[AITS-09 | Yakeen-NEET | 21-04-2024]

(PHYSICS)

SECTION-A 6. A ball is moving with a velocity of 4 m/s towards a

heavy wall moving towards the ball with a speed of
1. The change in internal energy ΔU of n moles of an
2 m/s as shown in figure. If the collision between
ideal gas for ΔT change in temperature expressed as:
the ball and the wall is elastic, then the speed
ΔU = nCVΔT. This relation is valid for which of the
velocity of ball immediately after the collision is;
following processes? (CV is the molar heat capacity
of the gas at constant volume)
(1) Isochoric process only
(2) Adiabatic process only
(3) Only isochoric and isothermal processes
(4) Any thermodynamic process

2. The ratio of kinetic energy of a molecule of nitrogen (1) 2 m/s

gas and argon at 27ׄ°C is; (2) 4 m/s
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 5 : 2 (3) 6 m/s
(3) 7 : 5 (4) 3 : 7 (4) 8 m/s

3. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit 7. A person moves due east at a speed 6 m/s and feels
is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, the wind is blowing towards south at a speed 6 m/s.
respectively: The actual velocity of wind blow is;
(1) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV (1) 6 m/s along north west east
(2) –3.4 eV, – 6.8 eV (2) 6 2 m/s along north east
(3) 3.4 eV, – 6.8 eV (3) 6 2 m/s along south east
(4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV (4) 6 m/s along south east

4. The correct Boolean operation represented by the 8. In case of circular motion with increasing speed, if
circuit diagram given below is; θ is the angle made by the velocity vector and the
net acceleration vector, then choose the correct
option.
(1) θ is always acute
(2) θ is always obtuse
(1) AND
(3) θ is always 0°
(2) OR
(4) θ is always 90°
(3) NAND
(4) NOR 9. A particle executes S.H.M. and starts from its mean
position. The particle covers a distance equal to
5. A string is wrapped around the rim of a wheel of
3
moment of inertia 0.40 kgm2 and radius 40 cm. The times of its amplitude in 1 s. The time period
2
wheel is free to rotate about its axis. Initially the
of motion is;
wheel is at rest. The string is now pulled by a force
(1) 2 s (2) 4 s
of 40 N. The angular velocity of the wheel after 4 s
(3) 6 s (4) 10 s
is;

10. A coil consists of 250 turns of wire with a total

resistance of 2.0 Ω. Each turn is a square of side 20 cm,
and a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular
to the plane of the coil is turned on. If the field
changes linearly from 0 to 0.5 T in 2 s, then the
magnitude of induced current in the coil while the
field is changing is;
(1) 100 rad/s (2) 120 rad/s
(1) 1.0 A (2) 1.25 A
(3) 140 rad/s (4) 160 rad/s
(3) 1.75 A (4) 2.0 A
11. Identify the correct relation (between amplitude A 17. The initial and final temperatures of water as
and wave number k) under which the maximum recorded by an observer are (42.4 ± 0.3)°C and
particle velocity is equal to three times that of (75.3 ± 0.2)°C respectively. The rise in temperature
the wave velocity corresponding to the equation: with proper error limits is;
y = Asin(ωt − kx). (1) (32.0 ± 0.2)°C (2) (33.0 ± 0.5)°C
(3) (32.9 ± 0.1)°C (4) (32.9 ± 0.5)°C
3 6
(1) A= (2) A=
k k
18. Assuming Earth to be a sphere of uniform mass
3 6
(3) A= (4) A= density, how much would a body weigh at a depth
k k R
from the centre of the Earth (R is the radius of
3
12. How much work will be done in increasing the the Earth), if it weighs 60 N on the surface?
diameter of a soap bubble from 2 cm to 4 cm? (1) 60 N (2) 40 N
(Surface tension of soap solution is 3.0 × 10−2 N /m) (3) 30 N (4) 20 N
(1) 12 × 10–6 J
(2) 48 × 10–6 J 19. Assertion (A): Magnetic field is produced only by
(3) 72 × 10–6 J moving charge, electric conduction current and a
magnet.
(4) 86 × 10–6 J
Reason (R): Source of electromagnetic wave is
moving charge.
13. A rectangular plate has a circular cavity as shown in
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
the figure. If we increase the temperature of the and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
entire plate, then which dimension will increase in Assertion (A).
following figure? (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

(1) p and q only 20. The separation between the plates of a charged
(2) p and r only parallel- plate capacitor is increased. The force
(3) q and r only between the plates;
(4) p, q and r (1) increases
(2) decreases
14. A body of mass 10 kg is attached to a 60 cm long (3) remains the same
wire whose breaking stress is 9.6 × 107 N/m2. The (4) first increases then decreases
area of cross section of the wire is 10−6 m2. What is
21. A particle starts oscillating simple harmonically
the maximum angular velocity with which it can be
from its equilibrium position with time period T.
rotated in a horizontal circle?
The ratio of K.E. and P.E. of the particle at time
(1) 2 rad/s (2) 4 rad/s
T
(3) 5 rad/s (4) 6 rad/s t = s is;
6
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
15. The thermal conductivity of brick is 1.5 Wm−1K−1,
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
and that of cement is 3.0 Wm−1K−1. Assuming the
area to be the same, what thickness of cement will 22. An arc subtending an angle of 60° at a point O has
have the same insulation as the brick with a a linear charge density of 1.8 nC/m and radius as
thickness of 15 cm? 2 m. What is the magnitude of electric field due to
(1) 7.5 m (2) 15 cm the arc at point O?
(3) 30 cm (4) 45 cm

16. The moment of inertia of a sphere about its

diametric axis is 30 kgm2. The moment of inertia of
the same sphere about any tangent is;
(1) 30 kgm2 (2) 60 kgm2
(1) 1.8 N/C (2) 6.8 N/C
(3) 95 kgm2 (4) 105 kgm2
(3) 8.1 N/C (4) 12.9 N/C
23. A circuit consisting of an inductor and a resistor is 27. A convex lens with a refractive index of 1.5 is first
joined to a 100 V AC supply. The current drawn by placed in air and then placed in a liquid of refractive
the circuit is 20 A. If the power used in the circuit is index 1.2. What will be the nature of the lens in the
1000 W, then the wattless current is; liquid and in air respectively?
(1) 20 3 A (2) 20 A (1) Convergent and divergent
(3) 10 A (4) 10 3 A (2) Divergent and convergent
(3) Convergent in both the cases
24. Three bulbs A, B and C of power ratings (4) Divergent in both the cases
150 W, 220 V; 170 W, 220 V and 120 W, 220 V
respectively are connected as shown. If all the bulbs 28. The magnetic field at the centre of current carrying
are operating at 220 V, then which of the following circular arc of radius 2 m as shown in figure is;
is the correct order for brightness of the bulbs A, B
and C?


