Act as the assistant professor and make a Computer Base Test multiple choose questions on

below topics minimum 30 question from each unit and give answers for it and give the question
in excel format
UNIT-I Introduction to DevOps: Introduction, Agile development model, DevOps and ITIL.
DevOps process and Continuous Delivery, Release management, Scrum, Kanban, delivery
pipeline, identifying bottlenecks.
UNIT-II Software development models and DevOps: DevOps Lifecycle for Business Agility,
DevOps, and Continuous Testing. DevOps influence on Architecture: Introducing software
architecture, The monolithic scenario, Architecture rules of thumb, The separation of concerns,
Handling database migrations, Micro services and the data tier, DevOps, architecture, and
resilience.
UNIT-III Introduction to project management : The need for source code control, the history of
source code management, Roles and code, source code management system and migrations,
shared authentication, Hosted Git servers, Different Git server implementations, Docker
intermission, Gerrit, The pull request model, GitLab.
UNIT-IV Integrating the system: Build systems, Jenkins build server, managing build
dependencies, Jenkins plugins, and file system layout, The host server, Build slaves, Software on
the host, Triggers, Job chaining and build pipelines, Build servers and infrastructure as code,
Building by dependency order, Build phases, Alternative build servers, Collating quality
measures.
UNIT-V Testing Tools and Deployment: Various types of testing, Automation of testing Pros
and cons, Selenium - Introduction, Selenium features, JavaScript testing, Testing backend
integration points, Test-driven development, REPL-driven development. Deployment of the
system: Deployment systems, Virtualization stacks, code execution at the client, Puppet master
and agents, Ansible, Deployment tools: Chef, Salt Stack and Docker.
ChatGPT said:

ChatGPT

Sure! Below is a set of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for each unit, along with their
answers. I’ll format them for you in a way that you can easily copy into an Excel spreadsheet.

Unit I: Introduction to DevOps

1. What is the primary focus of DevOps?

A) Development
B) Operations
C) Collaboration
D) Testing
Answer: C
2. Which model emphasizes iterative development?
A) Waterfall
B) Agile
C) V-Model
D) Spiral
Answer: B
3. DevOps integrates which two practices?
A) Development and Testing
B) Development and Operations
C) Operations and Support
D) Testing and Support
Answer: B
4. What is Continuous Delivery primarily concerned with?
A) Automating testing
B) Automating deployment
C) Continuous integration
D) Continuous monitoring
Answer: B
5. Which framework uses time-boxed iterations?
A) Kanban
B) Scrum
C) Waterfall
D) V-Model
Answer: B
6. What does the delivery pipeline in DevOps signify?
A) Development stages
B) Deployment process
C) Testing phases
D) Project management
Answer: B
7. Which term refers to the obstacles in a process flow?
A) Constraints
B) Bottlenecks
C) Hurdles
D) Barriers
Answer: B
8. Which practice promotes collaboration?
A) CI/CD
B) Waterfall
C) Spiral
D) V-Model
Answer: A
9. What does ITIL stand for?
A) Information Technology Infrastructure Library
B) Information Technology Integrated Library
