Wiktionary:Tea room/2018/April
The word whiten has a syllabic nasal at the end: /ˈwaɪt.n̩/ (“white-n”). Dictionary.com shows the pronunciation of whitening as /ˈwaɪt.n̩.ɪŋ/ (“white-n-ing”) having three syllables with a syllabic nasal in the middle, but that seems to be different from the audio file there. Isn’t it rather /ˈwaɪt.nɪŋ/ (“white-ning”) having two syllables? Similarly, isn’t whitener pronounced /ˈwaɪt.nɚ/ (“white-ner”) rather than /ˈwaɪt.n̩.ɚ/ (“white-n-er”)? — TAKASUGI Shinji (talk) 15:31, 2 April 2018 (UTC)
- The two-syllable pronunciation is much more common in normal (rather than careful) speech. In normal speech there is sometimes a need to distinguish between terms like lightening and lightning. But in the more general case, is that kind of syllable-dropping lexical information rather than a general phenomenon of speech? DCDuring (talk) 15:45, 2 April 2018 (UTC)
- Well, it can vary from dialect to dialect. For example, I pronounce settler in three syllables with the /t/ realized as a flap: [ˈsɛɾl̩ɚ] and was quite astonished as a teenager when I heard someone from a different part of the States pronounce it in two syllables with the /t/ realized as a glottal stop: [ˈsɛʔlɚ]. This contrasts with butler, which both of us pronounced in two syllables with a glottal stop: [ˈbʌʔlɚ]. So it's not lexical in the sense that it's something specific to the word whitening, but it's still lexicographically relevant as it's not automatically predictable in all accents. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 17:04, 2 April 2018 (UTC)
- As another datapoint, I have settler with two syllables but whitening and the like as invariably trisyllabic in my dialect (or at least idiolect (?)). It might be very difficult to pin down which pronunciations are normal in which dialects without finding academic research on the subject. — Vorziblix (talk · contribs) 21:17, 4 April 2018 (UTC)
- Thank you guys. There seems no consensus among native speakers… — TAKASUGI Shinji (talk) 07:40, 5 April 2018 (UTC)
- That is correct, and I can guarantee that in this matter you will find unconscious variability in pronunciation that most speakers and listeners will not notice, quite apart from regional and family-to-family variation. I strongly recommend specifying both pronunciations as valid alternatives. JonRichfield (talk) 03:49, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
- Thank you guys. There seems no consensus among native speakers… — TAKASUGI Shinji (talk) 07:40, 5 April 2018 (UTC)
- As another datapoint, I have settler with two syllables but whitening and the like as invariably trisyllabic in my dialect (or at least idiolect (?)). It might be very difficult to pin down which pronunciations are normal in which dialects without finding academic research on the subject. — Vorziblix (talk · contribs) 21:17, 4 April 2018 (UTC)
- Well, it can vary from dialect to dialect. For example, I pronounce settler in three syllables with the /t/ realized as a flap: [ˈsɛɾl̩ɚ] and was quite astonished as a teenager when I heard someone from a different part of the States pronounce it in two syllables with the /t/ realized as a glottal stop: [ˈsɛʔlɚ]. This contrasts with butler, which both of us pronounced in two syllables with a glottal stop: [ˈbʌʔlɚ]. So it's not lexical in the sense that it's something specific to the word whitening, but it's still lexicographically relevant as it's not automatically predictable in all accents. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 17:04, 2 April 2018 (UTC)
- I noticed that most American TV anchors pronounce [[meddling]] as three syllables. (I heard quite a few time when there's talk about 2016 election meddling). In Australia, I'm pretty sure, it's two syllables. --Anatoli T. (обсудить/вклад) 04:18, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
Italicising "especially" in sense lines
[edit]Italicising "especially" in sense lines is a practice that I dislike and sometimes undo. Example: person might be "any living creature, especially a human being". If you remove the italics, the line still makes perfect sense, and looks less prissy. The apparent distinction is that the italicised text should be interpreted on a "meta" level, i.e. X is defined as Y but is especially defined as Z; however, there is almost never any real difference between saying this and saying that X is defined as "Y, especially Z". I can't imagine us italicising thus: "any small dog, but never a poodle"; it also looks sillier the shorter the entry is. (Would you want italics on the "especially" in alevin?) Policy issue? Equinox ◑ 02:16, 3 April 2018 (UTC)
- Bonus argument: putting a word in italics isn't semantically useful either (it's not safe for automated tools to interpret those italics as a gloss etc., because italics inside a sense line could be a genus or anything), so if we are going to do this then we need some kind of template. Equinox ◑ 02:23, 3 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Equinox so "if we are going ....", very funny. Sobreira ►〓 (parlez) 09:09, 3 April 2018 (UTC)
- I don't particularly like the italics, but see the "meta" distinction. Surely it is very common in dictionaries to abbreviate this to "esp.", and this distinctive abbreviation needs no italics to be distinguished from the word "especially" if it occurs in a definition. Why not use "esp." here? Imaginatorium (talk) 09:30, 3 April 2018 (UTC)
- Thanks for the input; however, (i) "esp." and "especially" shouldn't be semantically different (even if they have historically been different in dictionaries); (ii) any actual difference is clearly based on the fact that paper dictionaries needed to save space for print purposes; for an Internet dictionary, saving the letters "-ecially" makes no difference (and would force a few users to look up "esp." to see what it means). Equinox ◑ 02:34, 5 April 2018 (UTC)
Can we give a direct translation or example, so we can understand something like "Questo utente ha imparato a programmare su uno ZX Spectrum 48k e a distanza di più di trent'anni si ritrova a programmare per lavoro dispositivi che non arrivano a 8kB di ram. Averceli 48kB!"? (Taken from here) Sobreira ►〓 (parlez) 09:09, 3 April 2018 (UTC)
QAnon, The Storm
[edit]These proper nouns related to a conspiracy theory are citable under hot word criteria, but I'm not convinced that their inclusion is desirable and would appreciate some opinions on this. (For reference, "QAnon" or "Q" is an anonymous 4chan user and Trump supporter who purports to have Q-clearance and has originated "The Storm". "The Storm" or "Follow(ing) the White Rabbit" is a conspiracy theory among Trump supporters that postulates that the Mueller investigation is a "deep-state" effort to support Trump and round up a satanic paedophile ring supposedly operated by several prominent politicians.) ←₰-→ Lingo Bingo Dingo (talk) 10:50, 3 April 2018 (UTC)
Eastern Armenian: Feminine Ending for Nationalities
[edit]I'm working through Pimsleur's ten only-audio lessons in Eastern Armenian. Pimsleur always teaches you how to say "I am an American." along with how to say the L2 country's nationality. The male form is ամերիկացի - amerikats’i. The female form sounds like "amerikoohee" 1. How is that spelled in the Armenian alphabet? 2. Could that be added to the entry for ամերիկացի? With the corresponding Armenian words հայ, հայուհի (hay, hayuhi) the feminine form is listed under "derived term"
My guess is ամերիկուհի. Google translates from Armenian to English as "American woman" without any "did you mean ..." corrections.
(It can be very difficult to get Google to reveal feminine and formal 2nd-person plural forms where English is ambivalent.)
- @Vahagn Petrosyan —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 17:16, 4 April 2018 (UTC)
- What you heard on the audio is ամերիկուհի (amerikuhi). But use ամերիկացի (amerikacʻi) for both genders. The forms in -ուհի (-uhi) are linguistically marked. Using them is similar to using authoress for a female author. --Vahag (talk) 19:43, 4 April 2018 (UTC)
interrogative lemma and IPA
[edit]Are there interrogative lemmata? What is acceptable: to be, or not to be? or, to be, or not to be?
And please, could someone help: what IPA symbol would i use for an interrogative /ˈti ˈðeon ʝeˈnesθe?/ (for τι δέον γενέσθαι) Thank you sarri.greek (talk) 13:00, 6 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Sarri.greek There are several here. The page title doesn’t get a ?, but you can add it to the head= (as in who's 'she', the cat's mother).
- IPA has characters for intonation if Greek questions are marked with that, but I have never seen these characters used in Wiktionary. — Ungoliant (falai) 13:30, 6 April 2018 (UTC)
- Thank you @Ungoliant MMDCCLXIV: sarri.greek (talk) 13:42, 6 April 2018 (UTC)
amoret, bandon, delightous, etc.
