Question Excerpt From B777 TKE EXAM

What does the EICAS message AUTOPILOT mean

Q.1) when an amber line is drawn
through the pitch mode on the FMA?

A.The engaged autopilot has failed.

The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is operating in a degraded
B.
mode.
C.The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is disconnected.
D.The Autopilot does not have flight envelope protection.
Under what conditions may the flight deck number
two windows be operated in flight?
Q.2)

A.The number two windows may not be opened in flight

The number two windows may be operated in flight if the airplane is
B.unpressurized and airspeed is below Vref + 80 kts.

The number two windows may be easily operated in flight at any speed if the
C.
airplane is unpressurized.
The number two windows may be opened in flight only at airspeeds above 250
D.
kts.
What does the MAN position on the FLT DECK TEMP
Q.3)
control do?

It removes power from the trim air system.

A.

It causes the packs to provide air at an average mid temperature range.

.
B.

C.It allows the trim air valve to be operated manually

D.It removes control at the cabin attendant panel.
What is the operating condition of the nose gear
landing lights when the NOSE LANDING
Q.4)
light switch is ON but the nose landing gear is NOT
down and locked?

The nose gear landing lights are illuminated.

A.

The nose gear landing lights extend from the body outboard of the nose gear
B.doors but remain extinguished.

The nose gear landing lights are illuminated if both main landing gear are down
C.and locked.

The nose gear landing lights cannot illuminate when the nose landing
gear is not down and locked.
D.

Why should the CABIN TEMP control be set to mid

Q.5)
range position?

To set the maximum temperature in any zone

A.

To allow full temperature range adjustment on cabin attendant panel

B.

C.c. To prevent cabin overheat during low altitude flight

d. To set the actual temperature in cabin zones A-F
D.

What flight deck lights are turned on by the STORM light

Q.6)
switch?

A.All flight deck lights are illuminated bright.

B.All external airplane lights are illuminated bright.
Flight deck aisle stand, glareshield, and instrument flood lights, dome
lights, and illuminated indicator lights are illuminated at maximum
C.
brightness.

Landing lights, navigation lights, strobe lights, and wing lights are automatically
D.illuminated.

In case of an emergency, open a passenger entry

Q.7) door from the inside by performing which of
the following action?

Pulling the door handle fully up to the emergency position.

A.

Pushing toe door handle fully down to the emergency position.

B.

Rotating the door handle to the emergency position.

C.

Rotating the door handle to the open position.

D.

Q.8) When does the ground crew call horn sound?

A.When hydraulics are pressurized.

B.In case of an APU fire.
C.Before starting engines
D.If the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.
When the Door Select Lever is in the red armed position,
Q.9)
which of the following is correct?

The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for
A.
electrical emergency operation.
 The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for
B.pneumatic emergency operation.

The slide bar is not attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for
C.normal operation.

The slide bar is attached to the floor fittings and the door is selected for
counterbalance emergency opening.
D.

Q.10) Is it possible to check at a door if the girt bar is attached to the floor fittings?

Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored black.

A.

No, the girt bar indicator flags only indicate if the slide is usable.
B.

Yes, the girt bar indicator flags are colored yellow.

C.

No, the girt bar indicator is not visible.

D.

What happens when the BULK CARGO TEMPERATURE selector is

Q.11)
positioned to HIGH?

The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 7

A.degrees C or 45 degrees F.

The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21

B.degrees C or 70degrees F.

The compartment temperature is automatically kept at approximately 21

C.degrees C or 70 degrees F and the bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan
operates continuously.
 The bulk cargo compartment ventilation fan operates continuously.
D.

What action is required during preflight if the EICAS message LANDING

Q.12) ALTITUDE is displayed, with the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW VALVE
switches in AUTO?

A.Verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC

B.Pull the LDG ALT selector OUT.
C.Verify the LDG ALT selector is in.
Verify that a destination airport has been loaded in the FMC and verify the
LDG ALT selector is in.
D.

Q.13) What does the EICAS advisory message WINDOW HEAT indicate?

