Ôn Testing

Q.
1: How many test cases are required to cover 100%0- switch

coverage respectively from X2? Exhibit:
A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
Q.2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposesof

Configuration Management?:
i) Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testw are items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.
A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv,
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.
Q.3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B. Initiating corrective actions.
C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D. Measuring and analyzing results
Q.4: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test
Documentation(IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following
sections are part of the test
summary report?
a) Summary
b) Test incident report identifier
c) Test deliverables
d) Risks and contingencies
e) Variances
f) Approvals
g) Output specifications
A. a, e and f
B. a, c and d
C. a, b and f
D. a, d and e
Q. 5: Which is a potential product risk factor?

A. Failure of third party vendor
B. Training issues
C. Problems requirements definition
D. Poor software functionality
Q. 6: Who typically use static analysis tools?

A. Customers and users
B. Developers and designers
C. Business and systems analysts
D. System and acceptance testers
Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

A. Developers.
B. Analysts.
C. Testers.
D. Incident Managers
Q.8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find ona
softwareincident report?
A.The name and / or organisational position of theperson raising
the problem.
B. Version of the Software Under Test.
C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
D. Actual and expected results.
Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Q.10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5
tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers
i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.
A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
B. ii. and iv. are more for developers.
C. ii, iii and iv. are more for developers.
D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.
Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?

A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the systemof a
defectfound in regression testing.
B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a newperson
joiningtheregression test team.
C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect
foundinregression testing has been fixed correctly.
D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the
systemtodetermine how much regression testing to do.
Q. 12: In software testing what is the main purpose of exit

criteria?
A. To enhance the security of the system
B. To prevent the endless loops in code.
C. To swerve as an alternative or "Plan-B"
D. To define when to stop testing
Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the
followingseries of state transitions contains an INVALID transition
whichmayindicate a fault in the system design? Exhibit:
A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
Q. 14: Which of the following is a KEY test closure task?

A. Ensuring proper environment setup
B. Writing a test summary report
C. Assessing the need for additional tests
D. Finalizing and archiving testware.
Q. 15: What is beta testing?

A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers
location.
B. Testing performed by potential customers at their
ownlocations.
C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's
location.
D. Testing performed by product developers at their ownlocations.
Q. 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are
required for 100% decision coverage?
Độ bao phủ quyết định:
TC1: Width > length và height > width -> True dòng 1 và 3
TC2: Width <= lenght và height > length -> False dòng 1 và True
dòng 8
TC3: height<=width -> False dòng 3
TC3: height <= length -> False dòng 8
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement

and 100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code.
The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment
above.
How many more test cases are required?

A. One more test case will be required for 100 %
decisioncoverage.
B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement
coverage, one of which will be used to provide 100%
decisioncoverage.
C. None, existing test cases can be used.
D. One more test case will be required for 100″ statement
coverage.
Q. 18: Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove?
A. Usability defects found by customers
B. Defects in infrequently used functionality
C. Defects that were detected early
D. Minor defects that were found by users
Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test

suitesforefficient test execution?
A. Implementation and execution.
B. Planning and control.
C. Analysis and design.
D. Test closure.
Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?

A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects
andRegression testing is testing to establish whether any
defects havebeen introduced as a result of changes.
B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether
anydefectshave been introduced as a result of changes and
Regressiontestingis testing fixes to a set of defects.
C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are
bothtestingtoestablish whether any defects have been introduced
as a resultofchanges.
D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are
bothtestingfixes to a set of defects.
Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following
test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premiumis 90 and

excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premiumis 70 and excess is
500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premiumis 90 and excess is
2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premiumis 70 and excess is
1,000.
Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be

implemented?
A. During test planning.
B. During test analysis.
C. During test execution.
D. When evaluating exit criteria
Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression
testing ?
i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained
Options:
A. ii, iv.
B. ii, iii.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iii.
Q. 24: Which of the problems below BEST characterize a result of

software failure?
A. Damaged reputation
B. Lack of methodology
C. Inadequate training
D. Regulatory compliance
Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed

during the selection and implementation of a testing tool?
i) Investigate the organisation's test process.
ii) Conduct a proof of concept.
iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to
save time.
iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of
the selected tool.
Options:
A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. i, ii, iv.
Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life
cycle?
A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the
code.
C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed
later.
D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.
Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be

achieved by using test tools?
i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.
Options:
A. ii and iv
B. ii and iii
C. i and iv
D. i and iii
Q. 28: Which of the following can be considered as success factors

when deploying a new tool in an organization?
A. Providing coaching to users and defining usage
guidelines
B. Monitoring tool usage and reducing the need for risk analysis
C. Improving processes and focusing more on component testing
D. Assessing testing completion and minimizing code reviews
Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria?

A. To define when a test level is complete.
B. To determine when a test has completed.
C. To identify when a software system should be retired.
D. To determine whether a test has passed.
Q. 30: Which test design technique relies heavily on prior

thorough knowledge of the system?
A. Data driven testing technique
B. Experience-based technique
C. White-box technique
D. Structure-based technique
Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator
tool USUALLY associated?
A. Tool support for performance and monitoring.
B. Tool support for static testing.
C. Tool support for test execution and logging.
D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.
Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.
A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.
B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.
Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements.

1.Decision Table Testing
2.Decision Testing
3.State Transition Testing
4.Exploratory Testing
W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives,
possibly to complement structured testing.
X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different
system re depending on current conditions or previous history.
Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that
might not otherwise have been exercised during testing.
Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.
Options:
A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.
Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following

statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based
on the specification of a component?
A. Black Box Techniques.
B. White Box Techniques.
C. Glass Box Techniques.
D. Experience Based Techniques.
Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be

MOST useful?
A. Supporting reviews.
B. Validating models of the software.
C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D. Enforcement of coding standards.
Q. 36: Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by
the descriptions below?
S. Process-compliant approaches
T. Heuristic approaches
U. Consultative approaches
V. Regression-averse approaches
1. Includes reuse of existing test material
2. Listens to suggestions from technology experts
3. Adheres to industry-specific standards
4. Runs test execution and evaluation concurrently
A. S4, T3, U2, V1
B. S1, T2, U3, V4
C. S2, T3, U1, V4
D. S3, T4, U2, V1
Q. 37: What principle is BEST described when test designs are

written by a third party?
A. Exploratory testing
B. Independent testing
C. Integration testing
D. Interoperability testing
Q. 38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?
A. It does not require familiarity with the code.
B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.
Q. 39: The above diagram represents the following paths through

the code.
A. vwy
B. vwz
C. vxy
D. vxz
What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full
statement coverage?
Exhibit:
What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full
statement coverage?
A. A
B. ABD
C. ABCD
D. ACD
Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of

specification based (black-box) techniques?
A. Test cases can be easily automated.
B. Test cases are independent of each other.
C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of
the system .
D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.
Q. 41: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a

valid approach to component testing:
i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.
ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.
iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.
iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.
A. i and ii.
B. I, ii and iii
C. iii.
D. ii and iv
Q. 42: Which of the following is a KEY test control task?

A. Initiating corrective actions
B. Determining the scope
C. Implementing the test policy
D. Scheduling test implementation
Q. 43: What is the name of a skeletal implementation of a

software component that is used for testing?
A. Use case
B. Domain
C. Driver
D. Stub
Q. 44: Which is the best definition of complete testing:

A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of
branches in the program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
Q. 45: Complete statement and branch coverage means:

A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch
in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF
statements in the program
Q. 46: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule

with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or
more of the following):
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find
bugs than preparing to do the rest of the project's work more
efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective,
late in the project, because they expect a low rate of bug finding,
so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not
find bugs, or to not report bugs.
D. All of the above
Q. 47: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in

dynamic testing are:
A. Deviations from standards,
B. Requirement defects,
C. Design defects,
D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface
specifications.
E. All of the above.
Q. 48: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the

same objective
A. Identifying defects.
B. Fixing defects.
C. A. and B
D. None of the above
Q. 49: What techniques would be MOST appropriate if the

specifications are outdated?
A. Structure-based and experienced-based techniques
B. Black-box and specification-based techniques
C. Specification-based and structure-based techniques
D. Structure-based technique and exhaustive testing
Q. 50: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:

A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to
achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of
their work much less well.
B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is
dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the
wrong conclusions.
D. All of the above.
Q. 51: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete

testing are (Choose one or more answers):
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it
easier for some managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always
be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on
other high importance tasks.
D. All of the above.
Q. 52: Poor software characteristics are

A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
Q. 53: System testing should investigate

A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional
requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Q. 54: Contract and regulation testing is a part of

A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing
Q. 55: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review

A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
Q. 56: Which is not the testing objectives

A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing
information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
Q. 57: Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester?

A. Reviewing tests developed by others
B. Writing a test strategy for the project
C. Deciding what should be automated
D. Writing test summary reports
Q. 58: Which is not the project risks

A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered
Q. 59: Which of the following is a potential risk in using test

support tools?
A. Under estimating the effort needed to maintain the test
assets
B. Losing access to important testing information when needed
C. Relying too much on qualitative and quantitative assessments
D. Lowering the morale of the test team because of repetition
Q. 60: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 %

statement coverage ?
Tính (Statement coverage)độ phủ câu lệnh:
TC1: Temperature = 150, speed = 110, load = 45 các dòng code
chạy : 1,2,3,4,5,8
TC2: Temperature = 50, speed = 110, load = 45 các dòng code
chạy : 1,6,7,8
Cần 2 TC
Tính (Decision coverage)độ phủ quyết định:
TC1: Temperature = 150, speed = 110, load = 45 -> True dòng 1
và 3
TC2: Temperature = 50, speed = 110, load = 45 False dòng 1 và
True dòng 3
TC3: Temperature = 150, speed = 90, load = 45 -> False dòng 3
Cần 3 TC
A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 61: X has given a data on a person age, which should be

between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one
A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. 1, 0, 1, 99
Q.62: Which is not a testing principle

A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing
Q. 63: What consists of a set of input values, execution pre

conditions and expected results?
A. Test script
B. Test procedure specification
C. Test case
D. Test data
Q. 64: The ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at

client own locations
A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing
Q. 65: Which of the following is the standard for the Software
product quality
A. ISO 9126
B. ISO 829
C. ISO 1012
D. ISO 1028
Q. 66: Which is not a black box testing technique

A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing
Q. 67: Find the mismatch

A. Test data preparation tools Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools Enables individual tests to be
traceable
D. Configuration management tools Check for consistence
Q. 68: Which of the following MAIN activity is part of the
fundamental test process?
A. Initiating and planning
B. Documenting root-causes
C. Capturing lessons learned
D. Planning and control
Q. 69: Purpose of test design technique is
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
Q. 70: One person has been dominating the current software

process improvement meeting. Which of the following techniques
should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the
discussion?
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be
allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person s
opinion, and ask for someone else s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not
have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person s opinion in
order to encourage others to express their ideas.
Q. 71: Stochastic testing using statistical information or

operational profiles uses the following method
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
Q. 72: A software model that can t be used in functional testing

A. Process flow model
B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model
D. Plain language specification model
Q. 73: Arc testing is known as

A. Branch testing
B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing
D. Ad-hoc testing
Q. 74: The purpose of exit criteria is

A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above
Q. 75: Which factors contribute to humans making mistakes that

can lead to faulty software?
I. Setting aggressive schedule
II. Integrating complex systems
III. Allocating adequate resources
IV. Failing to control changes
A. I and II are true; III and IV are false
B. II and IV are true; I and III are false
C. I, II and IV are true; III is false
D. I, II and III are true; IV is false
Q. 76: Which sections are included as part of the test summary

report?
W. Variances
X. Comprehensive assessment
Y. Evaluation
Z. Summary of activities
A. W, X and Y
B. W, X, Y and Z
C. W and X
D. W, X and Z
Q. 77: What is the main purpose of Informal review

A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
Q. 78: Which is not a Component testing

A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables
Q. 79: Which test can be performed at all test levels?

