Class IX

Student Name:

Date of Examination:

Maximum Marks: 360 Time Allotted: 120 minutes

General Instructions: Test Booklet Set

Sample Paper
1. The Response Sheet is inside the sealed Test Booklet. The seal will be opened by the students on
the announcement by the invigilator and the Response Sheet shall be taken out. Do not open the
seal before the announcement.When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Response Sheet and ll in the particulars carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.

2. The test paper consists of three Sections: Section A: Mental Aptitude Test (consisting of 25
questions), Section B: Mathematical Aptitude Test (consisting of 25 questions) and
Section C: Scienti c Aptitude Test (consisting of 30 questions).

3. Duration of test is 120 minutes and Test Booklet contains 80 questions. The maximum marks are
320.

4. In Section A, B and C each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate
will get 4 marks and no mark will be awarded for unattempted question.

5. Use Blue/Black Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

7. The students should ensure that the response Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks
on the response Sheet.

8. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

9. No part of the Test Booklet and response Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

10. In case of more than 1 option correct in any question, the best correct option will be considered
as answer.

Invigilator’s Signature Student’s Signature

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
 CLASS - IX

SECTION - A (MENTAL 5. There is a certain relationship between gures 1

and 2. Establish the similar relationship
APTITUDE CHALLENGE) between gures 3 and 4 by choosing a gure
amongst the options that would replace the (?)
1. Which of the following gures will continue in gure (4).
the same series as established by the Problem
Figures ?

(a) (b)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(c) (d)

6. Choose a box that is similar to the box formed

2. Kirti walks 30 metres towards North. She then when the given sheet of paper is folded.
turns left and walks 50 metres. She again turns
left and walks 30 metres. Further, she moves 10
metres after turning to the right. How far is she
from her original position ?
(a) 45 metres (b) 50 metres
(c) 60 metres (d) 40 metres

3. In a certain code language, INTRODUCED is

(a) (b)
written as EFDVEPSUOJ. How will
INNOVATIVE be written in that language ?
(a) FWJVBUPMMJ (b) FWJUBWPOOJ (c) (d)
(c) WFJVPOMNOJ (d) FWJUBJOOPW

4. In the given Venn diagram, the triangle

7. Select the box from the given options, that will
represents female graduates, small circle
be formed by folding Fig (X).
represents self-employed females and the big
circle represents females with bank loan facility.

(a) (b)
Which number represents non-graduate self-
employed females with bank loan facility ?
(a) 2 (b) 9 (c) (d)
(c) 6 (d) 1

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 CLASS - IX

8. The given question consists of a set of three 12. Find the correct mirror image of the given
gures X, Y and Z showing a sequence of gure.
folding of a piece of paper. Fig. (Z) shows the
manner in which the folded paper has been cut.
Select a gure from the options which would
most closely resembles the unfolded form of
Fig. (Z)

(a) (b)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(c) (d)
13. Group the given gures into three classes using
each gure only once.
9. Find the number of triangles formed in the
given gure.

(a) 18 (b) 20
(c) 24 (d) None of these
(a) 3, 4, 9 ; 5, 7, 8 ; 1, 2, 6
10. Find the missing number, if the same rule is (b) 1, 5, 6 ; 2, 4, 8 ; 3, 7, 9
followed in all the three gures. (c) 4, 6, 8 ; 3, 5, 7 ; 1, 2, 9
(d) 1, 2, 7 ; 3, 5, 9 ; 4, 6, 8

14. Select a gure from the options which satis es

the same conditions of placement of the dots as
in Figure.
(a) 152 (b) 140
(c) 88 (d) 126

11. Select a gure from the options which

completes the given gure matrix.
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(a) (b) 15. A blacksmith has ve iron articles A, B, C, D

and E, each having a different weight.
(i) A weighs twice as much as B.
(ii) B weighs four and a half times as much as
(c) (d)
C.
(iii) C weighs half as much as D.

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 CLASS - IX

(iv) D weighs half as much as E. number, then they are to be added.