A.The backup window heat system is inoperative

B.The windows are using back up heat.
C.Two or more window heat faults have occurred.
D.A single overheat or fault has occurred.
During preflight, what position should the FWD and AFT OUTFLOW
Q.14)
VALVE switches and LDG ALT selector be in?

OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pulled OUT
A.

OUTFLOW VALVE switches in OFF and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

B.

C.OUTFLOW VALVE switches in AUTO and LDG ALT selector pushed IN

D.OUTFLOW VALVE switches in MAN and LDG ALT selector pushed IN
Q.15) When will the EICAS advisory message ANTI-ICE ON be displayed?

A.TAT above 10 degrees C, all ANTI-ICE selectors OFF and ice is NOT detected
B.TAT above 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector ON and ice is NOT detected
C.TAT below 10 degrees C, all ANTI-ICE selectors ON and ice is detected
D.TAT below 10 degrees C, any ANTI-ICE selector OFF and ice is NOT detected
What does the EICAS message NO LAND 3 mean when FLARE and
Q.16) ROLLOUT
armed are displayed on the FMA?

A.The autopilot disconnect switch has been pushed.

B.The autopilot is inoperative. Manual landing is required.
C.The autoland system does not have redundancy for triple channel autoland.
D.NO LAND 3 means you are more than 3 miles from land.
Why should you minimize flight time at low altitude when the EQUIP
Q.17)
COOLING OVRD message is displayed?

A.AFT and BULK cargo compartments may overheat.

B.Pack temperature would cause damage.
C.Electronic equipment and displays may fail.
D.Recirculation fan may not cool equipment adequately.
Q.18) Which MCP actions are accomplished during preflight?

A.Turn off left and right flight directors and set initial heading
Arm left and right autothrottle, turn left and right FD switches ON, check Bank
B.Limit Switch in AUTO.

C.Disarm right autothrottle and set initial heading. Set initial altitude.
D.Engage autopilot, Arm LOC and APP and set initial altitude.
Why does the flight deck receive air from the left pack at a higher
Q.19)
pressure than the passenger cabin?

A.Conditioned air is ducted into the flight deck before the passenger cabin.
B.To prevent smoke from entering the flight deck.
C.To defog the forward windows.
D.To cool the equipment in the aisle stand.
What automatic switching will occur if you start the APU with primary
Q.20)
and secondary external power on the BUS TIE system?

The APU connects to the BUS TIE switches but does not power either main
A.
bus.
The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces secondary external power on
B.the left main bus.

C.The APU connects to the BUS TIE and replaces primary external power.
D.The APU powers both main buses.
Pushing the TOGA switch a second time with the glideslope
Q.21) captured below 1500 feet RA causes which of the following
conditions?

Disengages the autopilot and places the flight director in the terrain avoidance
A.
mode.
B.Engages the autothrottle in THR REF mode.
The AFDS modes change to TOGA, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and
C.
the thrust limit changes to CON.
The AFDS modes change to TOGA, the autothrottle engages in THR and the
D.thrust limit changes to G/A.

Pushing the TOGA switch after takeoff with LNAV and VNAV
Q.22)
engaged and the flaps not up causes which of the following conditions?

LNAV and VNAV remain engaged, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and
A.the takeoff thrust derates are removed.

The AFDS modes change to TOGA and the autothrottle engages in THR REF
B.and the takeoff thrust derates remains unchanged.

C.The AFDS modes change to TOGA, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and
 the takeoff thrust derates are removed.

LNAV and VNAV remain engaged, the autothrottle engages in THR REF and
D.the takeoff thrust derates remains unchanged.

A high-low chime sounds and a •COMM communications alert

Q.23)
message appears on EICAS. What action should you take?

Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked
A.message in the CDU scratchpad.

Push the FMC COMM function key on the CDU and view the uplinked
B.
message.
Push the COMM switch on the display select panel and view the uplinked
C.message on the MFD.

Push the transmitter select switch with the illuminated CALL light and respond
to the call.
D.

What does an illuminated flight interphone CALL light on the audio control
Q.24)
panel indicate?

A.Another airplane is calling.