A. System testing
B. Operational testing
C. Structural testing
D. Integration testing
Q. 80: Which is not the fundamental test process

A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None
Q. 81: The ________ and ________ are used within individual

workbenches to produce the right output products.
A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update
Q. 82: Which aspects of testing will establishing traceability help?

A. Configuration management and test data generation
B. Test case specification and change control
C. Test condition and test procedure specification
D. Impact analysis and requirements coverage
Q. 83: The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as

edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent paths
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
Q. 84: FPA is used to

A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an
Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow
Q. 85: A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that

standards are met
A. SDLC
B. Project Plan
C. Policy
D. Procedure
Q. 86: Which is not a test Oracle

A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual s knowledge
D. User manual
Q. 87: PDCA is known as

A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
Q. 88: Which is the non-functional testing

A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing
D. Sanity testing
Q. 89: Which of the following is a MAJOR test planning task?

A. Determining the exit criteria
B. Measuring and analyzing results
C. Implementing corrective actions
D. Monitoring and documenting progres
Q. 90: Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to

varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance
behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to
function properly under these different workloads.
A. Load Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. Usability Testing
Q. 91: Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to
leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Q. 92: What can static analysis NOT find?

A. The use of a variable before it has been defined
B. Unreachable ("dead") code
C. Memory leaks
D. Array bound violations
Q. 93: White Box Techniques are also called as:

A. Structural Testing
B. Design Based Testin
C. Error Guessing Technique
D. Experience Based Technique
Q. 94: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 95: Component Testing is also called as :-

i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
D. all of above is true
Q. 96: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test

Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which sections of the test
incident report should the following items be recorded?
Sections
a) Test incident report identifier
b) Summary
c) Incident description
d) Impact
Items
1. Impact on test plans
2. Unique identifier
3. Anomalies
4. Procedure step
5. Environment
6. References to other relevant documents
A. a: 2; b: 4; c: 1, 3 and 5; d: 6
B. a: 2; b: 3; c: 4, 5 and 6; d: 1
C. a: 2; b: 6; c: 3, 4 and 5; d: 1
D. a: 2; b: 1; c: 3, 4 and 5; d: 6
Q. 97: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or

Inspection:-
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects
A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false
Q. 98: The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below

arrange them in the correct order.
i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up
A. i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
B. vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
C. i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
D. i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi
Q. 99: Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the

interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components
is :
A. System Level Testing
B. Integration Level Testing
C. Unit Level Testing
D. Component Testing
Q. 100: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance

Testing:-
A. Breadth Test and Depth Test
B. Re-testing
C. Confirmation Testing
D. Sanity Testing
Q. 101: The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls

below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more
than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the
Equivalance values which belong to the same class.
A. 12,16,22
B. 24,27,17
C. 22,23,24
D. 14,15,19
Q. 102: What is an equivalence partition (also known as an
equivalence class)?
A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
B. An input or output range of values such that only one
value in the range becomes a test case
C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the
range becomes a test case
D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value
in the range becomes a test case.
Q. 103: Which of the following is not a part of the Test

Implementation and Execution Phase
A. Creating test suites from the test cases
B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution
tools
C. Comparing actual results
D. Designing the Tests
Q. 104: Link Testing is also called as:

A. Component Integration testing
B. Component System Testing
C. Component Sub System Testing
D. Maintenance testing
Q. 105: Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-

i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager
Ans:
A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
Q. 106: Which of the following statements regarding static testing

is false:
A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the
code
B. Static testing includes desk checking
C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and
inspections
D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic
complexity
Q. 107: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any

required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase
A. Test Implementation and execution
B. Test Analysis and Design
C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
D. Test Closure Activities
Q. 108: A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the

functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from
malicious outsiders.
A. Security Testing
B. Recovery Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Functionality Testing
Q. 109: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and

open points that were identified during a formal review.
A. Moderator.
B. Scribe
C. Author
D. Manager
Q. 110: The Test Cases Derived from use cases

A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process
flows during real world use of the system
B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows
during the testing use of the system
C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows
during real world use of the system
D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level
numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class

A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book
Q. 112: Which of the following are potential benefits of using test

support tools?
A. Ensuring greater consistency and minimizing software project
risks
B. Reducing repetitive work and gaining easy access to
test information
C. Performing objective assessment and reducing the need for
training
D. Allowing for greater reliance on the tool to automate the test
process
Q. 113: Which statements correctly describe certain phases of a

formal review?
A. Looking for defects occurs during kick-off phase
Fixing defects found happens during rework phase
B. Personnel selection occurs during planning phase
Gathering metrics happens during the review meeting phase
C. Distributing documents occurs during the planning phase
Personal review happens during individual preparation phase
D. Personnel selection occurs during planning phase
Fixing defects found happens during rework phase
Q. 114: A Project risk includes which of the following :

A. Organizational Factors
B. Poor Software characteristics
C. Error Prone software delivered.
D. Software that does not perform its intended functions
Q. 115: Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk

Through
A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
B. Pre Meeting Preparations
C. Formal Follow Up Process
D. Includes Metrics
Q. 116: Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box

technique?
A. Statement Testing and coverage
B. Decision Testing and coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Boundary value analysis
Q. 117: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which

phase:
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 118: In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used

to:
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early
as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
Ans:
A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false
Q. 119: Incidents would not be raised against:

A. Requirements
B. Documentation
C. Test cases
D. Improvements suggested by users
Q. 120: The Planning phase of a formal review includes the

following:
A. Explaining the objectives
B. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations
Q. 121: Test Implementation and execution has which of the

following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data,
writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test
harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test
execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
Ans:
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Q. 122: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which

accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the
invalid Equivalance class
A. 17
B. 19
C. 24
D. 21
Q. 123: Exhaustive Testing is

A. Is impractical but possible
B. Is practically possible
C. Is impractical and impossible
D. Is always possible
Q. 124: Which tool needs to interface with other office automation
software in order to generate reports in the format required by the
organization?
A. Progress tracking tools
B. Test management tools
C. Metrics management tools
D. Test execution tools
Q. 125: Which one is not comes under international standard

A. IEC
B. IEEE
C. ISO
D. All of the above
Q. 126: In which phase static tests are used

A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Coding
D. All of the above
Q. 127: What's the disadvantage of Black Box Testing

A. Chances of having repetition of tests that are already done by
programmer.
B. The test inputs needs to be from large sample space.
C. It is difficult to identify all possible inputs in limited testing
time. So writing test cases is slow and difficult
D. All above
Q. 128: What is the process of analyzing and removing causes of

failures in software?
A. Validation
B. Testing
C. Debugging
D. Verification
Q. 129: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase

A. Requirements Phase.
B. Analysis and Design Phase
C. Development Phase
D. Testing Phase
Q. 130: Which of the following is a MAJOR task when evaluating

the exit criteria?
A. Creating test suites and cases for efficient execution
B. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
C. Handing the testware to the maintenance organization
D. Identifying any required infrastructure and tools
Q. 131: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software

are spent on maintenance.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
Q. 132: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software

should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been
successfully removed. This is called
A. Regression testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Confirmation testing
Q. 133: Which of the following is a valid objective of an incident

report?
A. Prove that the tester is contributing to the quality of the
system.
B. Provides test management ideas for test process
improvement.
C. Gives a statistical way to determine which modules to redesign.
D. Provides developers a way to critique their individual work
processes.
Q. 134: When to stop Testing?

A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires
B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.
C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.
D. None above
Q. 135: Which of the following are success factors for reviews?
I. Clear objectives for each review.
II. Checklists and/or roles are used to increase effectiveness of
defect identification.
III. There is an emphasis on process improvement.
IV. People issues and psychological aspects are not reviewed.
Ans:
A. I and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. IV
Q. 136: Structure is unknown for which type of development

project
A. Traditional system development
B. Iterative development
C. System maintenance
D. Purchased/contracted software
Q. 137: ________indicates how important it is to fix the bug and

when it should be fixed
A. Severity
B. Priority
C. All of the above
Q. 138: The person who leads the review of the document(s),
planning the review,running the meeting and follow-up after the
meeting
A. Reviewer
B. Author
C. Moderator
D. Auditor
Q. 139: Performs sufficient testing to evaluate every possible path

and condition in the application system. The only test method
that guarantees the proper functioning of the application system
is called as _____________
A. Regression Testing
B. Exhaustive Testing
C. Basic Path Testing
D. Branch Testing
Q. 140: Which of the following statements contains a valuable

objective for a test team?
A. Prove that the remaining defects will not cause any additional
failures.
B. Run all of the tests that are defined for the test object as
quickly as possible.
C. Prove that all faults have been identified through thorough
testing.
D. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be
identified and corrected.
Q. 141: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one
or more qualified independent reviewer to detect defects.
A. Inspection.
B. Walkthrough.
C. Review
D. Non Conformance
Q. 142: Which of the following are MAJOR test implementation and

execution tasks?
I. Repeating test activities
II. Creating test suites
III. Reporting discrepancies
IV. Logging the outcome
V. Analyzing lessons learned
Ans:
A. II, III and IV
B. I, III, IV and V
C. I, II, III and IV
D. III, IV and V
Q. 143: Which tasks are performed by a test leader versus a

tester?
S. Writing a project test strategy
T. Selecting tools to support testing
U. Preparing and acquiring data
V. Scheduling tests
Ans:
A. Test leader: S and V; Tester: T and U
B. Test leader: S, T and V; Tester: U
C. Test leader: S, U and V; Tester: T
D. Test leader: S; Tester: T, U and V
Q. 144: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing

A. Performance
B. Record/Playback
C. A. & B.
D. None
Q. 145: System Integration testing should be done after

A. Integration testing
B. System testing
C. Unit testing
D. Component integration testing
Q. 146: During this event the entire system is tested to verify that
all functional information structural and quality requirements have
been met. A predetermined combination of tests is designed that
when executed successfully satisfy management that the system
meets specifications
A. Validation Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. User Acceptance Testing
D. System Testing
Q. 147: What is the normal order of activities in which software

testing is organized?
A. Unit, integration, system, validation
B. System, integration, unit, validation
C. Unit, integration, validation, system
Q. 148: During testing, a defect was found in which the system

crashed when the network got disconnected while receiving data
from the server. The defect was fixed by correcting functionality
which checks the network availability during data transfer.
Existing test cases did cover 100% of the module statements. To
verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some tests
were designed and added to the test suite. What types of testing
are mentioned above?
I. Functional testing
II. Structural testing
III. Confirmation testing
IV. Performance testing
Ans:
A. I, III and IV
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. I, II and III
Q. 149: What is a scripting technique that uses data files to
contain not only test data and expected results, but also keywords
related to the application being tested?
A. Automation technique
B. Scripting language
C. Process-driven testing
D. Keyword-driven testing
Q. 150: The principal attributes of tools and automation are

A. Speed & efficiency
B. Accuracy & precision
C. All of the above
Q. 151: In ______ testing doesn't know anything about the sofware

being tested; it just clicks or types randomly.
A. Random testing
B. Gorilla testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. Dumb monkey testing
Q. 152: A series of probing questions about the completeness and

attributes of an application system is called
A. Checklist
B. Checkpoint review
C. Decision table
D. Decision tree
Q. 153: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to

demonstrate that each program function is operational is called
A. Black-box testing
B. Glass-box testing
C. Grey-box testing
D. White-box testing
Q. 154: A white box testing technique that measures the number

of or percentage of decision directions executed by the test case
designed is called
A. Condition coverage
B. Decision/Condition coverage
C. Decision Coverage
D. Branch coverage
Q. 155: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with

one or more test design specifications.
A. Test Summary report
B. Test Log
C. Test Incident Report
D. Test Script
Q. 156: Which test investigates both functional and non-functional

system requirements?
A. Alpha testing
B. System testing
C. Acceptance testing
D. Confirmation testing
Q. 157: Which test ensures that modifications did not introduce

new problems?
A. Stress testing
B. Black-box testing
C. Structural testing
D. Regression testing
Q. 158: Which of the following are potential benefits of adding

tools to the test process?
I. Reduction of repetitive testing procedures.
II. Ability to hire testers with fewer technical skills.
III. Ability to get an objective assessment of progress.
IV. Greater consistency in testing procedures.
Ans:
A. II, III and IV
B. I, III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I, II and IV
Q. 159: Which testing is used to verify that the system can

perform properly when internal program or system limitations
have been exceeded
A. Stress Testing
B. Load Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Volume testing
Q. 160: In any software development life cycle (SDLC) model,

which of the following are characteristics of good testing?
I. Providing complete test coverage of all branches of the system
code.
II. Having a corresponding testing activity for each development
activity.
III. Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as
drafts are available.
IV. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
Ans:
A. II, III and IV
B. I and III
C. I, III and IV
D. I and II
Q. 161: What is the ratio of the number of failures relative to a

category and a unit of measure?
A. Failure rate
B. Defect density
C. Failure mode
D. Fault tolerance
Q. 162: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes
A. Programming standard violations
B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
C. Security vulnerabilities
D. All Above
Q. 163: EULA stands for