(v) E weighs less than A but more than C. (iii) If an even number is followed by a number
Which of the following is the lightest ? which is a perfect square, then the even
(a) A (b) B number is to be subtracted from the perfect
(c) C (d) D square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by an even
16. If ′ ∩′ stands for ′+′ , ′ ⊂′ stands for ′−′ , ′ ⊃′ number, then the second one is to be subtracted
stands for ′ ×′ , ′ ∪′ stands for ′ ÷′ , ′ ∥′ stands from the rst one.
for ′ =′ and ′ →′ stands for ′ >′ , then which of (v) If an odd number is followed by a prime
the following expression is not true ? odd number, then the rst number is to be
(a) (10 ∩ 2) ⊃ (2 ∩ 2) → (10 ∪ 2) divided by the second number.
(b) (20 ⊂ 8) ∪ (4 ⊂ 1) ∥ (4 ∩ 1)
12 36 31
(c) (12 ⊂ 4) ⊃ (5 ⊃ 1) → (10 ∩ 20)
x 11 15
(d) (10 ∩ 2) ⊃ (2 ∪ 2) → (10 ∪ 2)
If x is the resultant of the rst row, then what
17. Six books P, Q, R, S, T and U are placed side by will be the resultant of the second row?
side. R, Q and T have blue covers and other (a) 5 (b) 10
books have red covers. Only S and U are new (c) 45 (d) 75
books and the rest are old, P, R and S are law
21. In a certain code language,
reports, the rest are Gazetteers. Which two
(i) ‘po ki top ma’ means ‘Usha is playing cards’.
books are old Gazetteers with blue covers ?
(ii) ‘kob ja ki ma’ means ‘Asha is playing
(a) Q and R (b) Q and T
tennis’.
(c) Q and U (d) T and U
(iii) ‘ki top so ho’ means ‘They are playing
18. If ′P + Q′ means ′P is the brother of Q′; ′P × Q′ football’.
means ′P is the father of Q′; ′P ÷ Q′ means ′P is (iv) ‘po sur kob’ means ‘Cards and tennis’.
the mother of Q′ ; then which of the following Which word in that language mens ‘Asha’?
would represents ′R is the son of M′ ? (a) ja (b) ma
(a) M × S × R (b) M + R × S (c) kob (d) top
(c) M ÷ R × S (d) M × R ÷ S
22. How many pairs of letters are there in the word
19. Find the correct mirror image of given ADVENTURE which have the number of
combination of letters and numbers. letters one more than the number of letter
between them as in English alphabet?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) More than three
(a) (b)
23. In the given letter series how many P ’s are
(c) (d)
there each of which immediately preceded by
‘R’, but not immediately followed by ‘R’?
20. In the question, two rows of numbers are
PR POR PS T POS R PRQ R S PR
given. The resultant number in each row is to
(a) 4 (b) 3
be worked out separately based on the
(c) 2 (d) 1
following rules and the question below the
rows of numbers is to be answered. The 24. If ′P + Q′ means P is the mother of Q , ′P ÷ Q′
operation on numbers progress from left to means P is the brother of Q, ′P # Q′ means P is
right. the father of Q and ′P * Q′ means P is the sister
Rules : of Q , then how is L related to O in
(i) If an odd number is followed by another ′K ÷ L + M # N * O′ ?
composite odd number, then they are to be (a) Grand daughter (b) Sister
multiplied. (c) Mother (d) Grand mother
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd

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 CLASS - IX

25. Select a letter which replaces the (?), if the same (a) 6 cm2 (b) 12 cm2
rule is followed either row-wise or column- (c) 9 cm2 (d) 18 cm2
wise.
30. The value of