(1) 10−7 T (2)   10−7 T
4
 
(3) 10−7 T (4) 10−7 T
2 8

29. A particle moves in a circle of radius 0.2 m at a

(1) Brightness of bulb A > Brightness of bulb B
speed that uniformly increases. What is the angular
> Brightness of bulb C
acceleration of particle if its speed changes from
(2) Brightness of bulb B > Brightness of bulb A
4.0 m/s to 6.0 m/s in 4.0 s?
> Brightness of bulb C
(3) Brightness of bulb C > Brightness of bulb B (1) 0.5 rad/s2
> Brightness of bulb A (2) 1.0 rad/s2
(4) Brightness of bulb B > Brightness of bulb C (3) 1.5 rad/s2
> Brightness of bulb A (4) 2.5 rad/s2

25. A bar magnet of length l and magnetic moment M is 30. A ray of white light is incident on a concave mirror
bent in the form of a circular arc of radius r as shown of focal length f. If the entire setup is immersed in a
in the figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will liquid of refractive index μ, then identify the correct
be; relation between fR and fV (where fR is the focal
length of the mirror for red light and fV is the focal
length for violet light).
(1) fR < fV
(2) fR > fV
(3) fR = fV
(4) Either 1 or 2 depending on 

31. S1 and S2 are two concentric shells enclosing charges

2Q and 4Q respectively as shown in figure. What is
2M 2M
(1) (2) the ratio of the electric flux through S1 and S2?
 3
3M 3M
(3) (4)
 2

26. A body of mass 12 kg is at rest. If a force of 6 N is

applied on it, then the work done in the first second
is;
(1) 0.5 J (2) 1.5 J (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1.9 J (4) 2.0 J (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
32. The figure shows a diode connected to an external 37. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number
resistance and a cell. If the barrier potential curve for two nuclei W and X is shown in figure.
developed in diode is 0.5 V, then the value of Identify the correct option for the process: W → 2X.
current in the circuit in milliampere is;

(1) 0 (2) 30
(3) 40 (4) 50
(1) 100 MeV of energy is released
33. If the critical angle for a certain medium and (2) 100 MeV of energy is absorbed
vacuum is 45°, then the velocity of light in the (3) 120 MeV of energy is released
medium is; (4) 120 MeV of energy is absorbed
(1) 2  108 m/s
(2) 1.5 2  108 m/s 38. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two particles
of masses m1 and m2 having non-zero velocities. The
(3) 3 2  108 m/s
ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particles
(4) 0.5 2  108 m/s
λ1 : λ2 is;

34. A sample of gas with a volume of 600 cc at a (1) m1 (2) m2

m2 m1
pressure of 3 atm is compressed to a volume of
400 cc. What is the final pressure if the temperature m1
(3) 1 (4)
is kept constant? m2
(1) 2 atm
(2) 2.5 atm 39. Three blocks are connected by strings as shown in
(3) 3 atm the figure and are pulled by a force T3 = 150 N. If m1
(4) 4.5 atm = 2 kg, m2 = 10 kg and m3 = 18 kg, the ratio of
tensions T1 and T2 is;
35. In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in
vacuum, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a
frequency of 2.5 × 1010 Hz and an amplitude of 57
V/m. What is the amplitude of the oscillating (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
magnetic field? (3) 1 : 6 (4) 6 : 1
(1) 1.9 × 10–6 T
(2) 1.9 × 10–7 T 40. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-
(3) 2.9 × 10–7 T section area of 4 cm2, one end of which has 50 fine
(4) 2.9 × 10–6 T holes each of area 10−8 m2. If the liquid flows inside
the tube with a speed of 0.15 m/min, then the speed
SECTION-B with which the liquid is ejected through the holes is;
(1) 0.5 m/s
36. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin Cu (2) 1 m/s
wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area 20 cm2 and (3) 1.5 m/s
length 40 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 turns (4) 2 m/s
and the other 400 turns, their mutual inductance is;
(1) 2.4 × 10–5 H 41. The electric force on a charge q1 due to q2 is
(2) 4.8 × 10–4 H
(3) 4.8 × 10–5 H
(6iˆ − 2 ˆj) N. What is the force on q2 due to q1?
(4) 2.4 × 10–4 H (1) (6iˆ − 2 ˆj) N (2) (6iˆ − 6 ˆj) N

(3) (−6iˆ + 2 ˆj) N (4) (−2iˆ + 6 ˆj) N

42. A charge q is uniformly distributed on a non- 46. Consider the following situation and identify the
conducting disc of radius R. It is rotated with an correct option.
angular speed ω about an axis passing through the Kinetic energy of a particle on the surface of earth
centre of mass of the disc and perpendicular to its is E0 and the potential energy is −2E0.
plane. The magnetic moment of the disc is; Statement I: The particle will escape to infinity.
Statement II: The value of potential energy where
(2) qR 
qR 2 2
(1) speed of the particle becomes zero is −E0.
2 2 (1) Both statement I and II are correct.
qR2
(4) qR 
2
(3) (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
4 2 (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
43. An object is in equilibrium acted upon by four (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
concurrent forces in the directions shown in figure. correct.
The ratio of magnitudes of forces F1 and F2 is; 47. Two wires are made of the same material. The
length and diameter of the first wire are both one
third of those of the second wire. If equal loads are
applied on both the wires, then the ratio of increase
in their lengths is;
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 9 : 1
(3) 27 : 1 (4) 81 : 1

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 48. Two particles are moving along x-axis. Their
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 5 : 1 position versus time graph is as shown below.

