SSC Steno 3 Jkchrome Com

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SSC Stenographer
Reasoning
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 1

Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose
the odd one.

A Festoon

B Garnish

m
C Adorn

co
D Demolish

Answer: D

Question 2

e.
Find the unlike pair of words

A tomcat : queen cat


m
B chick : hen
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C ant : queen ant

D stag : doe
ch

Answer: B

Question 3

In a distinct code language ATISH is written as AHIST and MAHEK is written as AEHKM. In that language,
.jk

how will NARGIS be written ?

A ANIGRS
w

B ANGIRS
w

C AGINRS

D AGNIRS
w

Answer: C

Question 4

A, B, C, D, E,F, G and H are sitting in a circle in the same order for lunch at equal distances. Their
positions are clockwise. If C is sitting in the cast, then what is be the position of G?

A South-east

B West

C North-east

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D East

Answer: B

Question 5

Find the odd letter.

A N

B I

C B

m
D P

Answer: B

co
Question 6

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the

e.
first term.
Humble : Courteous :: Destitute : ?

A Poor
m
B Sufficient
ro
C Well off

D Rich
ch

Answer: A

Question 7
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Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the
first term.
EK : MS :: AG : ?
w

A IO
w

B IJ

C IM
w

D JP

Answer: A

Question 8

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
43, 48, 58, 73, ...........

A 83

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B 78

C 88

D 93

Answer: D

Question 9

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
GJM, KLN, ONO, ..........

A SRS

B SOP

m
C SPP

co
D SQQ

Answer: C

Question 10

e.
Select the term that is related to third term in the same way as second term is related to first term.
17 : 306 : : 13 : ?

A 275
m
ro
B 182

C 144
ch

D 169

Answer: B
.jk

Question 11
w

Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series would complete
it?
ybb _ byy _ y _ byb _ yby
w

A yybb
w

B ybby

C ccyc

D ybyb

Answer: B

Question 12

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
16, 15, 12, 7,.......

A 0

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B -2

C 1

D 2

Answer: A

Question 13

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the
first term.
3 : 90, 5 : 130 ::7: ....., 9 : 738

A 2540

m
B 2450

C 2504

co
D 2405

Answer: B

e.
Question 14
m
In a code language. DRONE is written as WILMV How will DONKEY be written in that code language?
ro
A WLPVMB

B WLVMPB
ch

C WLPMVB

D WLMPVB
.jk

Answer: D

Question 15
w

Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is
placed at XY line.
w
w

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m
Answer: D

co
Question 16

Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing center. F is sitting immediate left of A and B is
sitting opposite to E. A and D is sitting opposite to each other. Who is sitting opposite to F?

e.
A A

B E
m
C C
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D F

Answer: C
ch

Question 17
.jk

Find out the two signs to be interchanged for making following equation correct.
18 − 2 × 7 ÷ 6 + 10 = 67
w

A − and ÷
w

B × and ÷

C + and ×
w

D + and −
Answer: A

Question 18

Select the option that will fill in the blank and complete the given series.
ZCC, XEE, VGG, ...., RKK

A TII

B RGG

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C SII

D SGG

Answer: A

Question 19

Rahman went from his office to the district headquarters. He started his journey facing West. First, he
went 20 km straight; then he turned to his left and went 9 km; finally, he turned right and went 20 km to
reach the district headquarters.
What is the shortest distance between Ftahman's office and the district headquarters?

A 24.5 km

B 49 km

m
C 41 km

co
D 34.5 km

Answer: C

e.
Question 20 m
Select the option that will come next in the given series.
ro
ch
.jk

A
w
w

B
w

Answer: A

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Question 21

In a morning after sunrise, a boy rode his bicycle 4 km towards West. Then he took right turn and rode 6
km then he took right turn and rode 6 km to reach his school. In which direction the School is form the
starling point?

A North-West

B North-East

C South-East

D South-West

Answer: B

m
Question 22

Select the option that is related to the fourth term in the same way as the first term is related to the
second term.

co
Kind : Altruistic :: ? : Lamenting

A Anger

e.
B Sad

C Truth

D Joy
m
Answer: B
ro
ch

Question 23

Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner. while one is different. Choose
the odd one.
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A Gold
w

B Platinum

C Silver
w

D Ruby

Answer: D
w

Question 24

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
AKT, BLU, CMV, DNW, ......

A FOY

B FOX

C EOY

D EOX

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Answer: D

Question 25

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes.
Ostriches, Snakes, Frogs

m
B

co
C

e.
m
ro
D
ch

Answer: D
.jk

Question 26

If '+' is '×', '−' is '+', '×' is '÷' and ' ÷' is '−',then what will be the value of the following expression?
w

2 1 3
6+ 3 − 2 ÷ 4 ×9
w

35
A 21
w

53
B 12

35
C 12

53
D 21

Answer: B

Question 27

Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose
the odd one.

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A Temple

B House

C Park

D School

Answer: B

Question 28

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
6, 11, 20, 45, 134, .......

m
A 497

B 749

co
C 479

D 794

e.
Answer: C

m
Question 29
ro
Choose the odd number pair.

A 32 : 19
ch

B 43 : 95

C 21 : 51
.jk

D 58 : 26

Answer: D
w

Question 30

If '÷' means ' +', '−' means ' ÷', '×' means ' −', and '+' mean ' ×' then find the value of
w

24 8÷6 4×7
8 3×19
w

A 5

B 1

C 4

D 7

Answer: C

Question 31

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
4, 5, 14, 39, 88, 169, .........

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A 209

B 200

C 290

D 299

Answer: C

Question 32

Choose the odd number pair.

m
A 2564 : 21

co
B 3797 : 42

C 1479 : 83

e.
D 4632 : 23

Answer: D m
Question 33

Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner. while one is different. Choose
ro
the odd one.

A Scurvy
ch

B Rickets

C Phosphorus
.jk

D Goitre

Answer: C
w

Question 34

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
16, 2, 15, 4, 13, 7, 10, 11, 6, .........
w

A 17
w

B 14

C 15

D 16

Answer: D

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Question 35

In a code language. SWEET is written as RXDFS. and PLATE is written as OMZUD. How will TRAIN. be
written in that code language?

A USBJO

B UQBHO

C SSZJM

D SQZHM

Answer: C

Question 36

m
Select a flame from amongst the four alternatives; which when placed in the blank space (?) of figure
would complete the pattern (rotation is NOT allowed).

co
e.
m
A
ro
ch

B
.jk

C
w
w
w

Answer: B

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Question 37

The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which
conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.
Statements:

All books are grapes.


