Terminology and Concepts a) Cas,Phase Definitions'

b) Kinetic Molecular Theory of Cases

J

''$1qctilrn VI
Cases
by Todd Bennett

c) Boltzlann s Distvibution d) ldeal Cases e) Reil Qases

..1

Gas Lau's a) Applying Cas Laws b) Avogadro's Law

c) Boyle's Law d) Charles's Law

Gas $ystem Pfopertieg a) Partial Pressure b) Manometers Gas Motion a) Qas Speedland Veloci$r b) Diffusion
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o g

= Lighter gas = Heavier'gas

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Gas

o ooulj "

ut o lT@ t' o
is richer

e o o o o e o o o
o

oo

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G.as mixture

in'the heavier gas,, on the le{t side of the tube

mixtffe is richer in the lighter gas on fhe riglrt side of the tube

c) 0ffusion and Infusion d) Isotopic Dnrichment i

,
,

G'

Gases Section Goals

Know the definition of a tras and the terms associated with qases.
You must know what an ideal gas and a real gas are. Understand the following terms used to describe a gas system: pressure, volume, concentration, density, temper-ature, moles, molecules, collision frequency, and mean free path.

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,:.
-- .j

:i:

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='

::=:
:.:-:

E?

flave a solid understanding of the kinetic theory of gases.

Be able to recite a viable description of gases at the microscopic level using the kinetic theory of gases. Know that gases move about their bnr.ironment in a random fashion, and that they frequently collide with other gas particies and the wails of the container. Know that the momentum of heavier gases is greater than the momentum of lighter gases. Know that the rrelocities of each gas particle sum to zero for a gas in a stationary, closed container.

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_'.

t": : "::

sv
@?

Know the proper applications of the various gas laws.

Know hen to use Avogaclro's, Boyle's, and Charles's laws from the r.aliabies presentecl in the question. -experimental Have an understanding of the conditions required to use 6ach law. li.ecog'nize the shape of the graphs thai show the relationships betlveen the variables oi each gas 1aw.

. ;.

] ir:l:

a,

a,, a

Be able to distinquish between a real gas and an idgal qas. An ideal gas is composed of molecules that occupy no volume and exhibit no intermolecular forces. A real gas is just what the name implies, a gas made up of real molecules that do occupy volume
and exhibit intermolecular forces. The pressure and volurne of a real gas are therefore different from those of an ideal gas. The Van der Waals equation (w hich you shoLrld"understand but not mcmorizc) shows the relationship betweenideal variablcs alrd rcal variables ftrr a gas.

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lr'll l -t "::
.1.,.1

Be able to determine the partial pressure of a gas r,{ithin a rnixture. The total pressure of a system is the sum of the individual pressures (partial presstrres) of all of the component gas particles. The partial pressurc due to one componerr{ irr the mirture can be determincd by multiplying the mole fraction of the component by the total pressure of the system. You must be able to convert between different pressure units.

-.;*

:'i. : -

1^,-

r_r: ._t",.Lr

'v
ov

Understand the relationship between speed, mass, and temperature f,or a gas.
You must know the effect of a particle's mass o1r iis velocity. Lighter gases travel at a faster rate than heavier gases. The velocity of a gas particle is ini crsely proportional trr the squ.rre root ul iis mass. You musl know the effect of iemperature on r elocity. At higher temperatures, gases travel at a Faster rate. The velocity of a gas particle is directly proportional to the square root of the temperature.

!:_::

-.
""t*
t_.

,-,"

:;

Understand the concepts of effusion and effusion rate, infusion, and diffrrsion. Effttsiotr is the process by which gas molecules pJss from within a container to the ouLside lhrough pores irr the container wall. The rate of elfusion depends on thc r clocity of thc gas molccules, thc
number of pores in the material, and the size of tire pore relative to the size of the molecule. When gases entera coniainer through a pore, the process is rcferred to a5 1i rrlci{)ir. When a gas particle moves from a region of higher cohcentration to a ltrwer concentratir;n, the process is known as
,liffusion.

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'": li. :

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i.r :

;:,

":

General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Introduction

The gas phase, from the macroscopic perspective, is defined as the state of a closed system in which molecules have no definite shape and no definite volume. From the microscopic perspective, the molecules are freely moving particles traveling through space, where the kinetic energy associated with each particle is greater than the potential energy of intermolecular forces. The gas phase is the first of three phases of matter that we shall address. Gases differ from liquids in

that liquids have a definite volume, and the molecules in a liquid are in continuous contact with neighboring molecules. Gases differ from solids in that solids have a definite volume and definite shape, and the molecules in a solid
undergo no translational motion and are in continuous contact with neighboring molecules. Of the three common phases of matter (solid, liquid, and gas), the gas phase has the largest amount of kinetic energy and the greatest entropy. To reach the gas phase, energy must be added to the molecules within a system that is not already in the gas phase. It is essential to understand a gas from both the macroscopic and microscopic perspectives.
Macroscopic View of a Gas: A gas assumes the shape and volume of its container. Gases are compressible and must be contained on all sides to hold them in place.

by the macroscopic variables pressure, concentration, temperature, and volume. Chemists treat gases as if they are composed of inert spheres that occupy no molecular volume. This is a basic assumption of the ideal gas law. Most calculations involving gases are based on the ideal gas equation iPV = nRT). There are two common types of calculation questions about gases that you may encounter on the MCAT 1) the before-and-after questions about the effect of changes on a gas system and 2) the straightforward type using PV = rRT. Calculation questions requiring you to find a precise value are few, but ;onceptual relationships can be determined from calculations as well. The first sivle of question is better understood as an application of one of the gas laws -\vogadro's, Boyle's or Charles's laws). For instance, if the temperature increases -n a sealed, rigid container, what changes? This is another way of asking how a iange in temperafure affects the pressure of a gas, assuming constant volume :nd moles. Rather than memorize gas laws, know qualitatively how one variable n the ideal gas equation affects another.
Gases are described
Microscopic View of a Gas: Gases consist of individual molecules or atoms that are randomly moving about the space within a container. The particles are in contact only during collisions. This concept is known as the kinetic theory of gases. Gases can be described by the microscopic variables of collision frequency, mean free path, and mean velocity. The fact that microscopic behavior involves interactions

retween gas particles implies that the molecules do in fact occupy a small 'i'olume and they are capable of exhibiting intermolecular forces (both attractive and repulsive). The strength of these forces varies with distance. Gases exist as :ea1 gases, which are approximated as obeying ideal behavior when they do not nteract. Ideal gas behavior is best simulated at low pressure (fewer collisions

retween molecules and minimal forces between molecules) and high lemperature (at high temperature, molecules have the energy to overcome ntermolecular forces). Under these conditions, the forces acting between gas nolecules become negligible. This is the basis of the kinetic theory of gases.
lt.e behavior of a gas is predictable in terms of the variables that describe the gas :\'stem. We use the ideal gas law to predict the effects of changes on gas systems. -{lthough there are no ideal gases, the approximation is still rather close.
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General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Terminology and Concepts

Ge

fcffiiffidtbffi',fifid C'ficbpts
Gas Phase Definitions The terms used to describe a gas can be broken down into categories of macroscopic and microscopic. We can consider either the system as a whole (macroscopic perspective), or the individual particles that constitute the system
:'i-

(microscopic perspective). Each of the macroscopic properties has a microscopic

equivalent. Table 6.1 lists the macroscopic and corresponding microscopic

properties that describe the state of a gas system.
:iL

Macroscopic Measurements
Pressure (P; standard unit is atm.)

Microscopic Measurements Collision frequency and collision force

Mean free path Molecules Average kinetic energy
: I l:

Volume (V; standard unit is liters) Moles (n; standard unit is moles)
Temperature (T; standard unit is K)

t_
;l*

Table 6.1

It is imperative to have a well-developed glossary in your memory by the time you take the MCAT. Organize the terms in a manner such that one definition
helps you to recall additional definitions. The definitions of selected terms from Table 6.1 are:
Gas Pressttre: Gas pressure is defined as the force per unit area exerted by a gas through collisions against a defined area of the container wall. As the gas moiecules collide more frequently with the container walls or increase their force during collisions with the walls, the gas pressure increases. The gas pressure depends on the number of gas particles, the volume of the container, and the temperature of the gas system. The standard unit for pressure is atmospheres.

IE ;ii:
:r[*:s

:..

.-

4r:
:..

::
:rll|lllttr];lli

Collision Freqtrcncy: The collision frequency is defined as the rate at which molecules in the gas system collide with each other and with the wall of the container. The collision frequency can be increased in one of three ways:

T*run5
finpur*

increasing the temperature (energy of the gas system), increasing the concentration of gas particles, or reducing the mean free path. All of these changes result in an increase in the number of collisions experienced by a molecule within the system in a given period of time.
Collision Force: The collision force is defined as the force exerted by a gas particle during a collision between it and the container wa1l. It is an impulse, so both greater momentum and a shorter time of contact increase the force of impact. The collision force can be increased by increasing the temperature (energy of the gas system), because greater temperature imparts greater velocity, and thus greater momentum, to each particle. Volume: The volume of a gas is defined as the region within the walls of a container. The actual volume that a gas molecule can occupy (the real volume) is the volume of the container minus the volume of the other gas
molecules, because no two gas molecules can occupy the same volume at the

;;tilr';

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r U:
I

illlillir

J,*rn]uu-

Llin,* u

t,'rfu
ni
[wr

Ll.LtiI

Afi[|:

lrtrIw]t
"lPljt]lnf,

tr

iiLi,lil

same

time. The volume of a gas in an open environment is undefined,

l4 I llllllt

because the container holding the gas is also undefined. The standard unit of

luu

volume is liters.

:
fT|t
ll

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ts

General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Terminology and Concepts

unit volume in a container. A gas is assumed to be homogeneous, so a sample from anywhere in the container may be used to determine the gas
of
rle

Concentrntion: The concentration of a gas is the number of gas particles per

m
ric

concentration. As more molecules of gas are added to a system, or as the volume of the container is decreased, the gas becomes more concentrated. This means that as a gas is compressed, it becomes more concentrated.
Mean Free Psth: The mean free path is defined as the average distance a particle can travel before colliding with another particle. Although it isn't the same thing, it can be thought of as the average distance between gas particles at any given time. It is the microscopic equivalent of concentration. If the concentration of a gas remains constant, then the average distance between any two particles within the container also remains constant.

ric

Temperature: Temperature is a measure of the total kinetic energy of a svstem. The greater the energy of each particle in the system, the greater the total energy of the system, and thus the greater the temperature of the svstem. Temperature can be measured in degrees Celsius or Kelvin, although Kelvin is the better measurement to use when working with gases.
Auerage
ne

)n

(rl

Knetic Energy: The average kinetic energy of a system refers to the mean energy of a particle in that system. As the energy of each particle in the system increases, the average kinetic energy of the system increases, thereby resulting in an increased temperafure.

Example 6.1

\\'trich statement below accurately describes the relationship between

temperature and energy? A. Temperature quantifies the energy of a system. B. Energy quantifies the temperature of a system. C. Temperature is independent of energy. D. Temperature is variable, while energy is constant.

Solution
Temperature is a measurement of the average kinetic energy of a system. The hest answer is choice A. A thermometer is used to determine the temperature of a svstem. The way a thermometer works is based on the kinetic theory of gases. The thermometer is an evacuated closed column that is partially filled with a pure liquid, preferably of low volatility (such as mercury). Gases collide with the ,rutside of the evacuated glass casing that contains the non-volatile liquid. The energy from these collisions is transferred through the glass walls and into the niquid. A sufficient number of collisions can increase the vibrational energy of ihe liquid in the container and force the liquid to expand, thereby causing the height of the column of liquid to rise. This implies that the density of a liquid is inversely proportional to its temperature, because as the temperature rises, the r-olume of a liquid increases (the liquid is expanding). Because the density of lvater does not change uniformly (it increases from 0"C to 4'C and then decreases trom 4"C to 100"C), it cannot be used in thermometers. In addition, the range of temperatures over which water exists as a liquid is too small. The liquid chosen to fill a thermometer must have a large temperature range between its freezing point and boiling point. In most thermometers, the liquid used is mercury. In other thermometers, a non-volatile alcohol tinted with a red dye is used.

gw

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General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Terminology and Concepts

Ge

Kinetic Molecular Theory of Gases The kinetic molecular theorv of gases takes a microscopic view of the component molecules (or atoms) that make up a gas. Four assumptions associated with this theory with which we shall concern ourselves are the following:

1. 2.

Particles are so smail compared to the distances between particles (internuclear distances) that their volumes are negligible (assumed to be zero).

Particles move in straight lines. The direction of a particle's motion is changed only by its collision with either another molecule or the walls of the container. The collisions are said to be elastic (no energy is dissipated), and momenfum is conserved.
Particles are in constant random motion. Gas pressure is caused by collisions of the particles against the walls of the container. Gas molecules exhibit no intermolecular forces. This particies neither attract nor repel one another.

3. 4.

is to sav that the

Figure 6-1 shows the random pathway of one gas particle over time, according to the rules of the kinetic molecular theory of gases. If the kinetic energy of the particle increases, the particle's speed increases, so it collides more frequently with the wall. Because it is moving faster, it collides with greater momentum, so impulse increases. The result on the macroscopic level is that the force per unit area exerted against the walls increase, meaning pressure is greater. The kinetic theory of gases explains macroscopic observations using principles derived from a microscopic model. Figure 6-1 shows a random particle in motion.

The particle moves until it collides with the wal1. In a real system, the particle would also collide with other
particles present in the container.
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xri{
Figure 6-1 When there are many gas particles in the container, collisions between particles become more common than collisions with the wall. However, more particles in the container also results in more collisions with the walls, so the pressure increases as particles are added to the system. When there are particles of different masses in a mixed gas, heavier particles move more slowly, hence they exhibit lower coilision frequencies. However, because they have a greater mass and only slightly reduced speed, they collide with greater force (momentum). As a general rule, lighter gas molecules have greater average speeds (and greater collision frequencies) than heavier ones, but less momentum (and thus less collision force). Because pressure depends on both collision frequency and collision force, gas particles of different masses exert the same pressure. On the
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a,
LULr

#il,igoitni'

i-tit

macroscopic level, this means that pressure is the same under identical conditions for all ideal gases, independent of their molecular mass. A good example is to compare helium and nitrogen. The reason they have the same pressure at the same temperature is because they have the same kinetic energy (mv2 term). The molecule with greater mass has less speed. The average speed is inversely proportional to the square root of the mass. Copyright
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Its

General Chemistry
ln

Gases and Gas Laws

Terminology and Concepts

nt
ris

Example 6.2 a rigid, closed container, how does an increase in temperature affect the gas particles in the system?

lris

A. The mean free path increases. B. The collision force decreases. C. The collision frequency increases. D. The particle momentum decreases.
Solution
The fact that the container is rigid means that the volume does not change. Because it is a closed system, the moles of gas do not change (matter can neither enter nor exit a closed system). The concentration remains constant, so the mean rree path does not change. This eliminates choice A. The mean free path is the a\-erage distance a particle travels between collisions. It can also be thought of as the average distance between particles at any given instant. Because the volume rf the container does not change, and the moles of gas do not change, the concentration (density of gas) does not change. This means that the particles are the same distance apart, so the mean free path does not change. According to the equation PV = nRT, if the temperature of the system increases with volume and if :Loles remain constant, the pressure must increase. This means that collision Iorce, collision frequency, or both must have increased. As temperature icreases, the velocity of the particles increases (the kinetic energy increases in :erms of velocity). With an increase in velocity, the particles travel the distance 'ietu'een collisions at a greater rate, so they collide more frequently. Because the :arficles have greater velocity, they have greater momentum, so the collision :orce increases. The result is that the collision force and collision frequency both rcrease, so choice B is eliminated. At greater velocity, the particles have greater

he nd
,nS

he

to he

tly
SO

nit tic
)m

:romentum, so choice D is eliminated. Choice C is the best answer.

oltzmann's Distribution Ln a gas system, not all particles have the same kinetic energy. There is instead a :andom distribution of energies, known as Boltzmqnn's distribution. Figure 6-2 is a Boltzmann's distribution of kinetic energy for the particles in a gas system. The ::rean kinetic energy does not correspond to the apex of the curve, but to a point =-rghtly to the right of the apex. This is because the energy distribution graph is =<en'ed to the right. As temperature increases, each particle gains kinetic energy,
B

les

in
rre

=nirting the distribution to the right. Figure 6-2 shows a Boltzmann's distribution at tu'o different temperatures, where T2 is greater than T1.

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Figure 6-2 Copyright

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General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Terminology and ConcePts

--nr]i:

Ideal Gases An ideal gas is a theoretical gas which obeys the following three conditions:

:r ::'i

1. The molecules exhibit no intermolecular forces. 2. The molecules occupy no microscopic volume (are point masses)' 3. All collisions are perfectly elastic.
Because the constraints of the ideal gas cannot be met by real molecules, an ideal gas is strictly theoretical. Gases are closest to ideal at high temperature (having

more kineiic energy to overcome intermolecular forces), low pressure

(interacting minimafy with one another), and when the system is composed of small, ineit particles. The most ideal gas is helium (which has the smallest particles of any substance known and which exhibits negligible intermolecular ?orces). to veiify these conditions, consider a phase diagram. When pressure is small and temperature is large, the state of matter is gaseous, far from the other phases in the phase diagram. The ideal gas law was the result of empirical observations, such as noting that the volume oi u gut is inversely proportional to its pfessure, volume is directly proportional io temperature, and volume is inversely proportional to moles. From these relationships, Equation 6.1 (a composite formula) was derived.
n.T
P

tr,.-

-- al lr

SL

sl.

L
D

Snrrir:l

*.:rU

(6.1)

Equation 6.L can be converted into Equation6.2by introducing a constant.

V = kn'T
P

(6'z) lhm

Equation 6.2 can be manipulated to yield: P'V = k.n'T, which in essence is Equation 6.3, where the constant is R, rather than k. Ideal gases obey Equation 6,3, the ideal gas equation'
PV = nRT
(6.3)

Ena
xd

.h

where P is pressure, V is volume, n is moles, T is temperature, and R is the ideal

gas constani of 0.0821 L'atm.'mole-1'IC1.

s
T\

In the best of all possible worlds, all gases would be ideal. But real gases make up 100% of all gises, so there are no ideal gases. F{owever, while there are no ideal gases, *e .ur', make calculations for gases that are ideal and then adjust for
orr.

:r@u

for real gases that

.utt .ttu it it everyday practice. Deviations from ideality are appr:oximated, and rough colrections ale made to determine the conditions for a ieal gas. For example, as volume decreases, gases behave less ideally' This is because*the actual size of the molecules does not change, so the percent of the volume occupied by the molecules increases. The molecules interact more and are limited in the free space they can occupy. Ideal gas problems are straightforward, plug-and-chug in their purest formIdeal g:as qlestions also encompass the before-and-after case questions associated with gas liws. As you approach these problems, isolate the value that you are lookiig for and solve foi it in terms o{ the other variables. Be sure to use the correciunits. It is easy to forget to use kelvins. What you must do is observe what remains constant when you consider a system'

uiorr.

The ideal gas law produces answers close enough to the exact values

*"

fif,fi
..u!fi.

Jl,s

lhe

mrs

PV = nRT
Copyright
@

.'. R = PV, ,o PlVl =P2Y2

nT

nlTl

nZT2

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General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Terminology and Concepts

Cancel out the terms that are constant, and isolate the variables. Three examples of commonly used variations of the gas laws are:

If PandTconstant:

Yr =Y2. n1 n2 Vr =Y2 T1 T2
.

If n and T are constant: P1V1 = P2YZ.

If nandPconstant:

Lxample 6.3 Given that the pressure of a twentieth of a mole of gas is 0.82 atm. at 27'C, whal
.-.

its volume?
1.50 liters 7.72liters

B.

\.

C. 2.4liters D. 50.0liters
5,crlution
-,. -

latrng the volume term (V) in the ideal gas equation yields: V = nRT
P

:::stituting given values yields:

0.82 atm. 0.82

.,- _ 0.O5moles x 0.0821 L.atm.mole-1' K-1 x 300K _ 0.05 x0.0821 L x 300

,]:

V = 0.05 x0.1 x300 L = 0.05x 30L = 0.5 x 3L = 1.5 L. best answer choice is choice A.

Lr,"ample 6.4

-:

S :. D

: r:s occupies 618 mL at STP, what {.. l;: mL

-31mL :-,- mL 1-l mL

is its volume at 50.4"C and 1.22 atm?

5,rlulbion
-- " I rF. ',he pressure is 1.00 atm. and the temperature is 0'C. This means that the ::=s..-i:e increases from 1.00 atm. to 7.22 atrn., and the temperature increases ::-r- l-l K to 323.4 K. An increase in pressure reduces the volume of the gases. .--: ::.;:ease in temperature increases the volume. The change in pressure and r-: -*;. rn temperature have opposite effects on the volume in this question, so r:*E :itar'-ge in volume should be minimal. This makes choice C the most likely li-*." \:::. Flon'ever, to be certain, we need to do the math.

Lrlven: PlV1 =-W/ftconstant= -,.. -.^. r r P'tY't . . ,.-

n1T1 nZTZ

!PtVt

PtY2
T2

T1

"' =(#l+)'' = (#\#)ors-r-= (a[9ora-rVt = 2 -55

x 618

mL=

600

mL

l-':

:'=s: ans\l'er choice is choice C.

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General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Terminology and Concepts

Gr
-:li ;i*$i

Dutch chemist J. D. van der Waals studied real gases and developed corrections to the ideal gas law to explain real gas behavior. His name wis given to the weak intermolecular forces between particles of a gas. Deviations in pressure are due mainly to the intermolecular forces. For instance, if the gas particles exhibit attractive forces, the system implodes to a small degree. The result is that gas particles coilide less frequently with the walls of the container, so the observed pressure (Pobs) is less than ideal pressure. This means that a correction term must be added to the observed pressure to make it equal the ideal pressure. This is shown as Equation 6.4 below: Pideal =Pobserved

collision. The degree to which a real gas deviates from ideal behavior t-ris to ao with the magnitude of the intermolecular forces and the size of the particles. The

repel one another), has particles of microscopic volume that transfer energy upon

said to have molecules that occupy no space and exert no force lrpori o." another. A real gas exhibits intermolecular forces (i.e., the molecules ittract or

Real Gases There is no such thing as an ideal gas; all gases are real gases. An ideal gas is

E:mcr

4r
m

rL,

5I{rUr
,E

T:lii

* ua1
v2

(6.4)

'i_.4
,,frilifj:T

i6li;tlljut "lfl,"rt't,:

where c is an empirical value for each gas, r is the number of moles of gas, and v is the volume of the container. It is easiest to think of a as being an attraction coefficient. \44een the particles repel, the value of a is negative. Example 6.5 \Alhich of the following types of gases has a negative a term? A. Polar

ru:rL

rrs."a]lt i

ruL

B. C. D.

Non-polar

Hydrophobic lonized

llhltll
:llrtuury

Solution The first step is to determine what this question seeks. it is asking for a negative a tetm, which is associated with particles in the gas phase that repel one another. The question can be reworded to read, "In what type of gas do th! particles repel one another?" choices B and C are the same answer worded differently, so both should be eliminated. Polar particles have attractive forces, so choice A is eliminated. An ionized gas is generated when an electron is removed from the valence shell of the gas atom or molecule. The particles of an ionized gas carry a positive charge, so they repel one another. This makes choice D the best answer.
Deviations in volume are due to the fact the molecules have volume. Because they have volume on the microscopic level, the actual free space (space not occupied by molecules) is less than the volume of the container. The bigger the molecules, the greater the volume they occupy, thus the greater the deviation. The more molecules, the greater the volume they occupy, thus the greater the deviation. The free space (ideal volume) is found by taking the container volume and subtracting the volume of the molecules. This means that the ideal volume (volume of empty space) is equal to the difference between the volume of the container and the volume of the particles. This is shown as Equation 6.5 below.
Videal=V66n1sin61

' ITfItr
KJI

lfitne

-il frlrtdll

:
Jru,
,rr1,1"111,66;

tLf

r;"
-a

&

:rInJrIml ltil;nlrigt

.-J-"

:[xrrygs

-nb

(6.s)

rlg$lL
r iflulJll{*

where

b is an

empirical value for each gas and n is the number of moles of gas.

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General Chemistry
s
e

Gases and Gas Laws

Terminology and Concepts

r
n
D

The greater the number of gas particles, the more volume the molecules occupy. This accounts for the n in the equation. Think of b as beinga bigness coefficient (despite there being no such word as "bigness"). A11 particles have some volume, so b values are always positive.

Example 5.5

s
e

Which of the following gases has the greatest b term?

A. Methane B. Ethane C. Ethene D. Ethyne

Solution
The first step is to determine what the question is asking for. It is asking for the largest b terrn, which is associated with the largest molecule. Methane has only one carbon, so choice A is eliminated. Choice C is eliminated, because ethene (C2Ha) is in the middle of a sequence that starts with ethane (CzHd and ends

t
S

rvith ethyne (CzHil. The largest molecule can never be in the middle of a squence like this. Because ethane has the most hydrogen atoms and has sp3 hvbridization, it is the largest molecule of the choices. Choice B is the best.
Combining the deviation in pressure and the deviation in volume leads to the real gas equation, also known as the aan der Waals equation. The van der Waals equation, Equation 6.6, is derived by substituting the corrected terms for pressure and volume into the ideal gas equation.

(Pour"*"a

utllV.ontainer

vzl

- nb)

gq1

(6.6)

The value of the a term can be either positive or negative, because intermolecular forces are both attractive and repulsive. If the molecules attract one another, the pressure is reduced from ideal behavior, so a correction term must be added to

P'-'\
,\) u-"'l

L\);,t

oo

Pobserved. This means that the sign of a must be positive for attraction. The b term is always positive, because molecules have positive volume. Understand the deviation and be able to predict its effect on a real gas. Attractive forces, for ilutance, make the volume of a real gas less than the volume of an ideal gas. Example 6.7

L\)

;"s

''"

l\'hat are the a and

b terms

for an ideal gas?

-d. a=1;b=I

B. a=1;b=-1 C a=0;b=1
D. a=0;b=0
Solution

r,\lren both a and b are zero, both of the correction terms in Equation 6.6 are zero,

and thus drop out. This leaves us with PV = nRT, the ideal gas equation, indicating that choice D is the best answer. An ideal gas has no intermolecular torces, so the attraction coefficient is zero (the a value is zero.) The particles of an r,Ceal gas occupy no microscopic volume, so the bigness coefficient is zero (the b ralue is zero.) This confirms that choice D is the best answer.

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General Chemistry
Example 6.8

Gases and Gas Laws

Terminology and Concepts

ffiru
eryq, llr*re
*@#
:nar,ceui

For an inert real gas, if you were to reduce the pressure to half of its original
value, then what is the final volume (Vi) relative to the initial volume (V1)?

A. B. C. D.

2Yr- a little bit 2V1+alittlebit

lV' - a little bit 2' lVr +alittlebit 2'

iiErl'w -

,mc

ad

Itl,,mr:h mluryhd

Solution When pressure is cut in half, the ideal gas law predicts that volume should double. Because only the space between molecules increases, while the molecules remain the same size, the increase in volume is not as large as predicted by the ideal gas law. This makes choice C,2Yi- a little bit, the best answer. The "little bit" term is attributed to the size of the molecules. Figure 6-3
shows this.
Pressure is Pressure is

lnum .larnir

llrr"':dhr d.lh

"uumrl:n a

Trn{sffillul

ffrresffiru[
triLllli lon,,e

re"ffannl
Tlm,'grurririls

iinn *ilh
hman;1im$,

doubled

reduced bv half
-4-'>>
.4tF mrsnir

,Wmll 16

Volume = 1.55 L Empty space 1.45 L

Molecules 0.1 L

Volume = 3.0 L Empty space2.9 L Molecules 0.1 L Figure 6-3

Volume = 5.9 L Empty space 5.8 L Molecules 0.1 L

Tkns retil

lr:e

#ms-dm
ld'
:mm

Assume we have a 3.0 L container filled with a gas. AIso assume that if the particles of the gas were compacted together, then their volume would be 0.10 L. When the dimensions of the container change, only the empty space changes, not the actual size (volume) of the molecules. When the container expands, the size of the molecules will still be 0.1 L. This means that when the pressure is cut in half, the volume doesn't quite double, but is 2Yi - a little bit. The value for our hypothetical system is 5.9 L. If the pressure were doubled, the volume wouldn't be reduced by exactly one-half, either. The new volume would be + a little bit, as shown in Figure 6-3. The best answer is choice C.

JtgFrnurmf

tltlur,r
iilllJ:llrE

lftrre :r:r.rqr

iw

fV,

Figure 6-3 shows that the microscopic volume of the molecules does not change. The size of an atom can change only when its radius is increased (by exciting its electrons to occupy a higher energy orbital with a greater radius). Note also in
decreased, but not all the way down to one-half of its original

our example that when the pressure was increased (doubled), the volume value. VVhen the

ir-

pressure was reduced by one-half, the volume increased, but not all the way up to double the original value. It may be easier to remember that the change is never as large as you think it is (i.e., what it is predicted to be according to the ideal gas law) when dealing with a real gas. Corrections to the ideal gas law should be intuitive for the most part.

}c
..t

-*u,

:r.k

-ir ii:mrts

mrtrFT

nrtc

fl;M ruA:
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Pts

General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Laws

inal

ruld the

3as
best

:6-3

Applying Gas Laws There are three common gas laws to know: Avogadro's law, Boyle's law, and Charles's law--the A, B, and C laws of gases. They all stem from the ideal gas law. It is possible to deduce them by solving for R in the equation PV = nRT, canceling out any terms that remain constant, and equating the values for before and after the change in the system. If you find yourself getting confused about which gas law refers to what, try creating a simple story about how each scientist might have made his discovery: Avogadro was into counting big numbers, so his law focuses on the number of molecules. Therefore, Avogadro's law deals n ith the relationship between moles of gas and volume. Big Boy Boyle sat on his lunch and smashed it (decreased the volume of his sandwich), by increasing the pressure on it. Therefore, Boyle's law deals with the relationship between pressure and volume. Good ol' Chuck overheated his popcorn and it scattered all over (increased its volume). Therefore, Charles's law deals with the relationship between temperature and volume. These descriptions may seem luvenile, but if they help you recall the gas laws by name, then they are worth it. For solving any gas questions, it is critical that you use temperature in terms of kelvins; otherwise, you will encounter much sadness and dismay.
-{s mentioned earlier, all of the gas laws, in conjunction with the ideal gas law, iead to the following relationship:

L
t.8

P1v1
L
n1T1

PzYz nzTz

This relationship is ihe foundation in physics for the operation of any system that Eenerates air flow, whether it is a human lung or a mechanical ventilator. One

:-;pe of ventilator is an accordion-like apparatus used to maintain uniform

f the
10

L.

:espiration (circulation of air) through the tung of patients during their recovery :rom many kinds of medical problems that affect breathing, such as a collapsed
-ung.

', not

size

ut in t our

lhe four steps in the normal cycle of a human lung are shown in Figure Step
1:

6-4.

The diaphragm contracts and the thoracic cavity expands,

increasing the volume of the lung.

Idn't little
Step

Vlung

t,

Plung J so that Pintemal

Pexternal

2: Air flows into the lung

through the trachea. nair T, ptrr,'g t until Pir.,1".rral = Pexternal

- ge. m rg its
so in lume n the
ry up rge is :o the
s

Step 3:The diaphragm relaxes and the thoracic cavity contracts,

decreasing the volume of the lung.

Vlung J, Plung
Step

so that Pinternal

Pexternai

4: Air flows out from the lung

through the trachea.

P61".r.,a1 = Pexternal

nair J, Pt.r.rg J until

Figure 6-4

law

lhe rvorkings of a ventilator are similar to these steps, but it has one-way valves. -{.:r flows in both direction through the trachea, but ventilators typically have :-et and outlet tubes. (A ventilator is discussed in one of the passages in the r:,ses section of your in-class general chemistry booklet.)
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Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Laws

Avogadro's Law According to Avogadro's law, the empirical relationship between the volume of a gas system and moles of the gas within the system, is that as the moles of the gas increase, the volume of the gas increases, if the temperature and the pressure remain constant. This really is just a common-sense observation. For instance, if you add more gas to a balloon, the balloon gets larger. You prove Avogadro's law every time you blow up a balloon. Figure 6-5 depicts this phenomenon in a
schematic fashion.

$,nwin

gq:rri r,[j

riu Tr':

: tflnft :rn!.ss
illlT Ll
-a

ff

Ld

'"tr ffr

,'L*PiUi]l

rl,,.1ilfg

/ _ @ o @\
0.33 + moles

ae

@@

o"o

0.33 moles _---:>

added

added

/u on"t^oa o ^-O o@oO"Oo - l,o o oo ooo o @/

After second addition
1.67 moles

]r rilll.lum *.] t$de..

,;lliIriiliil "llltt:r

lmcSrt.
niLnliti,.:

:.

Initial
conditions
1.00 moles V =22.47L

After first addition

1.33 moles V = 29.88 L

'illfir,'i ir:

li,ffrLut

Y =37.35L

Figure 6-5

Example 6.9

When 0.15 moles of helium gas are added to a piston containing 0.82 moles of another gas,by what percent does the total volume increase?

A. B.

D.

c.

6.4% 74.4%
1,8.3%

25.0%

Solution
Moles of gas are being added to a closed system that can expand, so the moles increase, and the initial intemal pressure equals the final internal pressure. This

means that the addition of moles of gas increases the volume, making Avogadro's law applicable. The conclusion of Avogadro's law is that V = k.n. The conditions are isothermal and isobaric, so the following relationship applies:

fi

v1 =v2 n1 n2
In this question, the moles increase from n1 = 0.82 to n2 = 0.97. The question asks for the percent increase in volume, which is equal to the percent increase in moles. The math is shown below:

$,rrtq,m

5'llr:

.l

vl = v2 ...Y2 =nz n1 n2 v1 n1=y2 =0.97 ,son2 -ogZ v1 0.82 n1 0.82

0.97 -0.97 +0.194 -7.764

0.82

0.82 +

0.164

0.984

:lrrt!T

1.18

Or to approximate the answer:

:t

.97 > 1.15 = .97 < 1'.00 "'4 .82 1.00 1.15,soincrease >rs"/o .82 0.80 = T.2s,soincrease t-*
The increase is between 15% and
25o/o, so

<2s%

ill i
Ir

:Tr:

l,.lult

the best answer is choice C.

T:rr t'sft*i.i" ripi

l\ii r

iplll
1m

t
.l

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General Chemistry
Boyle's Law

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Laws

fa
;as

re

,if
)'s

ta

Boyle's law applies under isothermal conditions in a closed container. According to Boyle's law, when the external pressure is increased on a gas within a flexible container, the volume decreases in a manner that is inversely proportional to the pressure increase. That is, voiume and pressure are inversely proportional to one another. This is true for ideal and real gases, although real gases show some deviation as the conditions become more extreme. Once the volume stops changing, the internal pressure again equals the external pressure. The overall result is that as the volume of the container decreases, the pressure of the gas within the container increases. Boyle demonstrated the relationship between gas volume and gas pressure with an experiment that varied the volume of a gas in a closed, glass tube. He poured mercury into the open end of a J-shaped tube, as shown in Figure 6-6. As more liquid is added in, the height of the column of mercury rose, so that it exerted a greater pressure on the gas in the closed end of the tube, causing the gas to compress. Boyle observed that it became more difficult to compress the gas as its volume continued to decrease. This is because ihe repulsion between molecules increases as they are packed more closely. Figure 6-6 shows three stages of the experiment.

Initial system

After first addition

After second addition

of

Pru,
Les

+ pgh"

ris
n8
-n. 5:
D t

P*u,
gut Pat.r,

+ pgh'

Figure 6-6

;ks

in

::ep 1: Initially, just enough of the mercury is added to isolate the two sides of the J-shaped tube. Mercury is ideal for this purpose, because gases are generally insoluble i. Hg. Initially: Pgas = Patm ::ep 2: Additional mercury is poured into the J-shaped tube. The mercury distributes itself unequally due to gas pressure now being greater than atmospheric pressure. After first addition: Pgas' = P26 + pgh' More mercury is added to the ]-shaped tube. The difference between gas pressure and atmospheric pressure is even more significant. h is larger. After second addition: Pgas" - P3i6 + pgh"

: hole were poked in the glass at the apex of the closed-end side of the tube --crving the last addition, gas would escape from the hole, because the internal ::::sure exceeds the external pressure. The mercury would flow from the side ri higher nrercury to the side with less mercury, until both sides of the tube .:e leve1. This would result in the equilibrating of gas pressures.
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Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Laws

C(
::
mflnm

An experiment you can conduct to demonstrate Boyle's law for yourself is to observe gas bubbles as they rise through water. At lower depths, water pressure
on the bubble is greater due to the force exerted by the water above. As a bubble ascends, the external pressure acting on it is reduced (because the total volume of water above it is steadily decreasing), and consequently the bubble expands as it rises. Consider a 1.O0-liter air-filled rubber ball that is submerged below the surface of a lake to a depth of thirty feet. At thirty feet, the pressure due to the column of water is approximately one atmosphere. With each subsequent drop of thirty feet, the total pressure on the ball increases by one atmosphere. Table 6.2 shows the relationship between volume, depth, and pressure.

-uI I a.fi .'."l1|l@

*
.qt
(_-

fr.:

tD. :
l}ns
Xlmilr

Volume (liters)
1.00 0.50 0.33 0.25

Depth (feet)
at surface
-30 -60 -90

Pressure (atm)
1.00 2.00 3.00

SMfre

P--n:"

i.5

4.00

Table 6.2 Notice that the pressure changes by uniform increments, while the volume does not. This means that the volume change varies with pressure. It can be concluded that a gas becomes less compressible as the pressure increases. This means that a gas expands most when it is at low pressure. Scuba divers, for instance, are at greatest risk for developing air embolisms during ascent, as they

hsmrr tlfiuutl
dmdm

hm'wx

near the surface. During their entire ascent, this is where the volume of gas undergoes the greatest change with changing pressure. Figure 6-7 is a graph relating pressure and volume at constant temperature, for two distinct temperatures. The graph shows two asymptotic curves.

fhire

ru

mrro

fur
Both curves are isothermal, but T2 is greater than T1. The result
is that P2Y2is greater than P1V1.

dme,m
dflmffi
irl#mt'w

c"L
D"
ti
c)

lL $LA

iil-

S-&di'i
ArU

AJ

wmffi
dhmlisi'u
mm,r"mW

d.

ffiumm

Pressure (atm.)

Figure 6-7

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General Chemistry
to
JE

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Laws

rle

of

it
he he

Lxample 6.1.0 -: the pressure of a gas in a 1.250-L container is initially 0.872 atrn., what is the ::essure if the volume of the container is increased to 1.500 L, assuming :e=rperature does not change?

rp
rie

-\. 0.667 atrn. B. 0.726 atrn. C. 1.046 atm. D. 1.333 atm.

Solution -]e conclusion one draws from Boyle's experiment is that PV = k. This means ::at if the system remains closed and isothermal (constant temperature), then :- r'-1 = P2Y2. Il is given in the question that Pl is 0.872 atm., V1 is 1.250 L, and V2 *. 1.300 L. The answer is found as follows:

)s

be
his

\V2l :*.ause the volume increases, the pressure must decrease. This eliminates -:.,ices C and D. The initial pressure (P1) must be multiplied by a factor less r:::, 1.0 to obtain final pressure (P2). Some calculation is necessary to decide
::,1\-een
ChOiCeS

P1v1 = P2Y2 :.P2 = Plvt

Y2 -

P2

=PtlYf)

A and B.

ior
rey

v, =(0.872)(1.25) -1.5066
lle

_(0.872)(s) _ (0.eX5) = 0.1s(5) =

0.75

tas

ph

r-alue is just less than 0.75, so the best answer is choice B.

rct
:'nample 6.11

lle ','olume of a ballast bulb at sea level is 1.00 liters. If you dive 66 feet below :: surface with the bulb, and the temperature of the water surrounding you
::es not change, what is the new volume of the bulb? (For every 33 feet you ::-:end, water pressure increases by 1.00 atmospheres). .q- 1.00 liters
1.00 liters

E 5

L.33liters
r,.ution

-.10 liters

--: -ea level, air pressure on the bulb is 1.00 atm. At 66 feet below the surface, the ::.'ssure is 3.00 atm., which includes 2.00 atm. for the column of water directly

::---,'e the bulb and 1.00 atm. for the column of air directly above the water, lo:ru-se the pressure has tripled, the volume must decrease by a factor of three. ---. irLeans that the final volume is 0.33 liters, choice D.

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General Chemistry
Charles's Law

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Laws

&

Charles's law states that if the temperature of a gas is increased at constant pressure (isobaric conditions) and constant moles (closed system), then its volume increases proportionally. This means that volume is directly proportional to temperature. Just as with Boyle's law, Charles's law is true for both ideal and real gases. The deviation from ideal behavior is more substantial as the volume of the gas decreases, because the molecules interact to a greater extent at short distances. Charles's law can be demonstrated rather easily by carrying out an experiment with a piston holding a known quantity of gas. A piston is chosen because the volume change is predictable and easily measured. With a piston, volume changes in only one dimension. Demonstrating Charles's law using a balloon has its problems, because the volume of a balloon changes in all directions, making the change in volume difficult to measure. Also, a balloon has a different restoring force at different volumes. If the volume of the balloon system were to be measured using displacement of a liquid into which it is fully submerged, the pressure on the balloon would vary. According to Charles's law, the relationship between volume and temperature is that as the temperature of the gas increases, the volume of the gas increases, if the system remains closed and the pressure remains constant. Figure 6-8 illustrates the system experiment that demonstrates Charles's law.

"J

0r

ffi

-6

>

-h ffi mr

lrnD

Applied heat Initial h: 6.00 cm Initial Y:6nr2 Initial T:25'C

Figure 6-8

After expansion
New h: 6.50 cm (not New V: 6.5nr2 New T:50"C (= 323K)
121)

"trf, n.{ lt[{

It is critical that you consider the temperature in kelvins when applying Charles's law. The applied heat can be from many different sources. Typical sources include a heating coil (thermal energy generated by resistance of electrical flow through a wire), a Bunsen burner (thermal energy generated by combustion), and IR radiation (thermal energy generated by the release of an IR photon upon relaxation). In the example in Figure 6-8, the new volume is found by multiplying the initial volume times the ratio of the new temperature (323) to the initial temperature (298). The factor is roughly 325 divided by 300, which is equal to 13 divided by 12. If the temperature of the gas in the piston were lowered to 0"C, then the new height of the piston would be 5.50 cm. Figure 6-9 shows the graph of volume as a function of temperature over a range of temperatures that spans the three common phases of matter. The graph ceases to be linear at lower temperatures, because the gas undergoes a phase change to become a liquid, and the liquid becomes a solid. As Figure 6-9 indicates, expansion of a gas is more significant than expansion of either a liquid or a solid. When heated by small increments, liquids and solids expand only slightly.

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General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Laws

ant

its
t1y

for
tial ter by
A

ed.
)S'S

in
,on ,on

llv
r1s :he tes

Temperature (K) Figure 5-9

E:.ample 6.12

' re volume of a piston filled with an inert gas is 4.31 L at25"C, then what is the -.',',- r'olume occupied by the gas, after it is heated to 50"C, assuming the system ::.:eriences no net change in pressure?

B.
D.

{.

f,.

3.98 L +.31 L 1.67 L 3.62 L

5olution -:: conclusion of Charles's law is that V = k.T. This means that if the system :-rains closed and isobaric (constant pressure), then T2V1 = T1V2 It is given in --: question, that V1 is 4.31 L, T1 is 298K, and T2 is 323 K. The answer is found :.s :ollows:
SS
CS

vl
T1

\/r = -Tr"vz-

V2

- ViT2 = v, = vr(Tz\ 1, - ''-"'\Tt/

rd

ln )y
he

le;ause the temperature increases, the volume must increase. This eliminates -:.-ices A and B. The initial volume (V1) must be multiplied by a factor greater -::r 1.0 to obtain final volume (VZ). Math is necessary to decide between choices
C and D.

is re
,-9

Y2= (323 KX4.31 L) -323@srL1 =Wgsi L) = 1314.a1L) 298K 298 300 t2

8.62L > 13 (4.31L) > 4.31L
72

of
to to
rq

fte

d.

final volume is greater than 4.31 L, but far less than 8.62 L, so the best answer C. Forgetting to convert degrees Celsius into kelvins would erroneously -"ad you to select choice D.
-. choice

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Gases and Gas Laws

Gas System Properties

fre
:|ruiluu

qt$::::Sff$ft,ffi:
A

ffiib

gS

Partial Pressure gas system can be composed of one pure gas or it can be composed of a mixture of gases. within a mixture of gases, each component gas can be treated separately from other components. The particles can migrate to any position within the system, so each component gas occupies the same volume. But they are independent particles. The notion of partial pressure stems from the concept that you may treat different components of a gaseous mixture independently. Partial pressure is the independent pressure exerted by a gas within a mixture. For instance, each gas in an equal molar mixture of three gases has a partial pressure due to collisions of that component against the walls of the container. In that case, the partial pressure of any component equals one-third that of the total pressure of the system. Consider the system in Figure 6-10, where the three
components are theoretical gases X,Y, and Z.

Fllls;
:t:mnqi

m'S"lidr'

ii ]tttll
lil,,.

il

- i1*

lht*m

lltrn* :r

-.i lhme

",JH

ni.

ili@nud

oo oo o r . o ,. ;.* o.*too
@

ilL8ttrfiI.

O GasX
@ GasY

o "o" @o (J @ co o ^o-@ o
Figure 6-L0

ldn',ff,e[[

GasZ

Uimrlftru

Is imi

uru

The idea that the mixture is a composition of the individual gases leads to the idea that the total number of moles of gas in a mixture is the sum of the individual moles of each separate gas. This is shown in Equation 6.7.
ntotal =

rm'

I ni = na + nb + nc + ...

rc.7)

m$umr
llRrWmri

(where i refers to each component gas within the mixture, and a, b, and c are arbitrary components) The gases are in the same container, so they are at the same temperature and in the same volume. Because each gas is only a fraction of the total moles, it must also be a fraction of the total pressure. The total pressure of gas is the sum of all the individual partial pressures of each gas. Equation 6.8 shows this relationship, which is similar to the relationship for moles.
Ptotul =

u,lli$

d,ll

: ffim(
mWlffindl

TM

Pi = Pu + P6 + P" +

...

(5.8)

6.

Ar 1ilm33 M'
S,il

Ih

Equation 6.8 can be used to find the total pressure of a mixture of gases from the partial pressures of its constituents. Example 6.13 illustrates how this is done.

$nilii'ndit!

il:nm m,

Example 6.13

MmeM
a
llil,iirme mWr

What is the total pressure of a mixture created by adding 0.15 moles He(g) to 5.0-L flask that contains 570 torr of N2(g) and 0.20 atm. Ar(g) at 100"C?

A. B. C. D.

1.10 atm. 1.33 atm.

W0SF4mru
Lrnm

1.61atm. 1.93 atm.

-lihfl

,rlirfinnmrmrn momili1ifimi'

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General Chemistry
! rlution

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas System Properties

- :.t off, everything must be converted to the

ofa
ated

same units. The units in the ::-iiver choices are atm; so we should convert everything to atm. 570 torr cleanly .:rlerts to 0.75 atm; so there are 0.75 atm. NZ(S). To get the pressure of He(g), , -. must employ the formula PV = nRT.

:tion
they cept

;.

rtly.
hlIe.

V total pressure is: =

n'R'T _

(0.15x0.082)(4oo)
5.00
P1s121

(15)(0.082X4)
5

^ = .t1x0.082 = 0.984atm.

= PHe + PA. + PN2 = 0.98 + 0.20 + 0.75 = 1.93 atm.

--5est answer is choice D.

rtial
ner.
' the :lree

-retermine the partial pressure of a component in the mixture, you must know ::role percentage of the gas in the vessel (referred to as the mole fraction). The : .::-a1 pressure of a component is directly proportional to its mole fraction. This " . ,:::onship is shown in Figure 6-7\, for the three gases in Figure 6-10.
.-

nx=P* ntotal Ptotal

ny=uy
ntotal
Ptotal Figure 6-11

rlz
ntotal

Pz

Ptotal

' : ::--rn, the

that the pressure fraction of a component in the system equals its mole partial pressure of one component can be determined from knowing - ,-- -.ie fraction and the total pressure of the system. Equation 6.9 below is used . r,:,.ilate the partial pressure from the total pressure.
=:r.

the :he

ptotal

Pi = ni _ 4"*

.''

p:_ Pi = ni

-#Ptotal

Xi Ptotal

(6'9) an

5.7)

-" .:r:-r\-component i, and X1 is the mole fraction of that component.

,ne partial pressure of an arbitrary component

i, ni is the moles of

: lin
',is

.-

.:-on 6.9 is used to obtain a partial pressure from the total pressure. Example = '-rstrates how this is done.

t all

' .:

:.P,

i.8)
-1e

:::,ple 6.14 -s the partial pressure due to nitrogen in a balloon at STP that contains 1.00 .=s relium, 1.25 moles nitrogen, and 1.75 moles argon? -lr torr : - - torr -: :orr : :orr

-.:

.,4

- -:':ation 6.9 to solve this problem, because the partial pressure of nitrogen is - : :'. multiplying the mole fraction of nitrogen by the total pressure. At STP, : ::- pressure of the system is 760 torr. The number of total moles of gas in : : .:em is 1.00 + 7.25 + 7.75, which is 4.00. The mole fraction due to nitrogen -: -:ii ided by 4, which is 31.25 7o. One-fourth of 760 is 190 torr, so the partial

- -s 253.3 torr, so the partial pressure due to nitrogen is less than 253.3. This : .:.:es choices C and D. The correct answer is choice B. If you want to - :::-: this by math, 31.25% of 760 = 76 + 76 + 76 + 7.6 + 7.9 = 237.5 torr.
t&'

-.,.::

due to nitrogen is greater than 190. This eliminates choice

A.

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General Chemistry
Manometers

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas System Properties

Gr
Tl n ;;i;fiE
-

Because a gas has no definite shape and no definite volume,

and volume of the container in which it is present. As the dimensions of the container are altered, so are the properties of the gas. A gas may be compressed or expanded by moving the walls of the container. Likewise, the walls of the container can be moved by adding or removing gas (think of blowing up a balloon). If the container is not flexible, then the pressure increases or decreases. Gas pressure is measured in units called torrs (named after Evangelista Tonicelli). A column of mercury is used to measure gas pressure, because mercury has a high density and it doesn't compress easily. This means that only

it assumes the shape

Irl

rai

i::iirt:

a significant change in gas pressure on a column of mercury produces

noticeable and measurable difference in the height of the column.

Figure 6-12 shows measurements of gas pressure using a manometer. In each case, atmospheric pressure is compared to the pressure within a column. In systems I and II, the column is evacuated, so the initial pressure inside the column before mercury is added to either system is zero. Atmospheric pressure forces the mercury up into the evacuated column. Because there is less atmospheric pressure in the mountains than at sea level, the mercury does not rise as high in column II as it does in column I. In each case, the mercury in the tube remains ai a fixed point once the force of gravity cancels the force exerted by the atmospheric pressure. In system III, the column is open to the atmosphere, so the pressure in the column equals the pressure exerted on the base.
System

System

II

System

III

Column evacuated Base at sea level

Column evacuated Base in mountains

Column open to air Base is anywhere

Iitilrue

iliithm
illttue
aEryuli

sFiH|Iril'rili

Mr.[JLltm rilmilm:.1

*.[|'

rgruujillTr

udfffi:

Atmosphere at sea

level

TflM

Pcolum.=0.'. Patmosp6"r"=760

mountains Tube open to atmosphere Pcolrmn=0.'. Parmospl,,"r" =520 .'. Pcolumn=Patmosphere

Atmosphere in

lq,iltflifimtfi ,mlttttmi

-!:Jr

Figure 6-12
Systems I and II of Figure 6-12 show the pressure difference between a closed system in the column and the atmosphere. Manometers may also be used where the two sides of a mercury-filled U-tube are connected to two different closed

flNmHffin
'uunltErumm

dmdffum

Liil0MLEIUlIil

LiimmMIIlm
,Ugmmmmtl

containers. When both columns of the manometer are exposed to different pressures, there is a height difference between the two columns of mercury.
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tffiroqmr'mq

ties

General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas System Properties

lape
f the
ssed

: the

J-:-:re 6-13 shows a manometer under different conditions with respect to :' ::.:.r pressure. one end of the manometer is connected to a closed system. ' = ,':her end is open to the atmosphere. The pressure difference between the ::; -11 the system and the atmosphere can be measured. Knowing the

rpa
15ES.

i:

-.pheric pressure allows us to determine the pressure of the system.

iista
lUSe

only

esa
:ach

In
the
sure less

not
the

lbv
l, so

alr
e

Psystem

>

Patmosphere

Figure 6-13

- , :'-::=:=:-:e n heights between the two columns can be used to measure the . " :ri--r :: -:. :iessures, if the columns have an equal bore size (internal radius).
'^"

l
OSh

,,",,":".-T"

Psystem < Patmosphere

* " -'- -, -ie rressure difference. The force pulling the mercury down is "":r'' - : - =-: . The force pushing the mercury up is the pressure of the gas '- -. :" ,:': :-. --:,e cross sectional area of the mercury F = pA). As long m ih" ::r:-:.: >tationary, then the two forces are equal, meaning th;t pA = - : -: ::.. :i'ae mercury in the column is the density of the ' : :: :-" ::.- '.'olume of the mercury (V). Thus, column irercury (p) pressuie is r' -r- "-r : : :'. : i*ation 6.10, derived as follows:
: - tr. ---: =rjo*'n - DA = mg =pvg ... P -O{ = l-A AP =

.::=-::-:r'..letrveen column height and preisure can be cierived from the .i:- : :- *j: :=-aconship between gravitational fot"e and the force exerted on the

pg&

(6.10)

. :r::.:e.ce
'.ere ::e

.: : -

red
ere

ted
ent
"

tr.:*

ii
rl'll'

ji

1",1 l]t ::i-

betn'een any connected columns can be determined , '..'here Ah is the u[rErrrtLs in height between the columns, L difference ur rlctSrrl ucLwcelt ute columns/ : -::.:rn.e 1n pressure between the columns. For instance, if the gas -- -'. . :o: one of two columns (we usually know that ur, op1n r :'rr-iii Fressure exerted on it), then the pressure of the second :.:=::r.:recl bl' adding the difference in pressure the -: ,.i- --.1':. :.essure (atmospheric pressure in this betweenThis two case.) is a ::i :::- ::: q2c nh:co reactions and reactions +L-+ require an :-^..! I -: i-- gas phase rpanlinnc anrl raen+i^-c that -^^,,.:-^ ^- inert - :: :> .!::ogen gas or argon gas). Manometers are an easy way

elt'

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General Chemistry
demonstrated.