C) Information Technology Innovation Library
D) Information Technology Interactive Library
Answer: A
10. Which practice is essential for effective release management?
A) Continuous Integration
B) Documentation
C) Automated Testing
 D) All of the above
Answer: D
11. What is the role of Scrum Master?
A) Product owner
B) Team member
C) Facilitator
D) Tester
Answer: C
12. Which is a common tool used in DevOps?
A) Eclipse
B) Jenkins
C) Visual Studio
D) Notepad++
Answer: B
13. Which aspect does NOT directly relate to Continuous Delivery?
A) Code integration
B) Release planning
C) Manual testing
D) Deployment automation
Answer: C
14. In Agile development, what is a Sprint?
A) A long-term project phase
B) A short, time-boxed iteration
C) A testing phase
D) A planning phase
Answer: B
15. Kanban is best described as:
A) A Scrum framework
B) A visualization method for work
C) A software tool
D) A testing methodology
Answer: B
16. Which is NOT a key role in DevOps?
A) Developer
B) Operations
C) Marketing
D) Tester
Answer: C
17. The primary goal of the DevOps approach is to:
A) Increase deployment frequency
B) Decrease software costs
C) Isolate teams
D) Lengthen release cycles
Answer: A
18. What is meant by “infrastructure as code”?
A) Managing infrastructure manually
 B) Using code to manage infrastructure
C) Writing code for applications only
D) None of the above
Answer: B
19. Which is a benefit of DevOps?
A) Improved collaboration
B) Decreased delivery speed
C) Increased costs
D) More documentation
Answer: A
20. Which of the following tools is primarily used for continuous integration?
A) Docker
B) Jenkins
C) Git
D) Ansible
Answer: B
21. Release management in DevOps focuses on:
A) Documenting code
B) Coordinating releases
C) Bug fixing
D) User training
Answer: B
22. Which of the following is a metric for measuring DevOps success?
A) Code lines
B) Deployment frequency
C) Time spent in meetings
D) Number of team members
Answer: B
23. What does "shift left" refer to in DevOps?
A) Moving testing earlier in the development process
B) Delaying testing until the end
C) Reducing testing time
D) None of the above
Answer: A
24. Which of the following practices is vital for Continuous Testing?
A) Manual testing
B) Automated testing
C) User acceptance testing
D) Documentation review
Answer: B
25. In a Kanban system, what is the purpose of work-in-progress (WIP) limits?
A) To encourage multitasking
B) To prevent bottlenecks
C) To increase workload
D) To document processes
Answer: B
 26. DevOps is primarily concerned with improving which aspect of software development?
A) Security
B) Speed and quality
C) Documentation
D) Cost
Answer: B
27. What role does feedback play in the DevOps process?
A) It is unimportant
B) It is a way to blame team members
C) It drives continuous improvement
D) It complicates processes
Answer: C
28. What is the significance of Continuous Integration in DevOps?
A) Manual deployment
B) Frequent code changes
C) Isolated development
D) Extensive documentation
Answer: B
29. Which tool is widely used for version control in DevOps?
A) Subversion
B) Git
C) Mercurial
D) CVS
Answer: B
30. What does a "delivery pipeline" typically include?
A) Only testing stages
B) Development and deployment stages
C) Project management phases
D) All software artifacts
Answer: B