Some grapes are fruits.
Conclusions:
I. No grape is a book.
II. Some grapes are books.

A Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

B Only conclusion II follows.

m
C Only conclusion I follows.

co
D Both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: B

e.
Question 38 m
Choose the odd number pair.
ro
A 123 : 49

B 912: 144
ch

C 324 : 100

D 813 : 169

Answer: B
.jk

Question 39

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
w

BPCW, DPEW, FPGW, ........., JPKW

A IPHW
w

B HPIW
w

C HPJW

D IPJW

Answer: B

Question 40

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes.
Social Science, Psychology, Sociology

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m
C

co
e.
D

Answer: B
m
ro
Question 41
ch

In a class, five children wrote aptitude test.

In the result report, it was noted that the child A got less marks than the child B. The child C got less
marks than the child D. The child B is got less mark than the child C and child A got more marks than the
child E. which child got the second highest marks?
.jk

A D
w

B B

C C
w

D A
w

Answer: C

Question 42

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
22, 4, 16, 24, 6, 36, 26, 8, 64, 28, 10, ......

A 3

B 100

C 30

D 9

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Answer: B

Question 43

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
3, 7, 11, 15, .....

A 19

B 18

C 21

D 23

Answer: A

m
co
Question 44

Kedar starts from his house and travels 25 km towards the south by bicycle and reaches the bus stand.
Then he takes a left turn and travels 15 km, take takes a left turn again and travels 25 km more. How far

e.
is he from his original position?

A 10 km
m
B 15 km
ro
C 25 km

D 20 km
ch

Answer: B

Question 45

Select the option that will come next in the given series.
.jk
w
w
w

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Answer: C

Question 46

m
The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in
the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which
conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.

co
Statements:
All whites are pink.
All greens are pink.
Conclusion:

e.
I. Some pinks are green.
II. Some pinks are white.

A Only conclusion I follows.


m
B Only conclusion II follows.
ro
C Both conclusions follow.

D Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.


ch

Answer: C
.jk

Question 47

Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.
w

JBKA, LBMA, NBOA, ........

A PQBA
w

B PBQA
w

C PABQ

D PAQB

Answer: B

Question 48

If moon is called sea, sea is called water, water is called air, air is called sun and sun is called river, then
what gives us light and heat?

A Sun

B Water

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C River

D Sea

Answer: C

Question 49

Out of the given four words, three words are similar in some way whereas one word is different. Choose
the different word.

A Hole : Driller

B Cut : Knife

C Photo : Frame

m
D Paint : Brush

Answer: C

co
e.
Question 50

Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is
placed at XY line.
m
ro
ch

A
.jk

C
w

D
w

Answer: A
w

General knowledge
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 51

The folk dance LAVANI is associated with the state of ........

A Gujarat

B Maharashtra

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C Madhya Pradesh

D Rajasthan

Answer: B

Question 52

Thar desert is also known as ...........

A Great desert of South Asia

B The great Indian desert

m
C Desert of Asia

co
D Desert of the East

Answer: B

Question 53

e.
Most rivers in India pour their water into the .........

A Indian Ocean
m
B Bay of Bengal
ro
C Lakshadweep Sea

D Arabian Sea
ch

Answer: B

Question 54
.jk

Who was Dantidurga?

A Travancore chief
w

B Mysore chief

C Rashtrakuta chief
w

D Malabar chief
w

Answer: C

Question 55

Which Governor General decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar would be the last Mughal king and after his
death, none of the descendants would be recognized as kings?

A Irvin

B Hastings

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C George

D Canning

Answer: D

Question 56

In which year was the first battle of Tarain fought?

A 1100

B 1291

C 1391

m
D 1191

Answer: D

co
Question 57

Hand gestures used in Indian classical dances are called .........

e.
A Mudra

B Karah m
C Padah
ro
D Vadanam

Answer: A
ch

Question 58
.jk

Pedapalli district, which is ranked as the third cleanest district in India as per Swachh Survekshan
Grameen 2018, is in which State?

A Sikkim
w

B Manipur
w

C Telangana

D Karnataka
w

Answer: C

Question 59

The first shooter from India to claim a gold medal at the Youth Olympic Games is ........

A Rahi Sarnobat

B Manu Bhaker

C Jitu Rai

D Sanjeev Rajput

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Answer: B

Question 60

Awarded with the Tagore Award for cultural harmony in 2016, Ram Vanji Suthar is a famous ______

A Musician

B Dancer

C Sculptor

D Painter

Answer: C

m
co
Question 61

The ......... Constitution is the longest in the world.

e.
A American

B Indian m
C Canada

D New Zealand
ro
Answer: B

Question 62
ch

As per the ranking undertaken by Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2018, which district is the second
cleanest in India?
.jk

A Dehradun

B Agra
w

C Rewari

D Cochin
w

Answer: C
w

Question 63

As on 2018 which is the longest river bridge in India?

A Dunila-Solahpur

B Godavari Sethu

C Diga- Sonpur

D Dhola- Sadiya

Answer: D

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Question 64

In 2018, who received the prestigious Hridaynath award for Life time achievement?

A Asha Bhonsle

B K J Yesudas

C K S Chitra

D Mohammed Zahur Khayyam

Answer: D

m
Question 65

Name the National park in which 23 lions reportedly died in 2018?

co
A Jim Corbett National Park

e.
B Ranthampore National Park

C Gir Sanctuary m
D Kanha National Park

Answer: C
ro
Question 66

Who developed the binomial nomenclature for living organisms?


ch

A Alexander

B Carlson
.jk

C Flemming

D Carolus Linnaeus
w

Answer: D
w
w

Question 67

Who was the captain of India's first World Cup winning cricket team?

A Lala Amarnath

B Kapil Dev

C Mansoor Ali Khan Pataudi

D MS Dhoni

Answer: B

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Question 68

Who among the following is Justice Dipak Misra's successor as the Chief Justice of India?

A Venugopal

B Ranjan Gogoi

C Chelameswar

D Manjula

Answer: B

Question 69

m
Which of the following is not a kingdom of living organisms?

A Albumina

co
B Monera

C Fungi

e.
D Protista

Answer: A m
ro
Question 70

Latent heat of vaporization of steam is ............


ch

A 423 cat/g

B 267 cal/g
.jk

C 324 cal/g

D 540 cal/g
w

Answer: D

Question 71
w

Which of the following represents the reproductive part of a plant?


w

A Twig

B Flower

C Scales

D Wood

Answer: B

Question 72

How many gold medals did India win at the 18th Asian games in Jakarta?