B.A ground crew technician is calling the flight deck.
C.Someone is calling the flight deck on VHF radio.
D.The FLT transmitter select switch is stuck in the ON position.
Q.25) What does the •SELCAL communication EICAS alert message indicate?

A.The selective calling system has failed.

B.A VHF or HF selective call has been received and is waiting to be answered.
C.. A cabin attendant is calling the flight deck.
D.An uplink has been received.
Q.26) What does the EICAS message ENG FUEL VALVE R indicate?
A.The engine fuel valve on the right engine is open.
Both the spar and the engine fuel valves on the right engine are commanded
B.to the same position.

The spar or engine fuel valve on the right engine has not reached its
C.commanded position.

D.The fuel filter bypass valve is not functioning.

Which of the following does not happen when the Fuel Control switch
Q.27)
is placed to RUN with Autostart ON?

A.The engine fuel valve is armed

B.The spar fuel valve is armed.
C.The engine ignitor(s) is/are armed.
D.The EEC opens the valve and turns on the ignitor(s) when required.
Q.28) What happens when the stabilizer signal is not present or is invalid?

The EICAS message STAB GREENBAND displays.

A.

B.The green band on the indicator turns amber.

C.The green band and the pointer are not displayed.
D.The CDU displays the VERIFY TRIM message in the scratchpad.
Q.29) What happens in flight when both transfer busses become unpowered?

The APU starts automatically, regardless of the APU selector position.

A.

B.The RAT powers both transfer busses action.

No other power source is available so only the standby bus remains powered
C.
until pilot action
 The APU must be manually started and connected to the transfer busses.
D.

What normally powers the 4 Transformer-rectifier units (TRUs)?

Q.30)

A.Ground service bus

B.Both AC transfer buses
C.Left and right main DC bus
D.APU battery
What will occur if a single IDG is powering both buses, and the
Q.31)
PRIMARY EXTERNAL POWER switch is selected ON?

Primary external power connects to both busses and the IDG power source is
A.removed.

Primary external power connects to the bus which is normally powered by the
non-operating IDG.
B.
.

C.The single IDG will continue to power both busses

External power cannot be applied in this situation.
D.

Q.32) Which statement about a manual engine start is correct?

A.A manual start is possible with the Autostart system switch in the ON position.
B.Manual start procedures are part of the normal Engine Start procedure
C.The EEC controls when fuel is first provided to the engine.
The EICAS message ENG AUTOSTART is displayed if the fuel control switch
is
D.
moved to RUN before the rpm specified in the manual start procedure.

When do the control wheel stabilizer trim switches control stabilizer

Q.33)
movement directly?
A.All the time.
B.Only during approaches
C.Only on the ground and in the Secondary and Direct flight control modes
D.During engine out go-arounds
Q.34) What components make up the Standby Electrical System?

The main battery, the standby inverter, the L TRU and R TRU, the RAT
A.generator amd its associated generator control unit

B.The main battery, the standby inverter, the APU battery, the L TRU and R TRU
The main battery, the standby inverter, the RAT generator amd its associated
C.generator control unit

D.The main battery, the standby inverter, the L TRU and R TRU
Q.35) Which of the following is not a stall protection feature?

The out-of-trim forces increase above normal for a condition above the
A.minimum maneuver speed.

The pilot must apply continuous aft column force to maintain airspeed below
B.the maneuvering speed.

Stab trim is inhibitied in the nose up direction at approximately the minimum

C.maneuvering speed.

Use of alternate pitch trim levers reduces the column forces below the
D.minimum maneuvering speed.

How are the main AC busses powered if the right engine is

Q.36) started with the APU powering the left bus system and external
power powering the right bus system?

External power continues to supply the right main bus.

A.
 The right engine generator automatically powers both main busses.
B.

The right engine generator automatically powers the right main bus.
C.

The right engine generator automatically powers the left main bus.
D.

Q.37) When are pitch trim changes required with normal pitch mode control?

A.During airspeed changes only.

B.When the landing gear is extended.
C.When thrust is changed.
D.For all configuration changes.
What happens when an APU fire is detected on the ground and
Q.38)
the engines are shut down?