A. End Usability License Agreement
B. End User License Agreement
C. End User License Arrangement
D. End User License Attachment
Q. 164: What test can be conducted for off - the - shelf software to
get market feedback?
A. Beta testing
B. Usability testing
C. Alpha testing
D. COTS testing
Q. 165: CAST stands for

A. Computer Aided Software Testing
B. Computer Aided Software Tools
C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques
D. None
Q. 166: How can software defects in future projects be prevented
from reoccurring?
A. Creating documentation procedures and allocating resource
contingencies
B. Asking programmers to perform a thorough and independent
testing
C. Combining levels of testing and mandating inspections of all
documents
D. Documenting lessons learned and determining the root
cause of problems
Q. 167: Which test may not mimic real world situations

A. Functional testing
B. Structural Testing
C. All of the above
Q. 168: _______ includes both Black box and White Box Testing
features
A. Gray Box Testing
B. Hybrid Testing
C. A. & B.
D. None
Q. 169: Which of the following are the main stages of a formal

review?
A. Initiation, Preparation, Informal Review Meeting, Status,
Rework, and Follow up.
B. Planning, Preparation, Technical Review, Rework, and Closure.
C. Preparation, Inspection, Rework, Closure, and Follow up.
D. Planning, Kick off, Individual Preparation, Review
Meeting, Rework, and Follow up.
Q. 170: Tool which stores requirement statements, check for

consistency and allow requirements to be prioritized and enable
individual tests to be traceable to requirements, functions and
features.
A. Incident management tools
B. Requirements management tools
C. Configuration management tools
D. None
Q. 171: Which of the following are success factors when rolling

out a new tool?
I. Roll the tool out to the entire organization to ensure reasonably
even coverage.
II. Avoid changing existing processes to reduce impact of the tool.
III. Provide training and mentoring to new users.
IV. Allow users to determine where the tool fits into the process
best.
Ans:
A. I and II
B. I, III and IV
C. III
D. IV
Q. 172: As a test leader you are collecting measures about

defects. You recognize that after the first test cycle covering all
requirements - subsystem C has a defect density that is 150%
higher than the average. Subsystem A on the other hand has a
defect density that is 60% lower than the average. What
conclusions for the next test cycle could you draw from this fact?
A. It is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden
defects. Therefore we need to test subsystem C in more
detail.
B. Because we have already found many defects in subsystem C,
we should concentrate testing resources on Subsystem A.
C. Observed defect density does not allow any conclusions about
the amount of additional testing.
D. We should try to equalize the amount of testing over all
modules to ensure that we test all subsystems evenly.
Q. 173: Which of these are objectives for software testing?

A. Determine the productivity of programmers
B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
C. Eliminate every error prior to release
D. Uncover software errors
Q. 174: Failure is _________

A. Incorrect program behavior due to a fault in the
program
B. Bug found before product Release
C. Bug found after product Release
D. Bug found during Design phase
Q. 175: During the software development process, at what point

can the test process start?
A. When the code is complete.
B. When the design is complete.
C. When the software requirements have been approved.
D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
Q. 176: "How much testing is enough?"

A. This question is impossible to answer
B. This question is easy to answer
C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry,
contract and special requirements
D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
Q. 177: Which approaches can help increase the quality of

software?
I. Incorporating rigorous testing
II. Preventing change requests
III. Establishing defects metrics
IV. Allocating schedule contingencies
Ans:
A. I and II are true; III and IV are false
B. II and IV are true; I and II are false
C. I and IV are true; II and III are false
D. I and III are true; II and IV are false
Q. 178: Features to be tested, approach, item pass / fail criteria

and test deliverables should be specified in which document?
A. Test case specification
B. Test procedure specification
C. Test plan
D. Test design specification
Q. 179: What is the difference between component testing and

integration testing?
A. Component testing tests interfaces; integration testing
searches for defects
B. Component testing searches for defects; integration
testing tests Interfaces
C. Developers perform component testing; testers perform
integration testing
D. Testers perform component testing; users perform integration
testing
Q. 180: Fault Masking is

A. Error condition hiding another error condition
B. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
C. Masking a fault by developer
D. Masking a fault by a tester
Q. 181: Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed
in ISO 9126 Standard?
A. Functionality
B. Usability
C. Supportability
D. Maintainability
Q. 182: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing

their own work is :
A. Lack of technical documentation
B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
C. Lack of training
D. Lack of Objectivity
Q. 183: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.

A. Missing Statements
B. Unused Branches
C. Dead Code
D. Unused Statement
Q. 184: Given the Following program
McCabes Cyclomatic Complexity is :

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q. 185: To test a function, the programmer has to write a

_________, which calls the function to be tested and passes it test
data.
A. Stub
B. Driver
C. Proxy
Q. 186: Pick the best definition of quality

A. Quality is job one
B. Zero defects
C. Conformance to requirements
D. Work as designed
Q. 187: Boundary value testing

A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
B. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the
edges of input and output equivalence classes
C. Tests combinations of input circumstances
D. Is used in white box testing strategy
Q. 188: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and
2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
A. 0,1900,2004,2005
B. 1900, 2004
C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
Q. 189: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the
possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following
program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are
independent of each other:
A. 2 Test Cases
B. 3 Test Cases
C. 4 Test Cases
D. Not achievable
Q. 190: A common test technique during component test is

A. Statement and branch testing
C. Security testing
D. Performance testing
Q. 191: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who

A. Takes minutes of the meeting
B. Mediates between people
C. Takes telephone calls
D. Writes the documents to be reviewed
Q. 192: Acceptance test cases are based on what?

A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Code
D. Decision table
Q. 193: Which documents specify features to - be tested,

approach, and pass / fail criteria?
A. Test plan and test design specification
B. Test plan and test case specification
C. Test procedure specification and test design specification
D. Test case specification and test procedure specification
Q. 194: Independent Verification & Validation is

Ans:
A. Done by the Developer
B. Done by the Test Engineers
C. Done By Management
D. Done by an Entity Outside the Projects sphere of
influence
Q. 195: Defect Management process does not include

A. Defect prevention
B. Deliverable base-lining
C. Management reporting
Q. 196 What is a group of test activities that are organized and

managed together?
A. Test procedure specification
B. Test level
C. Test case specification
D. Test plan
Q. 197: What is the key difference between (a) contract and

regulation acceptance testing, and (b) alpha and beta testing?
A. (a) are performed outside the company and (b) are conducted
by the test team
B. (a) are conducted by regulators and (b) are performed by
system administrato rs
C. (a) are mandatory test for government applications and (b) are
usually optional
D. (a) are for custom-developed software and (b) are for
off the - shelf software
Q. 198: Regression testing should be performed:
v) Every week
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) Wwhen the project manager says
Ans:
A. v & w are true, x & z are false
B. w, x & y are true, v & z are false
C. w & y are true, v, x & z are false
D. w is true, v, x y and z are false
E. All of the above are true
Q. 199: During which test activity could faults be found most cost
effectively?
A. Execution
B. Design
C. Planning
D. Check Exit criteria completion
Q. 200: What is the difference between testing software

developed by contractor outside your country, versus testing
software developed by a contractor within your country?
A. Does not meet people needs
B. Cultural difference
C. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
D. Relinquishments of control
Q. 201: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
A. Project plan
B. Business plan
C. Support plan
Q. 202: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or

scheduling of tests is
called:
A. A dynamic analysis tool
B. A test execution tool
C. A debugging tool
D. A test management tool
E. A configuration management tool
Q. 203: Which of the following is not a static testing technique

A. Error guessing
B. Walkthrough
C. Data flow analysis
D. Inspections
Q. 204: Which document specifies the sequence of test

executions?
A. Test procedure specification
B. Test design specification
C. Test case specification
D. Test plan
Q. 205: Inspections can find all the following except

A. Variables not defined in the code
B. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
C. Requirements that have been omitted from the design
documents
D. How much of the code has been covered
Q. 206: Which of the following is not a characteristic for

Testability?
A. Operability
B. Observability
C. Simplicity
D. Robustness
Q. 207: Software testing accounts to what percent of software

development costs?
A. 10-20
B. 40-50
C. 70-80
D. 5-10
Q. 208: Which tool can be used to support and control part of the
test management process?
A. Coverage management tool
B. Test management tool
C. Data preparation tool
D. Performance testing tool
Q. 209: If an expected result is not specified then:

A. We cannot run the test
B. It may be difficult to repeat the test
C. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or
failed
D. We cannot automate the user inputs
Q. 210: When should we stop our testing?

A. This question is difficult to answer
B. The answer depends on the contract with the client,
special requirements if any & risks your organization is
willing to take
C. The answer depends on the experience & maturity of your
developers
D. The answer should be standardized for the software
development industry
Q. 211: The purpose of requirement phase is

A. To freeze requirements
B. To understand user needs
C. To define the scope of testing
D. All of the above
Q. 212: Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop

Testing methodology?
A. Simple Loops
B. Nested Loops
C. Concatenated Loops
D. All of the above
Q. 213: Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which
testing method.
A. White box
B. Black box
C. Green box
D. Yellow box
Q. 214: A reliable system will be one that:

A. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
B. Is unlikely to cause a failure
C. Is likely to be fault-free
D. Is likely to be liked by the users
Q. 215: Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good

tester?
A. Being diplomatic
B. Able to write software
C. Having good attention to detail
D. Able to be relied on
Q. 216: A regression test:

A. Will always be automated
B. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have
not been affected
C. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been
affected
D. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
Q. 217: Function/Test matrix is a type of

A. Interim Test report
B. Final test report
C. Project status report
D. Management report
Q. 218: The process starting with the terminal modules is called:

A. Top-down integration
B. Bottom-up integration
C. None of the above
D. Module integration
Q. 219: Verification is:

A. Checking that we are building the right system
B. Checking that we are building the system right
C. Performed by an independent test team
D. Making sure that it is what the user really wants
Q. 220: The difference between re-testing and regression testing

is
A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing
looks for unexpected side effects
B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing
is repeating those tests
C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is
done earlier
D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses
the same environment
E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by
independent testers
Q. 221: Testing should be stopped when:

A. All the planned tests have been run
B. Time has run out
C. All faults have been fixed correctly
D. Both A. and C.
E. I depends on the risks for the system being tested
Q. 222: Which test technique is based on requirements

specifications?
A. White-box technique
B. Component testing
C. Black-box technique
D. Data driven testing
Q. 223: Which of the following is NOT part of configuration

management:
A. Status accounting of configuration items
B. Auditing conformance to ISO9001
C. Identification of test versions
D. Record of changes to documentation over time
E. controlled library access
Q. 224: A test plan defines