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A 11

B 15

C 9

D 7

Answer: B

Question 73

What is India's fiscal deficit target, as a percentage of GDP, for the financial year 2018-19?

m
A 3.1 per cent

co
B 3.0 per cent

C 3.2 per cent

e.
D 3.3 per cent

Answer: D m
Question 74

The heat energy absorbed or released at constant temperature per unit mass for change of state is called
ro
by what name?

A Forced heat
ch

B Latent heat

C Sublime heat
.jk

D Vapour heat

Answer: B
w

Question 75

Among the following kings, who performed Hiranya-garbha?


w

A Marthanda Varma
w

B Raja Ravi Varma

C Dantidurga

D Parashurama

Answer: C

Question 76

Who is the Governor of Andhra Pradesh as on January 2019?

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Kummanam Rajasekharan
A

B E S Lakshmi Narasimhan

C Thambidurai

D Oomen Chandy

Answer: B

Question 77

Who is the President of NASSCOM?

A Debjani Ghosh

m
B Indra Nooyi

C Ravi Jain

co
D Kumar Manglam Birla

Answer: A

e.
Question 78

Other than India. how many other countries are associated with Chabahar port project?
m
A 5
ro
B 3

C 2
ch

D 4

Answer: C
.jk

Question 79
w

Mr. Kummanam Rajasekharan is the Governor of which State as on January 2019?


w

A Manipur

B Kerala
w

C Bihar

D Mizoram

Answer: D

Question 80

Who designed the Statue of Unity in Gujarat?

A Jakanachari

B V Balan

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C Ram Vanji Sutar

D Sankho Chaudhri

Answer: C

Question 81

Water freezes at ......

A -1°C

B 10°C

C 1°C

m
D 0°C

Answer: D

co
Question 82

e.
Which city was excavated in 1922 in Larkana district on the banks of Indus?

A Mohanjodaro
m
B Dhanushkodi
ro
C Kanchi

D Harappa
ch

Answer: A

Question 83
.jk

Who is known as the Father of Zoology?

A Aristotle
w

B Socrates

C Plato
w

D Alexander Flemming
w

Answer: A

Question 84

Name the device that measures the distance travelled by a vehicle.

A Odometer

B Ammeter

C Barometer

D Spinometer

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Answer: A

Question 85

Which state of India has the highest per capita income?

A Haryana

B Arunachal Pradesh

C Maharashtra

m
D Goa

Answer: D

co
Question 86

Which of the following is not a stringed musical instrument ?

e.
A Veena

B Sitar m
C Tamboura

D Tabor/Drum
ro
Answer: D

Question 87
ch

Latent heat of fusion of ice is ..........

A 65 cal/g
.jk

B 54 cal/g

C 12 cal/g
w

D 80 cal/g

Answer: D
w
w

Question 88

A massive temple, dedicated to the Sun God is situated in .........

A Karnataka

B Odisha

C Gujarat

D Madhya Pradesh

Answer: B

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Question 89

What is the full form of PMFBY?

A Pradhan Mantri Fasal BimaYojana

B Prime Minister's Fast Benefit Yojana

C Prime Minister's Food and Beverages Scheme

D Pradhan Mantri Fukhri Bhavishya Yojna

Answer: A

Question 90

m
The Government of India has set the target of doubling farmers' income by which of the following years?

co
A 2013

B 2022

e.
C 2020

D 2021

Answer: B
m
ro
Question 91

With which doubles partner Leander Paes has won Santo Domingo open trophy in 2018?
ch

A Martina Hingis
.jk

B Sania Mirza

C Miguel Angel Rayyes Varela


w

D Rohan Boppana

Answer: C
w

Question 92

Which of th following techniques is not relevant in the context of determining the age of earth, minerals
w

and rocks?

A Uranium Lead dating

B Radiocarbon dating

C Potassium Argon Dating

D Digging

Answer: D

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Question 93

In which place was the 32nd edition of India-Indonesia coordinated patrol held?

A Belawan

B Dehradun

C Pataya

D New Delhi

Answer: A

m
Question 94

co
What is the period in which Khasi Uprising occurred?

A 1876-1891

e.
B 1891-1896

C 1911-1915 m
D 1829-1833

Answer: D
ro
Question 95

.......... is the harvest festival of South India.


ch

A Diwali

B Thrissur Pooram
.jk

C Hampi

D Pongal
w

Answer: D
w

Question 96

Which of the fo lowing rivers does not drain into the Arabian Sea?
w

A Tapi

B Godavari

C Narmada

D Indus

Answer: B

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Question 97

In 2018, ESIC received ISSA Good Practice Award. ISSA was founded in 1927 under the auspices of
...........

A World Bank

B Indian Labour Organization

C International Labour Organization

D CII

Answer: C

Question 98

m
In India. the President holds office for a period of ........

co
A 7 years

B 5 years

e.
C 6 years

D 4 years

Answer: B
m
Question 99
ro
What is the total number of votes secured by Harivansh Narayan Singh in the 2018 Deputy chairman
Rajya Sabha election?
ch

A 125

B 176
.jk

C 146

D 159

Answer: A
w
w

Question 100
w

Indira Po nt was formerly known as ............

A Barsaat Point

B Pyramidal point

C Python Point

D pyamalion Point

Answer: D

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English
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 101

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.


The weatherman said that rain is expected the next day.

A The weatherman said, "Rain is expected the next day."

B The weatherman said. "Rain can be expected tomorrow."

m
C The weatherman said, "Rain was expected tomorrow."

co
D The weatherman said, "Rain is expected tomorrow."

Answer: D

e.
Question 102 m
Given below are four sentences, three of which, are jumbled. Pick t e option that gives the correct order.
A. The clock struck quarter past nine as Mamta hurried into the big block of offices.
B. She resolved to leave home earlier from the next day.
ro
C. So she was a few minutes late on the first day of her j b
D. The bus had crawled through the dense traffic
ch

A ACDB

B ABDC
.jk

C ABCD

D ADCB

Answer: D
w

Question 103
w

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.


My fiends told me that they would go home for Pongal the following Sunday.
w

A My friend id to me, "We will go home for Pongal the coming Sunday."

B My friend said, "We go home for Pongal the coming Sunday."

C My friend told me, "We are going home for Pongal the coming Sunday."

D My friend said, "We would go home for Pongal next Sunday."

Answer: A

Question 104

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.


Mary asked her husband, "Why have you been avoiding me since yesterday?"

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A Mary wanted to know from her husband the reason he is avoiding her since the previous day.