The APU shuts down automatically but the fire bottle must be discharged
A.
manually.
The APU shuts down automatically and the fire bottle discharges
B.
automatically.
The APU does NOT shut down automatically but the fire bottle discharges
C.
automatically.
The APU does NOT shut down automatically and the fire bottle must be
D.discharged manually.

Q.39) Which statement is not correct concerning stabilizer trim?

The green band on the stabilizer position indicator shows the acceptable range
A.
for takeoff.
Activating the stabilizer trim switches on the control wheel disengages the
B.
autopilot.
C.As airspeed increases, trim rate decreases.
D.You can use the pitch trim switches on the ground to set the trim.
The EXEC light is illuminated and you push the DEP ARR key but do
Q.40)
not see the desired destination ARRIVALS page. Which of the
 following actions will not display the DEP/ARR INDEX page?

A.Push the INTIT REF key and select the INDEX line select key(6L).
Push the ERASE prompt line select key(6L) then push the INDEX line select
B.
key(6L).
C.Push the EXEC key then push the INDEX line select key(6L).
Wait until traveling more than 400 NM from the ORIGN or more than half way
D.to the destination before selecting the DEP/ARR key again.

Q.41) Which statement about Resets Menu Page is correct?

A.RESETS key resets all of the normal checklists.

B.RESETS key resets all of the non-normal checklists.
All checklists can be reset at once by using the RESETS key followed by the
C.RESET ALL key.

All checklists can be reset at once by using the NON- NORMAL MENU key
D.followed by the RESET ALL key.

Q.42) What does the DET FIRE CARGO AFT EICAS message indicate?

A.A fire has been detected in the aft cargo compartment.

There is a detection zone fault in the smoke detector for the aft cargo
B.
compartment.
C.The aft cargo fire heat sensor is inoperative
D.Fire detection for the aft cargo compartment is not available.
Which of the following does not display the Secondary Engine
Q.43)
Indications?

A.A secondary engine Parameter is exceeded

B.The displays initially receive electrical power
C.A Fuel Control switch is moved to CUTOFF on the ground.
D.A Fuel Control switch is moved to CUTOFF in flight.
Q.44) What does the EICAS Message SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS indicate?
A.Both PFDs are using the same source for radio altitude display.
B.Both PFDs are receiving air data from the same single channel source.
C.Both PFDs are using the same source for flight director information.
D.A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.
Q.45) When is the pitch limit indication displayed?

A.When the flaps are NOT up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up
B.Only when the flaps are NOT in the up position
C.If airspeed is close to maximum
D.After takeoff until passing 1000 feet.
Which of the following statements about waypoint altitude constraints is not
Q.46)
correct?

A.The active altitude constraint is displayed on line 1 of the LEGS page.

B.The active altitude constraint is displayed in magenta
C.The active altitude constraint is displayed on the ND map
The active altitude constraint can be displayed on the CLB, CRZ and DES
D.
pages
Q.47) What does the DET FIRE CARGO FWD EICAS message indicate?

A.A fire has been detected in the forward cargo compartment.

B.Smoke is detected in only one zone of the forward cargo compartment.
C.Fire detection for the forward cargo compartment is not available.
D.The forward cargo fire heat sensor is inoperative.
Q.48) Which statement about the Fuel temperature display is true?

A.Fuel temperature is displayed on the PFD (primary flight display).

Fuel temperature display turns amber when approaching the fuel freeze point
B.entered in the FMS CDU.

C.Fuel temperature in each fuel tank is displayed on the primary EICAS display.
D.Fuel temperature display turns amber during a fuel overheat condition.
Q.49) Which statement about checklist overrides is correct?
 To override a checklist you must display that checklist and then use the CHKL
A.OVRD key.

B.Closed loop steps cannot be overridden.

C.Steps that are overridden remain white.
D.To override a checklist it must first be reset.
Q.50) When does LNAV automatically engage if selected during preflight?

A.At or above 50 feet when within 2.5 NM laterally from the active route leg.
B.When does LNAV automatically engage if selected during preflight?
C.Only at or above 50 feet on the departure route active leg.
D.LNAV is already active during takeoff.

Which statement about the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) is most
correct?