Unit II: Software Development Models and DevOps

1. What is the purpose of the DevOps lifecycle?

A) Increase complexity
B) Business agility
C) Focus on testing only
D) None of the above
Answer: B
2. How does DevOps influence software architecture?
A) Eliminates the need for architecture
B) Encourages monolithic structures
C) Promotes microservices
 D) None of the above
Answer: C
3. What is the "separation of concerns" in software architecture?
A) Combining all features in one module
B) Structuring code to enhance maintainability
C) Ignoring code quality
D) None of the above
Answer: B
4. In a monolithic scenario, what is a significant drawback?
A) Easy deployment
B) Scalability issues
C) High performance
D) Simple testing
Answer: B
5. What is a best practice for handling database migrations?
A) Manual updates
B) Version control for database scripts
C) Ignoring migrations
D) None of the above
Answer: B
6. Microservices architecture primarily aims to:
A) Reduce deployment frequency
B) Enhance scalability and flexibility
C) Increase interdependencies
D) None of the above
Answer: B
7. What is a common challenge with microservices?
A) Simplicity
B) Complexity in service management
C) Ease of deployment
D) None of the above
Answer: B
8. Continuous Testing is best defined as:
A) Testing after deployment
B) Frequent testing throughout the development process
C) No testing
D) Testing only at the end
Answer: B
9. What does the term "resilience" refer to in software architecture?
A) Ability to withstand failures
B) High cost
C) Complexity
D) None of the above
Answer: A
10. In the context of DevOps, what is a key advantage of using containers?
A) Increased resource usage
 B) Consistency across environments
C) Higher latency
D) None of the above
Answer: B
11. What is the primary goal of a DevOps team?
A) Isolate development and operations
B) Deliver software faster and more reliably
C) Increase documentation
D) None of the above
Answer: B
12. Which tool is commonly associated with microservices architecture?
A) Monolithic databases
B) Docker
C) Legacy systems
D) None of the above
Answer: B
13. What does "business agility" refer to?
A) Ability to change quickly in response to market demands
B) Slow decision-making processes
C) Rigid organizational structure
D) None of the above
Answer: A
14. Which practice helps improve DevOps architecture?
A) Continuous feedback
B) Ignoring user input
C) Rigid planning
D) None of the above
Answer: A
15. How does DevOps facilitate better software delivery?
A) By increasing wait times
B) By reducing collaboration
C) Through automation and continuous integration
D) None of the above
Answer: C
16. What is a drawback of tightly coupled systems?
A) Easier maintenance
B) Difficult to scale and update
C) High performance
D) None of the above
Answer: B
17. What type of testing is crucial in a DevOps environment?
A) Manual testing only
B) Automated testing
C) Testing post-deployment
D) None of the above
Answer: B
18. What is a microservice?
A) A small, independent service
B) A large monolithic application
C) A database
D) None of the above
Answer: A
19. What is the benefit of using version control in database migrations?
A) Increased risk
B) Better tracking of changes
C) Slower deployments
D) None of the above
Answer: B
20. In software architecture, what is a "service mesh"?
A) A framework for managing microservices communication
B) A database management tool
C) A project management methodology
D) None of the above
Answer: A
21. Which of the following is essential for business agility?
A) Long feedback loops
B) Fast iteration cycles
C) Strict hierarchical structures
D) None of the above
Answer: B
22. What does the term "dev" in DevOps emphasize?
A) Development practices
B) Operational tasks
C) Testing procedures
D) None of the above
Answer: A
23. Which tool is commonly used for Continuous Integration?
A) Jenkins
B) Excel
C) Word
D) None of the above
Answer: A
24. The principle of "infrastructure as code" supports which of the following?
A) Manual configuration
B) Automated infrastructure management
C) Reduced collaboration
D) None of the above
Answer: B
25. What is a significant characteristic of DevOps?
A) Separation of teams
B) Collaboration between development and operations
C) Increased documentation
 D) None of the above
Answer: B
26. Continuous Delivery ensures that:
A) Software is always in a deployable state
B) Testing is delayed
C) Teams work in isolation
D) None of the above
Answer: A
27. What is the benefit of automated testing in DevOps?
A) Slower feedback
B) Increased manual effort
C) Faster identification of issues
D) None of the above
Answer: C
28. The concept of "fail fast" in DevOps promotes:
A) Avoiding mistakes
B) Rapid experimentation and learning
C) Lengthy approval processes
D) None of the above
Answer: B
29. What is a challenge associated with microservices architecture?
A) Increased simplicity
B) Difficulty in service orchestration
C) Unified codebase
D) None of the above
Answer: B
30. What does the term "agile" refer to in software development?
A) Rigid processes
B) Flexibility and responsiveness
C) Slow methodologies
D) None of the above
Answer: B