B Mary questioned her husband as to why he has been avoiding her since the previous day.

C Mary wanted to know from her husband as to why he had been avoiding her since the previous day.

D Mary asked her husband as to why he had been avoiding her since yesterday.

Answer: C

Question 105

m
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
KNOWLEDGE

co
A illiteracy

B goodness

e.
C ignorance

D eccentricity

Answer: C
m
Question 106
ro
Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
Ever since Mary won the election, she has been behaving as if she was a queen.
ch

A has been behaving

B since
.jk

C was

D the election

Answer: C
w

Question 107
w

Select the most app opr ate antonym of the given word.
DASHED
w

A weakened

B destroyed

C produced

D encouraged

Answer: D

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Question 108

Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given below:


Do something at the drop of the hat

A do something without wearing a hat

B do something without having planned beforehand

C do something that requires great planning

D do something wearing a hat

Answer: B

Question 109

m
Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.
Maria complained that though there were many shopping centers in Dubai, they w re al expensive.

co
A Maria said, "Though there are many shopping centers in Dubai, they are all expens ve."

B Maria said, -There were many shopping centers in Dubai, but they are all expensive."

e.
C Maria said, "There have been many shopping centers in Dubai, but they ar expensive."

D Maria said, "The many shopping centers that are there in Dubai, but hey a e all expensive."

Answer: A
m
ro
Question 110

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains he grammatical error.


Raja was elected as Secretary of the Housing Socie y by members present and voting.
ch

A as Secretary

B and voting
.jk

C was elected

D members present
w

Answer: B
w
w

Instructions

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

Two hundred years ago, the treadmill was invented in England as a prison rehabilitation device. It was meant to cause
the .........(1) to suffer and learn from their sweat. It would mill a bit of corn or ............(2) some water as a bonus.
William Cubitt, a civil engineer raised in a family of millwrights, created the treadmill—which was also called a
treadwheel in the early days—in 1818. Cubitt's early attempts at the treadmill's ............(3) took many forms, including
two wheels you walked on, whose cogs interlocked. But his most popular .............(4), which was installed at Brixton
Prison in London, ...........(5) a wide wheel. Prisoners pressed down with their feet on steps ...........(6) in the wheel,
which moved it, presenting them with the next step. The Brixton treadmill was hooked up to subterranean machinery
that ..............(7) corn. This treadmill could keep as many as 24 prisoners .............(8), standing side-by-side along the
wheel. Some devices at other prisons were smaller, and most treadmills soon ............(9) partitions, so convicts could
not socialize. They ............(10) for 10 hours a day in summer, and a mere seven in winter.

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Question 111

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 1.

A intimidated

B inculcated

C internalized

D incarcerated

Answer: D

Question 112

m
Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 2.

A Pump

co
B Pipe

C Tap

e.
D Save

Answer: A m
Question 113

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 3.


ro
A design
ch

B decline

C proposal
.jk

D strategy

Answer: A
w

Question 114
w

Select the mos appr priate option to fill blank no 4.


w

A version

B hoax

C type

D process

Answer: A

Question 115

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 5.

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A absolved

B involved

C revolved

D evolved

Answer: B

Question 116

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 6.

A entrenched

m
B adorned

co
C embellished

D embedded

Answer: D

e.
Question 117
m
Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 7.
ro
A grew
ch

B planted

C packed

D ground
.jk

Answer: D

Question 118
w

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 8.


w

A Happy

B Busy
w

C Jailed

D Dormant

Answer: B

Question 119

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 9.

A resided

B examined

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C divided

D included

Answer: D

Question 120

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 10.

A slogged

B gagged

m
C dragged

co
D talked

Answer: A

Instructions

e.
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 121 m
Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given below:
Take with a pinch of salt
ro
A not believe completely something that you are told

B not eat something until you add salt to it


ch

C completely disbelieve anything that you are told

D immediately accept something tha is not sal d


.jk

Answer: A

Question 122

Identify the segment in the sen ence which contains the grammatical error.
w

Lupin is one of the least important person in the opposition and can never hope to become a minister.
w

A in the oppositi n

B become
w

C least impor ant person

D can never

Answer: C

Question 123

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.


ALTERATION

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A modification

B conciliation

C adjudication

D modulation

Answer: A

Question 124

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
I agreed to meet him at the cafeteria at 9.00.

m
A I agreed to have met him

co
B I agreed meeting him

C No improvement

D I agreed meet him

e.
Answer: C

Question 125
m
Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
ro
I liked the violin but found it rather expensive to buy

A found it somewhere expensive to buy


ch

B No improvement

C found it so expensive to buy


.jk

D found it hardly expensive to buy

Answer: B
w
w

Question 126

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.


w

NUMEROUS

A scarce

B uncountable

C several

D occasional

Answer: A

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Question 127

Given below are four sentences, three of which, are jumbled. Pick the option that gives the correct order.
A. It is impossible to know all the rules of any language.
B. It takes both time and patience.
C. Advertisements that claim to teach a language in 60 days are all lies.
D. Learning a language is a life-long job.

A ADCB

B ABCD

C ACBD

D ADBC

m
Answer: D

Question 128

co
Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
John said, "When I am bored, I cook."

e.
A John said that when he is bored, he will cook.

B John said that when he was bored, he cooked. m


C John says that when he is bored, he cooks.

D John said that when he cooked he was bored.


ro
Answer: B
ch

Question 129

Select the correct passive form of th give sentence.


.jk

Computer networks can easily predict our on-line behavior.

A Our on-line behavior easi be predicted by computer networks.


w

B Our on-line behavior was e ily predicted by computer networks.


w

C Our on-line behavior can easily be predicted by computer networks.

D Our on-li e behavior can easily be predict by computer networks.


w

Answer: C

Question 130

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.


The ideology of our time has embraced the idea of trying to hold things stable and static.

A The idea of trying to hold things stable and static will be embraced by the ideology of our time.

B The idea of flying to hold things stable and static have been embraced by the ideology of our time.

C The idea of trying to hold things stable and static has been embraced by the ideology of our time.

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D The idea of trying to hold things stable and static has embraced by the ideology of our time.

Answer: C

Question 131

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.


DISPARATE

A collected

B calm

C indifferent

D similar

m
Answer: D

co
Question 132

e.
Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
He questions the ability of markets to survive without state interventi n.

A
m
The ability of markets to survive without state intervention quest oned by him.

B The ability of markets to survive without state intervention is questioned by him.


ro
C The ability of markets to survive without state interven ion are questioned.

