2101o1|o6t Fe

M-001M
MBBS FIRST
PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION, 2021
ANATOMY
Paper I
Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks- 100
Note:-_Attempt all questions. All part of
parenthesis indicate marks allotted to aquestion
a should be answered together. Figures in

question.
Section-A
Q1. Describe the
temporomandibular under the following headings-
a) Bones forming the joint joint
b) Ligaments of the joints including the articular disc. (4)
c) Movements of the joint and muscles (6)
producing them
d) Dislocation of the joint and its management (8)
Q2. Write briefly on: (2)
a) Write about fertilization process. What are the results of fertilization?
b) Describe the tongue with regards to its -(G) histology: (i) nerve (10)
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions: supply (5+5)
(10x1)
1.
Buccopharyngeal membrane ruptures at week of intrauterine
life
a) 3rd
b) 4th
c)5th.
d) 6th
2. Peritoneal cavity is derived from thec
a) Extraembryonic coelom
5) Amniotic cavity
c) Yolk sac
Intraembryonic coelom
3. Ligament teres hepatis is
a) Remnant of obliterated right umbilical vein
b) Remnant of obliterated left umbilical vein
c)Remnant of obliterated right vitelline vein
d) Remnant of obliterated left umbilical vein
4. Fibromuscular glandular tissue is present in one of the following
organs:
a) Penis
b) Prostate
c) Testis
d) Ovary
5, The following gastrointestinal traet structures undergo developmental
rotation except:
a) Duodenum
b) Ventral pancreas
c)Midgut
d) Hindgut
 KGMU Feb 2021

6. Gastric intrinsic factor is synthesized by the

a) Chief cells
b) Oxyntic cells
c) Enteroendocrine cells
d) Paneth cells
7. Brunner's gland is
a) A serous gland
b) A seromucous gland
c) A serous and epidermal growth factor secreting gland
d) A mucous and epidermal growth factor secreting gland
8. Prostatic part of male urethra is lined with epithelium.
a) Pseudostratified columnar
b) Simple squamous
c) Stratified squamous
d) Transitional columnar
individual with a
9. The presence of blood in a spinal tap taken from an
closed head injury signals arterial bleeding into the:
a) Cavernous sinus
b) Epidural space
c) Subarachnoid space
d) Subdural space
10. Epithelial tissue is derived from-
a) Endoderm only
b) Ectoderm only
c) Mesoderm only
d) Both endoderm and ectodern

Section-B

Q1. Describe Medulla Oblongata under the following headings:

a) Structure of Medulla Oblongata (4)
b) Blood supply (6)
Pyramidal decussation (8)
c) Transverse section at
d) Applied aspect (2)
Q2. Write short notes on:
(a) Write about the gross structure and the lymphatic drainage of the (10)
mammary gland (2x5)
(6) Describe the pituitary gland with regards to its:
I. Histology of the adenohypophysis
II. Blood supply of the pituitary gland
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions: (10x1)
1. The Circle of Willis:

a Equalizes pressure of blood flow to the two sides of

brain.
b) Has the middle cerebral artery in its lateral part.
c)Is an arteriovenous circle in the interpeduncular fossa.
d) Has n0 role to play in collateral circulation.
2. A branch of the
basilar arteryis:
a) Posterior cerebral
artery
b) Posterior spinal artery
c) Posterior communicating artery
d) Anterior choroidal artery
 KGMU F e b 2021

3. The following regions are devoid of blood brain barrier except

a) Pineal gland
b) Posterior pituitary
c) Area postremax
d) Anterior pituitary
is formed by:
4. The anterior wall of the third ventricle
a) Interthalamic connexus
b) Mammillary bodies
c) Lamina terminalis
d) Pineal body
has: recess.
5. The fourth ventricle recesses, and a median
two laterodorsal
a Two lateral recesses,
and a median r e c e s s .
b) Two lateral r e c e s s e s median r e c e s s .
r e c e s s e s and a
c) Two laterodorsal recess.
and a laterodorsal level
d) A median r e c e s s at the following
nucleus is located
6. EdingerWestphal

a) Cranial part of the pons

b) Thalamus
c Midbrain
d) Medulla oblongata
colliculus is a part of
7. Superior
midbrain
a Tegmentum of
b) Crus cerebri