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas System
6.1'0

nnoPertir

In Figure 6-1,4beIow, the application of Equation

to a manometer svs{en fu

Pr>Pz

AP=Pr-Pz

Ah=hz-hr lP = pg&

Figure 5-14 The pressure applied to the left side of the manometer (P1) is grelter than iltc pr"rJrrru appliJto the right side of the manometer (P2), forcing the liquid to ri* irlgt,"r in it e column on th" right. The difference in pressure_between the tr+o sides of the manometer is prolortional to the difference in the heights of the liquid in each column. When the tiquid is mercury, each mm difference is referred to as a torr. Mercury is chosen, because it is the densest liquid, so SiIr a does not readily diffuse through mercury. A closed system connected to mercury manometer remains a closed system'

Whatls the pressure in atmospheres of a column of gas in a closed tube abole *"..rry if tile height difference at sea level between a connected column of *"r"rrry open to tlie atmosphere and the closed column above mercury is 317
mm?

Example 6.15

A. 317 176gaan. B. 443 /zeOun. C. 7601,Lnut^. D. 317 144gann.

is 31-7_torr' The height difference of 317 mm means th{ lhe pressul difference tirr, so the gas pressurg *-dto The atriospheric pressure at sea level is 760 dividing column is i+s torriz60 - 317). The conversion from torr to atm. involves B the correct answer. As I choice by a factor of 760 torr per atm. This

Solution

ryul"t qlestlo' is worded, ih" pr"*r-rre difference is provided, but the relati
is not mentioned. The pressure could also be 1077 torr (760 + 317), ihis value is not listed as an answer choice'

pr""rrlr",

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ES

General Chemistry
ifias

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Motion

is

ffifi,i ffrii+

iir$iiiiDrl

r1i.$;111ffi,.,,,.

'

,,,:,,,,.iri.i,ii.,',,i:,,,

ilil-if$$$l+tiiffi

-.as Speed and Velocity *:e .,-elocity of a particle is dependent on both its mass and the temperature. The *r:: at which a gas particle travels is directly proportional to the square root of :rre lemperature and inversely proportional to the square root of its mass. By ::":iliflg the equations for kinetic energy of a gas to one another (lmvZ to

*' lossible to determine the root mean square velocity of a monatomic gas, both i- = absolute manner and relative to another gas. The derivation of Equation : -l, used to calculated the root mean square speed of a particle, is shown below:
i:

|nf;,

Kinetic energy =
Because

lmv2
=

and also =
=

,enf

:.

!mv2

!.nf

lmu2

r"*f "t
l-trms

T,

so prms2 = 3Tr-

Prms =
IC
>e

/F,

where Frms is the root mean square speed

1@ vm

(6.11)

'o
re

is
IS

{" 3 :

Lrample 6.16 "'1at is the root mean square speed of neon atoms at27"C?

19.3m/s 211mls 672m/s D. 1018 m/s

rf 7

lir-.

5'olution question requires the use of Equation 6.11. Because scientists employ the j'KS system, the mass must be in terms of kilograms, and the temperature must :e rn units of kelvins. The mass of neon is 0.020 kg and the temperature is 300 K. lire solution is as follows:

-:rns- "fuRr V*

_ _ /3(8.314X300)

t,

-'V

8x
2

0.020

{G*-o4

= 6x ro2 - 600?

-he speed of neon at27'C is slightly more than 600 meters per second, so the best

::swer is choice
g

C.

-: is also possible to determine the relative velocities of two gases using the :nergy relationship. The velocity of a particle is inversely proportional to the -;quare root of its mass, so the lighter the gas, the faster it travels at a given ,emperature. This leads to Graham's law for gas flow, which is listed below as
Equation 6.12 v2
v1

trru Vmz

(6.12),

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General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Motion

It is also possible to determine the relative speeds for particles of the same gas at two different temperatures. The speed of a particle is directly proportional to the square root of the temperature, so the greater the temperature, the faster a gas travels. This is summarized in Equation 6.13

Wffinm

Gmmriba

v1

v,,

I/=1.,

fu@
ilmilF.@

miffiffi
(6.13)

VTr

dlffim

Example 6.17 \A/hat is the speed of a gas particle at 725'C, if it has a speed of 100 rn/ s at25"C?

dam ffi
rtulititill[Ii

A. 500 m/s B. 223m/s C. L33 m/s D. 1.L4m/s

Solution
The speed is greater at higher temperatures. This doesn't help, because all of the answer choices are greater than 100 m/s. To determine the exact value, the temperature must be converted to kelvins. The temperature increase is from 298 to 398, which means the temperature is 1.33 times greater. Because it is a square root function, the speed increases by a factor of t[T33, which when multiplied by 100 m/s yields a value less than 133 m/s. Only choice D is possible.

nnemm

&pm

m!@

Uftur rffidn
dlr M0

h{l

nffifi mwd
mrg

Diffusion

With diffusion, gas particles exhibit net flow from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration until the concentration is
essentially uniform throughout the container. A gas can diffuse as quickly as the gas travels. This means that lighter gases diffuse faster than heavier gases.

Diffusion involves flow in all directions, until the pathway is impeded by a barrier. Unlike effusion and infusion, it involves no pores through which gases pass. Diffusion describes the dispersion of a particular gas through a container and is concentration-dependent, proceeding most rapidly when the mean free
path is larger and the average kinetic energy is greater.

Example 6.18 Which of the following gases stinks up a room the fastest, if they are all released simultaneously?

A. SO3 B. C2H6S
C. D.
CaHlsS
H5C6NCS

Solution
Stinking up the room the fastest results from having the greatest rate of diffusion. The rate of diffusion depends on the speed of each gas. They are all under same conditions of temperature, mean free path, and volume, so the only factor affecting their speeds that differs between the answer choices is their molecular mass. The lightest gas has the greatest velocity, and thus stinks up the room fastest. The lightest gas is C2H6S, choice B.

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General Chemistry

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Motion

sat
the
J:q 5*'',

,13)

.?

::--sion and Infusion - ,-.': is the process of gas escaping from the region within a container to the - :,-rment outside of the container through pores (often microscopic pores) in . : -: tairer's walls. The faster the molecules move, the more often they collide -- ::.e n'alls, and thus the more often they can pass through the pores. The r: :rlncentrated the species, the more frequently they interact with the pores, . :. -:- js the faster they effuse. The pore size has some effect on the effusion rate , -, rtained gas, when it is about the same size as the diameter of the gas The relative effusion rates of two or more gases can be determined by *:= -:-e. the relative concentrations and speeds of the molecules. r::ng

- ,': is the reverse of effusion and involves a gas entering a container through : - - rS of its walls. The faster the molecules move, the more often the
.:' = :. 'les that

:--r-es pass through the pores and thus the faster the molecules enter. The apply to effusion are also valid for infusion.

the

the
298 :are

::"lLe 6.19 .:ie of effusion for nitrogen gas is initially 17.5 mL/mtn, what is the initial . .::usion for carbon dioxide under identical conditions?

1by

- . rllmin : , :rl/min : = rl/min , : rllmin

- _-n

:her
,

nis
the
ISCS.

:-::\' effusion rates for the two gases are equal to the relative average :- :,-l the two gases. Nitrogen is lighter than carbon dioxide, so it has a :: ,'.-..erdg speed and thus rate of effusion, resulting in an effusion rate for
:
. . : -lran 77 .5 mL /

rntn This eliminates

choices C and

D.

The effusion rates

:,.,-c gases are compared

in the following way:

ASES

iner
free

---^:lon Rate l\Jii.o*"r",

u _ ^l
V

3RTf- v*co2 u mN2

=
/mCOr

=^[44 =\tr.sn = r.2s -'rB - 't'Jt

L

: -'::: of effusion for N2 is 1.25 times greater than the rate of effusion for
ased

CO2.

-: ::..ans that the rate of effusion for CO2 is 0,80 times the rate of effusion for ',',::rch is (0.80)(17.5) 14.0 mllmin, making choice A the best answer. =

., ::.e rates of both effusion and infusion are affected by

,,.-.-n and infusion are defined in terms of direction rather than concentration,

concentration.

!'- --.-on and infusion can occur with or against a concentration gradient. When '. -"::Jn rate exceeds infusion rate, there is a net flow of gas out of a system. - =r infusion rate exceeds effusion rate, there is a net flow into the system.
s10n.

;ame

lctor
:u1ar

'oom

the rate at which particles migrate through their -:l.:1er. Migration is a general term for motion in any direction, which takes . -, e:count diffusion, effusion, and infusion. Diffusion, effusion, and infusion ---:-t similar trends. The rate of diffusion, effusion, or infusion for any gas is : :. --:,',' proportional to its average speed, which is inversely proportional to the
: -::. root , -:- often

-: ias flow speed affects

of its mass. We assume that the pore size of a gas container has an minimal) effect on the effusion rate or infusion rate for a gas.
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General Chemistry
Isotopic Enrichment

Gases and Gas Laws

Gas Motion

Isotopic enrichment is a process by which isotopes are distributed in a nonuniform manner. Relative effusion rates can be exploited to separate isotopes from one another. Because the rate of effusion for a gas varies with its atomic mass, the different masses associated with different isotopes allow for isotopes to be separated after migration through several pores. A typical example involves
enrichment of deuterium from hydrogen, as shown in Figure 6-15.
Gas mixture added Gas mixture

evacuated out

o ooo :';'. ; o i^o

^a o'o % -@ e o "^Oo o @ ; a"^O@ o ";". o "aoo -1O

o

o ooo % @ ^o@ o a

".!o
.atv|

Figure 5-15
The lightest molecule is H2, so it travels the fastest. It is in highest concentration in cells to the right. The heaviest molecule is D2, so it travels the slowest. It is in

lowest concentration in cells to the right. To obtain an enriched sample o{ deuterium, the last gas to escape from the tube is collected. Figure 6-16 shows the distribution of speeds for a hydrogen-deuterium mixture that has equal mole fractions of H2, HD, and D2.

stw

th

U)

0)

)
ilm

q)

z
lr

mm

-o
tr

z
Figure 6-16

fi
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tion

:IOn-

)Pes

rmic
-.s

to

lves

bion

sin
)ws
role

:of

Passage

The bt

where P is :he tempen :he behavi

:elationshil lases to stu

'pecificalll ihows the r

I. II. III. IV. V. VI.

VII. VIII. IX.
X.

Real Qas Data

(1 (7

-6)

Kinetic Theory of Gases Submerged Ball ExPeriment Charles's Law

Boyle's Law

- 14)

(t5 - 22)
(25 - 28) (2e - 35) (56 - 43) (44 - 50)

Lung Function Isotopic Enrichment of Uranium Air Bag

Effusion Spheres ExPeriment
Closed-system Reactions Weather-Sampling Balloon Keal Qas Equation Buoyancy and Effusion
Q,uestions Not Based on a Descriptive Passage Cases Scoring Scale

(5r - 57)
(58 - 65) (64 - 70)

The da

:elatir.elv
,h attracti

:s PV rs
-'ride gas-

XI.

(7r - 78)
(7e - 86) (87 - e3) (e4 - lOO)

Pressur
1.00

XII. XIII.

25.4 50.0 100.0 200.0

Deviatic eme con,

Raw Score

MCAT Score

lme for le 2 list

84 - 100

15-15

(1.00 at

66-85 47 ,65 34-46

to-12
7 -9

4-6

t-33

t-3

r.right (

Passage

(Question 1 - 6)

. Which of the following does NOT

measurable volume.

account for
that have
a

:,

The behavior of an ideal gas obeys the law PV = nRT, :ere P is pressure, V is volume, n is the moles, and T is ' -: remperature (in kelvins). The equation only approximates : behavior of real gases, but well enough to predict
=,ionships between real gases. A researcher chooses three the effect of varying pressure on gas behavior,

deviations from ideal behavior in a real gas?

.X: A real gas is composed of molecules

"

:::iS to study

-.

-8". There are attractive forces between molecules. --e.'ihere are repulsive forces between molecules.

:.:iticaliy
'',,. s

the relationship between PV and

P.

Figure

the results obtained in the experiment. 2

D L Gases are not uniform, so the pressure against the walls ofthe container does not accurately reflect the pressure of the system.

What is true about the interactions between

molecules at higher pressures?

gas

y6. .B: 0.20 0.40 0.60 0.80

Pressure (atm)

The interactions are reduced, because the molecules

collide less frequently. The interactions are reduced, because the molecules collide more frequently.

-gatne
1.00

interactions are increased, because the

because the
coltide more frequently.

molecules collide less frequently.

,'DlThe interactions are increased, \ molecules

HzG) .:
'
:

' Oz(g)
Figure
1

COz(g)

fr /'

aN -1 re

,JU

data show slight deviations from ideal gas behavior ::,',elv standard pressures. Deviations are attributed to -:.:l.tive and repulsive forces in the gas phase. Table 1

l'n' r's. P for helium gas, oxygen gas, and carbon -: :]s. respectively, obtained in a second experiment.
PH"vH"
22.44

Which of these experimental gases shows no change in these f prel behavior as pressure is increased across an extreme z- range? f-*l -{ &-Lle : P A. Llelium only -+ . t#o w rt q. *i { 'r* -"- tv -Bl--.Oxvsen onlv a t ""ta-" ""'r tF _j)'

C. Both oxygen and helium FBoth oxygen and carbon dioxide

l'ressure
rrl

PorVo,
22.39 21.10 20.97
20.01 20.13
23.01

Pcozvcoz
22.26 8.16
10.1
1

4.

..<

22.89 23.40 24.32 26.36

30.27
r_l

How does the molar volume of ammonia gas compare to that of an ideal gas?

r" il
r -i
it

,"'A: lt

is larger than ideal, due to attractive forces.

11.25 13.58 18.23

.-8".

It is larger than ideal, due to repulsive forces.

I
r

ff)

lt is smaller than ideal, due to attractive forces.. p-< It is smaller than ideal, due to repulsive forces.

Table

- : '.jirons from ideal behavior are compounded under '] :i i , nditions, but near standard conditions, the molar .-r: r r almost any gas is approximately 22.41 liters. , - .,'-s the molar volume of some common gases at t .rm and 273.15K5. Gas

y. What is the expected ' gas at 75 atm.? Ql ;-"i;' 'o.oe7 riters B. 0.142 liters
.-Ci 10.63liters {,' n.zztit"r,
6.

molar volume of carbon dioxide

F(i -' v' re 1p "t\-)

-tr

Molar Volume (L)

22.395 22.261 22.435 22.436 22.404 22.081 22.396

,\r Coz Hr
He

Under which of the following conditions does a real gas

behave MOST like an ideal gas?

N2

\H:
O2

-#F G-. ..e'. ..4-

gntemperature and high pressure Higtr temperature and low pressure

Low temperature and high pressure Low temperature and low pressure

Table 2
*

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Passage

ll

(Questions 7

14)
gases

9. As temperature of a gas system in a closed flas

decreases from 20"C to 10'C, the average speed component gas molecules:

of

the

is employed to The kinetic molecular theory of gas. It is, in essence, the explain the behavior of an ideal theoretical perspective of an ideal gas on the microscopic level. The postulates of the kinetic molecular theory of gases
as they relate

7dl'
--;Q -

increases slightly. the same. -&creases slightly.

decreases substantiallY.

l-n
.:.

! A.T
fr[tr

-ffiemains

to the particles of an ideal gas are as follows:

1. 2.

The particles are so small, compared to the distances

D.

*gt ft
D-t

between them, that the volume of the individual

particles can be assumed to be negligible. The particles are in constant random motion. The

collisions of the particles with the walls of

the gas.

the

10. What is observed over time if a mixture of H2 and initially at 50Vo by moles H2, undergoes effusio
through a small pore in the container?

container are responsible for the pressure exerted by

PH2 decreases;

Xp, Xp,

decreases. decreases.
1 ,

e6r

3. 4.

The particles are assumed to exert no force upon each other; they are assumed neither to attract nor
repel one another.

m
\ -)t lo{o
J

The average kinetic energy of the particles is assumed to be directly proportional to the
temperature of the gas in units of kelvins'

/) (S/ D.

B ._ PHz increases;

Pordecreases: XD, increases.

PD2 increases;
'ta,.1 ',

Xp,- increases.
...*t

t"T T
tn

t:,.

.i_r-.

j'*-..
|

'-..,'-.^/

,"

The kinetic theory of gases serves to explain temperature and pressure on the microscopic level. While it does not hold true for real gases, it is a good model for an ideal gas. Real gases exert force upon one another, and their particles have a

11. Wfrictt of the following gases has the GREA momentum, if they are all under identical conditions
temperature and pressure?

finite volume.
As the properties of an ideal gas change, the particles are uniform. For instance, the average kinetic energy of a gas increases as it is heated, but the size of each atom remains the same and the bonds remain in place. This is to say that the particles are not altered by physical changes.
assumed to remain

A. Helium --B: Neon ". Nitrogen

{ft

Sulturdioxide

t\

'e* s'r
graphs best describes
a

For a closed system in a 1.00-L sealed piston, what is

observed when the temperature of the system

The number of molecules -Y..a-\he average kinetic energy remains . Cu The mean free path increases.

-A .

in"."3lll of gas increasat. /. .. ,.

12. Which of the following

"

collision frequency as the number of particles in

constant. ":...,f

B.

-rD. The PJ t 8.

average molecular momentum remarns

t'-r

h
o

constant.

i'''"1
U
I

o
Number of particles

For an inert gas system in a sealed rigid glass container,

U
Number of partic

what occurs when the average kinetic energy of

molecules increases?

'9.<' decreases.

Collision frequency increases, while collision force

i

B<-. Collision force increases, while collision frequency

decreases.

\ rli i

El"Bothmean free path and collision force increase. Zf)F,otn collision frequency and collision force (-'/
rncrease.

o o O
Number of particles Number

. tttCopyright
@

/| * j \-,t 1 *"..--* ,. \.,n

)

of

QU:*'"
32

.tf

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Pz"
I (,),,-ir'l

r /E

\ \'"r
\

LlY
PA

,._. ,.. e.,-a

,- -gcooNTorHENExr

flask

-:.

Trhich of the following is an expected behavior of

;
. s.

Passage

lll

(Questions 15 - 22)

i of the

according to the kinetic molecular theory of gases?

{,
rLI

The gas has an infinitely high boiling point.

ts. \folecular

gases show different behavior than

atomic gases.

. .

The average velocity of a particle doubles when temperaturedoubles. :I v 31.-,..,..: J *.*..'"

,

The pressure exerted by a gas is independent of the =hape of its container. : ri,:i 1

A researcher sets up a salt water tank (see Figure l, below) with a depth of fifty feet to study Boyle's Law. An air-filled rubber ball is fitted with a thin metal ring around its circumference, positioned slightly on the lower side of the ball. The ball is placed in the tank of salt water, which is maintained at25"C. At the base of the tank is an adjustable magnetic field that is used to submerge the ball to selected depths. The displacement of the water in the tank is
measured to determine the volume of the ball.

urd D2.

"ili: [;

,:;

ffusion

. : .s differs from a liquid in all of the following ways : "rlEPT: -+: . liquid has a definite volume while a gas does not. !. ::rticles in a liquid are always in contact with one
.rother, while particles in a gas are never in contact
.;

v . -\-z tr' A= \v-

rth one another. than a liquid.

:** . _:as is more compressible

ir' .:

object is more buoyant in a gas than a liquid.

Floating on the surface, the ball is 50Vo submerged before the magnetic field is applied. The initial volume of the ball is 36.00 liters, but as it descends towards the bottom of the tank, its volume gradually decreases. The volume of the elastic ball is measured at the several depths. Table 1 lists the values for the ball's changing gas volume.

Depth (ft) Pressure (atm) Volume (L)

5

1.16
1.31

31.14 21.41

10
15

1.41

24.43 22.01
20.21 18.54

20
25

1.63 1.78

30
35

t.94
2.09
2.25
2.41

r1.20
16.02 14.91

40
45 50

2.56

t4.lt
1

Table
r;(l,V

Note: A pressure of 1.00 atm. column of pure water 32.6 ft.

1

is required to raise

5.

5l/

t]
I I

*A ., From 0 to 7 feet below the surFace " . Bl From I to 14 feet below the surface _-r. ,From 14 to 2l feet below the surface ,",D . 'From 21 to 28 feet below the surface

The greatest change in volume is experienced by the , ball during which segment of the descent? , I --, L :: v

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,--/

/ te . lt

what depth will the ball neither rise nor sink magnetic field is turned off? A

if

the

. B. C.

Between 0 and 10 feet below the surface Between l0 and 20 feet below the surface Between 20 and 30 feet below the surface 30 and 40 feet below the surface

2 0. What has no direct effect on the volume of the ball? 't,4 4, The external pressure .' 6. The moles of gas in the ball .*eJ The temperature of the water

Chdqm

a qln

D.,

The magnetic field strength

0tmf,

4!,'Between

il

-rpffiimil

17

. If

fresh water were used rather than salt water, how would the results be affected?
change in volume of the ball would be greater

21. It more salt

were added to the water

in the tank

tu fuo
ffis

ffi

-.N{Tn" ,nf. fne

-,

Figure 1, what would be observed?

when submerged

in salt water than fresh

water'

because salt water is less dense than fresh water'

,"f) tne ball would rise, and a stronger magnetic, i---' field would be required to submerge the ball bel
the surface.

change in volume of the ball would be less when submerged in salt water than fresh water,

B.

...,-.because salt water is less dense than fresh water.

The ball would rise, and a weaker magnetic, B, fie would be required to submerge the ball below
surface.

C .' The change in volume of the ball would be greater when submerged in salt water than fresh water,
because salt water is denser than fresh water.

d'The

ball would sink, and a stronger magnetic, lield would be required to submerge the ball
surface.

,d . tt't" change in volume of the ball would be less

when submerged

in salt water than fresh

water,

-fhe O. ttre

hecause salt water is denser than fresh water'

ball would sink, and a weaker magnetic' field would be required to submerge the ball bel
the surface.

18.

For a ball that is filled with an ideal gas and immersed in fresh water, and that is initially 25Vo submerged before the magnetic field is applied, at what depth will the ball no longer be buoYant?

C
2,fu me compressibility of
I

a gas is GREATEST when:

. B. C. D.

At depths between 0 and32 feet below the surface

At depths between 32 and 64 feetbelow the surface At depths between 64 and 96 feet below the surface At depths greater than 96 feet below the surface

'? "

the moles are high and the volume is low' the moles are high and the volume is high' :&.rthe moles are low and the volume is high'

A.

8..

LDr'th"

moles are low and the volume is low.

,t)

\/

)1. fot a ball that is initially 607o submerged, what is 1 observed when compared to the ball in Figure 1, under

the same experimental conditions?

A. ^ , b./ \-'/

The depth at which the density of the ball equals the density of surrounding water is below -32 feet, because the ball is less dense than the original ball in the expcriment. fn. depth at which the density of the ball equals the density of surrounding water is above -32 feet, because the ball is less dense than the original ball in the experiment. The depth at which the density of the ball equals the density of surrounding water is below -32 feet, because the ball is denser than the original ball in
the experiment.

ru

!u m

The depth at which the density of the ball equals the density of surrounding water is above -32 feet, because the ball is denser than the original ball in
the experiment.

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ball?

Pa,ssage

lV

(Questions 23

28)

5.

As you drive, what happens to the pressure in your car

tire?

e tank

in

;netic,
,a11

B.

-il :he wire increases, causing more heat to be released i' - ,,-: coil. The change in volume of the piston is Ii ; - -::l by the change in its height. Table I shows the data ,ril : - :: tV the student for an unknown gas.
:'r',

;r --,' r closed system is increased, the volume of the gas :: -":::es proportionally, if the moles of gas and pressure "l'- - . Jonstant. To demonstrate this law, a student sets out iL ::.r\ e the change in volume of a gas within a cylinder. l-i: -',.rnder contains a heating coil that can be set by iilrLr - ,-.: the voltage. As the voltage is increased, the cunent

,-arles's law states that when the temperature of a gas

.-#It

decreases, because your increases, because your

tire cools down tire cools down

and and

pressure decreases with decreasing temperature. pressure increases with decreasing temperature.

-Wlt

' C . It decreases,

because your tire heats up and pressure decreases with increasing temperature.

Cn,

:It increases, because your tire

..i; ) ,r

heats up and pressure increases with increasing temperature.

a-4 ) ,

1', t

',

below

;, B, field relow thr lnetic, B';

'a11

Temp 10'c

lleight
6.00 6.21 6.42 6.64 6.85 7.06
cm cm cm cm cm

Volume
50.0t2 cmJ
2

6.

Charles's law states which of the following?

20'c
30"c

55.J'[ cmJ 60.6n cmj

65

.ffiTconstant

volume, as the pressure

of a gas

increases, the temperature decreases.

belowll

40'c 50'c 60'c 70'c 80'c 90'c

100'c
110"C

9n cmJ

'11.2n cm3
16 5n cmJ
81

cm '7.27 cm

.8n cmJ
cmJ

constant volume, as the temperature of a gas ' -B-'-Al increases. the pressure increases. .-t:*it constant temperature, as the pressure of a gas
increases. the volume decreases.

120'c
hen:
;'

7.48 7.70 7.91 8.12 8.33

cm

8'/.ln

cm
cm

92.4n cm3

(''D)At

constant pressure, as the temperature of a gas

r)r':.^(a\

increases, the volume increases.

cm
cm
1

97.]n cm' 103.0n cmj

208.3n cmr
27

-{

. .1. " i*-

-'f-

Table

': r::r from the experiment show little deviation

:,,rr.
Equation
1

from below represents Charles's law: =

How can it be explained that the volume of the particles in the experiment at -15"C is a value less than 20 cm3?

Vinitiul

Vfinal
Tfinat
1

,-.,
.? ' !. .'. .., '"

/.

ldletd behavior applies only to gases between 0"C

and 100"C.

Tinitiul
"'

Equation

,r -.:ne can be expressed in any metric units, but the

ri'--i.-:: nust be measured in kelvins, ;l'"i"-r r! rhe volume of the unknown gas at 150'C?

a liquid at a temperature slightly greater than -15"C. C. The gas condenses into a liquid at a temperature slightly Iess than -15'C. When the temperature of a gas is very low, its molecules get small enough to effuse out of the

B. The gas condenses into

j,

^) --: -: cmJ

1 - : YIICm' . ? ___ l;i cmJ

r'i ' V<:u-L4

+ ir -t ..
,

container.

'(.

{.

'"1i,;:

''

{..

28. In a system of three

'.:. : .:e volume of a heated gas in a closed, n#G ,r " ri l-'C. if it had an initial volume of 7.0 liters at -" : ii the heating of the gas was carried out under
"

gas components (water, oxygen,

and nitrogen), where water has a partial pressure of 221 ton' and the percentage of oxygen gas is 20.9Va, what is

i,

the partial pressure due to the third component (nitrogen), if the total pressure is I 62 torr? --l-t-l c, ! A;'159.3 ton
(

;:

:,rnditions.

'' 8.

(C)
D;

444.4 torr sso.o torr 719.0 torr

)l

] ,

.::CIS

' ',:ers

,.-rs

\ll.

\_.4 -l \

nt

at:

).

a
cit

1 i' -..
| ': r-

l*.,

I L \i <; I

a-)

',--'

-*

iP{

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Passage

(Questions 29 - 35)

Boyle's law is based on the observation of a closed

gaseous system at constant temperature. The conclusion is that when the system is closed so that moles of gas are held constant, the pressure varies inversely with the volume, if the temperature remains constant. Boyle's law is stated below:

In a second experiment, the researcher adds 1.000 grams ofpure oxygen gas to a cylinder that can expand. The system is a closed system and the temperature is held constant by submerging the unit into a oil bath. Changes in the volume of the cylinder are determined by observing the level of a

It-

ln'
JI

As the pressure exerted on a gas in a closed system is increased, the volume of the system decreases in a linear fashion, if the temperature and moles of gas are held
constant.

plunger connected to the top wall of the cylinder. The volume of the cylinder is proportional to its height, so the volume can be determined from the height of the plunger accordingtoV=fir2h. Table I shows the data collected at -78'C, 0'C, and 59'C. Figure 2 is a graphical representation of the data listed in Table 1.

Summary: P

with

ng and

T.

To prove this to be true, a researcher directs a constant stream of argon gas into a bent glass tube sealed at one end. The argon stream displaces the air in the tube, because argon

-78"C
P (atm) 0.25

0'c
P (atm)

59"C
P (atm)

V (L) 2.029
1.o14 0.6788 0.5068

V (L)
2.841

V (L) 3.455
1.127

is heavier than

air.

The system remains relatively pure in

0.25 0.50 o.15

1.00

0.25 0.50 o.75

1.00

argon even though the tube is open at the other end to the air. The researcher then pours enough mercury into the tube barely to fill the bend in the tube. Once the mercury reaches a level where the gas in the left side of the tube is isolated, the height of the gas is measured to be 10 cm in the left side of the tube. The researcher next adds enough mercury to the open end of the tube to create a difference of 76 cm between the heights of the columns on the left and right side (this is the first addition of mercury to the tube). The height of the gas in the left side is then measured to be 5 cm. Mercury is again added to the right side, so that the difference in heights is now 152 cm. The height of the gas in the left side of the tube is found to be 3.3 cm. The three stages are drawn in

D.

0.50
0.7 5

r.420
o.9466
0.7095

1.139 0.8628

1.00
2.O0

0.2532
0.1685 0.1264

2.00 3.00 4.00 5.00

0.3545 0.2359 0.1769

2.00 3.00 4.00 5.00

0.4311 0.2869 0.2151 0.1120

3.00

4.00 5.00

0.1010

0.14r4
1

Table

rd

ffin

ffiu
dim;

ilr-

Figure

below:

l,

l!

G*

o o
E

190 {
10.0 cm

380
Pressure (torr)
2

510

Figure

29. According to the graph in Figure 2, what

can be

f Initial
Figure
1

about the volume of 1.000 gram of oxygen gas at temperature and 0.50 atm. of pressure?

A. B.
C

The volume is less than than 1.42 liters.

l.0l

liters.

The volume is greater than 1.01 liters, but The volume is greater than 1.42 liters, but
than 1.71 liters.
The volume is greater than 1.71 liters.

Every 760 mm of height in a mercury column exerts a gravitational force that when applied over a unit area equals 1.00 atm of pressure. This is independent of the radius of the

D.

column. If

a less dense liquid is used, a greater height in the column is required to exert 1.00 atm of pressure.

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)0 grams e syster. rstant br : r'olume

';-':at would be observed if a liquid less dense than -;iJufy were used in the J-tube in the first experiment?
r"

33

be at 0'C,

What would the volume of 2.000 grams of oxygen gas if the pressure were 1.00 atmosphere?

The argon gas in the left side of the tube would

rompress less, and thus the height of the column of :es would be greater than what was observed with :rercury in the manometer.

:r'el of

er. Th: )t. so thr

r plunger

A. 0.71 liters B. 1.00 liters C. 1.42 liters

D.
2.84 liters

!, lhe

argon gas in the left side of the tube would

D'C,

and

: rmpress more, and thus the height of the column ,: eas would be less than what was observed with rL3rcury in the manometer.

ata listed

- l-: argon gas in the left side of the tube would . :lpress the same amount as with mercury, and -.i rhe height of the column of gas would be the ,
:::3 as what was observed with mercury in the - ::ametef. -": rrson gas in the left side of the tube would

34

. If

the temperature of a gas enclosed in a flexible

(L)

container were increased from 25"C to 50'C while the pressure on the system were increased from 0.5 atm. to 1.0 atm., then what would happen to the volume of the
system?

3.455
T.J2
1
,1

.139

' :,.
.-

r:ress more, and thus the height of the column

r-,ould be greater than what was observed
the manometer.

A. B.

The volume would increase, because the effect of increasing pressure is greater than the effect of
increasing temperature in this example.

0.8628
0.4311

:r-rcury in

0.2869

The volume would increase, because the effect of increasing temperature is greater than the effect of increasing pressure in this example. The volume would decrease, because the effect of increasing pressure is greater than the effect of increasing temperature in this example. The volume would decrease, because the effect of increasing temperature is greater than the effect of increasing pressure in this example.

0.215.

0.17:i

iir .-. -b,e in each of the trials? *- . i3 mm, 35 mm * . 53 mm,31 mm ll -- J mm,35mm - : -l- mm, 31 mm
r
.

. : -, --:ie up of molecules rather than atoms were r' . - :: -,rr argon gas in the first experiment, what li1 : -r :sert'ed for the heights of the gas in the left

D.

3
'ilil
,iliilllllul it"

5.

'
_

-r

ilr It
:ullt

ulilt

::: I-rndings of the first experiment, one . ::;.sure when applied to an open column ." ,. j :aise the height of the mercury in the - :. :lltrUlit']

When mercury is added to a J-tube containing argon gas in uniform 100.0-mL increments, the change in volume decreases with each subsequent addition. How is this
best explained?

The argon gas becomes more dense with each

addition of mercury, so the particles become harder to compress.

B.
. --1-

The argon gas becomes less dense with each

addition of mercury, so the particles become harder to compress.

Applv
Pressure

P.

-.suaa

C. D.

The mercury becomes more dense with each addition, so the pressure exerted by mercury
increases with each addition.

The mercury becomes less dense with each addition, so the pressure exerted by mercury increases with each addition.

ri[ii,,,

lillln

llillil
llllrui

rnllll -:,:-.

tTP

: - - ,

:'= ::.

-:',- Rgf igw@

cl

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Passage

Vl

(Questions 36 - 43)

8.

At

a low altitude

with

a low ambient temperature,

is true of atmospheric air?

The circulation of vital gases through the body starts in the lung, where large volumes of gas are exchanged between the body and the atmosphere. The volume of the lung can be broken down into four distinct volumes and dead space.

A. It has a lower partial pressure of O2(g), but

same mole fraction of OZ(g) as normal air.

M ilffi
'"'

x[

B. It has a higher partial pressure of O2(g),

same mole fraction of OZG) as normal air.

but

There

tidat volume, which is the volume of gas inspired or expired in a normal breath. There is the is
the inspiratory reserve volume, which is the volume that can be inspired beyond the tidal volume, invoked during periods of exercise and strained breathing. There is rhe expiratory reserve volume, which is the volume of air that can be expired after the expiration of the tidal volume. There is the residual volume, which is the volume of gas that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. Finally, there is dead space. There is the physiotogical dead space, which is the volume of the lung that does not eliminate carbon dioxide, and there is anatomic dead space, which is the volume of the conducting airways (about 150 mL in the average adult).

qfu.

It

D.

has both a lower partial pressure and lower fraction of O2(g) as normal air. It has both a higher partial pressure and mole fraction of OZ(g) as normal air.

39

What is observed during normal expiration? I. Total lung volume is less than tidal volume.

The breathing cycle is regulated by changes

in

the

internal pressure explained by the ideal gas law. The pressure change is caused
alveolar pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure. As defined

of the lung. Operation of the lung can be

II. Internal pressure exceeds external pressure. m. Moles of oxygen exceed moles of carbon dioxide' A. I only B. II only C. I andll only 'D . II and III only
4

by expansion and relaxation of the thoracic cavity. At rest'

zero pressure. The interpleural due to the tendency for the lung to pressure is negative, collapse and chest cavity to expand. The onset of normal inspiration is a result of contraction of the inspiratory muscles, in particular the diaphragm. When the diaphragm
contracts, the abdominal contents are forced downward, and the thorax expands. This increases the volume of the 1ung, making the alveolar pressure negative (sub-atmospheric).

in physiology, this is

0.

For lungs with a tidal volume of 400 mL and a volume following normal expiration of 1200 mL,
does internal pressure change to cause inspiration?

[,r

A. Itincreasesby33Vo. B. It increasesby 25Vo. C. It decreasesby 25Vo. D. Itdecreasesby33Vo.

41.
What is NOT true as the diaphragm contracts?

ffi lt-'

hmc

Expiration is normally a passive process, resulting from

the relaxation of inspiratory muscles back to rest. The lung and chest system is elastic, so after active inspiration, where it is expanded from its resting state, the system relaxes back to its resting state. This decreases lung volume, making the alveolar pressure positive (super-atmospheric). Air flows out

of the lung as a result of this pressure difference.

The amount of gas exchanged in one cycle of normal breathing is the tidal volume. As some of the definitions imply, there is also facilitated breathing, where inspiration is greater than normal and expiration is an active process.
3

A. Internal pressure is less than external pressure' B. Partial pressure ofcarbon dioxide decreases. C . Lung volume is less than it is at rest' D. Air temperature in the lungs remains relativ
constant.

42. Why do scuba divers experience different

patterns underwater than on land?

breathi

6.

Inspiration into the lung is BEST explained by:

A. Archimedes' PrinciPle. B. Bernoulli's princiPle. C. Boyle's law. D. Charles's law.

3

. B. C. D.
A

Air is more concentrated, so they breathe more 01 Air underwater behaves more like an ideal gas' Air viscosity is greatly reduced underwater. Air in the anatomic dead space has a reduced parti
pressure of CO2 underwater.

ffi
iffilllt

dr-

D"
4

7.

What is true during exPiration?

3.

The air flow associated with the lung moves:

ro-

. Lung pressure is less than atmospheric pressure. B. Lung pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure' C . The thoracic cavity is contracted more than normal' D. Lung volume is at its smallest point.
@

. B. C. D.

at a decreasing rate during a notmal breath. at an increasing rate during a normal breath' at a constant rate during a norrnal breath.

in a sinusoidal fashion during a notmal breath'

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fe, wha

;:ssage Vll (Questions 44 - 50)

46. Assuming that the molecular diameters

effuse roughly twice as fast as UF6?

are

235U \uclear th, --:1. reactors requiring uranium use the isotope235tJ, Naturally occurring uranium is only 0.l2To 'ne majority of the uranium being 11-t" 238lJ isotope. L.-1 r,-_ Dut tn' - ::actor to run efficiently, the uranium should be at least _ -::9. To enrich the sample with 235U, the uranium is er mol, - .ed to the hexafluoro species (UFO), a white solid at ' .emperature. The uranium hexafluoride compound is ihighe; :r io its sublimation point, and the gas is all,owed to , :: :hrough tiny pores between a series of connected ' - -3rs. With each effusion, the vapor becomes enriched '-' l35g species, because the lighter compound effuses " .:cording to Graham's law. The relative rates of . ,nd 238UF6 are detemined as fbllows: I - "''",n0 = = 4/' masszrs, ,r_ =qfI 3)2 =y'|.00859 = 1.004 'V mass2r5l rFb V :+S 'rrde.

insignificant, which of the following compounds would

but

A. SO2 B. SO3 C. PF3 D. Xe

47. All of the following affect the effusion rate of a gas
EXCEPT:

. B. C. D.
A

the size of the molecule relative to the pore. the temperature of the gas.
the presence of isotopes in the compounds.

the concentration
container.

of the species outside of

the

Figure
: -:
:

'use - i.ln the U-238 species, the effusion rate of the U-235 , .: 0.1Vo faster. This is assuming that the diameters
-

the average speed of the U-235 species js 0.4Vo

48. What is the mass

percent of uranium-235 in 23sgp6r

a tota I, ho.; : r

, "L -;. ruse the only difference between the two isotopes of

F6 and 238UF6 molecules are equivalent, which is

.-

.: three neutrons. Only charged particles affect the :n atom. By carrying out successive effusions, the -.:. the UF6 is converted back to uranium metal.

. B. C. D.
A

Less than 50Va Between 50Vo and 60Vo Between 60Vo and'|}Vo Greater than 707c

49. Had chlorine been used instead of fluorine to form

UCl6, what differences would have been observed?

d , , 'e
ve.,

-.: effect would

the diameter of the molecule of a gas

- ,rn its effusion rate?

The greater the diameter, the slower the effusion :"re, because the molecule is hindered when passing

The difference in effusion rates for the two uranium

isotopes would be greater than 0.4Vo, so fewor filtering chambers (pores) would be needed to enrich
the sample.

:rough the pore. - he greater the diameter, the slower the effusion :.ie. because the molecule collides with the pore
--,tre often.
-

B.

The difference in effusion rates for the two uranium

isotopes would be less than 0.4Vo, so fewer

filtering chambers (pores) would be needed to enrich
the sample.

atr

le greater the diameter, the faster

the effusion rate,

::Jause the molecule is hindered when passing

-.:'ru_eh the pore.

C.

The difference in effusion rates for the two uranium isotopes would be greater Ihan 0.4V0, so more filtering chambers (pores) would be needed to enrich the sample. The difference in effusion rates for the two uranium isotopes would be less than 0.4Vo, so more filtering chambers (pores) would be needed to enrich the sample.

rathinl
,re
*i,

- -e greater the diameter, the faster the effusion rate, -:Jause the molecule collides with the pore more

o:
n

..an.

--:n be said about the reactivity of fluorine gas

. n U-235 and U-238?

partJLi

- : fuse -

-orine gas reacts more readily with U-238,

it is heavier.

= -,rrine gas reacts more readily with U-235,

50. Which of the following pairs of gas molecules would be the MOST difficult to separate using the successive
elfusjon technique?

-:::use it is lighter.

h.

- --, the chemical reactiviry. -':rne gas reacts with U-235 and U-238 equally,
-:

-.riine gas reacts with U-235 and U-238 equally, -:::use the extra neutrons do not significantly

A. B. C. D.

OZ and N2

Hz and Ne CO2 and SO2

CO andC2H4

-:.rse the extra protons do not significantly affect -. -'hemical reactivity.

)-\Gn

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Passage

Vlll

(Questions 51 - 57)

3.

Air safety bags are standard features on new cars. These bags function through rapid gas generation. Because they are safety features, air bags must use a non-toxic gas that does not oxidize readily. Nitrogen gas is ideal because of its inert chemical behavior. The Reaction 1 is employed by airbags to produce nitrogen gas (N2) rapidly.
2NaN3(s)

An air safety bag fills at a rate of 100 moles/sec. Af 10 milliseconds, what is the volume of the gas in t bag at 31'C? (At 31'C, gas is 25 L/mole)

milffimr

A. B. C. D.

2.5 liters

22.4liters
25 liters 250 liters

tu${fr

Na(l) + 3 N2(g)
1

,dlffi

Reaction

fill a 60.0 liter air 20 milliseconds. To proceed at this bag in approximately rate, the reaction must be run at 350"C. To maintain this
Sodium azide decomposes quickly to
temperature, Reaction 2 is employed.

54. If the average

speed of a gas at 25'C is exactly 100 m/sec, then at 125'C the approximate average would be which of the following values?

,il\m
NE

MM

6Na(l) +FezOr(s)

3 Na2O(s) + 2Fe(s)

Reaction 2 Once the air bag is filled, it must deflate rapidly. To accommodate this, there are small pores in the material to allow the gas to effuse out. If the bag remained inflated,
vision would be hindered. The rate ofeffusion depends on the average speed ofthe molecules. The root mean square speed, Frms, of a gas is calculated using Equation 1.

A. B. C. D.

115 m/sec 133 m/sec

tu
iiffiffi

mi

224 tnlsec
500 m/sec

55. If

an air bag were

filled with argon

gas, helium gas,

nitrogen gas, which

of the following relations

Frms

= 1E vm
1

accurately describes the relative rates of effusion for gas from the air bag?

Equation
where

k is Boltzmann's

constant,

T is for

temperature

(measured in kelvins), and m is for mass (measured in kg).

51

A. He>N2>Ar B. Nz>He>Ar C. He>Ar>Nz D. Ar>N2>He

What can be said about the thermodynamics of Reaction

1 and Reaction 2?

A. B.

Entropy increases in Reaction 1; Reaction 2 is

endotherrnic.

56. In a mixture of 50 grams nitrogen gas with 50 gr

carbon dioxide at STP, the partial pressure attributed carbon dioxide would be which of the following values

Entropy increases in Reaction 1; Reaction 2 is

exothermic. decreases

C. Entropy D.

in Reaction 1; Reaction 2

is

A.
R.
C

50 torr 296 torr 380 torr

endothermic.

Entropy decreases in Reaction 1; Reaction 2 is

exothermic.

D.

464 torr

7.

52. As the nitrogen gas cools from 350'C to

temperature:

room

What can be said about the average speed of neon gas 25"C compared to argon gas at 25"C? (Ne has mass = 20 g/mole) (Ar has mass = 40 g/mole)

its pressure increases, and the kinetic energy of the

gas increases.

B.
C

its pressure increases, and the kinetic energy of the

gas decreases.

. .

its pressure decreases, and the kinetic energy of the

gas increases.

A. Ne gas is twice as fast as Ar gas. B. Ne gas is 1.4 times as fast as Ar gas. C . Ar gas is 1.4 times as fast as Ne gas. D. Ar gas is twice as fast as Ne gas.

its pressure decreases, and the kinetic energy of the

gas decreases.

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lX
lr*ii.
:

(Questions 58 - 63) flow of

a gas from the inside

9.

What occurs in Region

is opened?

II,

once the gas exchange valve

ir is defined as the

of

r r' --.iL"rE: :'r the outside of a container through a pore in the ' .:: :ontainer. The size of the pore can range from ri" ,.,:f -: ibarely greater then the diameter of the gas , l:r:, :-, :racroscopic (as is the case with a valve). The ,riL i, T,:: a gas effuses depends on the velocity of the gas'
,rrt

A. B. C. D.

Helium partial pressure grows rapidly, reaching the greatest partial pressure once at equilibrium. Helium partial pressure grows rapidly, reaching the smallest partial pressure once at equilibrium. Argon partial pressure grows slowly, but reaches

-:i- .r.l
)'1
CS
riiLlL

i::.

of the pores relative to the surface area of the

Ihe concantration of the gas in the contarner' sets out to study effusion using inert gases,

the same partial pressure as helium once

at

equilibrium.

','r,i:::her

Argon partial pressure grows rapidly, but reaches the same partial pressure as helium once at
equilibrium.

are minimal. The apparatus ,, - lnequal spheres connected by a tube with a r : The left sphere (Region I) has a radius' 11, *r -::: sphere (Region II) has a radius, 12. Region II

r ::rolecular forces

60

ri

uti

{r il1{t , :,lume of Region

let valve

I,

as shown in Figure

Which of the following statements must be TRUE with regard to the system shown in Figure 1?

I. II.

Inlet valve

Gas exchange valve gas.

The final pressure in Region II is three times as great as in Region I. At equilibrium, the mole fraction of helium is the same in Region I as the mole fraction of argon in
Region II. Increasing the temperature would increase the rate of effusion and increase the equilibrium partial

ru.

ton

lor

pressures,

but it would not change the mole

fractions at equilibrium.

A. II only B. III only C . I and II only D . II and III only

Figure
,ii1,,;pr L

i0

ibutoi
:

r'al

1 I .. -ritially charged with equal moles of helium, inr,: ::-ion. aI 25'C. Region II is evacuated. The ,li : .s set to allow gas exchange. The vessels are T{: ,1er that is essentially pore-free for the lifetime 'tlil1tttrllr i;fld-l:':.-rt. Figure 2 shows the pressure of each gas
lLlfillrtllirrql'r

61

. All of the following

EXCEPT:

can increase the effusion rate

: 3r itme.

A. B. C. D.
6

opening the valve to a greater area. increasing the temperature of the system. increasing the volume of the system. increasing the partial pressure of a component.

h ilttt

2.

How would hydrogen compare to the gases in Figure 2? A. It would have the steepest drop initially, reaching equilibrium before the other gases. B. It would have the flattest drop initially, reaching equilibrium after the other gases. C . It would be identical to the graph for helium' D. It would be between the graphs for nitrogen and
argon.

t Time (seconds)
6

3.

Figure
;lti i'lq;p;
111

:--: lnce equilibrium has been established?

How does the rate of diffusion change with time? A. It decreases for helium and increases for argon' B. It increases for helium and decreases for argon'

q -T,: --:le fraction of helium is lowest in Region I. [ *ie ::,.: liaction of argon is greatest in Region II. I -re :.:hs of nitrogen are greatest in Region I. I -ru *,:.es of helium are greatest in Region II.
rgrln

. D.
C

It decreases for all three gases. It increases for all three gases.

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Passage X (Questions 64 - 70)

5. As the bore radius of both tubes in a manometer

reduced, how is height of the fluid in the column in t
atrnospheric side affected?

Wrhrc
nnnmu

researcher carries out

a series of reactions under

d.gro by half, the height

standard conditions, in a round- bottom flask connected to a manometer. The line from the flask to the manometer is

A. If the radius decreases

by a factor of four.

fitted with a valve that opens to the environment. The

following four reactions take place in the reaction vessel: HI(g) + Ba(NO3)2(aq) + BaI2(s) + HNO3(aq)

B. If the radius decreases

by a factor of two.
C D
change.

by ha1f, the height i

l-1 c-E

-il-

Reaction I
KHCO3(aq) + HCI(aq) -+ KCI(aq) + H2O(l) + COz(g)

. If the radius decreases by hali the height does .

If the radius decreases by half, the height
by a factor of four.
dec

D-C

Reaction Reaction

AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) -+ NaNO3(aq) + Agcl(s)

3

CIZ(aq) + Zn(s) -+ ZnCl2@q)

ffim,r 6mfu ct- T

6

Reaction 4
The change in pressure is found by observing the difference in heights of mercury in the two columns of the
manometer. The two columns have the same internal radius. The reaction apparatus is shown in Figure 1 below: Burette

6.

For a reaction that results in only a small change

volume, what type of tube in the atmospheric side
the manometer yields the MOST accurate reading?

t-u

tu

. B. . D.
C

ffi

One with a very dense liquid and a large bore radi

One with a liquid of low density and a large

radius

O;u

rft

ffi

One with a very dense liquid and a small bore

One with a liquid of low density and a small

radius

ffi

67

What is the role of the stopcock in the middle line?

A.
Manometer
B

To equilibrate the two sides of the mano

before the reaction begins

Figure

. To measure the pressure inside of the flask . To measure the pressure outside of the flask D. To prevent pressure buildup inside the fl
C
through one-way venting

The data for each reaction are calculated using the ideal
gas equation for the vapor in the system. The vapor pressure

of water at 25"C is 27 .2 torr. The pressure for each reaction is recorded along with the resting volume of the system. The

volume

of the gas

space following the reaction is

6

approximated as the original volume plus any positive or negative correction for the manometer. For a reaction in which the volume increases, for instance, the change in volume is the cross-sectional area of the manometer core
times the height change.
64

8.

Once the system is at equilibrium, if the right col of the manometer is higher than the left column of
manometer, then:

A' Pry.t.*

at equilibrium > Psyste. initiallyi Pryrt.rn initiallyl

Which of the reactions would result in an increase in the height of the mercury column on the right of side of the
U{ube?

B' P.yrt.t at equilibrium ( C. D.

the stopcock is opened, the net flow of gas is ou

A. B. C. D.

Reactions 1 and 2 Reaction 2 only Reactions 1, 3, and 4 Reaction 4 only

the stopcock is opened, the net flow of gas is Psystem at equilibrium ) Psystem initiallyi the stopcock is opened, the net flow of gas is in. Prytt.rn at equilibrium ( Psystem initially; $ the stopcock is opened, the net flow of gas is in

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"-\tich of the following is the BEST liquid to use in the :renometer for a system that produces a large quantity

Passage

Xl

(Questions 71 - 78)

::

las?

\. Mercury B. Water C. Ethanol D. Glycerol

A researcher fills a balloon with a mixture of nitrogen helium gas (80Vo by volume) and then seals it. The balloon is used to transport sampling devices into the atmosphere to collect gases at various altitudes. It is filled to a total internal pressure of 760.0 torr at2'7"C and a volume of exactly 24.63 liters. The balloon contains exactly one mole of total gases. It is allowed to rise
gas (ZOVo by volume) and

to a height of 20,000 feet, where the atmospheric pressure is measured to be 507 torr (0.67 atm.) and the temperature is

--:i an endothermic reaction that neither consumes nor :r-:cuces gases, what is observed after reaction?