44. A smooth narrow tube in the form of an arc AB of a

circle of centre O and radius r is fixed so that A is
vertically above O and OB is horizontal as shown in
figure. Particles P of mass m and Q of mass 2m, with
r
a light inextensible string of length   What is the magnitude of the velocity of A with
 2  respect to B?
connecting them, are placed inside the tube with P (1) –2.4 m/s (2) –2 m/s
at A and Q at B and released from rest. Assuming (3) 2 m/s (4) 2.5 m/s
the string remains taut during motion, what is the
speed of particles when P reaches B? 49. Two particles, one of mass 2 kg and the other of
4 kg are projected simultaneously with the same
speed from the roof of a tower, the one of mass 2 kg
vertically upwards and the other vertically
downwards. What is the acceleration of centre of
mass of these two particles? (g is the acceleration
due to gravity)
2 2 g
(1) (1 + ) gr (2) (1 − ) gr (1) g (2)
3 3 3
1 1 g
(3) (1 + ) gr (4) (1 − ) gr (3) (4) zero
2 2 4

50. In the circuit shown in figure, the current through

45. The path difference between two interfering waves
1 Ω and 2 Ω resistor is respectively;
at a point on screen is 171.5 times the wavelength.
If the path difference is 0.01029 cm, then nature of
the fringe and the wavelength of light used are
respectively;
(1) Dark fringe and 5000 Å
(2) Bright fringe and 5000 Å
(1) 3 A from B to C and 7.5 A from A to D
(3) Bright fringe and 6000 Å (2) 3 A from C to B and 7.5 A from D to A
(4) Dark fringe and 6000 Å (3) 7.5 A from C to B and 3 A from D to A
(4) 7.5 A from B to A and 3 A from D to C
 [AITS-09 | Yakeen-NEET | 21-04-2024]

(CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 55. Find the total number of alcohol group present in
glucose which reacts with acetic anhydride for
51. Which of the following is a correct structure of
acetylation;
4,4-Dimethylpent-2-yne? (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 2
(1)
56. MgCO3(s)  MgO(s) + CO2(g)
Which of the following relation is correct, for the
given reaction?
(2) (1) Kp < KC (2) KC < Kp
(3) Kp = KC (4) None of these

57. Match List I with List II and choose the correct

(3) option.
List I List II
(Species) (Oxidation state of
central atom)
(4) (A) IF5 (I) +6
(B) CO2 (II) –2
(C) S2– (III) +4
52. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing (D) H2S2O8 (IV) +5
order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition; (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(I) HCHO (II) CH3CHO (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(III) C6H5COC6H5 (IV) C6H5CHO (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(V) CH3COCH3
(1) II > I > IV > III > V
58. Find the G0 for the given reaction;
(2) I > II > IV > V > III
Cu2+ + Fe → Fe2+ + Cu
(3) I > II > IV > III > V
E0Cu2+ /Cu = 0.30 V, E0Fe2+ /Fe = 0.40 V
(4) I > II > III > IV > V  
(1) 19.0 kJ (2) 19.3 kJ
53. Match List I with List II and choose the correct (3) 18.5 kJ (4) 16.5 kJ
option.
59. Which of the following series of compounds have
List I List II
same mass percent of carbon?
(Species) (Type of bonds)
(1) CO2, CO
(A) (SiH3)3N (I) 3-centre-2- (2) CH4, C6H6, C2H2
electron bond (3) C2H2, C6H6, C10H8
(B) BF3 (II) sp3-hybridisation (4) HCHO, CH3COOH, C6H12O6
(C) SiO2 (III) p- p bond
(D) B2H6 (IV) p- d bond 60. What is the major product (A) in the following
reaction?
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

54. Which of the following compound cannot give a (1) (2)

test for nitrogen by Lassaigne’s extract?
(1) Aniline
(2) Hydroxylamine
(3) Glycine
(4) Urea (3) (4) None of these
61. Assertion (A): Acid catalysed inversion of cane 66. Which of the following compound show optical
sugar is an example of pseudo first order reaction. activity?
Reason (R): For a first order reaction, t0.75 = 2t0.50 (1) Neopentane (2) 2-Methylhexane
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (3) 3-Methylhexane (4) Isopentane
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A). 67. Assertion (A): When aniline reacts with CHCl3/KOH
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, in the presence of heat, phenyl isocyanide form.
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Reason (R): In the above reaction, the
Assertion (A). intermediate is carbene.
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
62. Which of the following compound undergoes (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
fastest SN2 reaction? but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(1) (2) (4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

68. For the reaction:

(3) (4)
NH4COONH2(s)  2NH3(g) + CO2(g),
The expression of Kp is;
63. (2) PNH3  PCO2
2 2
For the unpaired electron of chlorine, the value of (1) PNH3
four quantum numbers are; 2
PNH  PCO2 PCO2
n l m s (3) 3
(4)
1 PNH4 COONH2 PNH4 COONH2
(1) 3 2 0 +
2
(2) 3 1 +1 + 1 69. Find the ratio of the total number of homocyclic
2 and total number of heterocyclic compounds which
(3) 3 1 +1 0 are given below.
(4) 3 0 –1 + 1
2

64. Statement I: N3– has bigger size as compared to its 3 5

parent atom. (1) (2)
4 2
Statement II: Al3+ has smaller size as compared to
3 4
its parent atom. (3) (4)
2 3
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I and Statement II both are
70. In a chemical reaction, the value of enthalpy
incorrect.
change and entropy change (–2 × 10–3) cal and
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
7 cal/K respectively. What is the nature of reaction
incorrect.
at 25°C?
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(1) Spontaneous
correct.
(2) Non-spontaneous
(3) Reversible
65. The tautomer of (I) is;
(4) Irreversible