( )( )( )
1 1 1 1 1
32 − 1 32 + 34 + 1 3 2 − 3 4 + 1 is
(a) 1 (b) 3 3
(c) 3 3 − 1 (d) 3 3 + 1
(a) P (b) N
(c) M (d) R 31. x and y are two non-negative numbers such
that 2x + y = 10 . The sum of the maximum
and minimum values of (x + y) is
SECTION - B (MATHEMATICAL (a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 15
THINKING CHALLENGE)
32. In the adjoining gure, ABCD is a rectangle.
The area of ΔBEG = 503 cm2, the area of
26. A city survey found that 47 % of teenagers ΔJFD = 408 cm2 and the area of quadrilateral
have a part time job. The same survey found E HFA = 1113 cm2. The area (in cm2) of the
that 30 % plan to attend college. Find the shaded region is :
probability that a teenager has a part time job.
37 30
(a) (b)
100 100
40 47
(c) (d)
100 100
27. Positive integers from 1 to 21 are arranged in 3
groups of 7 integers each, in some particular
order. Then the highest possible mean of the (a) 2021 (b) 2019 (c) 1208
median of these 3 groups is (d) 1018
(a) 16 (b) 12.5
(c) 11 (d) 14 33. The mean of fteen different natural numbers
is 13 . The maximum value for the second
28. If x and y are positive real numbers, then which largest of these numbers is
of the following is CORRECT ? (a) 46 (b) 51
(a) x > y ⟹ − x > − y (c) 52 (d) 53
(b) x > y ⟹ − x < − y
1 1 34. The number of integral solutions of the
(c) x > y ⟹ >
( y) ( y )
x y 1 1
1 −1 equation 7 y+ − 2 y 2 + 2 = 9 is
(d) x > y ⟹ <
x y (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
29. A BCD is a parallelogram in which BC is
produced to E such that CE = BC . A E 35. The value of the expression
intersects CD at F . If area of ΔDFA is 3 cm2, 1 3 4
− −
then nd the area of parallelogram A BCD.
11 − 2 30 7 − 2 10 8+4 3
after simpli cation is
(a) 30 (b) 2 10
(c) 1 (d) 0

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 CLASS - IX

36. O is the centre of a circle of diameter 4 cm and 40. Each of the sides of a triangle is 8 cm less than
1 the sum of its other two sides. Area of the
OA BC is a square, if the shaded area is area
3 triangle (in cm2) is
of the square, then the side of the square is (a) 8 (b) 8 3
__________. (c) 16 (d) 16 3

41. X, Y are the mid-points of opposite sides A B

and DC of a parallelogram A BCD. AY and DX
are joined intersecting at S ; C X and BY are
joined intersecting at R. Then S X RY is a :

(a) π 3 cm (b) 3π cm
(c) 3 π cm (d) 3π cm

37. In the given gure (not drawn to scale), if OCD

is an isosceles triangle in which OD and OC
are equal, then what will be the value of (a) Rectangle (b) Rhombus
∠OCD ? (c) Parallelogram (d) Square

42. For the distinct real numbers a , b, c and a ≠ 0,

consider the quadratic equation
a x 2 + bx + c = 0. If a + b + c = 0; then the
solutions of the quadratic equation are:
a b a b
(a) and (b) and
b a b c
(a) 70∘ (b) 50∘ b c
(c) 1 and (d) 1 and
(c) 65∘ (d) 45∘ a a
38. If Anish is moving along the boundary of a 43. When a polynomial p(x) is divided by x − 1 ,
triangular eld of sides 35m, 53m and 66m and the remainder is 3. When p(x) is divided by
you are moving along the boundary of a x − 3, the remainder is 5. If r (x) is the
circular eld whose area is double the area of r e m a i n d e r w h e n p(x) i s d i v i d e d b y
the triangular eld, then the radius of the (x − 1) (x − 3), then the value of r (−2) is
22 (a) −2 (b) −1
circular eld is: (Take π = )
7 (c) 0 (d) 4
(a) 14 3 m (b) 3 14 m
(c) 28 3 m (d) 7 3 m 44. In a cricket team, the average age of eleven
players is 28 years. Out of these, the mean ages
39. In ΔA BC, the medians A D, BE and CF passes of three groups of three players each are 25
through G . If BG = 6 units, then BE is years, 28 years and 30 years respectively. If in
_________. these groups the captain and the youngest
player are not included and the captain is
eleven years older than the youngest player,
then what is the age of the captain?
(a) 42 years (b) 35 years
(c) 24 years (d) 27 years