-3'C (270 K). The balloon carries a basket aloft containing equipment to monitor the atmospheric conditions. The balloon is released early in the morning and returns to the
ground at night, where it is 7'C and the pressure is 760 torr.

d.
:hange ic side
ng?
)re

The left column rises initially until the solution temperature falls to 4'C, then the left column
hegins to drop.

In addition to sealed balloons, hot-air balloons may also be used. Drawn in Figure 1 below is a hot-air balloon with
an attached basket.

ts.

[D.

arge ore radi

The left column rises initially until the solution tieezes, then the left column remains constant. The left column drops initially until the solution Iemperature falls to 4"C, then the left column
begins to rise.

mall

The left column drops initially until the solution treezes, then the left column remains constant.

Sand bags

(ballast)

Figure

i
;k

the fl

Hot-air balloons demonstrate the principle of buoyancy. Hot air is less dense than the surrounding air, so when hot air displaces cold air in the balloon, it becomes less dense than the surrounding medium. Hot air rises to the top of the balloon, as shown in Figure 2. This lowers the center of mass for the system.

llyi tlyl

w w
w
71

s is out s is oul

Figure

llyi
llv;

What is the volume of the sealed balloon at 20,000 feet,

where the temperature is -3'C and pressure is 507 torr?

$ rs ln.
l515ln

A. B. C. D.
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14.78 liters 18.24 liters 33.25 liters

41.05liters

IPA

43

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2,

What is the density of helium gas at STP?

76. The relative rate of effusion from

A. 0.18 grams/liter B. 0.36 grams/liter C. 1.00 grams/liter D. 4.00 grams/liter

a balloon (with He and 507o N2) for helium compared to nitrogen be which of the following?

Cffirlom

. 7 times faster for helium B. {1 times faster for helium C . 1[1 times faster for nitrogen D. 7 times faster for nitrogen
A

qa

!@iro
l:fuffis[
mlnwfi
am

pn

hil d

73.

As a hot-air balloon is lifting off, which point in the drawing below accurately reflects its center of mass?

77. The molecular weight of a gas, where the

mass

grams is represented by (g), can be calculated by of the following formulas?

P;ils

A. B.
A. B. C. D.
Point a Point b Point c
Point d

gPV

Lfi
Ififfih

RT gVT
PR gRP

tu

C. D.

TV
gRT

PV

0,r
!

78. How many

7

moles of helium gas are in the

4.

What is the partial pressure of N2(g) at 507 torr and

7'C?

the pressure is reduced to .507 atm. and the is reduced to -3"C?

A. B. C. D.

102 torr

ton 157 ton

133

608 torr

A. 0.48 moles He B. 0.80 moles He C. 1.08 moles He D. 1.20 moles He

5.

Which of the following statements BEST describes the

buoyancy of a hot-air balloon under varying conditions?

fr

ftn

A. B. C. D.

The balloon is most buoyant on a hot day, because the surrounding air is denser than on a cold day. The balloon is most buoyant on a hot day, because
the surrounding air is less dense than on a cold day. The balloon is most buoyant on a cold day, because the surrounding air is denser than on a hot day. The balloon is most buoyant on a cold day, because the surrounding air is less dense than on a hot day.

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rh 509i

Fassage Xll (Questions 79 - 86)

Chlorocarbons are a class of compounds composed of
rne. carbon, and hydrogen, andfluorocarbons Ne a class

81

i wouk -npounds composed of fluorine, carbon, and hydrogen. ' :iasses of molecules consist of polar compounds, for :r : - rst p&rt. Their polarity affects their physical properties, , - ,. boiling point, so they are often used as refrigerants. ;l. , . . -S3 of their strong intermolecular forces, neither class of - rrnds acts like an ideal gas. An ideal gas obeys
-_ _rn
1:

The a-value for a halocarbon increases proportionally with:

A. molecular mass. B. nucleophilicity. C. boiling point. D. polarity.

8

2.

Which of the following gases has the GREATEST

value?

a-

PV = nRT
NASS '.
I1

Equation

whici

,-' P is pressure in atm., V is volume in liters, n is the --. of moles of particles, R is the ideal gas constant
'

A. Chloromethane B. Fluoromethane C. Methane D. 1,2-Difluoroethane

83.
What is the volume
and 1.00 atm.?

L atm..mole-1.K, and T is temperature in kelvins.

',::n comparing a real gas to an ideal gas, deviations in - : and volume are taken into account. The corrected ,: :en substituted into Equation l, yield Equation 2:
(P + an-) x (V - nh) = nP1 v2 Equation 2
I

of

1.00 moles

of CHrF at 25"C

':

A. 20.t'7 L B. 22.41 L c. 24.24L D. 32.11 L

84

-,S &r empirical value related to the strength of the : rntermolecular forces, and b is an empirical value

'

:he size of the molecule.

loon.

ler

- .:rerai, bigger molecules have greater b values. " -. irom ideal behavior decrease as the mean free path :: This deviation is attributed to reduced interactions , :. the increased average distance between particles. : lme of the container increases, the space that is
:

What does NOT decrease as the pressure exerted on system in a piston increases?

a gas

- r". the particles becomes insignificant.

A. B. C. D.
85.

Volume Compressibility
Mean free path
Gas concentration

. irsk initially filled with equal moles of methane,

. ,nethane, : chloromethane, and bromomethane, " -:. gas has the GREATEST mole fraction after a ' r iuration of time, if each gas is allowed to effuse

What is TRUE when comparing CH2F2to CH2Br2

under identical conditions?

* .:: flask?
1,1:thane

L [. m.

The diffusion rate of CH2F2 is greater than the diffusion rate of CH2BI2.
The collision impulse of CH2F2 is greater than the collision impulse of CH2Br2.

t, ! . ,

-.:oromethane
- r-oromethane

The average kinetic energy of CH2F2 is greater

than the average kinetic energy of CH2Br2.

::'tmomethane

* :: rlue for 1,1-difluoroethane is: " - . : of the b-value for ,1 -dichloroethane. : :rtly less than the b-value for
1

A. I only B. I and II only C. I andIII only D. I, il, and III

I ,1 8

:..-oroethane.

6.

Which of the following gases is MOST ideal?

_.r.rtly

more than the b-value for

1,1-

- - -.loroethane.

::

as large as the

b-value for 1,1-dichloroethane.

A. B. C. D.
45

I,l-Difluoroethane
Difluoromethane Fluorine l,2-Difluoropropane

" I

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Passage Xlll (Questions 87 - 93)

8.

In the experiment illustrated by Figure l, how must

the

A balloon filled with enough helium floats in the air surrounding it, because its countermass exceeds its mass.
The countermass is the mass of the surrounding medium that is displaced by the balloon, and it is found by multiplying the volume of air displaced by the balloon times the density of the medium. Helium is lighter than all gases except hydrogen, and it has the smallest molecular size of any gas known. Because of its low mass and small molecular size, helium effuses rapidly from a balloon. The restoring force of the rubber from which the balloon is made provides a driving force for effusion to exceed infusion. As the helium effuses,

spin rate of the cylinder be adjusted when methane (16

Questlrrl
descrip::'

grams/mole)

is

replaced

by nitrous oxide

(44

grams/mole) to get the same results?

. B. C. D.
A

It It It It

must be slowed by a factor of 2.15.

of 1.61. must be increased by a factor of 1 .61

must be slowed by a factor

;.1
.

\\-hn
1.Cr,

lite;s

must be increased by a factor of 2.15.

A.
B. C. D,

89.

Which of these balloons has the GREATEST buoyan. force in air?

the volume of the balloon is decreased, reducing the countermass. Eventually, the mass of the balloon exceeds
the countermass, and the balloon is no longer buoyant. The rate of effusion depends on the temperature and mass

of the gas, and on the size of the gas particles relative to the
size of the pores in the container's walls. The mass and temperature affect effusion rate, because they affect the average speed of the gas particles. Equation 1 shows the relationship of gas speed (v) to temperature (T) and mass (m):
9

A. A 4.O-liter methane filled balloon B. A 3.0-liter helium filled balloon C . A 2.0-liter neon filled balloon D . A 1.O-liter nitrogen filled balloon
A.

0. If a larger cylinder were used in Chamber 2, how mus.

the spin rate be adjusted to keep the gas passing througr the pore after half of a rotation?

B.

C. D.

, * ^[T Vm
Equation

To study the average speed of a gas, particle flow in one direction through a vacuum is observed. The apparatus
shown in Figure 1 is used to generate such conditions.

. B. C. D.

The rate must increase by a factor of 2. The rate must decrease by a lactor of 18. The rate must increase by a iactor of y'7. The rate does not change.

91.
Valve

r<

Why is Chamber 2 evacuated before gas is relea

through Yalve2?

Chamber

A
Spinning cylinder

To minimize collisions between particles wi

the cylinder

El r -1" li F

Figure I
The system is completely evacuated, and a gas sample is injected into Chamber 1. The cylinder is then set in motion and Valve 2 is opened briefly, allowing gas to flow into

B. C. D.
9

To prevent the effusion of gas To prevent the infusion of gas To maximize the buoyancy of Chamber 2 |&

- l 'liri;li

Chamber

2. A

sensor

in Valve 3

detects collisions.

2. How would the speed of the gas change within system shown in Figure 1, if the temperature we
increased from 25'C to 100'C?

ry I lllllif

ll ri; ;Iliu

Chamber 2 is re-evacuated, and the process is repeated with the cylinder spinning at a different rate. The goal of each adjustment is to determine the spin rate that causes the greatest collision frequency at the detector. It is assumed that the gas is passing straight through Chamber 2 at this spin rate. Under such conditions, the diameter and period of the spin are used to determine the speed ofthe gas particles.

{.t

. B. C. D.
A
93

It It It It

would increase by a factor of 4. would increase by a factor of 2. would increase by a factor of 1.25. would increase by a factor of 1.12.

ti
Ir

87. A balloon filled with which of the following

float in air?

gases

How do the speeds of N2O, CO, F2, and Ne compare

iilillb,ur
'nwllliu]n

would require the GREATEST minimum volume to

A. B. C. D.

Ammonia Helium
Hydrogen Methane

A. vNzO ) vp, ) VCO > VN" B. vNe > vCO ) Vr, > VNzO C. uNzO ) vCO > Vp, > VN" D. vN" ) vp, ) VCO > VIVzO

sit fl:
ff,,
D

,*

l(

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nust
lane

(l

i:i-.rnS 94 through 100 are NOT

Li

based on

9.

de(

'::1:.-\

e passage.

Select the sequence which corresponds to the infusion rates for the four gases indicated below in ascending
order:

", :..r.:

is the final pressure in a balloon that occupies ,'" liter at S.T.P. after the volume is decreased to 0.75
(isothermally)?

::: rt constant temperature

s"

A. B. C. D.

CHa < CO < SO2 < C12 SO2 < Clz < CO < CH4 CO < Clz < CH4 < SO2 Cl2 < SOz < CO < CH4

.l13 ton
-1.-1

buo,v

B ! torr I -50 torr fx l-0 torr

L00. The relative rate of effusion from a balloon for

methane compared to helium would be which of the

following?

'- - 'rr

1"":,:: rs the partial pressure of argon in a mixture that is

moles argon at STP?

q. lji.2 torr 3 --lrl.0 torr - i,r-).0 torr It :15.8 torr

. B. C, D.

4.00 times faster than helium 2.00 times faster than helium 2.00 times slower than helium

4.00 times slower than helium

r ;.r ::lloon that occupies 67.2 : rn '..'i11 occupy what volume r l -.cP=0.90atm.)? ", it.l iiters ! :5 1 liters - :' -t liters I i -.-i liters '"

liters at 25'C and 1.0 in the mountains (T =

:--r,es a balloon filled with argon gas 23.6 minutes l,:';:ease its volume by 0.100 liters due to effusion at

il :-- I minutes '" : - minutes i minutes I

:,-"':: temperature and constant pressure, how long ,, :- : ri take if the balloon is filled with sulfur trioxide -, ,:r::l .Ar = 39.95 gim, SO3 = 80.06 g/m) q, -- - minutes

rparea

qi rL

:-. ri the following ir - i .i i,ast as water?

gases moves approximately

:- tl1 - ^ -LI

D 2.D 3. A 6.8 1.C 8.D 11. D 12. A 13. D 16. D 11. C 18. D 21. A 22. C 23. C 26. D 21. B 28. C 31. A 32. C 33. C 36. C 37. B 38. B 41. C 42. A 43. D 46. C 41. D 48. C 51. B 52. D 53. C 56. B 57. B 58. D 61. C 62. A 63. C 66. D 67. A 68. A 71. C 72. A 73. C 16. B 11. D 78. B 81. D 82. B 83. C 86. C 87. A 88. C 91. A 92. D 93. B 96. C 91. B 98. A
1.

4.C 9.C 14. D 19. D 24. C 29. C 34. C 39. B 44. A 49. D s4. A s9. c 64. B 69. A 14. A 79. D 84. D 89. A 94. A 99. D

10.C
15. A 20. D 25. D 30. A 35. A 40. C 45. C 50. D 55. A 60. D 65. A 70. A

5.B

15.

80. B 85. A 90. D 95. A 100. C

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Gases Passage Answers

1..

@
T"C

Choice D is correct. Because the particles of a real gases have a molecular volume, the volume of the container does not reflect the actual volume that the gas can occupy. This is based on the idea that in a real gas, no two particles can occupy the same point at the same time. As the container volume decreases, the space inoccupied by gas molecules is decreased, so the molecules collide more often. This increases the interaciions and causes deviations from ideal behavior. Choice A is eliminated. Forces between molecules (attractive or repulsive) result in deviations in the behavior of the gas. The deviations can be attributed to changes in the collision frequency of the particles with the walls. For instance, particles that experience attractive forces have a greater tendency to collide with one another, decreasing the frequency of their collisions against the walls. This eliminates choices B and C. Choices A, B, and C represent the assumptions of the ideal gas law, which under real conditions do not hold true. The gas is assumed to be uniform ilthe flask, so choice"D is not a statement. In addition, this would not necessarily account for deviations from ideal gas behavior. collisions would simply be asymmetrically distributed against the walls. Pick D to be totally hip and now. Choice D is correct. Pressure is a measure of the collisions of the gas molecules with the container walls. As Pressure increases, the gas particles strike the wall more frequently. It can be inferred. that molecules a collide with one another more frequently, eliminating choices A and C. Because they collide more frequently their time in contact, and thus their interactions are increased, making choice D the best answer. Choice A is correct. Because the question asks for the trend over a large pressure range, we need Table 1. observed from Table 1, the pressure'volume product for helium gas showi a uniform increase over the peri during which the pressu,reis increased up to 400 atm. During this same period, the pressure.volume prodlct gxygen gas decreases slightly before beginning to increase. This means that oxygen gas shows a chang" behavior as pressure is increased, which eliminates choices B, C, and D. Althougn w"e tnow the answer must choice A at this point, we'Il analyze the trend for carbon dioxide to be certain. ih" p."rrure.volume product carbon dioxide shows a drastic drop until some pressure around 25 atrn., then the pressure.volume prod rapidly increases. The best answer is choice A.

i1

1I

-; u

:r

c
i"

.;

{;

2.

5{

dff
gE

Ff

3.

4.

Choice C is correct. This is really two questions combined into one. "Is the volume larger or smaller expected" and "Is this due to attractive or repulsive forces?" The value for the molar volume of an ideal under nearly standard conditions is listed as 22.4L liters in the passage. The value for the molar volume ammonia (NHe) is listed in Table 2 as 22.087liters. This means that the molar volume is smaller than i for ammonia (NH3). Choices A and B are eliminated. The volume of a gas is reduced due to attractive force In the case of ammonia, the attraction can be attributed to hydrogen bonding. The best answer is choice C. Be champion and choose C.
Choice B is correct. Table 1 lists values for the pressure.volume product. The value for the pressure.volu product at 75 atm. should be somewhere between 10.11 and 11.25. A good approximation of lhe value for pressure'volume product at 75 atm. is 10.63 (an average of 1011 and 11.25). To determine the molar volume carbon dioxide at75 atm., the pressure.volume product (10.63 L.atm.) is divided by the pressure (25 atm.). Tl yields a number far less than one. Choices C and D are eliminated, because those ,rair"t better approxima the product of the Pressure and the volume at75 atm.,not the volume alone. The correct value is greater tl 0.1333 (the value obtained when 10 is divided by 75), because 10.63 dividedby 75 is greater than 10 divided 75. Choice A should be eliminated, because it is too small (less than 0.100, which is tO divlaed by 100).

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best answer is choice B.

6.

Choice B is correct. A gas is most ideal when there are minimal intermolecular forces between the This occurs when the gases do not contact one another as frequently. At low pressure, the gases do not colli with one another (or the walls) as often, so they have fewer intermoleculir interactions. This makes k pressure more ideal than high pressure. At high temperature, gases have the necessary kinetic energy overcome the intermolecular forces, so they do not stay in contact for as long a period of time. This makes-hi temperature more ideal than low temperature. The best choice is B, high temperature and low pressure. If y consider a phase diagram, at high temperafure and low pressure, the material is in the gas phise, far from other phases, making it most gas-like.
1

Copyright O by The Berkeley Review@

4a

Section VI Detailed

'n

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Choice C is correct. In a closed system, the number of particles (moles of gas) cannot change. This means that ::oles are constant during the process. If the piston is motionless, then the internal gas pressure equals the =-.temal pressure. This means that overall, given that the piston starts and finishes at rest, the pressure shows ::: r-ret change. Only the temperature and volume exhibit a net change. When the temperature of the system is :.:reased, the average kinetic energy of the molecules increases. The number of molecules does not change, so -:,:ice A is eliminated. Because the average kinetic energy increases, rather than remains constant, choice B is :.::uinated. The concentration decreases as the container expands, so the average distance between particles :::eases, meaning that the mean free path increases. This makes choice C true. As the average kinetic energy :i::eases, the average particle speed increases, so momentum (mv) increases. This eliminates choice D. Choice t[ -*. the best answer. ,Cioice D is correct. Because the container is sealed, the system is closed, so the number of molecules does not -:::ige. The container is rigid, so the volume of the system does not change. Because neither the moles of :,:-cles nor the volume changes, the concentration does not change, so mean free path cannot change. Mean ::e lath is the microscopic equivalent of concentration. The particles may collide more frequently, but that is ;l*'::ilse they cover the distance between molecules faster. The molecules on average are the same distance r:':t" Because mean free path does not change, choice C is eliminated. With greater average kinetic energy r j thus greater temperature), both the collision frequency (based on velocity) and the collision force (based :r: =omentum) increase. This makes choice D the best answer. This question addresses both the chemist's and :.- -, sl;Lst's perspective of gases. The correlation between macroscopic measurements and microscopic ideas of irs.": are listed below: Temperature correlates to Average Kinetic Energy (as T increases, KE increases) Concentration correlates to Mean Free Path (as n/V increases, d.r,"u., free path decreases) I:=s=ure correlates to Collision Force and Collision Frequency (Pressure increases when collisions increase) Moles correlates to Molecules (hopefully this relationship is a freebie) Volume correlates to Container Walls (the container walls dictate the volume of the system)

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l:r,:i;e C is correct. As the temperature is decreased, the speeds of the gas particles decrease, so the average lrq*: :f the particles in the gas system decreases. This eliminates choices A and B. The important thing to ',lr':i-rere is that the change is considered in terms of the Kelvin temperature scale, not the Celsius scale. The :'.i:.3e is only from293 K to 283 K, and the speed is proportional to square root of T. Because the temperature rl:::ease is only about3.4"k, the speed decrease is even less than 3.4ok, so the decrease in particle speed is only
Choice C is the best answer.

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C is correct. This question is asking for the effect of effusion on the absolute pressure (P) and the

:.lative abundance (X) of component gases. Because both H2 and D2 are escaping from the container (due to ::tusion through the pore), the moles of each gas decrease over time. This causes the partial pressure of each :a-. to decrease as well. This eliminates choices B and D. However, because H2 is lighter than Dz, Hz escaPes :.ster than D2, so the relative amount of D2 (Xpr) increases. This makes choice C the best answer.
the gases are all at the same temperature, so they have the Choice D is correct. Under identical "orlaiUojr, :ame average kinetic energy. The equation for kinetic energy is K.E. = 1f 2mvz. This means that if two :articles have different masses, they must have different average velocities. Because velocity, v, is squared in --:e kinetic energy relationship, it varies inversely with the square root of the mass. In other words, if one :article is four times as massive as another, it has half the velocity of the lighter particle. Momentum is the :roduct of mass and velocity, so particles with greater mass have greater momentum. This means that the gas -,r-ith the greatest particle momentum is the heaviest gas. Sulfur dioxide is the heaviest gas of the choices, so choice D is the best answer. Choice A is correct. Collision frequency affects the pressure. The number of molecules affects the moles. -{ccording to the ideal gas equation, PV = nRT, moles and pressure are directly proportional, if all other conditions are held constant. The relationship of pressure and moles is linear, so collision frequency with the 'rvalls as a function of the number of particles should also be linear. Twice as many particles results in twice as many collisions. The best answer is choice A.

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by The Berkeley Review@

49

Section VI Detailed Explanations

13.

kinetic energy. However, because the equation is K.E. = 1 / 2mv2, the viocity doesn't double when the temperature doubles; the velocity increases by square root of two. This eliminaies choice C. The pressure, according to the kinetic theory of gases, is attributed to coliisions with the walls of the container. If the shape of the container changes, as long as the volume is the same, there is the same density. This results in the same number of collisions per unit area against the walls, so choice D is valid.
14.

Choice D is correct. According to the kinetic molecular theory of gases, particles exert no force on one another. are no intermolecular forces, the particles cannot be held iogether, so they can never form a solid or a liquid. This results in a boiling point that is extremely small, ,roiir",fir,it"1y large. Choice A is eliminated. According to the kinetic molecular theory of gases, particles have a negligible vol,ime, whether they are atoms or molecules. This means that no matter what the particles may be ot-t i-n" microscopic level, thef ail behave the same. Choice B is eliminated. When the temperature doubles, the average kinetic energy of ine particles doubles. The mass of the particles remains the sime, so a change in velocity is attributable'to the change in

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Choice D is correct. A gas has no definite volume, because its particles are in contact with one another only briefly during collisions. A liquid has a definite volume, becauie its particles are always in contact with one another, eliminating choices A and B. Because particles in a gas do not remain in constant contact with one another, gases are more compressible and less dense than liquids. In other words, the particles of a gas can be pushed closer together, while particles in a liquid are alieady touching, so they aie hard to pJsh closer together. Because gases are less dense than liquids, objects in gases are less 6uoyant (due to the lower density of the medium). This makes choice D invalid, so choice D is the best answer.

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Choice A is correct. From Table 1, it can be seen that the greatest change in volume takes place during the first five feet of descent. This is attributed to the inverse relationship betwJen pressure and volume. The"graph oi volume as a function of pressure shown below, demonstrates that as the pressure increases in uniform jncrements, the volume changes by a smaller increment each time.

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Volume change is in decreasing increments:

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Pressure change is in uniform increments: AP1 =AP2=fS=AP+

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The greatest volume change is observed at relatively low pressures, because the percent change in pressure caused by an incremental increase in pressure is greatest at low pressures. This trend would be observed in data for the first seven feet of descent into water, also resulting in the greatest volume change of any increment of seven feet of the descent. The best answer is therefore choice A. This same pheno*"r.J^ explains the pain ir. your ears you may have experienced, if you ever descended into the deep end of a swimmrng pool.

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16.

Choice I) is correct. This question is asking for the point at which the ball used in the experiment experiences no net force (where the buoyant force equals the weight). At this point, the density of ttre ball must lqual the density of the surrounding water. The ball is initially 50% submerged, so the density of the ball is initiallr50% that of the_surrounding water. This means that the density of the ball must increase by a factor of two tc reach a point where it is no longer buoyant. The mass of the ball is not changing, so the increase in density mus: result from a decreasing volume. The volume must decrease to half of its oiiginal value (36.0 L at the surface) in order to have a density equal to that of the surrounding water. From Table 1, the volume of the ball equals 18.0 liters at a depth of somewhere around 32 feet. This makes choice D correct.
Revier.r'@

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Copyright O by The Berkeley

5()

Section VI Detailed Explanations

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Choice C is correct. Fresh water is less dense than salt water, which causes the ball to be less buoyant in fresh water, although that is not the focus of this question. Because salt water is more dense than fresh water, choices A and B are eliminated. A greater volume of the ball would initially be submerged in fresh water. However, as the ball is submerged below the surface, the pressure exerted by the less massive fresh water is less than the pressure exerted by the more massive salt water. The greater the pressure, the more the volume decreases, so salt water reduces the volume of the ball more than fresh water. This means that the change in volume of the ball is greater when submerged in salt water than in fresh water, making choice C correct.

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Choice D is correct. If the ball is initially only 25% submerged, then the density of the ball is 25"h that of water. To cease to be buoyant in the water, the density of the ball must equal that of the surrounding water. This means that the density of the ball must increase by a factor of four. The mass of the ball is not changing, so the increase in density must result from a decreasing volume. The volume must decrease to 25"h of its original value (at the surface), in order to have a density equal to that of the surrounding water. The pressure must therefore be four times its initial value (at the surface). The pressure is one atmosphere at the surface, so the ball must be submerged to a depth where the pressure is 4 atmospheres (3 atmospheres of which are due to the water). The passage says that 32.6 feet of water exerts one atmosphere of pressure, so to have 3 atmosphere of rvater pressure a depth of 97.8 (3 x 32.6) feet is required. This makes choice D correct.
Choice D is correct. Because the ball that is initially 607o submerged is denser than the ball in the experiment, it need not be submerged to as great a depth to have a density equal to that of the surrounding water. The greater density can be inferred from the greater submerged volume. This makes choice D the correct answer.
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Choice D is correct. According to the ideal gas law, PV = nRT, the volume of the ball is directly affected by changes in the pressure (Boyle's law), the moles of gas (Avogadro's law), and the temperature of the container (Charles's law). The magnetic field strength should have no direct effect on the volume, as long as the metal ring on the ball is attached at the greatest circumference of the ball. The best (but not perfect) answer is choice D. If the magnetic ring were attached at a point other than the circumference, the ball could elongate due to the force, and thus the volume would change with the asymmetric deformation (elongation) of the ball. Choice A is correct. If salt is added to the water, the density of the solution increases, thus making the ball more buoyant in the solution. If the ball became more buoyant, more of the ball would rise above the surface of the water, resulting in less of the volume of the ball being submerged. This eliminates both choice C and choice D. Because the ball is more buoyant, a stronger applied force is necessary to overcome the increased buoyant force, so the B field (magnetic field) must be increased. Pick A.

Choice C is correct. The compressibility of a gas is greatest when the particles are farthest apart from one another. This is true when the mean free path is largest. To maximize the mean free path, the concentration must be low, which equates to a low number of moles and a large volume. This makes choice C the best answer.

Choice C is correct. This is answered by following the trend in the data. Table 1 shows that volume increases by 5.3 every ten degrees, so at 150"C, the volume should be 15.9 greater than 208.3n cm3, the volume at 720"C. This makes the volume approximatety 224.2n cm3, so that choice C is the best answer.
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Choice C is correct. The bulb temperature increases fuom7"C to 27 'C, so the bulb expands. This eliminates A. Three answer choices remain, making a calculation necessary. The question can be solved intuitively in the following manner. Before calculating, be sure to convert from Celsius into Kelvin. If you fail to do this, vou will incorrectly choose answer choice D.
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The key on these types of questions is to plug the numbers into the equation in such a manner that the value is reasonable (greater or less than the original value). Knowing that the volume increases with temperature implies that the final volume is greater tltan7.O, so the temperature ratio mustbe greater than 1.0. Choice C is a terrific answer in a situation such as this.

-:rr-right

by The Berkeley Review@

5l

Section VI Detailed Explanations

25.

Choice D is correct. As you drive, your car tire heats up due to friction from contact with the road surface. Thi eliminates choices A and B. The volume of the tire stays roughly constant, so the only significant cha caused by the increasing temperature involves pressure. As the temperature of a gas at constant volu increases, the pressure must increase, according to the ideal gas law. This makes choice D the best answer.

26.

Choice D is correct. This is a case of memorization. Charles's law equates changes in volume to changes temperature, at constant pressure. This eliminates all of the choices except D. As temperature increases, t volume increases according to both Charles's law and the idea gas law. Choice D is the best answer.
Choice B is correct. According to the trend in the data, the volume at -15'C should be about 13.3n less than t volume at 10'C. This means that we expect the volume to be L36.7n cm3 at -15"C. Choice A is elimina because there is no reason for the ideality suddenly to deviate that much. The size of the particles does change with temperature, so choice D should be eliminated. The best explanation for the drastic drop volume is condensation of the gas. A liquid occupies less volume than a gas. At -15"C, the compound is a liqui so its boiling point is greater than -15"C. At 10"C it is a gas. This means that the boiling point is slight greater than -15"C. The best answer is choice B. Choice C is correct. The partial pressure due to nitrogen is found by subtracting the partial pressures of wa and oxygen from the total pressurc,762 torr. The partial pressure due to oxygen is 20.9% of 762 torr. This v is just over 20"h of 760, which is 152 torr (the exact value is 159.3 torr). The partial pressure of nitrogen is minus the sum of 22.7 and a little more than 152. This leads to a value in the high 500s, so choice C is the answer. The exact answer is found as follows: Ptotul=PHzO+Pgr+P111,

an

28.

762=22.1,+159.3+Pp,
PNz= 762 - 787.4 = 580.6 torr

29.

Choice C is correct. The volume of a gas increases with temperature, so the volume of 1.000 gram of oxygen at room temperature is greater than the volume of 1.000 gram of oxygen gas at 0"C. The volume of 1.000 gram oxygen gas at room temperature is less than the volume of 1.000 gram of oxygen gas at 59"C, because temperature is less than 59"C. This means that the volume of 1.000 gram of oxygen gas at room temperature between 1.42 liters and 1,.71.liters. Pick choice C. Choice A is correct. If a liquid less dense than mercury were chosen, then the mass of the liquid (and thus force exerted by the liquid) would be less in the right side of the column as compared to the mass and { associated with mercury. This results in lower pressure being applied to the gas in the left side of the col so the gas in the left side of the manometer would be compressed less, and the height measured would greater than the value obtained using mercury. In layman's terms, the less dense liquid 'squishes' the gas than mercury. Pick choice A. Choice A is correct. Because molecules are larger than atoms, they are less compressible than atoms. In o words, as you compress molecules, they interact (collide and repel) more than atoms interact, so cannot be compressed as easily as atoms. This means that the volume of a molecular gas does not decrease much as it does for argon gas when a pressure of equal magnitude is applied to both systems. This means the volume of the molecular gas is greater than the volume of the argon gas. The radius of the tube is uni so for the volume to be greater, the height must be greater. The heights when using a molecular gas are than 50 mm in the second manometer and greater than 33 mm in the third manometer. This is best described choice A. Choices B and C should have been eliminated based on trend recognition. If the value is greater 50 mm after the first addition, it must be greater than 33 mm after the second addition. Likewise, if the v is less than 50 mm after the first addition, it must be less than 33 mm after the second addition.

30.

31.

32.

Choice C is correct. According to both the passage and the middle of the three manometers, a difference columnheights of T6cmisindicativeof apressuredifferenceof 1.00atm. Thismeansthatwhenl.00atm. pressure is applied to an open column of mercury, it will rise 76 crn. The best answer is choice C.
@

Copyright

by The Berkeley Review@

52

Section VI Detailed Ex

e. This change
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Choice C is correct. According to the table, the volume of 1.000 gram of oxygen gas at 0"C and 1.00 atm. pressure liters. If the mass were doubled from 1.000 gram to 2.000 grams, then the moles would also double, so the volume should likewise double. The volume would be 1.4190 liters, which is close enough to 7.42 to make

choiceCasafechoice.
Choice C is correct. When the pressure of the system is increased from 0.5 atm. to 1.0 atm., the volume of the system is reduced to half of its original value. When the temperature increases from 25"C to 50"C, it has actually increased from 298 K to 323 K, so the volume of the system increases, but it won't double. This means that the overall effect is that the volume decreases, because the effect of pressure is more significant than the effect of temperature on the system. The best answer is therefore choice C. Choice A is correct. The greatest change in volume is experienced when the first aliquot of mercury is added. so the -A,s more and more mercury is added, the change in the total mass of mercury is less (percentage-wise), change in volume is less each time. This trend can be observed when comparing the difference between the first and iecond manometers (5.0 cm) and between the second and third manometers (1.7 cm). This change in tompressibility is attributed to the fact that as the gas is compressed, the particles get closer together (more Jense), so there is less room to compress them further. The best answer is choice A. Choices C and D should be eliminated, because the density of mercury does not change with addition of more mercury. The densities of liquids and solids are most significantly affected by temperature, not by pressure.

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Choice C is correct. The operations of the lung depends on the expansion of the thoracic cavity (defined as the region above the abdomen inside of the rib cage) and contraction of the diaphragm, which result in an increase rn the volume of the lung. This reduces the internal pressure (pressure within the lung). This demonstrates Boyle's law, which states that pressure and volume are inversely proportional under isothermal conditions. Ciroice C is best. Archimedes' principle has to do with buoyancy, which plays no role in lung expansion. Bernoulli's principle deals with the flow rate of a fluid (like air), pressure differences, and the radius of a :ube. While it is true that air is flowing within a lung, and Bernoulli's law may be applied to explain air flow :henomenon, the lung does not operate because of Bernoulli's principle. Charles's law states that volume and iemperature are directly proportional under isobaric conditions. The lung is thermoregulated, so a temperature :}'range cannot be responsible for the success or failure of its operation. Choice B is correct. During expiration, the lung contracts, causing a decrease in volume and therefore an -rlcrease in internal pressure. This means that internal pressure is greater than external pressure (referred to as ,.. positive pressure according to physiologists), which accounts for air flow out of the lung. This eliminates ::roice R and makes choice B the best answer. During expiration, the thoracic cavity and lung are relaxing back :r iheir normal (smaller) size. Although they are shrinking (their volume is decreasing), they are still larger -:an their normal resting state, so choices C and D are eliminated. Choice B is correct. At high altitudes, the gas is less concentrated (due to the lower atmospheric pressure). At ,rn'altitudes, the gas is more concentrated (due to the higher atmospheric pressure). As temperature iecreases, gases become denser (and thus more concentrated). This means that at a low altitude and low ::mperature, there will be more of all gases, oxygen included. But each gas increases by the same proportionate .:nount, so as far as relative amounts are concerned, there is the same percentage of all gases. This means that :,\\zgen has the same mole fraction, but a higher partial pressure than standard conditions. This makes choice
B ihe best answer.

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Choice B is correct. The tidal volume is the volume of air entering or leaving during a normal breath, while the .,.ta1 lung volume includes residual air, dead space, and tidal volume. This means that lung volume must :.,rvays be greater than tidal volume. This makes statement I invalid. Air flows out from the lung during ...piration, so the pressure inside the lung must be greater than the external Pressure. Air flow is from higher .."rrrrr" to lower pressure. Air flow gradually lessens until it stops, once the internal pressure and external This makes statement II valid. Expiration occurs to displace the carbon dioxide, so it must ::essures u." "qnui. fraction of carbon dioxide than oxygen. This makes statement III invalid and makes choice --a\-e a greater mole ts the best answer.

:::ht

by The Berkeley Review@

DC

Section VI Detailed ExPlanations

40.

Choice C is correct. According to the laws of fluid dynamics, gas flows from a region of higher pressure to region of lower pressure. This is true of any fluid that experiences a pressure difference across its sur Inspiration results from internal pressure being less than external pressure, so choices A and B are eliminated During inspiration, the volume increases from 1200 mL to 1600 mL, which results in a value that is 1.33 t greater than its original value. Because PV = k at constant temperature, the pressure must decrease to 0.75 i original value, assuming that temperature and moles of gas are constant. Starting at P11i1iu1 and finishing 0.75 P61621 is a25"h decrease in pressure, so choice C is the best answer. Choice C is correct. When the diaphragm contracts, the lung is pulled downward, which causes it to ex The expansion of the thoracic cavity also plays a role in the expansion of the lung. Because the lung expan its volume becomes greater than it is at rest, which makes choice C an invalid statement. The question asks f what is NOT true, so choice C is the best answer. Upon expansion, lung volume increases, internal p decreases, so internal pressure (the pressure inside the lung) is less than external pressure. Choice A is v because the internal pressure is less than the external pressure (which ultimately causes air to flow into these conditions, the lung is referred to as having subatmospheric pressure (which physiologists refer to as negative pressure). Choice B is valid, because all gas concentrations, including ca dioxide, decrease as the lung expands. This is because the moles of carbon dioxide gas remain constant whi the volume increases. Choice C is invalid, and thus the best choice, because lung volume increases as diaphragm contracts. Lung temperature is around 37"C and does not vary drastically as the lung expands. means that air temperature is relatively constant, making choice D valid.

4't.

lung). Under

42.

Choice A is correct. A scuba diver underwater exists in an environment of high external pressure. When thoracic cavity expands, because it is working against a much greater external pressure, more moles of air needed to fill the lung than are needed on land. Choice A is valid, because the air is more concentra resulting in higher concentrations of all gases, including oxygen. At great enough depths, the gases are with helium, to reduce the mole fraction of oxygen, helping the diver to avoid breathing excessive amounts oxygen. Too much intake of oxygen can result in oxygen poisoning. Underwater, because of the greater exte pressure, air is significantly denser (more concentrated). Consequently, the viscosity is much greater than it at sea level and it deviates from ideal gas behavior. This eliminates choices B and C. Because all gases more concentrated underwater, there are more moles of CO2 throughout the lung, including the anatomital
space, eliminating choice D.

43.

Choice D is correct. During a normal breath, air flow is driven by pressure differences between the ex environment and the intemal pressure within the lung. At the very start of a breath, there is no air flow. air does not flow until a pressure difference is created. So initially, air flow increases from zero to some v at the start of a normal breath. However, because the system is open, a large pressure difference develops. Air flows into the lung while it is still expanding, so the pressure difference is relatively during the middle of the breath. This causes the flow rate to be relatively constant during the middle of breath. At the end of a breath, once the lung stops expanding, the air flow gradually slows and comes to This means that during a normal inspiration, air flow rate goes from zero, to some positive value, and then to zero. This describes a sinusoidal function. Choice D is the best, albeit not a flawless, answer.

44.

Choice A is correct. The collision frequency of the gas particles depends on the concentration of the molecules the container and the temperature of the system, not on the diameter of the molecules. This eliminates ch B and D. The greater the diameter of the molecule, the harder it is for the molecule to fit through the pore the wall of the container. For instance, golf balls can easily pass through the circumference of a basketball but basketballs cannot pass through the circumference of a golf hole. This makes choice A the best answer. may recall that this is the principle behind the operation of molecular sieves. Choice C is correct. The extra neutrons do not significantly affect the reactivity of an atom, because the orb electrons are responsible for the reactivity. The neutrons are in the nucleus, so they have little to no effect reactivity. Only when the molecular velocity is involved do the isotopes make a difference. This holds for all isotopes except hydrogen, deuterium, and tritium. There is an isotope effect that correlates to different bond lengths associated with bonds to hydrogen, deuterium, or tritium. This is not important in
question, however. Pick choice C.

45.

Copyright @ by The Berkeley Review@

s4

Section VI Detailed Explana

toa
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Choice C is correct. At the same average kinetic energy (same temperature), velocity of a particle is inversely proportional to the square root of its mass. To travel twice as fast as uranium hexafluoride, a molecule must be four times lighter than uranium hexafluoride. The mass of the uranium hexafluoride compound is roughly 350 grams per mole, so the correct answer must be a molecule with a mass just under 90 grams per mole. Sulfur dioxide has a mass of 64 grams per mole, so choice A is too light, and thus eliminated. Sulfur trioxide has a mass of 80 grams per mole, so choice B is too light, and thus eliminated. Phosphorus trifluoride has a mass of 88 grams per mole, so choice C is the best so far. Xenon has a mass of 131.3 grams per mole, so choice D is too heavy, and thus eliminated. The best answer is therefore choice C.

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'hi1e

Choice D is correct. The size of the molecule affects its ability to escape through a pore in the wall of the container. The temperature of a gas affects the average kinetic energy of the system. The average kinetic energy of the system in turn affects the velocity of the gas molecules, so the effusion rate of a gas is affected by the temperafure. As mentioned in the passage, isotopes have different masses, and therefore different effusion rates. The concentration of a species outside of a container affects the backflow of the gas into the container, but it does not affect the effusion rate. Backflow affects the net flow of gas, which is known as diffusion, not effusion. The best choice is answer D.
Choice C is correct. The mass of the uranium isotope is 235 amu, and the mass of the uranium hexafluoride compound is given as 349. The mass percent is thus 235 divided by 349. This is a little less than 235 divided by 350, which is equal to 47 dividedby 70. 47 divided by 70 is less than 49 divided by 70, but more than 42 divided b1. 70. This means that the answer is between 60 and 70 percent, making choice C correct.

the

Ihis
the ' are

ted,
Lxed

349

235

235 350

-47 -70"h=49 >47 >Q=60o/, 70 70 70 70

so{
rnal
rt

Choice D is correct. Had chlorine been used instead of fluorine, then the mass of the uranium hexahalide :ompounds would have been greater. The greater the mass of the two isotopic compounds, the lower the ratio of +Jee masses of the two isotopic compounds. The less the relative difference in masses, the less the difference in :ffusion rates, and therefore the harder it would be to separate the isotopic compounds from one another. More iltering would be required with the chlorine compounds than the fluorine compounds, making choice D correct.

lhe mass o5 235gpu is 349 grams per mole, and the mass of 238gpu is 352 grams per mole. The mass o1235g66 '.235 + 6(35.5) = 235 + 213= 448 grams per mole. The mass o1238966 is 23b + 6(35.5) =238 +213 = 457 grams per no1e. The difference in relative effusion rates is greater for the fluorine compounds than for the chlorine :rmpoundsrbecause 1@ , 1@. In addition, chlorine has two major isotopes while fluorine has only one Y V sss :rajor isotope. The isotopic impurity associated with two majors isotopes chlorine will affect the distribution, :.aking^it_harder to isolate the uranium isotopes. The UCl6 species can have a mass anywhere in the range of :a; 6o,23sg35clO to 460 for238g37g1u.

s+s

Choice D is correct. It would be hardest to separate molecules with the same effusion rate. To have the same =:rusion rate, the molecules must have the same molecular mass. For choice A, 02 has a mass of 32, while N2 :as a mass of 28. Choice A is thus eliminated. For choice B, H2 has a mass of 2, while Ne has a mass of 20. lhoice B is thus eliminated. For choice C, CO2 has a mass of 44, while SO2 has a mass of 64. Choice C is thus =rminated. For choice D, CO has a mass of 28 and CZHS has a mass of 28, so they both have the same :,olecular velocity and thus the same effusion rate. They do not separate by this successive effusion technique. lhoice D is the best answer. It should be noted that of the choices, it would be easiest to separate hydrogen gas Iil) from neon (Ne) because of the large difference in their masses. CO could be separated from C2H4 by using :.olecular sieves, which distinguish compounds by molecular size.

Choice B is correct. In Reaction I, two liquids and three gases are formed from two solid reactants. This :=:resents a large increase in entropy, so choices C and D are eliminated. Reaction II is employed to generate -:e heat that is necessary for Reaction I to proceed. The generation of heat implies that the reaction (Reaction * must be exothermic. The best answer is therefore choice B.

r,i -:::-nt @

by The Berkeley Review@

DD

Section VI Detaited Explanations

52.

Choice D is correct. As any gas cools (whether it be nitrogen at 350"C or any other gas), the pressure of the system and the total kinetic energy of the system and the average kinetic energy of the gas particles decrease. The temperature is a measure of the average (and therefore total) kinetic energy of the system, so a lower temperature is indicative of decreased kinetic energy for the system. The best answer is therefore choice D. Choice C is correct. If the bag fills at a rate of 100 moles,/sec and the total inflation time is 0.01 seconds (10 milliseconds), then one mole of gas has filled the bag in that period of time (100 moles/sec x 0.01 seconds = 1 mole). At 31'C, one mole of gas occupies 25 liters, as stated in the question. Had the question not stated that fact, rt wouid have been possible to compare the volume of a gas at 0"C to the volume at 31'C. At STP (0"C and 1 atm.), one mole of gas occupies 22.4 liters. At 31'C, the temperature has increased on the Kelvin scale onlr slightly from 0'C (from 273 K to 304 K). The volume therefore increases oniy slightly above 22.4liters. The only answer that is in the range of "slightly above 22.4" is choice C, your best answer.
Choice A is correct. The key to this question is using the Kelain temperature scale. Because average speed (the root mean square speed) is directly proportional to the square root of the temperature, an increase in temperature fuom 298 K (25'C) to 398 K (125'C) increases the average speed of the gas by a factor of roughlv 1fu3. This eliminates all of the answer choices except choice A, because 100 xfi33 < 133 < 224 <500. The exact mathematical solution for the problem is as follows:
vt25

@
fr0
ch
:::r.

53.

-= :__

ir.L:

si

54.

v25 ll V
v125
100

zp.(zssl

I
fzues54 = \[3eE
u298
v1,2s

-'[732

/ -*
so

=,[t3z
133

= 1001/132 <

[hi,r

Because the speed is less than 133 m/s, choices B, C, and D are incorrect (too large), making choice A the bes: answer. Be sure that all of the temperature values that you use are in terms of kelvins. False answer choices or

;rl{:i

questions like this one may take advantage of the notion that you will forget to convert degrees Celsius kelvins.
55.

t*- "ln';
-L" ILE

Choice A is correct. The lighter the molecular mass of a gas, the greater the average speed of the gas at a gi temperature. The greater the average speed of the gas, the faster the rate at which the gas effuses from pores within the container's walls. The ranking of the relative effusion rates follows the trend lighter is faste: than heavier. The best choice is He (4 g/mo1e) > N2 (28 g/mole) > Ar (40 g/mole), making choice A the choice. This assumes there are equal portions of the three gases within the container.

the "iru:

*:_ r fr__
.5 ir

tuffr
56.

Choice B is correct. At STP, the total pressure of the system is 760 torr. The pressure due to carbon dioxi (COZ) is the mole fraction of carbon dioxide (CCOr) times the total pressure of the system (P16121). The fraction of carbon dioxide can be found by dividing the moles of carbon dioxide by the total moles of the systern This is done as follows:

:-d.*-.;

..

:rillli:

lhre :

(#.#) (#.#)

50 44

il]
tr4

,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,r,r

50

44

_1
2

'

Jlriyi
lffii1ru
lL-lln

Hlr,'

The mole fraction of CO2 is less than one-half, which implies that less than half of the moles of gas are COi This means that the partial pressure due to CO2 is less than half of the total pressure. The partial pressure CO2 is less then 380 torr, which eliminates choices C and D. Choice A is considerably too small. For choice. to be true, the mole fraction of CO2 would have to be less than 0.033. The mole fraction of CO2 is not smal1. The best answer is therefore choice B. You should do all of your calculations like this, zeroing in on best answer without spending time finding an exact answer. Remember, you do not get points on the MCAT showing your work!
57.

mr[itrx

nFrne 4 -

"11

.u'&

Ch@r
ffi

ffir*,,ru1

Choice B is correct. Because neon is lighter than argon, neon has a greater average speed than argon. relati-n'e average speeds of the gases are inversely proportional to the relative square roots of their m The mass of argon is roughly twice the mass of neon, so the average speed of neon should be roughly {2 ti faster than the average speed of argon. The best answer is choice B, where B is for BEST choice on t particular question. 5(,

all

"'

.WrrfxI

mgru1

Copvright O by The Berkeley Review@

Section VI Detailed Dxplana

)f the
rease.

lower
).

ls

(10

is=1 i that I and

r

only
The

Choice D is correct. Figure 2 shows the progression of the experiment as it approaches equilibrium. All of the partial pressures are equal at the start of the reaction, so the mole fraction for each gas is one-third. Once equilibrium has been established, the partial pressure of each gas in region I has dropped to about one-fourth of its original value, but all three gases have the same partial pressure once again. This means that at equilibrium, the mole fraction for each gas is still one-third. This eliminates choices A and B. The mole fraction doesn't change, but the moles of each gas do. The loss of moles of gas from Region I causes the drop in total pressure. A1l of the gases show a net movement from Region I to Region II, so the moles of gas in Region I decrease, while the moles of gas in Region II increase. This eliminates choice C and makes choice D the best atswer.

(the

rS

in

ughly
The

Choice C is correct. Helium is the lightest of the three gases in the mixture, so it travels the fastest. This :neans that initially, helium effuses from Region I into Region II faster than argon and nitrogen. As a result, rrior to equilibrium, Region II is richest in helium and poorest in argon (the slowest gas). Flowever, once relium has equilibrated between the two regions, argon continues to exchange, until it too reaches equilibrium. Once at equilibrium, the rate of effusion (movement from Region I to Region II) equals the rate of infusion movement from Region II to Region I). The overall change from initial conditions to equilibrium is that the total volume of the system has increased, causing the total pressure of the system to decrease and the partial pressures of all gases to decrease equally. The mole fractions at equilibrium, however, are equal for all of the iases at any point in the system, Region I or Region II. Because the total pressure is uniform and the mole ::actions are equal, the partial pressure of each gas is equal at equilibrium. Choice C is your answer.
Choice D is correct. Once a gas system is at equilibrium, the pressure is uniform throughout the container, so the :ressure in Region II is equal to the pressure in Region I. Region II has three times the volume of Region I, but at :quilibrium it also has three times the moles of gas. The result is that the mole fraction and the partial :ressure of any component gases are equal in each region, once equilibrium is established. This makes statement - rnvalid. The system is initial charged with equal moles of all three gases, so the moie fraction of helium and ::.e mole fraction of argon are both one-third at the start of the experiment. Once equilibrium is established, --:re gases are mixed evenly once again, so despite the total moles in Region I decreasing, the relative amount of -ach gas is the same. This also means that the relative amount of each gas is the same in Region II. Once at -qurlibrium, the mole fraction of helium and argon are each one-third, at any point in the system. The mole -:action of helium and the mole fraction of argon are equal, making statement II valid. When the temperature :- increased, the average speed of each gas increases. This results in a greater rate of effusion and infusion, :-though the net flow may not be affected. At the higher temperature, the pressure of the system is greater, so =lch partial pressure exhibits a proportional increase. The increase is attributed to a greater frequency of : llision and increased momentum for particles at higher velocity. However, the moles have not changed, so --:le mole fractions have not changed. This makes statement III valid. The best answer is choice D.

best

:es on

into

given m the
faster
e best

.oxide

mole
'stem.

Coz.
ure of rice A rt that

Choice C is correct. By opening the valve to a greater area, there is more space through which gases may :avel from Region I into Region II. The flow rate increases, so effusion rate increases. Choice A is valid' -:,.reasing the temperature of the system increases the average speed of each gas, so they effuse faster, infuse :aster, and diffuse faster. This makes choice B valid. Increasing the volume of the system reduces the pressure rumber of collisions against the walls and with the pores), which results in less gas traveling from Region I -:.to Region II. A decrease in concentration (caused by an increase in volume) would decrease, not increase, the :-ite of effusion. Choice C is an invalid statement, and thus the best answer. Increasing the partial pressure of a .omponent increases the number of collisions with a pore experienced by that component. An increase in mole -action (partial pressure) increases the rate of effusion, which makes choice D a valid statement.
Choice A is correct. Hydrogen , H2, has a molecular mass of 2 g/rnole. Helium, He, has an atomic mass of 4 : mole; nitrogen, N2, has a molecular mass of 28 g/rnole; and argon, Ar, has an atomic mass of 40.1 g/mole. iecause hydrogen is lighter than all of the component gases in the system, it has a greater average speed than :-1 of the other gases. This means that hydrogen effuses faster than the other gases, ancl reaches equilibrium :iior to the other gases. The graph for hydrogen would have a steeper initial drop than helium, nitrogen, or

rn the \T for

The

IASSES.

times

:rgon. This makes choice A the best answer.

n this
: ,:::ht

by The Berkeley Review@

5/

Section VI Detailed ExPlanations

63.

Choice C is correct. Diffusion is the net flow of gas. Initiall/, there is high pressure in Region I and no pressure in Region II. This means that the net flow of gas is from Region I to Region Ii, Over time, as pressure decrease in Region I and grows in Region II, the net flow of gas diminishes until it reaches zero once at equilibrium. Thi 1-r-r"ur,, that the rate of diffuiion decreases with time until it reaches equilibrium. On a more specific level, decreases for all three of the component gases. This makes choice C the best answer.

5il"

Cr

&:l

,de

[q
ffinr
wi0t

ry

de
64.

Choice B is correct. The fluid in the right side of the manometer rises when the internal pressure exceeds external pressure. This will occur when the internal pressure increases or the external pressure decreases. likelihood of external pressure (environmental pressure) decreasing under controlled conditions is minimal, the change in mercur;rheight must be due to an increase in the internal pressure of the system' In order Jor internal fr"rrrrt" to increase, the volume of gas in the reaction vessel must increase. Only Reaction II produces gas product, so choice B is the correct answer.
I

a
nm
ilm6

ilhu

65.