[edit]I've been adding some quotes to words in Category:Requests for quotation/The Romaunt of the Rose. The text uses alternate spellings (e.g. baundon, delitous); I added them under alternative forms. Should these forms found in The Romaunt of the Rose be Middle English rather than English? Chaucer was certainly writing in Middle English. – Gormflaith (talk) 13:38, 6 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yes please. Webster 1913 did not clearly distinguish ME (or OE) from ModE; I should have entered them as ME in most cases. Equinox ◑ 13:39, 6 April 2018 (UTC)
- Alright, will do. Thanks. – Gormflaith (talk) 13:51, 6 April 2018 (UTC)
This may or may not be a legitimate entry but the definition seems barely meaningful: "The systems of control mechanisms to dominate these entities of the organization to achieve a defined goal." Equinox ◑ 17:00, 6 April 2018 (UTC)
It mentions a battle cry (i.e. "free Cuba!") but Rum and Coke says that the libre is an adjective, not a verb. Who's right? Equinox ◑ 18:01, 6 April 2018 (UTC)
- "free Cuba" = "a Cuba that is free", it is not an imperative. DTLHS (talk) 18:03, 6 April 2018 (UTC)
- Spanish has a word order that's the reverse of English's for adjectival modifiers, but not for verbs. If libre were a verb, the only way to say this as two words would be "Libre Cuba!". There's nothing wrong with a battle cry being a bare noun phrase- it's actually quite rare for them to be complete sentences. Chuck Entz (talk) 21:33, 6 April 2018 (UTC)
- In fact, libre is an imperative verb form, corresponding to the subject usted, so ¡Libre Cuba! does mean "Free Cuba!" as an imperative, speaking formally to one person. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 05:47, 7 April 2018 (UTC)
- But it's not "libre Cuba", it's "Cuba libre". DTLHS (talk) 05:59, 7 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yeah, I know; I was responding to Chuck's sentence "If libre were a verb, the only way to say this as two words would be 'Libre Cuba!'"; I was pointing out that that sentence needn't be a hypothetical. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 06:58, 7 April 2018 (UTC)
- But it's not "libre Cuba", it's "Cuba libre". DTLHS (talk) 05:59, 7 April 2018 (UTC)
- In fact, libre is an imperative verb form, corresponding to the subject usted, so ¡Libre Cuba! does mean "Free Cuba!" as an imperative, speaking formally to one person. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 05:47, 7 April 2018 (UTC)
Should we merge these two pages into a singe main entry? DTLHS (talk) 05:43, 8 April 2018 (UTC)
- My first answer is no. The etymologies are similar but not the same and they are different types of dishes, which is a confusion not only in the recipient languages but in the source languages as well, to some extent. Basically, these are mostly pies vs dumplings. Less confusion in Polish dumplings and Russian pies, more confusion in Ukrainian pies and dumplings. Care should be taken in English about which dish they are talking about and whose cuisine. --Anatoli T. (обсудить/вклад) 05:52, 8 April 2018 (UTC)
There seems to be something called a 'tailgut cyst', so there must be another meaning of 'tailgut' which I didn't put when I started the entry, but I can't find its meaning on its own. Kaixinguo~enwiktionary (talk) 18:01, 8 April 2018 (UTC)
- (It seems to be mentioned in Daniel John Cunningham's Text-book of Anatomy. —Suzukaze-c◆◆ 00:17, 9 April 2018 (UTC))
- I see plenty of uses in a medical sense and also in a music sense. Alternative spellings tail gut and tail-gut seem attestable, possibly in both senses. DCDuring (talk) 02:40, 9 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Suzukaze-c: Thank you, for some reason that is not accessible in my location. Kaixinguo~enwiktionary (talk) 00:05, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- @DCDuring: Thanks, the music sense is the only one I knew. I can't add the other sense of 'tailgut', though. Kaixinguo~enwiktionary (talk) 00:05, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- Thanks for adding that sense. Kaixinguo~enwiktionary (talk) 19:45, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
Definition of burn missing sense of nuclear fusion
[edit]The definition of "burn" does mention the sense in which the term os used here, for example: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Oxygen-burning_process
"The oxygen-burning process is a set of nuclear fusion reactions that take place in massive stars that have used up the lighter elements in their cores. Oxygen-burning is preceded by the neon-burning process and succeeded by the silicon-burning process.”
There are also hydrogen burning, helium burning and carbon burning processes.
- Added sense at burn. SemperBlotto (talk) 05:26, 9 April 2018 (UTC)
Term found in the Heart Sutra, appears to be translation of Sanskrit आवरण (āvaraṇa, “covering, or other meanings in this link”). Is there a modern term for this in any of the three major East Asian languages? You can check the usage examples at 菩提薩埵.
Also, can this be allowed to be added by CFI? Likely archaic/obsolete term in my view. ~ POKéTalker (Ŧ◉C) 04:24, 9 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Poketalker: This term is still used in modern Chinese, but it's now more often written as 掛礙/挂碍 (guà'ài). Even if it were archaic, I don't see why it would not be allowed by CFI, unless you're talking about a specific Buddhist sense different from the ones listed in the entry. From the translation at 菩提薩埵, it seems to translate to "obstruction", which is easily attestable in Chinese. — justin(r)leung { (t...) | c=› } 05:23, 9 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Justinrleung:, thanks. Thought 罣 was an obsolete variant for 掛/挂. Still, in traditional and non-Chinese texts, the sutra uses 罣. Interesting... ~ POKéTalker (Ŧ◉C) 04:02, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Poketalker: No, 罣 is not obsolete, just rare in simplified Chinese and a bit uncommon in traditional Chinese. — justin(r)leung { (t...) | c=› } 04:06, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Justinrleung:, thanks. Thought 罣 was an obsolete variant for 掛/挂. Still, in traditional and non-Chinese texts, the sutra uses 罣. Interesting... ~ POKéTalker (Ŧ◉C) 04:02, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
See Citations:terf: taruf, tarruf, teruf and terf seem to be one or more lexemes for a unit of land in India. Are any of them citable in English? What is the etymon and specific meaning? (Pinging @AryamanA, Mahagaja as users who might know or know how to look it up in Sanskrit or Hindi dictionaries.) - -sche (discuss) 17:26, 9 April 2018 (UTC)
- Sanskrit doesn't have an /f/ sound; if this word exists in Hindi it's probably a borrowing from Persian and/or Arabic. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 19:00, 9 April 2018 (UTC)
- @-sche: It's तरफ़ (taraf, “side, face; direction”) judging by the first quote, but I haven't heard of any relation to units of land for it. (I'm also not a farmer though) I'll check my dictionaries and see if anything can be cited. —AryamanA (मुझसे बात करें • योगदान) 01:17, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- I found Bengali তরফ (toroph, “revenue-collection area”) (source). It is cognate to the Hindi word, and judging by this Hindi dictionary's "Mughal glossary" it meant the same thing in Hindi-Urdu during Mughal rule. I'll add the definitions to the Hindi entry. —AryamanA (मुझसे बात करें • योगदान) 01:22, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- Thanks. I've created an entry for taraf. It's not common, but I think that's just because tarafs are not often mentioned (rather than that taraf is a rare word for a concept often referred to using another word), so I haven't labelled it "rare" or "uncommon". - -sche (discuss) 15:51, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- I found Bengali তরফ (toroph, “revenue-collection area”) (source). It is cognate to the Hindi word, and judging by this Hindi dictionary's "Mughal glossary" it meant the same thing in Hindi-Urdu during Mughal rule. I'll add the definitions to the Hindi entry. —AryamanA (मुझसे बात करें • योगदान) 01:22, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
Term shoefie / quotations
[edit]How to add / correct quotations? Just came across your definition of this term and noticed the earliest dated quotations are from 2015. However, I have invented this term back in 2014 for our Photoresk art expo in Brussels when I introduced the first automatic shoefie machine. Here is still the web-site of the expo https://disclosure.photoresk.com/shoefies/ How can I have this information amended? Thank you. Claus Siebeneicher claus@photoresk.com
- I expect that this dialog will appear on the entry's talk page. Generally we only show citations from "durably archived" sources, which excludes sites only archived on archival sites that may themselves not be durable. DCDuring (talk) 14:24, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
Just curiosity
[edit]Is it "As continue conveys the sense of progression, it is pleonastic to follow it with on" equals to the following?
- ..., it is pleonastic following it with on
- ..., following it with on is pleonastic
Is one of the ways more formal or diachronically/diatopically marked? Sobreira ►〓 (parlez) 13:09, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- "it is pleonastic to follow it with on" and "following it with on is pleonastic" are both fine (I'm not sure if there is a difference in formality). But "it is pleonastic following it with on" is wrong, although if you insert a comma "it is pleonastic, following it with on" then it sounds very colloquial or as though the clarification is an afterthought, meaning you meant to just say "it is pleonastic" and then realized you need to add "following it with on". --WikiTiki89 15:41, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- The former it is not fine because it contains "it" twice with different meaning in it. Rhyminreason (talk) 20:48, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
- That's not the reason. --WikiTiki89 20:51, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
- The former it is not fine because it contains "it" twice with different meaning in it. Rhyminreason (talk) 20:48, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
Are these in fact vulgar, as currently labelled? I thought they were euphemistic/bowdlerized words, somewhat like hoo-ha. - -sche (discuss) 16:19, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- These are euphemistic and about as mild as hoo-ha, like you say. Also, it might be worth mentioning that "wazoo" doesn't really exist outside of these two phrases. Ultimateria (talk) 18:15, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- By vulgar we mean "Language considered distasteful or obscene." per Appendix:Glossary. I wouldn't call these obscene and don't think most others would either. If they were truly distasteful E*Trade wouldn't have used "out the wazoo" in their award-winning ad. I suppose they are just informal. DCDuring (talk) 18:23, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- Thanks; I relabelled them as "colloquial". - -sche (discuss) 16:40, 11 April 2018 (UTC)
heraldry term?
[edit]I can't find a translation of the Catalan adjective caironat, but I can translate the definition as "In heraldry, that rests on one of its angles, applied to square coats of arms". What is the English term? Ultimateria (talk) 18:13, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- I don't know, but maybe you can find it if you browse http://www.apl385.com/gilling/herldref.htm. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 18:30, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- Es diu cantoned. Bona nit! 猛犸象牙 (talk) 22:04, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
- er no. — If I needed such a term I'd probably say lozengewise or bendwise. —Tamfang (talk) 05:55, 11 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yeah, a couple years ago I spent ages trying to find a translation for caironat too. Never got one. --Cien pies 6 (talk) 12:44, 11 April 2018 (UTC)
- Well, I've at least added the definition given above (confirmed by Wikimedia Common's category of "Caironat shields"). Probably "(of a square) lozengewise" or "...diamondwise" would cover it. - -sche (discuss) 16:39, 11 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yeah, a couple years ago I spent ages trying to find a translation for caironat too. Never got one. --Cien pies 6 (talk) 12:44, 11 April 2018 (UTC)
- er no. — If I needed such a term I'd probably say lozengewise or bendwise. —Tamfang (talk) 05:55, 11 April 2018 (UTC)
- Es diu cantoned. Bona nit! 猛犸象牙 (talk) 22:04, 10 April 2018 (UTC)
Pornocracy
[edit]I made a change in the page Pornocracy, translating Sæculum as Century. It was translated as age and someone undone my translation just because in the Wikipedia page is translated as age but in Latin, Sæculum means century, not age, epoch or whatever. Latin for age is aetate. Someone can help me?
- That's a different sense of age. Here is the entry in the dictionary nearest to my hand (Smith & Lockwood):
- saeculum (poet. saeclum), ī, n. I. the period of one generation (i.e. 33⅓ years), a generation. 1. Lit. a. Prop.: Cic., Verg., Liv., etc. b. More vaguely: aureum, Cic.; Pyrrhae, Hor. 2. Transf. a. the people living at a particular time, a generation : Pl., Lucr., Cic., Verg., etc. b. In pl. : successive generations, races : Lucr. c. the spirit of the age, the times : nec corrumpere et corrumpi saeculum vocatur. Tac. II. the full period of a man's life, a period of a hundred years, a century. a. Prop.: Varr., Cic., Hor. b. More vaguely : an age : Cic. [It secolo ; Fr. siècle.]
