Class Xii Biology Term1 2023

NAVODAYA VIDYALAYA SAMITI
TERM TEST 1 :2023-2024

BIOLOGY (044) Class: XII
Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 03 Hours
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4
marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions.
A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams are to be drawn.
SECTION-A
1. The coconut water from tender coconut is

A. cellular endosperm.
B. free nuclear endosperm.
C. both cellular and nuclear endosperm.
D. free nuclear embryo.
2. Choose the option that gives the correct no. of pollen grains that will be
formed after 125 microspore mother cell undergo microsporogenesis.
(a) 650 (b) 1300
(c) 500 (d) 650
3. Which of the following correctly ranks nucleic acid structures in order of
size, from largest to smallest?
(A). gene, chromosome, nucleotide, codon
(B). chromosome, gene, codon, nucleotide
(C). nucleotide, chromosome, gene, codon
(D). chromosome, nucleotide, gene codon
4. During translation, codon in _________ is recognised by___________ of
____________.
(A). tRNA; anticodon; mRNA
(B). rRNA; anticodon; tRNA
(C). mRNA; anticodon; tRNA
(D). rRNA; anticodon; mRNA
5. Given below is a genetic map with 3 genes : x,y,z.
------x-----------------------------------------------y----z----
According to genetic map shown, which of the following statement is incorrect
?
(a) The strength of linkage between y and z is stronger than x and z.
(b) The chances of recombination between x and y are higher than x and z
(c) The strength of linkage between x and y is weaker than y and z
(d) The chances of recombination between y and z is lower than x and z
6. At a particular locus, the frequency of allele A is 0.8 and that of allele a is
0.2. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating
population at equilibrium?
(a) 0.32
(b) 0.16
(c) 0.24
(d) 0.48
7. Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty used enzymes to purify
biochemicals such as proteins, DNA and RNA from the heat-killed S cells to
see which ones could transform live R cells into S cells in Griffith's
experiment. They observed that
A. Proteases and RNases affected transformation.
B. DNase inhibited transformation.
C. Proteases and Lipases affected transformation.
D. RNases inhibited transformation.
8. In human beings, where genotype AABBCC represents dark skin colour,
aabbcc represents light skin colour and AaBbCc represents intermediate skin
colour; the pattern of genetic inheritance can be termed as:
A. Pleiotropy and codominance
B. Pleiotropy and incomplete dominance
C. Polygenic and qualitative inheritance
D. Polygenic and quantitative inheritance
9. A patient was advised to have a kidney transplant. To suppress the immune
reaction, the doctor would administer him:
a) statins produced from Monascus purpureus
b) statins produced from Streptococcus thermophilus
c) cyclosporin A produced from Trichoderma polysporum
d) cyclosporin A produced from Clostridium butylicum
10. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of maturation of insulin. Select the
correct set of the names labelled
A, B, and D.
11- Which is incorrect?

(a) Specific Bt toxin genes have been isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis.
(b) Meloidegyne incognitia does not infect the roots of tobacco plants.
(c) In mammals insulin is synthesized as a prohormone.
(d) ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplantation.
12- Select the statement which explains best parasitism.

(a) One organism is benefited.
(b) Both the organism are benefitted.
(c ) One organism is benefitted, other is not affected.
(d) Both host and the parasite tend to co-evolve.
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
13-Assertion: Primary transcripts in eukaryotes are nonfunctional.
Reason: Methyl guanosine triphosphate is attached to 5’ – end of hnRNA.
14-Assertion: E. coli having pBR322 with DNA insert at BamHI site cannot
grow in medium containing tetracycline.
Reason: Recognition site for Bam HI is present in tetR region of pBR322.
15-Assertion: Parturition is induced by a complex neuro endocrine
meachanism.
Reason: At the end of gestation period, the maternal pituitary releases
prolactin which causes uterine contractions.
16-Assertion : Interferons are effective against viruses.
Reason : Proteins which can be synthesized only by genetic engineering are
effective against viruses.
SECTION -B
17. Given below is the diagram of developmental stage of human embryo.
(a) identify the human embryonic stage .