D The ability of markets to survive without state i erven ion was being questioned by him.
ch

Answer: B

Question 133
.jk

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
She will say she has money to spare. What was the use of asking her?
w

A No improvement
w

B What is the use

C What mu t be the use


w

D What we e he use

Answer: B

Question 134

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.


Researchers have found that employees who have friends at the office are generally happier in their job.

A It was found by researchers that employees who have friends at the office are generally happier in their job.

B It could be found by researchers that employees who have friends at the office are generally happier in their job.

C It is being found by researchers that employees who have friends at the office are generally happier in their job.

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D It has been found by researchers that employees who have friends at the office are generally happier in their job.

Answer: D

Question 135

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
"We need a cardigan. Are you able to knit?"

A No improvement

B Will you be able to knit?

m
C Are you knitting?

co
D Can you knit one?

Answer: D

Question 136

e.
Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical rror
The teacher had hardly left the room than the pupils started enjoying.
m
A The teacher
ro
B had hardly left

C started enjoying.
ch

D than

Answer: D

Question 137
.jk

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
Baghdad remains a profoundly damaged place, and for all its newness, Dream City echo many of the
city's continuing issues.
w

A echo
w

B newness
w

C continuing issu s

D a profoundly damaged

Answer: A

Question 138

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.


Scientists have said that understanding past changes in ocean heat was ........ for predicting the future
impact of climate change.

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A cynical

B circular

C critical

D cyclical

Answer: C

Question 139

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
Many a girl were influenced by the inspirational lecture given by the Nobel laureate.

m
A Nobel laureate

B inspirational lecture

co
C Many a girl

D were influenced

e.
Answer: D

Question 140 m
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Napping can do as much to improve someone's ........... as a balanced diet and exercise can.
ro
A deficiency

B knowledge
ch

C familiarity

D efficiency
.jk

Answer: D
w

Question 141

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
w

required, select "No improvement".


If you are e er in Chennai you come and see me.
w

A No improvement

B come see me.

C come and see me.

D you came and see me.

Answer: C

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Question 142

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
The Life-cycle hypothesis holds that individuals seek to smooth consumption over the course of a lifetime
— borrowing in times of low-income and saving during period of high income.

A in times

B to smooth

C over the course

D period of

Answer: D

m
Question 143

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.


PROHIBITION

co
A assertion

e.
B exclusion

C decree

D declaration
m
Answer: B
ro
ch

Question 144

Identify the segment in the sentence which con ains the grammatical error.
Scientists have discovered a new tree rog species, with an extraordinary, enlarged claw-like structure
located at the base of the thumb, that live n a remote tabletop mountain in the Andes.
.jk

A with an extraordinary
w

B live on a remote table op moun ain

C have discovered
w

D located at

Answer: B
w

Question 145

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.


The line between work and life is so ........ that for millennials, the idea of a work-life balance has never
been an aspiration, let alone a reality.

A blurred

B steamy

C ambiguous

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D cloudy

Answer: A

Question 146

Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given below:


Barking up the wrong tree

A unable to guess the right type of tree

B chasing a false trail

C misunderstanding the origin of a problem

D creating a problem by teasing dogs

m
Answer: B

co
Question 147

e.
Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
A number of points of resemblance between the Australian and Dravidian languages is discovered,
despite the fact that the homes of the two races are so far apart.
m
A so far apart
ro
B points of resemblance

C is discovered
ch

D despite the fact

Answer: C

Question 148
.jk

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.


Air travel can spread a pandemic worldwide within days.
w

A A pandemic shall be spread worldwide within days by air travel.


w

B A pandemic can be sp ad worldwide within days by air travel.

C A pandemic is spread worldwide within days by air travel.


w

D An air travel can be spread within days by worldwide pandemic.

Answer: B

Instructions

Read the following passage and answer the questions.


Passage:

As a toddler growing up in the 1950s. Richard Wawro threw violent tantnuns. Often, he would tap the same piano key
for long stretches of time. When he was three, his parents took him for testing at a nearby hospital. They were told
that he was moderately to severely retarded. His family, however, never believed that his IQ was as low as the experts
claimed. A special education teacher began working with Richard when he was six She introduced him to drawing with
crayons, which he took to quickly. He began filling sketchbooks (and the wallpaper of his Scotland home) with
startlingly accurate depictions of cartoon characters like Yogi Bear. When Richard was 12. his artwork astounded a

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visiting artist who said that his drawings were created "with the precision of a mechanic and the vision of a poet."
Richard could never read or write well. His speech remained limited. But his involvement with the art world spurred his
social development. He participated in dozens of exhibitions and became a well-known artist. His artwork was
celebrated by the media and in a documentary. "With Eyes Wide Open." Both Margaret Thatcher and Pope John Paul II
owned Wawro's oritaials.
Richard was a savant, an individual with a spike in a particular ability combined with an impairment or disability. In
Richard's case, that underlying condition was autism. Autism is a condition characterized by social and conununication
challenges, like difficulty making eye contact or making conversation, along with repetitive behaviors or intense
interests. It turns out that many savants have autism. But when the astounding abilities are there. they are often
rooted in extreme memory, excellent attention to detail and passionate interests — traits also linked to autism. In
many ways, prodigies look a lot like savants. They have the same preternatural abilities. They have the same prolific
output. But there's a key difference between the two. While in savants, these extreme abilities are paired with an
underlying impairment or disability, prodigies don't typically have any such disability. Even though prodigies are not
typically autistic, they have the same excellent memories, extreme attention to detail, and passionate interests linked
to autism and autistic savants.

m
Question 149

Which ONE of the options makes the meaning of `savant' as it emerges in the passage lea ?

co
A an autistic who exhibits exceptional skill or brilliance in some limited field

B an autistic with preternatural abilities, exhibiting exceptional skill or brilliance in a special field

e.
C an autistic who exhibits exceptional skill or iN brilliance in all fields

D a person of learning, especially one with detailed knowledge in so


m spec lized field

Answer: B
ro
Question 150
ch

Which ONE of the statements sums up what the passage is about?

The case of Richard, a savant, illust ates the discovery that the dividing line between a prodigy and a savant is
A
.jk

just the presence of a disability.

Kids with autism, if encouraged, could urn out to be a savant as they share a range of extraordinary abilities with
B
prodigies.
w

When the instance o an aut stic is examined closely, it is found that some diagnosed as autistic might be a savant
C
with a 'spiked' ex ra-o dinary ability.
w

Rather than onclude that autistic patients have limited IQ, we must make the effort to discover the special ability
D
each auti tic patient has.
w

Answer: B

Question 151

Which ONE of the statements given as options is TRUE?