- —Tamfang (talk) 06:08, 11 April 2018 (UTC)
Is this really plural only? And are there alternative capitalisations? --Per utramque cavernam (talk) 12:37, 11 April 2018 (UTC)
- Really the English phrase is an adjective. The Hebrew phrase is plural (but perhaps it can be used in the singular as well). On a separate note, this is the name of an award, is it really dictionary-worthy? --WikiTiki89 16:32, 11 April 2018 (UTC)
- There's some singular use: "[name] was honored as a Righteous Among the Nations in [year]" (with a it's singular and a noun). But is there enough for attestation? The adjectival use, e.g. "the Righteous among the Nations award", could also be a noun in an English spaced semi-compound, but in this case it's no title. As a title, if that exists, it could be a noun too like Lord is a title and a noun. -80.133.99.58 10:12, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
- The ordinary use is adjectival "he was recognized as Righteous Among the Nations". Without the "a", it's adjectival. I didn't say that a title can't be a noun. Not all titles are the same. --WikiTiki89 14:15, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
- Recently, there was an interesting discussion about (the) use of (the) articles at Wiktionary:Information_desk#that's_the_wrong_direction. Grammar is complicated and apparently arbitrary. Rhyminreason (talk) 21:06, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
- The ordinary use is adjectival "he was recognized as Righteous Among the Nations". Without the "a", it's adjectival. I didn't say that a title can't be a noun. Not all titles are the same. --WikiTiki89 14:15, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
- There's some singular use: "[name] was honored as a Righteous Among the Nations in [year]" (with a it's singular and a noun). But is there enough for attestation? The adjectival use, e.g. "the Righteous among the Nations award", could also be a noun in an English spaced semi-compound, but in this case it's no title. As a title, if that exists, it could be a noun too like Lord is a title and a noun. -80.133.99.58 10:12, 12 April 2018 (UTC)
These definitions are...pretty bad. Is this the page to find volunteers for rewriting definitions? I'm terrible at lexicography and I don't know where to ask. Ultimateria (talk) 00:45, 13 April 2018 (UTC)
- Can you point out what you are dinding badly written? The ety is complicated, the definitions seem straight forward.
- No, this is not the page for a request like that. At least you need to be more specific. Rhyminreason (talk) 08:04, 13 April 2018 (UTC)
- The definitions are incredibly vague. "Covered" how? How does "caused" apply to a prefix? At the very least, each sense needs an example. Ultimateria (talk) 22:31, 15 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Ultimateria: Just ignore him. You're right, this entry needs work. --Per utramque cavernam (talk) 22:34, 15 April 2018 (UTC)
- The definitions are incredibly vague. "Covered" how? How does "caused" apply to a prefix? At the very least, each sense needs an example. Ultimateria (talk) 22:31, 15 April 2018 (UTC)
Found at Category:English entries that don't exist
- pathological fear of hearing a specific word or name.
- A classic case of onomatophobia is the actors' superstition for the word “Macbeth”; they never utter it, but use euphemisms instead: “The Scottish Play”, “MacBee”.
sarri.greek (talk) 19:49, 13 April 2018 (UTC)
- It had two citations already; I've managed to find at least one more. Ten years after Conrad's comment that it'd be nice if someone could find a third citation, it's finally citable! So I've resurrected the entry. :)
- A miracle! Two...! How nice of you @-sche:. Your citations, always inspiring, especially for us, non-anglophones. Thanks sarri.greek (talk) 21:19, 13 April 2018 (UTC)
Kakistocracy etymology appears to be wrong -- please help
[edit]Hi,
I don't the time right now learn how to contribute (but I would like to do so).
Problem: The word "kakistocracy" is topical in the current political environment re Trump, but the entry in Wiktionary has an apparently wrong attribution in its Etymology.
Specifically, the current Etymology states that "The word was coined by the English author Thomas Love Peacock (1785–1866) in his 1829 novella The Misfortunes of Elphin as the opposite of aristocracy (see the quotation)."
However, there is a credible citation to a much earlier (1829-1644=185) use of the word:
1644, Paul Gosnold, "A SERMON preached at the PUBLIQUE FAST the ninth day of Aug. 1644 at St. Maries, OXFORD, BEFORE the honorable Members of the two Houses of PARLIAMENT, There assembled. By PAUL GOSNOLD Master of Arts. And published by authority.", OXFORD, Printed Henry Hall. Cover+30 pages. Early English Books Online-Text Creation Partnership (EEBO-TCP Phase 1) Ann Arbor, MI (USA); Oxford (UK), 2008-09 URL: https://quod.lib.umich.edu/e/eebo/a41582.0001.001/21:A41582.0001.001?page=root;size=125;vid=94937;view=text
"Therefore we need not make any scruple of praying against such: [...] against those tempests of the State, those restlesse spirits who can no longer live, then be stickling and medling; who are stung with a perpetuall itch of changing and innovating, transforming our old Hierarchy into a new Presbytery, and this againe into a newer Independency; and our well-temperd Monarchy into a mad kinde of Kakistocracy." (pages 17-18)
So, someone, please check this out and perhaps edit the entry accordingly.
DLAnderson
- Seems legit. I've amended the entry accordingly. Thanks. Ƿidsiþ 13:55, 16 April 2018 (UTC)
How'd Chell survive sleeping without waking up for anything, for 5 million years?
[edit]Also, what's the word for the definition "1 million years"? Please answer both questions. - I is American English.
- mega-annum or megayear. The Chell question isn't relevant to a dictionary; try asking at Wikipedia. Equinox ◑ 00:00, 15 April 2018 (UTC)
It's a Portal 2 question. It's about a game. Let someone from Game Theory answer that one. Also, I thought I was on Wikipedia. - I is American English.
Anyone have an idea where the name of the wolf-like dog in Lessing's fable has it's name from, what it means? These are closely modeled after Aesop's fables. "Hylax" looks foreign enough to be from Greek, as the less mysterious Lykodes from the same story, while the well known Meister Lampe seems to be a pun on french lapin (rabbit) and Lampe (lamp). Is it related to hyena (which has a surprising etymology)? Also a play on words? Here's the reference at Deutsches Textarchiv. --Rhyminreason (talk) 02:42, 15 April 2018 (UTC)
- See LSJ for some Greek words that seem to have the same root. The stem seems to be a verb meaning "bark, howl". L&S has an entry for Hylax, the proper name of some dog, glossed as Barker. DCDuring (talk) 03:33, 15 April 2018 (UTC)
Hello,
Is there any particular reason there are two sections « Letter » for this entry—perhaps could they be merged? — Automatik (talk) 10:53, 15 April 2018 (UTC)
- Done (formatting of the first letter section was obvy not correct: definition about head, missing definition in the definition section). -84.161.4.90 23:56, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
Please advise how to add the word "citadel" as a reference to a Salvation Army place of worship
[edit]I would like add the word "citadel" (a Salvation Army place of worship but there doesn't seem to be a "wizard" tool to assist people in adding content to wiktionary. A google search for:
"citadel definition Salvation Army"
turned up the following results:
www.thefreedictionary.com www.thefreedictionary.com%2FSalvation%2BArmy&usg=AOvVaw1zQvNFW1XtNBCNHZgR8s9K
en.oxforddictionaries.com en.oxforddictionaries.com%2Fdefinition%2Fcitadel&usg=AOvVaw3qdipkGXdyPgQ6qEbbuW0t
www.bbc.co.uk www.bbc.co.uk%2Fnorfolk%2Fcontent%2Farticles%2F2007%2F08%2F20%2Ffaith_salvation_army_20070820_feature.shtml&usg=AOvVaw2Csd_-zhJkE-QWGQ4oYgjm
www.sheffieldcitadel.co.uk www.sheffieldcitadel.co.uk%2Falpha%2F&usg=AOvVaw1dfWbnaFedZAif43tfUCJq
Please help. Adrian816 (talk) 14:14, 15 April 2018 (UTC)
- I have added the definition to citadel and also added a "see also" section to Salvation Army. SemperBlotto (talk) 05:21, 16 April 2018 (UTC)
WP gives these as synonyms of spin room. Is that correct? --Per utramque cavernam (talk) 15:19, 15 April 2018 (UTC)
As in "single-issue politics", "single-issue party". Is this lexicalised? --Per utramque cavernam (talk) 15:24, 15 April 2018 (UTC)
"The chest that held the royal treasury." What royal treasury does this refer to specifically? ---> Tooironic (talk) 02:35, 16 April 2018 (UTC)
“Sugar beet” in Persian
[edit]In “Lauferica” (1987, Orient), Eiichi Imoto writes:
- On the streets of Iran boiled sugar beets sell well. The sugar beet (Beta vulgaris) is called labū or lapū in Persian. Pers. labū or lapū is derived from Pahl. *lapūy, *lapūg or *lapūk. Pahl. *lapūk is derived from O Pers. *lā̆pūka-.
Can these Persian words be confirmed, and what are their native-script forms? @ZxxZxxZ Could you help? Hayyim has:
- لبو (laboo) Noun Boiled beet.
And Steingass:
- لبلبو lablabū, Beet boiled and eaten with whey and garlic.
Asking because these words bear an interesting resemblance to Chinese 蘿蔔/萝卜 (luóbo) (and variants, < Old Chinese *rabuk ?).
Also, could the Persian be borrowed from Akkadian 𒇻𒊬 (laptu, liptu, “turnip”) (~ Hebrew לֶפֶת (lefet, “turnip”), Classical Syriac ܠܰܦܬܳܐ (laftā, “turnip”), Arabic لِفْت (lift, “turnip”)), like proposed in TURNIP in Encyclopædia Iranica? Is the -ūka an explainable element?
