MacConkey agar b. Chocolate c. Blood agar d. XLD e. TCBS 438. Lactos (+ ) , Indol (+) , MR (+ ) , VP (-) , citrate (-) are a. Escherichia b. Klebsiella c. Salmonella d. Nessiria

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439. Which of the following organism is Gram positive anaerobic bacterium? a. Clostiriduium spp b. Haemophilus c. E.coli d. Yersinia enteroclitica 440. Salmonella causes. a. Food poisoning b. Scarlet fever c. Pharyngitis d. Whoping couph 441. All the following can be done by hemocytometer except a. RBCs b. Semen c. Lymphocyte d. Total White blood cells 442. To fixation of thin blood film we can used a. Aceton b. Acitic acid c. Acid alchol d. Not fixed 443. Scotch-tap test used for a. Ascaris lumbricoides b. Ancylostoma duodenal c. Trichuris tricura d. Taenia saginata e. Enterobius vermicularis

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444. The media can growth some bacteria and inhibition another bacteria is a. Basic media b. Diffrentioal media c. Sellective media d. Enriched media 445. Viruses is a. Can live by their own b. Can not see by light microscope c. Can not affected by antibiotic d. Can not transport by communicable diseases 446. Normal value of Lymphocyte a. 55% b. 25% c. 70% d. 10% 447. We can different gram ve bacteria and gram +ve bacteria by a. Capsule b. Cytoplasm c. Cell wall d. Cell membrain 448. Antigen In O Positive person a. No presence of Ab b. No presence of Ag c. No Presence of Ab and Ag 449. Which normaly presence in urin analysis a. Protein b. Billrubin c. Chloride d. Glucose
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450. Rh negative patient means he dose not have a. E antigen b. D antigen c. B antigen d. C antigen e. None of the above 451. In O blood group the Ab in serum is a. Anti A and B b. Anti A c. Anti B d. Non A and B e. All of the above 452. It's one of the tape worms a. Ascaris lumbricoides b. Ancylostoma duodenal c. Trichuris tricura d. Taenia saginata 453. Immune system can called Adaptive system or a. Lympohocyte system b. Acquired system c. Lympohocyte-immune system d. Natural system 454. One is not true about acid: a. Proton donor b. Turn litmus paper to blue c. Sour taste d. React with alkaline to give water and salt

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455. Most common method (technique) used to detect hormone amount in the laboratories a. Spectrophotometry b. Flamphotometer c. Enzyme Linked Immuno Surbant Assay (ELIZA) d. PCR 456. Gram positive chain a. Streptococci b. Staphyllococci c. Gonococci d. Meningococci 457. One is gram-ve motile rod aerobic and oxidase possitve a. E.coli b. Proteus c. Pseudomonas d. Salmonella 458. Organism can live and affect urinary tract or vagina a. Toxoplasma b. Giardia lamblia c. Trichomonas vaginalis d. All of the above 459. In blood group use:a. Know cell with unkown serum b. Unkown cell with kown serum c. Know cell with unkown cell 460. Anigen and Anti-body can bind on a. Ag on RBCs and Ab on plasma b. Ab on RBCs and Ag in Plasma c. Ag on RBCs and Ag in Plasma d. ALL
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461. E-coli a. Motile b. indole +ve c. lactose fermetive d. produce gas and acid e. All above 462. Which of the following required for culture: a. Water b. Minerals c. Vitamins d. All the above 463. The antibiotic disc which differentiate between group A streptococci and other groups is? a. Neomycin b. Tetracycline c. Bacitracin d. CAMP 464. Amoeba stained by a. Gram stain b. Geisma c. Iodine eosin stain d. Leishman 465. Infective stage of hook worms a. Larva b. Egg c. Cyst d. Metacercaria e. Cercaria

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466. In serial dilution if folded 2 tube the dilute in number 6 is a. 1/32 b. 1/64 c. 1/128 d. 1/256 467. In serial dilution if folded 2 tube the dilute in number 8 is a. 1/32 b. 1/64 c. 1/128 d. 1/256 468. Media for coryenbacterium is a. Loffler serum b. Lewisjensen media c. Blood media d. CLED media 469. Factor of hemophilia A a. VIII b. VI c. X d. XI 470. Shegilla ssp is not a. H2S Negativ b. Oxidase Positive c. Urease negative d. Citrate negative e. Lactose negative

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471. Lamp used in spectrophotometer a. Halogen b. Laser c. Ions d. Light 472. Leishmania transmitted by a. Sand fly b. Anophles c. Tse tse d. Mice 473. Liver enzymes related to a. AIDS b. Hepatitis c. Herps d. Influnza 474. Enzyme related to myocardial disease a. CK-MB b. ALT c. AST d. ALP 475. Coombs test used for a. Auto antibodies on surfase RBCs b. Antigene RBCs c. Antibodies in serum d. Antigene on Cells 476. False in OGGT because
a. The patient restrict carbohydrate intake in the days or weeks before the test.

b. The test done during an illness c. A full adult dose given to a person weighing less than 43 kg (94 lb), d. exaggerated glucoses e. ALL
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477. Urine analysis related to a. Liver b. Kidny c. Heart d. Stomach 478. Etiology of increased neutrophil a. Bacterial infection b. Allergy c. Parasitic infection d. Viral infection 479. Treponema palladium is the cause of : a. T.B b. Gonorrhea c. Syphilis d. AIDS 480. Monospot test is done to diagnose a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Scarlet fever c. Reumatic fever d. AIDs 481. Prolactin in female a. Milk hormone b. Oogenisis hormones c. Leutinizing hormones d. Steroid Hormones 482. Vi Ag related to a. Capsul b. Somatic c. Flagella
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483. Which of the following enzyme detect in the condition liver and bone disease: a. Alkaline phosphatase(ALP) b. AST c. ALT d. GGT 484. Use to determined Kidney function a. Creatinin b. Amylase c. Transaminases d. Creatin kinase 485. Test to detect whether red blood cells are more likely to break down. a. Spherocytosis b. Osmatic fragility c. CBC d. Coombs test 486. Which of the following enzyme detect in the condition liver and heart disease: a. Alkaline phosphatase(ALP) b. AST c. ALT d. GGT

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