A.It displays airplane attitude, airspeed and ILS information.

B.It displays airplane attitude, heading and airspeed information.
C.It displays airplane attitude, altitude and ILS information.
D.It displays airplane attitude, airspeed, altitude, heading and ILS information.
Which of the following statements about FMC missed approach is not
Q.52)
correct?

A.VNAV and LNAV can not be activated below 400 feet radio altitude
B.Descent constraint altitudes below the current airplane altitude are deleted.
The highest altitude in the missed approach procedure becomes the new
C.
cruise altitude
Automatic transition to the missed approach phase is not possible without
D.pushing the TOGA switch.

Q.53) When can the active navigation database be changed on the IDENT page?
A.Only during preflight
B.Only on the ground.
C.Any time, on the ground or in flight.
D.Only during preflight before entry of the ORIGN.
Q.54) When will the FMC not automatically sequence the active waypoint in flight?

A.When more than 21 NM off the active route and not on an offset
B.When more than 2.5 NM off the active route and not on an offset.
C.When passing over the waypoint in HDG SEL
D.When passing over the PROCEDURE HOLD waypoint on an approach.
Q.55) Which fuel pumps are used for fuel jettison?

A.Left and right main tank fuel pumps and the center tank override pumps
B.Left and right main tank jettison pumps only
Left and right main tank jettison pumps and the center tank jettison/override
C.
pumps
D.All fuel pumps are used for fuel jettison.
Why is there is no limitation in the Boeing airplane Operations
Q.56) Manual or QRH regarding Flap selection at high altitudes above
20,000 feet?

A.The Flap assemblies are Boeing built and very strong.

Flap extension is inhibited at high altitudes and airspeeds above FLAPS 1 limit
B.placard speed plus 10 knots.

The Flap handle is mechanically inhibited by a barometric transducer solenoid

C.at the equivalent of 500 millibars.

D.This was an oversight by the Boeing Company.

When is the landing altitude flag (LDG ALT) removed during
Q.57)
preflight?

A.After landing altitude is set on the pressurization panel.

B.After the original airfield is entered on CDU route page
C.After correct local altimeter is set.
D.Only after takeoff.
Which of the following is not a condition that allows an excessive
Q.58)
Localizer deviation alert to occur?

A.Low radio altitude

B.Autopilot or Flight Director engaged
C.Incorrect ILS frequency and course selected
D.LOC roll mode engaged
Q.59) What does the EICAS message SGL SOURCE ILS indicate?

A.Both PFDs and NDs are using the same source of ILS information
B.Only one ILS receiver is tuned.
C.Both PFDs and NDs are using the same source of air data information.
D.A single source of display information is used by some or all display units.
Which of the following statements is true when the FUEL IMBALANCE
Q.60)
message is displayed?

A solid white fuel imbalance pointer is displayed beside the tank with the low
A.
quantity.
A flashing amber fuel imbalance pointer is displayed beside the tank with the
B.low quantity.

A solid amber fuel imbalance pointer is displayed beside the tank with the low
C.quantity.

D.The fuel quantity indicator in the low tank turns amber.

During preflight with only APU electrical power in use, you note that
all main and center tank fuel pump switches are OFF but the left forward
Q.61)
pump PRESS light is not displayed. Are these indications correct if the APU
is operating?

Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the APU is on and
A.
automatically using that pump.
 Yes. The left forward PRESS light is extinguished indicating the DC pump is
B.
on.
C.No. The right forward PRESS light should also be extinguished.
No. All of the PRESS lights should be extinguished when the fuel pumps are
D.commanded off.

Q.62) Which statement concerning nose gear actuation and steering is not true?

It is reconnected to the center hydraulic system when airspeed decreases

A.below 60 knots

It is reconnected to the center hydraulic system when hydraulic pressure to the

B.center system flight controls goes low.

It is reconnected to the center hydraulic system when the landing gear is

selected
C.down, both engines are normal, and both engine-driven pumps are providing
pressure.

It is reconnected to the center hydraulic system when the system determines

that both engines have been running for more than 30 seconds.
D.

Which statement is not accurate concerning the EICAS caution message

Q.63)
FUEL PRESS ENG L?

