Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam Practice Question Workbook: 1,000 Comprehensive Practice Questions (2024 Edition)

Contents

Section 1: Pharmacology

Questions

Answer Key

Section 2: Pharmacy Law and Regulations

Questions

Answer Key

Section 3: Sterile and Non-Sterile Compounding

Questions

Answer Key

Section 4: Medication Safety

Questions

Answer Key

Section 5: Pharmacy Quality Assurance

Questions

Answer Key

Section 6: Medication Order Entry and Fill Process

Questions

Answer Key

Section 7: Pharmacy Inventory Management

Questions

Answer Key

Section 8: Pharmacy Billing and Reimbursement

Questions

Answer Key

Section 9: Pharmacy Information Systems Usage and Application

Questions

Answer Key

Pharmaceutical Calculations

Questions

Answer Key

Comprehensive Exam 1

Questions

Answer Key

Comprehensive Exam 2

Questions

Answer Key

Comprehensive Exam 3

Questions

Answer Key

Comprehensive Exam 4

Questions

Answer Key

Comprehensive Exam 5

Questions

Answer Key

Section 1

Pharmacology

Questions

1. A thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test should be performed periodically if a patient is taking which of the following medications?

a. Levothyrodxine

b. Montelukast

c. Propranolol

d. Furosemide

2. Which of the following medications is a rapid-acting insulin?

a. Insulin glargine (Lantus)

b. Insulin lispro (Humalog)

c. Insulin degludec (Tresiba)

d. Regular insulin (Humulin)

3. Which of the following medications is an example of a beta-blocker?

a. Lisinopril

b. Sertraline

c. Carvedilol

d. Hydrochlorothiazide

4. Protease inhibitors, integrase inhibitors, and nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors can be used in the treatment of __________.

a. HIV/AIDS

b. influenza

c. herpes

d. hepatitis

5. Zoloft is the brand name for which of the following medications?

a. Sucralfate

b. Diltiazem

c. Sertraline

d. Benazepril

6. Warfarin levels can be affected by which of the following foods?

a. Dairy products

b. Soda

c. Leafy greens

d. Water

7. A drug with the suffix -pril belongs to which class of medications?

a. ARBs

b. Beta-blockers

c. Diuretics

d. ACE inhibitors

8. Zolpidem is indicated for the treatment of which of the following conditions?

a. Depression

b. Anxiety

c. Pain

d. Insomnia

9. Tamiflu, Relenza, and Rapivab belong to which pharmacologic category?

a. Antidiarrheal

b. Antiviral

c. Antibiotic

d. Antiprotozoal

10. A therapeutically equivalent medication must have the same strength, dosage form, route of administration, and __________.

a. active ingredients

b. inactive ingredients

c. active and inactive ingredients

d. color and size

11. Which of the following side effects commonly occurs with the use of phenazopyridine?

a. Insomnia

b. Fluid retention

c. Constipation

d. Discoloration of the urine

12. Which of the following medications is an H2 receptor antagonist?

a. Omeprazole

b. Lansoprazole

c. Famotidine

d. Sucralfate

13. Latanoprost is used for the treatment of which ocular condition?

a. Conjunctivitis

b. Corneal abrasion

c. Macular degeneration

d. Glaucoma

14. Members of the triptan medication class are used for the treatment of __________.

a. migraine headaches

b. epilepsy

c. hypertension

d. GERD

15. Glyburide is a member of which hypoglycemic medication class?

a. Biguanide

b. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor

c. Thiazolidinedione

d. Sulfonylurea

16. Women who are pregnant should avoid the use of which of the following medications?

a. Clindamycin

b. Amoxicillin

c. Tetracycline

d. Penicillin

17. Fluoxetine is the generic name for which of the following SSRIs?

a. Paxil

b. Celexa

c. Lexapro

d. Prozac

18. All but which of the following medications is classified as an NSAID?

a. Naproxen

b. Ibuprofen

c. Aspirin

d. Acetaminophen

19. Antibiotics can reduce the effectiveness of which of the following classes of medications?

a. Analgesics

b. Statins

c. Oral contraceptives

d. Antifungals

20. Enoxaparin is the generic name for which of the following medications?

a. Lovenox

b. Heparin

c. Arixtra

d. Xarelto

21. All but which of the following is an example of an antiarrhythmic medication?

a. Amiodarone

b. Quinapril

c. Propafenone

d. Flecainide

22. Dairy products can affect the absorption of which of the following antibiotics?

a. Cephalexin

b. Penicillin

c. Trimethoprim

d. Tetracycline

23. Losartan is the generic name for which of the following ARBs?

a. Cozaar

b. Avapro

c. Micardis

d. Benicar

24. All but which of the following medications is used for the treatment of angina?

a. Nitroglycerin

b. Montelukast

c. Isosorbide mononitrate

d. Isosorbide dinitrate

25. Which of the following medications is the generic name for Lotrel?

a. Amlodipine-benazepril

b. Amlodipine-atorvastatin

c. Losartan-hydrochlorothiazide

d. Lisinopril-hydrochlorothiazide

26. A patient taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) should avoid foods and beverages that contain __________.