71. What is the solvent in the amalgam of mercury

with sodium?
(1) Amalgam
(2) Mercury
(1) Only II (2) Only III
(3) Sodium
(3) Both II and III (4) None of these
(4) None of these
72. Assertion (A): The IUPAC name of neopentane is 76. Assume that 10–17J of light energy is needed by the
2-Methylbutane. interior of the human eye to see an object. How
Reason (R): The IUPAC name of the given many photons of green light ( = 495 nm) are
compound is 3,4-Dimethylhexane. needed to generate this minimum energy;
(1) 25
(2) 20
(3) 23
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (4) 19
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A). 77. Statement I: The law of conservation of mass is
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, valid for nuclear reaction.
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Statement II: As per law of conservation of mass
Assertion (A). in chemical reaction, the total mass of reactants
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. and products remain same.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I and Statement II both are
73. Which of the following conformation is most
incorrect.
stable?
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(1) (2) (4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.

78. The common ion effect is shown by which of the

following sets of solutions;
(3) (4)
(1) BaCl2 + Ba(NO3)2
(2) NaCl + HCl
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(4) None of these
74. Assertion (A): On oxidation, secondary alcohol
can be converted into aldehyde.
79. Which of the following transition metal have
Reason (R): For the oxidation of 1° or 2° alcohol
there must be C–H bond present on the same lowest first ionisation enthalpy?
carbon where alcohol located. (1) Cr
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (2) Cu
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (3) Co
Assertion (A). (4) Fe
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of 80. The reducing character of hydrides of group 14
Assertion (A). elements is;
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. (1) Maximum for CH4 and minimum for PbH4
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. (2) Maximum for CH4 and minimum for SnH4
(3) Maximum for PbH4 and minimum for SiH4
75. Covalent radius of an element (A) is 100 pm. What
(4) Maximum for PbH4 and minimum for CH4
is the best representation of A2 molecule?
81. What is the change in internal energy when gas
(1) (2)
contracts from 377 mL to 177 mL under a constant
pressure of 1520 torr, while at the same time being
cooled by removing 124 J heat?
(1) 40.52 J
(3) (4)
(2) –83.48 J
(3) –248 J
(4) None of these
82. When Me2SiCl2 reacts with water (hydrolysis), the 88. Which of the following molecule contain one
product forms; p – p and two p – d bonds?
(1) Me2SiClOH (1) SO2
(2) Me2Si = O (2) CO2
(3) Me2Si(OH)2 (3) SO3
(4) [–O–Me2Si–O–]n (4) N2

83. The total number of bond pairs and lone pairs 89. Assertion (A): The decomposition of KClO3 to
present in BrF2+ is; KCl and O2 on heating, is an example of
(1) 2 (2) 5 intramolecular redox change.
(3) 4 (4) 3 Reason (R): In the above reaction, oxidation and
reduction occurring in one compound.
84. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(1) In K3[Fe(CN)6], the ligand has satisfied only and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
the secondary valency of ferric ion . Assertion (A).
(2) In K3[Fe(CN)6], the ligand satisfied both (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
primary and secondary valancies of ferric ion.
Assertion (A).
(3) In K4[Fe(CN)6], the ligand satisfied both
(3) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
primary and secondary ferrous ion.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
(4) All of these
90. A graph is plotted between log t50% vs log
85. Which of the following reagent is suitable for
concentration is a straight line. What conclusion can
following conversion?
you draw from the given graph;
1
(1) n = 1, t 50% =
k.a
1
(2) n = 2, t 50% =
(1) OsO4, NaHSO3 (2) H2SO4, water a
0.693
(3) HgSO4 (4) HgSO4/H2SO4 (3) n = 1, t 50% =
k
0.693
(4) n = 2, t 50% =
SECTION-B k
86. A current of 2.6 ampere passed through CuSO4
solution for 6 minutes 20 second. The amount of 91. Which of the following compound will be suitable
Cu deposited is; for Kjeldahl’s method for nitrogen estimation?
(1) 0.325 gm (2) 3.25 gm
(1)
(3) 32.5 gm (4) 0.0325 gm

87. What is the major product (A) in the following

(2)
reaction?

(A) (3)

(4)
(1) (2)

92. Which of the following compound has square

planar geometry?
(3) (4) None of these
(1) XeO4 (2) XeF4
(3) XeO2F2 (4) XeO3F2
93. Scurvy is a disease caused by; 98. What is the major product (A) in the given
(1) Virus reaction?
(2) Deficiency of vitamin (E)
(3) Deficiency of vitamin (D)
(4) Deficiency of ascorbic acid

94. In the given compounds, what is the oxidation state

of central metal ion respectively;
[Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ and [Fe(CN)5NO]2–
(1) +1 and +2
(2) +1 and +1
(3) +2 and +2 (1) (2)
(4) +2 and +1

95. Which of the following is a colligative property?

(1) Boiling point
(2) Vapour pressure
(3) Osmotic pressure
(3) (4)
(4) None of these

96.

99. Which of the following is extensive property?

The major product (A) in the following reaction is; (1) Pressure
(2) Density
(3) Volume
(4) Temperature
(1) (2)

100. The structure of 1-Cyclohexyl-3-methylpent-1-ene

is;

(3) (4)

(1)

97. Statement I: Zn, Cd and Hg do not show the

properties of d-block elements.
Statement II: Zn2+ is diamagnetic in nature. (2)
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect. (3)
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct. (4)
 [AITS-09 | Yakeen-NEET | 21-04-2024]