Thanks in advance! Wyang (talk) 13:26, 16 April 2018 (UTC)
- There are lots of interesting resemblances when it comes to words for turnips: there are cognates or borrowings to the Akkadian word in Arabic and Hebrew, Latin has rāpum and nāpus, and Greek has νᾶπῠ (nâpu) (said to be a possible borrowing from Egytian). My impression is that there's a very old word for turnip and related plants (see Ancient Greek σῐ́νᾱπῐ (sínāpi), for instance) that's been wandering around the Middle East and elsewhere for thousands of years, perhaps as long as there have been domesticated turnips. Sugar beets, on the other hand, are only a couple of centuries old. New things tend to receive variations of existing names for similar things, so this is what one would expect. Chuck Entz (talk) 14:06, 16 April 2018 (UTC)
- Don't forget Ancient Greek ῥάπυς (rhápus), which corresponds to the Iranic cognate most closely. Crom daba (talk) 00:33, 17 April 2018 (UTC)
- The sense "boiled beet" is correct for لبو (labu) and لبلبو (lablabu), but regarding لبلبو (lablabu) in particular, it is less common in Iran, and I can't confirm that particular sense based on dictionaries other than Steingass. لبلبو (lablabu) also has other senses in some dialects of Iran, including "blackberry" in Persian of Gorgan. --Z 09:41, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
- @ZxxZxxZ Thank you! Any luck with the Middle and Old Persian forms? They look like they were taken from somewhere, though it is not clear what the source for them was. Wyang (talk) 09:50, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
- No problem. We can derive it from Middle Persian because the suffix ـو (-u) (from Middle Persian suffix [Term?] (/-ūg/)) which forms adjectives from nouns (if I'm not mistaken) is not a productive suffix in Persian, though I know it is a productive suffix in some other modern Iranian dialects, beside Middle Iranian languages. The first component could be لب (lab, “lip”). --Z 15:46, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
- @ZxxZxxZ Thank you! Any luck with the Middle and Old Persian forms? They look like they were taken from somewhere, though it is not clear what the source for them was. Wyang (talk) 09:50, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
OED sex and gender
[edit]The last OED update included a load of revisions and additions to terms related to sex and gender – there's a very interesting summary of it here which I think even non-subscribers can access. Since this is an area we've struggled with a bit, and which attracts a lot of attention, it might be a useful read. Ƿidsiþ 07:47, 17 April 2018 (UTC)
- Their update pages are visible to non-subscribers and can be an interesting source of information and ideas, or at least an interesting read.--Prosfilaes (talk) 20:30, 17 April 2018 (UTC)
Can someone clean up underneath? The quotes for the adverb use the word below instead of underneath, and I'm not convinced that her underneath is an adverb. It should be a noun, fitting that definition well. Danielklein (talk) 09:05, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
- Good catch. Looks like someone had a thinko. — Ungoliant (falai) 12:36, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
seems to require a proper definition. Equinox ◑ 09:08, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
- Seems, shmeems. DCDuring (talk) 19:27, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
- Memes. —Suzukaze-c◆◆ 02:01, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- Note: This was deleted without RFD. Rhyminreason (talk) 03:35, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- By the entry's creator and sole contributor. DCDuring (talk) 03:41, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- Note: This was deleted without RFD. Rhyminreason (talk) 03:35, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- Memes. —Suzukaze-c◆◆ 02:01, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
Did I write this "# An expanse or a swath, a strip of land." taken from swath right?
In other words: are swath, expanse, sweep, spread, stretch all synonyms?
Sobreira ►〓 (parlez) 09:39, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yes. Swath might be dated; sweep might be 'literary'. There are probably other slight differences in usage, but not much in definition, IMO. DCDuring (talk) 19:16, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
- I'm English and "swath" doesn't work for me. But "swathe" does. A vast swathe of southern England.
- I learned it as swath (noun), as in "a broad swath of the population", and swathe (verb), as in "the forest was swathed in fog". Similar to breath (noun) + breathe (verb), or loath (adjective) and loathe (verb), where the verb forms have voiced final consonants. ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │Tala við mig 04:01, 22 April 2018 (UTC)
- I'm English and "swath" doesn't work for me. But "swathe" does. A vast swathe of southern England.
@Crom daba, Demilux, Dijan, Maria Sieglinda von Nudeldorf, Vorziblix and anyone else who knows Serbo-Croatian: an anon just created budemo/будемо and called it a pronoun meaning "we". Is that right? I thought it was a verb form, but I don't know Serbo-Croatian. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 19:32, 18 April 2018 (UTC)
- Now cleaned up by Per utramque cavernam. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 11:50, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
WP gives this as a translation of German Kristallnacht, but the evidence of GB looks pretty scarce. Is it actually used? --Per utramque cavernam (talk) 09:50, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- Google Books makes it pretty clear it's a translation of Kristallnacht. HathiTrust offers at least this cite for a use; there seems to be a lot more if we accept versions in quotes.--Prosfilaes (talk) 22:59, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- Well, it's not a proper translation of Kristallnacht; at best it's a semi-calque (Nacht = night; Kristall = crystal – broken glass) or explanation.
"quotes" as in usages with quotation marks (AKA quotes) around it, or as in citations? If it's the second, there could be a proper non-quote usage (only "could", as there are exceptions like the quote not being a proper quote but a translation). -84.161.4.90 23:53, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- Well, it's not a proper translation of Kristallnacht; at best it's a semi-calque (Nacht = night; Kristall = crystal – broken glass) or explanation.
So, I'm creating entries in Bulgarian now apparently. I figure брегова means coastal, but is probably not the lemma. Then I get no further, as I suck at Bulgarian. Can someone check the entry? --Cien pies 6 (talk) 13:45, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- If you suck at Bulgarian, maybe you should leave the creation of Bulgarian entries to people who don't. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 13:55, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- I totally agree with you! --Cien pies 6 (talk) 17:09, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- Done --WikiTiki89 16:09, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
Sense 2 of the noun ("Taking up too much of something so others cannot use it"). Is that not just the present participle of hog? – Gormflaith (talk) 21:51, 19 April 2018 (UTC)
- To be precise, it's a w:gerund.
- The etymology of the corresponding verb under hog is peculiar, what's the relation to castrated animals? German hocken in the sense of besetzen might be related (literally to squat), could it be? 178.24.236.73 07:20, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
Should we have one? It seems to have developed its own life and personality beyond the parent broadcast. Possible candidates might include blogcast, multicast, nowcast, peercast, podcast, unicast, videocast, vodcast. Equinox ◑ 07:16, 21 April 2018 (UTC)
- That would be a normal development. The uses in peercast, singlecast, and unicast, in particular, seem to contrast with the meaning in broadcast. And it doesn't seem like a return to cast#Verb. DCDuring (talk) 23:32, 21 April 2018 (UTC)
exuvi-um-a-ae
[edit]I am doing a bit of editing and encountered Wikipedia's [1] in which they say, mostly believably (to me anyway, Latin always was Greek to me)
"The Latin word exuviae, meaning "things stripped from a body", is found only in the plural. Exuvia is a derived singular usage that is becoming more common, but in fact this is incorrect. Only a single work by Propertius uses the term Exuvium as a singular form"
In the Wiktionary entry OTOH, we have a whole table of Latin inflections, singular and plural, and ploughing through Ainsworth, I don't see where the author of that table got her/his authority from. I am tempted to edit the item in line with WP's entry, but could I first beg a bit of input at this end.
I must admit that exuvia/e always did set my teeth on edge, just as virus/i did (as I am sure it used to set true-blue Romans' on edge, who never failed to say "viruses" whenever they desired the plural), but let that wait till we have these exuviuses settled.
Cheers JonRichfield (talk) 11:51, 21 April 2018 (UTCT)
- The Cassell's New Latin Dictionary gives only "exuviae, -arum". All the examples given are in the plural. Caeruleancentaur (talk) 19:07, 21 April 2018 (UTC)
- Georges' dict gives "exuvium, iī, n. (exuo), Nbf. v. exuviae (w. s.), Prop. 4, 10, 6." and "Sing. exuvia, ae, f., Augustin. serm. 59, 1 Mai (nova bibl. patr. 1. p. 118).". In later ML and (early) NL, exuvia could have become more common than in antique Latin and early ML. It's possible that the "is becoming more common" properly is "is becoming more common IN ENGLISH". -84.161.5.181 22:16, 21 April 2018 (UTC)
Both the replies so far are reasonable thank you. I cannot find any example of exuvia or FTM exuvium in Ainsworth, singular or plural, nominative or any other case. Given so few examples of the singular in past usage, I am not sure which of the ancient specimens to trust, either as scholarship or possible levity. It seems that apart from the inevitable but unpredictable pressures on languages, even Latin, we shall be compelled to accept the modern forms in English et alia including Late Latin. That leaves us with the question of what to put into our entry. How about something like:
"The Latin word exuviae, meaning among other things, "things such as clothing or spoils stripped from a body", was rarely found except as a plural. Exuvia is a derived singular usage that has gained de facto acceptance in modern biology, either as singular or plural by various writers, with exuviae as the plural, though in terms of the original Latin that singular form arguably is incorrect. In Classical Latin only a single extant work by Propertius uses any singular form, and understandably, he used the term exuvium, which also appears in some modern works."
