Cambridge IGCSE ™: Economics
Cambridge IGCSE ™: Economics
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Cambridge IGCSE™
ECONOMICS 0455/22
Paper 2 Structured Questions February/March 2023
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 90
Published
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.
These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.
• the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
• the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
• the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.
Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).
• marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond the
scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
• marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
• marks are not deducted for errors
• marks are not deducted for omissions
• answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.
Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.
Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).
Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.
a DO credit answers which are worded differently from the mark scheme if they clearly convey the same meaning (unless the mark
scheme requires a specific term)
b DO credit alternative answers/examples which are not written in the mark scheme if they are correct
c DO credit answers where candidates give more than one correct answer in one prompt/numbered/scaffolded space where extended
writing is required rather than list-type answers. For example, questions that require n reasons (e.g. State two reasons …).
d DO NOT credit answers simply for using a ‘key term’ unless that is all that is required. (Check for evidence it is understood and not used
wrongly.)
e DO NOT credit answers which are obviously self-contradicting or trying to cover all possibilities
f DO NOT give further credit for what is effectively repetition of a correct point already credited unless the language itself is being tested.
This applies equally to ‘mirror statements’ (i.e. polluted/not polluted).
g DO NOT require spellings to be correct, unless this is part of the test. However spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and
unambiguous separation from other syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. Corrasion/Corrosion)
4 Annotation:
• For point marking, ticks can be used to indicate correct answers and crosses can be used to indicate wrong answers. There is no direct
relationship between ticks and marks. Ticks have no defined meaning for levels of response marking.
• For levels of response marking, the level awarded should be annotated on the script.
• Other annotations will be used by examiners as agreed during standardisation, and the meaning will be understood by all examiners
who marked that paper.
Confused SEEN
L Nothing creditworthy
O
Level 1
Level 2
Level 3
1 Make sure that you have completed the relevant training and have access to the RM Assessor Guide.
2 Make sure that you have read and understand the question paper, which you can download from https://support.rm.com/ca
3 Log in to RM Assessor then mark and submit the required number of practice and standardisation scripts. You will need to mark the
standardisation scripts to the required accuracy in order to be approved for marking live scripts. You may be asked to re-mark them, or to mark
a second sample, if you do not meet the required accuracy on your first attempt.
MARKING PROCESS
1 Mark strictly to the FINAL mark scheme, applying the criteria consistently and the general marking principles outlined on the previous page.
2 If you are in doubt about applying the mark scheme, consult your Team Leader.
3 Mark at a steady rate through the marking period. Do not rush, and do not leave too much until the end. If you anticipate a problem in meeting
the deadline, contact your Team Leader immediately and the Examiners’ Helpdesk.
4 Examiners will prepare a brief report on the performance of candidates to send to their Team Leader via email by the end of the marking
period. The Examiner should note strengths seen in answers and common errors or weaknesses. Constructive comments on the question
paper, mark scheme or procedures are also appreciated.
MARKING SPECIFICS
Crossed out work
1 All a candidate’s answers, crossed out or not, optional or not, must be marked.
2 The only response not to be marked is one that has been crossed out and replaced by another response for that exact same question.
3 Consequently, if a candidate has crossed out their response to an optional question and gone on to answer a different optional question then
both attempts must be marked. The higher mark will be awarded by the system according to the rubric.
Annotation
1 Every question must have at least one annotation e.g. <NAQ> if it is an NR and <X> or <seen> if 0 marks are awarded.
2 Every mark awarded for a question (as shown in the mark input box to the right of the screen) must be indicated by a correctly
positioned tick on the script. The number in the box below the tick annotation must be equal to the mark awarded in the input box.
3 Every page of a script must have at least one annotation e.g. <BP> for a blank page
1(a) Calculate the value of US imports from China in 1 Accept the correct figure without the $ sign.
2020. 560 000 000 000.
5.6 10^11
$560bn (1).