c)Tectum
d) Cerebral peduncle
reflex arc has:
8. A monosynaptic spinal
neurons
a) Two participating n e u r o n s
b) Three participating neurons
c) A single participating
neurons
d) Many participating to the level of S2 vertebra:
9. The meningeal layer extending up
a) Dura mater only
b) Arachnoid mater only
c)Dura, arachnoid and pia maters
d)Dura and arachnoid maters
10. All are true about the shoulder joint except
-

a) It is a ball and socket joint

b) Stability is compromised
of the joint
c) Axillary nerve is one of the articular nerves

movement is done by biceps brachii

Prime mover of abduction
 KGMU Fcb 202

M-002M
MBBS FIRST PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION, 2021
ANATOMY
Paper I
Time Allowed: Three
Hours
Maximum Marks- 100
Note:-_Attempt all questions. All part of
parenthesis indicate marks allotted to question
a
should be answered together. Figures in
a
question.
Section-A
Q1. Describe
Suterus
u s under the following
unde

S5a) Size, shape, position,

5,25a)
headings
dimensions
7S, b) Relations. (4)
c) Enumerate supports of uterus (4)
d) Applied anatomy (7)
Q2. Write briefly on: (5)
(2x10)
a) Lymphatic drainage of stomach
b) Congenital anomalies of kidney
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Which of the (10x1)
following duct commences in the abdomen as an
elongated sac of cisterna chyli?
(a) Thoracic duct
(b) Bile duct
(c) Gartner's duct
(d) Hepatic duct
2. Internal Elastic lamina is
following vessels?
seen
predominantly in which of the
(a) Large sized artery
Medium sized artery
(c) Large sized vein
(d) Medium sized vein
3. Dorsal pancreatic bud forms all
of the following parts of the pancreas
EXCEPT?
(a) Body
(b) Tail
Uncinate process
(d) Upper part of head
4. Cremastric fascia is a derivative of
(a) External oblique muscle
b) Internal Oblique muscle
(c) Fascia transversalis
(d) Continuation of Internal spermatic fascia
5. Red and white pulp are
characteristically seen in
a Spleen
(b) Tonsil
(c) Thymus
(d) Lymph node
 KGA Feh 2921

6. Skin around the umbilicus is innervated by? Feb. 20

(a) T9
T10 2 21
(c) T11
(d) T12 following
drains into which of the
7. Lymphatics from glans penis
nodes?
(a) Superficial inguinal
Deep Inguinal
(c) Internal iliae
(d) External iliac
8. The remnant of allantois in adults is
tay Median umblical ligament
(b) Median umblical fold
(c) Lateral umblical ligament
(d) Lateral umblical fold
9. Which of the following structure is derived
from midgut loop?
(a) Stomach

(b) Oesophagus
(c) Liver
(d Appendix
10. The level of origin of Superior mesenteric artery is
a)T12
(b) LI
(c) L2
(d) L3

Section-B

Q1. Describe Knee joint under the following headings:

a) Type of joint (2)
b) Articular surfaces (3)
c)Ligaments (4)
d) Bursae around the joint (3)
e) Movements (4)
f) Applied anatomy (4)
Write short notes on: (2x10)
Q2.
(a) Interior of Right atrium
(b) Boundaries and contents of femoral triangle.
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions: (10x1)
1. Adductor longus muscle is supplied by
(a) Obturator Nerve
b ) Femoral Nerve
(c) Scioatic Nerve
(d) Tibial Nerve
2. Which of the following dermatomes supply the skin over the great toe?
(a) L.3
b ) L5
(c) S1
(d) s2
 KGM Feh 2021

3. In which of the following joints the bones are held together by hyaline
cartilage?
(a) Symphysis
Synchondrosis
(c) Syndesmosis
(d) Synostosis
4. Which of the following struetures pass anterior to the root of right
lung?
(a) Azygous vein
(b) Splanchnic nerve
(c) Vagus nerve
d ) Phrenie nerve
5. Anterior intercostal artery is a branch of
(a) Internal Mammary artery
(b) Direct branch from aorta
(c) Subelavian artery
(d) Posterior intercostal artery
6. Which of the following parts of the gluteal region is a preferred site
for intramuscular injections?
a) Upper lateral quadrant
(b) Lower lateral quadrant
(c) Upper medial quadrant
(d) Lower medial quadrant
columnar
7. Which of the following viscera is lined by simple
epitheliunm?
(a) Skin
Duodenum
(c) Lund
(d) Urethra
does not drain into coronary
Which of the following Veins of the heart
8.
sinus?
(a) Small cardiac vein
(b) Middle cardiac vein
IAnterior cardiac vein