A Some savants have some (or other) disabilities while all prodigies suffer none.

B All savants suffer from certain disabilities while all prodigies suffer from none.

C Some savants have no disabilities while some prodigies might suffer from a disability.

D All savants have no disabilities while all prodigies suffer from some (or other) disability.

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Answer: B

Question 152

Which ONE of the following statements about Richard is FALSE?

A Richard was an illiterate.

B Richard was a renowned artist.

C Richard received special education.

D Richard was communicatively challenged.

Answer: A

m
co
Question 153

Why does the author bring in the topic of prodigies in a discussion of autistic avan s?

e.
A Because it would reorient people who treat autisn with contempt

Because comparing abilities of both prodigies and autistic savants would help us appreciate the capabilities of the
B
latter.
m
C Because he sees the two as related to the same topic.
ro
D Because their abilities are often rooted in extreme memory, excellent attention to detail and passionate interests

Answer: B
ch

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 154
.jk

Select the most appropriate optio to ill in the blank.


Literature does not exist only to provoke feelings of happiness or to ......... us with its pleasure; it should
also challenge and perturb us
w

A placate
w

B cloy

C trouble
w

D reconcile

Answer: A

Question 155

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.


The students wanted to know whether they could postpone the test until Monday.

A "Shall we postpone the test until Monday?" the students asked.

B "Will we postpone the test to Monday?" the students protested.

C "Can we postpone the test until Monday?" the students asked.

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D "Could they postpone the test until Monday?" the students asked.

Answer: C

Question 156

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
If you don't like mathematics at school you don't like it at college too.

A you are not liking it at college too

B No improvement

m
C you haven't liked it at college too

co
D you may not like it at college too

Answer: D

Question 157

e.
Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
The bookie said, "Alas! I have lost all my fortune." m
A The bookie accepted that he have lost all his fortune.
ro
B The bookie said alas he had lost all his fortune.

C The bookie lamented that he had lost all his f rtune.


ch

D The bookie observed that he has lost all his fo tun

Answer: C

Question 158
.jk

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.


Their emotionally intense collaboration maximized their creative potential.
w

A Their creative potential max mize their emotionally intense collaboration.


w

B Their creative potential s being maximized by their emotionally intense collaboration.

C Their cre tive potential was maximized by their emotionally intense collaboration.
w

D Their cre ti e potential is maximizing by their emotionally intense collaboration.

Answer: C

Question 159

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.


COMPREHENSIVE

A enjoyable

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B enclosed

C restricted

D pleasant

Answer: C

Question 160

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
Denmark has been long celebrated as a land of law and order.

A has been all along celebrated

m
B No improvement

C has been far too long celebrated

co
D has been celebrating

Answer: B

e.
Question 161

Select the correct direct form of the given sentence.


Standing in front of the Taj Mahal, Raju said that he had always wanted to see the Taj Mahal
m
A Standing in front of the Taj Mahal Raju wondered, "I have lways wanted to see the Taj Mahal."
ro
B Standing in front of the Taj Mahal Raju told me, "I have been always wanting to see the Taj Mahal."

C Standing in front of the Taj Mahal Raju said, "I h ve always wanted to see the Taj Mahal."
ch

D Standing in front of the Taj Mahal Raju sai , "I had want to see the Taj Mahal."

Answer: C
.jk

Question 162
w

Select the most appropriate ynonym of the given word.


COMPLICATED
w

A jumbled
w

B complex

C disorganized

D lengthy

Answer: B

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Question 163

Given below are four sentences, three of which, are jumbled. Pick the option that gives the correct order.
A. My brother was looking forward to his first Metro ride.
B. But he is the kind of person who never listens to any advice.
C. He had heard a great deal about it from his friends in Delhi.
D. They all told him not to travel alone the first time.

A ABDC

B ACBD

C ACDB

D ADBC

m
Answer: C

Question 164

co
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
OVERWHELMING

e.
A awesome

B impressive m
C mortifying

D striking
ro
Answer: A
ch

Question 165

Select the alternative that will improv th underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
.jk

required, select "No improvement


After my graduation, my uncle sugge ted to me to get a job in a bank.
w

A suggested to me getti g a ob

B suggests me to g t a job
w

C No improvement
w

D suggested me getting a job

Answer: C

Question 166

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.


Space exploration demands ........... human qualities: for astronauts, great bravery, but for everyone,
ingenuity, imagination, discipline, and even a sort of altruiism.

A normal

B common

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C weird

D extraordinary

Answer: D

Question 167

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
Have you got good teachers when you were at school?

A Did you have

B Haven't you got

m
C No improvement

D Hasn't you got

co
Answer: A

e.
Question 168

Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
m
Dwarf galaxies have to hold clues that could help us to unde stand better the nature of dark matter.
ro
A could help us

B have to hold
ch

C understand better

D dark matter

Answer: B
.jk

Question 169

Select the correct passive rm of the given sentence.


w

Are liberals and populists just searching for a new master?


w

A Was a new master being searched for by liberals and populists?

B Are liber ls and populists being searched for by a new master?


w

C Is a new master searching for liberals and populists?

D Is a new master being searched for by liberals and populists?

Answer: D

Question 170

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.


Innovators who are furthering the beneficent uses of advanced AI should avoid scenarios where a
machine 'takes over'

A Scenarios where 'taken over' by a machine should be avoided by innovators who have been furthering the
beneficent uses of advanced AI.

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Scenarios where a machine 'takes over' should be avoided by innovators who are furthering the beneficent uses of
B advanced AI.

Scenarios where a machine is taken over' shall be avoided by innovators who are furthering the beneficent uses of
C
advanced AI.

Scenarios where a machine Stakes over' should have been avoided by innovatois who further the beneficent uses
D
of advanced AI.

Answer: B

Question 171

m
Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given below:
The graveyard shift

co
A the work shift during the night, often from midnight to 8 a.m.

B working at the time when everybody is resting

e.
C an energy-sapping shift that fast tires you out

D working only at midnight everyday

Answer: A
m
Question 172
ro
Select the coma passive form of the given sentence.
To understand global warming and the ozone hole you need science.
ch

A Science was needed to understand global warming and the ozone hole.

B Science is being needed to understand glob l wa ming and the ozone hole.
.jk

C Science has been needed to unde stan global warming and the ozone hole.

D Science is needed to understand globa warming and the ozone hole.

Answer: D
w

Question 173
w

Select the corre t indirect form of the given sentence.