(BOTANY)
SECTION-A (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
101. _____ is the process by which anything is grouped
Assertion (A).
into convenient categories based on some easily
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
observable characters.
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(1) Classification (2) Identification
Assertion (A).
(3) Characterisation (4) Nomenclature
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
102. R. H. Whittaker used all the following criteria for (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
classification of organisms, except;
(1) cell structure. 107. Read the following statements and identify the
(2) mode of nutrition. correct phase of mitosis.
(3) presence of cell membrane. A. Centromeres split and chromatids separate.
(4) phylogenetic relationships. B. Chromatids move to opposite poles.
C. The centromere of each chromosome remains
103. Identify the correct statement w.r.t reproduction in directed towards the pole and the arms of the
algae. chromosome trailing behind.
(1) Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size is (1) Prophase
observed in case of Spirogyra. (2) Metaphase
(2) Fusion of flagellated gametes similar in size (3) Anaphase
takes place in Eudorina. (4) Telophase
(3) Fusion between one large, nonmotile (static)
female gamete and a smaller, motile male 108. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t early
gamete is termed anisogamy. experiments related to photosynthesis.
(4) Fusion of non-flagellated gametes similar in (1) Priestley observed that a candle burning in a
size is called isogamy. closed space - a bell jar, soon gets
extinguished.
104. Read the following statements and choose the (2) Cladophora was placed in a suspension of
correct option. aerobic bacteria to detect the sites of CO2
A. In symmetry, the flower may be actinomorphic evolution.
(bilateral symmetry) or zygomorphic (radial (3) In green plants H2O is the hydrogen donor and
symmetry). is oxidised to O2.
B. Cassia shows zygomorphic symmetry. (4) Cornelius van Niel based on his studies of
C. A flower is asymmetric (irregular) if it cannot purple and green bacteria, demonstrated that
be divided into two similar halves by any photosynthesis is essentially a light-dependent
vertical plane passing through the centre. reaction in which hydrogen from a suitable
D. Mustard shows actinomorphic symmetry. oxidisable compound reduces carbon dioxide
(1) A and B are incorrect to carbohydrates.
(2) B, C and D are correct
(3) A and C are correct 109. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
(4) A, B and D are incorrect option w.r.t ETS in mitochondrial membrane.
List-I List-II
105. Identify the incorrectly matched pair. (I) NADH → FMN (A) Complex V
(1) Open vascular system – Dicot roots and stem
(II) Cyt b → Fe-S → (B) NADH
(2) Endarch protoxylem – Dicot stem
Cyt c1 dehydrogenase
(3) Conjoint protoxylem – Stem
(4) Radial vascular bundle – Leaves (III) Cyt a → Cyt a3 (C) Complex III
(IV) ATP synthase (D) Cytochrome c
106. Assertion (A): Mitochondria, chloroplast and oxidase
peroxisomes are not considered as part of the I II III IV
endomembrane system. (1) B D C A
Reason (R): The functions of the mitochondria, (2) B C D A
chloroplast and peroxisomes are not coordinated (3) B A C D
with endoplasmic reticulum (ER), golgi complex, (4) B D A C
lysosomes and vacuoles.
110. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct 115. Assertion (A): Dead plant remains such as leaves,
option w.r.t plant growth regulators. bark, flowers and dead remains of animals,
List-I List-II including fecal matter, constitute detritus.
(I) Dormin (A) Volatile substance Reason (R): Detritus is the raw material for
(II) Kinetin (B) General plant growth decomposition.
inhibitor (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(III) Ethylene (C) Cytokinesis promoting and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
active substance Assertion (A).
(IV) Gibberellic (D) Causes ‘bakanae’ (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
acid disease of rice but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
seedlings Assertion (A).
I II III IV (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(1) C A D B (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(2) B D C A
(3) B C A D 116. Secondary carnivores feed on;
(4) C B D A (1) plants.
(2) plant eating animals.
111. Pollen-pistil interaction involves all the following (3) animals that eat plant eating animals.
events, except; (4) both plants and plant eating animals.
(1) landing of pollen grains.
(2) pollen tube formation. 117. Among the following, _____ appear to be more
(3) pollen inhibition. vulnerable to extinction.
(4) fertilisation. (1) amphibians
(2) fishes
112. Statement I: Mendel crossed the tall plant from F2 (3) reptiles
with a dwarf plant to determine the genotype of the (4) birds
short plants.
Statement II: In a typical test cross, an organism 118. Statement I: The size of the vascular bundles are
showing a dominant phenotype (and whose dependent on the size of the veins in dicot leaves.
genotype is to be determined) is crossed with the Statement II: The veins vary in thickness in the
recessive parent instead of self-crossing. parallel venation of the monocot leaves.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect. incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.