a. calcium

b. vitamin K

c. tyramine

d. iron

27. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble?

a. Vitamin A

b. Vitamin C

c. Vitamin D

d. Vitamin E

28. Which of the following medications should be avoided or used with caution in patients who have a sulfa allergy?

a. Hydrochlorothiazide

b. Carvedilol

c. Quinapril

d. All of the above

29. All but which of the following medications is used topically for the treatment of acne vulgaris?

a. Adapalene

b. Salicylic acid

c. Isotretinoin

d. Benzoyl peroxide

30. Olanzapine is the generic name for which of the following medications?

a. Risperdal

b. Geodon

c. Abilify

d. Zyprexa

31. Depression can be treated with which of the following classes of medications?

a. Statins

b. COX-2 inhibitors

c. SSRIs

d. Beta-blockers

32. All but which of the following ADHD medications is classified as a stimulant?

a. Strattera

b. Vyvanse

c. Adderall

d. Ritalin

33. Tadalafil is the generic name for which erectile dysfunction drug?

a. Cialis

b. Levitra

c. Viagra

d. Stendra

34. Amlodipine is a member of which drug classification?

a. ARB

b. Diuretic

c. Calcium channel blocker

d. Beta-blocker

35. Which of the following medications should be taken on an empty stomach?

a. Prednisone

b. Methylprednisolone

c. Levothyroxine

d. Metformin

36. Diovan HCT is a combination of which of the following medications?

a. Valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide

b. Olmesartan and hydrochlorothiazide

c. Valsartan and hydralazine

d. Irbesartan and hydrochlorothiazide

37. Which of the following medications is used for the treatment of hypothyroidism?

a. Methimazole

b. Propylthiouracil

c. Liothyronine

d. Primidone

38. Which of the following medications is classified as an antiviral?

a. Fluconazole

b. Moxifloxacin

c. Acyclovir

d. Nystatin

39. All but which of the following medications is classified as an antihistamine?

a. Loratadine

b. Montelukast

c. Chlorpheniramine

d. Cetirizine

40. Which of the following medications is a potassium supplement?

a. Caltrate

b. Folbee

c. VP-Zel

d. Klor-Con

41. Ibuprofen is the active ingredient in __________.

a. Advil

b. Aleve

c. Tylenol

d. Bufferin

42. Which of the following medications is classified as a bronchodilator?

a. Zafirlukast

b. Albuterol

c. Loratadine

d. Budesonide

43. Amiodarone is indicated for the treatment of which of the following conditions?

a. Angina

b. Arrhythmia

c. Hypertension

d. Ulcerative colitis

44. Memantine is the generic name for which of the following medications?

a. Namenda

b. Aricept

c. Razadyne

d. Exelon

45. Which of the following is defined as the study of what a drug does to the body?

a. Pharmacodynamics

b. Pharmacology

c. Pharmacokinetics

d. Pharmaceutics

46. Proton pump inhibitors are used to decrease the production of which of the following substances in the body?

a. Thyroid hormone

b. Uric acid

c. Leukotrienes

d. Stomach acid

47. Tamoxifen is a hormone agent used for the prevention and treatment of which of the following types of cancer?

a. Prostate

b. Lung

c. Breast

d. Pancreatic

48. Which of the following antibiotics can cause photosensitivity?

a. Ciprofloxacin

b. Sulfamethoxazole

c. Doxycycline

d. All of the above

49. Patients taking anticoagulants should use which of the following medications with caution?

a. Montelukast

b. Loratadine

c. Aspirin

d. Metformin

50. Patients taking a statin should avoid which of the following foods?

a. Milk

b. Grapefruit

c. Bananas

d. Leafy greens

Answer Key

1. A

A thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test should be performed periodically if a patient is taking levothyroxine.

2. B

Insulin lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin.

3. C

Carvedilol is an example of a beta-blocker.

4. A

Protease inhibitors, integrase inhibitors, and nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors can be used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS.

5. C

Zoloft is the brand name for sertraline.

6. C

Warfarin levels can be affected by leafy greens.

7. D

A drug with the suffix -pril belongs to the ACE inhibitor class.

8. D

Zolpidem is indicated for the treatment of insomnia.

9. B

Tamiflu, Relenza, and Rapivab are antiviral medications.

10. A

A therapeutically equivalent medication must have the same strength, dosage form, route of administration, and active ingredients.

11. D

A common side effect of phenazopyridine is discoloration of the urine.

12. C

Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist.

13. D

Latanoprost is used for the treatment of glaucoma.

14. A

Members of the triptan medication class are used for the treatment of migraine headaches.

15. D

Glyburide is a member of the sulfonylurea hypoglycemic medication class.

16. C

Women who are pregnant should avoid the use of tetracycline.

17. D

Fluoxetine is the generic name for Prozac.

18. D

Naproxen, ibuprofen, and aspirin are classified as NSAIDs.

19. C

Antibiotics can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

20. A

Enoxaparin is the generic name for Lovenox.

21. B

Amiodarone, propafenone, and flecainide are examples of antiarrhythmic medications.

22. D

Dairy products can affect the absorption of tetracycline.