(d) Great cardiac vein

9. The fibrous pericardium is
innervated by
(a) Vagus
(b) Great splanchnic nerve
c P h r e n i c nerve

(d) Deep cardiac plexus

seen in
10. Transitional Epithelium is
(a) Stomach
b Urinary bladder
(c) Skin
(d) Artery

*****
 KGMU- Feb. 2021

M-005M
MBBS FIRST PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION, 2021
BIOCHEMISTRY
Paper I
Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks- 100
Note:- Attempt all questions. All part of a question should be
answered
parenthesis indicate marks allotted to a together. Figures in
question.
Section-A4
Q1. Write in detail about
inter-relationship between various metabolic pathways.
Q2. Write briefly on: (20)
(2x10)
(a) HMP Shunt pathway
b) Detoxification of ammonia from brain
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions:
1. (10x1)
Hydroxylation of phenylalanine requires all of the following
EXCEPT
a. Molecular oxygen
b. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
c. Tetrahydrobiopterin
FADH2
2. The diet of a child
suffering from Maple Syrup Urine Disease
should be low in which of the
a. Tryptophan
following amino-acid content?
b. Methionine
c. Phenylalanine
d. Branched chain amino-acids
3. The deficiency of which of the
following enzyme of pentose
phosphate pathway causes haemolytic anaemia?
a. Transketolase
b. Transaldolase

d.
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Phosphohexose isomerase
4. Disease associated with deficiency of
liver: Glucose-6-phosphatase in
avon Gierke's Disease
b. Pompe's Disease
C. McArdle Disease
d. Cori's Disease
5. Insulin stimulates:
Hepatic glycogenesis
b. Hepatic glycogenolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
d. Lipolysis
 KGMU- Feb. 2021

Which of the
one
following enzyme acts as biomarker in the
diagnosis of prostate cancer?
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Alkaline phosphatase
c. Amylase
d. Acetylase
7. Refsum's Disease is due to defect in:
a. B-oxidation
. a-oxidation
C. d-oxidation
d. Peroxisomes
8. Antimycin A, an inhibitor of Electron Transport Chain inhibits the
flow of electrons from:
a. Complex I
b. Complex II
Complex IlI
d. Complex IV
9. Pumping of the hydrogen ions between two membranes of
mitochondria from the matrix is best explained by which of the
following
Oxidative phosphorylation
b. Loop mechanism
C. Uncouplers
d. lonophores
10. Activation of fatty acids requires all the following except:
a. ATP
b. Coenzyme A
C. Thiokinase
d. Carnitine

Section-B

Q1 Write in detail about important role of biochemistry in medicine. Add a note on (20)
role of calcium in
human body.
Q2. Write short notes on: (2x10)
(a) Structure and functions proteins.
(b) Km, Vmax and regulation of enzyme activities.
Q3. (10x1)
Multiple hoice Questions:
h e amino acid which
contains an indole group is:
a. Histidine
b. Arginine
C. Cystine

Tryptophan
Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP by the enzyme adenylate cyclase
which is activated by the hormone:

a. Insulin
Epinephrine
C. Testosterone
d. Progesterone

u a y yolinLCDair
 KGMU- Feb. 2021

3. A fatty acid which is not synthesized in human body and has to be

supplied in the diet is:
a. Palmitic acid
sbOleic acid
Linoleic acid
d. Stearic acid
4. All the following lipases are involved in the digestion of fat in the