Choice A is correct. Because the bore size is reduced equally in both tubes, the pressure in both tubes rem equal. Because there is no change in pressure difference between the two sides, the height of the columns is same in each tube. The manometer measures relative pressure difference between the two sides, not abso pressure. The question asks for the height, however, not the height difference. Because the volume depends ihe radius squared, if the radius is cut in half, then the volume is reduced by a factor of four. The amount mercury has not changed, so the total length of tube filled with mercury must increase by four. The heig changes by a value close to four, so the best answer is choice A. Choice D is correct. A small change in volume must be stretched out to be made more visible. A less de manometer fluid increases the observed change in volume. The smaller bore radius in the atmospheric t (assuming that the inner tube keeps the same bore size) results in the liquid climbing the atmospheric tube to the atmosphere) by a greater amount (resulting in an increased heigh the manJmeter (the column "*porld the change in column heights, the more accurately the difference between the two sides of The greater manometer can be measured. Pick D to get the tingly sensation of correctness.

mn

ft
]["'i

66.

MIr

ru tu
ftm

ft

tilSlnnrm

67.

Choice A is correct. This middle stopcock is the only port into and out of the system for a gas, and it m remain closed during the experimentlor the system to remain closed. It is a valve, so it has no capacity measuring pr"rr.rr",--eaning that choices B and C can be eliminated. The stopcock is a two-way valve, choice D is eliminated. The best answer is therefore choice A. The pressure must be equal in both sides of manometer initially to get an accurate reading of the change in pressure during the course of the reacti Hairline differences betireen the two columns initially make for errors in the measurement before the reacti Venting the system initially assures that the heights of the fluids in both sides of the manometer are equal. Choice A is correct. The right column of the manometer is higher, because the left side of the manometer -Thi, means that the Psystem is greater than the Pexternal. Considering that t "pushing" the liquid o.r"r. during the reaction, thre system pressure must have increased as the reaction do", change "*t"rr1uiprurrrrruThe Psystem tl: to equilibrium. at equilibrium is thus greater than the Psystem initially', H"1 :t"p:::l^ts:^l L/ uttot"ing the net flow of gasio be outward. The best answer is choice ' p;#"." the system vents this

fr
ft
'ma

68.

fr tu ru tu

"ri;;;;

59.

in Choice A is correct. A large quantity of gas results in an increased internal Pressure, causing the liquid iight tube to ascend. The less dense the liquid, the greater the cha left tube to descend and thJ hquid inthe in heights (and thus the greater the chance"for spillover of the manometer fluid). To avoid overflow, a de liquid, such as mercury (cioice A), should be used. Less dense manometer fluids are chosen for hairline readi oismali pressure differences, where more accuracy is needed. The less dense fluid results in a greater change height per unit difference in pressure. The greater the change in height, the easier it is to read the manomei and thus the less significant small errors in the reading will be'

Copyright

by The Berkeley Review@

58

Section VI Detailed

Pressure ecreases

-1.

m.

This

level, it

eeds the
;es.

Choice A is correct. An endothermic reaction results in a cooler solution. The cooler solution contracts, creating a smaller liquid volume and thus a greater air space volume. In addition, the gas is cooled to some extent, depending on the degree of insulation provided by the glass. Either way, the inteinal pressure decreases. This results in the left column of manometer fluid rising initially. We eliminate choices C ind D. Once at 4.C, the a-queous solution begins to expand (water is densest at 4"C). This assumes the behavior of pure water. Assuming that the gas temperature remains equilibrated with the environment, as the solution volume increases, the gas volume decreases, so the internal pressure begins to rise again. The fluid in the left side of the column begins to descend. The best answer is choice A.

imal,
r for rduces
a

Choice C is correct. This question requires rearranging the gas law, PV = nRT, to isolate R. The gas constant never changes (thus the name constant), so we can work from PrYr = PzYz, which reduces to PtVr I&, given = that no gas was added or removed (nr = nz). From here, t, isolating v2. We that the ""t1or"ol? reduced pressure increases volume and the reduced temperature decreases volume, buithis doesnit help much. rz^ v2
--

rema rs is rbsolute ends on

Lount

iit]il",rtl*f

- PrVrTr = (fr)(fr)", PzTt

*ffi

,,

ffif

x24.63L =

?.

The best answer is choice C.

#, 24.6sL = z,

24.63L

: hei

2.4L.
sd
ric tu
tube
height).
rs 1

Choice A is correct. At STP (0"C, 1 atm.), 1 mole of a gas (such as helium) occupies a volume of approximately The question requires you to find the density (mass per volume) of helium. The mass of 1 mole of helium

molea4 Srams = 4 grams He. Density = :+=0.18

mole

22.4L

qu*t.
liter

Select

A for optimal satisfaction.

;of
it mu
crty rlve,

Choice C is correct. The center of mass for the balloon lowers as the balloon is filled with helium. This is in the Passage- This lowering of the center of mass takes place because helium is lighter than air and ihus the mass of the balloon is not as great as it is with the helium in it. In any event, the i'est answer places the center of mass in the basket, where the greatest portion of the mass lies. Beiause most of the mass is in the lower half, choice B is eliminated. Choices A and D are throwaway answers. The best answer is choice C.
stated

sof
racti

:acti ual.
neter

Choice A is correct. The easiest way to do this problem is to recall that N2(g) is 20% of the balloon. This means :he partial pressure of nitrogen is 20% of the total pressure (the equation is: Pry, = (XNz)(ptotat)). Twenty rercent of 507 is just slightly more than 100 torr, so choice A is the best answer. Choice C is correct. The buoyancy of the balloon depends on the density of the surrounding air, so maximum iensity requires that the surrounding air be as dense as possible. This eliminates choices S ana D, because they state that the surrounding air is less dense. As air is cooled (temperature decreases), the volume decreases, so ie density of the air increases. This means that on a cold day, the surrounding air is densest. This is best lescribed in choice C. Choice B is correct. The relative rates of effusion of two gases are given by the inverse ratio of the square roots ':f the masses of the gas particles (Graham's law of effusion): MW of He = 4 g/mole, MW of N2 = 28 gfmole.
Rate of effusion

hat t
rn

)pe

oice

lin
Lde
rad

Rateof effusionHe =

=@- = y'7 where B ={i N2 @ {MWH" ,14

>.[7 >,[r =2

mge

The effusion rate for helium is y'7 fimes faster than for nitrogen, so choice B is the best answer.

Choice D is correct. It is known that molecular mass is mass per moles, which has units of grams per mole. In problem, we are told that mass is represented by g (grams), s_o we need only find the reciprocal of moles. lhe units for n = mole, so the reciprocal of moles has units mole-l, which is what we need in the best answer
--:-ris

:-troice.

tt

ItI, S, ro! = PV and the formula RT N

for molecular mas is MW = 8RT, choi.u D.

PV'

r';r--ght

by The Berkeley Review@

59

Section VI Detailed Explanations

78.

Choice B is correct. From the passage, we know that there is 1 .0 mole of gas in the balloon at 27'C and 1 atm. The number of moles does not change with temperature or pressure, so to solve this question, you must determine only what percentage of the 1 mole of gas is due to He. He is 80% of the gas by moles, so nHe = (0.80)(1 mole) = 0.8 moles He. Pick B if you crave correctness.

79.

Choice D is correct. If all components start with an identical mole fraction, then after a short time, the component with the greatest molecular mass, and thus the lowest average speed, will be enriched. The correct answer is the heaviest of the molecules. Bromine is heavier than hydrogen, fluorine, and chlorine, so choice D
is the correct answer.

80.

Choice B is correct. The b-value for a gas describes its size (deviation from ideal volume). The molecular size

of 1,1-dichloroethane is greater than the molecular size of 1,1-difluoroethane, because chlorine atoms are
bigger than fluorine atoms. The non-halogen portion of each molecule is equal in size in both molecules, so 1,1dichloroethane is only slightly greater in molecular size than 1,1-difluoroethane, so choice B is correct.
81..

:: ::
u:

(C

Choice D is correct. The a-value correlates with attractive intermolecular forces. This eliminates choice A Nucleophilicity depends on molecular size of a gas and its ability to share electrons with an electrophile. Thr: eliminates choice B. While boiling point depends on intermolecular forces, it also depends on molecular mass so the a-value and boiling point do not always correlate. This eliminates choice C. As polarity increases, the strength of the intermolecular forces increases, resulting in a greater a-value. Choice D is the best answer.
Choice B is correct. The greatest a-value is found in the compound that exhibits the strongest intermolecule forces. Choices C and D are non-polar, so they are eliminated. Fluorine is more electronegative than chlorine so fluoromethane is more polar than chloromethane, making choice B the best answer.

LJ
:ri

i15
dt_* ,Tlu*i

82.

83.

ChoiceCiscorrect. AtSTP,anidealgashasavolume of 22.4 literspermole. At25"Cand1.00atm.,anidea, gas has a volume of 24.5 liters per mole. While fluoromethane, CH3F, is not an ideal gas, the correlation L volume between that of an ideal gas and that of fluoromethane is very high. This means that the volume c 1.00 moles of fluoromethane at 25"C and 1.00 atm. is close to 24.5 liters. The best answer is choice C. Th
reduced volume compared to ideal behavior can be attributed to the attractive forces of the CH3F molecules.

Cr

's.ri:
3l
L

'[ni*:
Affrl

84.

Choice D is correct. As the pressure exerted on the gas within a piston increases, the volume of the decreases, forcing the particles closer together. The reduction in volume makes choice A a valid statemen: which eliminates choice A. As the particles get closer together, they become less compressible, eliminatirchoice B. As the particles get closer together, the mean free path decreases, eliminating choice C. And as th particles get closer together, they become more concentrated, not less concentrated, so choice D is an invah statement, making it the best answer. Choice A is correct. Under conditions of identical temperature, concentration, volume, and total pressu differences between CH2F2 and CH2Br2 are due to differences in their respective molecular masses. Becau CH2F2 is lighter than CH2Br2, it has a greater average speed and therefore diffuses faster. This mak statement I valid. Because CH2F2 is lighter than CH2BI2, it has a lower average momentum and theref exhibits lower collision impulse. This makes statement II invalid. At the same temperature (identic conditions), all gases have the same average kinetic energy. This makes statement III invalid, which mak choice A the correct answer.
Choice C is correct. The gas that is closest to an ideal gas has the smallest a-value and b-value. This is true the gas with the smallest size and the fewest intermolecular forces. Fluorine gas, F2, is the smallest and only non-polar gas of the answer choices. This makes Fr the closest to ideal of the answer choices, and ma choice C the best answer.

-[t

l[4i'1.]l:]

,nhi

15lril

85.

lrrr
_ I.]!Llr
lff

illi4. j
I

rl

gr]:

,3m'
TtrLo,
dbrqHt:

85.

rtl
f:lX

ll]Li:l

4,tfrll,u-n

S,', dllti' ; i:

Copyright

by The Berkeley Review@

60

Section VI Detailed Ex

1 atm.

:rmine

tole)

re, the :orrect oice D

Choice A is correct. For a balloon to float in air, its buoyant force must equal its weight. The buoyant force is :roportional the volume of the balloon, so the greatest minimum volume ii associated with the balioon svstem :equiring the greatest buoy_ant{orce to float. The greatest buoyant force is required with the balloon ryrt'"- of -eatest weight (the one filled with a gas of highest density). Ammonia is the heaviest of the choices, so },oice A is the best answer. Choice C is correct. Methane is lighter than nitrous oxide, so methane molecules have a greater average speed -:'an nitrous oxide molecules. This means that the cylinder's spin rate must be increased tJ Ue in phare"with the ::ssing methane molecules. This eliminates choices A and B. The ratio of the masses of the two gases is 44 to -:, rvhich means that nitrous oxide is 2.75 times heavier than methane. Because relative ,p"uii, inversely ::oportional to the square root of the relative difference in mass, the speed of methane is {IiE times the speed :: nitrous oxide. This eliminates choice D and makes choice c the besianswer.
Choice A is correct. The buoyant force of a gas-filled object depends on the density of the surrounding medium -':'d the volume of the object. The buoyant force does not depend on the contents of the balloon, alttough the ' =:ght (and thus net force) do depend on the particles in the balloon. The greatest buoyant force belongs-to th" -:iect with the greatest volume, which makes choice A the best answer.

ar size

ns are
so 1,1-

mass,
ES,

ecul

Iori

D is correct. If a larger cylinder is used, then the diameter and circumference are both increased, albeit the same amount. The gas must travel farther to pass through the cylinder, but the hole in the cylinder must '-*'o travel a greater distance around the circumf"tu.rc" with Jach revolution. The two effects cancel out one l-r-'ther, so the spin rate does not need to change if the size of the cylinder increases. Choice D is the best
CLroice

:''

::-._s

1\'er.

rid
ion
une

Cnoice A is correct- \Mhether Chamber 2 contains gas or not, the gas from Chamber 1 can effuse into Chamber 2, '' then infuse into the cylinder. This means that evacuating Chamber 2 does not limit the ability of a gas to ''-'-'er effuse or infuse' Choices B and C are eliminated. Buoyancy is irrelevant in this experiment, so chJice D ::--1]6f be eliminated. In addition, upon its evacuation, the density of the gas in Chamber 2 becomes zero, so :-=:e is no buoyant force (no gas) within Chamber 2. Chamber 2 is evacuateJ to reduce the number of collisions, I :-'r-ing the gas to travel at a greater speed through the cylinder. Choice A is the best answer.
:--

f iroice D is correct. If the temperature of the system increases from 25"C to 100'C, then the speeds of all gases -:hin the system also increase. The increase in temperature is from 298 K to 373K, so the increase is lessthan : ::.tor of 2. This eliminates choices A and B. The speed of a gas depends on the square root of the temperature .r.:Leasured in kelvins), so the relative speed is equal totlgTz/298, which is roughly \TE. The value otttL2S :r -ess than 1.25, so choice C is eliminated. The best answer is choice D.

lhoice B is correct. The relative speeds of gases under identical conditions depend on the relative masses of the '::'pounds. N2O has a molecular mass of 44 grarns per mole, CO has a molecular mass of 28 grams per mole, F2 -;= a molecular mass of 38 grams per mole, and Ne has an atomic mass of 20 grams per mole. This means that - - -'n has the greatest velocity, eliminating choices A and C. The next lightest gui it carbon monoxide, the .-lcity of CO must be second in the sequence. This makes choice B the best inr*"r.
'

liis

:ust

'-- it must be

Ciroice A is correct. Intuitively, as the volume decreases, the pressure increases, because the collisions increase. eliminates choices C and D, because the pressure must be greater than760 torr. It now becomes a question of :::ermining how much the pressure changes. The equatior, be set up intuitively. The final urlr*"i is in torr, = U, / rr'nr, where f is final, i is initial, and ? is yet to be determined. We know the pressure increase, so insert the larger volume in the numerator and the smaller volume in the denominator. This
P1

"ur-t

.":ratestoP6=''00t/o.rSy'760torr. Thissimplifiesto4f gxT60tortwhich is760+7601u. Thevalue tor760f 3 qreater than 250, so the answer is greater than 760 + 250 which best describes choice A. This may -< seem like a - : of work on paper, but this should all be done in your head. Do not write math, think math!

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Section VI Detailed Explanations

95.

Choice A is correct. At STP, the total pressure is 760 torr. A system with 32% argon by moles corresponds to a mole fraction of 0.32 for argon. The partial pressure of argon is 0.32(760 torr), which is roughly one third o1760. This is roughly 250 torr, which makes choice A the best answer. Choices C and D are all clearly too high. Choice C is correct. The pressure decreases from 1.00 atm. to 0.90 atm., and the temperature decreases from 296 K to 277 K. The decrease in pressure increases the volume. The decrease in temperafure decreases the volume. The change in pressure and change in temperature have opposite effects in this question. This means that the volume should be roughly the same. This eliminates choices A and D. The math, carried out as follows, that choice C is the best answer.

96.

Girrer' P1V1 = P2Yz w/ nconstant

n1T1 nZT2

P2Y2 = T1 = T2
67 2 m1

PrVr

* = (fl(F, )u' = (ot-nJry\ozz ^t = (#)ezz,or >

97.

Choice B is correct. SO3 has a molecular mass of 80.06 grams per mole. Argon has an atomic mass of 39.95 gra per mole. Sulfur trioxide is approximately twice as heavy as argon, so argon has a velocity that is roughly 1 (square root of 2) times greater than the velocity of SO3. This means it takes longer for the SO3 molecules effuse out of the balloon. The exact amount of time is greater by a factor of 7.4. 23.6 minutes x 1.4 is greater both choices C and D. The value is less than choice A, so the best choice is choice B. Choice A is correct. The average speed of a gas can be found by using the equation canceled

98.

the relative rates of one gas to another is all that is asked, so 3, k (Boltzmann's constant), and T all can

" = /3kf
=

For this p
can be checked

out.

The ratio of the velocities of the gases is:

"

vunknown

= -fil3*-"* Vwater fiassunknown

2. This

making sure that both ratios are greater than 1.0. It can be simplified by squaring the equation; - se9lwate. ' massunknown ffidss*utet 18 4, so rn.,',Lr.,o*., = grams per mole. This is close to the molecular mass of He (4.0 grams = - 4.5 mole), so choice A is the best answer. ]ust by looking at the choices given, one can see the other choices har molecular weights that are well over 4.5 grams per mole.
99.

44

Choice D is correct. The greatest infusion rate is observed with the fastest compound, which corresponds to lightest compound. This question is in essence asking for the relative molecular masses of the answer choi Methane is the lightest, so choices A and C are eliminated. Chlorine gas is the heaviest, so choice D is cor Choice C is correct. The relative rates of effusion can be determined from the relatives masses of the two according to Equation 6.12. Methane has a molecular mass of 1,6 grams per mole, while helium has an mass of 4 grams per mole. The relative effusion rate is found as follows:

100.

EffusionRateH"Irr-

Effusion RateN4s1hl1e Because helium is lighter, the rate for helium is greater than the rate for methane (twice as fast, according the math). Select choice C for optimum results in a situation such as this.

vHe _ = vCH+

1@ru =r[i =2 ,t4 /mHe =r[16

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Section VI Detailed Ex

m 295
,1ume.

at the

ihows

Section VII
Phases
and

Phases a) Definitions of Solids and Liquids b) Properties of a Solid c) Properties of a Liquid Phase Change processes a) Terminology and Energetics b) lypical Phase Diagrams

grarn: r1v 1.4 iies

rrt

Phase Changes
Generic fleating Curve
cs = l.o tu'1n n Cr = 2.otu'/no Cs: 1.stut/sx

c) Atypical Phase Diagrams d) Water Trivia e) Supercritical Fluids f) Heating Curves

Liquid-Gas Dguilibrium a) Vapor Pressure b) Vapor Pressure eraphs

c)

d) e)

Boiling Point Boiling Point Variations i. Increasing Atmospheric pressure

DecreasingAtmospheric pressure Raoult's Law

ii.

Solid to Liquid
to

f)

Distillation

hoic
orrec:
gas

Colli gative Properties a) Concentration Effects bi Boiling Point Elevation

atorr

c)
d) e)

Freezing Point Depression Osmotic Pressure Conductance

Speciahztng in MCAT Preparation

Gr

Phases Section Goals

Know the definitions for a solid and a liquid. You must know the differences between a solid and a liquid at the microscopic and macroscopic levels. You must understand lattices, intermolecular forcei, and volume. ln boih liquids and soli'ds, the molecules are in contact with their neighbors, so they have a defined volume. '

I
.:

E
'*j,', :'

|r

"-;
I _:

@?

l{now the terms and definitions of the phase change processes.

You must know the terms and conditions for phase change processes. The phase changes include: evaporation, melting, sublimation, condensation, freezing, and deposition. You must also know the terms that describe the conditions under which these processes oicur, such as isothermal, isobaric, isochoric, and adiabatic condjtions. -You must, know the energetics associated with each phase change process in terms of free energy, enthalpy, and entropy

g?
@?

Be able to read a heating,curve. You must be able to read a heating curve to extract information about enthalpv of fusion, enthalpv o[ vaporization, and heat capacities for the three phases. You should be able io identify the phJ# at different points on the hedting curve.
,.

,r*.*
j
1..1..:':

Kecoqnize the kev points and features of the phase diaqram.

You-must Know wnere the sollcl/ llqulcl/ ano 8as sectlons or tne phase ctlagram are. You must als rou must klow yh-ere tne solid, liquid, ul4 g?t sections of the pnase diagram are. You also De aore ro identify the triple Pornr/ irormal p(Jllrng Pornr/ anq thb crlllcal p'oint. De aole be able to rcrennry rne rrrPre point, normal bo-iling point, and tne critical pomt. Be able to identif loentlly diagram, atypical regions of the diheram, such as the area where the material exists as a supercritical fluic exisls fluid. Be lble to iecoenize the phase diagram of water by focusing on the negative slope of the barrier iecognize bv focus focusine ohase diaeram nesative slooe between the solid and liquid regions of the phase diagram.

*"i:

"J .-.r
il!

'

ri u,;y:

Understand vapor pressure and boiling point.

The conversion between liquid and gas occurs over a wide range of temperatures. At the boiling point, the vapor pressure i's equal td the atmospheric pressurel At temieratures lower than thE boiling point, vapor pressure still exists, but at a value that is lower than atmospheric pressure. The easierlf is to vapbrizb a compound (in terms of lower enthalpy), the greater its vapor^pressure.

il(i::

- lift *....

x::

t?
o?

Understand the principle behind Kaoult's law.

Raoult's law describes vapor pressure above a mixture of two or more liquids. According to Raoult's law, in an ideal mixture, the vapor pressure of any given component depends on the niole fraction of that component inthe solutioh and itslormal vapor pressurb under the system conditions. Vapor pressure increases with temperature and mole fraction.

ililI .!

._

Understand the theory behind distillation.

Distillation is a purification method you normally consider to be an organic chemisLry laboratory technique. On tihe theoretical level, it is based on the relative vapor pr"essures of the iomponents and on Raoult's law. The vapor above a solution is richer in the rirore volatile component than the solution. This difference in relative mole fraction can be exploited bv repeatedly evaporating and condensing the mixture. With each cycle, Jt gets becomes riiher in th6 leds volati'le .oti.po.'*t-r?.
rilii,iitit^ti:

illllfittil

"t: .:.

Hlil:iidl't
,lllil

.:

@?

Understand the colligative properties of matter.

Colligative properties are properties of a solution that depend on the number of solute particles in the solution, not on the nature of the solute particles. Exahples include: freezing, point depression, boiling point elevation, osmotic pressure, andconductance. The colligative properties can be bxploited to convert salt water into a more ion-frce state.

r,

llfitlri,ry';;.
'IMlllliliii:uti:rt:-ii-

mitlhxl:i: :

General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Introduction

-ie three common phases of matter are solid, liquid, and gas. The fundamental :-iference between the three phases is how the molecules (or atoms) interact with -:-e another. Solids have the least kinetic energy of the three common phases. -:.eu kinetic energy is in the vibrational and rotational forms. The molecules of a ;, -jc do not change their positions. Liquids are more energetic than solids, yet -: as energetic as gases. Their kinetic energy is in the translational, vibrational, .- i rotational forms, although the amount of their kinetic energy is less than that :: a gas. Gases have the most kinetic energy of the three common phases, and it .,-<ts ir the translational, vibrational, and rotational forms.
,

---:othermic and endergonic process. Changing phases requires changing the :r-, -iorfilfltal conditions acting on a system. Each material has a unique phase ;-i:ram that summarizes this information. we shall look at several phase :-iirarns in this section, noting key points and features of generic and specific : -.se diagrams. The MCAT test writers to date have focused on the atypical , r::cts of phase diagrams. Terminology for both conditions and phase changes ' make up much of the phase change portion of this section.
*-

-': -:rg

: nore interest than the phases themselves are the phase change processes. from a less energetic phase to a more energetic phase is both an

amounts of energy can be stored and released via phase change processes. Jquid-gas phase change process is the source of the energy that drives = '* r'-:-res and makes refrigeration possible. It is important to understand that - - : se changes occur with changes in tempera ture or pressure, not just changes in :::erature. The idea of vapor pressure is not a complicated one, but it certainly ":.,i :omplicated applications. The study of vapor pressure includes Raoult's law, : = llausius-Clapyeron equation, and the theoretical perspective on distillation. -' -argest portion of this section shall address the nuances of the liquid-gas . - 'brium.

:.:t

::::ed

::nJlng point, osmotic pressure, and conductivity. These are known as :;iiae properties, and they vary with the concentration of the solution. ' ::=:sing the amount of a soluble material (solute) increases the interactions '': *", r molecules in the liquid phase only, not in the gas or solid phase. Ice that , rirZr from a solution of salt water is relatively pure, with the occasional

' -:t

.:,a11 also

address the behavior of solute particles in solution. Addition of

affects certain physical properties of a solution, including boiling point,

.:-: rvater solution consists of pure water vapor. Purification

=::ed by colligative properties. -

ion in its lattice strucfure. Equally, steam formed from evaporation from
processes are

:-iost important features of the phase change section are applications of ":.e changes. These often make up the bulk of the material from this section " :: :ppears on the MCAT. Understanding water as both a pure material and as . - --,'ent is critical. water has many unique features, due to its extensive " ::-rgen bonding. Water has the highest density of hydrogen bonding of any -.::=:ial, which drastically affects its physical properties, such as boiling point, *.,-::tg point, and solubility.

*'.

;', nght

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General Chemistry
Phases

Phases and Phase Changes

Phases

Gt
-:E

Definitions of Solids and Liquids Solids and liquids are two of the three common phases in which we observe matter. In boih cases, molecules are in contact at the microscopic level with one another, which accounts for solids and liquids having a definite volume. The difference between the two phases lies in the ability of their molecules to move. In solids, molecules are in a lattice structure, and they experience vibrational and rotational motion only. The atoms are not displaced, so there is no translational motion. This results in solids having definite shapes on the macroscopic level. In liquids, molecules are free to move, so they experience translational motion, although there is no net motion of the system. The molecules also experience vibrational and rotational motion. The result of translational motion of its component molecules is that liquids have no definite shape on the macroscopic levei. Definitions for both a solid and a liquid are listed below: Solid: A state of matter having both a definite shape and a definite volume. The molecules do not change position, resulting in a fixed structure, whose molecules are in contact with neighboring molecules at all
times.

: .-"'
"; -l i:::.:

i, :-t--t-J
;f:.1

::h:

-ts-:

-_-

,": lts-: _ --

:e:
-;=
-:- .E

jqr

:[:

Liquid: A state of matter having a definite volume, but no definite shape. The molecules change position, resulting in continuous random motion, and molecules that remain in contact with neighboring
molecules at all times.

Properties of a Solid Because solids are defined as having both a definite shape and a definite volume, they have dimensions on the macroscopic level. The molecules of a solid are arringed in a fixed lattice structure, on the microscopic level, they have repeating structural subunits referred to as unit cells. The macroscopic shape of a solid object can vary, but the microscopic arrangement (lattice structure) is constant. This is often referred to as the crystal structure (or lattice structure) of the solid. Lattice structures exist for both elements and compounds. Figure 7-1 shows two lattice structures and unit cells for atomic solids.

r-

./$.-

m"

Unit cell is a face centered cubic with four atoms per cell.

Unit cell is a simple cubic with one atom per cell.

Figure

7-1,

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes Phases Change Processes

The three most common unit cells are the simple cubic with one atom per repeating unit cell, the body-centered cubic with two atoms per repeating unit cell, and the face-centered cubic (which forms the cubic closest packed structure) rvith four atoms per repeating unit cell. Alkali metals often pack to form the simple cubic. Gold and silver pack to form a face-centered cubic.
Solids have density (which is often used as a physical measurement in the identification of an unknown solid). A common procedure for determining the density of a solid is to place the solid into a volumetric container filled with a known liquid. The solid's volume is determined by measuring the displacement r-olume of the liquid. It is assumed that the displaced volume is due strictly to the volume of the solid. The mass is measured separately, and from this, the density of the solid may be calculated. This technique should not be mistaken n ith displacement weight, as in buoyancy. If the solid is buoyant in the liquid, then the density of the solid is less than the density of the liquid, and the relative density of the two materials is equal to the percent of the solid that is submerged. It should be intuitively obvious that in an immiscible mixture of a solid and -rquid, the less dense material rises to the top. \A/hen the solid is less dense than lhe liquid, the mass of the floating solid is equal to the mass of the liquid rccupying the same volume as the submerged portion of the floating solid. These topics are more likely to be found in the physics section of the exam.

I: Solids change molecular structure constantly. II: Solids have less kinetic energy than gases and liquids. III: Solids have more entropy than gases or liquids. -\. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. I and III only
5olution Solids have organized lattice structures, so they do not change molecular s:ructure, making statement i an invalid statement. The question is asking for nvalid statements, so the correct answer choice must contain I. This eliminates loice B. Because atoms in solids exhibit no translational motion, solids have the ,east kinetic energy of the three common phases. This makes statement II valid, ;nd eliminates choice C. Because solids form lattice structures, their atoms :-raintain position, resulting in lower entropy than liquids and gases (where the itoms are free to move and thus change position). This makes statement III ,ni'alid. From this, it can be concluded that choice D is the best answer.
Properties of a Liquid Liquids have no definite shape, but they do have a definite volume.

"\hich

Example 7.L of the following statements about solids is (are) NOT true?

:re Bernoulli effect. From a chemistry point of view, however, it is more :nportant to know the molecular structure and the solvent properties of liquids. 'r ou must consider intermolecular forces such as hydrogen bonding, polar -rteractions, dipole moments and van der Waals forces. The strength of these :lrces is in the same order as just listed in the preceding sentence.
Jopyright
@

-nderstanding liquids is important in both chemistry and physics. Liquids are :'luids, so they are fundamental to all discussions of hydraulics, buoyancy, and

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Phases

It is important to recall that the strength of these forces is comparable up to the boiling point. Above the boiling point, molecules are no longer in contact. Certain intermolecular forces also affect solubility properties, as often studied in organic chemistry. Figure 7-2is a schematic representation of a liquid.

ffi

Te

A Sr

ah,

dri
cbt

PTI

sol

pd nu
mtll

wh
All molecules are in contact with one another,
but no definite lattice structure exists.

ptr
fre

*q

FigareT-2
Because their molecules are in motion, liquids can flow, which defines them as a

fluid. Incidental facts about liquids that you should know are that liquids typically have the highest heat capacity of the three common phases, and liquids are compressible. The density of a liquid decreases (because the volume increases) with increasing temperature, with the exception of water from 0"C to 4"C. It should be noted that a compound is a liquid at room temperature, if its melting point is less than room temperature and its boiling point is greater than room temperature. A liquid also has other physical properties, such as surface tension andaiscosity. These tetms are defined below.
Surface tension: The resistance of a

liquid to an increase in its surface area. increases as the intermolecular forces increase. generally

It

Viscosity:

The resistance of a liquid to flow. It can also be observed as the resistance to flow by an object through the liquid.

ExampleT.2

If an object floats on the surface of a liquid in such a manner that sixty percent of the object is submerged, which of the following sets of density values accurately describes the liquid and solid? A. Liquid: 0.90 grams per mL; solid: 1.50 grams per mL B. Liquid: 1.25 grams per mL; solid: 0.75 grams per mL C. Liquid: L.00 grams per mL; solid: 1.67 grams per mL D. Liquid: 1.50 grams per mL; solid: 1.00 grams per mL Solution

liquid, the buoyant force upward is greater than (weight) downward. This means that the solid is the gravitational force dense than the liquid and eliminates choices A and C. According to principle, the percent of the solid submerged is equal to the density of the soli divided by the density of the liquid. This means that choice D is elimina because the ratio of the solid density to the liquid density is2/3, which 0.67, not 0.60. This would make the solid 67"h submerged. The correct ans (and only choice remaining) is choice B. The ratio of 0.75 to 1.25 is equal to 0.60Because the solid floats on the

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes Phases Change processes

P.

:i1ffiffiffigGlffi$ffi$$$bs

Terminology and Energetics -\ phase change process is a physical process, not a chemical process, by which the state of matter changes. ln a phase change, the molecules themselves do not change, but the interactions between molecules do change. A phase change process is reversible. For instance, if a solid is converted into a liquid by changing the external conditions, then the liquid can be converted back into a solid upon reestablishing the original conditions. All phase changes involve a :hange in the enthalpy (heat energy of the system) and entropy (organizational :otential energy of the system, considered as randomness of the molecules). Phase changes are either endothermic or exothermic processes, depending on l'hether the final state is of higher or lower energy than the original state. If a larticular phase change is an exothermic process, then the addition of heat is :equired for the reverse process because it must be an endothermic process. On :he macroscopic level, phase changes result in changes in volume and changes in shape. The six typical phase change processes are listed in Table 7.1 below.
Phase Change

Term Vaporization Condensation

Heat Term

Entropy Term
(AS"u")
(- AS.,uo)

Liquid to gas Gas to liquid Solid to liquid Liquid to solid

Solid to gas
Gas to solid

Endothermic (AH,ruo) Exothermic (- AHuup) Endothermic (AH6rrsien) Exothermic C AHf,,ri.,n) Endothermic (AHrrr6) Exothermic Table
7.1 C

Melting
Freezing

(ASfnrion)
C ASrnsior,)

Sublimation Deposition

(ASt,rb)
(- ASsuu)

AHs"b)

-\s a point of interest, you should know that the relative energetics for the three rhase change processes are: AHrr6limation > AHrrapo.ization > AH1,rs1or., and
lSsublimation

ASrruporization > ASfusion

Example 7.3

lhe conversion from

:,as what

{. It B. It C. It D. It

a solid to a gas represents what kind of phase change and kind of energy change is associated with it? is known as sublimation, and it is exothermic. is known as deposition, and it is exothermic. is known as vaporization, and it is endothermic. is known as sublimation, and it is endothermic.

Solution
This question focuses on either memorization or your ability to move your eyes up this page slightly to read Table 7.1. (For your exam, you may prefer the nemorization route, because if you have Table 7.1 in sight, you are probably

'rest

:heating.) According to Table 7.1, conversion from solid to gas is sublimation, and the process is endothermic (i.e., because the particles finish at a higher energy level, then energy must have been added to the system.) Choice D is the
answer.

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General Chemistry
Example 7.4

Phases and Phase

Changes

Phase Change Processes

Ge

Typic A ptt;
g1\zen

Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to phase changes starting from the solid phase? A. Sublimation results in a system with increased entropy. B. During melting, the lattice structure of solid matter is broken down. C. Following sublimation, the space between molecules is increased. D. Following melting, atoms lose their ability to migrate freely. Solution
Sublimation changes a material from the solid phase into the gas phase. In the soiid phase, molecules are held in a rigid lattice structure and are not free to move. Once in the gas phase, the molecules are free to move in any direction until a collision occurs. Because of the increased mobility associated with the gas phase, there is more entropy in the gas phase than the solid phase' This makes
choice

phase

interf diagr

the x-

the gr

A a valid statement. During melting, the material transforms from

the

solid phase into the liquid phase. Any lattice structure that may exist in the solid phase is lost in the liquid phase, as the molecules are free to migrate. This makes choice B a valid statement. Because a gas is less dense than a solid, more fr'ee space must exist between the molecules of a gas than the molecules of a solid. ln the gas phase, the molecules are independent and exhibit no intermolecular

forces, so they are far apart. In the solid phase, the molecules exhibit intermolecular forces, and they are touching one another. This makes choice C a valid statement. In the liquid phase, molecules have the ability to migrate freely through a solution, so when the phases changes from a solid (with no free migration of molecules) to a liquid (which has free migration of molecules), molecules are able to go in any direction through solution. This makes choice D an invalid statement, and thus the best answer.

The f tripX* is ttu

Bel's

so it

In addition to the phase change terminology, you should know the terms that describe the conditions of a system. There are four terms that describe static system conditions with which you should be familiar. They are listed below:
Isothermal Conditions where the temperature of the system does not change (sometimes referred to as T6661nn1). Conditions where the pressure of the system does not change (sometimes referred to as P.6r-rs1211). Isochoric Conditions where the volume of the system does not change (sometimes referred to as Vs6ns1611). Adiabatic Conditions where the system is perfectly insulated, so that heat neither enters nor exits the system (referred to as qq61s16.1).
Isochoric is not likely to be seen, but nonetheless it is a relevant term. You can often distinguish whether a term is important or not by its familiarity. If it was

temp

Exatr

In rrl

Isobaric

A. I B. l

never mentioned during your course lectures on campus (e'g', words like isochoric and deposition), it is less likely that you will need it memorized for the MCAT. They will likely define it for you. That said, a perfect example is a supercritical fluid, whichhas appeared on several different versions of the MCAT. This is a great example of how the MCAT presents an unfamiliar term to describe an interesting concept, which can be deciphered from the parts of its name. Beyond the critical point exists a supercritical fluid. It is supercritical because it exists beyond the critical point, and it is a fluid because it is part gas and part liquid, both of which flow (are amorphous). Copyright O by The Berkeley Review

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D..

Solt

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ava

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The Berkeley Review

General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Phase Change Pnocesses

Typical Phase Diagrams A phase diagram is a graph that summarizes the different states of matter for a given compound or element with respect to temperature and pressure. From a phase diagram, you can determine the phase that is most favorable or the interface of phases for a material under a given set of conditions. Reading phase diagrams accurately requires drawing lines from a given point on the diagram to the x-axis and the y-axis. The point where the lines intersect is in the region of the graph for the most favorable phase. Figure 7-3 is a generic phase diagram.
Critical point

.} ;
Lr (n

o g

Temperature (K)

----+

Figure 7-3
The triple point, critical point, and normal boiling point are shown in Figure 7-3. The triple point is where all three phase can coexist simultaneously The critical point

is the highest temperature and pressure at which a liquid may be observed'

Beyond the critical point, it is impossible to distinguish between a gas and liquid, so it is referred to as a supercritical fluid. The normal boiling point is the temperature at which a material boils when the pressure is 1'00 atm.

Example 7.5 In what phase (or phases) does the material exist at point e on the graph below?
o t+
(,
U)
CJ

tsr

Temperature

A. Liquid only B. Liquid with a small amount of solid

C. D.
Liquid with a small amount of gas Liquid with a small amount of vapor Solution
The middle region of a phase diagram is where the compound exists as a liquid. An equilibrium between evaporation and condensation exists, so liquids exhibit vapor pressure. Choice D is the best answer. Choice C looks tempting (because a vapor is a gas), but vapor is the better word. The term aapor desctibes a gas that exists in equilibrium with a liquid at a temperature below the boiling point.

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Phases and Phase Changes

Phase Change Processes

It should be noted that the phase diagram does not show the only phase that is observed under specific conditions, but the most abundant (and stable) phase under those conditions. The most challenging part of phase diagrams is working
through the terminology.

Example 7.5 If a compound that exists primarily as a liquid at 39"C and 1..72 atm. is heated at constant pressure, it converts into a gas. Upon cooling the compound back to 39'C and 7.12 atm., the compound remains a gas. which of the following explanations BEST explains this observation? A. The boiling point for the compound at 1.12 atm. must be 39'C. B. The molecules rearranged so that the bonds are different from those in the original compound. C. The compound must have two liquid phases. D. The compound was heated beyond its critical temperature and thus cannot
become a liquid again.
j

Solution A compound can exist in either of two phases when it is at its boiling point (liquid/gas), melting point (solid/liquid), or sublimation point (solid/gas)' For the compound to exist as either a liquid or gas at a given temperature and pressure, that temperature must be the boiling point at that pressure. There is no indication that a chemical reaction took place, so choice B is not the best choice. Having two unique liquid phases would not explain the observation, so choice C is eliminated. Even after a compound is heated beyond its critical temperature, it is capable of changing back to its original phase once cooled, so choice D is eliminated. The best answer is choice A.
ExalrrpleT.T

ll

^d

"I

ft

s
Which arrow is INCORRECTLY identified below?

,T

3 k )
CJ

3 0) k

Temperature(K)

4{Arrow H

a is isobaric condensation.

Br-.Arrow b is isothermal deposition'

c is isothermal freezing' Arcow d is isobaric sublimation.

,fr..1lrrow

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General Chemistry
Solution

Phases and Phase Changes

Phase Change Processes

Isothermal freezing is where the material is compressed at constant temperature from a liquid into a solid. Because temperature is constant, the arrow must be vertical, which it is. Because it is fueezing, the arrow must start in the liquid region and finish in the solid region, which it does not. Arrow c is incorrictly identified, so choice C is the best answer. Isobaric sublimation is where thl material is heated at constant pressure from a solid into a gas. Because pressure is constant, the arrow must be horizontal, which it is. Because it is subfimation, the arrow must start in the solid region and finish in the gas region, which it does. Arrow d is correctly identified, so choice D is eliminated.

finish in the liquid region, which it does. Arrow a is correctlyldentlfied, so choice A is eliminated. Isothermal deposition is where the material is compressed at constant temperature from a gas into a solid. Because temperature is constant, the arrow must be vertical, which it is. Because it is deposition, the arrow must start in the gas region and finish in the solid region, which it does. Arrow b is correctly identified, so choice B is eliminited.

Isobaric condensation is where the material is cooled at constant pressure from a gas into a liquid. Because pressure is constant, the arrow musl be horizontal, which it is. Because it is condensation, the arrow must start in the gas region and

-{typical Phase Diagrams

There is a difference between a typical phase diagram for most compounds and the phase diagram for water. The difference between the two phase diagrams is Jre negative slope associated with the line separating liquid ?rom solid. Most

compounds can be compressed from a liquid into a solid at constant temperature. The unusual thing about water is that an isothermal increase in Dressure compresses the solid (ice) into a liquid (water), resulting in the liquid berng denser than the solid. The properties of water can be referrbd to as wiirdl Figure 7-4 shows the phase diagram for water and a typical compound.
Fhase Diagram for Typical

Compound

phase Diagram for water (Hro) Phase Water (HzO)

Liquid 1 ,.}

ti

(,]

a qJ ei
s<

Temperature (Kelvin)

--*
Figure 7-4

Temperature (Kelvin)

--+

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase

Changes

Phase Change hocesses

Example 7.8 Point a on the phase diagram below is which of the following?

Temperature

A. The critical point for carbon dioxide B. The triple point for water C. The triphasic point for carbon dioxide D. The plasma point for water
Solution
Point a is where all three phase lines intersect, so it is the triple point. The triple point is defined as the temperature and pressure at which a compound may exist i. uny or all of the three phases sirnultaneously. The negative slope of the liquidsolid interface line confirms that the compound is water. The correct answer is
choice B.

Water Trivia Random, unrelated facts about water have been tested on the MCAT on more than one occasion. Two key facts about water are that its liquid form is denser than its solid form, and it is densest at 4"C. The solid can be compressed into a liquid under relatively mild conditions. The ramifications of this include our ability to ice skate upon frozen water. The fact that water is densest at 4'C results in the presence of the warmest water being at the bottom of a frozen lake (useful information on youf next ice fishing trip). Water also has an extremely high boiling point for a compound with such a low molecular mass. Ammonia (NHS) is of roughly comparable mass, and it has a boiling point of -33.4"C' Methane (CHa) is also of roughly comparable mass, and it has a boiling point of -1'62.6'C. This means that for water, hydrogen bonding has a substantially more significant effect on the boiling point than mass or other intermolecular forces. Water has the densest hydrogen bonding of any compound' Supercritical Fluids A supercritical fluid exists when the conditions exceed the critical point. Super-

fl

il

fr

,0

critical fluids take on properties that are a compromise between gases and liquids. Molecules are in free-moving clumps, where the density is greatest at the bottom of the container (like a liquid), but the material fills the entire container (like a gas). Supercritical fluids have a density between that of a liquid and gas. Specific examples of supercritical fluids that are used industrially are carbon dioxide and oxygen. Supercritical fluid carbon dioxide is used as a decaffeinating solvent for coffee. It is a safe solvent for dry cleaning, which makes it a great alternative to the more toxic organic solvents like methylene chloride. Supercritical fluid oxygen chambers are used to completely oxidize materials that do not burn cleanly under standard conditions with oxygen gas'

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Phases and Phase Changes

Phase Change Processes

Heating Curves To generate a heating curve, a material is heated or cooled at a constant rate under isobaric conditions over a broad temperature range, and the temperature is recorded as a function of the heat added (or removed). A heating curve shows the same features as a horizontal line in a standard phase diagram, but in significantly more detail than a phase diagram. Figure 7-5 shows a typical heating curve, drawn according to convention. As a good practice, draw graphs with the axes interchanged, so that you recognize non-conventional views.

During phase changes: AHuuo > AH6,r, and During heating: Cphur"

#
Liquid to gas.phase change

v
0l

fr 6 fr
ts -c)

Total heat added at constant rate Figure 7-5

Figure 7-5 depicts the overall view of the phase change process at constant :ressure from an energy perspective for a generic material. The graph of :emperature as a function of heat added shows the phases, phases changes, and reat capacity of each phase. As labeled, plateaus in the graph represent phase
,Jrange processes, because as a material changes phase, the temperafure remains ;onstant. During a phase change, the temperature does not change, because the energy added to the system is being used to break intermolecular forces, rather 'han to increase the average kinetic energy of the molecules. The enthalpy of '"'aporization (represented by the second plateau) is greater in magnitude than :he enthalpy of fusion (represented by the first plateau). This is because more :nergy is necessary to break the intermolecular forces (as observed with the :onl'ersion from a liquid into a gas) than is necessary to weaken the ,ntermolecular forces (as observed with the conversion from a solid into a liquid). Perhaps it is more obvious that the boiling point is greater than the melting point, --ran it is that AHvaporirati.r., is greater than AHfrrrio.r, but both concepts are :ooted in the same supporting idea.

\on-horizontal lines represent where the material is being heated without any :hase change transpiring. In these regions, the temperature of the material is -:creasing. This means that the slope of each line correlates with the ratio of :ernperature change to the heat input. The heat capacity of a material is the heat :equired to raise one glam of the material by one degree Celsius, so the units of :.eat capacity (C) are calories per gram'kelvins. The slope of the line in the -emperature change regions of a heating curve is temperature change per heat :Jded, which has units of kelvins per calories. The slope of the line is inversely ::oportional to the heat capacity of the material in that particular phase. This is ::, say that the flatter the line, the greater the heat capacity.
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Phases and Phase Changes

Phase Change Processes

In Figure 7-5, the slopes for each of the three phases are different, implying that the heat capacities for each of the three phases are different. The heat capacity of the liquid is the greatest of the three phases. This is not unusual, given that liquids can absorb intermolecular vibration energy as well as translational kinetic energy. Solids can only vibrate, and gases can only move translationally. This is the reasoning behind choosing a liquid as the medium to absorb heat in a heatexchange system, such as an automobile radiator. Heat-exchange systems are always set so that heat is transferred in a counter-current fashion. This is also seen with ion exchange (a good example is the kidney).

Example 7.9

If melting a solid requires exactly

20

k] per mole, then which of the following

statements is true? A. Sublimation requires less than 20 kJ per mole. B. Vaporization requires less than 20 kj per mole. C. Freezing releases more than 20 k] per mole. D. Condensing releases more than 20 kJ per mole.

Solution Given that AHrrr6limation is equal to AH6ssi6r', + AHrru'orization, and that

AHf,rrio., (which equals 20 kJ per mole). This eliminates choices A and B' Freezing releases the same amount of heat that melting absorbs, so choice C is eliminated. Because vaporizing absorbs more heat than melting, condensation releases more heat than freezing. The correct answer is choice D.

AHvaoorizatior., is greater than AH6rrrion, then AHsublimatio. must be greater than

.N

dil

'!t

ffi

,d

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General Chemistry
ffi $ffi;ffi u*iiiircHfiiIf;

Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas Dquilibrium

ffi ffi ffi

Vapor Pressure Above every liquid and solid (although we mostly consider liquids), there is a finite amount of vapor formed when molecules at the surface layer escape. A vapor is composed of gas particles that are in equilibrium with the liquid phase, so they temporarily exist a gas, until they condense back into their more favorable phase. For example, we refer to oxygen as "oxygen gas" at room temperature, because it exists as a gas in its most stable form. On the other hand, we refer to water in the gas phase as "water vapor," because the most favorable form of water at room temperature is a liquid. We refer to steam as "water gas" only when it exists at a temperature above the boiling point of water (100'C). Gaseous water molecules at temperatures lower than 100'C are in a state of equilibrium between evaporation and condensation. The formal definition of vapor pressure above a liquid is:
Force per unit area aboae the surface of a liquid exerted by molecules formed upon eaaporation of the liquid.

The vapor pressure of a liquid is simply the partial pressure exerted by the gas

molecules formed by evaporation from the surface of the liquid, when it is in equilibrium with the gas molecules condensing back into the liquid. The vapor Fressure above a pure liquid depends on the temperature of the liquid and the Svaporizatior., of the liquid. Figure 7-6 shows the surface of a liquid and the rost favorable points from which molecules can evaporate.
Molecules can evaporate only from the surface, and tend to evaporate from the comers.

Figure 7-6
--. the

liquid phase, molecules are not packed in the same orderly fashion as they

;:e in a solid. The picture in Figure 7-6 is drawn with orderly particles for si:rplicity. Comer molecules have the fewest neighbors, so they have the fewest
.r:ermolecular forces. Because of the minimal forces, molecules evaporate most ::aCi-lv from the comers.

in either an open or closed system. In a closed partial pressure of vapor exists, because the rate of vapoization equals :e rate of condensation. This is most typically how vapor pressure is i*er"rnined. Flowever, the definition of vapor pressure does not apply only to a -,:sed system. In an open system, the vapor escapes, so it does not reach a state rr equilibrium between the rate of vaporization and the rate of condensation. lie r"apor pressure is a measure of the pressure just above the surface of the j,r'::d. It is difficult to measure, so we generally consider vapor pressure in an jr'-; system from a theoretical perspective, and apply values that have been rer:rurined previously in a closed system at known temperature.
i .:For pressure can be measured

i1il':tem, a

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Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas Dquilibrium

Vapor pressure is independent of the shape and volume of a container. The vapor pressure above a dish of ethanol is the same as the vapor pressure above a test tube of ethanol. Despite the fact that the dish has substantially more liquid surface area, vapor pressure is still measured as force per unit area. The same amount of ethanol is vaporizing from each system per unit area of its surface, as long as the temperature of both systems is the same. The rate of vaporization is greater with the greater surface area in Container 2, but the vapor pressure is the same in both containers. Figure 7-7 comparcs two containers that share the same vapor pressure, when they contain the same liquid at the same temperafure.

Container 2

Container

FigureT-7
Because vapor pressure depends primarily on solution temperature (energy of the molecules) and AHtuporiralisn (the energy necessary to overcome

intermolecular forces), the atmospheric pressure does not significantly affect the vapor pressure. Boiling point depends on the atmospheric pressure, but do not confuse boiling point and vapor pressure. The following relationships hold true with regard to the vapor pressure of a system: P.'apo, increases as temp increases; Prrupo'" decreases as AFluu'orirulior., increases

Example 7.10 \Atrhich of the following statements is TRUE about vapor pressure?

A. B. C. D.

liquid always decreases with temperature. liquid is always lower at higher elevations. liquid is always higher at higher elevations. The vapor pressure of Liquid X is greater than the vapor pressure of Liquid Z, if the normal boiling point of X is lower than the normal boiling pornt of Z.
The vapor pressure of a The vapor pressure of a The vapor pressure of a

Solution
Vapor pressure is directly proportional to temperature, so vapor pressure always increases with temperature. This makes choice A incorrect. Elevation has no (or a negligible) effect on the vapor pressure, because the atmospheric pressure does not affect the vapor pressure (or rate of vaporization) to any appreciable extent.

The temperature and AHrrupori"ali.n have the greatest effect on the vapor pressure. A lower atmospheric pressure lowers the boiling point, but it has no effect on the vapor pressure. This eliminates choices B and C. As the boiling point increases, the ability for a compound to vaporize decreases. This means that as the boiling point increases, less of the vapor is formed and consequently the vapor pressure decreases. This makes choice D correct. Copyright The Berkeley Review

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas Equilibrium

Vapor Pressure Graphs Vapor pressure increases as the temperature of the solution increases, but not in a linear fashion. The graph in Figure 7-8 shows the relationship between vapor pressure and temperature. The graph cannot intersect the y-axis when the units of temperature are kelvins and the axis originates at zero.

tr th 6 qJ L

O. tr

s
Temperature Figure 7-8
The relationship between vapor pressure and temperature is exponential. It is highly unlikely that you have the Clausius-Clapeyron relationship memorized, so the only way to know this is using intuition. If you have ever boiled water for any reason, then you have observed the process that generates the graph in Figure 7-8. It take a while for the bubbles to form in water as it nears its boiling point. Once bubbles form, it is only a short period of time before the water actually starts to boil. The graph shows a small increase in vapor pressure at iower temperatures (which fits with the lengthy duration before bubbles form), :ut a rapid ascent at higher temperatures (which fits with the short period of time between bubble formation and boiling).