A. What is selected for testing
B. Objectives and results
C. Expected results
D. Targets and misses
Q. 225: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or

scheduling of tests is called:
A. A dynamic analysis tool
B. A test execution tool
C. A debugging tool
E. A configuration management tool
Q. 226: The cost of fixing a fault:
A. Is not important
B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional
design
E. Can never be determined
Q. 227: Order numbers on a stock control system can range

between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the following inputs
might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence
classes and valid boundaries:
A. 1000, 5000, 99999
B. 9999, 50000, 100000
C. 10000, 50000, 99999
D. 10000, 99999
E. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
Q. 228: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the

specific or expected behavior, this is called:
A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect
E. A mistake
Q. 229: Which of the following can be tested as part of operational
testing?
A. Component interaction
B. Probe effect
C. State transition
D. Disaster recovery
Q. 230: Given the following:
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage

B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
Q. 231: Test managers should not:

A. Report on deviations from the project plan
B. Sign the system off for release
C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
Q. 232: Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
A. Business process-based testing
B. Performance, load and stress testing
C. Requirements-based testing
D. Usability testing
E. Top-down integration testing
Q. 233: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used

first by:
A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the
tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in
E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
Q. 234: Which of the following is not part of performance testing:

A. Measuring response time
B. Measuring transaction rates
C. Recovery testing
D. Simulating many users
E. Generating many transactions
Q. 235: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test

plan:
A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
D. To know when test planning is complete
E. To plan when to stop testing
Q. 236: Given the following code, which is true:

B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
Q. 237: Unreachable code would best be found using:

A. Code reviews
B. Code inspections
C. A coverage tool
E. A static analysis tool
Q. 238: What information need not be included in a test incident

report:
A. How to fix the fault
B. How to reproduce the fault
C. Test environment details
D. Severity, priority
E. The actual and expected outcomes
Q. 239: Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan

document of the Test Documentation Standard:
A. Test items (i.e. software versions)
B. What is not to be tested
C. Test environments
D. Quality plans
E. Schedules and deadlines
Q. 240: IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of

the following except:
A. Test items
B. Test deliverables
C. Test tasks
D. Test environment
E. Test specification
Q. 241: The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
A. ISO/IEC 12207
B. BS7925-1
C. BS7925-2
D. ANSI/IEEE 829
E. ANSI/IEEE 729
Q. 242: What are the main objectives of software project risk

management?
A. Increase focus on preventive processes and improve tester job
satisfaction
B. Reduce the probability of occurrence and decrease the
potential impact
C. Control contractor problems and minimize the impact of
corporate politics
D. Increase the probability of project success regardless of the
cost involved
Q. 243: Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-

speed hair dryer, which is operated by pressing its one button.
The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press
to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off.
C--->Off--->A
/|\ |
| \|/
Speed 2 Speed 1
<-----B-----
Which of the following series of state transitions below will
provide 0-switch coverage?
A. A,C,B
B. B,C,A
C. A,B,C
D. C,B,A

decision coverage?
TC1: p=q và a<S True dòng 1 và 3

TC2: p=q và a>=S False dòng 3
TC3: p>q -> False dòng 1 và True dòng 6
TC4: p<q -> False dòng 6
A. 3
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
Q. 245: Which of the following statements about the component
testing standard is false:
A. Black box design techniques all have an associated
measurement technique
B. White box design techniques all have an associated
C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
D. Black box measurement techniques all have an associated test
design technique
E. White box measurement techniques all have an associated test
design technique
Q. 246: Could reviews or inspections be considered part of
testing:
A. No, because they apply to development documentation
B. No, because they are normally applied before testing
C. No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
D. Yes, because both help detect faults and improve
quality
E. Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
Q. 247:The main focus of acceptance testing is:

A. Finding faults in the system
B. Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
C. Testing the system with other systems
D. Testing for a business perspective
E. Testing by an independent test team
Q. 248: Which of the following can help testers understand the
root causes of defects from previous projects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Cause-and-effect diagram
C. Lessons learned
D. Fishbone diagram
Q. 249: Which technique is appropriate to test changes on old and

undocumented functionalities of a system?
A. Specification-based technique
B. Black-box technique
C. White-box technique
D. Data driven testing technique
Q. 250: Non-functional system testing includes:

A. Testing to see where the system does not function properly
B. Testing quality attributes of the system including
performance and usability
C. Testing a system feature using only the software required for
that action
D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for
that function
E. Testing for functions that should not exist
Q. 251: Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:

A. Equivalence partitioning
B. State transition testing
C. LCSAJ
D. Syntax testing
E. Boundary value analysis
Q. 252: Expected results are:

A. Only important in system testing
B. Only used in component testing
C. Never specified in advance
D. Most useful when specified in advance
E. Derived from the code
Q. 253: Beta testing is:

A. Performed by customers at their own site
B. Performed by customers at their software developers site
C. Performed by an independent test team
D. Useful to test bespoke software
E. Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q. 254: Consider the following:

Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then
switch the the television on and watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete
the crossword
Ans:
A. SC = 1 and DC = 1
B. SC = 1 and DC = 2
C. SC = 1 and DC = 3
D. SC = 2 and DC = 2
E. SC = 2 and DC = 3
Q. 255: A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to
perform all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Generating expected outputs
B. Replaying inputs according to a programmed script
C. Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
D. Recording test inputs
E. Reading test values from a data file
Q. 256: Consider the following statements about early test design:

i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. Early test design can find faults
iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. Early test design takes more effort
Ans:
A. i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
B. iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
C. iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
D. i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
E. i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are fals
Q. 257: Given the following code, which is true about the

minimum number of test cases required for full statement and
branch coverage:

C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
Q. 258: The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
A. Attend a tool exhibition
B. Invite a vendor to give a demo
C. Analyse your needs and requirements
D. Find out what your budget would be for the tool
E. Search the internet
Q. 259: Error guessing is best used
A. As the first approach to deriving test cases
B. After more formal techniques have been applied
C. By inexperienced testers
D. After the system has gone live
E. Only by end users
Q. 260: Exit Criteria may consist of:

i. Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code,
functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage
in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
Ans:
A. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
B. i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
C. ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
D. iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
Q. 261: One of the fields on a form contains a text box, which

accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Identify the invalid
Equivalance class value.
A. CLASS
B. cLASS
C. CLass
D. CLa01ss
Q. 262: The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the

following:
A. Explaining the objective
B. Fixing defects found typically done by author
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations
Q. 263: Peer Reviews are also called as :

A. Inspection
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical Review
D. Formal Review
Q. 264: Validation involves which of the following

i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
Ans:
A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
B. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
D. iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.
Q. 265: Success Factors for a review include:

i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.
Ans:
A. ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
B. iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
C. i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
D. ii is correct
Q. 266: Which test measures the system at or beyond the limits of

its specified requirements?
A. Structural testing
B. Stress testing
C. Error guessing
D. Black-box testing
Q. 267: Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:

i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
Ans:
A. i , ii,iii,iv is correct
B. iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
C. i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
D. iv, ii is correct
Q. 268: Which defect can typically be discovered using a static

analysis tool?
A. Inconsistencies in numerical calculations
B. Programming standards violations
C. Problems related to system usability
D. Internal and external system reliability
Q. 269: Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box

technique?
A. State transition testing
B. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
C. Syntax testing
Q. 270: Features of White Box Testing Technique:

i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item
being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine
outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a
unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
Ans:
A. i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
B. iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
C. ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
D. iii and iv are true and i,ii are false
Q. 271. The Provision and Management of a controlled library

containing all the configurations items is called as
A. Configuration Control
B. Status Accounting
C. Configuration Identification
D. Configuration Identification
Q. 272: The selection of a test approach should consider the

context:
i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of
product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique,
tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the
testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team
Ans:
A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
Q. 273: Benefits of Independent Testing

A. Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
B. Independent testers see other and different defects and
are unbiased.
C. Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
D. Independent Testers can test better than developers
Q. 274: Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage:
A. Statement coverage is 4
B. Statement coverage is 1
C. Statement coverage is 3
D. Statement Coverage is 2
Q. 275: Test Conditions are derived from:

A. Specifications
B. Test Cases
C. Test Data
D. Test Design
Q. 276: Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.

i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to
leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered
during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
Ans:
A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Q. 277: Impact Analysis helps to decide:

A. How much regression testing should be done.
B. Exit Criteria
C. How many more test cases need to written.
D. Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
Q. 278: Drivers are also known as:

i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding
Ans:
A. i , ii are true and iii is false
B. i , iii are true and ii is false
C. ii , iii are true and i is false
D. All of the above are true
Q. 279: Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing

approach?
A. Top down
B. Big-bang
C. Bottom up
D. Functional incrementation.
Q. 280: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and

open points that were identified during a formal review.
A. Moderator.
B. Scribe
C. Author
D. Manager
Q. 321: What is failure?

A. Deviation from expected result to actual result
B. Defect in the software.
C. Error in the program code.
D. Fault in the system.
Q. 322: Which test support tool can be used to enforce coding
standards?
A. Static analysis tool
B. Performance testing tool
C. Test comparator
D. Test management tool
Q. 323: Which of the following is least important in test

management?
A. Estimating test duration.
B. Incident Management.
C. Configuration Management.
D. De-bugging.
Q. 324: A standard for software testing terminology is:

A. IEEE 802.11
B. ISO 9001
C. BS 7925-1
D. BS 7925-2
Q. 325: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User

Acceptance Testing?
A. Use of automated test execution tools.
B. Testing performed by users.
C. Testing against acceptance test criteria.
D. Integration of system with user documentation.
Q. 326: Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost

saving from use of CAST?
A. Test management
B. Test design
C. Test planning
D. Test execution
Q. 327: What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous

testing?
A. Regression testing.
B. Integration testing.
C. Error Guessing
D. System testing.
Q. 328: To make a test effective it is most important that:

A. It is easy to execute.
B. It is designed to detect faults if present.
C. The expected outcome is specified before execution.
D. It is unlikely to delay progress.
Q. 329: Error guessing is:

A. An appropriate way of deriving system tests.
B. Only used if good requirements are not available.
C. Only used when good requirements are available.
D. The most appropriate way of deriving system tests.
Q. 330: Amount of testing performed will not depend on

A. Risks involved
B. Contractual requirements
C. Legal requirements
D. Test data.
Q. 331: For software to be reliable it must:

A. Be easy to maintain.
B. Be unlikely to cause a failure.
C. Never fail under any circumstances.
D. Be written according to coding standards
Q. 332: Which test design techniques should a tester use to

respectively achieve the following:
(a) Check the documented features of the system,
(b) ensure 100 % decision c overage, and
(c) detect likely defects and distribution?
Ans:
A. Specification-based, data driven testing, and defect density
techniques
B. Specification-based, branch coverage, and exploratory
techniques
C. Structure-based, equivalence partitioning, and exploratory
techniques
D. Specification-based, structure-based, and experience-
based techniques
Q. 333: Faults found by users are due to:

A. Poor quality software
B. Poor software and poor testing
C. Bad luck
D. Insufficient time for testing
Q. 334: An incident logging system

A. Only records defects
B. Is of limited value
C. Is a valuable source of project information during
testing if it contains all incidents
D. Should be used only by the test team
Q. 335: The later in the development life cycle a fault is

discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. Why?
A. The documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what
the software is doing.
B. Wages are rising
C. The fault has been built into more
documentation,code,tests, etc
Q. 335: The later in the development life cycle a fault is

discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. Why?
A. The documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what
the software is doing.
B. Wages are rising
C. The fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests,
etc
Q. 337: Which technique if OFTEN considered as an extension of

equivalence partitioning?
A. Decision table testing
C. Use case testing
Q. 338: Software testing activities should start

A. As soon as the code is written
B. During the design stage
C. When the requirements have been formally documented
D. As soon as possible in the development life cycle
Q. 339: A company by the name Software Testing Genius Inc.

decides to use functional test execution automation tool for
testing GUI of their product. The GUI is expected to change
frequently. Software Testing Genius Inc. has put some of the
manual testers through a 3-day training program on how to use
the tool. Which of the following is likely to be true?
A. Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes
and lack of experience
B. Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the
right way to automate
C. Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very
useful for frequent changes
D. Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been
trained on tool.
Q. 340: A test design technique is

A. A process for selecting test cases
B. A process for determining expected outputs
C. A way to measure the quality of software
D. A way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
Q. 341: What is the main reason for testing software before

releasing it?
A. To show that system will work after release
B. To decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
C. To find as many bugs as possible before release
D. To give information for a risk based decision about
release
Q. 342: Testware(test cases, test dataset)

A. Needs configuration management just like
requirements, design and code
B. Should be newly constructed for each new version of the
software
C. Is needed only until the software is released into production or
use
D. Does not need to be documented and commented, as it does
not form part of the released software system
Q. 343: Which of the following is NOT a standard related to

testing?
A. IEEE829
B. IEEE610
C. BS7925-1
D. BS7925-2
Q. 344: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test

Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which of the following
sections are part of the test summary report?
a) Test summary and report identifier
b) Comprehensive assessment
c) Summary of results
d) Evaluation
e) Observers
f) Approvals
Ans:
A. a, b, c, d and e
B. a, b, c, e and f
C. a, c, d, e and f
D. a, b, c, d and f
Q. 345: What analysis determines which parts of the software

have been executed?
A. Impact analysis
B. Code coverage
C. Gap analysts
D. Cyclomatic complexity
Q. 346: Which of the following is not the integration strategy?