Chettiar said to me. "You may return the money next month."
w

A Chettiar rej cted that I might return the money the coining month.

B Chettiar acceded that I might return the money in the coining month.

C Chettiar acceded that I return the money the next month.

D Chettiar told me that I am to return the money the coming month.

Answer: B

Instructions

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Read the following passage and answer the questions.


Passage:
A new paper published by Rochman and her colleagues in February, in the journal Ecology, sifts through past research
on marine debris to assess the true extent of the environmental threat. Plenty of studies have sounded alarm bells
about the state of marine debris: Rochman and her colleagues set out to determine how many of those perceived risks
are real Often. Rochman says, scientists will wrap up a paper by speculating about the broader impacts of what
they've found. Maybe their study has shown that certain seabirds eat plastic bags, for example, and the paper goes on
to warn that whole bird populations are at risk of dying out. "But the truth was that nobody had yet tested those
perceived threats." Rochman says. "There wasn't a lot of information." Rochman and her colleagues examined more
than a hundred papers on the impacts of marine debris that were published through 2013. Within each paper. they
asked what threats scientists had studied-366 perceived threats in all and what they'd actually found. In 83 percent of
cases, the perceived dangers of ocean trash were proven true. In most of the remaining cases. the working group
found the studies too shoddy to draw conclusions from—they lacked a control group, for example. or used faulty
statistics.
Strikingly. Rochman says, only one well-designed study failed to find the effect it was looking for, an investigation of

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mussels ingesting microscopic plastic bits. The plastic moved from the mussels' stomachs to their b oodstreams.
scientists found. and stayed there for weeks—but didn't seem to stress out the shellfish. A lot of oce n deb is is
"microplastic," or pieces smaller than five millimetres. These may be the beads from a facial scrub fibres shed by
synthetic clothing in the wash. or eroded remnants of larger debris. Compared to the number of stu ies investigating

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large-scale debris. Roclunan's group found little research on the effects of these tiny bit . There are also, she adds, a
lot of open questions about the ways that ocean debris can lead to sea-creature death. Many studies have looked at
how plastic affects an individual animal or that animal's tissues or cells, rather than whole populations. And in the lab,
scientists often use higher concentrations of plastic than what's really in the ocea None of that tells us how many

e.
birds or fish or sea turtles could die form plastic pollution or how deaths in on species could affect that animal's
predators, or the rest of the ecosystem. "We need to be asking more ecologica y rel vant questions." Rothman says.
Usually, scientists don't know how disasters like oil spills or nuclear meltdowns will affect the environment until after
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they've happened. she says. "We don't ask the right questions early enough." But if ecologists can understand how the
slow-moving disaster of ocean garbage is affecting ecosystems. they might be able to prevent things from getting
worse.
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Question 174

Which ONE of the following conclusions based on the examination of the hundred-odd papers on marine
debris and its ecological impact by Rachman and her co leagues is NOT CORRECT?
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A Researchers tend to overgeneralize while iscuss ng the implications of their findings.

B That ocean garbage endangers ecosyst s has not been fully understood.
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C More than fifty percent of the past ecological studies failed to perceive the threats posed by marine debris.

D Issues with the focus, sco and findings of previous research inform future studies.
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Answer: C
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Question 175

Select the option to complete the statement below.


According to the passage, the significant difference between natural disasters and ecological disasters,
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especially with reference to marine debris, is that ...........

A the latter can be predicted and prevented

B we study the former after they happen and the latter before they happen

C ocean debris does not cause natural disasters but could become more dangerous

D ecological disasters are not natural and man-made.

Answer: A

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Question 176

Select the option that describes the central theme developed in the passage:

A Papers published up to 2013 employ proper research methods.

B Current research on the impact of marine debris is not defective.

C Future ecological research on marine debris must understand the nature of ecological disaster and prevent it.

D Research has to only include studies on the effects of microplastic on ecology.

Answer: C

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Question 177

Select the option to complete the statement below.

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The perceived dangers of ocean trash for marine life are, in a majority of cases ......... .

A valid

e.
B exaggerated

C false

D premature
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Answer: A
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Question 178

What according to the author is the problem w th papers reporting seabirds eating plastic?
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A These scientists do not ask ecologically rele ant questions.


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B Generalizations about whole popu ations getting affected lack verifiable data.

C The scientists use concentrat d plastic o generate data.


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D We agree with the percept ons f the scientists but not their methods,

Answer: B
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Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
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Question 179

Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.


When big tech companies owned your phones, they could make money on all sorts of services.

A When your phones were owned by big tech companies, they could make money on all sorts of services.

B When your phones are owned by big tech companies, they could make money on all sorts of services.

C When your phone were being owned by big tech companies, they could make money on all sorts of services.

D When your phones owned big tech companies, they could make money on all sorts of services.

Answer: B

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Question 180

Select the alternative that will improve the underlined part of the sentence; if no improvement is
required, select "No improvement".
"We have so many to do, and so little time."

A No improvement

B so much

C such many

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D as much

Answer: B

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Question 181

Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.


"I am not happy about the announcement," Bob Tilman said.

e.
A Bob Tilman confessed that he was not happy about the announcement

B
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Bob Tilman confessed that he is not happy about the announcement.

C Bob Tilman told that he was not happy about the announcemen
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D Bob Tilman says that he was not happy at the announcement

Answer: A
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Question 182

Given below are four sentences, three of which are jumbled. Pick the option that gives the comet order.
A. Jainshed ji Tata was born in 183 in a traditional Parsi family.
B. Then worked in trading for some y ars in China and UK.
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C. He was a great believer in techn logy and revolutionized the Tata Textile Mills.
D. He started his career as an appren ice in his father's store.
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A ACBD

B ACDB
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C ADCB
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D ADBC

Answer: D

Question 183

Select the most appropriate meaning of the idiom given below:


Straight from the horse's mouth

A hear something from someone who has many followers on social media

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B hear something from someone who has direct, personal knowledge

C get information from a popular television channel

D believe someone who is very confident

Answer: B

Question 184

Given below are four sentences, three of which, are jumbled. Pick the option that gives the correct order.
A. The Quilt Minar is one of the most important monuments in Delhi.
B. Was it just built by a king to please himself or is there a reason behind its construction?
C. It towers over the city like a sentinel.
D. But if we look at its height, one wonders why it was built.