G.I.Texcept:
a. Pancreatic lipase
b. Gastric lipase
CLipoprotein lipase
va. Intestinal lipase
5. Bile salts act as activator of which enzyme?
a. Pepsinogen
b. Trypsinogen
Lipase
Pancreatic amylase is:
mobilize intra cellular Calcium
6. Second messenger that
a. Phophatidic acid
b. Diacylglycerol
SInositol triphosphate
d. c-GMP
is:
7. The glycosidic linkage seen in maltose
a. Alpha 1-4 linkage
b. Beta 1-4 linkage
c.
Alpha 1-2 linkage1
d. Alpha 1-6 linkage lecithin is:
base) present in
8. The head group (nitrogenous
a Choline
b. Ethanolamine

C. Serine
d. Sphingosine of the following
anaemia:
causes which one
9. The iron deficiency
a. Megaloblastic

b. Normocytic
e Microcytic
d. Pernicious of
that disrupts the
alpha-helical structure
rotationand helix
amino-acid
10. Name the
interfering in the processof free
protein by alpha-helix
Such amino-acids are sometimes called
folding.
breaker:
Alanine
a.
Leucine
c. Tryptophan
d. Proline
 KGMU- Feb. 2021

M-006M
MBBS FIRST PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION, 2021

BIOCHEMISTRY

Paper I
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks- 100

Note:- Attempt all questions. All part of a question should be answered together. Figures in
parenthesis indicate marks allotted to a question.

Section-A
Q1. Describe the process of transcription in prokaryotes. Add a note on inhibitors of (20)
transcription with their clinical significance.
Q2. a) What do you understand by innateimmunity? Write about various components of (2x10)
innate immunity.
b) A 25-year-old college student developed low grade fever with loss of appetite,
nausea, vomiting and pain in right hypochondrium region. She also had
complaint of dark colour urine. History of having fast food items from outside
present. On general physical examination sclera was normal, no yellowish dis-
colouration of skin was observed. Liver was just palpable and tender.
Laboratory findings:
Test Result Reference Range_
Total Bilirubin | 2.0 | 0.2-1.0 mg/dl
Conjugated Bilirubin 0.3 0.0-0.3 mg/dl_
AST/SGOT 400 0-40 IU/L
ALT/SGPT 500 <45 1U/L
ALP 150 <240 IU/L
a. Based on given history, general physical examination and laboratory
findings what will beyourdiagnosis?
b. What additional investigations can be done in this case?
C. Enumerate the name of different fractions of bilirubin.
d. bilirubin estimation
Name the test done for serumskin
e.
Yellowishdiscolouration of and sclera is visible at what cut off level
of total bilirubin among adults

Q3. Multiple Choice Questions:

(10x1)
1. Erythromycin acts on ribosomes and inhibit:
(a) Formation of initiation complex
(b) Binding of aminoacyl tRNA
(c) Peptidyl transferase activity
(d) Translocation of peptide chain
2. Ataxia-telangiectasia is caused due to defect in:
(a) Double strand DNA break repair
(b) Base excision repair
(c) Nucleotide excision repair
(d) Mismatch repair
 3. The synthesis of mRNA in human is catalyzed by:
(a) RNA polymerase I
6) RNA polymerase I
(c) RNA polymerase l1
(d) RNA polymerase 1V
4. Which of the following is known to be involved in the initial presentation
ofántigen to T-lymphocytes?
(a) Dendritic cells
(b) Plasma cells
(c) Platelets
(d) Erythrocytes
5. Perforin is a protein secreted by:
(a) Helper T cell
(b) Cytotoxic T cell
(c) Natural killer cel
(d) Suppressor T cell
6. Memory cells are formed from:
(a) Erythropoietic stem cells
(b) Monocytes
(c) T- lymphocytes
d) B-lymphocytes
in tube
7. For measurement of HbAlesample blood specimen is collected a

containing anticoagulant:
(a) Sodium fluoride
(b) Sodium citrate
(c) Heparin
(d) EDTA
the
blood brain barrier_and enter
8. Which fraction of bilirubin can c r o s s necrosis
neurons of basal ganglia, hippocampus and
cerebellum causing
n e r v e cells leading to,
the development of bilirubinencephalopathy?
of
(a), Delta bilirubin
) Unconjugated bilirubin
(c) Bilirubin mono-glucuronide
(d) Bilirubin di-glucuronide bilirubin in
common cause of raised unconjugated
Which one is the most
of Newborn?
a case of Physiological Jaundice
UDP-glucuronosyl-transferase
enzyme
Reduced activity of
a)
(b) Cholestasis
(c) Blood group incompatibility
d) G6PD deficiency with:
homocysteine levels are associated
Elevated
10.
disease
a ) Coronary artery
(b) Bronchitis
(c) Common cold
(d) Diarrhoea