A. Design based
B. Big-bang
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
Q. 347: Which of the following tools would you use to detect a

memory leak?
A. State analysis
B. Coverage analysis
C. Dynamic analysis
D. Memory analysis
Q. 348: Which of the following statements are true?

A. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
B. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
C. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
D. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
Q. 349: Increasing the quality of the software, by better

development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the
test phases) by:
A. Reducing test time
B. No change
C. Increasing test time
D. Can't say
Q. 350: Which of the following is a black box design technique?

A. Statement testing
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Error- guessing
D. Usability testing
Q. 351: When reporting faults found to developers, testers should

be:
A. As polite, constructive and helpful as possible
B. Firm about insisting that a bug is not a "feature" if it should be
fixed
C. Diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
D. All of the above
Q. 352: Which of the following statements is not true

A. Performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as
during the testing of whole system
B. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression
test
C. Verification activities should not involve testers
(reviews, inspections etc)
D. Test environments should be as similar to production
environments as possible
Q. 353: Which test may OPTIONALLY be included in the common

type of the V-model?
A. Component (unit) testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. System integration testing
D. Validation and verification
Q. 354: When should you stop testing?

A. When time for testing has run out.
B. When all planned tests have been run
C. When the test completion criteria have been met
D. When no faults have been found by the tests run
Q. 355: Coverage measurement

A. Is nothing to do with testing
B. Is a partial measure of test thoroughness
C. Branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
D. Can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system
testing
Q. 356: Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional

test?
A. State-Transition
B. Usability
C. Performance
D. Security
Q. 357: Which of the following is the component test standard?

A. IEEE 829
B. IEEE 610
C. BS7925-1
D. BS7925-2
Q. 358: A program validates a numeric field as follows:

Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are
accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which
of the following input values cover all of the equivalence
partitions?
A. 10,11,21
B. 3,20,21
C. 3,10,22
D. 10,21,22
Q. 359: Which of the following are KEY tasks of a test leader?

i. Understanding the project risks
ii. Measuring performance of components
iii. Scheduling tests and other activities
iv. Using monitoring tools as needed
Ans:
A. i and iii
B. i and ii
C. iii and iv
D. ii and iii
Q. 360: Which of the following is a static test?

A. Code inspection
B. Coverage analysis
C. Usability assessment
D. Installation test
Q. 361: A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost

likely to be:
A. Large
B. Small
C. Difficult to write
D. Difficult to test
Q. 362: Which of the following is the odd one out?

A. White box
B. Glass box
C. Structural
D. Functional
Q. 363: Which of the following techniques are black box

techniques?
A. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing
B. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing,
decision table testing
C. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
D. System integration testing, system testing, decision table
testing
Q. 364: What is the KEY difference between black-box and white-

box testing?
A. Black-box is functional; white-box is structural
B. Black-box is functional; white-box is non-functional
C. Black-box has a wider statement coverage than white-box
D. Black-box can only be performed after white-box
Q. 365: What technique captures system requirements that

contain logical conditions?
A. Boundary value
B. Equivalence partition
C. Decision table
D. State transition
Q. 366: What makes an inspection different from other review

types?
A. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit
criteria and checklists
B. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected
C. It can only be used for reviewing design and code
D. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for
improvement
Q. 367: Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test
cases?
A. Because it is an industry standard
B. Because errors are frequently made during
programming of the different cases near the edges of the
range of values
C. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a
functional point of view are considered in the test cases
D. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its
performance limits
Q. 368: If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is

achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is then
guaranteed to be achieved?
A. 100% Equivalence class coverage
B. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement
coverage
C. 100% Statement coverage
D. 100% Multiple condition coverage
Q. 369: A defect management system shall keep track of the

status of every defect registered and enforce the rules about
changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking,
which method would be best?
A. Logic-based testing
B. Use-case-based testing
C. State transition testing
D. Systematic testing according to the V-model
Q. 370: In system testing...

A. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to
be tested
B. Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional
requirements are validated in a review
C. Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional
requirements are validated in a review
D. Only requirements which are listed in the specification
document are to be tested
Q. 371: Integration testing has following characteristics

I. It can be done in incremental manner
II. It is always done after system testing
III. It includes functional tests
IV. It includes non-functional tests
Ans:
A. I, II and III are correct
B. I is correct
C. I, III and IV are correct
Q. 372: Which of the following activities differentiate a

walkthrough from a formal review?
A. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process
B. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the
reviewers is optional
C. A walkthrough requires meeting
D. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review
finds the failures
.Q. 373: Why is testing necessary?

A. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects
in the software
B. Because verification and validation are not enough to get to
know the quality of the software
C. Because testing measures the quality of the software
system and helps to increase the quality
D. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and
inspections
Q. 374: In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic
principles of testing. Which of the following sentences describes
one of these basic principles?
A. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough
resources and test tools
B. With automated testing you can make statements with more
confidence about the quality of a product than with manual
testing
C. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal
conditions, to test all input and output combinations.
D. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.
Q. 375: Which of the following is true

A. Testing is the same as quality assurance
B. Testing is a part of quality assurance
C. Testing is not a part of quality assurance
D. Testing is same as debugging
Q. 376: This part of a program is given:
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to

achieve 100% decision coverage?
A. 2
B. Indefinite
C. 1
D. 4
Q. 377: In a flight reservation system, the number of available

seats in each plane model is an input. A plane may have any
positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity of the
plane. Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available seat
values were generated. Which of the following lists is correct?
A. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1
B. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1
C. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number
D. 0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one
Q. 378: Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence

classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain
values from and including 1 to and including 15
A. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
B. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
C. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
D. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more
Q. 379: Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools

A. They help you find defects rather than failures
B. They are used by developers only
C. They require compilation of code
D. They are useful only for regulated industries
Q. 380: Which of the following is most often considered as

components interface bug?
A. For two components exchanging data, one component
used metric units, the other one used British units
B. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal
input structure
C. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not
helpful for understanding the input error cause
D. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open
ports to connect to
Q. 381: Which of the following is correct about static analysis

tools?
A. Static analysis tools are used only by developers
B. Compilers may offer some support for static analysis
C. Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects
D. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze
the coverage
Q. 382: Which of the following list contains only non-functional

tests?
A. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing,
performance testing
B. System testing, performance testing
C. Load testing, stress testing, component testing,
portability testing
D. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing
Q. 383: Without testing all possible transitions, which test suite

will test all marital statuses?
A. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S4
B. SO-S1-S2-S3-S1-S2
C. SO-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3
D. SO-S1-S2-S3-S4-S1
Q. 384: What test items should be put under configuration

management?
A. The test object, the test material and the test
environment
B. The problem reports and the test material
C. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during
agile testing
D. The test object and the test material
Q. 386: What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
A. To specify when to stop the testing activity
B. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
C. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
D. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
Q. 387:If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is

achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is then
guaranteed to be achieved?
A. 100% branch coverage
B. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
C. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage
D. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be
fulfilled 100%
Q. 388: Using the diagram below, which test suite will uncover
invalid state transitions for employee status reporting software?
A. Prospective - Active - Resigned -
Active - Terminated - Purged
B. Prospective - Active - On
Leave - Active - Resigned -
Retired
C. Prospective - Active - Retired -
Active - On Leave - Purged
D. Prospective - Active - On Leave - Active - Retired – Active
Q. 389: Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by

the descriptions below?
S. Analytical approaches
T. Model-based approaches
U. Methodical approaches
V. Consultative approaches
-
1. Relies on guidelines from domain experts
2. Includes error guessing and fault-attacks
3. Uses statistical information about failure rates
4. Focuses on areas of greatest risk
Ans:
A. S4, T3, U2, V1
B. S1, T2, U3, V4
C. S2, T3, U1, V4
D. S3, T4, U2, V1
Q. 390: Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Static analysis tools produce statistics during program
execution
B. Configuration management systems allow us to provide
accurate defect statistics of different configurations
C. Stress testing tools examine the behavior of the test
object at or beyond full load
D. Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of
software life-cycle
Q. 391: Which of the following project inputs influence testing?

(I) Contractual requirements
(II) Legal requirements(III) Industry standards
(IV) Application risk
(V) Project size
Ans:
A. (I) through (III) are correct
B. All alternatives are correct
C. (II) and (V) are correct
D. (I), (III) and (V) are correct
Q. 392: Which of the following are USUALLY stated as testing

objectives?
I. Finding defects in the software
II. Reducing maintenance costs
II. Confirming that the system works
IV. Assessing the quality of the software
V. Meeting schedule milestones
Ans:
A. I and II
B. I, III; and IV
C. II, IV, and V
D. III and IV
Q. 393: Maintenance testing is:

A. Testing management
B. Synonym of testing the quality of service
C. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of
existing software
D. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor
Q. 394: Why is incremental integration preferred over "big bang"

integration?
A. Because incremental integration has better early
defects screening and isolation ability
B. Because "big bang" integration is suitable only for real time
applications
C. Incremental integration is preferred over "Big Bang Integration"
only for "bottom up" development model
D. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and
inadequate component testing
Q. 395: V-Model is:

A. A software development model that illustrates how
testing activities integrate with software development
phases
B. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
C. The official software development and testing life-cycle model
of ISTQB
D. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system
and acceptance phases
Q. 396: Which of the following items need not to be given in an

incident report?
A. The version number of the test object
B. Test data and used environment
C. Identification of the test case that failed
D. The location and instructions on how to correct the
fault
Q. 397: Who should be responsible for coordinating the test

strategy with the project manager and others?
A. Tester
B. Developer
C. Customer
D. Test leader
Q. 398: Acceptance testing means

A. Testing performed on a single standalone module or unit of
code
B. Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no
unwanted changes were introduced
C. Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of
the organization and end user.
D. Users test the application in the developers environment
Q. 399: The _______ testing should include operational tests of the
new environment as well as of the changed software
A. System Testing
B. Integration testing
C. Component testing
Q. 400: Using the diagram below, which test suite will check for
ALL valid state transitions using the LEAST effort?
A. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S4-S1-
S2-S3-S1
B. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S2-S3-S1
C. SO-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3-S1
D. SO-S1-S2-S4-S1-S4-S1-S2-
S3
Q. 401: Input and output combinations that will be treated the

same way by the system can be tested using which technique?
A. Boundary value
B. Equivalence partition
C. Decision table
D. State transition
Q. 402: Branch Coverage

A. Another name for decision coverage
B. Another name for all-edges coverage
C. Another name for basic path coverage
D. All the above
Q. 403: The _________ Is the activity where general testing

objectives are transformed into tangible test conditions and test
designs
A. Testing Planning
B. Test Control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test implementation
Q. 404: Integration testing where no incremental testing takes

place prior to all the system's components being combined to
form the system.
A. System testing
B. Component Testing
C. Incremental Testing
D. Big bang testing
Q. 405: A test case design technique for a component in which

test cases are designed to execute statements is called as?
A. State transition Testing
B. Static Testing
C. Transition testing
D. Statement testing
Q. 406: Who should have technical and Business background.