45. If the line segments joining the midpoints of

(a) 9 units (b) 6 units the consecutive side of a quadrilateral ABCD
(c) 3 units (d) 1 unit form a rectangle then □ A BCD must be
(a) Rhombus (b) Square
(c) Kite (d) All of the above

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 CLASS - IX

SECTION - C (SCIENTIFIC standing

(c) A long distance behind where he is standing
APTITUDE CHALLENGE) (d) At the same spot where he is standing

51. A car covers 30 km at a uniform speed of 60

46. The height at which the acceleration due to km/hr and the next 30 km at a uniform speed
gravity becomes g /9 in terms of R , where g is of
the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of 40 km/hr. The total time taken is :
the Earth is (R is the radius of the Earth) (a) 30 min (b) 45 min
(a) 2R (b) R / 2 (c) 75 min (d) 120 min
(c) R /2 (d) 2 /R
52. The time period of a simple pendulum is 1.2
47. A particle is moving along a circular track of second. If the length of the pendulum is
radius 1 m with a uniform speed. The ratio of doubled, the new time period will be :
the distance covered and the displacement in (a) 1.1 seconds (b) 1.3 seconds
half revolution is : (c) 1.5 seconds (d) 1.7 seconds
(a) 1 (b) 0
π 53. Two particles, one with constant velocity of 50
(c) π (d)
2 m s−1 and the other start from rest with
uniform acceleration of 10 m s−2, start moving
48. Consider a porter standing on a platform with
simultaneously from the same position in the
a suitcase which presses his head with a force
same direction. They will be at a distance of 125
of 200 N. If this force is taken to be action, then
m from each other after
the reaction force is exerted by :
(a) 5 s and 5(1 + 2) s
(a) The head on the suitcase
(b) 5 s and 10 s
(b) The earth on the suitcase
(c) The earth on the porter (c) 5(1 + 2) s and 10 s
(d) The suitcase on the earth (d) 10 s and 10(1 + 2) s

49. Which of the following is the velocity-time 54. The work done by a student in lifting a 0.5 kg
graph of a moving particle on which net book from the ground and keeping it on a shelf
external force is zero ? of height 1.5 m is :
(a) 8.30 J (b) 7.35 J
(c) 5.40 J (d) 6.45 J

(a) (b) 55. When a body rolls down on an inclined plane,

it has :
(a) Only kinetic energy
(b) Only potential energy
(c) Both kinetic and potential energy
(d) Neither kinetic nor potential energy
(c) (d)
56. Two masses, one ′n′ times as heavy as the other,
have equal kinetic energy. What is the ratio of
their momenta ?
50. Rahul is travelling in a bus moving at a (a) 1 : n (b) n : 1
constant speed of 50 km h−1. At one point of (c) 1 : n (d) n : 1
his journey, he throws a ball vertically upwards
57. A planet of mass m is revolving around the sun
to a height 40 cm, the ball will fall (neglect air
in a circle of radius r. What is the work done by
friction)
the gravitational force F in moving the planet
(a) A short distance behind where he is
over half the circumference of the circle ?
(b) A long distance in front of where he is

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 CLASS - IX

(a) Zero (b) F × 2π r (d) 22.5 × 10 5 J/k g heat is required to convert

(c) F × π r (d) F × 2r 1 kg of water in steam at same temperature of
0∘C
58. Non-mechanical waves can travel :
(a) In vacuum as well as in a medium 63. From the below gure, the temperature-time
(b) In vacuum but not in a medium graph given shows the heating curve for pure
(c) In a medium but not in vacuum wax. From the graph answer the following:
(d) Neither in a medium nor in vacuum

59. A violin string emits sound waves with a

frequency of 850 Hz as shown in the given
gure.