Section-B
statement. (20)
hormone-Justify the
and calcitriol is a disorders of Vitamin D
functions and deficiency
prohormone
Q1. Iamin D3 is a biochemical (2x10)
Describe the synthesis,

Write short notes on: basis of

Q2. biochemical
Write briefly about the
What chemical carcinogens?
a) are
well
the help of a
cancer chemotherapy.
action for groupIhormones with
D) Describethe mode of
labelled diagram.
 KGMU- Feb. 2021

Q3. Multiple Choice Questions:

1. A tumor suppressor gene is: (10x1)
a Inactivated by mutation
(b) Activated by mutation
(c) Functional during tumor formation
(d) Metastasis promoting gene
2. Retrovirus can induce
cancer by:
(a) Injecting oncogenes into the cells
(b) Converting proto-oncogenes into oncogenes
Causing mutations in G proteins
(d) Suppressing p53
3. Which of the following enzyme is deficient in Gaucher's disease?
( Glucosidase (glucocerebrosidase)
(b) Glucoceramide
(c) Sphingomyelinase
(d) Galactosidase
4. Thyroid hormones are transported in blood bound to:
a ) Thyroxine binding prealbumin
(b) Transcortin
(c) Sex hormone binding globulin
(d) Thyroglobulin
mucosal cell is:
5. The temporary storage form of iron in intestinal
(a) Hemosiderin
(b) Transferrin
Ferritin
(d) Haemoglobin
6. Neural tube defect is associated with the deficiency of:
(a) Pyridoxine
(b) Thiamine
Folate
(d) Cobalamine
The vitamin deficient in maize is:
(a) Thiamine
(b) Riboflavin
Niacin
(d) Pyridoxine
8. Thiamine level is best monitored by:
Transketolase level inblood
(b) Thiamine level in blood

(c) Glucose -6 -

phosphate dehydrogenase activity

(d) Reticulocytosis
hormones to receptor
activate adenyl cyclase
9. Binding of the following
except:
(a) Vasopressin
(6) Glucagon
) Thyroxine
(d) Epinephrine
through:
10. Carotenes are transported
(a) Proteins
(b) Lipids
(c) Minerals
Lipoproteins

******
 KGMU Feb. 2021

M-003M

MBBS FIRST PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION, 2021

PHYSIOLOGY

Paper I

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks- 100

in
Note:-_Attempt all questions. All part of a question should be answered together. Figures
parenthesis indicate marks allotted to a question.

Section-A
Q1. Explain the generation of resting membrane potential in a nerve fibre. (20)
Write briefly on: (2x10)
Q2.
(a) Excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle.
(b) Cell mediated immunity
Multiple Choice Questions: (10x1)
Q3.
1. Why do most control systems of the body operate by negative feedback
rather than positive feedback?
(a Positive feedback system can bring unstabilty
(b) Better gain
(c) Better regulation factor
(d) Less residual error
2. The selectivity of protein channel or pores in a cell membrane is due to
(a) Helical structure of proteins
(b) Lon properties
) Pore diameter and electrical charges
(d) Special arrangement in cell membrane in the form of vesicles
3. 3% of the macrophage cell membrane is engulfed
every minute. Which is main
cell membrane fibrillar protein involved in this
multistage process?
fe) Clathrin
(b) Dyenin
(c) Spectrin
(d) Titin
weakness in lower extremities,
4. A young woman presents with complaints of
which are worse in summer.
parasthesia, blurring of vision and dysarthria,
It is due to
She is diagnosed to have multiple sclerosis.
(a) Vitamin E deficiency
bCerebral ischemia
(c) Microangiopathy
(d) Autoimmune destruction of myelin