A. Moderator
B. Author
C. Reviewer
D. Recorder
Q. 407: A test plan defines

A. What is selected for testing
B. Objectives and results
C. Expected results
D. Targets and misses
Q. 408: Features to be tested, approach refinements and feature

pass / fail criteria BUT excluding environmental needs should be
specified in which document?
A. Test case specification
B. Test plan
C. Test procedure specification
D. Test design specification
Q. 409: Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of

testing
A. Test Analysis
B. Test Design
C. Test Execution
D. Test Planning
Q. 410: Which one is not the task of test leader?

A. Coordinate the test strategy and plan with project managers
and others
B. Decide about the implementation of the test environment
C. Write test summary reports
D. Review and contribute to test plans
Q. 411:
A. Decision coverage
B. Condition coverage
C. Statement coverage
D. Path Coverage
Q. 412: _________ reviews are often held with just the programmer
who wrote the code and one or two other programmers or testers.
A. Formal Reviews
B. Peer Reviews
C. Semi Formal Reviews
D. All of the above
Q. 413: In ________ testing test cases i.e input to the software are
created based on the specifications languages
A. State Transition Testing
B. Random Testing
C. Syntax Testing
D. Penetration testing
Q. 414: Stochastic testing is an example of which test approach or

strategy?
A. Model-based
B. Analytical
C. Methodical
D. Heuristic
Q. 415: Verification activities during design stages are

A. Reviewing and Inspecting
B. Inspecting and Testing
C. Reviewing and Testing
D. Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.
Q. 416: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software test

Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which of the following
sections is part of the test summary report?
a) Test summary and report identifier of Summary
c) Variances
d) Anomalies
e) Comprehensive assessment
f) Approvals
Ans:
A. a, b, e and f
B. a, b, c, d and f
C. a, b, c, e and f
D. a, b, c and f
Q. 417: What is the name of a temporary software component

that is used to call another component for testing purposes?
A. Domain
B. Use case
C. Stub
D. Driver
Q. 418: Size of a project is defined in terms of all the following

except
A. Person days
B. Person hours
C. Calendar months
Q. 419: Testing responsibilities:

Tester 1 - Verify that the program is able to display images clearly
on all 10 of the monitors in the lab
Tester 2 - Make sure the program instructions are easy to use
Security concerns are important for which type of applications
Tester 3 - Verify that the calculation module works correctly by
using both scripts and ad hoc testing. Which term is used to refer
to the testing that is performed by Tester 3 in the above scenario?
A. Unit testing
B. Algorithm specific testing
C. Compatibility testing
D. Black box testing
Q. 420: Objective of review meeting is

A. To identify problems with design
B. To solve the problems with design
C. Both A. and B
D. None of the above.
Q. 421: QC is
A. Phase building activity
B. Intermediate activity
C. End of Phase activity
D. Design activity
Q. 422: Which tool store information about versions and builds of

software and testware
A. Test Management tool
B. Requirements management tool
C. Configuration management tool
D. Static analysis too;
Q. 423: Testing Process comprised of

A. Test Plan and Test Cases
B. Test log and Test Status
C. Defect Tracking
D. All of the above
Q. 424: Preparing and automating test cases before coding is

called
A. Test first approach
B. Test-driven development
C. Both A. & B.
Q. 425: Which one is not characteristic of test management tool?

A. Support for the management of tests and the testing activities
carried out
B. Interfaces to test execution tools
C. Quantitative analysis related to tests
D. Check for consistency and undefined requirements
E. None of the above
Q. 426: Code Walkthrough

A. Type of dynamic testing
B. Type of static testing
C. Neither dynamic nor static
D. Performed by the testing team
Q. 427: Risk analysis talks about

A. The data required for testing, the infrastructure requirements
to manage the data as well as the methods for preparing test
data, requirements, converters and sources
B. Details what types of tests must be conducted, what
stages of testing are required and outlines the sequence
and timing of tests
C. A testing goal. It is a statement of what the tester is expected
to accomplish or validate during a testing activity. These guide
the development of test cases and procedures
Q. 428: What are the 2 major components taken into

consideration with risk analysis?
A. The probability the negative event will occur
B. The potential loss or impact associated with the event
C. Both A. and B.
D. Neither A. nor B.
Q. 429: If the application is complex, but NOT data intensive and

is to be tested on one configuration and 2 rounds, the easiest
method to test is
A. Manual testing
B. Automation testing
C. Both
D. None
Q. 430: Which of the following are typical tester tasks?

A. Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.
B. Set up configuration management of testware; review tests
developed by others.
C. Prepare and acquire test data; review tests developed
by others.
D. Initiate the specification, preparation, implementation and
execution of tests and monitor and control the execution.
Q. 431: Structural Testing

A. Same as black box testing
B. Same as white box testing
C. Same as functional testing
Q. 432: Which test approach uses all combinations of input values

and preconditions?
A. Component testing
B. Error guessing
C. Keyword driven testing
D. Exhaustive testing
Q. 433: Which technique describes process flows through a

system based on its likely usage?
A. Data driven testing
C. Decision table testing
D. Use case testing
Q. 434: Regression testing mainly helps in
A. Re-testing fixed defects
B. Checking for side-effects of fixes
C. Checking the core gaps
D. Ensuring high level sanity
Q. 435: Review is one of the methods of V&V. The other methods

are
A. Inspection
B. Walkthrough
C. Testing
D. All of the above
Q. 436: Which review is inexpensive

A. Informal Review
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical review
D. Inspection
Q. 437: Following are some of the testing risks

A. Budget, Test environment
B. Budget, Number of qualified test resources
C. Budget, Number of qualified test resources, Test environment
Q. 438: Random Testing
A. Program is tested randomly sampling the input.
B. A black-box testing technique
C. Both A. and B.
Q. 439: Which of the following is TRUE when introducing a new

tool into a test environment?
A. Changes to existing test processes should not be needed with
the new tool.
B. A site license will be needed to reduce the cost per seat of the
tool.
C. The tool should be rolled out as quickly as possible to maximize
ROI.
D. Introducing the tool to the organization should start
with a pilot project.
Q. 440: Reliability, usablility, efficiency are

A. Functional characteristics
B. Non functional characteristics
C. Both A. & B.
Q. 441: Test Plan

A. Road map for testing
B. Tells about the actual results and expected results
C. Both a and b
Q. 442: User Acceptance Testing

A. Same as Alpha Testing
B. Same as Beta Testing
C. Combination of Alpha and Beta Testing
Q. 443: Path coverage includes

A. Statement coverage
B. Condition coverage
C. Decision coverage
D. None of these
Q. 444: Which of the following demonstrates independence in

testing?
J. Independent testers are external to the organization
K. Independent testers are part of the development team
L. Independent testers are from the user community
M. Programmers who wrote the code serve as independent testers
N. Customers who wrote the requirements serve as independent
testers
Ans:
A. J. L and N
B. J. K, L and N
C. K. M and N
D. J, L, M and N
Q. 445: Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software

to fail and verifies that data recovery is properly performed. The
following should be checked for correctness
1. Re-initialization
2. Restart
3. Data Recovery
4. Check Point Mechanism
Ans:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4
Q. 446: Data flow analysis studies:

A. Possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.
C. The use of data on paths through the code.
D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.
Q. 447: Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?

A. Statement testing
B. Path testing
C. Data flow testing
D. State transition testing
Q. 448: Which one of the following describes the major benefit of

verification early in the life cycle?
A. It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
B. It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
C. It reduces defect multiplication.
D. It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
Q. 449: Which test is usually run many times and generally evolve
slowly?
A. Performance testing
B. Stress testing
C. Reliability testing
Q. 450: Alpha testing is:

A. Post-release testing by end user representatives at the
developer's site.
B. The first testing that is performed.
C. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the
developer's site.
D. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
Q. 451: We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:

A. Each test stage has a different purpose.
B. It is easier to manage testing in stages.
C. We can run different tests in different environments.
D. The more stages we have, the better the testing.
Q. 452: Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a

test plan?
A. Features to be tested
B. Incident reports
C. Risks
D. Schedule
Q. 453: What should be considered when introducing a tool into

an organization?
A. Assessing the organizational maturity
B. Counting the number of systems to be tested
C. Calculating the ratio between programmers and testers
D. Reviewing the exit criteria of previous projects
Q. 454: Which one of the following statements about system

testing is NOT true?
A. System tests are often performed by independent teams.
B. Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
C. Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
D. End-users should be involved in system tests.
Q. 455: Which of the following is not described in a unit test

standard?
A. Syntax testing
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Stress testing
D. Modified condition/decision coverage
Q. 456: Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the

use of test tools providing test capture and replay facilities?
B. Integration testing
C. System testing
D. User acceptance testing
Q. 457: Which of the following is false?

A. Incidents should always be fixed.
B. An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process
improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.
Q. 458: Which document specifies the execution order of test

cases?
A. Test design specification
B. Test item
C. Test procedure specification
D. Test plan
Q. 459: Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also
achieve 100% branch coverage.
B. A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also
achieve 100% statement coverage.
C. A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will
generally detect more faults than one that achieves 100%
statement coverage.
D. A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement
coverage will generally detect more faults than one that
achieves 100% branch coverage.
Q. 460: How are integration testing and use case testing similar
and dissimilar?
A. Both checks for interactions: integration for
components, use case for actions
B. Both are black-box techniques: integration is low-level, use
case is high-level
C. Both are static testing: developers perform integration, users
execute use case tests
C. Both are V&V techniques: integration is for validation, use case
is for verification
Q. 461: What is the main difference between a walkthrough and

an inspection?
A. An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead
by a trained moderator.
B. An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no
leader.
C. Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are
during walkthroughs.
D. A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an
inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
Q. 462: Which of these activities provides the biggest potential

cost saving from the use of CAST?
A. Test management
B. Test design
C. Test execution
D. Test planning
Q. 463: Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

A. Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of
the software under test.
B. Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
C. Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
D. Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
Q. 464: Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?

A. They are cheapest to find in the early development
phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test
phases.
B. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most
expensive to fix then.
C. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but
the most expensive to fix then.
D. Although faults are most expensive to find during early
development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
Q. 465: Which one of the following statements, about capture-

replay tools, is NOT correct?
A. They are used to support multi-user testing.
B. They are used to capture and animate user
requirements.
C. They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
D. They capture aspects of user behaviour
Q. 466: Which of the following is true of the V-model?

A. It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
B. It only models the testing phase.
C. It specifies the test techniques to be used.
D. It includes the verification of designs.
Q. 467: Error guessing:

A. Supplements formal test design techniques.
B. Can only be used in component, integration and system
testing.
C. Is only performed in user acceptance testing.
D. Is not repeatable and should not be used.
Q. 468: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is
taxed at 10%
The next $28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same
equivalence class?
A. $4800; $14000; $28000
B. $5200; $5500; $28000
C. $28001; $32000; $35000
D. $5800; $28000; $32000
Q. 469: The oracle assumption:

A. Is that there is some existing system against which test output
may be checked.
B. Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct
outcome of a test.
C. Is that the tester knows everything about the software under
test.
D. Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
Q. 470: In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is

to:
A. Find as many faults as possible.
B. Test high risk areas.
C. Obtain good test coverage.
D. Test whatever is easiest to test.
Q. 471: The most important thing about early test design is that
it:
A. Makes test preparation easier.
B. Means inspections are not required.
C. Can prevent fault multiplication.
D. Will find all faults.
Q. 472: Which of the following are potential drawbacks of

independence in testing?
01. Independent testers may feel they are not part of the
development team
02. Developers may lose a sense of personal responsibility for
quality
03. Project managers will not have as much control on the project
04. Customers may end up requesting features that are
technically impossible
Ans:
A. 01 and 02
B. 01, 02 and 03
C. 03 and 04
D. 01, 02, 03 and 04
Q. 473: Integration testing in the small:

A. Tests the individual components that have been developed.
B. Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
C. Only uses components that form part of the live system.
D. Tests interfaces to other systems.
Q. 474: Which of the following requirements is testable?