Equation 7.7, the Clausius-Clapeyron equation, can be used to explain the :elationship between vapor pressure and temperature. If T2 is greater than T1, AHvaP .hen the value of /f -al is neeative, so the value of rr L is negative. "-o"'

R \r'

Tr

/'"

P2

-',hen In

h
P2

is negative, P2 is greater than P1. The conclusion from this is that

as

:''': temperature of a liquid increases, the pressure of its aapor increases, but in an "rponential manner. Vaporization is always an endothermic process/ so
Hr.aporizatior., is always a positive value.

lnPr -

LnP2

--fi:{t

AH"^porization/1

- 1\ ,,1

0.7\

:quation 7.7 canbe used to calculate the vapor pressure of a liquid at any given :.nperature, as long as the vapor pressure of the same liquid at another ::mperature is known. The vapor pressure at the normal boiling point is 760 totr :re of a pair of values is usually vapor pressure at the normal boiling point). In ::dition to determining the vapor pressure of a liquid at a given temperature :--m knowing its boiling point, the boiling point for a compound can be ::lculated at any given atmospheric pressure if any other vapor pressure for it is i:ronn. Calculations involving Equation 7.7 arc unlikely, but it should still be ,:'Cerstood conceptually and graphically. It is a natural log function of pressure =C temperature, but it is tricky to use because of the minus sign.

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Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas Equilibrium

Of more use than calculations is a conceptual understanding of the relationship between boiling point, enthalpy of vaporization, volatility, and vapor pressure. Figure 7-9 demonstrates the relationship of these measurements.
As AHrru'orization

t; Volatility J; Boiling point'l; Vapor pressure J

FigweT-9

The reason the graph in Figure 7-8 reaches an endpoint is because the solution reaches its boiling point, the highest temperature at which liquid may still exist. The boiling point is dependent on the atmospheric pressure, because the highest vapor pressure that the solution can reach is equal to atmospheric pressure. The

boiling point is defined as the temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. The limits of the graph in Figure 7-8 are shown below in Figure 7-10.

IT

lr

o
qJ

H O
a,)

a
L

o.
k

o.
d

Temperature ("C)

Normal boiling point

Figure 7-10

Example 7.11

Compound X evaporates more readily than Compound Y, which of the following statements must be FALSE? A. Compound X has a greater vapor pressure than Compound Y at room
temperafure.

lf

B. C. D.

Compound X has a greater boiling point than Compound Y. Compound X has greater volatility than Compound Y. Compound X has a lower enthalpy of vapotization than Compound Y.

X is evaporating more readily than Compound Y, Compound X is more volatile than Compound Y, making choice C a valid statement. A more volatile compound has a greater vapor pressure (more evaporated molecules) at a given temperature, so choice A is also a valid statement. With greater volatility, Compound X must have weaker intermolecular forces, and thus a lower AHvaporizatior", than Compound Y, making choice D a valid statement. The easier it is to vaporize a compound, the less energy that is required to vaporize it, so it has a lower boiling point. This means that Compound X has a lower boiling point. Choice B is an invalid statement, making it the correct answer.
Because Compound

Solution

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ml

&

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Boiling Point

Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas Equilibrium

The boiling point of a compound is defined in two ways: one based on phases and the other based on vapor pressure:
The boiling point is the tunperature abotse which a substance may not exist as a liquid.

The temperature at which the aapor pressure of a liquid is equal to the atmospheric
pressure.

This means that at reduced atmospheric pressure (for example, in the mountains) the boiling point of a liquid is lower than normal. Under cases of increased pressure (such as the typical pressure in a pressure cooker), the boiling point of a liquid is higher than normal. The normal boiling point of a compound is

measured at L.00 atmospheres of pressure. The boiling process involves vaporization of a compound in its liquid phase, which converts it to its gas phase. The boiling point is affected by intermolecular forces and atmospheric
pressure.

Figure

7-1.1. compares the boiling points for the hydrogen-based compounds of sixteen different elements. Notice that compounds containing elements aligned in the same column of the periodic table are connected in groups of four by solid or broken lines. SnHa H2Te

! ;th

"T
'
PHg'

': !
| ^,a ? l'*

/
c?rn
100

NHa

HF
300

Hzo'
J/3

Boiling point (K) Figure 7-11

;i:s

graph shows the effects of hydrogen bonding, molecular mass, and polarity :n the boiling point. The effect of hydrogen bonding on the boiling point of a ::u'rpound is seen with the deviation of.H2O, HF, and NH3 from linear behavior. ae effect of molecular mass on the boiling point is seen in the gradual increase n boiling point as a periodic group is descended. The effect of polarity on the :'::,ling point is demonstrated by the higher boiling points associated with the ::npounds having two lone pairs, rather than with the compounds of equal r;*.s having either one or three lone pairs. The molecules with iwo lone pairs
;.re the most

polar of any compounds having comparable molecular masses.

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Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas Equilibrium

This graph (Figure 7-11) presents a large package of data, from which you must be able to extract useful information and understand it in terms of the definitions
and background knowledge that you already possess. For instance, the boiling points of HCl, HBr, and HI vary because of the increasing molecular mass of each compound. The greater the molecular mass of the compound, the harder it is to vaporize the compound. The harder it is to vaporize the compound, the greater the boiling point of that compound. This accounts for the increase in boiling point with increased mass for the haloacids. The same trend is observed with the other compounds in their periodic column (family).

n a

Much can be observed when the boiling points of H2S and HCI are compared, because their molecular masses are roughly equivalent, and neither forms hydrogen bonds (the hydrogen must be bonded to an N, O, or F for hydrogen bonding). The boiling point of H2S is greater than that of HCl, because the H2S molecule is more polar than HCl, due to its bent geometry. To see this, the compounds must be viewed in three dimensions. The slight deviation from linear behavior within the family that is observed with H2S and HCI is used by some chemists to argue that the two compounds form very weak hydrogen bonds. This deviation is small compared to the ones observed in NH3, H2O, and HF, so any hydrogen bonding is minimal (if not negligible).
The boiling point of water is the greatest of the sixteen compounds listed in Figure 7-71,,because the oxygen has two lone pairs and two hydrogens that are

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al

T'

o1

ai

tr

capable of forming hydrogen bonds. Therefore, all of the lone pairs and
hydrogens have partners with which to form hydrogen bonds. In the case of HF, there are three lone pairs but only one hydrogen on fluorine, so only one H bond can exist bond per HF molecule. This means that there are lone pairs on fluorine that have no hydrogen with which to form a hydrogen bond. The lower amount of hydrogen bonding accounts for the lower boiling point of HF relative to H2O. The same holds true for the relative boiling point of ammonia (which has three hydrogens but only one lone pair present on the central nitrogen) relative to
water.

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Example 7.12
\A/hich of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

Il

A. B. C. D.

H3CNH2 H3CCH2NH2 H3COH H3CCH2OH

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frn1

Solution The highest boiling point is associated with the compound with the greatest intermolecular forces and greatest molecular mass. Each compound can form hydrogen bonds, but the alcohols are more polar and form stronger hydrogen bonds than their amine equivalents. This eliminates choices A and B. Ethanol (H3CCH2OH) is heavier than methanol (H3COH), so the higher boiling point is found with ethanol, choice D.

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Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas Equitibrium

Boiling Point Variations The boiling point of a compound can be altered either by varying the atmospheric pressure or by varying the intermolecular forces (which in turn alters AHrru'orization). Boiling point decreases as the atmospheric pressure above a liquid decreases (this is evident when you boil water in mountainous regions and in vacuum distillation). Boiling point increases as the atmospheric pressure above a liquid increases (this is evident in a pressure cooker). Boiling point increases as soluble impurities are added to solution (this is evident when you add salt to boiling water).
Increasing Atmospheric Pressure (Example: A Pressure Cooker)
The boiling point of a

liquid is increased by increasing the atmospheric pressure

above the

liquid. This can be accomplished by vaporizing the liquid in a closed system. You should never heat a closed system, for it will eventually explode.

This is why experiments that attempt to riise the boiling point of a iompound often use a partially closed system, one with some means of venting gas when the pressure gets too high. A pressure cooker is an example of a partially closed svstem. As the water in the system is heated, it vaporizes. This increases the atmospheric pressure, and thus increases the boiling point. Eventually, when the pressure is great enough, it forces the pressure valve open (or lifts the lid) to vent the atmospheric gases, thus reducing the pressure inside. This occurs in cycles, t'hich is why the lid (or valve) of a pressure cooker flutters as its contents heat r-rp. By increasing the mass of the lid or the tension in the pressure valve, the ooiling point of the water can be raised. In essence, a pressure valve serves as a primitive kind of thermostat. More sophisticated thermostats are usually a coiled :imetallic strip that expands or contracts as it is heated or cooled. A mercury :rip-switch is connected to the coil so that a bead of mercury balances at a certain :oint. When the temperature being maintained gets too high, the metal loop -rncoils slightly, tilting the glass tube with the mercury in it. This causes the rlercury liquid to fall to one side thereby connecting the open ends of a wire iooked to a cooling fan, which turns it on.
Decreasing Atmospheric Pressure (Example: Vacuum Distillation)
The boiling point of a

:rove the liquid. Reducing the atmospheric pressure makes it easier for a :ompound to boil. This is why all liquids boil in a vacuum/ despite the extremely -,rrv temperature. A neat experiment to conduct is to fill a syringe partially with : r olatile organic liquid (acetone works well), making sure that no air is in the
.','ringe. Plug the tip with your thumb, then pull up on the plunger. A vacuum ,s generated in the syringe, so the organic liquid should begin to boil (small :ubbles can usually be seen). As it boils, the walls of the syringe actually get :rv cold. This experiment confirms that reducing atmospheric pressure reduces -:e boiling point. The same principle is observed in vacuum distillation, where a

liquid is decreased by decreasing the atmospheric pressure

::rture is distilled under reduced pressure, so that the boiling points are :=luced. Vacuum distillation is employed when a compound has an extremely -:*h boiling point or when it has a decomposition temperature lower than its --,rrnal boiling point.

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Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas Equilibrium

Raoult's Law According to Raoult's law, the vapor pressure above a solution of two or more miscible liquids depends on the mole fraction of each compound in solution. The concept behind this theory is that the mole fraction of a compound corresponds to the percentage of the surface of the liquid mixture due to that compound. If any component makes up only half of the surface, then only half as much as what normally evaporates from the pure liquid, vaporizes from the mixture. Raoult's law is shown below as Equation 7.2.
f) rvapor _ v_D ,lir-vapor

(pure)

(7.21

,]

The X1 in Raoult's equation is the mole fraction of the component ln solution, not in the vapor state. The mole fraction in vapor for the more volatile component is

always greater than the mole fraction

in solution for the more volatile

component. As the mole fraction of a compound in solution decreases, the vapor pressure of that component above the solution decreases. This is attributed to the reduced surface area of that component, and consequently less of that component evaporating away from the surface. P.,upo. (pure) is the vapor pressure of a pure sample of the component under those conditions, and P,rupo, is the measured vapor pressure of the component. Raoult's law is used to calculate the vapor pressure of one component, which can be thought of as a partial vapor pressure.

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ye

pr

Example 7.13 0.10 moles of NH3, PH3, and AsH3 are placed into a beaker at -100"C, where all

]E
f'lli]

three exist in liquid phase. What can be said about their relative vapor
pressures?

A. B. C. P.

fum

PAsHe < PpH: < PNH. PpHs < PA'H3 < PNH,

PArH3 < PNH. < PpHs

PNHa < PAsHg < PpHs
"1lr

Solution According to Raoult's law, the vapor pressure depends on the mole fraction and the pure vapor pressure of the component. The solution contains equal molar quantities of the three components, so the mole fraction is identical for all three components. Consequently, the highest vapor pressure results from the compound with the lowest boiling point (highest pure vapor pressure). Ammonia (NHe) has the highest boiling point, because it forms hydrogen bonds, so it has the lowest vapor pressure. Only choice D shows ammonia with the lowest vapor pressure, so choice D is the best answer. To verify the order in choice D, the relative boiling points of PH3 and AsH3 should be determined. Both compounds are equally polar, so the most significant factor in determining their relative boiling points is molecular mass, not intermolecular forces. Lighter molecules are easier to vaporize, resulting in greater vapor pressure for the compound. PH3 is lighter than AsH3, so the vapor pressure of PH3 is greater than the vapor pressure of AsH3. This relationship is listed in choice D, confirming that it is a valid answer.

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas F,quilibrium

Example 7.14 Given a solution that is made by mixing 8.0 grams of methanol (CH3OH) with 23.0 grams ethanol (c2H5oH) at a temperature where the vapor pressure of pure methanol is 150 torr and the vapor pressure of pure ethanol is 120 torr, what are the vapor pressures of methanol and ethanol? A. Methanol = 37.5 torr; ethanol = 50 torr B. Methanol = 37.5 torr; ethanol = 60 torr C. Methanol = 50.0 torr; ethanol = 60 torr D. Methanol = 50.0 torr; ethanol = 80 torr

Solution Equation 7.2 can be used to determine the vapor pressure of methanol and ethanol, as shown below:
P..upo, (CHeoH) = ' P,rupo, (CHaCHzoHl =

":llnt fltotal
ntotal

P'rrupo. (pure CHOH)

le$fPtr

X P'.'upo. (pure CHfH2oH)

The first task at hand is to solve for the mole fraction of the two components in he mixture. The molecular mass of CH3OH is 32 grams per mole, so 8 grams :esults in 0.25 moles CH3OH. The molecular mass of CH3CH2OH is 46 grams per mole, so 23 grams results in 0.50 moles CH3CH2OH. It is important that you :emember to use the mole fraction, and not inadvertently use the moles of each :omponent. The mole fraction is found by dividing the moles of the component :,'' the total moles in solution. There are 0.75 moles total, so the mole fraction of

JH3OH is one-third, which is 0.33. The mole fraction of CH3CH2OH is tworirds, which isO.67.
Prrupo, (CH3OH) =
J

I x 150 torr = 50 torr

120

P,rupo. (CHgCHzOH,

=?"

torr =

80

torr

lhe best answer is choice D. As a point of interest, the total vapor pressure of the .,'stem is L30 torr. The total vapor pressure of a solution must fall between the :':re vapor pressure of the least volatile component (L20 torr) and the pure vapor ::essure of the most volatile component (150 torr). This is a good double-check :: use, as this would have eliminated choices A, B, and C.
llLe total vapor pressure above a solution consisting of a mixture of two or more *:uids is the sum of the individual vapor pressures of each component liquid. :: - is listed as Equation 7.3.
Prrupo. total = Prrupo. A

Pvapor B + PvaporC...

(7.3)

:':-als the atmospheric pressure. However, because the cumulative vapor

: r.ssure contains a

:-: he boiling point of the solution, the total vapor pressure of the components
--re

mixture of compounds, there is not a single pure compound vapor. This is a problem during distillation, because it is not possible to :::.erate an absolutely pure product. Because a mixfure of vapors can generate :: --,ugh vapor pressure to reach the boiling point, the addition of volatile ;:.:onents to a mixture of liquids lowers the boiling point of a solution. This :=a is derived from the concept that all of the liquids in solution exert some :l rr prssure of their own, independently of the other components.

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas Equilibrium

It is ideally a linear relationship between the mole percent of a component and

the vapor pressure of that component, summarized in Figure 7-12.

ca

r
r

100%

o"hB

Mole fraction

0%A
100% B

FigureT-12
Figure 7-12 rcpresents an ideal mixture. However, for real compounds, there are other factors that come into play due to intermolecular forces between the liquids. Because the molecules interact in both the liquid and gas phases, the

vapor pressure relationship is not as linear as Raoult's equation first approximates it to be. The intermolecular forces are greater in the liquid phase than the gas phase, so vapor pressure is most affected in solution. If there is an
overall increase in attractive forces in solution when the components are mixed, then vaporization, and thus vapor pressure, decreases. This is a negative deviation from linearity. If there is an overall decrease in attractive forces in solution when the components are mixed, then vaporization, and thus vapor pressure, increases. This is a positive deviation from linearity. These deviations are applied to calculations using Raoult's law (used for ideal cases) so that a real value can be approximated.

fl

il

il

Distillation Distillation is used to remove a liquid from a solution. To do so, the liquid must first be converted into vapor, and then the vapor is allowed to flow up a distilling column. Once at the top of the column, it can either return to solution, or take a new pathway where it will be cooled and condensed back into liquid form. The concept seems easy enough at first glance, but there are some complications to consider. Figure 7-13 shows the vapor pressure as a function of temperature for two hypothetical compounds, Compound X and Compound Y.
Prrapor

tl

fr

il

1[

Compound X

Compound Y

t
c) L
ah

Prrupo.X: PvaporY at T6o (Compound X)

Prrapo, Y

tA
OJ

A.
tr

g,
(t

Temperature

Figure 7-13

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Liquid-Gas Equilibrium

From FigureT-1'3, the relative vapor pressures of any two compound.s for any temperature at which they are both liquids may be determined. The grapir shows the values for vapor pressure at the boiling point of Compound x. rhe ratio of vapor pressures is 3 : 1 in favor of Compout a x. rris means that for a solution where the mole fraction is one-half for each component in solution, the mole fraction in the vapor phase is three-fourths for Compound X and one-fourth for Compound Y. when the vapor is condensed, the solution becomes richer in Compound X, but it is not pure Compound X. After each evaporation and condensation cycle, it gets richer, but never perfectly pure. Figure 7-14 shows the numbers following a series of evaporation and condensation rycles.

X: Y ratio (In vapor)

Hl \$l l:l
3:

,tv il \-

3:1

9: I

27:l

81 :

243: I

8t
Hl

\ \., \
1

9:1

il\il\il\
2'7:l
81

:1

243:1

X:

Y ratio (L:r solution)

FigweT-14
Figure 7-14 shows that the effectiveness of distillation does not become evident ":ntil 3 series_of evaporation and condensation cycles have transpired. This is the

grinciple behind fractional distillation. In fractional distillatiin, the distilling ;olumn has additional surface area, either from packing the column with an ineri naterial, such as glass beads, or by increasing the length of the distilling column. Froviding additional surface area results in more evaporation and condensation r-cles, and thus results in a more purified product. ')''er time, two things occur that reduce the effectiveness of disiillation. The ri'tillation pot becomes richer in the less volatile component, so the initial ratio is ,tss than 1 : 1 in favor of Compound X. The second, ind more significant, factor s that the glassware heats up, so condensation does not occur ai readily. with :':ss condensation, there are fewer evaporation and condensation cyclei, so the apor becomes less rich in the more volatile component.
Erample 7.15

ffi Heptane (b.p. = 98"C) from hexane (b.p. = 69"C) I Diethyl ether (b.p. = 35'C) from tetrahydrofuran D, Benzene (b.p.=
i'nilution

,',:jch of the following distillations results in the purest product? 4- \'Iethanol (b.p. = 56'C) from ethanol (b.p.= ZS"C)
(b.p.= eZ"C) 80"C) from 2,3-dimethylbutane (b.p. = 58"C)

a-e distillation that generates the purest product is the one with the greatest ri:or pressure ratio of more volatile component to less volatile component. The r::atest ratio is found in the pair of compounds that has the biggest difference in r':---::18 points. The difference in boiling points in choice A is zz'C, in choice B is li a in choice C is 32'C, and in choice D is22"C. The best answer is choice C.

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Colligative Properties

ffiriliffffiH;i|ffif$ffi
Concentration Effects

Colligative properties are properties of a solution that are affected by the concentration of a soluble impurity. Colligative properties include boiling point elevation (the same as vapor pressure reduction), freezing point depression, and osmotic pressure. The conductivity of a solution, although it is not formally a colligative property, shows a dependence on ion concentration.. Changes in the colligative properties occur when solutes in solution bind the solvent molecules. The greater the number of impurities, the greater the effect. Figure 7-15 shows the relative boiling point, fueezing point, osmotic pressure, and conductivity of an aqueous salt solution as the concentration of salt is gradually increased.

ti

tr O.
c.)

tr U
(6

&

-.q"

bo

U
Salt concentration

:n :n
$"jj uxr

S0t

Figure 7-15

wri
ilm

'wii

Figure 7-15 shows that as impurities are added to solution, the solvent has a greater tendency to remain as a liquid. This is attributed to increased intermolecular forces in the solution phase. Solute particles interact only with a liquid. For instance, water tends to stay in the liquid phase with the increased solvation energy of impurities, rather than changing to another phase. This is why the boiling point of an aqueous salt solution increases and the freezing point of an aqueous salt solution decreases. The magnitude of the effect is not the same for boiling point as for the fueezingpoint, as shown by the slope of the lines in Figure 7-15. There are different values for the boiling point elevation constant and the fueezingpoint depression constant for a given liquid. Both constants are symbolized by the term k, but each has a different subscript character to identify its purpose. The boiling point elevation constant is k6, while the freezing point
depression constant is
k1.

Figure 7-16 presents the heating curve for an aqueous salt solution overlapped against the heating curve for pure water (for comparison). Heating curves are generated by adding heat uniformly at a constant rate to the solution of salt water and monitoring the temperature of the solution. The freezing point of the salt solution is lower than the normal freezing point of water, and the fueezing point of the salt solution is decreasing as more water freezes out from the solution. The reason that the freezing point of the salt solution continues to decrease as water freezes away from solution is that the molality of the impuritr in the solution is increasing as water is removed. As the molality of the solute in solution increases, the freezing point decreases, due to the greater relative number of impurities in the solution. The same is true for the boiling point elevation of a solution. This is the explanation of why the last portion of water to boil away from salt water solution is so difficult to remove.

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General Chemistry
Standard heating curve

Phases and Phase Changes

Colligative Properties

Heating curve of salt solution

ri 5
a6

Heat added

Figure 7-16

Boiling Point Elevation As stated before, the boiling point of a solution increases with the addition of rmpurities. This is why it is referred to as the boiling point eleaation. The increase in boiling point (and decrease in vapor pressure) is attributed to both a decreased. surface area from which the liquid can evaporate and an increase in the intermolecular forces binding the liquid in solution. In the case of a salt water solution, water has stronger attraction to the ionic impurities than it does to other molecules. The intermolecular forces of water with water, and of water "r-ater ',r'ith an ion are presented in Figure 7-17. The difference in strength is attributed to the larger positive charge on a cation than the partial positive charge present ".n a protic hydrogen.

Na* "i-Zf
.
H

Stronger Interaction
,

tr..

Weaker .- u. Interaction \H.

)';-'

o_H

\..

)6-"
the

Ion-Dipole Interaction Figure 7-17

Jecause

Hydrogen Bonding

it requires more energy to break the ion-dipole interaction than

:'--drogen bond between water molecules, more heat energy is required to ::lrove a water molecule from a solution with ions present than from a solution :: pure water. This is the molecular level explanation for the elevation of the :':rhng point for an aqueous solution containing ions. This idea is apptied to any :: -ute added to water, based on the notion that a solute is soluble in water when :: attractive force between the water molecule and the solute particle is greater :::r the attractive force between two water molecules. This is very similar to a ;::rciple of solubility, that the most soluble species has the greatest solvation *5e:gy associated with it, while organic species do not readily dissolve into ',:ier. The calculation portion of boiling point elevation is simplistic. Although ::-:ulations are few on the MCAT, it is still essential that you understand the :r:rp of the equation, and the influence of variables on the boiling point of the
1-

-ition.

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Colligative Properties

Equation 7.4 is used to calculate the increase in boiling point when solute is added to a solution.
AT6 =

F;

]t

l6'i'*

(7.4\

\-;

P(
Qt

be

The k6 term is a constant for the solvent, i is the ionizability constant (essentially the number of ions that form upon dissoltiog), and m is molality. The k5 value for water is 0.51 'C'k$l*o1". On the MCAT years ago, they introduced a forth term called gamma. The gamma term represented the solute itself, based on the idea that not all solutes interact with the solvent in the same manner. This term may be referred to as an actir.tity cofficient.

SU

dt

th th
fre

pc

int

Example 7.16 \zVhich solution has the HIGHEST boiling point? A. 0.10 moles magnesium chloride in 100 mL water B. 0.15 moles lithium bromide in 150 mL water C. 0.20 moles sodium iodide in L00 mL water D. 0.25 moles potassium fluoride in 150 mL water

so.
dtL

m( bo
a5

Ca

rr-h

Solution
The highest boiling point is associated with the solution that has the highest concentration of impurities. The tricky part to this question is determining the i value. Magnesium chloride (MgCl2) has an i value of 3.0, while the other salts all have i values of 2.0. Choice A has 0.3 moles of impurities in 100 mL water, choice B has 0.3 moles of impurities in 150 mL water, choice C has 0.4 moles of impurities in 100 mL water, and choice D has 0.5 moles of impurities in 150 mL water. The highest concentration of impurities is present in choice C. When looking at questions like this, you should realize that there are several ways to test your understanding, The question could have asked for "GREATEST vapor pressure", in which case you would be hunting for the lowest boiling point.
Keep in mind that addition of a solute not only increases the boiling point of a compound, but it also changes other colligative properties. For instance, b\adding salt to a pot of water when you cook pasta, you increase the boiling point of the water slightly. However, contrary to what people think about adding salt
T lLl LEL ftE
:1

C,i

to the water when cooking pasta, it is not actually done for the purpose of increasing the boiling point. For a 4.0 liter pot of water (roughly a gallon), about 234 grams of sodium chloride are required to raise the boiling point by 1"C to 101"4. This is roughly half a pound of salt. The amount of salt needed to

{_
E
C,

effectively increase the boiling point is so great that the health risks are not worth it. The reason salt is added to water when cooking noodles is based on another colligative property, osmotic Pressure. As the salt concentration increases, sc does the osmotic pressure of the solution, preventing the noodles from getting too soggy (water-logged). There are other interesting observations that can be

5'r lu
-- l:

explained through colligative properties. When salt is added to hot water, it suddenly froths (boils) for a moment, and then returns to a state of not boiling This is because the dissociation of salt into water is exothermic, and the energ,. released causes localized pockets of boiling water. Once the salt is dissociated however, the boiling point rises, so the solution is no longer at its boiling point.

:--l

J:

r- |I1: --t --r-

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Colligative Properties

Freezing Point Depression The freezing point of a compound, like the boiling point, can be altered by awing the intermolecular forces (which in essence varies AHfusion). Freezing " :oint decreases as soluble impurities are added to solution. -ih","uro.,irri :ehmd the change in melting point is that impurities are found dissolved in a :ubstance in its liquid phase, not the solid phase. when salt is added to the 'urface of an ice cube, the water moleculei on the surface of the lattice are :itracted to the salt, and thus can be removed from the lattice (which is melting :ie ice). This is an exothermic process, so additional energy is released to melt -:re ice further. This makes the melting process easier by Iowering the melting :oint. This is why salt is used to help melt the ice on roads and pievent futurl ::eezing by lowering the {reezing po1nt. water molecules stronger ""p"ri"r,.u :teractions in salt water than freshwater, so they do freeze orrifrorr, a salt water 'rlution as_readily as they do from a pure water iolution. Solute particles exhibit :ltractive forces in solution. The effect that this has on melting is that solvent :,oiecules tends to stay in solution, so they melt at a lower tempeiature.

l'lculating the freezing point depression for a solution is similar to calculating : riling point elevation, except that k1 replaces ku. The other terms are the same :s nr Equation7.4. Equation 7.5 is used to calculate the decrease in freezing point :"'-hen solute is added to a solution.
AT6 = |q;.i.m

(7.s)

-: iind the correct temperature for the freezing point, subtract the change in -=:rperature (AT) from the normal freezing point (at 1 atm.). This new value is :::e lreezing point of the solution at that given concentration. Equation 7.6 shows
:,:-,.,-

this is done.

Tf = Tnf - AT, where Tnf = normal freezing point.

(7.6\

-i i-ou are careless, it is easy to disregard the i on these problems. The i is the :i- -;]-number of ir:ns (partictes) from the given material. For instance, i for NaCl s -' because NaCl forms two ions pet -ole.rrle as it fully dissociates in water. l--.: i value for sugar is 1, because when sugar dissolves into water, it does not :;:::-1 dny ions; it remains an intact sugar molecule.

c)a

?N

;umple
' '; - al

7.17

the freezing point of a solution made by mixing 5.g4 grams of sodium 1s --,:ride into 200 grams of water? (kf = t.gO .C kglmole f6r watir)

, ,.;;.; : -i.g6.c f -3.72"C

\- --t.+2'C

^r.J-'\

rL':())(

'.\!' -7.,',
o.7.

- \iro-

\ \(')-r

5'rlution l-': moiecular mass of NaCl is 58.4 B/mole, so there are 0.10 moles of NaCl. l-'::e are 200 grams of water, which is 0.2 kg water. The molality is found by r':di''g the moles of solute (NaCl) by the Lilogru*s of solvenf (Hzo). Th; -: i":lion concentration in molality is 0.50 m NaCl. Each molecule of NaCl results r I nolecules of impurities, because NaCl fully dissociates into Na+ cations and ** :lions when added to water. The total impurity concentration is 1.0 molal, r':r::: lowers the freezing point by 1.86 "C frorn the normal freezing point of 0"C. -*r :reezing point of the solution -r.B6"c,so choice C is the best answer.
.

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Phases and Phase Changes

Colligative Properties

Osmotic Pressure

Water has a natural tendency to flow from solutions of lower solute concentration to solutions of higher solute concentration to reach equal concentrations. Pressure differences cause fluids to flow, and the driving force
causing water to flow is known as osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure is the force per unit area exerted by a solution through osmosis across a semipermeable membrane. Osmotic pressure is calculated using Equation7.7.
n = MiRT
(7.71

zr is osmotic pressure, M = molarity, i is the ionizability constant (number of ions upon dissociation), R is the energy constant, and T is temperature in kelvins. Osmotic pressure is used to measure the mass of polymers, including natural polymers like proteins, in a U-tube apparatus. The two sides of the Utube are separated by a semipermeable membrane, which segregates molecules according to size. Water molecules can pass through the membrane, because they are small. However, proteins cannot pass through the membrane. A known mass of protein is added to one side of the U-tube, creating a difference in osmotic pressure between the two sides. Water flows from the side without protein to the side with protein, so the water levels become uneven. The protein cannot migrate across the barrier, so the concentration is always greater on one side than the other. Water stops flowing when the osmotic pressure equals the

where

hydrostatic pressure. Equation 7.8 is used to calculate the hydrostatic pressure.

Phydrostatic = pgAh
(7.8\

;rr

where p is the density, g is the gravitational force constant, and Ah is the height difference between the solution in the left side of the U-tube and the solution in the right side of the U-tube. The experiment is shown in Figure 7-18.

fte

Txrr
id,tr

lt'

.,&.

fi
lonro.o,,u,,. = PgAh

t
Semi-permeable membrane

l-

3l
$mru

ilru
ffi!

rlms

pflfiu

:uutnr:l

Before solute has been added, each side of the U-tube contains the same amount of H2O at 25"C. Figure 7-18

A height

difference exists
C-um
Frrunt
F',lrxlis'

after solute has been added to the left side of the U-tube.

fftr*r*

As shown in Figure 7-78, the osmotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure oppose one another. Once the water levels reach a fixed height, then Equation7.T is se:. equal to Equation 7.8. From that, molarity can be determined, which can be converted to moles. A given mass of protein was used, so the molecular mass is found by dividing this number by moles.

$iltlrl

ffi,s:

;m [r:

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Coltigative Properties

Example 7.L8 How many grams of a 12,000 Itu*/*ol" polymer must be added to water to make a 10-mL solution with an osmotic pressure of 0.0246 atm. at ZT'C? (R =
9.932

L'atm./mole.K)

A. 0.012 grams polymer B. 0.120 grams polymer C. 1.200 grams polymer D. 12.00 grams polymer
Solution using Equation 7.7, n = MiRT, we can determine how many grams are required. The polymer does not dissociate, so for a polymer (or protein-- a biological polymer) the value of i is 1. Substituting into the equation yields:
0.0246

atm

712,000g'mole-1 x 1x 0.0g2L.atm.mole-1.K-1 x 300K - '

0.01 L

zg/

0.0246-

720

z xIx8.2x3+z

_0.0246

x 120 _24.6 x 0.12 0.129 = 1x8.2x3 24.6

0.12 grams of polymer are needed, so the best answer is choice B. Not very much polymer is necessary to generate enough pressure difference to be measurable. The units are tricky, because Equation 7.8 expresses pressure in terms of pascals, rvhile EquationT.T is in terms of atm. To do a problem where osmotic pressure is equated with hydrostatic pressure, a conversion between pascals and atm. is necessary. The likelihood of seeing such a calculation on the MCAT is minimal.

Example 7.19

The GREATEST osmotic pressure is associated

solutions?

with which of the following

C. D.

A. 10 grams polymer with molecular mass 10,000 g/mole in 10 mL water. B. 100 grams polymer with molecular mass 10,000 g/mole in 100 mL water.
10 grams

100 grams poll.rner

polymer with molecular mass 10,000 g/mole in 100 mL water. with molecular mass 10,000 g/mole in 10 mL water.

Solution
The greatest osmotic pressure results from the solution with the greatest polymer concentration. The polymer is the same in each answer choice, so they each have the same molecular mass. This question reduces to a hunt for the most grams of

polymer in the least amount of solvent (which is the highest concentrated solution). The most grams of polymer in the least water is found in choice D.
Conductance

Pure water does not conduct an electrical current, because there are no ions present in solution to transfer electrons. In order for water to conduct electricity, there must be ions present in solution. The specific conductance of an aqueous salt solution is directly proportional to the concentration of salt in solution. Electrical conductance is observed only with ionic solutes. All specific conductance is measured relative to aqueous sodium chloride solutions.

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General Chemistry

Phases and Phase Changes

Colligative Properties

There is also a term for electrical conductance in an aqueous salt solution known as condosity. The condosity of a solution is defined as the molar concentration of an aqueous sodium chloride solution that has the same specific conductance as

the aqueous salt solution. Salts that form aqueous solutions capable of
conducting electricity better than sodium chloride solutions have a condosity greater than their molarity. The greater the ratio of condosity to molarity, the better the salt at conducting electricity in an aqueous environment. For instance, if a salt were twice as good as NaCl at conducting current in an aqueous solution, then 2.0 M NaCl(aq) solution would have the same conductivity as a 1.0 M salt(aq) solution. In that case, the 1.0 M salt(aq) solution has a condosity of 2.0.

Example 7.20

If an ice cube floats in a glass of water in such a way that the surface of the water is flush with the brim, and the ice cube sticks out above the level of the water, what will occur as the ice cube melts? A. The water level will drop below the top of the glass. B. The water will overflow the top of the glass. C. The water level will remain flush with the top of the glass. D. The water level will rise above the top of the glass, but will not overflow it.

it is important to remember that when ice melts, it becomes mass of the water displaced by the floating ice cube is equal to the water. The mass of the water generated by melting the ice cube. When the ice cube melts, the water that is formed has exactly the same mass and density as the water displaced. This means that it also has the same volume, so it fills the volume occupied by the submerged portion of the ice cube. The net result is that the level of the water remains constant at the top of the glass. As more and more ice melts, the ice cube drops lower into the water, but the top of the waters remain the same. Choice C is the best answer.
For this question,

Solution

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Phases Passages
l5 Passages
I OO

Questions

III:

Suggested phases passage Schedule: I: After reading this section and attending lecture: passages r, rv, v, & IX Qrade passages immediat ery after.o-pt.tion and log your mistakes. II: Following Task I: passages II, III, vr, vrl, & x (56 questions in 47 minutes) Time yourself accurately, grade your answers, and review mistakes.
Review: passages VIII, XI , XIII & euestions 9b Focus on reviewing the concep[s. Do
I OO

"Lt."".ry anout timing.

-ill

specializLngin MGAT preparation

I

u!
mMlW

|offi
int&i
riilud'
dfifiiro

6ilm

mft

I. II. III. IV. V. VI. VII. VIII. IX. X. XI. XII. XIII.

trreeze-Drying and Cloud-Seeding Phase Diagrams

(r -7)
(8

ihim

14)

Heating Curve
Bizarre Phase Diagrams Methanol-Ethanol Vapor Pressure

(r5 - 2r)
(22 - 28) (2e - 3s) (36 - 45) (44 - 50) (51 - 56) (57 - 65) (64 - 70)

Mixed Vapor of Methanol and Acetophenone

Raoult's Law Desalination and Osmotic Pressure Freezing Point Depression Comparison Freezing Point Depression Experiment

Dumas Experiment
Physical Properties of Liquids

(7r - 76)
(77 - 84) (85 - e2) (e5 - lOO)

Allotropes Questions Not Based on a Descriptive Passage

Phases and Phase Changes Scoring Scale

Kaw Score 85 - 100

MCAT Score

15-15

6A-a4 48-67 55-47

to-t2
7 -9

ffi,c

ilt*

r-34

4-6 l-5

Passage

(Questions 1 - 7)

2.

.',,}

.,)

The optimum conditions for freeze-drying coffee are which of the following?

The changing of phases for matter has a commercial use -n heating and cooling, and a use in the creation of many :roducts that are a part of our daily lives. Phase changes are :ither endothermic (heat absorbing) or exothermic (heat .eleasing). The phase changes that are endothermic are
h

F. ,n. C. ,. d.

25"C and 1.0 atm. ZS"Cand l.0torr -10'C and 1.0 atm. -f O"C and 1.0 torr

tblimation (solid to gas), melting (solid to liquid), and ...aporation (liquid to gas). The phase changes that are
r\othermic are condensation (gas to liquid), deposition (gas to 'rlid), and/reezing (liqluid to solid). Artificial snow-making :r'olves the deposition of water vapor.

3.

An alternative to the freeze-drying procedure that would still yield dehydrated coffee is which of the following?

:rny
-

Commercial freeze-drying processes employed to make of the coffees marketed today, involve exactly what the

'2d -$i . ,p .
C

R""ryrtallization using

a water-ether

mixed solvent

omimdon of the water to collect the residue

Distillation and collection of the solvent Flltration of the solute with sieves

'ne implies. A batch of freshly brewed coffee is first -rzen, and then dried by means of sublimation. In the first :r of the process, the coffee is cooled until it has frozen
- -re water lower the freezing point). In the
:jch occurs at a temperature below 0"C, because impurities
second step, the

. -rospheric pressure is reduced so the ice can be sublimed . , rv to form the dehydrated coffee. As the ice sublimes . " . the temperature of the frozen coffee slurry lowered ";, '::ause sublimation is endothermic). This results in the ::ration of freeze-dried coffee. The sublimation of ice is the '-. :3ss shown in Reaction 1 below.
H2O(s) + heat

i.

To lower the temperature of a cloud, what can be dropped into its core? ' ''":::;':'"'
A

-+

HZO(g)
1

{-.' B. Water at 0"C C. Dry ice at its sublimation D) Sodium chloride at25'C r t5.

. lce crystals at 0'C

{'::1

-1'
point

':

Reaction

l-he condensation process occurs naturally when rain -:s form. To enhance the chances of rainfall in draught-:r,-n areas, techniques for cloud-seeding have been : : rped over the years. Clouds are masses of condensed . :: ','apor. Rain is formed when the droplets of this vapor ..;::-:Jate into rain drops as the water mist in the clouds :::s on the surface of fine ice crystals, which one might :,,; . to form at 0"C. In actuality, however, the cloud must
-:ercooled to -10'C in order for the ice crystals to form.

Supercooled water would be which of the following?

a, * i.- :,..''':
r'

I 1\ c ,4. Water at 0'C +i 'r' \" - '(t B. Ice at 10'C \\' . r ,\n \ Y C. IceatO'C -{ ,i'.,'D?Water at -10'C i l.---; \ -) E-c->*-' ,,,.-1
. ,l ' \

A
v-rt

Cloud-seeding

tdform rain exemplifies which kind of

lr induce the formation of ice crystals, tiny dry ice ::' of solid carbon dioxide can be dropped from an
,i

phase change involving H2O?

'' , i:-id dry ice is maintained at its

r

": ::.e. These pellets freeze the water mist in the clouds.

sublimation point

-.i ''..:i. to form

l:e

r.imately -78"C). Once some ice crystals have begun in a cloud, the water mist can aggregate on the

A. B. C. D. .

Vaporization

Melting
Fusion Sublimation

l-\: ,

'-:J ': '

many raindrops, and the result can the

shower. 7

,.-:r of a small

drying procedure involved in freeze-drying of coffee

, .n example of what physical process?

r , Melting B. Boiling i- , Sublimation f|, Condensation

Each locale in the following answer choices has a different standard boiling point for water. Which sequence of places reflects the correct relationship of these boiling points in DESCENDING order?

A. A seaport > the mountains > a midwestern town :H'The mountains > a midwestern town > a seaport -. A midwestern town > the mountains > a seaport (:") A seaport > a midwestern town > the mountains
t"

ln'

'-.

l*-o1

1,

i. "'

..

r.

.,'

:-:rt

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i..r.:. .-<i -, .' t.J..,i: .
1

'

".

Passage

ll

(Questions 8 - 14)

8.

Which labeled point in the phase diagram below critical point?

(-)

Standard phase diagrams graph the phase of a material or

compound against ambient pressure (abscissa) and

temperature (ordinate). The lines of the graph represent phase changes for the compound. The two phase diagrams drawn in Figure I and Figure 2 below show that at low pressure and
!

I
l]i

temperature,

phase to the gas phase (referred to as

it is possible to convert directly from the solid sublimation). Phase diagrams do not intersect with either axis, because it is
physically impossible to reach conditions of 0 kelvins and 0 torr pressure. The two phase diagrams drawn below for

Temperature

standard compounds are typical. The phase diagram in Figure 1 is for an unknown substance, Compound A, while the phase diagram in Figure 2 is for Compound B. The dashed

4-pointx, where all three phases coexist 28. Point x, above which gas and liquid do not exist 'e. Point y, where a1l three phases coexist {!}tt"t
9.
y, above which gas and liquid do not exist

lines are drawn to aid your seeing the point on the graph
where the indicated temperatures and pressures intersect.

If

you were to reduce the pressure on Compound A w 298 K from 1.3 atm. to 0.9 atm., the compound would:

"#. undergo melting (from solid to liquid). d. lrndergo vaporization (from liquid to gas). 'C. (from gas liquid).
undergo condensation to

D.

undergo deposition (from solid to gas).

10. At

which of the following temperatures is NOT possible for Compound B?

Temperature

(K)

..A. 0'c
273 298
1

...B'. 10'C

Figure

,' t-,
11

\ D.\ loo"c -' /

c.

25"C

Which of the compounds would be a gas at

10'CJ '2t'i; 'K. Cornpound A onty 78. Compound B only (Both compounds A and B
(PrNeither compound A nor B

12. ln what phase

Temperature (K) zzg zsg
temperature and

does Compound

B exist

Figure

i.'sotia
,8.
-C.
Liquid
Gas

pressure? -- .f ^z'7 T

Both phase diagrams show a similar slope and have only three phases associated with them. There are some phase diagrams that show more than three phases. For instance, sulfur can assume two different crystalline structures, so it has two unique solid phases. As a consequence, the phase diagram for sulfur shows four phases.

D.

Lambda

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3.

Which arrow represents an isothermal evaporation?

Passage

lll (Questions 15 - 21)

()
!

Temperafure

,-

C.

Lg![rrow a B. 'i\now b -,''

Arrow c

|J

i.1
..'":

inventory of physical properties are: normal melting point, molecular mass, and the specific heats for all three phar"r. The researcher then investigated the enthalpy values associated with the phase changes (fusion and vaporization). Figure 1 is a heating curve for Compound W, showing the temperature of the material as it is heated at a constant rate.

its purity by spectroscopic methods, the researcher recorded the physical properties of the material. Included in the

A researcher synthesized an unknown material referred to as Compound W. After purifying the material and verifying

-D*Anowd

v
!

0)

o H

Which of the following conclusions is INVALID for

Compound A?

A.
'B?

C.

Compound A does not sublime at25"C. Compound A is solid at 250 K, 760 ton. Compound A has a triple point roughly equal to that of water.

Heat added at a constant rate

Figure I
Table

D,'For

Compound A there exists a solid that is less

dense than its liquid phase.

I

lists the physical properties for Compound W,

as determined by the researcher. The molecular weight of compound W is 100, and its normal boiling point is 64.5"C.

Physical constants
d

for

Compound W

Cliquio
Cgas

int

s''c 0.5 cal

e'"c 39 kcal
mole

1.0

cal

AHvaporization

Table

The physical constants were determined by observing the effects of temperature change over a range of temperatures. The data listed were recorded at standard pressure. The enthalpy of vaporization was determined by measuring the vapor pressure of Compound W at various temperatures, and then using those data in the following equation to determine the enthalpy of vaporization:

ln

lL = AHvaporization 1lI

P2

\Tz

_L\

Tr/

Equation

By measuring the vapor pressure at many temperatures, AHvaporizatiol can be determined with great accuracy. The

heat capacities were found by repeated calorimetry

experiments in a closed, insulated vessel.

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15

According to Figure 1, the heat capacity of Compound W in the solid phase is:

0.

Which of the following statements about phase change in Compound W is NOT true?

,,greater than the heat capacity in the liquid phase. ,.41tess than the heat capacity in the liquid phase.

.8.

!.

eryal to the heat capacity in the liquid phase.

-*; During phase

constant.

changes, temperature remains

\-/ /
6.

Km"
.

process of going from the solid phase to the

exactlV twice the heat capacity in the liquid phase.

tJ"f
L

\'L--t r*"*;L'

{d

-fr

liquid phase is an endothermic process. The process of sublimation is exothermic. fn" heat capacity for the compound varies for each
phase.

According to Figure 1, the enthalpy of fusion is:

equalto the enthalpy of vaporization. greater than the enthalpy of vaporization.
than the enthalpy of vaporization.
equal to the enthalpy of formation.

1K*f fj""t t' . If

21

Which statement accurately relates the heat capacity of Compound W and the slope of the ascending line in its
heating curve? slope is directly proportional to heat capacity. slope is inversely proportional to heat

17

10.0 grams of an unknown substance, Compound Q (l) heats up to a higher temperature than 10.0 grams of

-K1he {._tr-}ne \----z

capacrty.

Compound W when exposed to the same amount of heat, which of the following conclusions is valid?
than ;yd*Compound Q has a larger heat capacity Compound W. Compound W. Compound W. Compound Q has a smaller enthalpy of fusion than Compound W.
,,,p1" Compound Q has a larger enthalpy

*C. tire slope is independent of heat capacity. af ne slope and heat capacity differ by a constaol
amount.

of fusion than

.^ \-/

CrJ Compound Q has a smaller heat capacity than

B{

oo

.-l

18. How much heat would be required for 10.0 grams of

Compound W to go from a liquid at ten degrees below the boiling point to a gas at ten degrees above the boiling point?

A. 3,015 calories ,-ll) 3,150 calories V. zo,otscalories ,16 . zo,tsocalories

19.
Which of the following conclusions can be made about Cgmpound W relative to water?

fd.-.i

//. Co-pound W has waler at room temPerature. B. Compound W has a lower AHfusion than water' T4.jonpound W has a lower AHvaporizati6n than (---'
water.

a lower vapor pressure than

Ct:*^\-

^-*

r 11 l': \/t b's {' LJ A

r t,j d:r-#i
"4{
_ i''$.t'

J"b*

"

l"*

D.

Compound W has a lower heat capacity liquid phase than water.

in

the

!\.."

- ..,-'. 'l r,l * \-"

a.

s'> {'

St\ "*1

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Passage

lV

(Questions 22 - 28)

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

Phase diagrams relate ambient temperature and pressure

A. It is possible to sublime the solid4 form of p'.

Material C at temperatures below the first triple point by changing the pressure. It is possible for gas of Material C to undergo deposition to solidg at temperatures between the

Io the most abundant phase for a material to exist in under .hose conditions. Under conditions where the phase diagram shows that a liquid is present, a small amount of vapor may

also be present, but not in a high concentration. For nstance, water at 0"C and 1.00 atm. is present in all three :hases, although the phase diagram shows that only the solid .nd liquid may coexist. The amount of water vapor is rinimal. The triple point of water, where any of the three :hases may be present in abundance, is 0.01'C and 4.57 torr. Complications arise in materials that have more than rree phases. In the phase diagrams shown in Figure I and l:eure 2, each material has two solid phases, both of which -:r'e different lattice structures and physical properties.
(! ()
! q
6)

,- -first and second triple points. (-g.'Fiotl^, Material T and Marerial C have rwo rriple
points each.

f.

Xstandard temperature and pressure (0"C and 1.00 atm.), Material T exists as solid4.

24

Material T

. Which direct conversion is NOT possible? "'' . Material T: Sotidg into liquid. f C. Material - D. Marerial
__.8.
Material C: Liquid inro solidg. C: Gas inro solid4.

"t''"

.. i..\' ui'

\ ''', o,"\', '.'

T: Solid4 inro

gas.

5.

For both Material T and Material C, which phase can coexist with the other three at some point? A. Solida - '' J- ''r, - - "-A -' i..fl.:" ,'R.'sotidg ] ,,,-''

298

Temperature (K)
1

C. Liquid D. Gas
1.r'
i .., .r

,*',1

Figure

. ."

i
,

o
a 2

'

16.

How can the two different solids be explained for both of the comoounds?

t'

. B.
A

The two solids have different lattice structures.

The two solids have different connectivity of

atoms. The two solids have different molecular masses. The two solids have different chiral centers.

. D.
C

27

. At a temperature of 25"C, which of these statements

must be true?

298
Figure
2

Temperature (K)

it

1.0 atm and25"C, both materials exist as Solidg.

For which material can both solids exist simultaneouslv ',', ith the liquid phase?

I. j II. . ,' J ,O.

I

For Material T, solid4 is less dense than solidg. For Material C, conversion from solid4 into solidg

ir

an endothermic process.

For Marerial T, it is possible to undergo deposition only to form solidg. bur nor solid4.

{.

B. C. Only MaterialC D . Neither Material T nor Material

: " right
@

Both Material T and Material C Only Material T

C

A. 3. C. O.

I only II only I and II only U and III only

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28. Which solid deforms upon

pressure?

heating

at atmospheric

Passage

(Questions 29 - 35)

A. B. C. D.

Both Material T and Material C Only Material T Only Material C Neither Material T or Material C

Three beakers were prepared with a mixture of methanol and ethanol. In Beaker I 50 grams of methanol and 50 gram

of ethanol were mixed. In Beaker II 50 milliliters of

methanol and 50 milliliters of ethanol were mixed. In Beaker m 1.00 moles of methanol and 1'00 mole of ethanol werc mixed. The three beakers were separated and placed into individual l0liter sealed containers. The total vapor and vapor pressure due to methanol were recorded for the separate beakers. This was done by analyzing the gas each beaker in the closed system. Listed in Table 1 below
data for both methanol and ethanol:

Compound Formula
Methanol Ethanol CH3OH C2H5OH

MW b.p. 20"c 0.7914 glmL 32.04 56"C

0.1893 glmL
1

p at

46.0',7

'79"C

Table

According to Raoult's law, the vapor pressure of component of a mixture can be determined by multipl the mole fraction of that component in solution by the vapor pressure of that component at the same tempe The mole fraction is defined as the moles of a c divided by the total moles of the solution. Raoult's law
for an ideal mixture and holds true of the solution do not interact.
as

long as the

If there are attractive

forces between the components

the solution mixture, then the vapor pressure is lower would be calculated by Raoult's law. If there are repu
forces between the components in the solution mixture, the vapor pressure is higher than would be calculated Raoult's law. These are referred to as negative and posi deviations from Raoult's law, respectively.
2

9.

Above which beaker is the vapor pressure of m

the GREATEST?

A. Beakerl B. Beakertr C. Beakerltr D . The vapor pressure of methanol is the same

all three beakers.

30. As the temperature of the solution in Beaker I i

what is observed for the vapor pressure of methanol' the total vapor pressure above the beaker?

A. Ptotal vapor increases; Pmethanol increases. B. Ptotul vapor increases; Pmslhmsl decreases. C. Ptotul vapor decreases; P,,'s16unol increases. D . Ptotul vapor decreases; Pmg1h661 decreases'

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31. During the first minute of evaporation, before

equilibrium is established and the temperature changes to any significant degree, what is observed for the
solution in Beaker III?

4. If the vapor pressure of pure methanol

is greater than the vapor pressure of pure ethanol, then what must be true about the relative temperatures of each solution in order to have equal total vapor pressures above all three
beakers?

A. B. C. D.

The ratio
increases,

of moles methanol to moles ethanol and the rate of vaporization from the of moles methanol to moles ethanol
of vaporization from the

beaker also increases.

The ratio

increases, while the rate

beaker decreases.

A. Tt > TII > TUt B.TUr>Tt>Tn C. TI>Tu>Tn D. TU>Tl>TtU

The ratio

of moles methanol to moles ethanol

of vaporization from the
35

decreases, while the rate

beaker increases'

The ratio

of moles methanol to moles ethanol

of vaporization from
the

decreases, and the rate

beaker also decreases.

If

the vapor above Beaker I were collected and condensed into another beaker, what would be true about the vapor

pressures of ethanol, methanol, and the total vapor pressure above the new beaker, relative to what was originally observed above Beaker I?

A.
,r

The total vapor pressure and the vapor pressures of methanol and ethanol would all be greater above the
new beaker.

2.