A.Crossfeed may be necessary to prevent thrust decay.

B.Both left main fuel tank pumps are operating at a lower pressure
C.The left engine is using suction feeds from the left main fuel tank.
D.This message can not display with fuel in the center tank
Q.64) How can the aircrew retract the gear following alternate gear extension?

A.The landing gear lever must be in the down position when using the alternate
 gear
extension system

B.After the landing gear is extended, the main gear doors close
C.The normal landing gear indications are displayed on EICAS
D.If the normal system is operating, select DN then UP
During center hydraulic system non-normal operation, which
Q.65) statement is correct when center system quantity is sensed to be low and
airspeed is greater than 60 knots?

A.The isolation valves close to isolate the flight controls from the center system.
B.Nose gear actuation and steering are isolated.
C.Main gear actuation and steering are isolated.
D.Thrust reversers are isolated.
Before a normal ground start, the right center tank pump PRESS light
Q.66) is illuminated however, the EICAS message FUEL PUMP CENTER R
is not displayed. Is this a normal indication?

A.Yes, one pump is electrically load shed and the message is inhibited.
Yes, center tank fuel is not used during engine start and the message is
B.
inhibited.
C.No, the EICAS message is never inhibited.
D.No, the EICAS message will be displayed after a short sensing delay
Q.67) Which statement about the hydraulic systems is true?

Hydraulic fluid is supplied to each hydraulic pump from the single central
A.
reservoir
B.The demand pumps for the left and right systems are bleed air driven.
Flight control system components are distributed so that any one hydraulic
C.system can provide adequate airplane controllability.

D.The left and right primary pumps are electric driven.

Q.68) Which statement about the Landing Gear system is not correct?
A.Air/ground sensing logic signals come from the nose wheel strut.
With the landing gear retracted and all doors closed, the landing gear hydraulic
B.system is automatically depressurized.

C.The landing free-fall without hydraulic power to the locked position

The landing gear lever position has no effect on landing gear alternate
D.
extension.
The FMC scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED does
Q.69)
not display for which of the following conditions?

A.A new ZFW is entered on the PERF INIT page.

B.A new FLAPS setting is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.
C.A new CG value is entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.
D.New runway winds are entered on the TAKEOFF REF page
Q.70) When does RTO automatically apply maximum brake pressure?

A.When a thrust lever is retarded to idle.

B.When the speedbrake lever reaches the UP position.
C.When the thrust levers are retarded to idle above 85 knots
D.When the reverse thrust levers are raised to idle above 85 knots.
What is the minimum radio altitude for the deployment of the Speedbrakes
Q.71)
in flight?

A.There are no operating limitations on speedbrake operation.

B.400 feet
C.1500 feet
D.700 feet
Q.72) When does the autobrake RTO setting command maximum braking?

On the ground, with wheel speed above 45 knots and both thrust levers
A.
retarded to idle.
B.On the ground, When both thrust levers are retarded to idle.
On the ground, with wheel speed above 85 knots and both thrust levers
C.
retarded to idle.
D.On the ground, with maximum brake peddle pressure applied
Q.73) What does the EICAS Message MAIN GEAR BRACE L indicate?

A.The left main gear is not down and locked

B.A brace on the left main gear is unlocked.
C.Both drag and side braces on the left main gear are not locked.
A main gear brace remains locked during attempted gear retraction.
D.

Which of the following are maximum allowable wind speeds when

Q.74)
landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations?

A.Headwind 30 knots
B.Tailwind 5 knots
C.Crosswind 38 knots
D.Crosswind 25 kts
You notice the EICAS message ELT ON. What tab number of the QRH
Q.75)
contains the appropriate non-normal procedure?

A.5, Communications
B.1, Airplane General
C.15, Warning Systems
D.11, Flight Management
During Center Hydraulic system Non-Normal operation, which of the
Q.76) following statements is correct when center system quantity is sensed to be
low and airspeed is greater than 60 knots?