5. A nerve was stimulated using a bipolar

stimulating electrode. An_electrical
stimulation. There was no action
stimulus of strength ImV was applied for
strength of stimulus was progressively
potential generated. Thereafter, the was generated at 10 mV strength.
increased by 1mV and an
action potentialabove statement?
the
Which statement is correct regarding
stimulus is threshold stimulus
(a) 1 mV strength
to produce electrotonic potential
9 mV strength stimulus expected
is
(b) membrane potential at 9 mV strength stimulus
c) There was no change in resting at 10 mV strength stimuli
are generated
(d) Graded potentials
 KGMU r

2021
but
voiding

time
of m u s c l e

the smooth
at
d r a s t i c a l l y

property
of
falls This
b l a d d e r

minutes.

urinary few
Pressure
in the value
in a
n o r m a l

6. back to
rises
is known a s

Latch phenomenon
with
c o r r e c t e d

(b) Stress relaxation

relaxation
can
be
stress that
Reverse factor
IX
(c) deficiency
in
(d) Elasticity to a
condition
leads
vitamin
K?
What of
injection
. intravenous

(a)
an Classic haemophilia

(b) Hepatitis B
obstruction
llI is
Bile duct
antithrombin

(c) deficiency
in blood
coagulation

Genetic prevent
to
(d) of heparin
Meehanism activation

8. II factor
of tissue
Antithrombin

4 and
inhibition

(b) Binding calcium

available factor microbe
to
facilitate

Binding
(c) of
Inhibition
platelet-activating

to an
invading

(d) and
complement

of IgG
9. Binding
recognition is
(a) Chemokinesis

(b) Opsonization
(c) Phagolysosome fusion of
diarrhea.

2-week history
(d) Signal transduction with a positive for parasitic
emergency

presents
to
man specimen
44-year-old His stool
10. A urine output. i n c r e a s e d in
blood
minimal
He has would be
WBC
Which type of
eggs.
(a) Eosinophil

(b) Monocyte
(c) Neutrophil
(d) Lymphocyte

Section-B
(20)
of respiration. (2x10)
chemical regulation
the neural &
Explain
Q1
on:
Write short notes
Q2 filtration rate. (10x1)
(a) Glomerular stomach
acid in the
(6) Secretion of
Multiple Choice Questions: one is breathing pure
when
Q3. of 20000 ft
saturation at height
1. Arterial oxygen
oxygen will be
(a) 60 mmHg
(b) 80 mmHg
(c)90 mmHg
d) 100 mmHg with emphysema?
decreases
of the following
2.
Which
(a Alveolar PCO2

Diffusion area
c) Cardiac output
(d) Pulmonary arterial pressure
true statement
. Which of the following is a in volume
in pressure per unit change
(a) Compliance is change expiration and inspiration
(6) Compliance is same during in the basal regions X
C) The alveoli are more compliant
distress syndrome is more common in term babies
Kespiratory
 KGMU Feb. 2021

4. The tubular transport maximum for glucose in men is about

(a) 180 mg/min
(b) 220 mg/min
(c) 280 mg/min
e 375 mg/min
5. Thereabsorption of glucose and amino-acids is most marked in
a Early part of proximal convoluted tubule
(b) Late part of proximal convoluted tubule
(c) Early part of distal tubule
(d) Late part of distal tubule
6. Aperson is accidently lost in an island. He drinks1litre of sea water as he
couldn't find any other water sourcein the area. He started feeling thirstier,
with dry mouth and skin, had headache. This condition has appeared due to:

(a) Loss of obligatory urine volume

bLoss of facultative urine volume
(c) Overhydration body fluids
of
(d) Loss of dilute urine
7. The reason for polyuria in Diabetes Mellitus is:
(a) Pressure diuresis
(b) Osmotic diuresis
(c) Water diuresis
d) ressure natriuresis
that her infant
A new mother calls the pediatrician because she is concerned
these
defecates after every meal. Which of the following is the cause of
normal bowel movements in newborns
(a) The gastroileal reflex
T h e gastrocolic reflex
(c) Peristaltic rush
(d) The defecation reflex
in the
9. Mostgf the iron absorption occurs
aDuodenum
(b) Upper jejunum
(c) Lowerjejunum
(d) lleum
10. Pathophysiologie basis of whieh of the following conditions is associated with
damage to the myenteric plexus?
aAchalasia
(b) Acute pancreatitis
(c) Chronic pancreatitis
(d) Sprue
******
 KGMU Feb. 2021

M-004M

MBBS FIRST PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION, 2021

PHYSIOLOGY

Paper
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks- 100

in
Note:- Atempt all questions. All part of a question should be answered together. Figures
parenthesis indicate marks allotted to a question.