23. A

Losartan is the generic name for Cozaar.

24. B

Nitroglycerin, isosorbide mononitrate, and isosorbide dinitrate are used for the treatment of angina.

25. A

Amlodipine-benazepril is the generic name for Lotrel.

26. C

A patient taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) should avoid foods and beverages that contain tyramine.

27. B

Vitamin C is water soluble.

28. A

Hydrochlorothiazide should be avoided or used with caution in patients who have a sulfa allergy.

29. C

Adapalene, salicylic acid, and benzoyl peroxide are used topically for the treatment of acne vulgaris.

30. D

Olanzapine is the generic name for Zyprexa.

31. C

Depression can be treated with SSRIs.

32. A

Vyvanse, Adderall, and Ritalin are ADHD medications that are classified as stimulants.

33. A

Tadalafil is the generic name for Cialis.

34. C

Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker.

35. C

Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach.

36. A

Diovan HCT is a combination of valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide.

37. C

Liothyronine is used for the treatment of hypothyroidism.

38. C

Acyclovir is classified as an antiviral.

39. B

Loratadine, chlorpheniramine, and cetirizine are classified as antihistamines.

40. D

Klor-Con is a potassium supplement.

41. A

Ibuprofen is the active ingredient in Advil.

42. B

Albuterol is classified as a bronchodilator.

43. B

Amiodarone is indicated for the treatment of arrhythmias.

44. A

Memantine is the generic name for Namenda.

45. A

Pharmacodynamics is the study of what a drug does to the body.

46. D

Proton pump inhibitors are used to decrease the production of stomach acid.

47. C

Tamoxifen is a hormone agent used for the prevention and treatment of breast cancer.

48. D

Ciprofloxacin, sulfamethoxazole, and doxycycline are antibiotics that can cause photosensitivity.

49. C

Patients taking anticoagulants should use aspirin with caution.

50. B

Patients taking a statin should avoid grapefruit.

Section 2

Pharmacy Law and Regulations

Questions

1. The law requiring pharmacists to perform a prospective drug review, provide patient counseling, and maintain patient records is the __________.

a. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

b. Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003

c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996

d. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990

2. Pharmacy employees who handle a hazardous chemical should refer to which of the following resources to find information about the hazards of the product and advised safety precautions?

a. Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

b. United States Pharmacopeia

c. Orange Book

d. The Merck Manual

3. After the discovery of a theft of controlled substances, the pharmacy must notify the local DEA office in writing within __________ business day(s).

a. one

b. three

c. seven

d. fourteen

4. Which of the following is true regarding mailing controlled substances via the United States Postal Service?

a. Schedule II controlled substances cannot be mailed.

b. Schedule III-V controlled substances cannot be mailed.

c. Only Schedule V controlled substances are permitted to be mailed.

d. All controlled substances are permitted to be mailed.

5. The third segment of an NDC number identifies which of the following?

a. Drug manufacturer (labeler)

b. Package size and type (package code)

c. Strength, dosage form, and formulation (product code)

d. Expiration date

6. All but which of the following are examples of a Schedule V controlled substance?

a. Tylenol with codeine

b. Robitussin AC

c. Phenergan with codeine

d. Lomotil

7. A prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance may be faxed to a pharmacy in all but which of the following scenarios?

a. The patient is in hospice care.

b. The patient is a resident of a long-term care facility.

c. The prescription is for a Schedule II controlled substance to be compounded for direct patient administration via parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.

d. The patient is being discharged from a hospital.

8. How often must a pharmacy complete an inventory of controlled substances according to federal law?

a. Every year

b. Every two years

c. Every three years

d. Every four years

9. Which of the following chapters of the United States Pharmacopeia provides guidance for the compounding of non-sterile formulations for human or animal administration?

a. USP <795>

b. USP <797>

c. USP <1160>

d. USP <1176>

10. A drug recall in which the use or exposure of the violative substance is not likely to cause adverse health consequences would be in which of the following recall classes?

a. Class I recall

b. Class II recall

c. Class III recall

d. None of the above

11. Which of the following organizations develops standards regarding the identity, strength, quality, and purity of medications and dietary supplements?

a. FDA

b. TJC

c. USP

d. DEA

12. An oral order for a Schedule II controlled substance is permitted __________.

a. if the patient is a resident of a long-term care facility

b. in an emergency situation

c. if the patient is terminally ill

d. if a prescription is being refilled

13. Which organization evaluates and accredits health care organizations and programs in the United States?

a. FDA

b. OSHA

c. TJC

d. CMS

14. Medications that have no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse are in which of the following drug schedules?

a. Schedule I

b. Schedule II

c. Schedule III

d. Schedule V

15. Which of the following laws requires that new drugs must be proven safe and have FDA approval granted prior to marketing?

a. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938

b. Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

c. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

d. Controlled Substances Act

16. Which of the following should be the last digit of Dr. Brent Cole’s DEA number if it begins with BC372514_?

a. 2

b. 5

c. 8

d. 9

17. In which of the following scenarios is partially filling a Schedule II controlled substance permitted?

a. Schedule II controlled substances can never be partially filled.

b. The pharmacy has inadequate