1(b) Identify two causes of the increase in the quantity 2 If more than two causes given, consider the first three.
of US factors of production.
Accept increase in labour for increase in the labour force.
Land reclamation (1) increase in the labour force (1).
1(c) Explain one way that import tariffs could improve 2 One mark for a way identified and one mark for an explanation.
the US economy. If more than one way identified, consider the first two.
Could improve the current account / trade in goods / To gain two marks, one mark must come from improving the
trade in goods and services / balance of payments (1) current account, increase output or raise tax revenue.
by reducing imports / making domestic goods more
competitive with imports / raising the price of imports Could raise more revenue is not sufficient – need more tax
(1) revenue or more government revenue / income.
Could increase output / cause economic growth (1) by
increasing demand for US goods / raise employment
(1).
Could raise tax revenue (1) allowing the government
to spend more on (e.g. education) / improve the
(government budget position) (1).
1(d) Explain two reasons why the US inflation rate fell 4 One mark each for each of two reasons identified and one mark
in 2020. each for each of two explanations.
Logical explanation which might include: If more than two reasons given, consider the first three.
Fall in consumer expenditure (1) lower total demand /
reduce demand-pull inflation (1). Reduction in bargaining power may also be linked to lower total
Reduction in workers’ bargaining power (1) fall in demand.
wage rises / wages / fall in rise in costs / fall in costs /
reduce cost-push inflation (1).
Higher unemployment (1) reduces confidence / lower
total demand / fall in consumer spending (1).
Fall in (real) GDP (1) lower incomes / purchasing
power / lower total demand (1).
Current account deficit (1) lower total demand / reduce
demand-pull inflation (1).
1(f) Analyse the relationship between government 5 Alternatively, some candidates may argue that changes in
spending and unemployment. unemployment, could lead to changes in government spending.
Credit both responses.
Coherent analysis which might include:
Overview:
Inverse relationship / negative relationship (1)
generally, the higher government spending, the lower
the unemployment rate (1).
Supporting evidence:
E.g. 2015 to 2019, government spending increased
and unemployment fell / 2015 to 2017 government
spending increased and unemployment fell (1)
processing / interpreting of data e.g. between 2015 to
2019, government spending rose by $700bn and
unemployment fell by 1.6% (points) (1).
Exception:
2020 (1) both government spending and
unemployment rose / government spending and
unemployment both at their highest (1).
1(g) Discuss whether or not a central bank should aim 6 May approach the answer from the point of view of the
for a low inflation rate. disadvantages of high inflation.
2nd side should examine either the possible negative effects of
Award up to 4 marks for logical reasons why it should, what the central bank may do to reduce the inflation rate or the
which may include: possible loss of any beneficial effects of high inflation.
• can increase international price competitiveness
(1) improve the current account balance / No marks for possible effects on the exchange rate.
increase exports (1) increase employment /
reduce unemployment (1) Apply this example to all questions with the
• can create certainty (1) which may increase command word DISCUSS
confidence (1) which may encourage investment / (1g, 1h, 2d, 3d, 4d and 5d)
attract MNCs (1) which may increase output /
result in economic growth (1) Each point may be credited only once, on either side of an
• can prevent a random redistribution of income (1) argument, but separate development as to how / why the outcome
e.g. protect savers (1) may differ is rewarded.
• may protect purchasing power (1) by promoting
price stability (1) Generic example Mark
• maintain / increase living standards (1) if wages
rise by more than the price level (1) Tax revenue may decrease… 1
• can avoid fiscal drag (1) prevent people being put
in higher tax brackets (1) ...because of reason e.g. incomes may be lower. 1
• can reduce menu / shoe leather costs (1) reduce
firms’ costs of production (1). Tax revenue may increase because incomes may be 0
higher i.e. reverse of a previous argument.