Name the terms used for heat absorbed during

−1 change of states involved in above process.
If the speed of sound in air is 340 m s , the
distance between points A and B is : (a) A1B1 latent heat of fusion
(a) 6 m (b) 7 m (b) D1D2 latent heat of vaporisation
(c) 60 cm (d) 70 cm (c) D1D2 latent heat of evaporation
(d) Both (a) and (b)
60. The force acting on a ball due to the earth has a
magnitude Fb and that acting on the earth due 64. Which one of the liquids will leave behind a
to the ball has a magnitude Fe. Then : residue on heating?
(a) Fb = Fe (b) Fb > Fe (a) Brine (b) Bromine
(c) Fb < Fe (d) Fe = 0 (c) Mercury (d) Alcohol

61. When extremely small particles X derived from 65. From the below gure, which of the tubes in
the anther of a ower were suspended in a gure (i) and (ii) will be more effective as a
liquid Y and observed through a microscope, it condenser in the distillation apparatus?
was found that the particles X were moving
throughout the liquid Y in a very zig-zag way.
It was also observed that warmer the liquid Y,
faster the particles X moved on its surface.
What could particles X be?
(a) Dust particles (b) Pollen grains
(c) Wheat grains (d) None of these

62. What is meant by saying that the latent heat of

vaporisation of water is 22.5 × 10 5 J/k g ? (a) Figure (i) (b) Figure (ii)
(a) 22.5 × 10 5 J/k g heat is required to convert (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) None of these
1 kg of water in ice at same temperature of 0∘C 66. A liquid compound X of molecular mass 18 u
(b) 22.5 × 10 5 J/k g heat is required to convert can be obtained from a number of natural
1 kg of water in steam at same temperature of sources. All the animals and plants need liquid
100∘C X for their survival. When an electric current is
(c) 22.5 × 10 5 J/k g heat is required to convert passed through 200 grams of pure liquid X
1 kg of steam in water at same temperature of under suitable conditions, then 178 grams of
100∘C

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 CLASS - IX

gas Y and 22 grams of gas Z are produced. Gas (a) CCl 2 (b) C4Cl3
Y is produced at the positive electrode whereas (c) CCl (d) CCl4
gas Z is produced at the negative electrode.
73. Anode rays are produced when :
Moreover, gas Y supports combustion whereas
(a) Cathode is perforated
gas Z burns itself causing explosions. Name
(b) Anode is perforated
liquid X
(c) When low voltage is passed
(a) Water (b) Oil
(d) When pressure is high
(c) Alcohol (d) Glycerine
74. The ratio of the radii of hydrogen atom and its
67. The mass of one atom of an element X is
nucleus is 10 5 . Assuming the atoms and the
2.0 × 10−23 g. Calculate the atomic mass of
nucleus to be spherical, what will be the ratio
element X.
of their sizes?
(a) 12 u (b) 15 u
(a) 1019 (b) 1015
(c) 14 u (d) 17 u 12
(c) 10 (d) 1011
68. Copper sulphate reacts with sodium hydroxide
75. Rutherford’s α− particle scattering experiment
to form a blue precipitate of copper hydroxide
showed that :
and sodium sulphate. In the experiment,
(i) Electrons have negative charge.
15.95 g of copper sulphate reacted with 8.0 g
(ii) The mass and positive charge of the atom is
of sodium hydroxide to form 9.75 g of copper
concentrated in the nucleus.
hydroxide and 14.2 g of sodium sulphate.
(iii) Neutron exists in the nucleus.
Which law of chemical combination is
(iv) Most of the space in atom is empty.
illustrated by this data?
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Law of conservation of mass
(b) Law of conservation of energy
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) Law of conservation of matter
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(d) None of these
76. Earth has vast diversity of animals. Each
69. The atom of an element X contains 17 protons,
animals is unique in it-self and possesses
17 electrons and 18 neutrons whereas the atom certain distinguishing features. Match the
of an element Y contains 11 protons, 11
animals listed in column A with their
electrons and 12 neutrons. What will be the characteristics features given in column B and
number of neutrons in the ion formed from X? column C and identify the correct match.
(a) 14 (b) 16
(c) 17 (d) 18 Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’ Column ‘C’