A.The isolation valves close to isolate the flight controls from the center system.
B.Nose gear actuation and steering are not isolated.
C.Thrust reversers are isolated.
Leading edge slats are isolated and not allowed to operate in the primary
D.
mode.
Q.77) During Rapid depressurization checklist recall steps, when is the
 passenger oxygen switch is activated?

A.cabin altitude exceeds 15,000 feet

B.cabin altitude is 12,500 feet or lower
C.cabin altitude is 10,000 feet
D.cabin altitude is uncontrollable
Q.78) When can the ground handling bus be powered?

A.On the ground, with either APU or external power available

B.Only when the APU is running while on the ground
C.Either on the ground or in flight, with APU power available.
D.On the ground, with the ground service switch selected.
After application of de-icing fluids to the exterior of the airplane,
Q.79) how long should you wait before restoring normal Engine and APU
bleed air operation?

A.Approximately 1 minute
B.3 minutes
C.5 minutes
D.None, normal bleed air operation is allowed during de-icing procedures.
Q.80) For an automatic landing, which of the following statements is correct?

A.The maximum glideslope angle is 3.25 degrees and flap 30 must be used
The minimum glideslope angle is 2.5 degrees and autoland status must display
B.
LAND 3
Automatic landings can be made using flaps 20 or 30, with both engines
C.operative or one engine inoperative.

Contact flight dispatch for the landing climbout performance dictated flap
D.
setting
Which of the following statements is most correct regarding flap position
Q.81)
during automatic landings?

A.Automatic landings may be accomplished using flaps 20, 25 or 30.

 Automatic landings may be accomplished using flaps 20 or 30 when LAND 2
B.or LAND 3 is annunciated.

Automatic landings may be accomplished using flaps 20, 25 or 30 when LAND

C.2 or LAND 3 is annunciated.

D.Automatic landings may be accomplished using flaps 20 or 30.

Q.82) Which statement about the fuel system limitation is most correct?

A.Main tanks must be maintained full on the ground if center tank fuel is loaded.
B.Main tanks must be scheduled to be full if center tank fuel is loaded
C.Fuel crossfeed valves must be closed for landing.
D.Fuel imbalance must not exceed 1000 pounds (500 kilograms).
Q.83) Which statement about the Parking Brake is correct?

A.The parking brake is set using the normal brake hydraulic system.
The parking brake is set by fully depressing a brake pedal and simultaneously
B.pulling he parking brake lever up.

The EICAS message CONFIG PARKING BRAKE is displayed if the parking

C.brake is set and either engine is out of idle thrust.

D.The parking brake pressure can be maintained by the brake accumulator.

What is the minimum duct pressure for starting engines when performing a
Q.84)
crossbleed start?

A.15 PSI
B.25 PSI
C.45 PSI
D.55 PSI
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ground wind
Q.85)
limits for doors?

A.38 knots while opening or closing, 45 knots while open

B.15 knots while opening or closing, 25 knots while open
C.40 knots while opening or closing, 65 knots while open
D.There are no ground wind Limits for doors
Following automatic deployment of the RAT due to system failures, what
Q.86)
systems receive hydraulic power from the RAT?

A.Alternate gear extension system

B.Normal brakes (after landing and airspeed below 60 kts)
Primary flight control components normally powered by the center hydraulic
C.system

D.All primary flight control components

The EICAS message AUTOPILOT is displayed passing the Alert
Q.87) Height on a category IIIA approach and visual reference is not
established, what should the pilot do?

A.Continue the approach with autopilot disengaged.

B.Re-engage the autopilot and continue the approach.
C.Execute an immediate manual go-around
D.Execute an immediate go around.
Which of the following is correct during an ILS approach with TAC
Q.88)
inoperative?

Pilot rudder pedal pressure and rudder trim inputs are required to control yaw
A.after 1500-foot radio altitude with localizer and glideslope capture.

B.roper trim includes a sideslip and the control wheel will not be centered.
C.Rudder trim inputs are not effective in the LOC or ROLLOUT modes.
Engaged autopilots control the yaw using the rudder before LAND 2 or LAND 3
are
D.
annunciated.

Which statement is correct concerning the AFDS status

Q.89)
annunciation?
A.Below 200 feet it can change from LAND 3 to LAND 2.
B.Below 500 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited.
Below 200 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited other than a transition
C.to NO AUTOLAND.