Unit III: Introduction to Project Management

1. What is source code control?

A) A way to manage project timelines
B) A system to track changes in code
C) A method to deploy applications
D) None of the above
Answer: B
2. What is a key benefit of source code management systems?
A) Manual tracking of changes
B) Collaboration among developers
 C) Increased complexity
D) None of the above
Answer: B
3. What is Git primarily used for?
A) Document management
B) Version control
C) Project management
D) None of the above
Answer: B
4. What does the pull request model in Git facilitate?
A) Code isolation
B) Collaboration and code review
C) Manual deployments
D) None of the above
Answer: B
5. What is the purpose of shared authentication in source code management?
A) To enhance security
B) To simplify user access
C) To track changes
D) None of the above
Answer: B
6. Which of the following is a popular hosted Git server?
A) GitLab
B) Docker
C) Jenkins
D) None of the above
Answer: A
7. What is the significance of Docker in project management?
A) Code versioning
B) Containerization of applications
C) Manual deployment
D) None of the above
Answer: B
8. What role does Gerrit serve in software development?
A) Continuous integration
B) Code review and collaboration
C) Deployment management
D) None of the above
Answer: B
9. The history of source code management emphasizes the importance of:
A) Manual tracking
B) Automated version control
C) Long release cycles
D) None of the above
Answer: B
10. What is the primary function of a source code management system?
A) Track changes and collaborate
B) Write documentation
C) Test applications
D) None of the above
Answer: A
11. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Git?
A) Branching and merging
B) Automatic backups
C) Slow performance
D) Collaboration
Answer: C
12. What does "Docker intermission" refer to?
A) Pausing a Docker container
B) Switching between Docker containers
C) The use of Docker in development
D) None of the above
Answer: C
13. In project management, what is a key benefit of using a version control system?
A) Increased complexity
B) Better team collaboration
C) Manual tracking
D) None of the above
Answer: B
14. What is the role of a project manager in software development?
A) Writing code only
B) Overseeing project progress and team collaboration
C) Managing only operations
D) None of the above
Answer: B
15. What is the primary purpose of code reviews?
A) To blame team members
B) To improve code quality and collaboration
C) To speed up development
D) None of the above
Answer: B
16. Which Git command is used to create a new branch?
A) git merge
B) git checkout
C) git branch
D) None of the above
Answer: C
17. What does the term "commit" in Git refer to?
A) Saving changes to the repository
B) Merging branches
C) Deleting files
 D) None of the above
Answer: A
18. What is the role of a product owner in Agile?
A) To manage operations
B) To prioritize features and manage the backlog
C) To write code
D) None of the above
Answer: B
19. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a centralized version control system?
A) Easier collaboration
B) Single point of failure
C) Simplicity
D) None of the above
Answer: B
20. What does "branching" in Git allow developers to do?
A) Work on different features simultaneously
B) Merge code without collaboration
C) Delete files
D) None of the above
Answer: A
21. What is a key characteristic of Agile project management?
A) Rigid planning
B) Flexibility and iterative development
C) Long feedback loops
D) None of the above
Answer: B
22. In a DevOps context, what is the purpose of using containers?
A) To simplify deployment and scaling
B) To increase complexity
C) To slow down development
D) None of the above
Answer: A
23. What is the significance of automated testing in project management?
A) Slows down the process
B) Increases the chances of human error
C) Ensures consistent quality
D) None of the above
Answer: C
24. What does "infrastructure as code" enable?
A) Manual configuration of servers
B) Automated provisioning and management of infrastructure
C) Increased downtime
D) None of the above
Answer: B
25. Which tool is commonly used for code collaboration in DevOps?
A) Slack
 B) GitHub
C) Word
D) None of the above
Answer: B
26. What is the benefit of using hosted Git servers?
A) Increased maintenance
B) Easy access and collaboration
C) Limited functionality
D) None of the above
Answer: B
27. What does the term "merge" refer to in Git?
A) Combining code from different branches
B) Deleting branches
C) Creating new branches
D) None of the above
Answer: A
28. Which role is responsible for ensuring code quality in Agile?
A) Developer
B) Project manager
C) Tester
D) None of the above
Answer: C
29. What is a key principle of Agile methodologies?
A) Rigid processes
B) Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
C) Extensive documentation
D) None of the above
Answer: B
30. In DevOps, what is the purpose of CI/CD?
A) To increase manual processes
B) To automate code integration and deployment
C) To complicate workflows
D) None of the above
Answer: B