70. The visible universe is estimated to contain Hooks and

10 22 stars. How many moles of stars are A Taenia i Nephridia P suckers are
present in the visible universe ? present
(a) 0.0166 mols (b) 0.166 mols
(c) 1.66 mols (d) 16.6 mols Compound
B Pheretima ii Gills Q
eyes
71. What is charge/mass ratio of an electron ?
(a) 1.76 × 1011C, K g −1 Metamerica
(b) 1.76 × 1013C, K g −1 C
Periplanet
iii
Flame
R lly
(c) 9.1 × 1011C, K g −1 a cells
segmented
(d) 9.1 × 10 31 C, K g −1
Malpighia
72. Give the formula of the compounds formed D Pila iv S Redula
n tubules
from carbon and chlorine.

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 CLASS - IX

(a) A - iii, P; B - i, R; C - iv, Q; D - ii, S (c) Even without the use of antibiotics the drug
(b) A - iv, R; B - iii, Q; C - i, P; D - ii, S resistant strains would have evolved at the rate
(c) A - i, P; B - iv, S; C - iii, Q; D - ii, R as observed in the above situation.
(d) A - ii, Q; B - ii, P; C - ii, R; D - ii, S (d) Presence of antibiotics induces changes in
the metabolism of the bacterium leading to
77. A biology teacher placed a hen’s egg in three drug resistance.
different solutions :
Solution A : Pure water 80. Enzymes embedded in the membrane of the
Solution B : Saturated salt solution smooth ER :
Solution C : Hydrochloric acid (a) Synthesize proteins and steroids.
The sequence of treatments and the ensuring (b) May be used for detoxi cation.
probable effect on the egg are listed below : (c) Are mostly inactive when associated with a
(i) A → B → C → Remains unchanged membrane.
(ii) B → C → A → Swells (d) Both (b) and (c)
(iii) C → A → B → Shrinks
81. Observe the given gure of three different
(iv) B → A → C → Loses salts
plant tissues and select the correct statement.
Based one the above sequence to treatment,
which one of the options will be correct ?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

78. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in (a) A and B consist of living cells while C
possessing : consists of dead cells.
(a) Same number of chromosomes and same (b) Cytoplasm is present in cells of B and C.
number of chromatids. (c) Cell walls of A, B and C bear uniform
(b) Half number of chromosomes and half thickening of Suberin.
number of chromatids. (d) A provides mechanical strength to the plant
(c) Half number of chromosomes and same while B and C serve as storage tissues.
number of chromatids.
(d) Same number of chromosome and half 82. A Unicellular protist X , which has contractile
number of chromatids. vacuole to remove excess intracellular water,
was placed in salt solution of increasing
79. Virulent forms of the bacterium staphylococcus osmolarity. The given graph shows the rate of
aureus is a human pathogen, some strains of contraction of vacuole to pump out excess
which cause “ esh-eating disease”. Earlier the water against osmolarity of solution. Select the
antibiotic Penicillin was used to control this option that gives the correct explanation of the
pathogen. After some years Penicillin was data.
ineffective. Hence, a powerful antibiotic-
Methicillin was used in treatments.
Subsequently, Methicillin also became
ineffective and the strains showed resistance to
multiple antibiotics also called “multi-drug
resistance”. Which one of the following
statements regarding development of multi-
drug resistance is correct ?
(a) Antibiotics led to mutation in the DNA of
bacterium thus creating drug resistant strains.
(b) Antibiotics helped in the selection for
(a) In an isotonic solution there is no diffusion
bacterium with mutations in the DNA
of water in or out of the X, so the contraction
conferring drug resistance which were already
rate is zero.
present in the population.