Correction, discussion and proposals for how and where to include such a screed welcome. I am concerned because, although it is less likely to create international discord and rebellion than Swift's Big/Little-Endians, it certainly is a point that reflects long-standing and ubiquitous confusion in modern usage. JonRichfield (talk) 03:06, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- "[...] in English [...]" and "[...] in modern biology [...]" could mean that the text merges the usage of two different languages. Latin entry exuvia (usually in plural in classical times with very few exceptions) is different from an English entry exuvia (also or even often or solely singular). As for the Latin entry which might rather be exuviae something like this seems good enough: "The word exuviae is rarely found except as a plural [maybe to add because of Middle and New Latin: in ancient Latin]. A singular is used in [place/citation, giving Propertius' exuvium (n. sg.), Augustinus' exuvia (f. sg.)]." As for the English entry, it could be something like: "In [to add?: ancient] Latin it's rarely found as sg., see [Latin entry's usage notes] for more." -84.161.52.37 03:43, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- Thanks, I'll be back to do something on those bases. About ancient Latin, should I not be using the term "classical"?JonRichfield (talk) 04:47, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- Say "Classical Latin" if you mean the language from about 75 BC to AD 200; say "Old Latin" (for which we have a separate code,
itc-ola
) if you mean the language before 75 BC. It's probably best to avoid the term "ancient Latin" as it's potentially ambiguous (I personally would interpret it as a synonym of Old Latin, but other people might interpret it differently). —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 07:41, 26 April 2018 (UTC) - 'Twas "ancient Latin" with sense 3 of ancient (relating to antiquity as a historical period), making it a cover term for "(Early,) Old, Classical and Late Latin". Alternatively there's antique, antiquarian, antiquitous, antiquary in reference to sense 3 of antiquity (historical period preceding the Middle Ages). Else a wording like "Old, Classical and Late Latin" or "Latin from x to y [~500 for the end of LL]" is needed to replace it. -84.161.40.184 00:36, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- Say "Classical Latin" if you mean the language from about 75 BC to AD 200; say "Old Latin" (for which we have a separate code,
- Thanks, I'll be back to do something on those bases. About ancient Latin, should I not be using the term "classical"?JonRichfield (talk) 04:47, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
question
[edit]hi why very words in wiktionary not reference in bodem of word
- Maybe doesn't properly answer the question, but English Wiktionary has WT:CFI (rules for inclusion) and WT:RFV (for verification if a term really exists by Wiktionary's inclusion rules). Reference material, like dictionaries, can have invented terms which English wiktionary doesn't accept. -84.161.5.181 22:09, 21 April 2018 (UTC)
So, I'm creating entries in Taíno now apparently. I figure Borinquen means Puerto Rico, but it is probably missing something. I get no further, as I suck at Taíno. Can someone check the entry? --Cien pies 6 (talk) 18:29, 21 April 2018 (UTC)
- No way this is attested, right? @Victar, -sche —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 21:00, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
- If you spend time in PR, you'll see this and related terms. :)
- FWIW, I'm used to seeing the forms Boriquén (“Puerto Rico”) and Boricua (“a native Puertorriqueño”). The ES WP has articles at w:es:Boriquén and w:es:Boricua. The ES WT entry at es:boricua gives an etymology source as Arqueología lingüística: estudios modernos dirigidos al rescate y reconstruccíon del arahuaco taíno by Manuel Álvarez.
- HTH, ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │Tala við mig 01:03, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- I think you may be missing the point... attested as Taíno. (We have boricua, by the way, with the correct capitalisation.) —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 04:15, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- Ah, yes, any attestations as Taíno in a Taíno context (not just word lists) would be very hard to find. ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │Tala við mig 16:23, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yep, all Taíno words should be reconstructions as there isn't a single passage in Taíno. Also, all reconstructions need to have cited etymologies. If they can't be cited, it should in most cases end at a Spanish entry. --Victar (talk) 22:48, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- Ah, yes, any attestations as Taíno in a Taíno context (not just word lists) would be very hard to find. ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │Tala við mig 16:23, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- I think you may be missing the point... attested as Taíno. (We have boricua, by the way, with the correct capitalisation.) —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 04:15, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
ανάμεσα
[edit]This is a preposition, not an adverb, right? Caeruleancentaur (talk) 19:03, 21 April 2018 (UTC)
- No, I think it's an adverb indeed; it's always used (as far as I know) with σε (se), which is the real preposition. --Per utramque cavernam (talk) 19:16, 21 April 2018 (UTC)
This seems like some kind of restaurant term:
- It was at The Cliff restaurant where I did estage for six months, I was then hired by Sandy Lane Hotel.
Also [3], "I am definitely planning on returning to the Fat Duck for another estage, don’t get me wrong it’s no summer camp, it is very (very!) hard work from the early hours of the morning until late into the night."
What does it mean? DTLHS (talk) 23:34, 21 April 2018 (UTC)
- I believe that it is an internship - where the person works for (next to) nothing but gets experience. With luck he gets offered a job at the end. SemperBlotto (talk) 10:31, 22 April 2018 (UTC)
So, I'm creating entries in Polish again apparently. I figure odegracie is a form of odegrać, going by what grać says. A couple of dictionaries say it's role-play, but what do I know? I suck at Polsih. Can someone check the entry? --Cien pies 6 (talk) 07:29, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
Is this Japanese term (in Wikipedia) common enough in English? DonnanZ (talk) 14:55, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
- google books:"the ashiyu" only gives 17 hits, collapsing to 14 when paging through. A quick glance suggests that most of these are treated as non-English words, with glosses and italicizing. ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │Tala við mig 01:07, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- Digging through those 14 hits, only 5 gave any preview, and all 5 treated ashiyu as non-English. ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │Tala við mig 01:10, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- So an English speaker would usually call it a footbath, they even look like a paddling pool. Thanks. DonnanZ (talk) 08:11, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Eirikr: I tried googling "an ashiyu" and found enough to make an entry worthwhile. I borrowed the Japanese from Wikipedia, which needs checking of course (if you or someone else would be so kind). Cheers. DonnanZ (talk) 11:15, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- @DonnanZ -- google books:"an ashiyu" generates 22 ostensible hits, collapsing to 18 when paging through. Of the four hits that offer preview and include this term, all treat the term as non-English.
- What sources did you find that treat this term as English (i.e. without providing a gloss and without italicizing)? ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │Tala við mig 16:31, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Eirikr: I tried googling "an ashiyu" and found enough to make an entry worthwhile. I borrowed the Japanese from Wikipedia, which needs checking of course (if you or someone else would be so kind). Cheers. DonnanZ (talk) 11:15, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- It's pretty obvious that it's not an English word, but the mere fact it is recorded in English script should be enough. But if you are not satisfied with that RFV it or something. But we have sayonara and probably quite a few other Japanese words in English, see Category:English terms derived from Japanese. DonnanZ (talk) 17:02, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- "It's pretty obvious that it's not an English word, but the mere fact it is recorded in English script should be enough." It sounds like you're saying that any term in Latin script in an English text is therefore English. I cannot agree with this.
- Some terms, like sayonara or skosh, have demonstrably entered the English-language lexicon, and these terms are used by English speakers as English terms in English-language contexts. I am wholly supportive of treating these terms as English.
- Other terms, like ashiyu, are unknown to English speakers who have not studied Japanese culture and language, and are demonstrably treated as non-English when used by English-language writers. I cannot support treating these terms as English.
- I am supportive of us having an entry at [[ashiyu]] -- provided this indicates those languages that treat this term, with this spelling, as part of their respective lexicons, and/or provides soft-redirects to the appropriate entries in the relevant scripts. That ensures that users can still look up this term, which is good for usability. However, treating this as English does our users a disservice, especially English-language learners, as doing so effectively misinforms them. English speakers don't say ashiyu, they say heated footbath or wading pool.
- Re: RFV, I suppose I could go that route, though I'd rather we just resolve this. You began this thread with a question that I took to be requesting confirmation that this is an English term and worthy of an English entry. I've provided my own viewpoint and data to state that this term is not English. Even the EN WP article at w:Ashiyu treats this as a non-English term. I would have thought that to be sufficient...? Would you prefer RFV? ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │Tala við mig 17:02, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- It's pretty obvious that it's not an English word, but the mere fact it is recorded in English script should be enough. But if you are not satisfied with that RFV it or something. But we have sayonara and probably quite a few other Japanese words in English, see Category:English terms derived from Japanese. DonnanZ (talk) 17:02, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- The choice is yours, my argument would be that there is no other suitable word in English to describe something that seems to be uniquely Japanese. I also found quite a few images in Wikimedia Commons when searching for ashiyu. DonnanZ (talk) 10:32, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- 出た! Do we have an entry for "uniquely Japanese"? Imaginatorium (talk) 06:52, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- The choice is yours, my argument would be that there is no other suitable word in English to describe something that seems to be uniquely Japanese. I also found quite a few images in Wikimedia Commons when searching for ashiyu. DonnanZ (talk) 10:32, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- This discussion is too damn similar to Talk:Cookie. We need to decide what to do with borrowings. —Suzukaze-c◇◇ 06:43, 4 May 2018 (UTC)
- Add to that the previous discussion over the alleged borrowing of the English word Flash (“multimedia platform”) into Chinese – spelled in English letters of the alphabet, not Chinese characters. The word was eventually deleted due to lack of verification: see Talk:Flash. — SGconlaw (talk) 07:16, 4 May 2018 (UTC)
Autarchy/autarky
[edit]The article autarchy claims autarky as a synonym. It is not! It is a homophone with an entirely different meaning. I tried to correct it but was reverted and referred to this page to discuss. Is there a convincing reason to permit this error to persist? --88.97.11.54 15:01, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
- Following the advice at template:rfv, I had a look at Google books and found this, which reports the OED as saying that the terms have been used interchangeably. So I guess the article has to reflect reality, even if reality is wrong[!]. But it matters: North Korea is both an autarchy and an autarky whereas the Irish Free State was the latter but definitely not the former. So surely there ought to be indicator that caution is advised? --88.97.11.54 15:15, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
- If there is a reliable source stating that the words are not equal, you could add a usage note with the source as reference. -80.133.104.193 23:00, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
Hindi
[edit]So, apparently I'm editing i Hindi now. I took a stab at तालियों. --Cien pies 6 (talk) 20:48, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
- I'm so sorry, @AryamanA. —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 20:59, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Cien pies 6, Metaknowledge: It's good. I'll try to add the WT:ACCEL entry creation shortcuts for the inflection tables at some point. —AryamanA (मुझसे बात करें • योगदान) 21:44, 23 April 2018 (UTC)
Chinese: Alternate Characters (异体字)
[edit]Two weeks ago, I added an alternate character to a character's page (瑰), no problem. (see [4]). The result was perfect (looks like this: alt. forms 瓌). Right.
Today I added an alternate character to another page (旗) by the exact same method as above (see [5]). But for some reason, the alternate character appears on the page next to the character itself (looks like this: alt. forms 旂/旗). Wrong.
请问, how can I get the /旗 out of the alternate character box on the 旗 page???
Thanks for any help! --Geographyinitiative (talk) 09:27, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
挑剔 (Pinyin): tiāoti, tiāotī, tiāotì
[edit]The tiāotì reading is labelled as a 'common misreading'.