The same experiment is carried out with propanol and methanol in one case, and with ethanol and propanol in another case, and the following data are collected:

B. C. D.

Mixture
10 mL methanol w/ 10 mL 10 mL methanol wl 20 mI' 10 mL ethanol w/ 10 mL
10

Pvapor at 35'C

propanol propanol propanol

mL ethanol wl 20 mL

propanol

42.7 ton 37.1 torr 38'4 torr 33'5 ton

The total vapor pressure and the vapor pressure of methanol would be greater above the new beaker' The vapor pressure of ethanol would be less' The total vapor pressure and the vapor pressure of methanol would be less above the new beaker' The vapor pressure of ethanol would be greater' The total vapor pressure would be the same, while the vapor pressure of methanol would be greater and the vapor pressure ofethanol would be less'

What can be said about the vapor pressure of pure

propanol compared to both ethanol and methanol?

A. Pmethanol > Ppropanell Pethanol ) Ppropanol B. Ppropanol ) Pmethanoll Pethanol ) Ppropanol C. Pmethanol > Ppropanol; Ppropanol ) Pethanol D. Ppropanol ) Pmethan6li Ppropanol ) Pethanol

What is the total pressure above Beaker I at27"C, if the vapor pressure of pure methanol is 40.0 torr and the ,'upo, pt"tture of pure ethanol is 30'0 torr at that
emperature?

-{

. Greater than 40.0 ton B. Greater than 35.0 ton, but less than 40.0 torr C . Greater than 30.0 torr, but less than 35.0 torr D . Less than 30.0 torr

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Passage

Vl

(Questions 36 - 43)

7.

How many moles of acetophenone (C6H5COCH3)

contained in the mixture?

are

To reduce the temperature necessary to distill a liquid, distillation can be conducted under vacuum conditions.
Appropriately enough, this procedure is refened to asvacuum distillation. In vacuum distillation, the solution is heated in a closed container with reduced atmospheric pressure. The system is not closed, but the flow of gas into the system is hindered by one-way valves. By definition, the boiling point of a liquid is the point (temperature) at which the vapor pressure equals the atmospheric pressure. By reducing the atmospheric pressure, the vapor pressure required for boiling is lowered and thus the energy needed to boil the liquid is
reduced.

A. 0.25 moles B. 0.50 moles C. 1.00 moles D. 2.00 moles

38. What is TRUE for the boiling point for
acetophenone at 500 torr?

pure

A. It is greater

than 203'C, because decreasing the because decreasing the

the

atmospheric pressure makes it easier to boil.

A researcher carries out vacuum distillation on 120.0 grams of a mixture that is 50Vo by mass 2-propanol with
by mass acetophenone. This solution is made by adding 60.0 grams of 2-propanol to 60.0 grams acetophenone in a
50Vo

B. It is less than 203'C, C. It is greater

atmospheric pressure makes it easier to boil.

than 203'C, because decreasing

atmospheric pressure makes it harder to boil.

250-mL flask. The boiling points, molecular masses, and room temperature vapor pressures of the two compounds are
listed below:

D. It is less than 203"C,

because decreasing the

atmospheric pressure makes it harder to boil.

Compound
Acetophenone 2-Propanol

Boiling Point
203"C
1

MW
20.1 5 60.1 0

P'""po,
12 torr

9.

of acetophenone in the origind solution is which of the following values?

The mole fraction

82'C

48 torr

Table

A. 0.25 B. 0.33 c. 0.50

D.
4

Table 1 lists the normal boiling point, molecular

weight, and room temperature vapor pressure. The structures of acetophenone and 2-propanol are shown in Figure l.

0.67

d
o
Acetophenone

0.

HOH
CH:

What is observed when comparing Aliquot 5 wiin Aliquot l0?

1l

A. B.
C

Aliquot 10 has a greater total vapor pressure and larger mole fraction of acetophenone than Aliqucn
5.

u.cAcH,
2-Propanol

Aliquot 10 has a smaller total vapor pressure and lower mole fraction of acetophenone than Aliqud
5. The total vapor pressure is greater above Aliquot
"

Figure

The researcher reduces the pressure above the mixture and

than Aliquot 5, while the mole fraction

acetophenone is greater above Aliquot 5.

collects the vapor in successive aliquots of 5.0

mL. A total

of twenty-five 5.0-mL aliquots are collected before the

amount of solution remaining in the flask becomes too small to measure. The twenty-five samples are labeled I through 25, in the order in which they were collected.
3

D.

The total vapor pressure is greater above Aliquot

than Aliquot 10, while the mole fraction acetophenone is greater above Aliquot 10.

6. At room temperature, A. B.
C

what is TRUE about the vapor

41

. After time, the mole fraction due to acetophen

should do which of the following?

pressure of 2-propanol above the mixture?

The vapor pressure of 2-propanol equals the vapor

pressure due to acetophenone.

The vapor pressure of 2-propanol is double the

vapor pressure due to acetophenone.

A. It should increase, due to evaporation. B. It should decrease, due to evaporation. C. It should stay constant, due to evaporation. D. It should stay constant, regardless ofevaporatioc.

The vapor pressure of 2-propanol is eight times the vapor pressure due to acetophenone.

D.

The vapor pressure of 2-propanol is equal to the

total vapor pressure.

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42.

Addition of another 60.0 grams of 2-propanol to the original mixture would affect the vapor pressure of
acetophenone in what way?

Passage

Vll

(Questions 44 - 50)

. It would reduce the vapor pressure of acetophenone. B. It would have no effect on the vapor pressure of
acetophenone.

C. It would increase the vapor pressure of

acetophenone.

D. It

would increase by exactly one-half the vapor

According to Raoult's law, the vapor pressure above a solution consisting of more than one liquid is equal to the sum of the individual vapor pressures. The individual vapor pressures for each component can therefore be calculated by multiplying the mole fraction (Ia) of a given component by the vapor pressure (Pa') of a pure sample of that same component. The equation for the total vapor pressure due to all of the components is expressed in Equation 1. Ptotal =

pressure of acetophenone.

IePa" + IgPn" + I6Pg" + "' Equation I

{ 3 . Aliquot 1 from the mixture has which of the following

mole distribution percentages?

This equation is based on ideal behavior for solutions. If the attractive force between the component liquids in solution is strong, a decrease in the vapor pressure above the mixture is observed. This decrease in vapor pressure is referred to as negative deviation from Raoult's law. The strong attractive forces are associated with a large negative heat of dilution. The opposite holds true for positive deviations from ideal behavior. Drawn in Figure 1 are graphs showing positive and negative deviations for hypothetical solution mixtures.

. B. C. D.

50.OVo

acetophenone and 5O.0Vo 2-propanol

33.3Vo acetophenone and66.'7Vo 2-propanol

2O.0Vo acetophenone and 80.0%

2-propanol

ll.l%o acetophenone and88.9Vo 2-propanol

L H

;!
o
0*

100

Observed behavior

g
a

100

I
Xc=
7

Ia"l trrav;or

I
lfr

otr."rr/"a behavior
Mole

Xo=0

fraction
1

Xc= o

Xo= |

Figure

The first graph shows a positive deviation from ideal behavior, because the observed vapor pressure is greater than the ideal vapor pressure. The second graph shows a negative deviation from ideal behavior, because the observed vapor pressure is less than the ideal vapor pressure.

44.

What is TRUE about the dilution energies for a mixture with positive deviation from Raoult's ideal behavior?

A. AG>0;AH>0 B. AG<0;AH>0 C. AG>0;AH<0 D. AG<0;AH<0

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5.

Which of the following pairs of solvents would

be

9.

expected to have the LARGEST negative deviation from ideal behavior?

Referring to the liquids in the lower graph in Figure I, what can be said about the mole fractions of each liquid

solution over time,

if the flask is

open to the

A. B. C. D.

Ethanol and carbon tetrachloride Ethanol and acetone

environment and the mixture is allowed to evaporate?

Ethanol and hexane

Ethanol andcyclohexene

A. B. C. D.

C and D both increase.

C and D both decrease. C increases and D decreases. C decreases and D increases.

46. If

the vapor above a 507o mixture of methanol with butanol at 22"C were collected and placed into a flask where it condenses, what is the mole percent of

50. Two liquids exhibiting a drastic negative deviation fron

ideal behavior can attribute the behavior to which of

following?

methanol in vapor above the new (second) flask? [Pure

methanol has a vapor pressure of 87 torr and pure butanol has a vapor pressure of 29 torr at22'C.l

A. A B. A
C. D.

bond-forming reaction between the t bond-breaking reaction between the t

compounds in solution compounds in solution

A. B. C. D.

Less than25%o Between 25Vo and5j%o Between 50Vo andTS%o Greater thanT1%o

An increase in one compound's polarity A decrease in one compound's polarity

47.

Positive deviations from ideal behavior in the vapor pressure above a mixed solution can be attributed to which of the following?

A. B. C. D.

Attraction between liquids, AH > 0 Attraction between liquids, AH < 0

Repulsion between liquids, AH > 0 Repulsion between liquids, AH < 0

48.

Using the information in Figure 1, what is the vapor pressure due to Substance B (l) in a 40Vo (by mole) mixture of Substance B in Substance A, if the pure vapor pressures of A and B are 150 ton and 75 torr
respectively?

A. C. D.

30 torr 90 torr
105

B.60torr
ton

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Passage

Vlll

(Questions 51 - 56)

2.

Which of the following solutions has the GREATEST

osmotic pressure at 20' C?

Reverse osmosis can be employed to extract fresh water from salt water. The process involves applying a force to the salt water that is greater than the osmotic pressure of aqueous salt solution, consequently forcing the flow of fresh water out

A. B. C. D.

0.20 moles NaCl(s) with one liter water (where

KsO

for NaCl is greater than 1)

from the aqueous salt solution. The apparatus used to accomplished this consists of a container for the salt water solution and a cellophane filter through which no ions can pass, so that only water may flow through it. The cellophane filter is referred to as a semipermeable membrane. It distinguishes and segregates molecules by charge. There are other semipermeable membranes which segregate according to particle size. The apparatus is shown below in
Figure
1.

0.30 moles KCI(s) with one liter water (where Krn for KCI is greater than 1) 0.25 moles MgCl2(s) with one liter water (where KrO for MgCl2 is greater than 1) 0.30 moles PbCl2(s) with one liter water (where Kro for PbCl2 is equal to 1.6 x 10-5 M3)

53. In order to reduce

the osmotic pressure of a 100-mL

sample of brine solution from25 atm. amount of pure water must be added?

to 10 atm., what

A. B.

100 mL 125 mL

C. 150 mL D. 250 mL
0 0 Purified water
5

4.

What is the external pressure necessary to stop osmosis of a 1.0 M NaCl(aq) solution at 31"C where, R = .0821

L atm. mole-l K-l?

Figure I
To convert sea water to water that is suitable for
:nsumption, an applied pressure of I100 p.s.i. (-70 atm.) is ::lployed. This process of water purification is referred to as -rsalination" The osmotic pressure (n) of the solution can be : using the following formula:
-

A. Between 2.5 and 5 atm. B. Between 5 and 10 atm. C. Between 10 and 35 atm. D. Between 35 and 70 atm.
55. In
desalination, once an external pressure source is
continues from higher salt concentration to lower
salt concentration.

";ulated

n = MiRT
(where M = molarity and i = ionizability)

removed, the flow of water:

Equation

A. B. C. D.

dissolved into 100 :*:ms water (with a final volume that is just over 100 mL) is ; .:ed into a desalination tube. The desalination tube is then
-

A solution with 5.84 grams NaCl

from higher to lower salt concentration reverses to

lower to higher salt concentration. continues from lower salt concentration to higher
salt concentration.

::rnected to a plunger used to vary the applied pressure. The

;:ralination tube employs a cellophane membrane for

':

-egation of the impurities from the water.

external pressure
aqueous solution of MgCl2 with an osmotic pressure 5 atm?

from lower to higher salt concentration reverses to higher to lower salt concentration.

i i. An

of 10 atm has what effect on an of

6.

A. B.

Which of the following methods could also be used for purifying salt water?

External pressure forces water out from the salt solution, which increases [MgCl2] over time. External pressure forces water out from the salt
solution, which decreases [MgC12] over time.

A. B. C. D.

Filtering through glass beads to remove the salt Freezing the solution and removing the relatively
pure ice that forms

C. External pressure forces water into the salt

solution, which increases [MgC12] over time.

Centrifuging the solution into cotton

Increasing the pressure

precipitate out of solution

to force the salt to

D. External pressure forces water into the salt

solution, which decreases [MgCl2] over time.

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Passage

lX

(Questions 57 - 63)

58.

A researcher wanted to study the effects of salt concentration on the physical properties of a solution. To do
this, she set up six flasks that varied in content
and

The HIGHEST boiling point would be associated with which of these solutions in Table 1?

concentration (see Table 1 for contents). She used distilled water that had been recently heated to remove any dissolved carbon dioxide. In each flask, the solution was made by first adding the solid to the flask, followed by adding the liquid to the flask. In each case, the salt fully dissolved into the solution at the ambient temperature of the solvent. The researcher concluded that the solutes are fully soluble in water at room temperature.

A. B. C. D.
59.

Solution B (Flask # 2) Solution C (Flask # 3) Solution E (Flask # 5) Solution F (Flask # 6)

Upon comparing solutions in Table 1, which of

following is NOT true?

A.

The solution in Flask # t has a higher conductivity than the solution in Flask # 4.
va

Flask #I #2 #3 #4 #5 #6

salt 2.0 grams NaCl 2.0 grams NaCl 4.0 grams NaCl 2.0 grams KCI 2.0 grams KCI 4.0 grams KCI
Grams

Grams water added

100 grams H20 200 grams H20 100 grams H20 100 grams H20 200 grams H20 100 grams H20

B. The solution in Flask # 2 has a higher

pressure than the solution in Flask # 5.

C. The solution in Flask # 3 has a higher

pressure than the solution in Flask # 6.

D. The solution in Flask # 4 has a higher free

point than the solution in Flask # 6.

MW (NaCl) = 58.4 grams/mole MW (KCD ='74.5 grams/mole

60. Which of the following aqueous solutions has

LOWEST boiling point?

Table I
Properties of the solution that are affected by the concentration of solute are referred to as colligative properties. The colligative properties include the freezing
point, the boiling point, osmotic pressure, and conductance. As more non-volatile soluble impurities are added to a solution, the freezing point decreases and the boiling point
and osmotic pressure increase. Conductance increases, ifthe solute is ionic. For covalently bound solutes, conductance is not detectably affected.

A. B. C. D.

0.20 m BeCl2(aq)

0.20 m NaCl(aq) 0.30 m KCI(aq) 0.30 m MgCl2(aq)

61. If K1 for

water

is 1.86 "C/molal, then the freezing

of Solution C (Flask # 3) is which of the following?

A. -0.12 "C B. -0.24'C

D

As an aqueous salt solution boils, the kg of water (solvent) decrease, so that the molality of the solution increases. This means that as the solution boils away, the boiling point is increasing. A similar effect is observed with freezing point depression. An interesting observation
involves ice cubes. Ice cubes freeze from the outside inward, so as they freeze, the exterior is pure, but solute impurities get trapped in the core. This explains why the center of ice cubes are cloudy. If it is a gas particle that is trapped in the ice cube, it makes a loud noise as it escapes, once the ice cube is broken open.

c. -1.20 "c
.
-2.40'C

62. As more solute is

added to solution, which of following does NOT increase?

The freezing point

A. B. C. D.

The boiling point

The osmotic pressure The density

57.

When considering only solutions in Table 1, what can be said about the melting of the solution in Flask #3?

63. The LOWEST freezing point for the solut

associated with which of the following solutions?

A. The freezing point is the greatest of all B. C. D.

the

solutions, and it increases as the solution freezes.

The freezing point is the lowest of all solutions, and it increases as the solution freezes. The freezing point is the greatest of all solutions,
and it decreases as the solution freezes. The freezing point is the lowest of all solutions, and it decreases as the solution freezes. @

A. B. C. D.

Solution A (Flask # l) Solution B (Flask # 2) Solution D (Flask # 4) Solution E (Flask # 5)

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Passage

(Questions 64 - 70)
U

22

depression constant, for cyclohexanol' The freezing point depression constant is a property of a solvent, so solutes must be added to cyclohexanol to study its colligative properties. In two separate experiments, the student added known quantities of menthol and camphor to separate test tubes containing 10.000 grams of cyclohexanol liquid at

A student set out to determine k1, the freezing point

21'
20

1.0102 grams menthol rn

10.000 grams cYclohexanol

I l9
18
6)

o. t'7 6-) 16

)'7'C. The

water rubes were removed from the ice bath and placed into a

solutions were thoroughly mixed and then rmmersed in an ice bath until they were frozen' Then the test

rath held constant at 35'C. The temperature of the mixture :n the test tube was recorded every twenty seconds' until the

solution was completely liquefied again' The time and .3mperature data for Experiment 1, using camphor as the ,r]ute, are listed in Table 1 below:

40

80 120 I60 200 240

Time (seconds)

280 320 360

Figure

Camphor Mass = 1.0102 grams MW = 1524 Temperature ("C) Time (seconds)

0
20 3.9 4.3 t4.'7
5.1

be The normal freezing point of cyclohexanol is found to used in Experiment 2' 22.6"C, according to the thermometer

64. Why must

the normal freezing point be determined thermometer, rather than using the standard using the value from the literature?

40
60
80 100

A. The standard B.
C

value may not hold during the

exPerimental conditions'

5.6 6.0 6.4 6.1

7.1

The thermometer may not be calibrated' so the normal fteezing point must be determined to
determine the AT accuratelY'

120
140 160 180

The normal fteezing point is not the same for all

samples of cYclohexanol'

r7.8
18.7 19.6 20.5 21.4

D.

The freezing point varies with the shape of the

container.

200
220

240 260
280 300

65. Menthol and camphor do not dissociate

point be affected?

once in

22.4 z3.J
aA
a

solution. If an impurity were chosen that can dissociate into two particles in solution, how would the freezine A

320
340 360

25.1 26.1

B.
C

The freezing point would decrease by twice as much as expected, if the impurity did not dissociate' The freezing point would decrease by as much expected, if the impurity did not dissociate'

Table I
For Experiment 2, using menthol as the solute' the '-;Jure was carried out in exactly the same manner as in ,:.rment 1. The formula for camphor is C16H160' and , 'rrmula for menthol is C16H2gO' This time the data

The freezingpoint would decrease by half as muJi as expected, if the impurity did not dissociate'
The freezingpoint would remain constant'

D.

:':

experiment is shown in Figure 1' The freezing -: of the solution is determined by finding the inflection -.. A horizontal line is extrapolated back from the ' -:rtion point to the temperature axis to determine the ::-:r1g point of the solution. The horizontal line used to

:ecorded by graphing temperature as a function of time' ',: than listing the data in table form' The graph for the

66. The freezing point for the camphor-cyclohe''ar'--i

solution in Experiment
1

was reached:

:" roi

. during the first minute of observation' B . during the second minute of observation' C . during the third minute of observation' D . during the sixth minute of observation'
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,,

freezing point is also shown in Figure 1' '-nine the

t,{G[

:'. right

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f"w an experiment in which the compound chosen was a $Dlid at room temperature rather than a liquid, the nn-i-rture must be heated from room temperature to its

8.

used in Experiment

The freezing point for which solution is lower, the one I or the one used in Experiment 2? The camphor solution has a lower freezing point, because the camphor solution has a higher molality than the menthol solution. The camphor solution has a lower freezing poing because the camphor solution has a lower molality than the menthol solution. The menthol solution has a lower freezing poing because the menthol solution has a higher molality than the camphor solution. The menthol solution has a lower freezing point, because the menthol solution has a lower molality than the camphor solution.

rnelting point instead

case

of being cooled from room

A. B. C. D.

Emperature to its freezing

point. This would be the with naphthalene. Which of the following graphs

rpresents what should be observed, if a naphthalenecamphor mixture were heated to its liquid state and then while it was allowed to cool to its solid form?
'lbserved

A.

2a

9.

What would be expected for the freezing point

solution made by mixing 20.000 grams of cyclohe with 1.0102 grams of menthol?

Time

E
<.)

A. The freezing point would be22.6"C. B. The freezing point would be20.2'C. C. The freezing point would be 17.8"C. D. The freezingpoint would be 13.0"C.

c)

70.

Which of the following statements BEST explains reason for the observed depression in the freezing as an impurity is added to the solution? A

Time

The molecules can form a lattice structure

easily with impurities present,

more easily, which results
I
d H O .c)

because

impurities repel the solvent molecules to form

lattice-like structure. The solution thus

in an increase in

freezing point.

B.

The molecules can form a lattice structure

easily with impurities present, because impurities repel the solvent molecules to form
lattice-like structure. The solution thus freezes easily, which results in a decrease in the point. The molecules cannot form a lattice structure

Time

C.

easily with impurities present, because

impurities attract the solvent molecules and them in solution. The solution thus freezes easily, which results in an increase in the point. The molecules cannot form a lattice structurc

c) g d H

D.

8.
t-i
6)

easily with impurities present,

because

impurities attract the solvent molecules and them in solution. The solution thus freezes easily, which results in a decrease in the fi point.
Time

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Passage

Xl

(Questions 71 - 76)

2.

The Dumas experiment involves filling a flask of known nass and volume with an organic liquid. The organic liquid .s heated, so that it begins to vaporize. Assuming that the ,:r in the flask is lighter than these organic vapors, the air is Jisplaced out of the flask by the organic vapors through a

Which of these equations provides the correct way to calculate the molecular weight of the liquid in the flask? Note: m"on6ensed vapor = mass of the organic liquid
condensed in the flask.

inall hole at the top of the flask. The ideal flask is a

,:herical flask with a stopcock attached, but a good substitute 'r ould be any flask with a foil cap that has a small pinhole in
.:.e

* .PVU B. MW = illcondensed uuoo, * W .RT

A.

MW =

fitcondensed uroo,

foil cap. Foil is chosen in lieu of plastic or

rubber,

:3cause organic solvents

,qurd residue has evaporated.

will

dissolve both plastic and

the last trace

r*lber. The solution is heated by flame until

of
7

xRT vapor PV 1 D. MWxPV mcondensed vapor RT

mcondensed

C. MW-

Once the liquid has completely evaporated, it is assumed

-.rt the flask is filled entirely with organic vapors. As the '=sk cools, the vapors condense back into a liquid, and air ':,.'r's back into the flask through the pinhole. Once the flask , rack to its initial temperature (ambient temperature), the " , :rlbined mass of the flask and condensed organic liquid is

3.

What would be the result

vaporized?

if the heating source were removed before all of the organic liquid had completely
The mass measured at the end of the experiment

A. B. C. D.

-:asured. The increase in mass over the initial weighing of .- i 3mpty flask can be attributed to the organic liquid in the ".sk. The small amount of air displaced by the organic
: "rd is assumed to be negligible.

would be too high, and the molecular mass calculated from the experiment would be too high.
The mass measured at the end of the experiment

would be too high, and the molecular mass calculated from the experiment would be too low.
The mass measured at the end of the experiment

-\n example of the flask is drawn in Figure

Pinhole

below:

would be too low, and the molecular mass calculated from the experiment would be too high.
The mass measured at the end of the experiment

would be too low, and the molecular

mass calculated from the experiment would be too low.

4.

Which of the following changes to the flask would

NOT increase the accuracy of the experiment?

A. B.
Organic liquid

Rather than using a foil cap, use a permanent attachment with a small valve that can be opened
and shut manually.

Figure
'' 't:
t'
:l

C.
D

Use an electric heating mantle to encompass the flask, rather than a flame from a gas burner. Increase the size of the pore in the aluminum foil
cap.

I:e mass of the organic liquid can be used to determine - :,ecular mass of the unknown organic liquid. Because
:::ssure, temperature, and volume of the gas in the flask ,,: ,-,rlr &t the boiling point of the liquid, the moles of the
7

Use a spherical flask with less internal surface area.

5.

Which type of organic liquid could be measured MOST

accurately using the Dumas technique?

.n the flask can be determined using PV = nRT.

-J,h)'

should this experiment NOT be carried out with a :la:dc cap on the flask?

A.

less volatile organic liquid with a high molecular

MASS.

{, B. C.
D,

B. A highly volatile organic liquid with a high

molecular mass.

The plastic cap can expand during the experiment. The pore size in the plastic cap would be too small. The plastic cap does not allow air to flow back into the flask as it cools. The plastic cap can dissolve in the organic vapors.

C. A less volatile organic liquid with a low molecular

rnASS.

D. A highly volatile
molecular mass.

organic liquid with a low

r:ht

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6. Which of the following liquids would form the

DENSEST vapor upon heating?

Passage

Xll

(QuestionsTT - 84)

A. CH3CH2CH2OH B. CH3(CH)3CH2CI
C. D.
CH3(CH)aCH2Br
(CH3)3CCH2OH

Liquids have certain properties that provide an indirecr measure of their intermolecular forces. These properties are viscosity, surface tension, and vapor pressure. Table I lists the values for these properties for various selected solvents.

Viscosity
CHB13

Surface Tension
4.2 2.5 2.5 6.3 7.3
1.6

Pt"po. (@ 20'c)
3.9 ton
173 torr

2.0 x 1o-3
5.8

kg m.s

x l0-2 x l0-2

m2
J

CHCI3

x 10-4 kg x lo-4 kg

m.s

CCla
C3HsO3

9.7

x l0-2 J' x
10-3 J

^2
86.8 torr .00018 ton 18.2 ton

m.s

m2
a tt1 L

l.s7lg
m.s
1.0

Hzo
CoHr a

x lo-3 kg
m.s

x lO-2

m2

2.6

rc-4

kE

m.s

x 10-2 J n2
1

44 ton

Table

The definition of each physical property is listed belo*. The SI units for each value are indicated in Table I above. Viscosity:

resistance

to flow exhibited by

al0

liquids.
Surface tension: The amount of energy required to increasa the surface area of a liquid by a specified unit amount.

Vaporpressure: The pressure exerted by

a gas f,

through evaporation above the surface the liquid.

7

7.

Which of the following does NOT affect the

pressure above a liquid?

A. B. C. D.

Hydrogen bonding

Polarity Molecular mass

Surface area

78. For non-hydrogen-bonding liquids, as the v

increases, what is observed with the vapor pressure
surface tension?

A. B.

The vapor pressure increases, while the

tension shows no distinct trend.

The surface tension increases, while the r

pressure shows no distinct trend.

C. Both the surface tension and vapor pressure

lncreases.

D. Neither the surface tension nor the vapor

shows a distinct trend.

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P,

9.

What explains the higher vapor pressure for chloroform than for carbon tetrachloride?

84. Which set of

values

is the BEST estimate for

the

. B. C.

Carbon tetrachloride is more polar than chloroform.

surface tension, vapor pressure at20'C, and viscosity CH2C12?

of

D.

Carbon tetrachloride has more hydrogen bonding than chloroform. Carbon tetrachloride has greater surface tension than chloroform. Carbon tetrachloride has a greater molecular mass than chloroform.

Surface tension = 2.5

IO-2

-J
m2

Vapor pressure = 223 torr kg Viscosity = 4.7 x 1g-a m.s

B.

Surface tension = 4.9 x rc-2

Jm2

0. A piece
A

of paper when laid flat to maximize its surface area would remain floating on the surface of which solvent for the longest time?
Carbon tetrachloride

Vapor pressurc = 67.4 ton kg ViscositY =4.J x 10-4 m.s C

. B. C. D.

Surface tension = 4.9

x IO-2
kB

J m2

Chloroform
Hexane

Vapor pressure = 223 torr

Viscosity = 4.7 x 1g-Z D

Water

m.s
m2

Surface tension = 2.5

x rc-z -I

E1

Through a column of which solution would a metal ball

Vapor pressure = 67.4 torr

fall the fastest, if the only external force exerted on the

falling ball were gravity?

Viscosity =4.7 x

l0-2le

m.s

A. B. C. D. l.

Bromoform
Carbon tetrachloride

Glycerol
Water

Which compound is MOST likely to form beads on the

surface of the indicated solid?

A. A polar liquid with low

surface of a polar solid

surface tension on the surface tension on the

B. A polar liquid with high

surface of a polar solid

C. A polar liquid with

low surface tension on the

surface tension on the

surface of a non-polar solid

D. A polar liquid with high

surface of a non-polar solid

- \\hat is the more critical factor when

determining the P'upo, and viscosity of CCl4 compared to CHCI3?

--L. For both Puunor and viscosity: the molecular mass B. For both Puu'or and viscosity: the polarity

C. For Puapor: polarity; and for viscosity:

D

the

molecular mass For Pvapor: the molecular mass; and for viscosity::

polarity

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Passage

Xlll

(Questions 85 - 92)

87

How can the black color associated with graphite be

explained in terms of structure?

Allotropes are made of the same element, but have different physical properties. The difference in physical
properties can be attributed to the type of molecular bonding, as is seen with diamond and graphite, both of which are made of carbon. In diamond, all carbons have sp3-hybridization and the lattice is held together completely by sigma bonds. In graphite, all carbons have sp2-hybridization and their are sheets of conjugated carbon atoms in a network of sixmembered rings. The structure of a sheet of graphite is shown in Figure 1.

A. B. C. D.
8

Graphite has conjugation, so it absorbs all light. Graphite has conjugation, so it reflects all light.

Graphite has no conjugation, so light.

it

absorbs all

Graphite has no conjugation, so it reflects all lighr

8.

Which of the following materials is the best electrical

conductor?

A. B, C. D.
8

COO

Buckminster fullerene

ClZBuckminster fullerene
Diamond Graphite

9.

What are the bond angles found in graphite?

A. 90" B. 109.5' D.
Figure
1

c.

r20'
144"

Buckminster fullerene, buckyball, is also an allotrope of carbon. One example is C6g, which is a spheroidal structure made entirely of carbon atoms. Buckyball can be separated from other allotropes, such as C79 and ClZ, by sublimation. These allotropes have different physical properties than C6g due to different packing in their respective lattice structures. Because the molecules are spheroidal in nature, it can function like microscopic ball bearings, so buckyball is often used as a lubricant. The molecular mass is the most significant factor in the energy required to undergo a phase
change.
8

0.

Which of the following materials is LEAST likely

form an allotrope?

A. Argon B. Carbon C. Phosphorus D. Sulfur

91.
Which of the following three dimensional
MOST accurately depicts P4?
st

5.

A. p-p
it
be explained that diamond is more dense
Double bonds are longer than single bonds.

How can

than graphite?

A. B.
C

tlA
')'
P

B.

Layering in graphite allows atoms to get closer,

because they are in direct contact.

c.

D.p
il

Carbon atoms in diamond are smaller than carbon atoms in graphite.

\
2.

D.

Packing is closer in diamond's tetrahedral lattice

than graphite sheets.
9

,/t\n
has

Which of the following allotropes of carbon

GREATEST sublimation point at 0.010 atm.?

86.

How can the difference in melting point between

allotropes BEST be explained?

A. coo

. B. C. D.
A

The two have different polarities. The two have different molecular weights. The two have different interatomic bonding. The two have different electronegativities.

B'

co+

c. czo
Ctz

D.

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Questions

93 through 100 are NOT

based on

96
a

CHa has a lower boiling point than SiH4, due to:

descriptive passage.

93. If

a solution made by adding 0.10 moles KCI to 1.00 liters of water conducts electricity better than a solution

A. B. C. D.

its lower molecular mass.

its stronger ionic interactions.

its lower affinity entropy.
its increased hydrogen bonding.

made by adding 0.10 moles AgCl

water, then:

to

1.00 liters of

0.10 M KCl(aq) has greater osmotic pressure than 0.10 M AgCl(aq). 0.10 M KCl(aq) has the same osmotic pressure as 0.10 M AgCl(aq). 0.10 M KCI(aq) has lower osmotic pressure than 0.10 M AgCl(aq).
9

B. C. D.

7.

Which of the following is a property of a solid, under isobaric and isothermal conditions?

0.12

M KCI(aq)

has lower osmotic pressure than

0.10 M AgCl(aq).

A. B. C. D.

The ability to flow

An amorphous structure
Molecules that undergo displacement
Static dimensions

I -l

Which of the following phase change processes absorbs

the GREATEST amount of energy?

A. Evaporation B. Condensation C. Sublimation D. Deposition

98.

Water has a vapor pressure of 149.4 torr at 60"C. An unknown liquid is found to have a vapor pressure of 130.6 torr at 60"C. If the vapor pressure of water at room temperature is 22.65 ton, then at room
temperature, the vapor pressure of the unknown is:

A. 7.61 ton. B. 20.00 torr. C. 22.65 torc. D. 45.35 torr.

Given that the normal boiling point for Compound A is 121.0"C, and the enthalpy of vaporization is 33.26 kJ/mole, what would the boiling point of Compound A be in Running Springs, California (elevation 9,870 ft. and P316 = 603 torr)?

. B. c. D.
A

99.

A liquid is defined A

as:

115.0"C

133.3'C
131.4"C

151.0'C

. B. C. D.

having a definite shape and definite volume. having a definite shape and indefinite volume. having an indefinite shape and definite volume. having an indefinite shape and indefinite volume.

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10

0. Chloroform
HCCI3?

is a liquid at room temperature (roughly 20'C). Which set of physical constants is possible for

A. Boiling point: 88"C; melting point: 3l"C B. Boiling point: 18"C; melting point: -31"C C. Boiling point: 61'C; melting point: -64'C D. Boiling point: 32'C; melting point: 31'C

1.C 2.D 6.C 7.D 11. D 12. A 16. C 17. C 21. B 22. B 26. A 27. D 31. D 32. A 36. C 37. B 41. A 42. A 46. D 4t. C 51. A 52. C 56. B 57. D 61. D 62. A 66. C 61. B 71. D 72. A 76. C 77. D 81. B 82. D 86. B 87. A 91. B 92. D 96. A 97. D
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13. B 18. B

23. D 28. C 33. B 38. B 43. D 48. A 53. C 58. B 63. A 68. A 73. A 78. B 83. A 88. D 93. A 98. B

4.C 5.D 9.8 10.D 14. D 15. C 19. C 20. C 24. D 25. B 29. B 30. A 34. B 35. B 39. B 40. D 44. B 45. B 49. C 50. A 54. D 55. B 59. B 60. B 64. B 65. A 69. B 70. D 74. C 75. A 19. D 80. D 84. A 85. D 89. C 90. A 94..C 95. A 99. C 100. c

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YOU'RE THROUGH WITH PHA

Phases Passages Answers

1.

Choice C is correct. In freeze-drying, the ice in the frozen coffee is exposed to a reduced pressure environment where the water molecules in ihe ice sublime into a gas. The process of converting from a solid directly into a gas is known as sublimation, making choice C the best answer.

Choice D is correct. Because water is in the form the ice when it sublimes away from its frozen state, the temperature must be set so that the ice does not melt (into liquid). This means that the temperature must be less than 0"C. This eliminates choice A and B. The atmospheric pressure must be low enough to allow for sublimation, so 1 torr is better than 1 atm. The best answer is thus choice D, a temperature well below the normal freezing point of water and a pressure well below atmospheric pressure.
Choice B is correct. The goal of freeze-drying is to remove the water from the coffee solution. Any altemative to freeze-drying would lead to the same result. In the second choice, the water is distilled (as opposed to sublimed) away from the solution, so the residue left behind should be similar. The high temperatures required for distillation destroy the flavor of the coffee, however. So although distillation works well for dehydrating coffee in theory, freeze-drying works better in practice. The best answer is choice B. Choice C is correct. The temperature of a cloud can range from 0 to -10"C, according to the passage. To cool the cloud to a lower temperature, a substance must be introduced into it that is either cooler than that temperature or that reacts in an endothermic fashion. The only choice that meets either of these requirements is c-hoice C. It is stated in paragraph four of the passage that the sublimation point of CO2 is -78"C. Choice D is correct. Supercooled water is water that is cooled below its normal freezing point, but it remains a liquid. Water normally freezes at 0'C, so pure water at any temperature below this value is considered to be supercooled. Water at -10"C meets this description, making choice D the best choice. Choices B and C should
have been eliminated, because they are in the wrong phase.

Choice C is correct. Cloud-seeding involves turning pockets of water moisture in the air into ice crystals. The conversion of a liquid to a solid is referred to as fusion, making choice C the best answer. This answer can be determined by elimination of the wrong answers. The dry ice is sublimed in the process, but dry ice is carbon dioxide, not water. Choice D is correct. The boiling point of a substance is defined as the temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. This means that the boiling point of a solution is the greatest where the atmospheric pressure is the greatest. The greatest atmospheric pressure of these at the three locations is at sea level (an ocean port), which eliminates choices B and C. The mountains have the lowest atmospheric pressure of the three locations, so the boiling point is lowest in the mountains, making choice D the correct answer.

ft.

Choice D is correct. The critical point is point y, where the liquid-gas interface line terminates. Above this temperature and pressure, the material may not exist as a true liquid or true gas, and it is referred to as a superuitical fluid. It is no longer possible to distinguish between a liquid and a gas above the critical point. A

super-critical fluid exhibits properties of both a liquid and a gas, including the ability to flow and an amorphous nature. This makes choice D the best choice. Point x is referred to as the triple point, the point at rvhich all three phases may coexist.
Choice B is correct. Compound A is represented by the phase diagram in Figure 1. Figure 1 shows that at 298 K and 1.3 atm. (just over 1000 torr), Compound A exists as a liquid. After reducing the pressure from 1.3 atm. to 0.9 atm. (ust less than 700 torr), Compound A crosses into the gas phase (following the vertical line downward for the decrease in pressure). Therefore, the correct answer is B. Even if you are not certain from drawing lines on the diagram that it actually crosses into the gas phase, there is no answer choice saying that it undergoes no phase change and remains as a liquid. When reading graphs, it is often a good idea to use your answer sheet for fold the pages of the test to generate a reliable straight edge.
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Section VII Detailed Explanations

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Choice D is correct. Sublimation is the process by which a substance converts from the solid phase directly into the gaseous phase without passing through the liquid phase. At an appropriate pressure, any temperaturc below the triple point (in this case, 298 K) is adequate for sublimation of Compound B to occur, since under these conditions the compound has an interface between solid phase and the gas phase on the phase diagram. From the choices given, the only temperature above 298 K (25'C) is 100'C (373 K), which is choice D. At this temperature iublimation cannot occur, since the compound cannot exist in the solid state for any of the possible
pressures.

11.

Choice D is correct. At 1.0 atm. (760 torr) and 10"C (283 K), Compound A (Diagram I) is in the liquid phaseLooking at Figure 2 under the same conditions places Compound B in the solid phase. The question asks which, of the compounds is a gas (under the given conditions); and neither one is, so choice D is the best answer.

CompoundB exists as a solid .a,

--"'(y

Temperature

(K)

283

Temperature

(K)

zss

12. 13.

Choice A is correct. STP is 0"C and 1 atm. (273K and760 torr). Looking at Figure 2, at a temperaturc of 273 and a pressure of 760 totr (the perpendicular lines are already drawn in the passage), Compound B exists as a solid, so choice A is the best answer. Choice B is correct. The key to answering this question is to know that the lower right quadrant of th" $rq (at low pressure and high temperature) indicates the conditions under which the material exists as a g Evaporaiion is defined aJ the conversion from a liquid to a gas, so a vertical arrow down from the liquid regi to the gas region represents the isothermal liquid-to-gas phase change (evaporation). The correct Arrow arrow b, so the answer is choice B. solid at 250 K and,760 tori; and Compound A does have a triple point roughly equal to water (the triple poirt water is at 0"C). The only uncertainty is the relative densities of the solid and liquid phases. There is no p at which an increase in pressure at constant temperature converts the solid to a liquid. An increase in pressure increases the density of the material. This makes choice D the best choice.

1"4. ChoiceDiscorrect. CompoundAdoessublime al25'C(298K),if atapressurebelowT60tor;CompoundAi

15.

Choice C is correct. The graph plots temperature as a function of heat, while heat capacity describes heat temperature change. fhis-meani that the relative heat capacities for the three phases can be determined f the graph. From*Figure 1, we know that the solid phase heat capacity is proportional to 1 divided by slop! oi hne a. The liquid phase heat capacity is proportional to 1 divided by the slope of line c. The gt shows that slope u r itop" c, so the heat capacity of the solid phase is less than the heat capacity of 'Choi"" C is the best answer. it is given numerically in Table L that the heat capacity of liquid phase. liquid pnur" is twice the heat capacity of the gas phase. For the heat capacity of the liquid phase to be th; he;t capacity of the solid phase, the slopes of lines a and e would have to be equal. The slopes of I and e are not equal. Choice C is correct. Enthalpy is a measure of energy in the form of heat, so the heat added to the system is increase in enthalpy. fne enihalpy of fusion is represented by line segment b in Figure 1, and the enthalpl vaporization is repiesented by line segment d. The length of segment b is less than the length of segment choice C, which states that the AH1,rsi6r., is less than the AHruporiration/ is correct.
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Section VII Detailed ExPl

17.

Choice C is correct. Heat capacity is the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1'C (or 1 K)' It is observed that Compound Q heats to a higher temperature than Compound W when both are exposed to the same amount of heat; this means that Compound Q requires a smaller input of heat energy to reach the same increased temperature that Compound W reaches. Becairse less heat energy is required to raise the temperature of Compound Q by one increment, the heat capacity of Compound e is smaller than the heat capacity of Compound W, so choose C. Because no-phase change transpired for either Compor:nd e or Compound W, no conclusion can be drawn about their enthalpies of firsion. For this reason, choices B and D are not necessarily wrong, but they are not valid for the question. Choice B is correct. The heat required for this transformation is the sum of the heats for the three steps:

18.

IAHsteps

AHgas heating (frbm the boiling point to 10"C above the boiling point).
0.1 mole of Compound

AHliqrrid heating (from.10'C below the boiling point to the boiling point) + AHrupo.ization

The MW of Compound W is given in the passage as 100 grams per mole, so 10 grams of Compound W is equal to W. The heat capacities are given as Cfquid = I.0 call f..gand Cgas = 0.5 cal7r."6.

AHhq,rid = m.Ctquid.tr1= (10 S)(1.0 calT*."gX10"C) = 100 calories. AHvaporization = 30 kcalT-o1" (0.1 mole) = 3 kcal = 3000 calories. AHgas = m.Cgas.AT = (10 g)(0.5 cal7r."g;119'C) = 5o calories
AHtotul = 100 + 3000 + 50 = 3150 calories, so choice B is the best answer,
19"

Choice C is correct. Compound W has a lower boiling point than water (64"C for Compound W versus 100 .C for water), so it has a higJrer vaPor pressure than wateial all temperatures at which both compounds are liquids (temperatures lower than 64"C). This eliminates choice A. Theie is nothing mentioned about the melting point of Compound W or its heat of fusion, so choice B can be eliminated. Compoind W has a lower boiling poiif tnur, water, so it must be easier to vaporize than water, resulting in a lower heat of vaporization for CoLpound W than for water. Choice C is the best answer. Both Comporlnd W and water have a liquid phase heai capacity of 1.0. Choice D is therefore eliminated. Choice C is correct. From the graph in Figure 1 of the passage, we see that the phase changes are represented by segments b and d. It can be seen that the temperature t"maitrs constant during ihe phase .iung"r, ,o A i, tr,r". Melting (the process of going from solid phase to liquid phase) requires the #dition of heat, which makes it endothermic, so B is true also. After looking at the data given-in the passage for the heat capacities at different phases, we find that D is true. \A/hen going from the"solid phase to *r"!ur phase, heat is udd"d ut , constant rate, so the process must be endothermic, not exothermic. The false statem"ent is choice C.

l,"l

Choice B is correct. ]he slope of the line is defined as change in temperature over heat added. The heat capacity of a material is the heat added unit change in temperature. The two values are inversely _per proportional to one another, which can verified by comparing their ntritr. This makes the best answer choice B.

point (roughly 1.0 atm' and greater than 298 K). The two solid phases cannot coexist with the liquid ph"r" ?o, Material C at either triple point. The lower triple point is the intersection of the two solid phases ani the gas phase, while the uPper triple point is the intersection of solidg, liquid, and gas. Only Material T can have the two solid phases coexisting with the liquid phase, so choice B is the best ansi'er.

:3"

Choice D is correct. For Material C, the first triple point is the intersection of the gas, solid4, and solidg phases. This means that at temperatures below this point, the only possible forms in which Material C can exist are either the solidg or gas form. It is a true statement that solida may be sublimed into gas, so choice A is valid. Between the two triple points of Material C, the line segmenl-is the interface of sohdfi and gas. This means that at temperatures in this range, it is possible to convert gas into solidg, which is referred to as deposition. This makes statement B valid. Both of the phase diagrami shown have two triple points each, so statement C is valid. At the intersection of 1.0 atm. and273 K on the upper phase diagram 1tf," pnur" diagram of Compound T), the phase present is solid6, not solid4. This makes choice D^an untrue statement.

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Section VII Detailed Explanations

24.

Choice D is correct. Direct conversion refers to the direct interfacing of the two phases, so that the phases interconvert without first passing through an intermediate phase. For Material T, solidg may be converted directly into the liquid form at temperatures between the two triple points. This makes choice A valid. Material C, liquid may be converted directly into solidg at temperatures above the second triple point, solid4 may be converted directly into the gas form at temperatures below the lower triple point. This ma choices B and C valid. To convert solid4 into gas for Compound T, the conversion must pass through ei liquid or solidg. Direct conversion is nof possible; choice D is the best answer. Choice B is correct. For Material T, solid4 and gas cannot coexist; and for Material C, solid4 and liquid coexist. The only phase that can coexist with the other three phases in both Material T and Material C solidg. Pick choice B for optimal satisfaction.

25.

26.

Choice A is correct. The two solids, in order to belong to the same compound, must have the same a composition. Therefore, they must both have the same molecular mass. This eliminates choice C. connectivity implies different sigma bonds, which identifies structural isomers, not the same com Different chiral centers describes stereoisomers, not different solid phases. The best way to explain d solids is to say that they form different lattice structures. Examples are calcium carbonate and sulfur, w each have different solid forms that are stable under different conditions. The best answer is choice A.
Choice D is correct. For Material T, when the pressure is increased at298K, the phase converts from solidg solid4. The increase in pressure compacts the solid, so the denser solid phase is solid4. Statement I therefore invalid. For Material C, heating solid4 converts it into solidg, so the conversion from solid4 i solidg must be endothermic (heat-consuming). Statement II is therefore valid. For Material T, there is interconversion between solid4 and the gas phase, so deposition of gas into solid4 is not possible. This statement III valid. Only statements II and III are valid, making choice D the best answer.

27.

28.

Choice C is correct. The deformation of a solid can be associated with the change of the solid phase solid4 into solidg. At 1.0 atm., the solid4 and solidg forms of Material T do not intersect, while they do Material C. Only Material C shows deformation of the solid phase with temperature change at 1.0 atm.
makes choice C the best answer.

29.

Choice B is correct. The solution with the greatest mole fraction of methanol has the highest vapor pressure methanol. Methanol has the lower molecular mass between ethanol and methanol, so Beaker I have moles of methanol than ethanol. This means that Beaker I will exhibit a higher vapor pressure due methanol than Beaker III. Because the density of methanol is greater than the density of ethanol, Beaker with equal volume quaniities of methanol and ethanol has more methanol by mass than ethanol by mass. mole fraction of methanol in Beaker II is even greater than the mole fraction of ethanol in Beaker I. highest vapor pressure of methanol is therefore above Beaker II. Pick choice B. Choice A is correct. As the temperature of the solution increases, the energy of the system increases, so that amount of evaporating liquid increases. This means that both the vapor pressure of ethanol and of increase, resulting in an increase in the total vapor pressure as well. The best answer is choice A. Choice D is correct. Over time, both ethanol and methanol evaporate from the solution. Because methanol a higher pure vapor pressure than ethanol (this can be concluded from the lower boiling point associated methanol), it is evapbrating faster than ethanol. This means that the solution is losing methanol faster it is losing ethanol. The remaining solution is thus growing rich in ethanol. This eliminates choice A and Because ethanol has a lower vapor pressure than methanol, the rate of vaporization decreases as the fraction of methanol decreases. Choice D is the best answer. Choice A is correct. As more propanol is added to the mixtures of both methanol and propanol, and of and propanol, the vapor pressure decreases, as seen with the reduced vapor pressure associated with addition of 20 mL propanol. The reduced mixed vapor pressure shows that propanol has a lower pure pressure than both methanol and ethanol. This makes choice A the best answer. The relative vaPor of pure samples of the three alcohols is Pmslhanol ) Pethanol ) Ppropanot, which can be deduced from passage and the information in this question.
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Section VII Detailed

JJ.

Choice B is correct. Beaker I has equal amounts of methanol and ethanol by mass. Because methanol has a lower molecular mass than ethanol, the number of moles of methanol is greiter than the number of moles of ethanol. If the moles of ethanol were equal to the moles of methanol, then ihe total vapor pressure would be an average of the two pure vapor pressures (30.0 torr and 40.0 torr), which is 35.0 torr. Due to the excess methanol in the mixture, the vapor pressure is greater than 35.0 torr. It can be no higher than pure methanol, with a vapor pressure of 40'0 torr. This means that the vapor pressure above Beaker I is between 35.0 and 40.0 torr. The best answer is choice B. Choice B is correct. The solution richest in methanol has the greatest vapor pressure. The greatest mole fraction of methanol is found in Beaker II, so at equal temperatures, the vapor piessnr" above Beaker II is the greatest. The mole fraction of methanol is greater in Beaker I than in Beaker III, so at equal temperatures, the vaPor pressure is given by, Prrupo. Beaker II > Pvapor Beaker I > Pvapor Beaker III. To increase the vapor pressure above the solution, the temperiture must be incieased, so for the'Beaker III solution to exert the same vapor pressure as the Beaker II solution, the temperature of the solution in Beaker III must be increased. This means that the temperature of the solution in Beaker III must be greatest, if the vapor pressures above all three beakers were equal. This eliminates all of the choices except B.
Choice B is correct. Because the methanol has a higher vapor pressure than ethanol, the vapor above Beaker I is richer in methanol than the solution in Beaker I. If this vapor were collected and added to a new beaker, then the solution in the new beaker would have a higher mole fraction of methanol than the Beaker I solution. This means that the vapor pressure of methanol above the new beaker is even greater than above Beaker I, while the vapor Pressure of ethanol above the new beaker is less than above Beaker I. The total vapor pressure above the new beaker is greater than the total vapor pressure above Beaker I, because the solution in the new beaker is richer in methanol, which vaporizes more easily than ethanol. The best answer is choice B.

Choice C is correct. The molecular mass of 2-propanol is 60 g/mole. The molecular mass of acetophenone is 120 g/mole. The mixture is made with equal parts of the two components by mass. Because the mass of acetophenone is twice that of 2-propanol, there are twice as many moles of 2-propanol as acetophenone. The pure vapor Pressure of 2-propanol is normally four times that of pure acetophenone (as given in the chart), so acetophenone. The correct answer is therefore choice C. To solve for the vapor piess.tte exactly, you must first solve for the mole fraction of 2-ptopanol, because the vapor pretr.tie of Z-ptopanol'depends on it. PcHscH(oFI)CHs = (XcHscH(oH)CH)(Ppure CH3CH(oH)CH3). The mole fraction of 2-propinol is:
1 mole

the mixture should show both effects in that the vapor pressure of 2-propanol iJ eight times that of

l mole 2-propanol 2-propanol + 0.5 mole acetophenone

7 1.5=2 3
1/3ez

This means that the Pr_upo. of 2-propanolis2/g (48 torr) =32torc, and the p.,upo, of acetophenone is torr) = 4 torr. You should pick C for best results.

60

Choice B is correct. Acetophenone is 50%by mass of the 120 grams. The mass of acetophenone is (0.5)(120 g) = g. The MW of acetophenone can be calculated by adding up the atomic weights of the formula given in the

problem:

C=128/rnol, H=18lmo;and O=L68/rnol'8(128/moi=968/molandS(18lmoD=88/mol

96 + 8 + 16

=120i/r.,.ol...

moles of acetophenone = 60 grams 11mole; = 0.50 moles I20 g

Choose B for best results. Of course, the 60 grams is given in the passage, and the 120 is given in Table 1.
-rtlri.

Choice B is correct. At reduced pressure (500 torr is less than 1 atm.), the boiling point is reduced to a value less than the normal boiling point. The normal boiling point of acetophenone is-liited in the chart as 203"C, so choices A and C are eliminated. Because boiling point is defined as the temperature at which vapor pressure equals atmospheric pressure, a reduced atmospheric temperature makes it easier to reach the Ubiting point. The best answer is choice B.

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Section VII Detailed Explanations

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Choice B is correct. The equation for the mole fraction of acetophenone

is:

XacetoPhenor," =

TTH{S'
molestotai

mole The total number of moles in the mixture is the sum of the moles of acetophenone and 2-propanol. The fraction of acetophenone is:
1

0.5 mole acetophenone mole 2-propanol + 0.5 mole acetophenone

1"5

0.5_1
3

Choice B is the best answer.