(b) Write one function of ‘X’ and ‘Y’
18.
In the above figure “Australian marsupials exhibit adaptive radiation but they
along with Placental mammals show convergent evolution .” Justify the
statement
OR
List two main propositions of Oparin and Haldane.
19.Many microbial pathogens enter the gut of humans along with food . What
are the preventive barriers to protect the body from such pathogens ?
20 . What is the significance of adding proteases at the time of isolation of
genetic material (DNA) ?
21-Swathi was growing a bacterial colony in a culture flask under ideal
laboratory conditions where the resources are replenished.
(a) Which of the following equations will represent the growth in this case?
(Where population size is N, birth rate is b, death rate is d, unit time period is t,
and carrying capacity is K).
(a) dN/dt = KN
(b) dN/dt = r N
(c) dN/dt = r N(K-N/K)
(d) dN/dt = r N(K+N/K)
(b) What is ‘r’ in above equations is called? Why it is important parameter ?
SECTION- C
22- Name the place where the first meiotic division is completed during
oogenesis.What are the products of this division ? Give the chromosome
number of each type of cells ,involved in this process.
23- Observe the figure and answer the given questions.
-
(a) Name the peak observed in subject -1 and subject-2.
(b) Subject 2 has higher level of hormone B, Name the hormone.
( c) Which structure in the ovary will remain functional in subject -2
24 -i) Explain MTP
ii) Give two situations when MTP is advised .
iii) Write when amniocentesis and MTP can be misused.
25- Explain the functions of the following structures in the human male
reproductive system.
(a) Scrotum
(b) Leydig cells
(c) Male accessory glands
26-Define flocs . What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge
flocks is reduced ?
27- (a) Name the class of enzymes that are required for cutting of DNA at
specific position.
(b) Mention their kinds and give one specific characteristic of each.
28 – (a) In which ecosystem the pyramid of biomass is inverted ?
(b) Why is it inverted ? Explain.
(c) Name the type of pyramid that is always upright. Give reasons.
SECTION-D
29-Read the following and answer the questions given below :
Thomas Hunt Morgan ( the father of experimental genetics) selected fruitfly
Drosophila
melanogaster ( the jackpot of Genetics) as experimental materials though it is
small sized (2mm size) because of many advantages in Drosophila over pea.Thomas
Hunt Morgan (1866 - 1945) , an American genetist and Noble Prize winner of 1933,is
considered as Father of Experimental Genetics for his work on and discovery of
linkage , crossing over , sex linkage , criss cross inheritance , linkage maps , mutability
of genes etc. He is called fly man of genetics because of selecting fruit fly ( Drosophila
melanogaster) as research material in experimental genetics.It was largely due to his
book “ The Theory of Gene” (1917),that genetics was accepted as a distinct branch of
biology. Linkage is the tendency of genes to stay together during inheritance through
generation without any change or separation due to their being present on the same
chromosome. The genes located in the same chromosomes are called linked genes
and those located on different chromosomes are termed unlinked genes.
(I) Morgan used Drosophila as experimental material because :
(i) It could be grown on simple synthetic medium.
(ii) It produces hundreds of individuals in single mating only.
(iii) It has long life span.
(iv) Males and females are similar.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv ) and (i)
(II)crossing over takes place in
(a) Leptotene
(b) Zygotene
(c) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene
(III) Briefly mention the contribution of T.H. Morgan in genetics. (Any two )
OR
What is recombination ? Give its one application from the point of view of
genetic engineering
30- In botany, a seed is a plant embryo and food reserve enclosed in a protective
outer covering called a seed coat (testa). Seeds are the product of the ripened
ovule, after the embryo sac is fertilized by sperm from pollen, forming a zygote. The
embryo within a seed develops from the zygote and grows within the mother plant to
a certain size before growth is halted.
The formation of the seed is the defining part of the process of reproduction in seed
plants Other plants such as ferns, mosses and liverworts, do not have seeds and
use water-dependent means to propagate themselves. Seed plants now dominate
biological niches on land, from forests to grasslands both in hot and cold climates. In
the flowering plants, the ovary ripens into a fruit which contains the seed and serves
to disseminate it. Many structures commonly referred to as "seeds" are actually dry
fruits. Sunflower seeds are sometimes sold commercially while still enclosed within
the hard wall of the fruit, which must be split open to reach the seed.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
a) What are viable seeds?
b) Write the total no. of (i) Pollen grains (ii) Gametes in producing 200 viable
seeds.
c) Prepare a flow chart to depict the post -pollination events leading to viable
seed production in flowering plant.
SECTION – E
31. Evaluate the suitability of DNA and RNA as genetic material and justify the
suitability of the one that is preferred as an ideal genetic material.
OR
Explain the mechanism of DNA replication as suggested by Watson and Crick.
32. Represent schematically the life cycle of a malerial parasite.

OR
Name the cells HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus ) gains entry into after
infecting the human body. Explain the events that occur in these cells.
33- Gene therapy is an experiental technique that uses genes to treat or
prevent diseases. In the future , this technique may allow doctors to treat a
disorder by inserting a gene into a patient’s cells instead of using drugs or
surgery. Clinical gene therapy is given to a 4 years old patient for an enzyme
that is crucial for the immune system to function.
Expalin the steps of Gene therapy for enzyme replacement thereapy in a 4
year old patient.
OR
(i) why are transgenic animals called so?

(ii) Explain the role of transgenic animals in
a- Vaccine Safety and Bological products with the help of examples.

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NAVODAYA VIDYALAYA SAMITI

TERM TEST 1 :2023-2024

(i) All questions are compulsory.

1. The coconut water from tender coconut is

11- Which is incorrect?

12- Select the statement which explains best parasitism.

(a) identify the human embryonic stage .

23- Observe the figure and answer the given questions.

32. Represent schematically the life cycle of a malerial parasite.

(i) why are transgenic animals called so?

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