(Standard Chinese, common misreading)+
Pinyin: tiāotì
Isn't it better to say 'common variant reading' or maybe 'common variant reading, considered as a misreading' or something else? idk
xiandai hanyu guifan cidian ed 3 pg 1287 specifically says that tì is a misreading: "不读tí或tì。"
--Geographyinitiative (talk) 08:25, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Geographyinitiative: I think "common variant" would be fine. — justin(r)leung { (t...) | c=› } 17:38, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
Is sense 4 ("one of the non-Mandarin Chinese languages such as Cantonese, Hakka, etc") really specific to Chinese and distinct from senses 1 and 5? How? Yes, some of the Chinese languages are not intelligible with others in speech and are thus arguably languages and not dialects, but this is not unique to Chinese; many people speak of German "dialects" that are likewise separate languages, and German itself is likewise often treated as "not a dialect" vis-a-vis them (like Mandarin). - -sche (discuss) 16:54, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- German and Chinese languages reasonably fall under sense 5. Collin's refers to this more precisely as "any language as a member of a group or family of languages". Ultimateria (talk) 18:07, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- I understood this to mean that Mandarin is considered the "true" Chinese language, and the others are considered dialects. In many language groups, there is one dialect that is considered the most proper form, or the "high" form. (Like Castilian Spanish, as opposed to the dialects spoken in South and Central America). I thought that was what this was getting at. It is not quite the same as the "improper or wrong" definitions, but reflects an attitude that distinguishes "dialect" from the "high" form. Given that you can get this distinction in other language groups than the Chinese languages, it should probably be generalized, but I think it may be a distinct meaning. Kiwima (talk) 03:39, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- I've generalized it and merged it with the former sense 5, the "regional or minority language" sense: "A language (often a regional or minority language) as part of a group or family of languages, especially if they are viewed as a single language, or if contrasted with a standardized variety that is considered the 'true' form of the language (for example, Cantonese as contrasted with Mandarin Chinese, or Bavarian as contrasted with German)." Is this OK? It's a bit wordy (but could be shortened by dropping the parentheticals)... - -sche (discuss) 16:06, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- I understood this to mean that Mandarin is considered the "true" Chinese language, and the others are considered dialects. In many language groups, there is one dialect that is considered the most proper form, or the "high" form. (Like Castilian Spanish, as opposed to the dialects spoken in South and Central America). I thought that was what this was getting at. It is not quite the same as the "improper or wrong" definitions, but reflects an attitude that distinguishes "dialect" from the "high" form. Given that you can get this distinction in other language groups than the Chinese languages, it should probably be generalized, but I think it may be a distinct meaning. Kiwima (talk) 03:39, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
Superintendent Chalmers: You call hamburgers steamed hams. Principal Skinner: Yes, it's a regional dialect.
Should we have a sense for this? Or am I interpreting this quote wrong? DTLHS (talk) 17:00, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- I reckon "it" is refering to "the calling of hamburgers steamed hams in this region ". Seems perfecty cromulent to me. --Cien pies 6 (talk) 17:32, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yeah, "it" here is one of those things grammar teachers call a "vague pronoun reference", and clearly does not refer to the expression "steamed hams". --WikiTiki89 20:13, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- Or perhaps you could analyze "a regional dialect" as meaning "in a regional dialect", as is done with language names and such (compare "Yes, it's German"). You wouldn't say that "German" can mean "a single word in German". --WikiTiki89 20:19, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- Hmm, I would have thought that was using German as an adjective, you wouldn't say "Yes, it's a German". I'm more inclined to agree with Wikitiki89, that the "it" refers to the act of calling hamburgers steamed hams. Kiwima (talk) 03:42, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- You wouldn't say "it's a German" because German in reference to the language is a proper noun. But if I was back in the States and said "Oh, I left my Handy at home" and someone said "You call a cellphone a Handy?", I could answer "Yes, it's German", and I would certainly be thinking of the proper noun, not the adjective. Likewise if someone questioned my use of y'all's or a might could, I might could answer "Yes, it's my dialect". —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 08:41, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- Hmm, I would have thought that was using German as an adjective, you wouldn't say "Yes, it's a German". I'm more inclined to agree with Wikitiki89, that the "it" refers to the act of calling hamburgers steamed hams. Kiwima (talk) 03:42, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- Or perhaps you could analyze "a regional dialect" as meaning "in a regional dialect", as is done with language names and such (compare "Yes, it's German"). You wouldn't say that "German" can mean "a single word in German". --WikiTiki89 20:19, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yeah, "it" here is one of those things grammar teachers call a "vague pronoun reference", and clearly does not refer to the expression "steamed hams". --WikiTiki89 20:13, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- In the absence of other citations, I think it's simpler to analyse that line in the way Cien Pies and WikiTiki do. But if there were examples of the plural dialects being used to refer to dialectal words (especially if all from one dialect, like "...speaking of olykoek, egg cream and other dialects"), that would lend more persuasiveness to the idea that "dialect" can mean "dialectal word". - -sche (discuss) 16:12, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- What do you think of citations such as
- 2017, Rinaldina Russell, Sonnet: The Very Rich and Varied World of the Italian Sonnet:
- In line 9, abbo is dialect for ho, meaning “I have.” In line 10, saleppe is dialect for grilli, or crickets.
- Do they fit with the current first sense? DTLHS (talk) 16:20, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yes, they seem like sense 1, even more parallel to "Hund is German for 'dog'" (like also olykoek is dialect for doughnut) than the Simpsons example is. - -sche (discuss) 18:17, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- What do you think of citations such as
The Finnish term tilastotulos is currently defined like this:
- (sports) A sports result recorded in the official statistics kept by a a national sports association. In addition to statistical purposes these records may serve as qualification requirements to certain tournaments, championship games etc.
I have two questions:
- Is this clear to an English-speaker?
- Is there an English term for tilastotulos?
--Hekaheka (talk) 22:00, 24 April 2018 (UTC)
- LOL. From that definition, I'd say
{{lb|fi|sports}} [[result]]
would pretty much cover it. --Cien pies 6 (talk) 09:02, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- It is clear but sounds possibly over-defined. Could you just say "official sports result" (that's the best "translation" I can think of)? Equinox ◑ 10:02, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
Thanks for your help. I changed the definition to "official result", which is halfway between your suggestions. --Hekaheka (talk) 14:33, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
So, apparently I'm editting in Slovak now. check toiletný, etc. --Cien pies 6 (talk) 07:07, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
There is a citeable trend of people referring to the store chain "Target" as if it were pronounced "Tarjay", to put a comic air of culture on the brand. Examples include:
- Jade Parker, Making a Splash #1: Robyn (2014): "It was mostly decorated with stuff from Target, but Mom always pronounced it Tarjay — like it was French and fancy."
- Ann Hood, How I Saved My Father's Life (and Ruined Everything Else) (2010): "She has the whole floor, which sounds very fancy, but it's really the attic of their house, so it's just a big open space covered with stuff from Target. She pronounces it Tar-jay, which is really annoying. Eliza should go and work at Target because she loves it so much. One day she said, “Have you seen the dollar bins at Tarjay? I got all this stuff for pedicures there and it only cost thirteen dollars.”
- Mark Tungate, Fashion Brands: Branding Style from Armani to Zara (2012), p. 35: "A whole range of previously uninspired retailers – Oasis, Target in the United States (fashionistas have taken to giving it an ironic French inflection, as in 'Tar-jay') – have ramped up their creativity with the aid of young designers."
I doubt that Target, the store chain, meets WT:BRAND, but would we consider Target ironically mispronounced as "Tarjay" to be a separate sense? bd2412 T 16:06, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- I don't think so. The pronunciation /tɑrˈʒeɪ/ doesn't refer to anything different than the pronunciation /ˈtɑrɡɪt/, it's just a humorous way of referring to the same thing. But if Target does meet WT:BRAND and is added, then we can certainly list both pronunciations. (See also w:Target Corporation#Targét.) —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 16:37, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
Playboy Bunny
[edit]Is Playboy Bunny a proper noun or common noun? What's a good way of telling the difference? — SGconlaw (talk) 16:25, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- I'd call it a common noun because it has to take an indefinite determiner: "She was a Playboy Bunny", not *"She was Playboy Bunny" (which sounds like something a Russian speaker with imperfect English would say). —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 16:33, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- Right, thanks. — SGconlaw (talk) 16:44, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- This is gonna be a WOTD! Lol. --Cien pies 6 (talk) 08:49, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yeah, I thought about it a bit, but figured it was not that offensive (compared, for example, to fur burger and nudie which were also nominated). — SGconlaw (talk) 11:11, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- This is gonna be a WOTD! Lol. --Cien pies 6 (talk) 08:49, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- Right, thanks. — SGconlaw (talk) 16:44, 25 April 2018 (UTC)
- Also, it denotes a member of a class with many members (and the possibility of inducting more members), rather than denoting a singular entity. I note we even consider Muse/Muses a common rather than a proper noun. Whereas, the specific muse Hypate, or e.g. Zeus, are specific entities. People do speak of Zeuses, but chiefly as multiple iterations of that entity or claimants to be that entity, as with Frances as the plural of France. - -sche (discuss) 16:46, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- So, to be clear, the name of a singular entity is a proper noun, and the fact that it is possible in some situations to refer to that entity in the plural (e.g., Christmas Days, Frances, Zeuses) is to be disregarded. However, if a word refers to a class of entities (e.g., Frenchwoman), then it is a common noun. Is that correct? — SGconlaw (talk) 09:45, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- Also, it denotes a member of a class with many members (and the possibility of inducting more members), rather than denoting a singular entity. I note we even consider Muse/Muses a common rather than a proper noun. Whereas, the specific muse Hypate, or e.g. Zeus, are specific entities. People do speak of Zeuses, but chiefly as multiple iterations of that entity or claimants to be that entity, as with Frances as the plural of France. - -sche (discuss) 16:46, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
pereo Latin perfect passive
[edit]In the Conjugation section of the Wiktionary page for the Latin verb pereo it lists the perfect passive form as "itum" and the perfect infinitve as "itum esse". Should these be peritum and peritum esse?