40.

at Choice D is correct. The vapor pressure of pure acetophenone is less than the vapor pressure of 2-propanol of acetophenone. This means that 2-propanol evaporates faster than all temperatures below the boiling point that acetophenone. With each succesiive aliquot, there i"s a larger percentage of acetophenone. This means above Aliquot io tnut above Aliquot 5. This eliminates choices B the mole fraction of acetophenone is gr"ui", pressure abole and C. Because Aliquot 5 contains a greater percentage of 2-propanol, there is a greater vapor is answer D. Aliquot 5 than above Aliquot 10. The correct choice

41.

more Choice A is correct. Because 2-propanol has a lower boiling point than acetophenone, it evaporates of 2-propanol in the original solution reduces over timequickly than acetophenone, and thusihe mole fraction As the mole fraction of 2-propanol lessens, the mole fraction of acetophenone increases, and thus the vapor if one mole pressure of acetopheno.," io.."uses. The sum of the two mole fractions is equal to 1.0 (a constant), so As a point of interest, as the vapor Pressure due to acetophenone iraction decrease-s, the other must increase. increases, the vapor pressure due to 2-propanol decreases. Pick A to reach correctness nirvana.

L'

of 1Choice A is correct. Because the mole fraction of 2-propanol increases with the addition of 60 grams The sum of the mole fractions of the components in the propanol, the mole fraction of acetophenone is reduced. in must equal L.0 (i.e., the sum of the parts is the whole). A lower mole fraction of acetophenone results ^i*trr" correct choice is A. a reduction in ttre vapor pressure of acetophenone. The

43.

for 2-propancfl Choice D is correct. Because the vapor pressure above the original mixture is initially 32 torr in the ,ripor phase (and thus Aliquot 1) relative to tlrc and 4 torr for acetophenone, the amount of 2-propanol totalvapor i"g2/zi.This fractionred.uces p8/g=L-7/g = 1-.111 =.889. Thepercentage of 2-propanoli A,ori therefore 88.9"/o, making the percentage of acetophenone 11.1%. Given this, choose D. I:1: choice C would Choice because the mole fractioir of 2-propanol is greaterihan the mole fraction of acetophenone. beciause the pure vapor pressure of 2-propanol is four times that true if the mole fractions *"r" "qnut, acetophenone. This eliminates choices A, B, and C'

44.

interactions in Choice B is correct. A positive deviation from Raoult's ideal behavior is due to unfavorable repulsive interactions that have a positive AH value' B":: solution phase. Unfavtrable interactions are of the dissolvi the material dissolves into solution, the AG for solvation must be negative. The favorability of signs for the thermodynamic values is choice B' Fn process is thus due to entropy. The correct combination ihe second paragraph of the passage, a positive AH value can be inferred.

45.

in the intermo Choice B is correct. The largest negative deviation would involve the greatest increase exhibit hydrogen bonding (it does not. have an active hyd forces. Acetone in solution 6y itsef cannot using one of its lone pair Once ethanol has been added to the acetone, the acetonl .utt fot* hydrogen bonds due to hydrogen bonding results in stronger Tl"]i:::i:,i the carbonyl oxygen. The increased attraction liquid phase ani-thrls a reduction in the vapor pr"rr.rtu. - Choose B for blissful feedback. Carbon tetrachl n&u.t", and cyclohexene are essentially non-polar and exhibit no hydrogen bonding'

46.

above the Choice D is correct. From aS}"hby moles mixture of the two liquids, the vapor due to methanol and placed into the second flask, the conde flask is 87 /@Z + 29). When the vapor is condensed, collected, than I solution js 7s%methanol by moles. The vapor pressure of methanol above the second flask is greater the star you want to.O:, because methanol u,ruporui", more readily tnu.t butanol evaporates. T b" !-1:* and This question present's the principle behind fractional disiillation. By continuously condensing lower boiling point' distiling, the distillate becornes richer with regard to the component with the
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Section VII Detailed

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background knowledge is needed. The best answer is choice C.

48.

Choice C is correct. Positive deviations are associated with a mixture that generates a vapor pressure greater than expected according to Raoult's law. A positive deviation is due toleduced intermollcular foices in solution, which can be correlated with repulsion. Because mixing the liquids results in repulsion (which can be thought of as bond-breaking), the dilution endothermic, so AH is positive. This is statedin the passage, so no

Choice A is correct. The vapor pressure is calculated by multiplying the mole fraction of Component B by its pure vapor Pressure. The mole fraction of Component B is 0.40 and its pure vapor pressure is 75 torr. The math is
as follows:
0.40 x75 torc =2

Sx 75 torr = 2

xlitorr

= 30 torr

The best answer is choice A. The answer must be less than 75 (the vapor pressure of pure Component B), so choices C and D are eliminated.
49.

Choice C is correct. Compound D has a higher pure vapor pressure than Compound C (as shown in the graph by the higher vapor pressure for pure Compound D than pure Compound C), so Compound D evapotui"s -otu readily. This must be read from the second graph. The vapor pressure when the moleJraction of Compound D is equal to 1.0 is greater than the vapor pressure when the mole fraction of Compound C is 1.0. Therefore, as Compound D evaporates, Compound C does not evaporate as readily, and so the solution loses Compound D more readily than it loses Compound C. With time, the solution becomes enriched in Compound C from a mole percent perspective. The mole fraction of Compound C increases while the mole fraction of Compound D decreases. This is choice C. With evaporation, the moles of both Compound C and Compound D deciease, but the question asks for the mole fraction, not moles. The sum of the mole fractions must alwlys be 1.0.

Choice A is correct. A drastic negative deviation results in a sharp drop in the vapor pressure. This implies that more than just an increase in intermolecular forces has transpired. A sharp drop ilvapor pressure can be attributed to dimerization between the molecules (which is caused by a bond-forming reaition;. This is best explained by choice A. Changes in polarity would cause only minor deviations in vapor pressure, not major ones/ so choices C and D should have been eliminated. The product has a greater molecular mass than the original molecules, making it harder to vaporize than the original molecules.

:1.

Choice A is correct. Because the Ps11s1.61 exceeds the Pes6e1ig, the applied pressure forces the water to flow from the salt solution (the more concentrated solution) across the semipermeable membrane (to the less concenttated solution). This is because the net force is from the solution to the pure water cell. This makes both choice C and choice D invalid. As water leaves the aqueous magnesium chloride solution, the MgCl2 concentration increases, because the volume of water is decreasing, while the moles of salt are remaining constant. This makes choice A the best answer. Choice C is correct. The solution with the greatest osmotic pressure is the solution with the greatest total ion concentration. The greatest total ion concentration results from the highest combination of molarity (salt concentration) and ionizability (i). Choice A yields a total ion concentration of 0.4 molar, because the salt solution is 0.20 molar, and there are 2 ions per NaCl salt molecule. Choice B yields a total ion concentration of 0.6 molar, because the salt solution is 0.30 molar, and there are 2 ions per KCI salt molecule. Choice C is the best choice, because the salt solution is 0.25 molar and there are 3 ions per salt molecule. This results in 0.75 molar solution in total ion impurities, assuming the salt is fully soluble. The solubility products are listed to show that the salts are either fulty soluble or partially soluble. Choices A, B, and C all dissolve completely, because their solubility product, and therefore their molar solubility, are greater than 1.0. Answer choice D is tempting, because if you blindly considered the concentration listed, you would get the largest value. But for iead chloride D (PbCl2), the solubility product is 1.6 x 10-5 M3, so the molar solubility is 1.6 i 10-2 M.

Molar solubility

5eP
4

This means that not all of the lead chloride solid added to the water dissolves. According to the molar solubility, the molarity of the ions in fully saturated aqueous lead chloride is 0.048 M. For this reason, lead chloride is eliminated from the answer choices. Choice C is the best answer choice.
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Section VII Detailed Dxplanations

53.

Choice C is correct. This question is asking about dilution, for which one normally uses the equation M1V1 = MZYZ. Because the osmotic pressure of the solution decreases as the volume of solvent (and thus solution) increases, the equation can be rewritten as: n1V1 = IE2V2. The osmotic pressure of the solution decreases, because the salt concentration decreases (and osmotic pressure depends on the molarity of the solution). If the mathematical approach does not make sense, it should intuitively make sense that decreasing the solution concentration would reduce the osmotic pressure, because osmotic pressure is directly proportional to molarity (r = MiRT). To reduce the osmotic pressure to 0.4 times its original value, the concentration must be reduced to 0.4 times its original value, and thus the volume must increase by a factor of 1.0 /0.+ = 2.5. The final volume of solution should be 250 mL. For the final volume to equal 250 mL, 150 mL of water must be added to the inirial 100 mL of solution. The calculation is as follows: n1V1

= n2V2,makingYz = '

ut{g) '\"zl

ThusV2 = lmm1-(25-at40=) = 250mr. \10 atm.

/

Again, 250 mL is the final volume, so 150 mL water must be added to the original 100 mL of brine solution to readr a total volume of 250 mL. This is choice C.
54.

Choice D is correct. To stop osmosis, the extemal pressure must equal the osmotic pressure. The osmotic (n) can be calculated using the equation n = MiRT (as presented in the passage). The osmotic pressure is thus:
m

= 1.0 mole L-1 x 2 ions x 0.0821 L atm. mole-l K-1 x 304 K = 2 x25 atm. = 50 atm, choice D

55.

Choice B is correct. In desalination, applied extemal pressure forces the flow of water from the cell of hi concentration to the cell of lower concentration. Once the applied pressure is reduced, nature takes over and flow of water reverses so that it flows from the cell of lower concentration to the cell of higher concentra This is best stated in answer choice B.

5b.

Choice B is correct. Water can be extracted from salt water by exploiting the other colligative properties the solution. Water could be distilled away (boiled off and then recondensed). It can also be frozen aw although the freezing point of the salt water is lower than the freezing point of pure water. This makes
B the best answer.

3/.

Choice D is correct. The aqueous salt solution in Flask #3 has the highest concentration of all of the because NaCl has a lower molecular mass than KCl, and Flask #3 has the greatest mass of solute per least of solvent. Because the freezing point is depressed by the addition of solute, the freezing point is the lowest the most concentrated solution, which is the one in Flask #3. As the ice freezes out of the solution, it f relatively pure (salt-free); thus, as ice freezes from the solution, the solution becomes more concentrated. the solution becomes more concentrated, the freezing point is lowered even further, so choice D is correct.

58.

Choice B is correct. The presence of a solute, in addition to lowering the freezing point, also elevates boiling point of a solvent. This means that the most concentrated salt solution is associated with the hi boiling point. AT = kbim, so the salt of choice once again is NaCl (since it has the smallest mass), and solution we want is the one with the largest molality. The most concentrated NaCl solution is the one in #3 (most grams and least volume). Choice B is the correct answer. Choice B is correct. The solutions in Flask #1 and Flask #4 look comparable, but because KCI has a molecular mass, there are more moles of salt in Flask #1 than Flask #4. This means that the solution in #1 has more ions than the solution in Flask # 4, so the solution in Flask #L has a higher electrical conducti Choice A is a valid statement. The solution in Flask #2 has more solute particles than the solution in Flask so the solution in Flask #2 has less water vapor escaping. This results in a lower vapor pressure, so choice an invalid statement, and thus the best answer. The solution in Flask #3 has more solute particles than solution in Flask # 6. Osmotic pressure (n) is calculated using n = MiRT, so the solution in Flask #3 has a hi osmotic pressure than the solution in Flask # 6. Choice C is a valid statement. The solution in Flask # 6 higher concentration of KCI than the solution in Flask # 4, so the solution in Flask # 6 has a more dep (lower) freezing point. The solution in Flask # 4 has a higher fueezing point, so choice D is a valid state

59.

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Section Vtr Detailed Dx

50'

:n3,.'lj;fill",TJffi':;::,?,:'*aT};:1,:fl:i:11,,H"*;i#:#ation
b1'
Choice D is correct' To of the salt'

Choice B is correct' The lowest boiling point is associated with the sorution that has the smallest solute ions in solution' All of number of the salts"d^issociate ; fi;"r*'"ltrrrror,, so the smalrest product of molality and ionizability (m x i.value) "o-pt"tury yields tn"-r-uil"r; ultimately results in the iowest uortrng p"i"t riti* ,orrrrior,r. "or.,";;t*ir" "r solute ions in solution. This Th" lr;"rt-";ncentration of the choices is 0,2 m and ,-urru,ir va,ue or the

il:Tfl"IT:'fft?:',:Xil':i;:::f;tLX*,,il:11;',::\#:;r#i$?X"?'ft:*:ff*:i;:il1"JnTil?
(4 g

'"11:'*g noll

determt"",jl,"^:ij t-::"i^F.!rint
a

of a solution, the morarity of rhe solution, the i value constant of the sorvent must be know -enression

molality

solute)(l mole solute'1,

59.4

g solute

,. ."i::1}ilT:"*:f:
n^r

.1

kg

solvent

-rH.

point requires first calculating the tueezingpoinr "* depression value, which can be

40 mole solute = 40 mole solute 58.4 k;;;;"t 6 solvent

0.67

AT = krim = (1.86 'C / molat)2(0.62 molal) = 1.86 x 1.34"C > 1.86.C

ffinggsfil'":1j::.::::LT,""l^,:#fr"ii:iilg,',".#sli:il"",T:lilj1s

case

0.c) minus the rreezing

Tbp = Tnbp - AT = 0 - i.g6 _1*g6,so T6O < _1.g6 .C The freezing point of the solution is lower than -1.86 "C and only choice D is ress than -1.g6.C, so choice D best answer. is the

6:'

decreases with increasing concentrutio.,, because the addition of Jolute

Choice A is correct' As more solute is added to the solution, the concentration increases. The freezing point -ur.*jJoi"" e ,r,u best answer.- rr," a"r",rity is assumed to increase, it't;;";t", a solutiJn's mass without significantly affecting its volume.

;::"i::T'l,Tf":::',ffi'":r1ff:#:,l'#";i';,"';;x":.xltr*irtl'i,llil',o,r +r e", ,n"l,,gh*,

determining the normal

A is correct' The Presence of a solute depresses (lowers) the freezing concentrated solution of silt point of a sorvent, so the most water must have ui" r"*"" r.e:zlng point. inii*, B and D are eliminated, because the volume of waLel- is in choices A and c, ;;;;;;"" equar mass sart quantiries. This answers A and C as possibilities' reaves AT = kfim, hence il* ,"it .gjt"l -ith the lirgeri *J"riry (m) has the greatest temperature depression' The greatest temperature depression results Iarger number of mt'les trtu'' rtr-i""u"r" N"cr has a'lower molecurarin the lowest freezing point. NaCl has a mass than Kil, and both NaCr and KCI

choice

would normally be expected, so the freezing point is expected' This makes choice A correct, so chJice A ir

," this experiment is the difference in *"n"tn", *," *,"r_oirr"t", is "i1y" a few degrees otr oy thermomerer throushout the experim;;;;# or nor. Rv rrcino +1o ..*^ ffiff;ilH? _T::lr,:.:i:"r:1", ":::il:T;#J;tj,l :":,T, *fl:il,&ji."uil ;XT"*JX",.,,*" Choice A is correct' If the impurity dissociates into two particles,
many impurities as J"pi*r"a by twice ,r* that wouid normally be "*r"^, t";;?oj"u ro,. a brighter tomorrow.
then there are twice as

fr"";;-;;;";.

't'h" i*;";;;

ffi

Choice C is correct' 0 seconds up to 160 seconds, the temperature changes by an average seconds' From 180 seconds up -ItT of 0.4 "C per20 until thi experiment is terminatei,-th^e ,"*p"r""*r""'.hur,g", by an average of 0.9 "C per 20 seconds' It was betieen the tZ0-second mark ur,J *,u 1g0-second change was not one these two -urt ilu, the rate of temperature 'oatt'e"'--*".urrr" the rate of increase changed, r, the graph corresponding to tn" J"t" *."rd show i"ir""tirr^, point bJtween "ur", u" assumed that the srope of the r}oThis means that ihe meliing p"i.t;"r;;Jd "r, rorr,"*h".";;;;;; these two marks, which ur.,a lg'-second marks. during the third minute or means thar it occurred

ihl er.peri*""i.

The best answer is choice C.

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Section VII Detaited Explanations

67.

Choice B is correct. In the proposed experiment, the mixture is observed as it cools. Because the temperature decreases as it is observed on"i ti*", choices A and C (which show an increase in temperature over time) are eliminated. The curve for cooling should be the inverse of the curve observed with cyclohexanol in the menthol experiment, so the best choice is answer B. Choice D is incorrect, because it shows a relatively flat line to starl foliowed by a rapid temperature change during the phase change process. As seen with heating curves for pure substances, the tlmperaiure change during a phase change process should be zero. The curves representing the cooling of a pure compound 'oursns one with solute impurities is drawn below. Notice the similarities betwem the two graphs in terms of slope changes.

Graph of solvent with imPuritY

a.)

Graph of solvent without imPuritY

qJ

ti

tr
tr q)

(g

ti 0.) O.
0l

A.

ti
Time Time

68.

Choice A is correct. The same mass of camphor was added to Test tube #1 as the mass of menthol that w added to Test tube #2. Because menthol has a larger molecular mass, the moles of camphor added are grea than the moles of menthol added. This means that the molality of camphor is greater than the molality menthol, thus eliminating choices B and C. The freezingpoint for the camphor solution is somewhere betr 17.L"C and17.8"C, accoiding to the data in Table 1. The freezing point of the menthol solution is 17 according to the graph, so the freezing point for the camphor solution is less than the freezing point for menthol solution. This makes choice A correct. Choice B is correct. Using twice as much solvent as was used in the menthol experiment would result in solution with half the molality of the menthol solution in the experiment. This results in a AT value (decrea in freezing point) that is half as large as the AT from the experiment. The freezing point still drops from normal frle"itg point of 22.6'C (eliminating choice A), but not by as much as what was observed in experiment. TIiu ft""ring point is greater than 17.8 'C, thus eliminating choices C and D. The only choice isinswer B. The observed AT inihe experiment was22.6 - 77.8 = 4.8. The observed AT, if 20.000 gramsr cyclohexanol were used instead of 10.000 gtams, would be 2.4. The freezing point would therefore be 22.6 - 2-4 20.2'C. Either way, pick B. Choice D is correct. The solution shows a decrease in freezing point as impurities are added to solutiorL choices A and C are eliminated. With impurities present, the lattice cannot form as easily, because impurities can interfere with the lattice structure as it grows, and the impurities attract the m retiining them in the solution phase. The best answer is choice D.

69.

70.

71.

Choice D is correct. As is stated in the first paragraph of the passage, organic vapors dissolve rubber plastic, so the cap carurot be made of these substances. The best answer is choice D. The plastic cap may exl durlng the expeiiment, but that would not necessarily harm the results. Choice A is good, but r] is n9J the urrr*Jr. The pore size is not too small, as long as vapor can pass through the pore, so choice B is elimi Air flow is in both directions, so choice C is eliminated.
Choice A is correct. The molecular mass is measured in terms of grams per mole. This means that mass (m) be in the numerator of the calculation. Because the mass (m) is in their denominator, rather than n choices C and D are eliminated. From the equation PV = nRT, the moles (n) equal PV divided by RT' 1/r', = rn * RT7py, choice A' meu:rs that the inverse (1/r.,) equals RT/pV. The molecular mass is m x

72.

/5.

Choice A is correct. If not all of the organic liquid had vaporized, then there would be excess liquid ren in the flask at the end of the condensin! step, so the mass of liquid in the flask would be too high. This result in a calculated mass that was also too high. The correct answer is choice A.
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Section VII Detailed

74.

Choice C is correct. For choice A, a permanent cap that can be opened and closed would allow for the flask to be that no vapor could escape while the flask cools. A closed system is more stable than an open system. Choice A would make the experiment more accurate. For choice B, the electric heating mantle1rorld disiribute the heat more uniformly around the flask than a flame. This would allow for even heiting and a homogeneous mixture, making the measurement more accurate. For choice C, an increased pore size would make the"system more open and thus allow more vapor to escape as the system cools back down. This would result in a loss in the moles of gas and consequently, the measurement would notbe more accurate. Pick choice C for happiness and correctness on this particular question. For choice D, the more spherical the shape of the flask, the less heat that is lost to the environment. A spherical container offers the smallest amount of surface area per unit volume (of any container shape), and therefore the least area through which the heat is lost. The less heat that can be lost, the more accurate the measurement of temperature is, and thus the more accurate the experiment.
s_ealed, so

75.

Choice A is correct. The organic liquid that has the smallest measurement error is the one that doesn't readily evaporate from the flask during the final massing. The organic liquid should condense completely back to its liquid form at room temperature. This is a characteristic associated with a less volatile liquid (a liquid with a high boiling point). This eliminates choices B and D. To minimize error, the molecular miss should be high, so that any measurement error in the experiment would be small relative to the actual mass of the organic compound. Choice A is the best answer.

76.

Choice C is correct. densest vapor forms from the liquid with the greatest molecular mass. All gases at -The standard conditions have roughly the same molar volume, so the greatest mass per voiume is founJ in the compound with the greatest molar mass. The molecular mass of propanol (choice A) is 50 grams per mole, the molecular mass of chloropentane (choice B) is 106.5 grams per mole, the molecular mass of biornohexane (choice C) is 165 grams per mole, and the molecular mass of 2,2-dirnethylpropanol (choice D) is 88 grams per mole. Choice C has the greatest molecular mass.

T.

Choice D is correct-. The vapor pressure above a liquid depends on intermolecular forces within the liquid and the mass of the molecule. Hydrogen bonding increases the intermolecular forces, and thus lowers the amount that vaporizes. As hydrogen bonding increases, the vapor pressure decreases, so choice A is eliminated. Polarity increases the intermolecular forces, thereby lowering the amount that vaporizes. As the polarity of the molecule increases, the vapor pressure decreases, so choice B is eliminated. As the molecular mass increases for a compound, the energ'y required to convert the molecule into its gaseous form increases. The vapor pressure thus decreases as the molecular mass of the compound increases, so choice C is eliminated. As the surface area increases, the amount of vapor formed is greater, but the area over which it is distributed is also greater. The result is that the amount of vapor striking a unit area (pressure) does not change. The surface arei of a liquid affects the rate at which it evaporates away, but it does not affect the vapor pressure above the liquid, so
choice D is the best answer.

*!'

Choice B is correct. For the non-hydrogen bonding liquids in Table 1 (comprising all of the liquids except glycerol and water) the sequence of relative viscosities is: CHBr3 > CCl4 > CHCI3 > COlts.1+. For ihe nonhydrogen bonding liquids in Table 1 the sequence of relative surface tensions is: CHBr3 > CCl4 = CHCI3 > C6H1.4, but the trend in the vapor pressure is: CHCI3 > CCla > CoHr+ > CHBr3. Surface tension follows roughly the same trend as viscosity, but the vapor pressure deviates from the trend. It is an inverse trend, except for the hexane, which means that it shows no distinct trend. Staying within the parameters of the
answer choices, the best answer is choice B.

Choice B is correct. Gravity is the same in all of the trials, so the ball that falls fastest, is the one in the solution where there is the least resistance to flow. This is observed in the solution with the lowest viscosity. According to Table 1, carbon tetrachloride has the lowest viscosity of all the choices. The correct answer is
choice B.

Itl|u

Choice D is correct. The piece of paper stays atop the solvent with the greatest surface tension (even after it has absorbed solvent). This is assuming that the density of the paper is greater than that of all of the solvent choices. Of those choices, the solvent with the greatest surface tension is water. The best answer is choice D.
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Section VII Detailed Explanations

81.

Choice D is correct. The lower vapor pressure of carbon tetrachloride compared to chloroform results from less carbon tetrachloride vaporizing than chloroform. Carbon tetrachloride is non-polar, so it cannot be more polar than chloroform (which is a polar solvent), eliminating choice A. Neither carbon tetrachloride nor chloroform form any hydrogen bonds, so choice B is eliminated. According to Table 1, carbon tetrachloride and chloroform have the same surface tension, so choice C is eliminated. Carbon tetrachloride does have a greater molecular mass than chloroform, so it requires more energy to vaporize than chloroform. This results in a lower vaPor pressure for carbon tetrachloride. The best answer is choice D. Choice D is correct. Beads form when a compound has a high surface tensiory because its molecules are highly attracted to one another. This eliminates choices A and C. Beading is most exaggerated when the surface on which the bead sits has different properties than the beading liquid, so there is little or no attractive force between the liquid (beading solvent) and the surface. The best answer is choice D, where the solvent is polar and the surface is non-polar. It may help to think of water beads that form when water is dropped on wax paper. Choice A is correct. According to thb data in Table 1, the vapor pressure is less for carbon tetrachloride than for chloroform, while the viscosity is greater for carbon tetrachloride than for chloroform. Chloroform is polar, and carbon tetrachloride is non-polar, so the non-polar compound has both the lower vapor pressure and greate viscosity, both of which are normally associated with stronger intermolecular forces. This deviation can be attributed to the greater molecular mass associated with carbon tetrachloride than with chloroform. In tln case of carbon tetrachloride compared to chloroform, the molecular mass is more important than polarity in determining both the vapor pressure and viscosity. The best answer is choice A. Picking A should give ym much happiness, extreme joy and deep satisfaction in your soul. If not, it should at least give you a point on
exam.

82.

83.

84.

Choice A is correct. To determine the physical properties of dichloromethane (CH2C|), it must be com to chloroform and carbon tetrachloride (the other chlorohydrocarbons in Table 1). The molecular mass carbon tetrachloride is greater than the molecular mass of chloroform, which is greater than the mass dichloromethane. Because dichloromethane is lightest, it has the highest vapor Pressure (and under vaporization to the greatest extent), which makes the vapor pressure greater than 173 torr. This elimina choices B and D, which are invalid. The surface tension should be so*e rriln" aronttd 2.5 x 16-2 l per m2, maki choice A the best answer. To confirm that choice A is best, the viscosity of dichloromethane should be a v
just trnder 5.8 x 10-4 kg per m.s.

85.

Choice D is correct. The densily of a material depends on the closeness of the particles of which it is This makes choice D the best answer. Choice A is eliminated, because double bonds are shorter than bonds. Because diamond is denser than graphite, atoms are closer in diamond, so despite the fact that atoms touch and there exists layering in graphite, choice B does not explain why diamond is denser th graphite. Carbon atoms are the same size, regardless of the molecular packing and bonding. Choice C

eliminated.
86.

packing. This makes choice B the best answer.

87.

Choice A is correct. A species that appears black in the presence of white light is one that absorbs a1l I that strikes its surface. This eliminates choices B and D. As seen in Figure 1 in the passage, graphite significant amount of conjugation. The best answer is choice A. Choice D is correct. Electrons travel through delocalized molecular orbitals. In the case of ca allotropes, conductivity would occur through conjugated n-bonds. Graphite has the most conjugation (from end of the sheet to the other) of any carbon allotrope. The best answer is choice D.
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Section Vtr Detailed

89.

Choice C is correct. As stated in the passage, all carbons in graphite have sp2-hybridization. This means that all carbons have trigonal planar geometry and all of the bond angles are 120'. The best, and correct, answer is
choice C.

90.

Choice A is correct. Allotropes are most commonly solids, so it is unlikely that a compound that exists predominantly in the gas phase has allotropes. Argon is an inert gas, so it is the leist likely to form allotropes. Choice B is eliminated based on the information about carbon allotropes listed in the passage.
Phosphorus and sulfur can form isotopes.

91.

Choice B is correct. Phosphorus, P, is directly below nitrogen in the periodic table. Like nitrogen, phosphorus desires to make three bonds. In choice A, each phosphorus makes only two bonds, so choice A is eliminaied. kr choice C, two phosphorus atoms make three bonds and two phosphorus atoms make two bonds, so choice C is eliminated. In choice D, one phosphorus atom makes four bonds and three phosphorus atoms make two bonds, so choice D is eliminated. In choice B, each phosphorus makes exactly three bonds, so choice B is the best answer. Choice D is correct. A stated in the last sentence of the passage, molecular mass is the most significant factor in the energy required to undergo a phase change. This means that the greatest number of carbons in the allotrope results in the greatest sublimation point. The best answer is C72, choice D.

92.

93.

Choice A is correct. Conductivity of electricity through water is dependent on the number of ions present in solution. A greater number of ions results in better conductivity. Because the conductivity of the KCI iolution is greater than the conductivity of AgCl solution, the 0.10 M KCI(aq) solution has more ions than the 0.10 M AgCl(aq) solution. This means that KCl is more soluble than AgCl in water. This also means that the 0.10 M KCl(aq) solution has a greater osmotic pressure than a 0.10 M AgCl(aq) solution. This makes choice A the correct
answer.

94.

Choice C is correct. Energy is absorbed by the system when the compound goes from a lower energy state to a higher energy state. Choices B and D can be eliminated, because in each case the compound is going from a higher energy state to a lower energy state. The conversion from a solid into a gas requires a greater amount of energy than the conversion from a liquid to a gas. This means that more energy is absorbed during sublimation than during evaporation. This makes choice C correct. Choice A is correct. This is an easy question hidden in extraneous and intimidating facts. All you need to know is that the boiling point is defined as the temperature at which the Prru'o. equals Patmosphere. Reduced atmospheric pressure (which occurs at higher elevations, like the mountaini) means that less vapor pressure is necessary to reach the boiling point. Consequently, less energy is needed to achieve boiling. This lowers the boiling point from the value of the normal boiling pont (1.27'C for Compound A). Only choice A is less than 727"C; therefore, choice A is the best answer.

Choice A is correct. Ionic interactions, affinity, and H-bonding are negligible when dealing with CH4 and
SiH4, because both compounds are symmetric and thus non-polar. The fact that CH4 has a lower boiting point than SiH4 is because heavier molecules have more mass to put into motion when the molecules vaporize, and thus heavier molecules require more kinetic heat energy to escape from the liquid phase into the gas phase. In conclusion, more heat is required for heavier molecules to vaporize and reach their boiling point. The boiling point is greater for SiH4 than CH4, because the silicon compound is heavier. The best answer is molecular mass, choice A.

Choice D is correct. A solid is defined as having its component atoms (or molecules) in fixed positions, undergoing no translational motion (displacement). This means that a solid has a definite shape and a definite volume. A solid is rigid unless subjected to extreme pressures, and it maintains a lattice structure. As such, solids do not flow, they have a shape (and thus are not amorphous), and their molecules undergo no displacement. This eliminates choices A, B, and C. Because the shape of a solid remains constant at a fixed temperature and pressure, it maintains set dimensions. Choice D is the best answer.

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Section VII Detailed Explanations

98.

Choice B is correct. Because the unknown liquid has a lower vapor pressure than water at 60"C, the unknown Because the vapor pressure is determined as a natural log function, the vapor pressure of the unknown should be only slighthlower at the lower temperature than the vapor pressure of water. This makes choice B the intuitively correct choice. The graph below shows the vapor pressure as a function of temperature for the unknown liquio compared to water.

liquid should also have a lower vapor pressure than water has at room temperature.

lr tr

o
o) g
U)

-----'Unknown -Water

liquid

o CJ lr o. l-i o o. (!

Temperature ('C)

99.

Choice C is correct. This question requires that you spew back the definition of a liquid. A liquid has definite shape, but it does have a definite volume. This is reflected in choice C.

n'-'

100. Choice C is correct. For a compound to be a liquid at room temperature, its boiling point must be greater tharn. room temperature (otherwise, it would be a gas), and its melting point must be lower than room temperatu:e (otherwise it would be a solid). The only choice with a melting point less than 20"C and a boiling point greaH than 20'C is answer C. This in itself is not necessarily an MCAT-style question, but it is necessary to be able:o read charts on the exam. At times, the phase of a substance must be determined, making it necessan- :ro' evaluate the phase based on the physical properties of the substance. For instance , if you are asked to dei,:e whether a compound can be distilled, you must first determine whether it is a liquid at the given temperature

w
'Q

!)

tt { t

-:9

Sp
- ::-,:rght
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by The Berkeley Review@

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Section VII Detailed Expl

Thermochemistry Section Goals

Know the deft4ltions of free energy, enthalpy, and entropv. o? Th"t"",@i,*yo'tohar'eaconceptualdefinitionof-thebasic.termsusedin
thermodvna mics. Free enersv fC) ls tt-re accessible energy oT the system , enthalpr1 (H) is the heat energy of the syitem, and entropf(Sl is the disorder of the *stem. The three are related to each other by the equltion: AG = ll-t -'flS.

Thermodvnamics is the study of energy distribution in a chemical reaction or equilibrium system. There are'six fundamental equations th-at you must know' These are: A.AG =AH-TAS B. AG=AG'+RTlnQrx C. AH1s6q1iot1 = AHprodusl - AHlgsslanls D. AC' = -RT L:r Keq E. AC = RT ln Qrx/Keq F. AH = bonds broken - bonds formed

Be able to determine the enthalpy change for a reaction from other information. The chanee in enthalpv associated with a reaction can be determined in one of three ways. The first method ilcalorimetiy tdirect measurement of the heat change during the reaction). This involves suriounding the sysiem with a solution capable_of absorbiig or relEasing a large supply of heat enersv. Bv fireasuiing the change in the surioundings, the change in enthalpy of the system can be infe#6d. fhe second ilrethod iniolves Hess's law, which states that the enthalpy change for a reaction it th" trr* of the enthalpv changes for any component set of reactions. The fhird m-ethod involves in" fr-o"a *"**i"" and ii'u"rv .6*-on in'organic chemisbry. Energy must be added to a system to break bonds, ind energy is ieleased from a Iystem when bonds are formed. The result is that the heat of the reaction"iun be determined'from the change in bonds and bond energies. Be able to determine the eguilibrium copstant frg{n thqrqodYnamic.data. - The esuilibrium constant for a reaction can be determined from the free-energy change associated ;ith i[; ,"uition, starting with 1.0 M reactants and 1.0 M products (referri:d to as AG"). The equilibrium constant can b"e used also to find AC'.

l{

,l

iT

fl

;fr

Understand heat ca

and its a

n to calori

in tqmperature. Each material The heat absorbed by a material can be determined from the "bulg" has an associated heit capacity (known more precisely as specific hVat). Theheat cqpqcity i-s defined as the heat required to raise the temperature of 1.00 gram of a material .b_y 1.00_'C. Specific heat is this same valr-ie relative to water. Witer is assigned a}eat capacity of 1.00 calories pei gram'Kelvin by definition. Heat capacity is used to deteririne the heat-charige in a calorimetry experiment.

ne and a fft" Cuitrot cvcle is the theoretical mechanics linking the interconversion of work energy and heat \A,rhefi heat energy is converted into work energy,;q typjcalaqph.catlgl"{i. t:,,?.ilj while "1"tgy the steam engYi" and the combustion engine. The iteam bngine js a closed system,T.:i?i io"?1a"r svstem. When wdrk energy is conver-ted into heat energy, a typical the combustion eneine Ir utt ot "n aoolication of it ii to run a iefrigerator. The heat engine and heat pumP use evaporation and Know the basic

of an

to store and release Heat. Associated with*the phase change in matter in these devices is a drastic volume change, which can perform work,

;5fr4;;;"tion

l'?

Be able to work with energy diagrams of all types.

There are stand"ard energy diagrams. that show the heat of a teaction as it proceeds along the reaction pathwav. There is alsoTlre heiting curye, which shows a phase-change process and the associated [h;;; i" temperature over a purifid of time. You should.6e familiar with both types of graphs and unde?stand thb fundamental information that each presents. Energy diagrams are critical in organic

chemistry.

General Chemistry

Thermochemistry

Introduction

Thermochemistry is the study of the energy associated with a chemical reaction. Thermochemistry answers the fundamental question "How much is involved in a reaction?" By using thermochemistry principles, we can determine the quantity of products formed, the quantity of energy released (or absorbed), and the quantity of reactants left unreacted for a given reaction. Energy diagrams show thermochemistry values. The net change in an energy diagram shows the enthalpy and free energy changes associated with the overall reaction.

Thermochemistry tells us whether a reaction is favorable or unfavorable and whether it is exothermic or endothermic. Exothermic reactions yield heat, so the temperature of the system rises as the reaction proceeds. Endothermic reactions absorb heat, so the temperature decreases as the reaction proceeds. In this section, we shall focus on the heat and energy associated with a reaction. Once a reaction has released or absorbed heat, the suroundings change. Thermodynamics is the study of the energy associated with a system and surroundings. There are three fundamental laws of thermodynamics. Each addresses a different aspect of energy as it relates to all systems. We accept these laws at the general chemistry level, although some physicists theorize that the first law is incorrect, given that energy and matter can be interchanged.
First Law of Thermodymamics: The energy of the unioerse is constant, Second Law of Thermodynamics: In any spontaneous process, there is always an
increase

in

the entropy of the unirserse, The entropy of a perfect crystal at 0 keluins is zero.

Tliird Law of Thermodymamics:

The first law of thermodynamics is applied to the internal energy of a system. Kinetic energy can assume the form of work or heat. The Carnot cycle takes rdvantage of the first law of thermodynamics by addressing the interconversion rf work energy and heat energy. The heat engine and the heat pump are the freoretical models of this conversion process. In the heat engine, because energy s conserved, the heat that is absorbed by a system is converted into work. The :,et energy change of the system is zero. In the heat pump, because energy is

telrsrvdr the work that is applied to a system is converted into heat that is :errLoved from the system. Again, the net energy change of the system is zero. In :lemical reactions, the heat energy associated with a reaction is a result of the -lterconversion of kinetic energy and potential energy in the form of bonds.

lLe second law of thermodlmamics is applied to explain the universe's tendency

reach a natursl state. This is to say, that nature proceeds to the most probable xate, which is one of disorder. So while the energy of the universe is constant, it s heading towards disorder. In a chemical process, the hope is that the entropy :r the universe remains constant. The change in the entropy of the universe is a surr of all changes in entropy for a process. Equation 8.1 shows this relationship.
ASuniverse = ASsyslsm + ASsurroundings (8.1)

Ibe third law of thermodynamics is the standard against which other entropy r:lues can be measured. A perfect crystal at zeto kelvins has its atoms arranged rn an organized lattice, in which the motion of all atoms has ceased. Disorder :annot exist under these conditions. This is a theoretical situation, because zero *elr,ins is unattainable. This law also sets a standard for measurement, in this
=se

ensuring that entropy is always

positive term.

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Terminology and GraPhs

i'ffir

i!i

Energy Diagrams Energy diagrams show the relationship between the energetics of a system and the rEactioi steps (listed along the reiction coordinate). The diagrams can be used for kinetic purposes (by looking at the activation energy) or thermod;rnamic purposes (by looking at the energy difference between the reactants and the products). Two enerly diagrams are given in Figure 8-1below. The first graph ,ho-r tlre energy of i reaciion as function of the reaction pathway for either a spontaneous (exergonic) or exothermic (heat releasing) reaction. We cannot

identify whet|er ii is exergonic or exothermic unless the type of energy is specified. If it is free energy (G), we use the term exergonic' lf it is heat energ,Y

the energy of a reaction 1it;, we use the lerm exothetinlc. The second graph shows or as a function of reaction pathway for either a non-spontaneous (endergonic) (G), we use the term endothermic (heat absorbing) reaction. If it is free energy endergonic. If it is heat enerly (H), we use the tetm endothermic. T}te first graph (1eft)"distinguishes between the kinetic region and the thermodynamic regionihe kineticiegion is where activation energy can be read. The thermodynamic region is wheie the free energy change can be read. The second graph Gigf-,t)

Although it may not seem so, the graph are labeled in a similar fashion. Endergonic reaction (AG > 0) Exergonic reaction (AG < 0) or or Endothemic reaction (AH > 0) Exothemic reaction (AH < 0)

sh"ows

the same features, Uut wittL the regions labeled more specifically'

X bo
tr
0)

I!

Reaction coordinate

Reaction coordinate

Figure 8-L The energy diagrams shown in Figure 8-1 represent one-step reactions. Multistep reaJtio.r, i-rurr" graphs with multiple apexes. The reaction coordinate represents the chronollogical steps that the molecules take during the reaction pathway from reactants-to prodlcts. The kinetic region defines the activation 'enurgy,'and thus defines the rate of the reactions. The thermochemistry region a"fiti"r the energy change for the reaction. These two regions are generally the diagram. Activation energy is read from a most significantispects-of utt "tt"tgy free free enJrgy diagram, not from atr energy diagram based on enthalpy. The 8.2, which requires that are related uccordit g to Equation energy uii "tttf,utpy temperature be given in kelvins'

AG=AH-TAS

(8.21

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Free Energy

Thermochemistry

Terminology and Graphs

Gibb's free energy, associated with a closed system, is the accessible energy in a system that allows chemical reactions to proceed to a state of equilibrium. The free energy (G) of the system accounts for both the entropy (S) and the enthalpy (H) of the system. The free energy change for a chemical reaction or physical process is a sum of the enthalpy change and the negative of the entropy change

times temperature. Equation 8.2 shows that these three thermodynamic

variables, along with the temperature, are all related and thus can be used to predict the value of one another. The free energy change of a reaction is used primarily to determine the favorability of the reaction. If a chemical reaction has a negative value for AG, then the reaction is defined as being favorable in the forward direction. If a chemical reaction has a positive value for AG, then the ieaction is defined as being unfavorable in the forward direction. Table 8.1 shows different combinations of thermodynamic values as they relate to
Equation 8.2.
Case
AS

Result
Favorable at all temperatures Favorable at hieh temperatures Favorable at low temperatures Unfavorable at all temperatures

positive, AH nesative AS positive, AH positive AS negative, AH negative AS negative, AH positive

Table 8.1

-:rle

::

8.1 summarizes the four combinations of values for AH and AS. In two of

cases, the temperature must be

known in order to determine the sign of the

a

::e energy change (AG). This means that to determine the favorability of

:=::tion, temperature must be known in many cases. A reaction that is favorable :' -ow temperatures may not necessarily be favorable at higher temperatures. .-,'. is the mathematical reasoning behind the dependence of the equilibrium
:

.:,,.tant (Kun) of a reaction on the temperature.

:'.ample 8.1

* - :rd AS? fi

'

:eaction that is favorable at25'C but unfavorable at 500"C has what signs for

ioth AH and ioth AH and

AS are positive. AS are negative. is positive, and AS is negative. AS is

-J{ is negative, and

..r:r.on

positive.

";'.':rable reaction has a negative AG, while an unfavorable reaction has a ' --,. e AG. AG is negative at lower temperatures (25"C) and positive at higher :-:-ratures (100'C), so AG increases with T. Temperature is measured in -:,*i, so T is always a positive value. Using Equation 8.2, LG = AH - TAS, the , -: rf AS must be negative, (negative number), because only the TAS term "" :.. rvith temperature. As T increases, AG increases, so AG = AH - T(negative ::-rr. AH must be negative for AG to be negative at lower temperatures, , -.. inegative number) = AH - T(negative small number). Both AH and AS '' - : iative, so choice B is the best answer. This can be confirmed by Table 8.1.

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the reaction is favorable in the forward direction (proceeds in the forward direction to reach equilibrium), then the reaction is spontaneous in the forward direction. This is a thermodynamic perception of the reaction, which means it is based solely on the free energy change (AG) for the reaction. \Atrhether a reaction is observed may also depend on kinetic factors. If there is not enough activation energy present in the system (that is, if the temperature is too low), then the reaction cannot proceed in the forward direction even though it is spontaneous. AG.* must be negative in order for the reaction to be spontaneous in the forward
direction.

Reactions that are favorable in the forward direction are said tobe spontaneous. Spontaneity refers to the favorability of a reaction, not to the rate of a reaction. If

There is also the standard free energy change (AG') to consider, which is the free energy change when a reaction goes from standard conditions to equilibriumStandard conditions are defined as 1 atm. of pressure, and a temperature of 25'C, and all solute species (reactants and products) present at L.00 M concentrationUnder conditions where all solute concentrations are equal to L.00 M, the value of Q.* is L.0, so ln Qr* is zero. In such a case, only K"O needs to be considered whm determining the free energy change, which leads us to Equation 8.3.

AG' = - RT ln Keq

(8.3)

When the AG" value for a reaction is close to zero, the reaction has an equilibrium constant of roughly 1.0. Reactions with K"n roughly equal to 1.0 are driven by the addition of excess reactant or the removal of products, which changes tte value of AG, but not the value of AG'. These techniques exploit Le ChAtelierb

principle to shift the equilibrium to the product side of the reaction. The
technique is illustrated mathematically using Equation 8.4.

Example 8.2

If

L:r

A. B. c.

Keq = 5.0 and the temperature is 25'C, what is the value of AG'? +12.5 kJ +8.3 kJ
-8.3 kJ

D.

-t2.skJ

Solution
To solve for fhe numerical value, use Equation 8.3, AG" = -RT ln Keq. The ans is in kJ, so R is 8.31.4J/mole K. We are given ln K"n, not I("0, so the math
easier.

AG' = - (8.314)(2e8xs) I - (10)(250Xs) J = -(2.s)(5) kJ = - 12.5 kJ = The best answer is choice D. Some of you may have approximated the value follows:

The answer choices are spaced far enough apart that any rea approximation will lead to the best answer. Math is simplified on the MCAT, it is also important to understand relative AG calculations where n
crunching is not directly involved.

AG" = - (8.314X2e8X5) I - (8X300X5) J = -(2.4)(5) kJ = - 12 =

kI

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account for the free energy change from the

Thermochemistry

Tenninology and Graphs

Any equation used to determine the free energy change of a reaction must the equilibrium conditions of ihe reaction. A reaction going from initial conditions-to equilibrium conditions can be broken into tw6 partial reactions: initial conditions to standard conditions, and standard conditions to equilibrium
AGrx

i"itiii

conditlions of the reaction to

conditions. The derivation below summarizes this reasoning in Equation g.4:

AGlinitial conditions -+ equilibrium conditions)

AGry = AGliniual -+ standard conditions) + AGlstandard -+ equilibrium conditions) AGlinltiat conditions -+ standard conditions) = RT ln - RT ln 1 RT ln

Qo

er*

AGlstandard

-+ equilibrium conditions) = RT In 1 - RT ln

&q

= - RT ln I("q

AGrx

&q = - RT ln Gq + RT ln e." Substituting in AG' for - RT 1r1IGt yields Equation g.4

RT ln Qrx - RT In

AGrx = AG" + RT ln

Qrx
- In

(g.4)

This same derivation can be altered slightly to generate Equation g.5:

AGrx = RT

L:r

Qrx - RT ln Keq = RT

(h

e*

&q)

p11r.,9ft
Keg
(8.s)

AG= nr r'ryKe9

You may recall from the equilibrium section that Qr* defines the reaction state, 3d than defines equilibrium. \A/hen e.* is less than ieo, the e."_to_Ko., ratio is 5"q -ess 1.0, and the log of a number less than 1.0 is negative. This miies AGr* :'regative, according to Equation 8.5. when the value of"er* is less than K.o, the :eaction h.1g too many reactants and too few products, ro it pro.""ds forw"ald to :each equilibrium, reaffirming that the reaction is favorable as written.
Example 8.3
--r'.

:'t ihe following features?

reaction that is spontaneous in the forward direction correspond.s with which It has an equilibrium constant that is greater than 1.0. The reaction is spontaneous in the ,"rrerru direction. It has a AG11 that is positive for the reaction as written. it has a ratio of Qrx 16 GC that is less than 1.

{.
ts.

C. D.

S'olution

lpontaneous in the forward direction" means that the reaction is favorable as 'u.itten. Favorability in the forward direction implies that there is an excess of :=actants and a shortage of products relative to equilibrium. This tells us nothing t:'out the value of the equilibrium constant. The ialue of IGq may or may not bi reater than 1.0. This eliminates choice A. A reaction that iJspontaneous in the i::-,rard direction is non-spontaneous in the reverse direction. This eliminates :: lice B. A reaction is spontaneous in the forward direction when AG is :e'gative. This eliminates choice C. \Atrhen the ratio of erx to Kuo is less than 1, rr is an excess of reactants, so the reaction proceeds forwardtb equilibrium. l* Qr* to Kuo is less than L, the log of the ritio in Equation g.5 is nlgative, so J:1 rs negative. A reaction is spontaneous in the forward direction when AG.r. s :.egative, so choice D is the best answer.

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Terminology and Graphs

Enthalpy Enthalpy (H) is defined as the quantity of heat present in a system. Enthalpy change (AH) is the heat that is either lost from or added to a system (a reaction) during a chemical reaction or physical process. There is an enthalpy change associated with every chemical reaction or physical process. The value of AH is positive when heat is absorbed by the reaction (as is the case in an endothermic reaction) and negative when heat is given off by the reaction (as is the case in an exothermic reaction). The AH value of a reaction is derived from the system's heat change, not the heat change of the surroundings. The difference between the energy change of the system and the surroundings is just a sign, because the total quantity of energy released by the system is the same as the amount of energy absorbed by the surroundings. The sign convention is based on the idea that the AH value describes the change in heat for the chemical reaction. Enthalpy change alone does not describe the favorability of a reaction, just the heat. However, the value of AH plays a significant role in determining AG.

Example 8.4
\tVhich of the observations below is NOT associated

with an exothermic reaction?

A. An increase in the temperature of the solution B. The formation of products that are more stable than the reactants
C. D.
A net loss in the heat energy of the surroundings A value for the change in enthalpy that is negative

Solution An exothermic reaction is defined as a reaction that releases heat energy from the system to the surroundings. This results in an increase in the heat energy of the surroundings, so choice A is valid. Energy is released by the reaction, because
the products are at a lower energy level (are more stable) than the reactants. This makes choice B valid. An exothermic reaction has a negative value for AH, so choice D is valid. The false statement of the answer choices is choice C, because heat energy is gained by the surroundings, not lost from it. This means that the correct answer (the statement that is NOT true) is choice C.

Example 8.5 If the solvation of NH4Cl(s) by water solvent results in the cooling of the solutiorL then the sign of the AH value for the solvation reaction is:

A. positive at all temperatures. B. negative at all temperatures.

C. D.
positive at low temperatures and negative at high temperatures. positive at high temperatures and negative at low temperatures'

Solution
Because the solution becomes cooler after the reaction, heat must have been

absorbed by the system from the surroundings. The aqueous solution is considered to be the surroundings, as that is where the heat is absorbed fromWhen heat is absorbed, the enthalpy change is positive, making choice A correct The reaction is thus endothermic. This means that the driving force behind ttn dissociation of ammonium chloride into water must be linked to the favorablc change in entropy, not the unfavorable change in enthalpy. The sign of thc enthalpy change does not change with temperature, so choices C and D shorrld be eliminated immediately.

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Thermochemistry

Terminology and Graphs

Energy diagrams can refer to heat energy, in which case the heat of reaction can be extracted from the graph. When heat is absorbed, the reaction is endothermic.

It is uphill from the reactants to products in the energy diagram. When heat is
released, the reaction is exothermic. It is downhill from the reactants to products

in the energy diagram. Figure

B-2 shows the enthalpy diagrams

for

an

endothermic reaction and for an exothermic reaction. Endothemic reaction (AH is positive)
Exothemic reaction (AH is negative)

heat+A+B *

P+Z

A+B -*

P+Z

+heat

>\ o.

.:.9
du!

x
ti
II]

l]

rFi lXu
ldU

I#E |.e
-P

lH3
JE6
Reaction coordinate

cE 0Jd

JE8
Reactant

IU.d

f:F Ir

Reaction coordinate

Figure 8-2
Example 8.6

:lassified

Combustion of a hydrocarbon in the presence of excess oxygen gas is BEST as which of the following? {. An exothermic reaction ts. An endothermic reaction C. An exoconductive process D. An endoconductive process

Solution i-icause the temperature of the surroundings increases during a combustion

:=action (combustion is the complete oxidation of either a hydrocarbon or -::bohydrate), heat is given off by the system to the surroundings. When heat ::.ergy is released, the enthalpy change for the chemical reaction is negative. A -rgative enthalpy change is associated with an exothermic reaction, which makes ":.,rice A correct. The terms "exoconductive" and "endoconductive" ate contrived ::ls that have no useful meaning in chemistry. The oxidation of a hydrocarbon -. : reaction, not a process, so for several good reasons, choices C and D should : - -|L be eliminated.
*:

- heat change for a reaction may be determined in many ways. It can be found the AH values for component reactions that sum to the overall reaction. --*. is Hess's law. The change in heat energy may also be determined from :",::e:ences in the bond-energy values for the bonds that are broken and bonds l:":: are formed. Heat energy is needed to break bonds, while heat energy is ",1:'=:-.ed when bonds are formed. The last method to consider is an experimental -. the heat change for a chemical reaction is measured by calorimetry. "r'here r- ::iorimetry, the change in temperature for a known quantity of surrounding :.:.:ial is measured. This temperature change can be converted into a heat --::.ge for the reaction.

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Terminology and Graphs

Entropy Entropy (s) is the measure of randomness (disorder) within a system. Entropy takes into account molecular randomness (degrees of rotational freedom for each atom within a molecule) which reflects the abitity of a molecule to rotate freely about its bonds. Cyclic compounds have less entropy than linear compounds, because they are more rigid and cannot rotate as freely. Cyclic structures are thus less favorable entropically than linear strucfures. Alkanes are more random than alkenes, because alkenes have a double bond (n-bond) in particular, about which the molecule may not rotate. Entropy also accounts for the overall randomness of a system (freedom for the molecules to move in a translational manner). Gases have the most entropy of the three common phases, because their molecules are freest to move throughout the container. the gas phase is entropically the most favorable. Entropy (in a more the advanced definition presented in physical chemistry) is the reversible heat change of the system (ereversible) divided by its temperature.

An increase in entropy (and disorder) is defined as a positive change in entropy (AS). We are typically more interested in the entropy change for a chemical reaction or physical process than we are in the absolute entropy of any
component. Entropy can be thought of as organizational potential energy. \zVhen you organize something, it has the potential to become disordered, and release that organizational energy. This organizational energy becomes part of the free
energy of the system.