Unit IV: Integrating the System

1. What is a build system?

A) A process for managing deployment
B) A framework for building software
C) A documentation tool
D) None of the above
Answer: B
2. Which server is commonly used for continuous integration?
A) Apache
B) Jenkins
C) MySQL
D) None of the above
Answer: B
3. What does "job chaining" in Jenkins allow?
A) Running jobs independently
B) Sequential execution of multiple jobs
C) Ignoring job dependencies
D) None of the above
Answer: B
4. What is the purpose of build dependencies?
A) To complicate the build process
B) To ensure that all necessary components are available
C) To eliminate version control
D) None of the above
Answer: B
5. What is the function of a Jenkins plugin?
A) To add features and functionality to Jenkins
B) To slow down builds
C) To manage code repositories
D) None of the above
Answer: A
6. What is meant by "infrastructure as code"?
A) Manually configuring servers
B) Managing infrastructure using code
C) Writing code for applications only
D) None of the above
Answer: B
7. Which is a common trigger for a Jenkins job?
A) Manual start
B) Scheduled builds
C) Code commits
D) All of the above
Answer: D
8. What does "build phase" refer to?
A) The overall development cycle
B) Specific stages in the build process
C) Testing after deployment
D) None of the above
Answer: B
9. What is the primary benefit of using build servers?
A) Increased manual effort
B) Automation of the build process
C) Slower build times
 D) None of the above
Answer: B
10. What is the purpose of managing build dependencies?
A) To eliminate unnecessary files
B) To ensure all required components are available for the build
C) To complicate the build process
D) None of the above
Answer: B
11. What is a build slave in Jenkins?
A) A secondary server that runs builds
B) A tool for version control
C) A documentation tool
D) None of the above
Answer: A
12. How can infrastructure be managed in a DevOps environment?
A) Manually
B) Using code and automation tools
C) Ignoring infrastructure
D) None of the above
Answer: B
13. What is "job chaining"?
A) Running jobs in isolation
B) Sequencing jobs based on dependencies
C) Ignoring job dependencies
D) None of the above
Answer: B
14. Which of the following is NOT a build phase?
A) Compilation
B) Testing
C) User acceptance
D) None of the above
Answer: C
15. What does "collating quality measures" refer to?
A) Gathering metrics to assess build quality
B) Ignoring build issues
C) Delaying quality checks
D) None of the above
Answer: A
16. What is the role of a host server in a build system?
A) To run builds and manage jobs
B) To store documentation
C) To track user feedback
D) None of the above
Answer: A
17. What does "alternative build server" refer to?
A) Different tools that can be used for building applications
 B) A second instance of Jenkins
C) Manual build processes
D) None of the above
Answer: A
18. What is a common challenge when managing build dependencies?
A) Increased efficiency
B) Version conflicts
C) Streamlined processes
D) None of the above
Answer: B
19. How do triggers enhance the build process?
A) By adding manual steps
B) By automating job execution
C) By complicating workflows
D) None of the above
Answer: B
20. What does "file system layout" refer to in a build server?
A) The organization of files and directories
B) The layout of physical servers
C) The design of user interfaces
D) None of the above
Answer: A
21. Which is a benefit of using build pipelines?
A) Increased manual work
B) Streamlined development processes
C) Delayed feedback
D) None of the above
Answer: B
22. What is a common trigger for Jenkins builds?
A) Manual intervention
B) Code commits to the repository
C) Scheduling
D) Both B and C
Answer: D
23. What does "building by dependency order" ensure?
A) All components are built in a random order
B) Proper sequence for successful builds
C) Ignoring dependency issues
D) None of the above
Answer: B
24. What is a key feature of Jenkins?
A) Static website generation
B) Automation of the build process
C) Manual testing
D) None of the above
Answer: B
 25. What does "managing build dependencies" entail?
A) Ignoring required libraries
B) Ensuring all necessary components are available
C) Delaying builds
D) None of the above
Answer: B
26. What is an example of a Jenkins plugin?
A) Git plugin
B) Word processor
C) Presentation tool
D) None of the above
Answer: A
27. What is the purpose of using build phases?
A) To complicate the build process
B) To organize the build process into manageable steps
C) To increase manual effort
D) None of the above
Answer: B
28. What is a common goal of using a build server?
A) To increase deployment time
B) To automate the build and test process
C) To complicate workflows
D) None of the above
Answer: B
29. How can quality measures be collated?
A) By gathering data from various stages of the build process
B) Ignoring quality metrics
C) By focusing on manual processes
D) None of the above
Answer: A
30. What is the significance of managing build dependencies?
A) To ensure successful builds
B) To complicate workflows
C) To delay deployment
D) None of the above
Answer: A