- Yes, but I can't figure out how to fix it. I suspect something needs to be changed at Module:la-verb; maybe GuitarDudeness or Erutuon can help. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 07:44, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Mahagaja: Fixed, I think. — Eru·tuon 20:12, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
@DCDuring, Metaknowledge, Chuck Entz: Is this entry worthy? I'm hesitant; it's SOP, but at the same time it's a term of art, right? --Per utramque cavernam (talk) 13:18, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- I'd say no. In a biological context, you find people just saying "arms race", which supports the idea that the term is not an indivisible whole. I think what really needs to be created is a second sense at arms race to cover more metaphorical uses, not just in biology. —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 17:29, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yes, I agree. --Per utramque cavernam (talk) 19:06, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
Citations:trigenous now has seven attestations, so it's entryworthy. I've created an initial entry with the botanical/zoological sense (as per tetragenous), but from the citations I've found it looks like there are other senses to be defined. I honestly don't know what they should be, though. -Stelio (talk) 16:11, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- monogenous and digenous suggests that "X-genous" terms sometimes mean "relating to X-genesis" (or perhaps, looking at -genous, that's intended to be the same sense??). I seem to recall that at least some speakers also use it to mean "having X genders (classes, kinds)"; indeed, there seem to be enough or almost enough citations to support that sense. - -sche (discuss) 16:21, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- Yes. I expect the other sense is descended from homogeneous converting into the alternative form of homogenous, and that -genous suffix being reused. The "teatragenous" is one of the citations looks to me like a simple misspelling of tetragenous instead. -Stelio (talk) 09:05, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
Similarly, I've bulked Citations:tectotype up to six entries now. It seems apparent that there are two senses:
- A naturalism sense, which has a clear definition. However it all boils down to references back to a single paper (Frederick Chapman's 1912 What are Type Specimens? How Should They be Named?). If all cited references to tectotype are actually just quoting Chapman, that doesn't seem like sufficient independence to pass CFI.
- A geological sense, relating to plate tectonics. But for this sense, the citations don't provide sufficient context for me to divine what the definition should be.
-Stelio (talk) 16:16, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- I've defined them now — feel free to ask me in the future if you need help with anything in the geosciences or palaeontology. The citations you added were not sufficient for either of the senses: some of them were giving the definition rather than actually using it (see Use-mention distinction) and the last two seem to be by the same authors. However, I saw a few more for each definition on Google Books, so all is well. —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 04:12, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
- Thanks for that. It seems to me that the only 'mention' citation for tectotype is the 2010 dictionary definition (please do correct me if I'm wrong, so that I can improve my contributions). That dictionary citation is the only one I didn't add. :-) But yes, the 1979 and 1981 geological citations look like they may be separate translations of the proceedings of the same 1978 conference. -Stelio (talk) 08:17, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
The recently-added context label "(dated, East London slang)" is far too limiting; for example, the word seems to still be current in Irish English and probably also among US speakers with some connection to Yiddish or Jewish communities, e.g. I find hits for "shemozzle in New York", which have motivated me to simply remove the label. If anyone wants to add a more accurate label, go ahead. - -sche (discuss) 18:12, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
Old Burmese
[edit]So, I'm editting in Old Burmese now. JK. Plain on Spanish for me. Is there a catchier word in English for a baldeadora - a street washer? street washing truck SWT? --Cien pies 6 (talk) 20:38, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
In "She eats healthy." "healthy" must be an adverb. Should we have an entry for eat healthy, or are there other constructions in which "healthy" can be an adverb? DTLHS (talk) 22:06, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- run healthy, drink healthy, breathe healthy, sleep healthy. --Per utramque cavernam (talk) 22:18, 26 April 2018 (UTC)
- "He's acting healthy."
- "He's been taught to talk white."
- "The company has been run lean for many years."
- "Drive smart; stay alive."
- "He sat naked on the floor."
- "The light shined bright."
- IMO it simply isn't worth it to add an Adverb section for all the adjectives that may be used in a way that looks adverbial. DCDuring (talk) 01:29, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- As PUC says, it's not specific to "eat healthy"... and yes, it's not even specific to "healthy". (I can also find "For a doctor, he sure eats unhealthy.") It's not even specific to English; German adjectives can likewise be adverbed. But it has limited lemming support: as Grammarphobia notes, most dictionaries only have it as an adjective, but AHD does have it as an adverb. Should we follow? I'm on the fence, leaning towards "sure". We do already have an adverb section for "direct" (as does AHD). - -sche (discuss) 02:14, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- DCDuring's examples are not all analogous. "He sat naked" is not the same as "he sat nakedly" (though "the light shone bright" is the same as "the light shone brightly"). "She eats healthy" does to me seem adverbial (is it informal?): "he sat naked on the floor" means he was naked while sitting, but "she eats healthy" doesn't mean she is already healthy while she eats; it adverbially qualifies the action of eating. Equinox ◑ 13:29, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- There are at least two flavors of the possibly adverbial use, as Equinox has pointed out. One seems to be replaceable with "being/while X" (He, while naked, sat on the floor); another possibly replaceable with "X-ly" or "in an X manner" (The light shined brightly; Drive in a smart manner.). Inevitably, some usage doesn't fit either pattern. To stay/remain/seem/become/appear/look/sound/feel/taste alive/fresh/etc. illustrates a different pattern in which the verbs all seem like copulas, with the adjuncts seeming very much adjectival.
- I don't think that any of these usages warrant adding a semantically redundant adverb section to the entry for the adjective. This reminds of some of our more finely divided definitions, which can readily be seen as a more general definition as applied in a specific context. DCDuring (talk) 15:06, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- DCDuring's examples are not all analogous. "He sat naked" is not the same as "he sat nakedly" (though "the light shone bright" is the same as "the light shone brightly"). "She eats healthy" does to me seem adverbial (is it informal?): "he sat naked on the floor" means he was naked while sitting, but "she eats healthy" doesn't mean she is already healthy while she eats; it adverbially qualifies the action of eating. Equinox ◑ 13:29, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- How do you feel about our adverb section at fast? Equinox ◑ 15:52, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- (chiming in) -- The as
[ADJ]
as construction shows up in a couple of those purportedly adverbial usage examples. However, this generally takes an adjective, no? "He jumped as high as he could." No one says "He jumped as highly as he could," do they? ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │Tala við mig 16:22, 27 April 2018 (UTC)- Perhaps this could be considered a resultative usage? The usage in above mentioned "He sat naked" is called depictive and they are somehow related but different. Crom daba (talk) 20:40, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Equinox:. All but one of the 5 adverb senses at our entry for fast has a corresponding adjective sense (1:1, 2:7, 4:4, 5:11). I didn't find one for 3. I'd argue that we should have an adjective definition that corresponds to 3. But other dictionaries have adverb sections with the same duplication. I think fast has several adverb meanings beyond "in a fast manner". Those adjectives that have only the "manner" sense when used adverbially seem to merit an adverb PoS section much less than others.
- At least two OneLook dictionaries have adverb definitions for healthy: AHD and Collins. I defer to the practice of lemmings. DCDuring (talk) 21:32, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- (chiming in) -- The as
- How do you feel about our adverb section at fast? Equinox ◑ 15:52, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
Does this term have a special meaning in photography? ---> Tooironic (talk) 11:44, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- Side note: the second definition probably needs to be fleshed out. I don’t think you can say something like “the variable changed its value at two vantage points”. — Ungoliant (falai) 12:37, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
I would like to have an entry for walking on sunshine. Is there a format for expressions that are technically verbs (the lemma would be walk on sunshine), but which is only ever used in the present participle? It might technically be an adjective comparable to elated, but there are no comparative forms. bd2412 T 14:20, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- Meh, it's perfectly decent as a normal verb entry. Created and cited (without Katrina or The waves) --Cien pies 6 (talk) 21:14, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
- That will do. bd2412 T 17:50, 28 April 2018 (UTC)
disjunct particles - how to name entries?
[edit]Do we want to create entries for not only ... but also or not so much ... as? If yes, do we have an established scheme for them?
Both are abundantly found in other dictionaries:
- not only:
- not so much:
- “not so much sth as sth”, in Cambridge English Dictionary, Cambridge, Cambridgeshire: Cambridge University Press, 1999–present.
- “not so much”, in Collins English Dictionary.
- “not so much as” (US) / “not so much as” (UK) in Macmillan English Dictionary.
- “not so much as”, in Lexico, Dictionary.com; Oxford University Press, 2019–2022.
- “not so much as” in Longman Dictionary of Contemporary English, Longman.
--Per utramque cavernam 19:38, 27 April 2018 (UTC)
This has three senses, two of which are:
- (vulgar, slang, figuratively) bastard, shit, son of a bitch
- (vulgar, slang, figuratively) A generally despicable person.
Granted, I'm not well versed in the ways of abusive vulgarity, but I don't see the difference between the two. Chuck Entz (talk) 11:00, 28 April 2018 (UTC)
- Sent to RFD. —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 03:53, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
Hi. There's a game called capirotejo which looks awesome - a cross between leapfrog and piggyback riding, stage diving and Human Centipede. There's a video here and here. Has anyone played this before? But lexicographically speaking, do we have a word for it in English? My definition was going to be a variety of leapfrog but that is lame. --Cien pies 6 (talk) 20:23, 28 April 2018 (UTC)
- @Cien pies 6 That's a super find; it looks great! But not even an ES Wikipedia article to document it. :-( Perhaps, "A traditional game played in Ecuador, in which as many players as possible jump on the backs of other participants that have formed a head-to-hips line." -Stelio (talk) 08:40, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- That will do. --Cien pies 6 (talk) 11:18, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
Should the "interfix of liaison" be at -t- instead? How do we decide this? I note that e.g. English -k- and -n- are things that go inside a word morphologically, while the French t is always set apart by hyphens (fera-t-il). Equinox ◑ 15:06, 29 April 2018 (UTC)
- I dunno. My first instinct was that it should be at -t-, because the hyphens are always there; English doesn't have an equivalent because we don't have anything that's always written between hyphens like that. But then I realized that in a phrase like ferait-il we just have entries for the words and ignore the hyphen, which could be evidence for fera-t-il instead. I guess what it comes down to is this: when someone just learning French first encounters fera-t-il or the like, what are they most likely to look up, t or -t-? I kind of want to list them both, and call one of them an alternative form of the other, but that's also a little silly because in a running text there's no difference between them. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 16:18, 29 April 2018 (UTC)
- If you check the edit history of -t-, you see that the French particle was originally there, then Connel merged it into t, leaving a hard redirect. Then two years later I undid the hard redirect so I could create the Old Irish entry, meaning that from 2006 to 2009, looking up -t- would take you either directly or indirectly to the French, but now it doesn't take you there at all. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 16:21, 29 April 2018 (UTC)
- And now I see that -t-#Old Irish is actually redundant to t-#Old Irish, meaning we could restore the hard redirect. That might be the best option. —Mahāgaja (formerly Angr) · talk 16:23, 29 April 2018 (UTC)
Cancer is informally used to indicate highly unpleasant things or persons.