Below 500 feet, changes in autoland status are inhibited other than a transition
D.to NO AUTOLAND.

Q.90) When must an immediate missed approach must be executed?

A.When on an ILS approach and radio communication is lost.

When a navigation radio or flight instrument failure occurs which affects the
B.ability to safely complete the approach in instrument conditions.

When the navigation instruments show significant disagreement, but visual

C.contact with the runway is made

D.When on an ILS approach, the localizer shows half scale deflection.

Q.91) Which statement is true regarding fuel crossfeed?

A.Crossfeed valves are normally open, providing fuel feed from tank to engine.
Although there are two valves, only one open crossfeed valve is required for
B.successful crossfeed operation.

There is only one crossfeed valve even though there are two switches to
C.
control it.
D.Fuel crossfeed can only be accomplished in the air.
Which statement is not correct concerning the PWS Alert GO
Q.92)
AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD?

A.Windshear location on the ND is too close to be displayed in any mode.

B.The message is enabled during approach below 1200 feet radio altitude.
C.A red WINDSHEAR message is displayed on both PFDs.
 Windshear is predicted within 1.5 miles and directly ahead of the airplane.
D.

What is the level of urgency for a warning displayed on the PFD?

Q.93)
(Example: ENG FAIL, PULL UP, or WINDSHEAR)

Requires immediate crew awareness and may require crew action be

A.performed in a timely manner

Reminds the crew of the current state of manually or automatically configured

B.airplane systems.

Requires crew awareness and may require that crew action be accomplished
C."as time permits."

Requires immediate crew awareness and immediate response, and is usually

D.associated with flight path control.

What precaution should be taken if a tail strike occurs during

Q.94)
takeoff?

A.No special precautions are necessary.

B.The airplane should not be pressurized.
C.Pressurize the airplane to a lower cabin altitude.
The flight may continue normally, but an entry must be made in the
maintenance log.
D.

Q.95) How long will a WINDSHEAR warning on the PFD remain active?

A.Until windshear conditions are no longer detected.

B.Until the master warning light reset switch is pushed.
C.Until the GND PROX G/S caution light is pushed.
D.Until the landing gear are retracted.
 If the left engine fails at 90 knots during the takeoff roll, what alerts
Q.96)
are presented to the aircrew?

Mater Caution lights, beeper, and Amber ENG FAIL L EICAS message are
A.
presented.
B.None, ENG FAIL alerts are inhibited at 65 knots.
Voice annunciation "Engine Fail", Master Warning lights, and red ENG FAIL
C.message on both PFD's.

None. ENG FAIL alerts are inhibited at 80 knots.

D.

Q.97) What are the types of TCAS traffic alerts?

A.Proximate, traffic advisory, resolution advisory, and other

B.Other advisory, proximate advisory, traffic advisory, traffic resolution
C.None, approximate, traffic resolution, other advisory
D.TA/RA, TA ONLY, proximate, other
An engine start is desired after a shutdown with no fire or apparent
damage. How much time can it take from placing the fuel
Q.98)
control switch to RUN to stabilized engine idle?

A.3 minutes
B.3 1/2 minutes
C.2 minutes
D.2 1/2 minutes
Q.99) What does the EICAS Message CONFIG DOORS indicate?

At least two passenger entry door flight locks are not in the commanded
A.position and both thrust levers are in the takeoff range

The mode select lever of all passenger entry doors is in the manual mode and
B.
both thrust levers are in the takeoff range.
 A passenger entry door, forward cargo door or aft cargo door is not closed,
latched and locked and either engine's thrust lever is in the takeoff range on
C.
the ground.

At lease two doors are not closed, latched and locked and both thrust levers
D.are in the takeoff range

At 500 feet above field elevation, in IFR conditions on an autoland

ILS approach,the pilot not flying will make which of the
Q.100)
following callouts according to the Flight Crew
Training Manual?

A."FLARE ARMED"
B."FLARE ENABLED"
C."LAND 3" or "LAND 2", or "NO AUTOLAND"
D."500 FEET"