Unit V: Testing Tools and Deployment

1. What is the primary purpose of testing in software development?

A) To add features
B) To ensure quality and functionality
C) To complicate workflows
 D) None of the above
Answer: B
2. Which type of testing focuses on the functionality of the software?
A) Unit testing
B) Performance testing
C) Usability testing
D) None of the above
Answer: A
3. What does "automation of testing" refer to?
A) Manual testing processes
B) Using tools to execute tests automatically
C) Ignoring testing procedures
D) None of the above
Answer: B
4. What is a benefit of automated testing?
A) Increased manual effort
B) Faster feedback
C) Slower issue identification
D) None of the above
Answer: B
5. What is integration testing?
A) Testing individual components in isolation
B) Testing interactions between components
C) Testing after deployment only
D) None of the above
Answer: B
6. Which testing framework is commonly used for unit testing in Java?
A) JUnit
B) Selenium
C) Cucumber
D) None of the above
Answer: A
7. What is a common challenge of manual testing?
A) Speed and efficiency
B) Human error and inconsistencies
C) Easy documentation
D) None of the above
Answer: B
8. What does "load testing" measure?
A) The look and feel of the application
B) The application's performance under heavy load
C) The speed of individual components
D) None of the above
Answer: B
9. What is the role of a tester in Agile development?
A) To write documentation only
 B) To ensure quality through testing
C) To manage the project
D) None of the above
Answer: B
10. What is user acceptance testing (UAT)?
A) Testing by developers only
B) Testing conducted by end-users to validate functionality
C) Testing after deployment only
D) None of the above
Answer: B
11. What is regression testing?
A) Testing new features only
B) Testing existing functionality after changes
C) Testing user interfaces
D) None of the above
Answer: B
12. Which tool is commonly used for automated UI testing?
A) Selenium
B) Git
C) Jenkins
D) None of the above
Answer: A
13. What is performance testing?
A) Testing the user interface
B) Evaluating the responsiveness and stability of the application
C) Testing only the backend
D) None of the above
Answer: B
14. What does "test-driven development" (TDD) involve?
A) Writing tests after coding
B) Writing tests before writing code
C) Ignoring tests altogether
D) None of the above
Answer: B
15. What is the significance of testing in DevOps?
A) It slows down the process
B) It ensures quality at every stage
C) It complicates workflows
D) None of the above
Answer: B
16. What does a test plan outline?
A) Goals, scope, and approach for testing
B) The design of the user interface
C) Code documentation
D) None of the above
Answer: A
17. What is the purpose of smoke testing?
A) To test individual components
B) To verify the basic functionality of the application
C) To conduct detailed testing
D) None of the above
Answer: B
18. What is a common outcome of effective testing?
A) Increased bugs
B) Higher quality software
C) Slower development
D) None of the above
Answer: B
19. Which type of testing is typically performed first in the development cycle?
A) Integration testing
B) Unit testing
C) User acceptance testing
D) None of the above
Answer: B
20. What does "continuous testing" mean?
A) Testing that occurs only at the end of the development cycle
B) Regular testing throughout the development process
C) Manual testing only
D) None of the above
Answer: B
21. What is a key principle of DevOps testing?
A) Ignoring testing
B) Testing only at the end
C) Integrating testing into the development workflow
D) None of the above
Answer: C
22. What is the significance of test automation in DevOps?
A) Increases time spent on manual testing
B) Allows for faster feedback and more reliable testing
C) Complicates the testing process
D) None of the above
Answer: B
23. What does "beta testing" involve?
A) Testing by developers
B) Testing by a limited group of users before release
C) Testing after the product is launched
D) None of the above
Answer: B
24. What is the role of performance testing in software development?
A) To evaluate the application's speed and responsiveness
B) To test only the backend
C) To conduct detailed user interface testing
 D) None of the above
Answer: A
25. Which tool is commonly used for continuous integration?
A) Selenium
B) Jenkins
C) JUnit
D) None of the above
Answer: B
26. What is the purpose of exploratory testing?
A) To conduct scripted tests
B) To explore the application without predefined tests
C) To automate the testing process
D) None of the above
Answer: B
27. What is a key characteristic of Agile testing?
A) Rigidity
B) Collaboration and adaptability
C) Lengthy processes
D) None of the above
Answer: B
28. What does "stress testing" measure?
A) The application's performance under extreme conditions
B) User interface functionality
C) Regression issues
D) None of the above
Answer: A
29. What is a primary goal of user acceptance testing?
A) To ensure the software meets user needs
B) To complicate the release process
C) To avoid user involvement
D) None of the above
Answer: A
30. What is the role of automated testing in DevOps?
A) To decrease testing frequency
B) To ensure quality throughout the development lifecycle
C) To slow down the release process
D) None of the above
Answer: B