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 CLASS - IX

(b) At higher osmolarity, more salt diffuses into Based on the information given in the table,
X, therefore lower rates of contractions are identify the organelles A, B and C.
required. (a) A - Plastids; B - Detoxi cation ; C - Break
(c) The rate of contraction increases as down of organelles
osmolarity decreases because amount of water (b) A - Mitochondria; B - Ribosomal RNA; C-
entering X by osmosis increases. Degrades different molecules
(d) The contractile vacuole is less ef cient in (c) A - Mitochondria; B - Break down of
solution of high osmolarity because of reduced organelles; C - Detoxi cation
respiration and less production of ATP. (d) A - Plastids; B - Detoxi cation; C -
Packaging of substances
83. Some bacteria have the ability to ‘ x’ nitrogen.
This means : 86. Match Column I with Column II and select the
(a) They convert ammonia into nitrites and correct option from the given codes.
nitrates. Column I Column II
(b) They break down useful nitrogen-rich (Nutrient) (De ciency disease)
compounds and release ammonium ions. Pernicious
(c) They convert nitrates into nitrogen gas. A Niacin i
anaemia
(d) They convert atmospheric nitrogen gas into
biologically useful forms of nitrogen. B Vitamin B12 ii Kwashiorkor

84. Read the following statements regarding Algae C Vitamin B1 iii Xerophthalmia
and nd out how many of the given statements
D Protein iv Pellagra
is/are correct ?
(i) Rhodophyceae contains major pigments E Vitamin A v Beriberi
chlorophyl a , d and Phycoerythrin.
(ii) Cell wall in chlorophyceae is made up of
cellulose. (a) A- i; B- ii; C- iv; D- v; E- iii
(iii) Rhodophyceae store food in the form of (b) A- iv; B- i; C- v; D- ii; E- iii
starch. (c) A- i; B- iii; C- v; D- iv; E- ii
(iv) Phaeophyceae is known as red algae. (d) A- iv; B- v; C- iii; D- ii; E- i
(v) Phaeophyceae major pigments are chlorophyl
87. Study the given gure representing greenhouse
a and b.
effect carefully.
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 1 (d) 4

85. The presence of speci c molecule (called

markers) in an organelle can be used to identify
the presence of that organelle. A researcher has
three test tubes with organelles A, B and C ,
each of which shows the presence of one
marker as shown below:
Function of the
Organelle Marker
marker
Involved in
Cytochrome
A Aerobic Select the correct statement regarding it.
oxidase
Respiration (a) Much of the long wavelength infrared
Synthesis of radiations re-radiated by the Earth’s surface are
RER B absorbed by the atmospheric greenhouse gases.
Protein
Acid (b) CO2, CH4, CFCs and N2O are the gases
Lysosomes C which are responsible for greenhouse effect.
hydrolyase

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(c) The atmosphere is transparent to the (c) Y represents bacterial infection which
incoming short-wavelength radiations and decreases due to body’s immunity and
istranslucent to the long-wavelength infra-red antibiotic treatment.
radiations. (d) Y represents viral infection which decreases
(d) All of these. due to body’s immunity.

88. (i) Lateral Meristem helps in increasing the 90. Which of the following is false about cuboidal
diameter and girth of the plants. It is called epithelium ?
Primary Meristem. (i) It is made of tall and slender cells.
(ii) The main function of xylem is the (ii) Free surface may have microvilli.
bidirectional movement of water and dissolved (iii) They are found in stomach and intestine
minerals (ascent of sap) from the roots to and help in secretion and absorption.
different parts of shoots. (iv) Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in
(iii) The cell wall of sclerenchyma are highly hollow structure like bronchioles and fallopian
thickened with the deposition of pectin. tubes/oviducts.
(iv) Phloem helps in the transportation of (v) They have apical nuclei.
organic food (photosynthesised by the leaves) (a) Only (i), (iii) and (v)
in only one direction. (b) Only (v)
(v) The cells of meristematic tissue are (c) Only (i) and (ii)
isodiametric, i.e., they are unidentical in length, (d) Only (i), (ii) and (ii)
breadth and height.
(vi) Collenchyma tissue cells are ligni ed and
provide exibility to the plant.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct ?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 4

89. Milind suffered from viral infection that got

severe due to another infection. He took
antibiotics in the treatment. The graph shows
the pathogen load in his body during the
period of sickness. Select the correct
statement(s) regarding it.

(a) X represents bacterial infection which

decreases rapidly after antibiotic treatment.
(b) X represents fungal infection which
decreases rapidly because of body’s immunity.

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