A. The system shall be user friendly.
B. The safety-critical parts of the system s
all contain 0 faults.
C. The response time shall be less than one second for the
specified design load.
D. The system shall be built to be portable.
Q. 475: An important benefit of code inspections is that they:

A. Enable the code to be tested before the execution
environment is ready.
B. Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
C. Can be performed by inexperienced staff.
D. Are cheap to perform.
Q. 476: Test cases are designed during:

A. Test recording.
B. Test planning.
C. Test configuration.
D. Test specification.
Q. 477: A failure is:

A. Found in the software; the result of an error.
B. Departure from specified behaviour.
C. An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer
program.
D. A human action that produces an incorrect result.
Q. 478: How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to

be required?
A. Metrics from previous similar projects
B. Discussions with the development team
C. Time allocated for regression testing
D. A. & B.
Q. 479: Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z),

and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best
pairs the two sets?
v - Test control
w - Test monitoring
x - Test estimation
y - Incident management
z - Configuration control
-
1 - Calculation of required test resources
2 - Maintenance of record of test results
3 - Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - Report on deviation from test plan
5 - Tracking of anomalous test results
Ans:
A. v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
B. v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
C. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
D. v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is
taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary
Value Analysis test case?
A. $1500
B. $32001
C. $33501
D. $28000
Q. 481: Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage

criteria?
A. Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items
exercised by a test suite.
B. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user
requirements covered.
C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of
faults found.
D. Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test
completion criteria.
Q. 482: Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?"
IF the customer wants return
Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"
IF the customer replies Cheap-day
Say: "That will be 11:20"
ELSE
ENDIF
ELSE
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to
ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations
have occurred and all replies given.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Q. 483: Which of the following should NOT normally be an

objective for a test?
A. To find faults in the software.
B. To assess whether the software is ready for release.
C. To demonstrate that the software doesn't work.
D. To prove that the software is correct.
Q. 484: Enough testing has been performed when:

A. Time runs out.
B. The required level of confidence has been achieved.
C. No more faults are found.
D. The users won't find any serious faults.
Q. 485: Which of the following is the best source of Expected

Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
A. Actual results
B. Program specification
C. User requirements
D. System specification
Q. 486: Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing

tests by recording the actions of a manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored
separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the
tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug
the script if it doesn't play correctly.
Ans:
A. i, iii, iv, v.
B. ii, iv and v.
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i and v.
Q. 487: Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in

any life cycle model?
A. All document reviews involve the development team.
B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding
test activities.
C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is
complete.
Q. 488: The process of designing test cases consists of the

following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design
techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test
conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what
is the correct order of these activities?
A. iii, i, iv, ii.
B. iii, iv, i, ii.
C. iii, ii, i, iv.
D. ii, iii, i, iv.
Q. 489: Which is the MOST important advantage of independence
in testing?
A. An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the
person who wrote the software.
B. An independent tester may be more focused on showing how
the software works than the person who wrote the software.
C. An independent tester may be more effective and efficient
because they are less familiar with the software than the person
who wrote it.
D. An independent tester may be more effective at finding
defects missed by the person who wrote the software.
Q. 490: Given the following specification, which of the following

values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between
18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount. Anyone over
30 is not eligible for a discount.
A. 17, 18, 19.
B. 29, 30, 31.
C. 18, 29, 30.
D. 17, 29, 31.
Q. 491: Consider the following statements:

i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
Ans:
A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
B. i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Q. 492: What is the difference between a project risk and a

product risk?
A. Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or
system; product risks are risks that surround the project's
capability to deliver its objectives.
B. Project risks are the risks that surround the project's
capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are
potential failure areas in the software or system.
C. Project risks are typically related to supplier issues,
organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are
typically related to skill and staff shortages.
D. Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work;
product risks are typically related to supplier issues,
organizational factors and technical issues.
Q. 493: During which fundamental test process activity do we

determine if MORE tests are needed?
A Test implementation and execution.
B Evaluating test exit criteria.
C Test analysis and design.
D Test planning and control.
Q. 494: What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
A. To communicate how incidents will be managed.
B. To communicate how testing will be performed.
C. To produce a test schedule.
D. To produce a work breakdown structure.
Q. 495: Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests

should be executed?
A. Test plan.
B. Test procedure specification.
C. Test case specification.
D. Test design specification.
Q. 496: Which of the following is a major task of test planning?

A. Determining the test approach.
B. Preparing test specifications.
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.
Q. 497: What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?

A. To determine the programming effort needed to make the
changes.
B. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
D. To determine how the existing system may be affected
by changes.

An employee has $4000 of salary tax free.
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next $28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary
Value Analysis test case?
A. $28000.
B. $33501.
C. $32001.
D. $1500.
Q. 499: Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a

comparator?
A. Dynamic Analysis tool.
B. Test Execution tool.
C. Static Analysis tool.
D. Security tool.
Q. 500: When software reliability measures are used to determine

when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those
that
A. Exercise system functions in proportion to the
frequency they will be used in the released product
B. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are
likely to make the system fail
C. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have
been considered in design
D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone
portions of the system
Q. 501: Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?

A. Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B. Component testing searches for defects in programs
that are separately testable.
C. Component testing is an important part of user acceptance
testing.
D. Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions
between software and hardware components.
Q. 502: Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for

the introduction of a testing tool?
A. Evaluate testers' competence to use the tool.
B. Complete the testing of a key project.
C. Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at
reasonable cost.
D. Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
Q. 503: What is an informal test design technique where a tester

uses information gained while testing to design new and better
tests?
A. Error guessing
B. Exploratory testing
C. Use case testing
D. Decision table testing
Q. 504: Which of the following is determined by the level of

product risk identified?
A. Extent of testing.
B. Scope for the use of test automation.
C. Size of the test team.
D. Requirement for regression testing.
Q. 505: When should testing be stopped?

A. When all the planned tests have been run
B. When time has run out
C. When all faults have been fixed correctly
D. It depends on the risks for the system being tested
Q. 506: Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct

options Regression testing should be performed:
i Once a month
ii When a defect has been fixed
iii When the test environment has changed
iv When the software has changed
Ans:
A. ii and iv.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iii.
D. i and iii.
Q. 507: The following statements are used to describe the basis

for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques:
i Information about how the software is constructed.
ii Models of the system, software or components.
iii Analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv Analysis of the internal structure of the components.
Which combination of the statements describes the basis for
black box techniques?
A. ii and iii.
B. ii and iv.
C. i and iv.
D. i and iii.
Q. 508: Which of the following requirements would be tested by a

functional system test?
A. The system must be able to perform its functions for an
average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B. The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C. The system must allow a user to amend the address of
a customer.
D. The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
Q. 508: Which of the following requirements would be tested by a

functional system test?
A. The system must be able to perform its functions for an
average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B. The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C. The system must allow a user to amend the address of
a customer.
D. The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
Q. 509: Based on the error guessing test design technique, which

of the following will an experienced tester MOST LIKELY test in
calendar software?
i. First two letters of the month, e.g., MA can represent March or
May
ii. First letter of the day, e.g., T can mean Tuesday or Thursday
iii. Leap year
iv. Number of days in a month
v. Three-digit days and months
Ans:
A. i, ii, iv and v
B. iii and iv
C. i, ii, iii and iv
D. i, ii and v
Q. 510: Which of the following are valid objectives for incident

reports?
i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the
problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as
necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the
system under test.
Ans:
A. i, ii, iii.
B. i, ii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. ii, iii, iv.
Q. 511: What is the objective of debugging?

i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.
Ans:
A. i, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. ii, iv.
D. i, ii.
Q. 512: Consider the following techniques. Which are static and

which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.
Ans:
A. i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B. iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C. ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D. vi is static, i-v are dynamic.
Q. 513: Given the following code, which statement is true about

the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and
branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
Q. 514: Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
A. Code cannot be released into production until independent
testing is complete.
B. Testing is isolated from development.
C. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for
quality.
D. Independent testers see other and different defects,
and are unbiased.
Q. 515: Which activity in the fundamental test process includes

evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system?
A. Test analysis and design.
B. Test planning and control.
C. Test closure.
D. Test implementation and execution.
Q. 516: In which of the following orders would the phases of a

formal review usually occur?
A. Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B. Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C. Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D. Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow
up.
Q. 517: For testing, which of the options below best represents

the main concerns of Configuration Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to
development items.
Ans:
A. i, iv, vi.
B. ii, iii, v.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iv, v, vi.
Q. 518: Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance

testing?
A. The coverage of the current regression pack.
B. The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C. The time since the last change was made to the system.
D. Defects found at the last regression test run.
Q. 519: What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to

drive testing efforts?
A. Because testing everything is not feasible.
B. Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to
finding bugs.
C. Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show
value.
D. Because software is inherently risky.
Q. 520: Which of the following are valid objectives for testing?

i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.
Ans:
A. i,ii, and iii.
B. ii, iii and iv.
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i,iii and iv.
Q. 521: Which of the following will NOT be detected by static

analysis?
A. Parameter type mismatches.
B. Errors in requirements.
C. Undeclared variables.
D. Uncalled functions.
Q. 522: Which of the following would be a valid measure of test

progress?
A. Number of undetected defects.
B. Total number of defects in the product.
C. Number of test cases not yet executed.
D. Effort required to fix all defects.

An employee has $4000 of salary tax free.
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next $28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall
into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?
A. $4000; $5000; $5500.
B. $32001; $34000; $36500.
C. $28000; $28001; $32001.
D. $4000; $4200; $5600.
Q. 524: Which of the following test activities can be automated?

i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.
Ans:
A. i, iii, iv.
B. i, ii, iii.
C. ii, iv, v.
D. ii, iii, v.
Q. 525: In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect

the bulk of the test design work to be begun?
A. After the software or system has been produced.
B. During development.
C. As early as possible.
D. During requirements analysis.
Q. 526: Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?

A. Expected outcomes are defined by the software's
behaviour
B. Expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from
the code
C. Expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
D. Expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as
response times
Q. 527: Functional system testing is:

A. Testing that the system functions with other systems
B. Testing that the components that comprise the system function
together
C. Testing the end to end functionality of the system as a
whole
D. Testing the system performs functions within specified
response times
Q. 528: Which of the following items would not come under
Configuration Management?
A. Operating systems
B. Test documentation
C. Live data
D. User requirement documents
Q. 529: What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection

process?
A. Setting up forms and databases
B. Analysing metrics and improving processes
C. Writing the documents to be inspected
D. Time spent on the document outside the meeting
Q. 530: Which of the following statements about component

testing is FALSE?
A. Black box test design techniques all have an associated
test measurement technique
B. White box test design techniques all have an associated test
C. Cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
D. Black box test measurement techniques all have an associated
test design technique
Q. 531: Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:

A. To find faults in the software
B. To prove that the software has no faults
C. To give confidence in the software
D. To find performance problems
Q. 532: Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?

A. Component testing
B. Non-functional system testing
C. User acceptance testing
Q. 533: What type of review requires formal entry and exit

criteria, including metrics:
A. Walkthrough
B. Inspection
C. Management review
D. Post project review
Q. 534: Maintenance means

A. Updating tests when the software has changed
B. Testing a released system that has been changed
C. Testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business
need
D. Testing to maintain business advantage
Q. 535: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:-

i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
Ans:
A. I,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true
Q. 536: All of the following might be done during unit testing

except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing
Q. 537: Which of the following is a requirement of an effective

software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools
Ans:
A.I, II &III
B.I, II &IV
C.II, III&IV
D.I, III&IV
Q. 538: When testing a grade calculation system, a tester

determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a grade of A,
but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis
Q. 539: The bug tracking system will need to capture these

phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
Ans:
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV
Q. 540: Which of the following software change management

activities is most vital to assessing the impact of proposed
software modifications?
A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control
D. Version control
Q. 541: A type of integration testing in which software elements,
hardware elements,or both are combined all at once into a
component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing
Q. 542: You are the test manager and you are about the start the
system testing. The developer team says that due to change in
requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for
testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the
resources( work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to
be able to finish the testing in time.
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so
that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip
going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more
on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
Q. 543: There is one application, which runs on a single terminal.