113. Identify the nitrogenous base which is not required 119. Assertion (A): Schleiden and Schwann together
for the synthesis of DNA. formulated the cell theory.
(1) Cytosine Reason (R): Schleiden and Schwann’s cell theory
(2) Uracil did not explain as to how new cells were formed.
(3) Thymine (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(4) Adenine and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
114. Streptokinase is a bioactive molecule produced by; (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(1) Trichoderma. but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(2) Streptococcus. Assertion (A).
(3) Clostridium. (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Monascus. (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
120. Identify the incorrect statement. 126. Francis Crick proposed the Central dogma in
(1) The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the molecular biology, which states that the genetic
dissolution of the synaptonemal complex. information flows from;
(2) Recombined homologous chromosomes of the (1) DNA → RNA → Protein.
bivalents separate from each other except at the (2) RNA → DNA → Protein.
sites of crossovers during diplotene stage. (3) DNA → Protein → RNA.
(3) Site of crossover forms a structure called (4) Protein → DNA → RNA.
chiasmata.
(4) In oocytes of some invertebrates, diplotene can
127. Use of biological control agent for agricultural pest
last for months or years.
control is an example of;
(1) mutualism.
121. Photosystem I (PS I) and Photosystem II (PS II) are
(2) competition.
named in the sequence;
(3) predation.
(1) of their discovery.
(4) parasitism.
(2) in which they function during the light
reaction.
(3) in which they absorb light. 128. Read the following statements and identify them as
(4) in which they function during the dark reaction. true (T) or false (F).
A. Nerve cells are some of the longest cells.
122. During the conversion of _____ to _____ a B. Among multicellular organisms, human red
molecule of GTP is synthesised. blood cells are about 0.7 µm in diameter.
(1) succinyl-CoA; succinic acid C. Mycoplasma is the smallest cell.
(2) succinic acid; succinyl-CoA I II III
(3) succinyl-CoA; malic acid (1) T F T
(4) malic acid; succinyl-CoA (2) F T F
(3) T T F
123. All of the following are the extrinsic factors affecting (4) F F T
growth and differentiation of plants, except;
(1) light. (2) genetic. 129. Identify the mismatched pair.
(3) nutrition. (4) water. (1) PS I - Absorption maxima of 700 nm
(2) PS II - Linked with photolysis of water
124. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct (3) PS I - Present in stroma lamellae only
option. (4) PS II - Present in lamellae of the grana only
List-I List-II
(Part of gynoecium) (Post-fertilisation structure) 130. Statement I: In both lactic acid and alcohol
(I) PEN (A) Embryo fermentation, more than seven per cent of the energy
(II) Zygote (B) Endosperm in glucose is released.
(III) Ovule (C) Fruit Statement II: All of the energy released from
(IV) Ovary (D) Seed glucose is trapped as high energy bonds of ATP in
I II III IV lactic acid and alcohol fermentation.
(1) B A D C (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) A C B D (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) A B D C
incorrect.
(4) B A C D
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
125. Identify the incorrectly matched pair.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(1) Incomplete Inheritance of flower
dominance colour in snapdragon
131. Identify the characteristic that is seen in wind
flower
pollinated flowers.
(2) Co-dominance Inheritance of flower
colour in dogflower (1) Light pollen grain
(3) Complete dominance Height of pea plant (2) Sticky pollen grain
(3) Stamen within cleistogamous flower
(4) Multiple allelism ABO Blood group
system (4) Small feathery stigma
132. What is the percentage of wrinkled green pea seeds 138. Hypodermis is the outer layer of cortex in monocot
obtained in F2 generation of Mendel’s dihybrid stem that consist of;
cross experiment? (1) living tissue.
(1) 56.25% (2) dead tissue.
(2) 43.75% (3) collenchymatous tissue.
(3) 18.75% (4) parenchymatous tissue.
(4) 6.25%
139. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
133. The _____ charged DNA is wrapped around the option.
_____ charged histone octamer to form a structure List-I List-II
called nucleosome. (I) Golgi (A) Pigment bearing
(1) negatively; negatively apparatus organelles in plants
(2) positively; positively (II) Lysosomes (B) Rich in hydrolytic
(3) positively; negatively enzymes
(4) negatively; positively (III) Mitochondria (C) Concentrically
arranged near the
134. Identify the pair of dominant wild type traits of nucleus
Drosophila melanogaster. (IV) Plastids (D) Inner membrane forms
(1) Yellow-body, white-eye a number of infoldings
(2) Brown-body, red-eye I II III IV
(3) Yellow-body, red-eye (1) A B D C
(4) Brown-body, white-eye (2) C D B A
(3) C B D A
135. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t Frederick (4) A C B D
Griffith’s transforming principle experiment.
140. Cell plate formation takes place during;
(1) The S strain bacteria have a mucous
(1) cytokinesis in plants.
(polysaccharide) coat.
(2) cytokinesis in animals.
(2) Mice infected with the S strain die from
(3) karyokinesis in plants.
pneumonia infection.
(4) karyokinesis in animals.
(3) Mice infected with the R strain do not develop
pneumonia.
141. Identify the true statement w.r.t chemiosmotic
(4) Mice infected with the heat killed S strain die
hypothesis during photosynthesis.
from pneumonia infection. (1) Within the chloroplast, protons in the stroma
increase in number, while in the lumen there is
SECTION-B decrease in the number of protons.
136. Certain marine ____ algae produce large amounts of (2) The pH of the lumen increases.
hydrocolloid called carrageen. (3) The ATP synthase enzyme consists of two
(1) brown (2) red parts, CF0 and CF1.
(3) green (4) blue-green (4) CF1 is embedded in the thylakoid membrane
and forms a transmembrane channel that
137. Assertion (A): In alternate type of phyllotaxy, a carries out facilitated diffusion of protons
single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner. across the membrane.
Reason (R): Calotropis and guava plants show
alternate phyllotaxy. 142. Statement I: Animals obtain food from plants
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true indirectly (herbivores) or directly (carnivores).
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Statement II: Saprophytes like fungi are dependent
on dead and decaying matter.
Assertion (A).
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
incorrect.
Assertion (A).
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
correct.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
143. _____ promote(s) nutrient mobilisation which helps 147. Statement I: During growth in milk, the LAB
in the delay of leaf senescence. produce acids that coagulate and partially digest the
(1) Auxins milk proteins.
(2) Gibberellins Statement II: LAB improves nutritional quality
(3) Cytokinins of milk converted into curd by increasing vitamin
(4) Ethylene B5.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
144. Assertion (A): Geitonogamy is functionally cross (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
pollination. incorrect.
Reason (R): Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
grains from the anther to the stigma of another correct.
flower of the same plant. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of 148. The value of intrinsic rate of natural increase for
Assertion (A). flour beetle is;
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (1) 0.015.
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of (2) 0.12.
Assertion (A). (3) 0.0205.
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (4) 0.65.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
149. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
145. Consider the following characters and identify the option.
disease. List-I List-II
A. It is a Mendelian disorder. (I) Pyramid of (A) Usually upright
B. It is an autosome-linked recessive disease. biomass in sea
C. The defect could be due to either mutation or (II) Pyramid of energy (B) Always upright
deletion which ultimately results in reduced (III) Pyramids, of (C) Generally
rate of synthesis of one of the globin chains (α number, of energy inverted
and β chains) that make up haemoglobin. and biomass in
D. The formation of abnormal haemoglobin most ecosystems
molecules results into anaemia. I II III
(1) Haemophilia (1) C B A
(2) Sickle-cell anaemia (2) A B C
(3) Phenylketonuria (3) C A B
(4) Thalassemia (4) A C B