Award up to 4 marks for logical reasons why it should
not, which may include: Tax revenue may increase because of a different 1
• increases in the rate of interest (1) contractionary reason i.e. not the reverse of a previous argument
monetary policy (1) can reduce consumer e.g. government spending on subsidies may
expenditure / can reduce investment (1) can stimulate the economy more than spending on
reduce total demand (1) education.
2(a) Identify two reasons why people become 2 If more than two reasons given, consider the first three.
entrepreneurs.
2(b) Explain two benefits an MNC can bring its host 4 One mark each for each of two benefits identified and one mark
country. each for each of two explanations.
Logical explanation which might include: If more than two benefits given, consider the first three.
Increase employment (1) raise living standards /
increase income / higher wages / reduce poverty (1).
Increase skills (1) provide training to workers (1).
Increase exports / reduce imports (1) improve the
current account of the balance of payments (1).
Increase GDP / output (1) raise economic growth (1).
Increase competition (1) raise efficiency / reduce
prices (1).
Bring in new technology (1) raise quality / raise
productive capacity / productivity / reduce costs of
production (1).
Increase the range of goods and services available in
the country (1) raise living standards (1).
Increase tax revenue (1) enable the government to
spend more (1).
Increase infrastructure (1) an MNC may build e.g.
roads / reduce e.g. transport costs (1).
2(c) Analyse how a government could encourage the 6 Note: reference to measures to reduce consumption of demerit
consumption of merit goods. goods can only be rewarded if clearly linked to switching to
alternative merit goods.
Coherent analysis which might include:
3(b) Explain two advantages of capital-intensive 4 One mark each for each of two advantages identified and one
production. mark each for each of two explanations.
Logical explanation which might include: If more than two advantages are given, consider the first three.
Lower costs of production (1) can produce on a large
scale / may result in lower prices / higher profits (1).
Raise productivity / efficiency (1) higher output / can Accepting lower costs of production as overall lower costs.
produce faster (1). Nothing for lower labour costs.
Quality may increase / consistency of quality may be
greater (1) may increase demand (1).
Absence of human error (1) less wastage (1).
Capital goods can work long hours (1) need few
breaks / no need for holidays (1).
Capital goods will not take industrial action (1) will not
disrupt production (1).
Can eliminate boring / repetitive / physically
demanding tasks (1) increase workers’ job satisfaction
(1).
4(a) Identify two causes of an increase in labour 2 Nothing for more motivated – TV.
productivity.
Two from:
• improved education
• improved training / higher skills
• improved healthcare
• higher pay / bonuses / lower income tax
• better quality capital equipment / advances in
technology
• shorter working hours / longer holidays
• better working conditions / better (fringe) benefits
• increased experience
• higher unemployment
• specialisation
4(b) Explain two reasons why someone may choose to 4 One mark each for each of two reasons identified and one mark
become a doctor. each for each of two explanations.
Logical explanation which might include: If more than two reasons given, consider the first three.
High pay (1) resulting in high living standards / caused
by low supply / high demand / high number of job
vacancies / strong bargaining power / high
qualifications / high skills (1).
Vocation (1) wanting to help people (1).
Interest / job satisfaction (1) enjoying the challenges
involved (1).
Status (1) doctors are highly regarded (1).
Family tradition (1) parents may have been doctors
(1).
High pensions (1) enabling high living standards
during retirement (1).
May be good working conditions (1) working inside
(1).
Job security (1) difficult to replace / essential service
(1).
(Fringe / non-wage) benefits (1) e.g. pension schemes
(1).
4(c) Analyse how advances in technology may 6 Reward but do not expect reference to gaining a comparative
improve the current account balance on a advantage.
country’s balance of payments.
5(a) Identify two determinants of price elasticity of 2 If more than two determinants given, consider the first three.
demand.
Two from:
• substitutes
• whether a luxury or necessity
• proportion of income taken
• whether habit forming / addictive
• whether the purchase can be postponed
• time period
• breadth of definition
• brand loyalty
• number of uses
• complements