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A ADBC

B ACDB

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C ABDC

D ACBD

e.
Answer: B

Instructions m
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Passage:

Where is this going?' That is the question at the heart of River of Life River of Death, as author Victor Mallet travels
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the length of the Ganges. Beginning at its ice cave source n the Himalayan foothills. he follows the water through the
holy confluence at Allahabad. the spindly banks of Var asi city and onwards to the delta in Bangladesh. where 'in its
parting gift to the land. the river spews millions of t ns of f rtile silt on to the rice fields of Bengal and the mangroves
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of the Sundarbans.'
It is the same question he asks about the treatment of the Ganges. both good and bad. The river leads a double life.
being the most worshipped waterway in the wo ld an also one of the most polluted. The Ganges and its tributaries
are now subject to sewage pollution tha is half a million times over the Indian recommended limit for bathing' in
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places. not to mention the unchecked runo f from heavy metals, fertilizers. carcinogens and the occasional corpse.
As Mallet observes. the danger of contaminat on does not put off the millions of revellers at Kuinbh Mela. It is a Hindu
pilgrimage 'thought to be the largest gathe ing of people anywhere'. described to him as 'a spiritual expo... where you
will be talking one moment to a visiting Mumbai businessman and the next to a marijuana-stoned yogi. He suggests
the pollution might never dete th m. He is told by one bather: 'we do believe that anyone who takes in this water. he
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becomes pure also. because i i always pure.' There is a collective sense that the spirit of the Ganges is so sacred that
she can never be spo led.
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He informs the reader n th preface — 'almost everyone knows the problems are real'. His journey down the Ganges is
one of investigat on rather than discovery. Mallet investigates the potential of the river to become a cradle for
antibiotic-res tan infections — or superbugs' — that could be exported to other regions by global travel. He points out
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that some 450 mill n people depend on the Ganges water basin for survival, and many more for its religious and
cultural impor ance. The Ganges is a goddess and a mother to everyone from the politician in the north, to the
humblest Hindu living in the far south or running a motel in the United States.
There is hope. Mallet draws some parallels to clean-ups of the Rhine and the Thames. He points to the design feat of
Ktunbh Mela, which as 'a pop-up megacity' for two million pilgrims has better infrastructure and waste treatment than
many Indian cities. 'In the minds of both Indians and foreigners. this raises important questions... if the authorities can
build infrastructure so efficiently for this short but very large festival why can they not do the same for permanent
villages and towns?'

Question 185

Which ONE of the options fills in the blank and completes the statement below correctly?
The average believer is of the faith-driven conviction that the river Ganges

A shall never be the object of an investigation

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B can never be spoiled

C will never infect the believer

D may never die due to pollution

Answer: B

Question 186

Which ONE of the options fills in the blank and completes the statement below correctly?
The Ganges is a mother to the devout Hindu; however, it is to the non-Hindu Indian ...... and .....

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A an interesting tourist spot; a zone for adventure sports

B a spectacle: locus for the Khumb Melas

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C a cultural icon; provider of life

D a source of water; a garbage bin

e.
Answer: C

Question 187 m
Which ONE of the options faithfully sums up the 7 main ideas of the passage?
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An objective assessment of the river Ganges, life-givin and death-threatening. fosters not only faith but also hope
A
among its admirers of its redemption in future.

The river Ganges is a river that gives life and ho e to a l but it is a pity that its abusers are not aware that they are
B
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pushing it to its extinction.

The Ganges is multifaceted personality — v nerated as a mother, it tolerates as a mother all the pollutants thrown
C
into it.
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D The Ganges is a holy river for Hindus who venerate it, live off it but also pollute it.

Answer: A
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Question 188

Which ONE of the options fills in the blank and completes the statement below correctly?
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The river Ganges is the most worshipped waterway in the world and also one of the most polluted" This
brings to light, in re ty, .........
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A the contr rian nature of the average Indian

B the democratic space it provides to the CEO and the Yogi

C the dangers of bathing in the river at any place

D the double life that the river leads

Answer: A

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Question 189

Which ONE of the statements below is FALSE?

A Victor Mallet asks the question 'Where is it going?' of the river Ganges which has a metaphorical relevance too.

B A clean River Ganges is as feasible as a clean River Thames or River Rhine

The Kumbh Mela is a witness not only to the X 3. devotion of a section of Indians but also their skills of crowd
C
management.

D The Ganges carries superbugs and it is a problem all Indians are aware of.

Answer: D

Instructions

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In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the altern tives given.

In literature, a tragedy is a plot in which the 'hero', because of some inherent flaw in his/her character, dies. Thus

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Hamlet, Julius Caesar and Romeo and Juliet are tragedies. In each of these plays the ..... (1) is either a great man or
a man of great ...........(2) instead of fulfilling his ............(3) however, each one succumbs to his tragic flaw and
.............(4) dies. Caesar's flaw is ambition, Hamlet's is the inability to take action, and Romeo's is his tendency to love
too much. It might seem, from this highly .............(5) definition, that character and resolution are the keys to a

e.
tragedy. But tragedy also ..............(6) a central action, a crisis which tests that flawed part of the protagonist's ............
(7) In Julius Caesar, the test comes when Mark Antony presents Caesar with th crow . Hamlet's test comes in the
chapel, after witnessing his uncle's reaction to the play. Mercutio's death tes s Romeo. In all three cases the
protagonists are found ..........(8) Caesar accepts the crown after refus ng it twice; Hamlet sheaths his sword instead of
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executing Claudius; Romeo murders Tybalt in a vengeful rage. ........ (9) th test, the flaw might never ............(10).

Question 190
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Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 1

A fool
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B protagonist

C actor
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D villain

Answer: B
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Question 191

Select the most ap rop iate option to fill blank no 2.


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A size
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B promise

C riches

D style

Answer: B

Question 192

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 3.

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A potential

B fate

C destiny

D luck

Answer: A

Question 193

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 4.

A generally

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B ultimately

C crucially

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D obviously

Answer: B

e.
Question 194

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 5.


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A undefined
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B independent

C undeveloped
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D simplified

Answer: D
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Question 195
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Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 6.


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A implodes

B impinges
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C imbibes

D implies

Answer: D

Question 196

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 7.

A Soul

B Heart

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C character

D Plot

Answer: C

Question 197

Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 8.

A gambling

B wanting

C dreaming

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D threatening

Answer: B

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Question 198

e.
Select the most appropriate option to fill blank no 9.

A With
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B Since
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C Before

D Without
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Answer: D

Question 199
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Select the most appropriate optio to ill blank no 10.

A develop
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B surface

C reduce
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D depose
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Answer B

Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually

Question 200

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.


DISTASTE

A neutral

B loathing

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C tasteless

D banal

Answer: B

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