Autism is informally used to indicate excessive irrationality.
My edits regarding the definition of these words were reverted, but I say that they're entirely valid. To claim inaccuracy on the grounds of pre-existing definitions, is an ad dictionarium fallacy. Meaning is contingent on what someone thinks a word means. And, people online use these words in the way described above alot. AltHypeFan (talk) 20:19, 5 May 2018 (UTC)
- Easy solution is to prove it by finding real-world citations that meet WT:CFI rules. Equinox ◑ 18:05, 29 April 2018 (UTC)
- 'Twas the edit at cancerous not cancer: diff.
At least image boards use "cancer" in another sense, which may or may not be covered by the figurate sense. -84.161.24.205 00:20, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
- The point of my revert was that the definition was too broad and vague: there are lots of ways someone can be irrational, and I doubt anyone means all of them when they say someone is autistic. My impression is that there are very specific personality traits people have in mind, and leaving those out would be misleading. I would be the last one to advocate removing a sense that's legitimately in use because I personally dislike it. Even if it's vile and disgusting, offensive or totally wrong-headed, an uncensored, descriptive dictionary is incomplete without it. Chuck Entz (talk) 01:52, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
- I see your point. I guess it's a “I know it when i see it” type of thing. But that is obviously useless for a dictionary. So, to clarify things more, how about I define it as a synonym of moronity, imbecility, or idiocy? We all know what those things are supposed to signal. AltHypeFan (talk) 20:19, 5 May 2018 (UTC)
- Question: How can "autism" describe excessive irrationality when one of the core traits of Asperger's syndrome is extreme rationality. Aspies are said to think like Vulcans. They follow logic and rules obsessively. They are most often xNTx on Myers-Briggs (the type called Rational!) It'd be like defining "autism" as "extreme skill at reading body language". Khemehekis (talk) 02:34, 10 May 2018 (UTC)
- Well, this is about the nonliteral use of the term, which is probably quite unattached to reality. That said, all of the above doesn't ring true to me. By the way, I should mention that I blocked this user for using a sock-puppet account to remove tags from an entry, so they won't be able to respond for the time being without risking a longer block. Chuck Entz (talk) 03:08, 10 May 2018 (UTC)
- Do you mean the conception that Aspies are hyperrational beings doesn't ring true to you, or the conception that "autism" can be used, as AltHypeFan claims, to mean "excessive irrationality" doesn't ring true to you? And thanks for letting me know about the sockpuppetry and block. Khemehekis (talk) 03:31, 10 May 2018 (UTC)
- Sorry for being unclear: I meant the latter. It seems vague and off the mark. Chuck Entz (talk) 13:20, 10 May 2018 (UTC)
- Aj, thanks for the explanation. I'll agree with you on "off the mark". Khemehekis (talk) 05:27, 11 May 2018 (UTC)
- Sorry for being unclear: I meant the latter. It seems vague and off the mark. Chuck Entz (talk) 13:20, 10 May 2018 (UTC)
- Do you mean the conception that Aspies are hyperrational beings doesn't ring true to you, or the conception that "autism" can be used, as AltHypeFan claims, to mean "excessive irrationality" doesn't ring true to you? And thanks for letting me know about the sockpuppetry and block. Khemehekis (talk) 03:31, 10 May 2018 (UTC)
- Well, this is about the nonliteral use of the term, which is probably quite unattached to reality. That said, all of the above doesn't ring true to me. By the way, I should mention that I blocked this user for using a sock-puppet account to remove tags from an entry, so they won't be able to respond for the time being without risking a longer block. Chuck Entz (talk) 03:08, 10 May 2018 (UTC)
- Question: How can "autism" describe excessive irrationality when one of the core traits of Asperger's syndrome is extreme rationality. Aspies are said to think like Vulcans. They follow logic and rules obsessively. They are most often xNTx on Myers-Briggs (the type called Rational!) It'd be like defining "autism" as "extreme skill at reading body language". Khemehekis (talk) 02:34, 10 May 2018 (UTC)
"A Japanese and Taiwanese multinational corporation that designs and manufactures electronic products, headquartered in Sakai, Japan."
Is that actually the name of the company, or is it just a brand name? DonnanZ (talk) 20:26, 29 April 2018 (UTC)
Answered my own question. Found and added a wp article on the Sharp Corporation. DonnanZ (talk) 15:32, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
Is acrostatic a synonym of acrodynamic
[edit]As the entry says now? DTLHS (talk) 00:07, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
- @JohnC5 —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 18:21, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
- @DTLHS, Metaknowledge: So depending on your system (e.g. here), acrodynamic may refer to mobile ablauting monosyllables (e.g. {*h₂énts ~ *h₂n̥tés), though these are also just called mobile in some systems because the Erlangen model doesn't really deal well with anything that isn't of the form "R-S-E." In other systems acrostatic and acrodynamic are bewilderingly identical in meaning. —*i̯óh₁n̥C[5] 00:18, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- @JohnC5: Really, I was hoping you could revise the definitions... —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 01:19, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- @Metaknowledge: I'm not really sure how to do so without the definitions becoming overly specialist. —*i̯óh₁n̥C[5] 01:23, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- @JohnC5 That's, er, one of the central challenges of lexicography, isn't it? You'd do far better than I would. —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 02:49, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- If you take a stab at it, the rest of us can try to trim or generalize anything that seems too specialist. Maybe the entry should have two definitions, one for the distinctive use and one for "synonym of..."? - -sche (discuss) 05:07, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- I've made some changes to acrodynamic which should be synchronized with @-sche's changes to acrostatic. —*i̯óh₁n̥C[5] 09:05, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- Are there situations where the "root syllable" and the "first syllable" are not the same? The use of the first phrase in one entry and the second phrase in the other implies the two terms are coordinate terms rather than synonyms (which they were listed as also prior to my edits). - -sche (discuss) 16:09, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- I've made some changes to acrodynamic which should be synchronized with @-sche's changes to acrostatic. —*i̯óh₁n̥C[5] 09:05, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- @Metaknowledge: I'm not really sure how to do so without the definitions becoming overly specialist. —*i̯óh₁n̥C[5] 01:23, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- @JohnC5: Really, I was hoping you could revise the definitions... —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 01:19, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
- @DTLHS, Metaknowledge: So depending on your system (e.g. here), acrodynamic may refer to mobile ablauting monosyllables (e.g. {*h₂énts ~ *h₂n̥tés), though these are also just called mobile in some systems because the Erlangen model doesn't really deal well with anything that isn't of the form "R-S-E." In other systems acrostatic and acrodynamic are bewilderingly identical in meaning. —*i̯óh₁n̥C[5] 00:18, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
These entries more or less claim that all Kermode bears are white or cream-coloured, but the few sources I read all suggested that only a minority of Kermode bears have leucism and that the other ones are black. Does anybody know what definition is correct? ←₰-→ Lingo Bingo Dingo (talk) 14:04, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
- There are black Kermode bears (indeed, a white bear can have two black parents), so the bears are not definitionally white. I've changed the entries. - -sche (discuss) 16:29, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
Can we verify the pronunciation /ɛˈswɑːtɪni/? --WikiTiki89 14:12, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
- This video seems to pronounce the last bit /tini/ (around the 15 second mark), which is in line with what Wikipedia now says and with the guide I can find in a Snopes message board, "eh-swa-teeny". If there are more newscasts about the name change available, perhaps from local news, South African broadcasters, or the BBC, they could also be informative. - -sche (discuss) 14:41, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
- I suppose the English pronunciation will just be as close as possible an approximation to the original Swazi, which can be heard here from the king himself. —Μετάknowledgediscuss/deeds 18:20, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
I've moved this to Wiktionary:Etymology_scriptorium#Etymology_of_écharpe Leasnam (talk) 02:16, 2 May 2018 (UTC)
missing sense of industrial complex
[edit]I've seen this applied to plenty of systems besides (but modeled on) military-industrial complex and prison-industrial complex: medical-industrial complex, peace-industrial complex, non-profit industrial complex, etc. I'm not sure all these terms deserve their own entry, but I think it merits a mention at industrial complex (or just complex, as in military-entertainment complex). I just don't know how to define it. Ultimateria (talk) 19:07, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
- MW's first definition of the noun complex is:
- a whole made up of complicated or interrelated parts
- a complex of welfare programs - the military-industrial complex
- a whole made up of complicated or interrelated parts
- Unless we are attempting to convey some complex set of PoV connotations, I don't see any advantage to having the entry [[industrial complex]] when the denotative meaning is SoP and the word complex appears in usages like "medical-pharmaceutical complex", "industrial agricultural complex", "media sports cultural complex", "surveillance industrial internet complex", "defense education complex", "minority education complex", "welfare state complex", "government media complex", "marketing/manufacturing/media complex", "government-biotech complex", etc. DCDuring (talk) 20:02, 30 April 2018 (UTC)
- Political buzz-phrase, like useful idiot, Great Satan, or bloated capitalists (the latter is actually in Chambers: "a political catchphrase used by Marxists and other socialists (and also jocularly by others) to describe the ruling or managerial class"). Feels as though complex ought to cover it really. Equinox ◑ 21:38, 30 April 2018 (UTC)