Unit VI: Security in DevOps

1. What is the primary focus of DevSecOps?

A) Excluding security from development
B) Integrating security into the DevOps process
 C) Delaying security measures until deployment
D) None of the above
Answer: B
2. What does the principle of "shift left" mean in DevSecOps?
A) Delaying security checks until after deployment
B) Moving security measures earlier in the development process
C) Ignoring security in development
D) None of the above
Answer: B
3. What is a key benefit of integrating security in the DevOps pipeline?
A) Increased costs
B) Enhanced security and compliance
C) Slower development cycles
D) None of the above
Answer: B
4. What is the purpose of threat modeling?
A) To identify potential security threats and vulnerabilities
B) To create user interfaces
C) To manage project timelines
D) None of the above
Answer: A
5. What is continuous security?
A) Security measures applied only at the end
B) Regular security checks throughout the development lifecycle
C) Ignoring security entirely
D) None of the above
Answer: B
6. Which of the following is NOT a practice of DevSecOps?
A) Automated security testing
B) Ignoring security vulnerabilities
C) Security training for developers
D) Continuous monitoring for security issues
Answer: B
7. What role does automation play in DevSecOps?
A) It complicates security processes
B) It enables faster and more reliable security checks
C) It reduces the need for security
D) None of the above
Answer: B
8. What is a vulnerability assessment?
A) Identifying and prioritizing vulnerabilities in the system
B) Testing only the user interface
C) Ignoring security measures
D) None of the above
Answer: A
9. What is the purpose of security training in DevSecOps?
A) To ensure developers understand security best practices
B) To delay security integration
C) To focus solely on coding skills
D) None of the above
Answer: A
10. What does "security as code" mean?
A) Manually applying security measures
B) Integrating security practices into the codebase
C) Ignoring security entirely
D) None of the above
Answer: B
11. What is the role of compliance in DevSecOps?
A) To ignore regulations
B) To ensure adherence to security standards and laws
C) To complicate the development process
D) None of the above
Answer: B
12. What does "automated security testing" involve?
A) Manual testing of security features
B) Using tools to automatically check for security vulnerabilities
C) Ignoring security checks
D) None of the above
Answer: B
13. What is the significance of incident response in DevSecOps?
A) To ignore security breaches
B) To effectively handle and mitigate security incidents
C) To complicate security processes
D) None of the above
Answer: B
14. What is a common tool for security monitoring?
A) SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
B) Word processor
C) Spreadsheet software
D) None of the above
Answer: A
15. What is the goal of security audits in DevSecOps?
A) To verify compliance with security standards
B) To complicate the release process
C) To ignore security practices
D) None of the above
Answer: A
16. What does "continuous compliance" mean?
A) Compliance checks only after deployment
B) Ongoing adherence to security regulations and standards
C) Ignoring compliance issues
 D) None of the above
Answer: B
17. What is the role of secure coding practices in DevSecOps?
A) To enhance security within the code
B) To delay security measures
C) To complicate the coding process
D) None of the above
Answer: A
18. What is an example of a security vulnerability?
A) SQL injection
B) Increased performance
C) Improved user experience
D) None of the above
Answer: A
19. What is the impact of not integrating security in DevOps?
A) Enhanced security
B) Increased risk of security breaches
C) Simplified development processes
D) None of the above
Answer: B
20. What is the role of security in the software development lifecycle (SDLC)?
A) To be addressed only at the end
B) To be integrated at every stage
C) To complicate workflows
D) None of the above
Answer: B
21. What is the significance of threat detection in DevSecOps?
A) To identify potential security risks
B) To ignore security threats
C) To complicate development
D) None of the above
Answer: A
22. What does "secure software development lifecycle" (SSDLC) refer to?
A) A process that ignores security
B) A lifecycle that integrates security practices throughout development
C) A method for testing only
D) None of the above
Answer: B
23. What is a key benefit of continuous security monitoring?
A) Reduced awareness of security threats
B) Enhanced ability to respond to security incidents
C) Increased complexity in workflows
D) None of the above
Answer: B
24. What is the purpose of a security policy in DevSecOps?
A) To outline security requirements and procedures
 B) To complicate development processes
C) To ignore security risks
D) None of the above
Answer: A
25. What does "incident management" entail in DevSecOps?
A) Handling security breaches effectively
B) Ignoring incidents
C) Delaying response to threats
D) None of the above
Answer: A
26. What is the significance of security tools in DevSecOps?
A) To complicate security processes
B) To enhance security and compliance efforts
C) To ignore vulnerabilities
D) None of the above
Answer: B
27. What is a security incident?
A) A breach or compromise of security
B) A successful deployment
C) An improvement in performance
D) None of the above
Answer: A
28. What does "security testing" involve?
A) Evaluating the security measures of an application
B) Ignoring security risks
C) Testing only for functionality
D) None of the above
Answer: A
29. What is the purpose of using encryption in DevSecOps?
A) To secure sensitive data
B) To complicate data access
C) To ignore security risks
D) None of the above
Answer: A
30. What is the primary goal of DevSecOps?
A) To delay security integration
B) To ensure security is a key component of the DevOps process
C) To exclude security measures from development
D) None of the above
Answer: B