There is another application that works on multiple terminals.
What are the test techniques you will use on the second
application that you would not do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time
B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time
D. Concurrency test, Integrity
Q. 544: Which technique can be used to achieve input and output

coverage? It can be applied to human input, input via interfaces
to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Q. 545: Which of the following assertions about code coverage are

correct?
A. Statement coverage usually requires more test case suites
B. 100 % statement coverage guarantees 100 % decision
coverage
C. 100 % decision coverage implies 100 % statement
coverage
D. Decision tables cannot be used to list statement coverage
values
Q. 546: Which of the following statements is true about white-box

testing?
A. It includes functional testing
B. It includes loop testing
C. It is usually done after black-box testing
D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase
Q. 547: "The tracing of requirements for a test level through the

layers of a test documentation" done by
A. Horizontal tracebility
B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility
D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities

condition coverage?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 549: Big bang approach is related to

B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing
D. Integration testing
Q. 550: Which of the following statements is true about a software

verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a
software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.
Ans:
A. I, II&III
B.II, III&IV
C.I, II&IV
D.I, III&IV
Q. 551: An expert based test estimation is also known as

A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi
Q. 552: A test harness is a

A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and
major objectives of the organization regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable
phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives
needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under
test
Q. 553: "Be bugging" is known as

A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester
Q. 554: A project manager has been transferred to a major

software development project that is in the implementation
phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
A. Establish a relationship with the customer
B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project
plan
C. Modify the project's organizational structure to meet the
manager's management style
D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace
Q. 555: "This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and

budget risks" This statement is best suited for
A. Water fall model
B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model
D. V-Model
Q. 556: Which of the following characteristics is primarily

associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other
applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many
different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different
platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another
system
Q. 557: Which of the following functions is typically supported by

a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
Ans:
A.I, II&III
B.II, III &IV
C.I, III &IV
D.I, II & IV
Q. 558: System test can begin when?

I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on
the results to the system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3
business days prior to starting of the system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and
release management control
Ans:
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
Q. 559: "Defect Density" calculated in terms of

A. The number of defects identified in a component or
system divided by the size of the component or the
system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the
number found by that test phase and any other means after
wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system
divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the
number found by the size of the system
Q. 560: Test charters are used in ________ testing

A. Exploratory testing
C. Component testing
D. Maintainability testing
Q. 561: Item transmittal report is also known as

A. Incident report
B. Release note
C. Review report
D. Audit report
Q. 562: COTS is known as

A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software
Q. 563: Change request should be submitted through

development or program management. A change request must be
written and should include the following criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.
Ans:
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV
Q. 564: Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change
Y in which of the following pairs? Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications
during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group
Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a
single user
Q. 565: Cause effect graphing is related to the standard

A. BS7799
B. BS 7925/2
C. ISO/IEC 926/1
D. ISO/IEC 2382/1
Q. 566: The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the

actual behavior of the running program during system testing is
to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version
Q. 567: During the testing of a module tester X finds a bug and

assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying
that it's not a bug. What X should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the
developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug
encountered and check the reproducibility
Q. 568: One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test

project is that so many dependencies converge at test execution.
One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all
your test results meaning less. You can end up with an entire
platoon of testers sitting around for days. Who is responsible for
this incident?
A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only
Q. 569: You are a tester for testing a large system. The system
data model is very large with many attributes and there are a lot
of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use
to test the system and also what are the efforts of the test you
have taken on the test plan
A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or
program means stage containment of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter
dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the
functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as
a whole
Q. 570: Testing of software used to convert data from existing

systems for use in replacement systems
A. Data driven testing
B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing
D. Back to back testing
Q. 571: A test manager wants to use the resources available for

the automated testing of a web application. The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater
Q. 572: What type of risk includes potential failure areas in the

software?
A. Probed risks
B. Product risks
C. Economic risks
D. Requirements risks
Q. 573: Consider the following statements

i. A incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. Incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. The incident record does not include information on test
environments
v. Incidents should be raised when someone other than the author
of the software performs the test
Ans:
A. ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
C. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
D. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
E. i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
Q. 574: Which test suite will check for an invalid transition using
the diagram below?
A. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S4
B. S0-S1-S4-S1-S2-S3
C. S0-S1-S3-S1-S2-S1
D. S0-S1-S2-S3-S1-S2
Q. 575: Who OFTEN performs system testing and acceptance

testing, respectively?
A. Senior programmers and professional testers
B. Technical system testers and potential customers
C. Independent test team and users of the system
D. Development team and customers of the system
Q. 576: Which test levels are USUALLY included in the common

type of V-model?
A. Integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, and
regression testing
B. Component testing, integration testing, system testing,
and acceptance testing
C. Incremental testing, exhaustive testing, exploratory testing,
and data driven testing
D. Alpha testing, beta testing, black-box testing, and white-box
testing
Q. 577: Which general testing principles are characterized by the

descriptions below?
W) Early testing
X) Defect clustering
Y) Pesticide paradox
Z) Absence-of-errors fallacy
-
1) Testing should start at the beginning of the project
2) Conformance to requirements and fitness for use
3) Small Number of modules contain the most defects
4) Test cases must be regularly renewed and revised
Ans:
A. W1, X2, Y3, and Z4
B. W1, X3, Y4, and Z2
C. W2, X3, Y1, and Z4
D. W1, X4, Y2, and Z3
Q. 578: How are (a) static analysis tools and (b) performance
testing tools different?
A. (a) helps in enforcing coding standards; (b) tests
system performance
B. (a) analyzes security vulnerabilities; (b) measures the
effectiveness of test cases
C. (a) prepares codes prior to testing; (b) prepares codes prior to
stress testing
D. (a) highlights unreachable conditions; (b) improves system
performance
Q. 579: In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of

24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can
score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the
student clears the exam.
a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22
Q. 580: Which of the following describe test control actions that

may occur during testing?
I. Setting an entry criterion that developers must retest fixes
before fixes are accepted into a build.
II. Changing the test schedule due to availability of a test
environment.
III. Re-prioritizing tests when development delivers software late
Ans:
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II and III
D. I and III

A. Incidents should always be fixed.
B. An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process
improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.

A. In a system two different failures may have different severities.
B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging
for the removal of a fault.
C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to
incorrect behavior.
Q. 584: A testing process that is conducted to test new features

after regression testing of previous features.
A. Operational testing
B. Progressive testing
C. Recovery testing
Q. 585: Identify out of the following, which are the attributes of

cost of faults?
A. These are cheapest to detect during early phases of
development & becomes more & more expensive to fix in
the later phases.
B. Although faults are most expensive to find during early
development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
C. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but
the most expensive to fix then.
D. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most
expensive to fix then.
Q. 586: What is non-functional testing?

A. Testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified
requirements
B. Testing the internal structure of the system to ensure it�s built
correctly
C. Testing the way the system works without regard to the level of
test
D. Testing characteristics such as usability or reliability
Q. 587: Which of the following is a form of functional testing?

A. Boundary value analysis
C. Performance testing
D. Security testing
Q. 588: Which of the following statements about decision tables

are TRUE?
I. Decision tables are useful when dealing with multiple inputs
that do not interact.
II. The strength of a decision table is that it creates combinations
of inputs that might not otherwise been evaluated.
III. Decision tables are useful when trying to capture system
requirements that contain logical conditions.
IV. Each column of a decision table corresponds to a business rule
that defines a unique combination of conditions.
Ans:
A. II, III and IV
B. I and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I and III
Q. 589: Which of the following are metrics (measurements) that a

test group may use to monitor progress?
I. Subjective confidence of the testers in the product
II. The number of testers currently testing
III. Percentage of planned test cases prepared
IV. Defects found and fixed
Ans:
A. I only
B. I, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. II and IV
Q. 590: A test case has which of the following elements?

A. A test environment description and test instructions.
B. A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected
outcomes.
C. A test plan, test inputs, and logging instructions.
D. Execution instructions and a function description to determine
correct outcome.
Q. 591: Which of the following is a fundamental principle of

software defect prevention?
A. Software quality engineering must evaluate all errors.
B. A balance of white-box and black-box testing is necessary.
C. A single root cause taxonomy should be used by all projects.
D. Feedback to the individuals who introduced the defect
is essential.
Q. 592: When software reliability measures are used to determine

when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those
that
A. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are
likely to make the system fail
B. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have
been considered in design
C. Exercise system functions in proportion to the
frequency they will be used in the released product
D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone
portions of the system
Q. 593: Which of the following statements about static analysis is

FALSE?
A. Static analysis can find defects that are likely to be missed by
dynamic testing.
B. Static analysis is a good way to force failures in the
software.
C. Static analysis tools examine code or other types of product
documentation.
D. Static analysis can result in cost saving by finding bugs early.
Q. 594: Which of the following statements is true about white-box

testing?
A. It includes functional testing.
B. It includes loop testing.
C. It is usually done after black-box testing.
D. It is usually done during the integration testing phase.
Q. 595: A set of behavioral and performance requirements which,

in aggregate, determine the functional properties of a software
system.
A. Functional requirement
B. Functional specifications
C. Functional test cases
Q. 596: Which of the following provides the test group with the
ability to reference all documents and software items
unambiguously?
A. Agile testing methodology
B. Effective use of tools
C. Configuration management
D. Requirements traceability matrix
Q. 597: Which of the following is not a job responsibility of a

software tester?
A. Identifying test cases
B. Preparing test data
C. Executing tests
D. Writing the functional specifications
Q.598: Which of the following are Black Box test design

techniques?
I. Boundary value analysis
II. Branch condition testing
III. Equivalence partitioning
IV. State transition testing.
Ans:
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. I, III and IV
Q. 599: Which of the following are test management tool

capabilities?
I. The enforcement of coding standards.
II. Support for requirements traceability activities.
III. The generation of testing progress reports
IV. Generation of test process improvement information.
Ans:
A. II, III and IV
B. I and II
C. I, III and IV
D. III and IV
Q. 600: Errors that are cosmetic in nature are usually assigned a

______ severity level.
A. Fatal (Severity)
B. Low (Severity)
C. Serious (Severity)
D. Not Serious at all

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Q.

1: How many test cases are required to cover 100%0- switch

Q.2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposesof

Q.3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

Q. 5: Which is a potential product risk factor?

Q. 6: Who typically use static analysis tools?

Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?

Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?

Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?

Q. 12: In software testing what is the main purpose of exit

Q. 14: Which of the following is a KEY test closure task?

Q. 15: What is beta testing?

Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement

How many more test cases are required?

Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test

Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?

A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premiumis 90 and

Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be

Q. 24: Which of the problems below BEST characterize a result of

Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed

Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be

Q. 28: Which of the following can be considered as success factors

Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria?

Q. 30: Which test design technique relies heavily on prior

Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?

Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements.

Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following

Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be

Q. 37: What principle is BEST described when test designs are

Q. 39: The above diagram represents the following paths through

Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of

Q. 41: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a

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Q. 43: What is the name of a skeletal implementation of a

Q. 44: Which is the best definition of complete testing:

Q. 45: Complete statement and branch coverage means:

Q. 46: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule

Q. 47: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in

Q. 48: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the

Q. 49: What techniques would be MOST appropriate if the

Q. 50: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:

Q. 51: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete

Q. 52: Poor software characteristics are

Q. 53: System testing should investigate

Q. 54: Contract and regulation testing is a part of

Q. 55: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review

Q. 56: Which is not the testing objectives

Q. 57: Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester?

Q. 58: Which is not the project risks

Q. 59: Which of the following is a potential risk in using test

Q. 60: How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 %

Q. 61: X has given a data on a person age, which should be

Q.62: Which is not a testing principle

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Q. 64: The ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at

Q. 66: Which is not a black box testing technique

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