146. Identify the incorrect statement. 150. Identify the example of species diversity of living
(1) DNA ligase joins the fragments of new organisms.
fragments of DNA formed on the template (1) Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different
DNA with polarity 3’ → 5’. Himalayan ranges.
(2) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase uses DNA (2) Varieties of mango in India.
as template for replication. (3) Greater amphibian species growing in Western
(3) On the template DNA strand with polarity 3’ Ghats compared to Eastern Ghats.
→ 5’, the replication is continuous. (4) Greater ecosystem diversity in deserts compared
(4) Origin of replication is a specific region on to Scandinavian country like Norway.
DNA where replication originates.
 [AITS-09 | Yakeen-NEET | 21-04-2024]

(ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 159. Gene cloning means;
(1) creation of recombinant DNA.
151. How many of the organisms given below in the box
(2) making multiple identical copies of any
exhibit branchial respiration?
template DNA.
Snail, Shark, Whale, Katla, Prawn, Dolphin
(3) maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical
(1) 6 (2) 3
engineering processes.
(3) 4 (4) 5
(4) correcting a defective gene.
152. Saheli is a non-steroidal preparation, was developed at;
(1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research, New 160. If a human male ejaculates about 100 million
Delhi. sperms during a coitus. For normal fertility, how
(2) Central Drug Research Institute, Lucknow. many sperms must show vigorous motility?
(3) Indian Council of Medical Research, Pune. (1) 60 million (2) 74 million
(4) All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New (3) 24 million (4) 40 million
Delhi.
161. Assertion (A): A plant cell differs from an animal
153. Flagellar movement assists in all of the following, cell in possessing a cell wall outside the plasma
except; membrane.
(1) Swimming of spermatozoa in female genital Reason (R): A constituent of plant cell wall is
tract. homopolymer of glucose.
(2) Maintenance of water current in the canal (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
system of sponges. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(3) Locomotion of protozoans like Euglena. Assertion (A).
(4) Locomotion of Paramoecium. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
154. In mammals, which of the following is synthesized Assertion (A).
in liver and excreted by kidneys? (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(1) Ammonia (2) Urea (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
(3) Glycogen (4) Bile
162. The biological response modifiers used for cancer
155. All of the given are involved in coagulation of treatment include;
blood, except; (1) Vinblastine
(1) Thrombokinase (2) Calcium ions (2) α-interferons
(3) Thrombocytes (4) Globulins (3) Chemotherapeutic drugs
(4) Use of X-rays
156. How many segments comprises the abdomen in
both male and female cockroaches? 163. The squamous epithelium layer of alveolar wall is
(1) 11 (2) 12 ___________ layered thick in humans.
(3) 10 (4) 9
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) One (4) Four
157. Who made a sea voyage in a sail ship called HMS
Beagle round the world?
164. Genetic engineering has been used to create tailor-
(1) Alfred Wallace
made plants to supply alternative resources to
(2) Charles Darwin
industries in all the following form, except;
(3) Thomas Malthus
(1) Pharmaceuticals (2) Fuels
(4) Hugo de Vries
(3) Starches (4) Ceramics
158. Gland 'X' is located in between lungs behind
sternum on the 'Y' side of aorta. Select the correct 165. The exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of a
option for 'X' and 'Y' respectively. complex polysaccharide, which is a;
(1) Thymus and dorsal (1) heteropolymer.
(2) Thymus and ventral (2) homopolymer.
(3) Thyroid gland and ventral (3) storage polysaccharide in plants.
(4) Thyroid gland and dorsal (4) fructose derivative.
166. How many of the following animals given below in 173. Restriction endonuclease works by breaking the
the box show bilateral symmetry in their adult bond between;
stages? (1) Adenine and thymine.
Bombyx, Ophiura, Pristis, Echinus, Rana, Sepia (2) Purine and phosphate group of deoxyribose
(1) Six (2) Four nucleic acid.
(3) Two (4) Five (3) Deoxyribose-phosphate backbone of DNA at
specific points on each strand.
167. Which of the following represents the bulb-like (4) Deoxyribose and thymine.
structure present at the distal end of axon?
174. Read the following features w.r.t. their presence in
(1) Synaptic vesicle
Petromyzon and select the incorrect one.
(2) Dendrite
(1) Spawning in fresh water
(3) Nissl’s granule
(2) Cartilaginous vertebral column
(4) Synaptic knob
(3) Open circulatory system
(4) Sucking type of mouth parts
168. Which of the following is a popular contraceptive
brand not for use by females? 175. If gene migration happens multiple times then it is
(1) Implants named as;
(2) Saheli (1) gene pool.
(3) Nirodh (2) genetic recombination.
(4) Lippes loop (3) genetic drift.
(4) gene flow.
169. The number of wrist bones in a forelimb of an adult
man is equal to the number of; 176. The side effects of use of anabolic steroids in
(1) cranial bones. females include all of the following, except;
(2) thoracic vertebrae. (1) Increased aggressiveness
(3) sternum and palm bones. (2) Enlargement of clitoris
(4) ear ossicles and false ribs (3) Premature baldness
(4) Abnormal menstrual cycles
170. Select the correct feature for the formed element in
blood which plays a significant role in transport of 177. Read the following statements and choose the
respiratory gases. correct option w.r.t frog.
A. The cloaca is a small, median chamber that is
(1) Devoid of nucleus in mature form.
used to pass faecal matter, urine and sperms to
(2) Involved in inflammatory reactions.
the exterior.
(3) Contains yellow coloured pigment.
B. Male reproductive organs consist of a pair of
(4) Least abundant of all the cells in blood.
yellowish ovoid testes.
C. External ear is absent and only tympanum can
171. Select the correct option to complete the analogy. be seen externally.
Graafian follicle: Follicular phase :: Corpus luteum: (1) Only A (2) Only A and B
_______ (3) Only B and C (4) A, B and C
(1) Secretory phase
(2) Proliferative phase 178. Assertion (A): All vertebrates respires through
(3) Menstrual phase lungs.
(4) Bleeding phase Reason (R): Lungs are vascularised bag like
structure.
172. Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like _____ (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
and serotonin from ______ cells. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Choose the correct option that fill the blanks Assertion (A).
respectively. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(1) Anti-histamine and mast but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(2) Histamine and mast Assertion (A).
(3) Adrenaline and mast (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Cortisol and mast (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
179. Which of the given options gives one correct SECTION-B
example each of convergent evolution and
186. Choose the mismatched pair w.r.t. disease and its
divergent evolution?
symptoms.
Convergent Divergent evolution
(1) AIDS - Bouts of fever, diarrhoea and weight loss
evolution
(2) Ringworms - Appearance of dry, scaly lesions
(1) Vertebrate Hearts Wings of butterfly and
(3) Filariasis - Internal bleeding, anemia
of birds
(4) Amoebiasis - Abdominal pain and cramps
(2) Forelimbs of whale Vertebrate brains
and bat
(3) Flippers of penguins Thorns of Bougainvillea 187. Statement I: The excretory system consists of a
and dolphins and tendrils of Cucurbita pair of kidneys, ureters, cloaca and urinary bladder
(4) Darwin’s finches Sweet potato and potato in frog.
Statement II: Each kidney in frog is composed of
180. Assertion (A): Blood is a specialized connective tissue. several structural and functional units called
Reason (R): Nearly 55% of blood comprises uriniferous tubules or nephrons.
formed elements. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of incorrect.
Assertion (A). (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, correct.
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of (4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. 188. Select the odd one w.r.t the accepted grounds for MTP.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. (1) Continuation of pregnancy would involve a
risk to the life of the pregnant woman.
181. Which among the following primarily ensures that (2) Continuation of pregnancy would involve a
only one sperm fertilises the ovum? risk of grave physical injury.
(1) Vitelline membrane (3) There is substantial risk that if the child were
(2) Zona pellucida
born it would suffer from physical or mental
(3) Acrosome
abnormality.
(4) Perivitelline space
(4) Continuation of pregnancy would involve high
expenses on medical facilities.
182. Single axon is found in which type of neuron?
(1) Multipolar neuron
(2) Unipolar neuron 189. Select the incorrect match.
(3) Bipolar neuron (1) Rana – Moist skin and eyes have eye lids
(4) All of these (2) Devil Fish – Muscular foot and radula for rasping
(3) Star fish – Water vascular system and external
183. If 40 sperms are formed, then how many secondary fertilisation
spermatocytes have completed the meiosis? (4) Balanoglossus – Collar cells and a long trunk
(1) 10 (2) 20 with diploblastic body
(3) 30 (4) 40
190. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
184. Arrange the following events in correct order of option.
their evolutionary origin. List-I List-II
A. Jawless fish evolved. (A) Homo erectus (I) Buried their dead
B. Sea weeds evolved. (B) Neanderthal man (II) Large brain around
C. Origin of invertebrates. 900 cc
D. Appearance of Ichthyosaurs.
(C) Australopithecines (III) Arose during ice
(1) A → C → D → B
age
(2) D → A →B → C
(3) A → C → B → D (D) Homo sapiens (IV) Hunted with stone
(4) C → A → B → D weapons
A B C D
185. Which hormone directly affect transcription by (1) II I IV III
acting on gene? (2) II I III IV
(1) FSH (2) GH (3) IV III II I
(3) Estrogen (4) CCK (4) I IV III II
191. Assertion (A): Closed circulatory system is more 195. Assertion (A): NaCl is transported by the ascending
advantageous as compared to open circulatory limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the
system. descending limb of vasa recta.
Reason (R): In closed circulatory system, flow of Reason (R):NaCl is returned to the interstitium by
fluid can be more precisely regulated. the ascending portion of vasa recta.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A). Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A). Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.

192. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. proteins. 196. Assertion (A): Myasthenia gravis is an auto
(1) Trypsin is a nucleic acid which acts as an immune disorder.
enzyme. Reason (R): It will affect neuromuscular junction
(2) Insulin is a polysaccharide hormone. leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of
(3) GLUT-4 is a transporter which enables glucose skeletal muscle.
transport into cells. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(4) Collagen is intracellular ground substance. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
193. Given below are three statements (A-C) regarding
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
human circulatory system.
Assertion (A).
A. Blood consists of a fluid matrix, plasma and
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
formed elements.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
B. A special case of Rh incompatibility has been
observed between the Rh-ve blood of pregnant
197. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
mother with Rh+ve blood of the foetus.
option.
C. Each peak in the ECG is identified with a letter
List-I List-II
from P to T that corresponds to a specific
(A) Arachnoid (I) Outer layer
electrical activity of the heart.
(B) Dura mater (II) Inner layer
Select the option which includes only correct
(C) Pia mater (III) Middle layer
statement(s).
(1) A and B only A B C
(2) A, B and C (1) III II I
(3) A only (2) II III I
(4) B and C only (3) III I II
(4) I III II
194. Statement I: Coelenterates exchange O2 with CO2
by simple diffusion over their entire body surface. 198. Select the correct matching.
Statement II: Molluscs perform branchial (1) Insulin - Decreases the uptake of glucose
respiration. utilisation by hepatocyte and adipocytes
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct. (2) Cortisol - Decreases RBC production, causes
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. inflammation
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (3) Thymosin - Promotes the production of
incorrect. antibodies to provide humoral immunity
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (4) Thyroxine - No role in water and electrolyte
correct. balance.
199. Statement I: Biotechnology deals with small scale 200. For effective treatment of a disease;
production and marketing of products and (1) early diagnosis is needed but undertaking of its
processes using living organisms, cells only. pathophysiology is not required.
Statement II: Biotechnology using genetically (2) early diagnosis is not needed but understanding
modified organisms was made possible only when of its pathophysiology is required.
man learnt to alter the chemistry of DNA and (3) early diagnosis and understanding of its
construct recombinant DNA. pathophysiology are required.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct. (4) neither early diagnosis nor understanding of its
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. pathophysiology is required.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct.

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