Section-A
Q1. Define shock. Discuss the cardiovascular compensatory changes that occur (20)
during shock
Q2. Write briefly: (2x10)
a) Name the posterior pituitary hormones. Explain their action.
b) Describe the hormonal control of ovulation and explain the tests to detect
ovulation
Q3. Multiple Choice Questions (10x1=10)
1. Isovolumetric relaxation phase ends with:
a) Peak of "C" venous wave
b) Opening of A-V valve
c)Beginning of T wave
) Closure of semilunar valve
Sympathetic stimulation causes all EXCEPT:
a) Increase in heart rate
b) Increase in BP
c)Increase intotal peripheral resistance
Increase in venous capacitance
During cardiac cycle, aortic valve opens at:
a) Beginning of systole
b) End of diastole
End of isovolumetric contraction
d) End of diastasis
4. Dicrotic notch in aortic pressure curve is:
Magnified by aortic regurgitation
b) Ofno diagnostic valve
c) Absent in arteriosclerosis
d) Coin-cident with second heart sound
5. Major part of total peripheral resistance is due to:

a) Medium and small arteries

b) Arterioles
Capillaries
d) Venules
 KGMU Feb. 2021

6. All are increased during exercise EXCEPT:

a) Cardiac output
b) Venous return
Coronary blood flow
d) Peripheral vascular resistance
7. Insulin secretion is decreased by:
a) Glucagon
b) Glucose
c) Vagal stimulation
d) Adrenaline
8. Calcitonin produces hypocalcemia by:
a)Increased renal Ca" excretion
b) Decreased bone resorption
c) Decreased renal Ca" absorption
d) Decreased intestinal Ca" absorption
9. Sperm becomes motile in:
a) Seminal vesicle
b) Rete testis
Epididymis
d) Ejaculatory duct
10. Increased secretion of following hormone occurs in postmenopausal

women:

Oestrogen
b) Progesterone
c) FSH
d) Cortisone

Section-B
cerebellum. Describe their functions with (20)
Q1. What the functional divisions of
are
of Cerebellar dysfunction.
relevant connections. Explain the signs
(210)
Q2. Write briefly: is exposed to
that occur when the body
a) What are the physiological changes
low temperature What is
indirect light reflex with their pathways.
b) Explain the direct and
Argyll Robertson pupil
(10x1)
Choice Questions
Q3. Multiple is:
neurotransmitter in CNS neuron
1. Inhibitory
a) Glutamate

b) Aspartate
GABA
d) Taurine
2. Nightmare is seen in:

3REM sleep
b) Stage I NREM sleep
c) Stage II NREM sleep
d) Stage IV NREM sleep
 KGMU Feb. 202i

3. Renshaw cell inhibition is a

typical example of.inhibition
a) Direct
b) Recurrent
c) Indirect
d) Presynaptic
4. Motor aphasia refers to defect in:
a) Peripheral speech apparatus
b) Auditory comprehension
c) Verbal comprehension
d) Verbal expression
5. Which of the following carries conscious proprioception:
Spinocerebellar tract
b) Pontocerebellar tract
c) Anterior spinothalamic tract
d) Dorsal column
6. The optical power of the eye is:
2 5 Dioptres
b)
50 Dioptres
c)
60 Dioptres
d)
75 Dioptres
Most of the refraction that occurs in the eye, occurs at the:
aAnterior surface of the lens
b) Posterior surface of the lens
c) Anterior surface of the cormea
d) Posterior surface of the comea
8. The 'attenuation reflex' is due to:
a) Contraction of tensor tympani only
b) Contraction of stapedius only
c) Contraction of tensor tympani and stapedius
d) Inward movement of the oval window
9. The taste buds responsible for bitter taste are situated at:

a) At the tip of the tongue

b) Just behind the tip
c) At the sides
d) At the posterior aspect
10. Raised ECF K" levels are seen in:
a) Ectolymph (Perilymph)
b) Endolymph
c)Aqueoushumor
d) Vitreous humor

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