Example 8.7
\tvhich of the following processes is

Nor

associated

with its correct sign for

AS?

A. B. C. D.

Assys for a liquid-to-gas phase change is positive. ASsys for a reaction in which the volume increases is positive. ASsys for a reaction in which a n-bond is formed is negative. Assys for sublimation is negative.

Solution
Increases in the randomness of a system (molecular chaos) have a positive ASsy5 value. Conversely, decreases in the randomness of a system (molecular chao"s) have a negative ASr^ value. Because the molecules are becoming more random

in a liquid-to-gas phase change, the entropy change for the process (Assvs) is positive. Choice A is a valid statement, so it is eliminated. When the voluire of
the system increases, the molecules are capable of occupying a greater number of points in space, making the molecules more random. The entropy change for the process (ASrvr) is positive. Choice B is a valid statement, so it is eliminatedWhen a n-b<jnd is broken, the molecule has more ability to rotate freely, which makes the system more random. Thus, when a n-bond is formed, the molecule loses some ability to rotate freely, which makes the system less random. The entropy change for the reaction (ASryr) is negative. Choice C is a valid statement, so it is eliminated. Sublimation is the physical process whereby a solid is converted into a gas. Because the molecules are becoming more random in a solid-to-gas phase change, the entropy change for the reaction (ASryr) is positivg not negative. This makes choice D an incorrect statement and th6 best answerPositive entropy changes are often associated with increases in the number of molecules and phase changes to phases of lower density (greater volume).

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Example 8.8

Thermochemistry

Terminology and Graphs

What can be said about the entropy of cyclohexane(l) as compared to

cyclohexane(s)?

A. The entropy of cyclohexane(s) B. The entropy of cyclohexane(l)

C. D.

is greater than cyclohexane(l). is greater than cyclohexane(s). The entropy of cyclohexane(l) is equal to that of cyclohexane(s). Neither cyclohexane(l) nor cyclohexane(s) has any entropy, because entropy applies only to non-cyclic molecules.

Solution While cyclic molecules have lower entropy than their linear counterparts, they still have entropy. Choice D is eliminated. Cyclohexane is the same molecule, no matter what phase it is in. The randomness of the molecule itself is unchanged, so there is no change in the degrees of freedom (ability to rotate about bonds and change angles.) The difference in entropy between the two systems is due to the phase difference. The solid phase is more structured than the liquid phase, so in the solid phase the molecules are more ordered (less random). Because the molecules are more random in the liquid phase, choice B is correct. You should be aware that the sequence of relative entropy in the three phases is as follows: Sgas > Sliquid > Srotta' Every compound ii aefined as hiving some positive entropy, according to the third law of thermodynamics.

There is an entertaining and simple example of entropy in action that you can do with a rubber band. It involves the stretching and relaxing of a rubber band.

When a rubber band is stretched and held in the stretched state for a few
moments, its temperature equilibrates with the environment. Using your lip as a

thermometer, place the stretched rubber band against your lip to gauge its temperature. When you are convinced that it is at room temperafure, remove the rubber band from your lip and let it return to its natural state of relaxation. Then, immediately place it against the same lip. The rubber band will feel cold. The reason for this is rooted in the thermodynamics of the process. The rubber band naturally tends to go from a stretched state to relaxed one, making AGstretched-to-recoiled a negative number. The rubber band becomes cold when it goes from stretched to relaxed, making AHstretched-to-relaxed a positive number (endothermic processes absorb heat and therefore feel cold). Because AG is negative and AH is positive, AS must be a positive number. This means that as the rubber band goes from stretched to relaxed, it becomes more disordered. This may seem odd at first, but when you consider any net (like a tennis net or a volleyball net), you should note that when it is stretched, it is orderly. When bundled up, it is disordered, In essence, a rubber band is a microscopic net. The driving force for relaxing from a stretched state is entropic in nature.

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Hessts Law

Thennochemistry

Terminology and Graphs

Hess's law states that the AG, AH, or AS for a particular reaction can be determined by summing the AG, AH, or S values for any cumulative series of subreactions for that particular reaction (or in the case of AS, you can sum the entropy values for each reactant and product in the reaction). Typical MCAT questions about this include summing the AG'661p, AH'form, or S" for the reactants and products (reversing the reactant values is necessary to add correctly). The overall AG, AH, or AS can be found by subtracting the AG"fot11u AH"form or S' for lhe reactants from the AG'form, AH"form, or S' for the products. Equations 8.6,8.7, and 8.8 are the application of Hess's law using formation values to calculate free energy, enthalpy, and entropy, respectively.

! AG'1616ation products - IAc"go.-ation reactants AH"reac'fi'n;_T:::H;,':::.T

AG"reaction =

(8.5)

;ilT::"nreac'fan'is lll

The free energy change of formation (AGformatior-,) is the change in free energy that transpires when a compound is formed from its component elements in their most stable state at standard temperature (25"C) and pressure (1.00 atmosphere). The enthalpy of formation (AH1o.-atiod is the heat change that transpires when a compound is formed from its component elements in their most stable state.

There is no entropy of formation for compounds, as they are defined by themselves as having a set amount of disorder (entropy). In most general chemistry textbooks, there are exhaustive tables of free energies and heats of formation, so the values are common information. The AGioltoxli6n and AH6s1661is1 for an element in its most stable form is 0. This applies to oxygm gas, which is found in combustion reactions. Combustion reactions are among the common MCAT examples using Hess's law with the heats of formation.

Example 8.9
\A/hat is the formation reaction for C2H5Br(g)?

A. 2 C(sr) ** ,rftl +!Brz(g) -.--> C2H5Br(g) C2H5Br(g) B. 2C(gr) *\ n frl + ! Br21l1 -* 2-' C2H5Br(g) c. 2C(gr) +z!H21g1 + Br(g) * C2H5Br(g) D. 2C(gr) *\^rtrl + Br(l) *
Solution
Bromine is found in nature as a diatomic liquid under standard conditions. You may recall this from an organic chemistry lab, in which you added Brz in CCI+ an unknown organic compound to test for the presence of an alkene n-bondBromine (Br2) adds anti across a carbon-carbon n-bond that is present in molecule, which results in the disappearance of the bromine liquid. Because *re bromine liquid is brown, the presence of an alkene is supported by the disappearance of the brown color from the solution. Based just on the phase molecular state of bromine in the answer choices, the best choice is answer There are certain miscellaneous facts that you should know for some questi on the MCAT. Although the test writers give you a great deal of informati there is other required information (background knowledge) that you must

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Thermochemistry

Tenninology and Graphs

To apply Equations 8.6,8.7, and 8.8 correctly, the overall reaction must be balanced first. Stoichiometric coefficients are critical to Hess's law, as each component is multiplied by its stoichiometric coefficient prior to summing the values. Example 8.10 shows the application of Equation 8.7 in calculating the enthalpy for the combustion of methane. The solution is a step-by-step process that serves as a case-based derivation of Equation8.7.
Example 8.10 \Ahat is the standard enthalpy of combustion for methane?

A. B. C. D.

AH'6e11nation CO2

+ AH'161p3tion H2O - AH'formation CHa AH"formation CO2 + 2 AH"Sslmation H2O - AH"formation CHa AH"formation CH4 - AH'formation Co2 - AH"formation H2o
AH"6s16ation CHa - AH'formation CO2 - 2 AH"lelpation H2O

Solution
The first step is to balance the overall reaction:

Balancedreaction: lCHa(g)

+ 2O2G) --+

1CO2(g)

+ 2H2O(g)

The next step is to view the formation reactions and standard enthalpy of formation for each compound in the balanced equation:
AH"formation CHa(g) = AH'rxn for: 1C(gr)

+2IbG) +

CHa(g)

AH"formation Oz(g) is not applicable, because OZ(g) is in its most stable state AH"formation CO2(g) = AH"rxn for: AH"formation H2O(g) = AH"rxn for:

C(gr)+oz(s)
Hz(g) +

COz(s)

torftl -+ Hzo(s)

ihe final step is to sum up the formation reactions in a way that equals the t.,'erall reaction. This requires multiplying reactions by their stoichiometric :oefficients, reversing the reaction for compounds on the reactant side, and
:rossing out molecules that appear on both sides of the subreactions:
-

--+ 1(Br) +2112@ red + 1o2(g) --+ 1Co2(g)

CHa(g)

-1 (AH"i6snation CHa(g))
1 (AH"16.*ution CO2G)) 2

-l2fd

+ 1O2(s)

-+

2 H2O(g)

(AH'i6rllntion HzO(g))

- CHa(g) + 2 O2@)

--+ 1 CO2(g) 2H2O(g)

AH"r Coz

+ 2 LH" ,1g,ro - AH"f

CH4

-re best answer is choice B. Because the formation reactions for reactants are :er-ersed, the equation for calculating any thermodynamic value from the : -,rmation values involves formation values for products minus formation values ::,r reactants. Equation 8.7 shows this for determining the enthalpy of reaction ::om the enthalpy of formation values.

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Themrochemistry

Terminology and Graphs

For examples 8.11 through8.1.4, use the values in Table 8.2.

Compound AH'61kl7-o1 S" (I/mot.r) Compound AH'61kJ7-o,; S'(I/mot.r)

co(g)
Hzo(g)
C2H5OH(l)
C6H1206(s)

-1.1L.2

198 189

CozG)
H2O(l)
C5H6O2(s)

-393.5

21.4

-242

-286
-1011

70

-278 -1278

161

196 205

212

ozG)

Table 8.2

Example 8.L1 \A/hat is the standard enthalpy change for the water shift reaction?

Coz(g) + Hz(g) --+ CQg) + H2o(g)

A. +40.3 kJlmole B. +3.2 kll-o1" c. ajkl/moIe D. -+0.3 kllmole

Solution
This question is solved using Equation 8.2 AH"reaction = IAH"form products - I AH'form reactants. The reaction is balanced as given, so we can procbed directly to the insertion of numerical values:
AH'1sx6ti61 = AH'form

qg

+ AH'661m H2O

-AH'fo.*

CO2 - AH'6o.r1

p,

AH"reaction = (-111.2) + (-242)- (-393.5) - 0 = -353.2 + 393.5 = + 40.3 The correct urswer is choice A.

kJlmol"

Example 8.12

What is the standard enthalpy change for the combustion of ethanol?

C2H5OH(I) + Oz(g)

-+

CQG) + H2O(l)

A. -Is6zkJlmole B. -t235 kJlmole c. -zqikl /mole

D.
-401.5 kJlmole

Solution
This question is solved using Equation 8.7, AH'reaction = AH"for* reactants. The reaction must first be balanced:

AH'form products -

CzHsOH(l) + 3 O2(g) --+ ZCOzG) + 3 H2O(l)

From here, we can proceed to the insertion of numerical values: AH'reaction

2 AH'6611 CO2 + 3

AH'66r- HrO - AH"form C2H5OH - 3 AH"5or* 61

AH'reaction = 2 C393'5) + 3 (-286) - (-278) - 3 (0)

= 2 (-400 + 6.5) + 3 (-300 + 14) + 300 - Zz = -800 + 13 -900 + 42 + 900 -22 = -1400 +33 = -1867 kJlmote The correct answer is choice A.

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Example 8.13

Thermochemistry

Tenninology and Graphs

\A/hat is the standard enthalpy change for the combustion of glucose?

C6H12O6(s)

+ Oz(g)

-+

CQ(g) + H2O(g)

A. +598.5 kIlmole B. -tS23kI/mote

C. D.
-Z799kJ -5355

/mote kllmole

Solution
This question is solved using Equation8.7, AH"reaction = LAH'form products AH"forrr, reactants. The reaction must first be balanced:
C6H12O6(s)

+6

O2G) *-+ 6COzG)

+ 6H2O(g)

From here, we can proceed to the insertion of numerical values. oxygen is most stable as 02 under standard conditions, so it is omitted from the expression:
AH"reaction = 6 AH"form CO2+ 6 AH"fo.* HrO -AH"form
C6H12O5,

AH'reaction = 6 (-393.5) + 6 (-286) - (-1278) = 6 (-679.5) + 1278 = 6 (-700 + 20.5) + 1300 - 22 = - 4200 + 723 +1300 - 22 = - 2900 + 101
= _2799 kJlmole The correct answer is choice C.

Example 8.14

\\hat is the change in entropy for the combustion of pentyl lactone (C5Hgo2(s))? C5HsO2(s) + 6 O2@) --+ 5 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(l) A. +3701l-o1".6

B. +2 J/-61".14 C. -741 / ^oL.y D. -1.17Jlmole.f

Solution
This question is solved using Equation 8.8, AS"reaction = L S"form products - I S'fo.11 reactants. The reaction is balanced as given, so we can proc""l directly to ]re insertion of numerical values:
AS"reaction

5 S"COz + 4 S"gr9 -S"CsHsOz - 6 S'Oz

AS'reaction = 5 (214) + 4 (70) - (196) - 6 (205) = !070 + 280 - 196

- 1230

= 1350 -7424=-74
The correct answer is choice C. Be sure to pay attention to the phase, especially :or water, because inadvertently using the value for H2o(g) instead of u2o1iy ',.,-ould lead you to pick choice A.

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General Chemistry
Bond Energies

Thermochemistry

Terminology and Graphs

Heat of reactions can be calculated using the heat added to the system to break the bonds and the heat released when new bonds are formed. It takes energy to break a bond, and energy is given off when a bond is formed. This information can be applied to an energy diagram, as shown in Figure 8-3 below:
Bonds are broken early

in a chemical reaction. Energy mustbe added

rli

Bonds are formed later in a chemicalreaction. Energy is released when bonds are

to break the bonds.

formed.

t!

(d

Reaction coordinate

Figure 8-3

Figure 8-3 shows an exothermic reaction. Enthalpy data helps to determine relative bond strengths. In an exothermic reaction, net energy is released, so the bonds that are formed are stronger than the bonds that are broken. Equation 8.9 can be used to calculate the enthalpy change for a reaction from bond energies.
AHreaction = Energlbonds broken - Energy6er.rds formed
(8.e)

A great example of bond energies is found in biochemistry. Energy is stored when adenosine diphosphate (ADP) is converted into adenosine triphosphate (ATP). This energy can be released when ATP is converted back to ADP, shown as Reaction 8.1 below:
ATP + H2O --+ ADP + Pi + heat
Reaction 8.1

The release of energy is predictable from the relative energies of the bonds broken and the bonds formed. Reaction 8.1 is shown in more detail in Figure B-4.

li-TP-o"
60 loo
Bonds broken:

.llll^

oo

+ t-oTH
I

oo

ll-"T" + '-ot {t-." 60 I loo

r.,l-"a
rol-"a
and Bonds formed:

0.t0",",
O-P

brfk"r,
and

O-H
Figure 8-4

O-H

G-P

reaction is used to provide cellular energy, so we know it is actually heat releasing. The discrepancy is explained by examining the bonds in more detail Because the reaction is exothermic, the bonds broken are weaker than the bonds formed. The unusually weak bond in the ATP molecule is the O-P bondBecause of electrostatic repulsion by the oxygen atoms, the O-P bond is elongated. Longer bonds are weaker, so the O-P bond of ATP is a weak bond. Copyright @by The Berkeley Review

By general chemistry conventions, because the bonds broken are the same as the bonds formed, we predict that the AH for the reaction is zero. However, this

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Thermochemistry

Terminology and Graphs

The O-P bond in ATP is referred to as a high-energy bond tn biochemistry. This presents a slight naming problem, because in chemistry, a high bond-energy describes a bond that is strong. A "high-energy bond" (note the inversion of the n'ord sequence) is not a bond with high dissociation energy. The high-energy bond in the phosphate linkage is actually a weak chemical bond. Perhaps it is best to think of a high-energy bond as a bond that is high on the energy diagram, making it unstable (reactive). It is that very weakness that leads to the overall release of energy when this bond is cleaved in the hydrolysis of ATP. Example 3.15 shows how the bond energies are used to quantify the change in enthalpy.

Example 8.15 tr\hat is AH for the following reaction, given that the bond energy for C=O is 795 kJlmole, for H-H is 428 kJlmole, for C-O is 361 kJlmole, for C-H is 411 k]/mole, and for O-H is 468 kjlmole?

H3CCHO(g)

+ Hz(g) -+

H3CCUzOH(g)

-{. B. C. +17kJ/moLe D. +90 k]/mole

-90 k}/mole -77 kl /rnole

Solution The first step is to determine the bonds that are broken and the bonds that are iormed. The diagram below shows the bonds that are broken and formed:

HIC
trn

-t+
H

H*H
I

I I

HH t, I ).. HrC' 'o---

Broken: C=O, H- H

Formed: C- O, C- H,O- H

reality, only the n-bond of the carbonyl is broken, but we are given numbers in terms of single and double bonds, so we consider the entire C=O double bond to 're broken and the single C-O bond to be reformed. Using Equation 8.9:
AHreaction = BEC=o+ BEg-g - BEc-o - BEc-u - BEo-H AFlreaction =795 + 428 - 361' 1200 - 1300 + 99 - 1,6= -100 + 83
41'1'

- 468

AHreaction = 800 - 5 + 400 +28 - 400 + 39 - 400 - 11- 500 + 32

-17 kI

/ mole

The correct answer is choice

B. The reaction is exothermic, which means that the ronds broken are weaker than the bonds formed. This implies that n-bond are ',veaker than o-bonds.
The values given in Example 8.15 are for heterolytic bond dissociation in the gas phase. There are some assumptions in general chemistry that are not true. In general chemistry, all C-H bonds are treated as equal in strength, although we know from organic chemistry that they are not. For instance, a 3" (tertiary) carbon forms a weaker bond with hydrogen than a 2' (secondary) or 1' (primary) carbon forms with hydrogen. The bond energy also varies with hybridization, ivhere bonds involving sp carbons are stronger than bon* involving spz catbons, which are in turn stronger than bonds involving spr carbons. Bond energies are also considered in organic chemistry, but in more detail.

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General Chemistry
Heat Energy

Thermochemistry

Calorimetry

Calorimetry is the measurement of the heat released from or absorbed by a chemical reaction or physical process. The heat change can be measured by carrying out a reaction in a sealed reaction vessel that is surrounded by some material (a liquid is best) that is capable of absorbing the heat given off by an exothermic reaction, or capable of supplying heat to an endothermic reaction. Once the heat has been transferred, the liquid (known as the heat sink) either increases in temperature due to the gain of heat energy or decreases due to the loss of heat energy. A decrease in temperature is observed if the reaction is endothermic. The heat of the reaction can be calculated from the change in temperature for the system using the heat capacity and mass of the solution. Equation 8.10 shows the relationship between heat energy (q) and the change in temperature (AT). The mass of the solution is represented by m, and the heat capacity of the solution is represented by C.
9 = MCAT
(8.10)

By using measured values of reactants, the enthalpy change per mole for the reaction can be calculated, assuming that the enthalpy change for the reaction is equal to the heat energy of the reaction (q). Th" stereotypical lab experiment from general chemistry, lab involves the running of a reaction in a styrofoam cup filled with an aqueous solution and a thermometer. A stirring rod is also provided to ensure that there is homogeneous distribution of heat throughout the system. The temperature is read in consistent intervals and then plotted as a function of time. The true final temperature after the complete mixing of the reactants and the end of the reaction cannot be read from the thermometer directly, because by the time that the thermometer has actually reached the temperature of the solution, heat has already been exchanged with the environment. This means that to determine the final temperafure after reaction" a line must be extrapolated from the data points on the graph back to the temperature axis at the t = 0 mark. This technique is common in laboratory procedures. The plotting of temperature as a function of time must be carried out in uniform increments (intervals) in order to get useful data.

Example 8.16

How many calories does your body use to heat up 100 g of water from 0'C to
37'C?

A. 7400calories B. 3700 calories

C. 740 calories D. 37]calories

Solution To determine the heat needed to raise the temperature of 100 g of w

Equation 8.10 is used. The mass is L00 g, AT is 37'C, heat capacity for water is caI/ g.K, so q is found by basic multiplication. Plugging known values into q mCAT yields: (100 gX1.0 callg.K)(37K) = 3700 cal. Choice B is the best answer. you drink all of your beverages at icy temperatures, you will expend calori heating them to body temperature. If you were to drink two liters of ice water day, that would result in the expenditure of 74 nutritional calories to heat wa

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Thermochemistry

Calorimetry

lnample 8.17 r,rl;L;r i5 the final temperature of a solution made by mixing 30 mL of H2O at :il :'C n'ith 60 mL of H2O at 60.0"C?

.4. rl.5'C t| ;1.0'c

:.

{_r.O'c

-. ;.)

ir, ution T,r::lse the larger volume has the greater temperature, the final temperafure is
s:::-:er than the mean temperature (45"C). This eliminates choices C and D. To :*-le between choices A and B, we must rely on a more rigorous calculation. lie answer can be found by one of two methods. The first method is to use a r":::l-!ted average of the two volumes and their temperatures. The final volume

:r
'r

30 mL (one-third) of the solution starts at 30"C and 60 mL "o 90 mL 90 mL 1'';-ihirds) of the solution starts at 60"C. The weighted average is calculated as ,,,-ater = 90

mL,

: l1\-S:

"

I
JJ

rso"cl + 2 reo'c) = 10"C + 40'C = 50 'C

],:,rce B is the correct answer. The second method is based on Equation 8.10. It r,:ates the heat lost by the warmer solution to the heat gained by the cooler
then E"oo1ir.g + Eheating = 0. This ::.:. be manipulated to read: Eheating = - Ecooling. Substituting Equation 8.10 for ::-:erg.!'on each side of the equation yields the following:
mCAThs61l1g = - mCAT66eling

;:.rfion. If no heat is lost to the environment,

mAThs6tilg = - mAT66eling

-Tf) 30 (T6- 30) = 69 (60 - Tf) .'. T1 - 30 = 2 (60 - Tt)

30 g (T1- 30)

- 60 g (T1- 60) = 60 g (60

T1- 30 = 120 - 2T1 .'. 3 Tf = 150 .'. Tf = 50 :::1r'smokes Batman, it's choice B yet again.

Heat Capacity

:{eat capacities are just what the name implies; they are a measurement of the i:rrage capacity of absorbed heat for a given material. The unit for heat capacity < energy per mole.Kelvin. Energy can be measured in either joules or calories :ld the temperature change is the same whether measured in kelvins or :erbigrade (Celsius). Heat energy is kinetic energy, which for our considerations ;:rall include only translational energy and vibrational energy. For the most part, ;,-.lids have lower heat capacities than liquids, because they have only vibrational r:netic energy. :{eat capacities are used in the calculation of transferred heat, which is usually :ansferred within a material via conduction. Conduction involves the transfer of :eat by way of collision when molecules are in direct contact with one another. -'*.q two atoms within a molecule vibrate about a bond, the atoms may collide -,','ith a neighboring atom and transfer some of the vibrational kinetic energy to rat neighboring atom. That is the essence of conductive heat transfer on the :ricroscopic level. The greater the amount of energy required to increase the
'-ibrational energy of a substance, the greater its heat capacity.

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Thermochemistry

Calorimetry

The rate of temperature change for a material depends on its heat capacity. A

material with a high heat capacity requires more time to reach a target

temperafure than a material with a lower heat capacity, when heat is applied at a uniform rate. Because of this, materials with high heat capacities generally experience small temperature increases. This is why the temperature near a body of water is relatively consistent compared to temperature fluctuations in more arid regions. Water has a high heat capacity, so it absorbs a great deal of heat on hot days, preventing the air temperature increasing that much. On cold days, water can release heat to the environment, preventing the air temperature from

decreasing that much, making

environment.

it

warmer than

it

would be

in an arid

Example 8.18 \A/hat is the heat capacity of a material that requires 3.0 kcal to increase a 15.0 g sample from 25'C to75'C?

A.

1.9

calTr.g

B.2.gcal1f.y

C. 3.6 calT*.6 D. 4.0 callf.y

Solution
To calculate the heat capacity (C) from heating data, Equation 8.10 is used. The mass is 15.0 g, AT is 50'C, and q is 3000 cal, so C is found following basic multiplication. Plugging known values into q - mCAT yields:
"uI / rSo *x 1tsgx50 K) = After manipulating the numbers to isolate C, the value is found to be 4.0 callf.tqChoice D is the best answer. 3000 cal = (15 g)(CX50

K) .'. C = 3000 ,ul /

3000

Example 8.19 \Alhich of the following observations is valid when comparing two materials equal mass starting at the same temperature?

A. The material with the greater heat capacity has a higher melting point. B. The material with the greater heat capacity has a higher boiling point.
C. D.
The material with the greater heat capacity reaches a higher tem when they are both exposed to the same amount of heat energy. The material with the greater heat capacity reaches a lower when they are both exposed to the same amount of heat energy.

Solution

little to do with heat capacity. They both relate intermolecular forces to an extent, but they are not related to one another. such, heat capacity cannot be used to estimate melting point or boiling point, choices A and B are eliminated. If the two materials are exposed to the amount of heat energy (q) and both have equal masses (m), then the with the greater heat capacity (C) experiences the smaller temperature (AT), according to Equation 8.10. A smaller temperature change results Iower final temperature, so choice D is the best answer.
Phase change processes have

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Thermochemistry

Calorimetry

Heat of Phase Changes In addition to heat being absorbed or released as the temperature of a material, mixture, or solution changes, heat can also be exchanged when a material undergoes a phase change. However, during a phase change, the temperafure of the system does not change. Phase changes are reversible physical processes. If a phase-change process is endothermic, then the reverse process is exothermic, yielding the same absolute value of energy. For instance, the melting of a solid into a liquid is endothermic, with an enthalpy change of AH;rrr1or.,. The freezing of that same liquid into a solid is exothermic, and the enthalpy change for freezinghas the same absolute value as AH6rrriorr, but it is a negative number.
The heat exchanged during a phase change can explain some seemingly bizarre phenomena. As strange as it may seem, when water heezes, the surrounding environment becomes warmer. An interesting application involves frozen lakes. As water freezes downward from the bottom of the ice layer at the surface of the lake, heat is released to the surrounding water. This warms the water just below the surface of the ice. Water is densest at 4'C, so as the water warms from 0'C to 4'C, it becomes denser. Warm water (if you can call water between 0"C and 4'C "warm") sinks to the bottom of the lake. This is responsible for the circulation of water under frozen lakes. The heat of phase changes can also be applied to the concept of refrigeration. The enthalpy of vapofization is significantly greater than the heat of fusion, so a phase change between liquid and gas can be used to absorb or release a great deal of heat. For instance, steam bums are far more severe than hot water burns, even when the steam and water are both at 100"C. The greatest amount of heat is associated with condensation. This is also the idea behind perspiration. When we perspire, the moisture on our skin evaporates, absorbing a large amount of

heat from the surface of our body. This works only in urrrriror,*ents that are arid. L:r a humid environment, moisture from the air can condense on your skin, rvhich negates the perspiration process. This is why a "dry heat" feels preferable to a "hot and muggy" climate for most people. Our bodies are physiologically equipped to deal with heat in a dry climate.

Example 8.20

How much energy is required to melt 30 grams of ice at 0'C? (AH6.rsion = 6.0 kIlmole)

A. B.
D.

c.

5.4 kJ 5.0 kJ 9.0 kJ 10.0 kJ

Solution ln this question, AHfusion is expressed in units of energy per mole, so the amount lf water in the ice should also be expressed in terms of moles, rather than grams. ',\'e must start by converting grams of ice into moles of ice. Upon dividing the 30 by water's molecular mass (18 grams per mole), we get 1.667 moles of ice. -ams Ihe math is simply: 1.667 moles x 6.0 kilojoules per mole = 10 kJ. The correct e:$wer is choice D. When you consider the amount of calories needed to melt :;e, it becomes evident that snacking on ice is a great diet strategy from a caloric standpoint. Ffowever, from a nutritional standpoint, a diet of nothing but ice :nips would probably not be the best for anyone in the long run.

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General Chemistry

Thennochemistry

Calorimetry

Calorimetry Experiments The enthalpy change values we see in general chemistry textbooks are the results of calorimetry studies. A calorimetry study involves carrying out a reaction in a container surrounded by a heat sink (usually water) to absorb or provide heat energy. One passage on the MCAT several years ago presented a typical calorimetry experiment using a styrofoam cup, an experiment that is conducted in most general chemistry laboratory classes. The reaction is an exothermic reaction between a strong acid and strong base. A styrofoam container is chosen because it is a good thermal insulator, and it fits within most laboratory budgets. The styrofoam calorimeter experiment is shown in Figure 8-5 below:

Thermometer

Initially filled with

100

mL

1.0

M HCl(aq)

Double styrofoam cup

Figure 8-5

A baseline temperatures for the hydrochloric acid solution in the styrofoam cup and for the L00 mL L.0 M KOH(aq) in a second container are determined. Once a steady baseline temperature for each solution is established, the potassium hydroxide solution is added to the hydrochloric acid solution in the styrofoarn cup. The temperature is then recorded at regular twenty-second intervals. Because the reaction is exothermic, the temperature of the system increases. A double styrofoam cup system is used to increase insulation. Figure 8-6 shows data that were collected and graphed at regular time intervals.
34.0 32.0

C r.o.)

30.0

fr ti
li

za.o
zo.o 24.0

t
0)

0)

20

40

60

80

100 120 140

Time (seconds) Figure 8-6

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Thermochemistry

Calorimetry

Analysis of the data has the goal of determining a value for AT for the mixture. The reaction is not instantaneous, because the heat is not transferred instantlp so the thermometer does not register the final temperature right away. Heat is lost from the system to the environment by the time the thermometer catches up and reads the actual solution temperature. To compensate for this loss of heat, the data points are used to extrapolate a line back to the time of mixing (the z0second line in this experiment). This leads to a value for AT, which can then be plugged into Equation 8.10, q = nCAT. The value used for AT is the change in temperature from initial temperature (at the time when the solutions are first mixed) to the projected temperature (extrapolated back to the time of mixing from the data), as shown in Figure 8-7 below:
34.0
32.0

U
@

30.0 28.0 26.0 24.0 22.0

L !

o.
E

c)

AT=34"C -2TC=12"C

20 40

507080 100 120 r40 160 180 200 220 240

Time (seconds) Figure 8-7

260

The styrofoam cup is not a perfect insulator, so some heat is lost to the environment, which accounts for the drop in solution temperature over time. with better insulation, the slope of the exirapolated line is .lor", to zero (a flat line). There are several conceptual and error-analysis questions that can accompany this experiment, which makes it a prime topic for the MCAT.
Example 8.21

tVhy is the solution stirred after mixing?

A. To generate the activation energy needed for the reaction B. To prevent the mixture from forming a biphasic system C. To increase the effectiveness of insulation D. To distribute the heat evenly throughout the system
Solution eliminated. Two aqueous solutions do not form a biphasic layer, so choice B is eliminated. Insulation depends on the material, not the motion of the solution, so ;hoice C is eliminated. Solutions are stirred to generate homogeneity of solute molecules and heat. Heat must be evenly distributed through the solution. If the >olution were not stirred, then the temperature of the solution at the point where *te thermometer rests might not be accurate, because heat pockets in the solution could exist. Choice D is the best answer.

stirring does not introduce much energy into the system, so choice A

is

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Example 8.22

Thermochemistry

Calorimetry

What would be observed if the concentrations of HCI and KOH were cut in half?

A. The change in temperature B. The change in temperature

C. D.
Solution

would would The change in temperature would The change in temperature would

be the same. increase by a factor of two. decrease by a factor of two. decrease by a factor of four.

If the concentrations of both solutions

were cut in half, assuming that their

volumes stayed the same, then the moles of reactants would be cut by half. With a reduction to half the quantity of reaction, the amount of heat released is cut by half. This would reduce AT by half, and makes choice C the best answer. If either reactant is decreased, then the amount of heat released must also decrease. In this case, both reactants are decreased by the same amount, so neither one
becomes the

limiting reagent.

Example 8.23 \A/hy is styrofoam chosen for the experiment?

A. For its high heat capacity B. For its isothermal compressibility

C. D.
For its thermal insulating capability For its ability to conduct heat

Solution
The goal in a calorimetry experiment is to measure the heat associated with a reaction. Paramount in this task is the ability to retain all energy within the container, minimizing the interaction with the surrounding medium. Styrofoam is chosen, because it is a good insulator. This makes choice C the best answer. You do not want the container to absorb heat, so choice A is eliminated. The experiment entails monitoring a temperature change, so no "isothermal" propertr is pertinent. This eliminates choice B. Styrofoam is not very dense, so it is assumed that its molecules are relatively far apart from one another. Molecules that are far apart (not in direct contact with one another) do not conduct heat

very

well. Thus, styrofoam reduces heat loss through conduction. This eliminates choice D. A thermos design is used in more accurate calorimetnexperiments. The design of a thermos includes an evacuated chamber between the inner container and the outer wall. An evacuated space prevents heat transfer either through convection or conduction.
Example 8.24 VVhy must a lid used be used in the calorimetry experiment?

A. To prevent heat loss via conduction B. To prevent heat loss via convection C. To prevent heat loss via evaporation D. To prevent heat loss via radiation
Solution
The lid serves as a barrier to prevent gaseous molecules from escaping. This reduces both convective heat loss and evaporative heat loss. The greatesl amount of heat is lost through evaporation, so the more significant role of a lid is to prevent evaporative heat loss. Choice C is the best answer.

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General Chemistry
Heat Transfer

Thermochemistry

Calorimetry

Heat is naturally transferred from a warmer object to a cooler object. The greater the difference in temperature between the objects, the more heat that transfers

per unit time. Heat is transferred in four ways: convection, conduction,

radiation, and evaporation-condensation. These terms are defined below, along with examples of each type of heat transfer.
Conaection (aia fluid medium): Convection is the movement of heat through a

fluid medium. The particles of the medium collide with the surface of the hot object, resulting in the transfer of heat from the hot object to the medium. The medium can flow, allowing it to travel through the space between the hot and cold objects. When a warm medium strikes the surface of a cold

is that heat is transferred from the warmer surface to the cooler surface through the fluid medium. Thb heat is said to travel via thermal currents.

object, heat is transferred through collision to the cold object. The net result

convection example: Convection ovens function by creating thermal currents, which heat food. The heat source (electric coil or flame) is placed in the bottom of the oven where the cooler (denser) air is found. The cooler air collides with the heat source, increasing its thermal energy. As the air becomes warmer, it becomes less dense, and thus rises. The food is typically placed near the top, above the heat source. The warmer air strikes the container holding the food and transfers heat to the container. This cools the air, which then becomes denser, and sinks back to the bottom. The flow of the warm and cool air creates thermal currents. Convection ovens are the conventional ovens found in most kitchens. Some convection ovens augment the air flow with fans that help circulate the warm and cool air.
Jonduction (uin direct contact): Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact (vibrational energy is transferred via collisions between neighboring molecules). The particles of a solid vibrate faster as the object becomes

warmer. Vibrating molecules can transfer heat energy to neighboring molecules when they collide. This allows neighboring molecules to equilibrate. Heat is transferred from the warmer point to the cooler point in the object. Because of the continual heat transfer and equilibration of vibrational kinetic energy between neighbors, heat gradients are formed.

londuction example: When heating a metal rod (as when roasting

marshmallows over an open flame), the end of the rod in the flame becomes hot. However, although one end is placed in a heat source energetic enough to cook food, the other end of the metal rod is not too hot to hold. This is because the temperature is not uniform throughout the rod. There is a gradient of temperatures between the hot end and the cold end of the rod. :,:.Jiation (absorption and emission of IR photons): Radiation is the emission of photon energy in the form of electromagnetic waves. The energy of the photon varies with the temperature of the object that emits it, as expressed in physics by Wien's displacement law. An object becomes cooler and its molecules move less energetically as it continues to radiate infrared energy. r :.diation examples: Heat-seeking devices are designed to detect regions of high infrared emission. Heat is responsible for making molecules vibrate, and IR photons, when absorbed, stimulate a molecule to reach an excited vibrational state. This means that hot objects emit infrared photons. Microwave ovens function by irradiating food with EM waves of a specific frequency that rotates the water molecules inside the food. By heating the water molecules selectively, water molecules can transfer heat to neighboring food molecules through conduction.
,

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Eaaporation-Condensation: Evaporation is an endothermic process in which a liquid absorbs heat and is converted a liquid into a gas. Condensation is an exothermic process whereby heat is released from a gas as it is converted into a liquid. A hot body can be cooled when a liquid evaporates from its surface. A cold body can be warmed when a liquid condenses on its surface. Evaporation-condensation example: Perspiration involves the evaporation of a thin film of liquid on the surface of the skin to cool the body. To maximize the effects, surface area must be maximized. In very humid environments, where the rate of condensation equals the rate of evaporation, evaporation is ineffective in cooling the body. For instance, when you first enter a gym, it feels hot and sticky. This is the perspiration from the other inhabitants condensing on the surface of your skin (you unsuspecting cold body you.) designing many kinds of machinery, engineers must consider all forms of heat transfer. A good example is the Miracle Meat ThawerrM, as seen on some of the finer infomercials television has to offer. The Miracle Meat ThawerrM takes advantage of several principles of heat transfer. It is a metal tray with a black top, and ridges. The dark surface absorbs light energy more effectively than a light surface would. The ridges increase the surface area, optimizing the absorption of photons. Being made of metal allows for easier conduction of heat
\Atrhen

energy. The metal should have a low heat capacity, so that minimal heat is retained by the metal itself. A frozen piece of meat placed on the surface of the thawer acts as a heat sink for all of the energy absorbed by the metal tray. A well-designed tray has a slight slope and a drainage hole leading to a basin. If water collected on the surface of the plate, then heat energy would be wasted in evaporating the water. The apparatus does not work as well if the object being thawed covers the entire surface, because fewer photons can be absorbed. An engine radiator is another example of a device designed to transfer heat. It works by moving a fluid through the core of a hot engine. The fluid absorbs heat, provided that the coils through which it moves have enough contact with the hot engine. The fluid then passes through more coils in the front of the car, which are covered with thin fins. The purpose of the fins is to maximize the surface area from which heat may be lost via convection. As air passes over the
fins, heat from the engine is released to the air.

Example 8.25 \A/hich of the following is NOT a reason why the space surrounding the resistive coil in an incandescent light bulb is evacuated?

A. B. C. D.

To maximize energy loss via radiation To prevent pressure buildup at higher temperatures To prevent oxidation of the filament To maximize energy loss via convection

Solution A light bulb is designed to convert heat (generated through resistance in the coil into light. By evacuating any gas from the bulb, we reduce the amount of hea; energy transferred from the coil through convection. The result is that energy is dissipated as light, and not heat. This maximizes radiation and minimizes convection, making choice A valid and choice D invalid. Choice D is the bes: answer. If the bulb contained gas, the gas could expand upon heating, and the bulb might blow up. This makes choice B a valid statement. In an evacuatei bulb, there is no oxygen, so oxidation is eliminated. This makes choice C valid'

il

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fleat and Wofl1
:

Thermochemistry

lleat and Ulorh

,:

, ,, ,,,,,,,

:,,; " ,,
,,:,

,,,',

Energetics Energy is a topic conunon to both chemistry and physics. In a sense, chemistry is the study of energy production while physics is the study of energy application. In chemistry, we think of energy in terms of heat, which is defined by the calorie unit. Heat is absorbed or released during chemical reactions. In physics, we think of energy in terms of work, which is defined by the joule unit. Work is done by either the system or the surroundings in a physical process.

Energy can be converted between heat and work. Heat may be absorbed by a system, expanding the gas contained within, which in turn does work on the surroundings as it expands. This is the essence of any machine that converts heat directly into work. In this case, heat is defined as positive, because heat energy is gained by the system. Work, however, is defined as negative, because work is done by the system on the surroundings. The total energy of a system is a sum of the heat and work. Equation 8.11 defines the change in energy for the system.

4f, = q-PAV

(8.11)

E is the energy of the system, q is heat, P is pressure, and V is volume. Work can be described as either FAd or PAV, depending on the system. For a piston system, the volume changes, so work is PAV. As a piston expands (positive AV), energy is released by the system to the surroundings, so work is defined as PAV. Values are defined from the system's perspective. When q is positive, heat f-lows from the surroundings into the system. \Alhen q is negative, heat flows from the system out to the surroundings. When w is positive, work is done on the system by the surroundings. \A/hen w is negative, wotk is done by the system on the surroundings. \rVhen a piston retums to its original position, the energy of a system does not change (AE = 0). This is to say that energy is neither absorbed nor released, but converted between work and energy (q = plV). Some terms that describe the conditions involved in energetics are listed below:

Adiabatic: A process where there is no change in heat (q = O). Heat is neither gained nor lost. The system is perfectly insulated thermally. Colorie: A unit of energy defined as the heat energy required to raise 1.000 gram of water by 1.000 "C (specifically from 14.50"C to 15.50 'C).
Energy (E): The capacity to do work or to produce heat. There are two types

of energy with which we shall concern ourselves: kinetic (energy of motion) and potential (position of an object or chemical composition).

(q): The form of energy involving the motion of molecules. Motion includes translational displacement, and vibrational and rotational movement. The heat associated with a process depends on the pathway. .{otile: A unit of energy defined as the work energy exerted when one Newton of force is applied to an object to move it a distance of one meter.
Heat
SLtrroundings: The surroundings are defined as the environment neighboring a chemical reaction or physical process. The surroundings can either donate energy to the system or absorb energy from the system.

System: The system is defined as the contents of a chemical reaction or physical process that produce or absorb energy. We often study the system, ithen we look at a chemical reaction. ",\'ork (w)'. The ability to move an object over a given distance by applying a iorce. This form of energy is harnessed to move mass. Like heat, work
Sepends on the pathway. w = F.d = - P.AV

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Carnot Cycle The Carnot cycle is a cyclic process carried out in a piston, where heat is converted into work or work is converted into heat. Practical examples of the Camot cycle include engines and refrigerators. We inherently know the concept behind the Carnot cycle. I4trhen we blow on a hot liquid, it is done so with pursed lips. If you exhale through your mouth with a normal relaxed degree of aperture, your breath comes out at body temperature. But if you exhale through your mouth with a small opening, the air feels cooler as it passes across your skin. That is due to the compression of the gas (exothermic) as it passes through your lips, and the expansion of the gas (endothermic) once it leaves your mouth. The air feels cooler, because it is expanding as it passes across the surface of your skin. When a gas expands, the molecules increase their intermolecular distance, which breaks intermolecular forces. Just as bond breaking is endothermic, so is
the expansion of a gas.

The process of blowing air on your skin through pursed lips results in heat transfer from a cold body (your skin) to a hot body (your mouth). This is unnatural heat flow, so it is similar to the function of the Camot heat pump. We shall look at a heat pump (refrigerator) in more detail. The Carnot cycle, in a practical sense, can be applied in the form of a heat pump or applied in reverse in the form of a heat engine. It involves phase changes, so the process is often drawn overlaid onto a phase diagram, but the traditional lines of the phase diagram are sometimes removed. Figure 8-8 shows a typical phase diagram on the left and then the Carnot cycle for a heat pump overlaid onto that same phase diagram on the right.
(, q) tr
0)

g
a
H

q)

t{

(^
C,

li pi

Temperature (kelvins)

Temperature (kelvins) Figure 8-8

The heat pump follows a counterclockwise path about the phase change plocess cycle. The following lists the phase details of the four-step cycle shown in Figure
8-8:

1,. A material that is normally a gas at room temPerature and pressure is compressed into a liquid. Condensation is an exothermic process, so the material heats up and finishes as a liquid at a higher temperature and
pressure than it originally had.
2.

The material is maintained at a high pressure, so

J.

it remains a liquid. It is allowed to cool back to room temperature by dissipating heat to the environment. It finishes at a lower temperature, but the same high pressureThe pressure on the system is returned to normal, so the material ex from a liquid into a gas. Evaporation is an endothermic process, so material cools down. It finishes as a gas at a lower temperature and than it originally had.

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Thermochemistry

Heat and lllork

The material is maintained at normal pressure, so it remains a gas. It is allowed to warm back to room temperature by absorbing heat-from the environment. It finishes at a higher temperature, but the same pressure. After the four-step process, the material returns back to its original state. The internal energy does not change. Figure 8-9 shows the energetics of the heat pump cycle shown in Figure 8-8.
(,1

l{

o
(,

t{

o CJ lr

(,/)

Temperature (kelvins)

Figure 8-9 As you follow the heat pump around in its counterclockwise path, you see that work is done so that heat energy can be released. The following is a list of the energy details of the four-step cycle shown in Figure 8-9: 1. As the material is compressed into a liquid, work is done on the system (w1). Heat is released from the molecules as they form stronger intermolecular forces. The heat remains a part of the system in this step, so we cannot consider it transferred yet. temperature

(q*). As it cools at constant pressure, the volume decreases slightly (liquids do not exhibit significant volume changes), so work is done by the surroundings on the system (w2). 3' As the material expands back into a gas, work is done by the system (w3). Heat is absorbed by the molecules as they form weaker intermolecular forces. The heat is not replenished into the system in this step. 1. Heat is absorbed by the system as the material warms to ambient temperafure (q+). As it heats at constant pressure, the volume increases, so work is done by the system on the suroundings (w+). -{-fter the four-step process, the material returns to its original state. Overall, rnore heat is released than absorbed and more work is done on the system than b)' the system. The net result is that work goes into the system and heat flows aut from the system. Another common graph associated with Carnot heat riunps shows pressure on the y-axis and volume on the x-axis. The process is -Jre same, but a phase diagram cannot be understood easily with such axes.

2.

Heat is released from the system as the material cools to ambient

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Refrigerator (Applied Heat Pump) The refrigerator, in its simplest form, uses work to absorb heat as a fluid passes through the four stages in a closed system. In a refrigerator, a change in volume is ultimately a change in heat. The basic idea behind the refrigerator is to put work energy into the system to compress a gas and condense it into a liquid. Compression of a gas and condensation are both exothermic, so heat is released. The system is then allowed to thermally equilibrate with the environment by releasing heat to the surroundings. Following thermal equilibration, the liquid evaporates and the gas expands back to its natural state. Evaporation and the expanding of a gas are both endothermic, so heat is absorbed. Condensation and evaporation are carried out at different pressures, so it takes more work energy to compress and condense the gas than the work energ'y released when the liquid evaporates and the gas expands. Ideally, the difference in work energy equals the heat energy released, assuming that energy is conserved in the overall process. Figure 8-10 shows a simplistic schematic diagram for the process, where some material flows repeatedly counterclockwise through the system.

Translating from the theoretical schematic in Figure 8-10 into the actual refrigerator requires a piston and a network of coils. A piston is used to compress the gas into a liquid. This is represented by the gas-to-liquid conversion shown in the exothermic oval of Figure 8-10. This region equates to the compressor in a refrigerator. The compressor converts the refrigerant gas to its liquid form, which is an exothermic process. After compressing the refrigerant, the liquid refrigerant flows into a high-pressure reservoir coil, whidt is represented by the shaded tube from which heat is released in Figure 8-10Because the reservoir coil is hot, the outer surface is fitted with fins to enhance convection. In order to keep the material a liquid, the warm coil must be
pressurized. This is accomplished using
a pressure

valve at the end of the coil.

Once the liquid refrigerant has cooled to ambient room temperature (RT),

it

passes through the pressure valve, and then expands into a gas within a lowpressure sealed aluminum coil. As the liquid refrigerant expands within the lowpressure coil to form a gas, heat is absorbed from the environment during this

endothermic process. Heat is absorbed from the coils, so the coils become cold In turn, the coils absorb heat from the surrounding air. Any gas, liquid, or solid in contact with the coils loses heat by transferring it to the walls of the coils. The cold coils are placed in an insulated, sealed container, so the core of the contai becomes cool. This is the interior of the refrigerator. The compressor and pressure coils must be kept as far away from the core of the container as because of the heat they release. Figure 8-11 is a more detailed pi representation of the refrigeration process shown in Figure 8-10.

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Inlet valve Outlet valve

Gas is compressed into a liquid (exothermic process)

Figure 8-11
The four stages of the refrigerator shown in Figure 8-11 are listed below:

1.

Freon gas flows from the low-pressure coils into the piston of the compressor

through an inlet valve at the top of the piston. The piston is then
compressed. The increased pressure exerted on the freon gas converts the freon gas into its liquid phase. As the piston descends further, the hot freon liquid is forced through an outlet valve. The liquid is hot due to the condensation process. (Check a compressor if you wish to verify this).

2.

3.

1.

When the piston reaches the bottom of its cycle, the outlet valve is forced open, and hot freon liquid escapes into the high pressure coils. Because freon liquid is hot (condensation is a heat-releasing process), the high-pressure coils are hot. They are found on the back (exterior) of the refrigerator, often protected by a metal grid or thin plate. The freon liquid cools and equilibrates with the air by dissipating the heat to the external environment through the walls of the coils. Coils are chosen to maximize surface area. Freon liquid at ambient temperature is forced from the high-pressure coils through a pressurized outlet valve into the low-pressure coils. The freon liquid is forced into the low-pressure coils by the increased hydraulic pressure generated when hot freon liquid is forced into the high-pressure coils through the inlet valve by the compressor. Freon liquid evaporates to form freon gas in the low-pressure coils. Freon evaporates by the absorption of heat from the core of the container in which the low-pressure coils reside. During this step, heat is absorbed from the inside of the refrigerator. The freon gas fills the low-pressure coil once it has evaporated. The cycle repeats.

The net result is that work is applied at the compressor, and heat flows out from the high-pressure coils, so heat is removed from the core of the refrigerator to the environment. The compressor acts as a pump, and freon flow is in one direction through the system. Heat is absorbed and released at different points.

-\ir conditioners and

freezers have the same mechanics as a refrigerator. The

lhe temperature of the cold coils equals the boiling point of the refrigerant. A :efrigerant is selected on the basis of its boiling point and the target temperature .rt the system. The temperature in a freezer is less than the temperature of a an elr conditioner or refrigerator, so the boiling point of the refrigerant used in a :eezer is lower than the refrigerant used in an air conditioner or a refrigerator.

Cifference between freezers, air conditioners, and refrigerators is the temperature the internal coils. Because a phase change from liquid to gas absorbs the heat, 'rf

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The Carnot heat engine is the reverse of a Carnot heat pump. This is to say that when a heat pump is run backwards (heat is added in and work is released), a heat engine is created. The diagram for a heat engine, Figure 8-12, shows arrows in a clockwise loop, as opposed to the heat pump, which has its arrows in a counterclockwise loop, like Figure 8-9. The heat engine operates by converting heat into work. In its simplest definition (Carnot definition), heat is used to expand a gas in a closed system within a piston. When the gas expands, the

walls of the container move. Because the container is a piston, only one wall moves. Work is associated with force times distance, so the motion of the wall is harnessable work. The basic concept behind a heat engine is rooted in the ideal gas equation PV = nRT, where altering one variable changes another variable. ln an engine, a change in heat is ultimately a change in volume. This means that no change in intemal energy transpires, only the conversion from heat into work. The following is the operation of a Carnot heat engine:

1.

The first step starting from the upper left comer of the diagram in Figure 8-12 below is the reversible isothermal expansion of the gas from state a to state b. During this step, work (defined as wu-6 in the diagram) is done by the piston on the surroundings (defined as negative for the system); and heat (qf ) ts absorbed by the gas. In a combustion engine, it is the explosion of the

gasoline that generates this heat.

2.

The second step is the reversible adiabatic expansion of the gas from state b to state c. As implied by the term "adiabatic," no heat is gained or lost by the system. As a consequence of no heat transfer, the temperature drops as heat energy is absorbed by the expanding gas. In this step, the piston does work (wU-.) on the surroundings. In a combustion engine, this is that small period of time after the gasoline has exploded where the piston is still rising.
The third step is the reversible isothermal compression of the gas from state c to state d. During this compression step, the surroundings do work (w6-4 on the gas (defined as positive for the system), and heat (q2) flows out of the engine. In a combustion engine, this is the venting of the piston allowing the hot exhaust to escape and cool air and gas to flow in.

: t
J"

lt:

3.

4.

The fourth step (which completes the cycle) is the reversible adiabatic compression of the gas from state d back to state a, During this step, the surroundings do work (wa-u) on the gas as the piston descends, but heat G not gained or lost. In a combustion engine, this is the equilibrating of the piston chamber back to its resting state just before the spark ignites the gas.

wc-a & 9z

Volume Figure 8-12 The graph may also be diagrammed as pressure as a function of volume. I:r* volume term is important, because work is defined by the equation: w = -Pl'iAs of 2000, the heat engine has yet to appear on the new version of the MCAT.

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A good example of the application of the principles behind the heat engine is the single-piston steam engine. In the steam engine, we start by considering a reservoir filled with hot water (water at 100"C). Water is taken through a fourstep process that changes its phase and pressure and then refums it to its original state. The following steps outline the operation of a steam engine:

1. 2.

Water evaporates to form steam as heat is stoked in the boiler. During this step, heat is added from the surroundings (defined as heat energy into the system). The steam builds up pressure in the reservoir.
Steam flor,t's from the reservoir into the piston when the inlet valve to the piston is opened. The pressure exerted by the steam that enters causes the piston to rise from its lowest point to its highest point (apex). As the piston rises, work is done by the system on the surroundings (defined as energy out from the system).
\zVhen the piston has reached the top of its cycle, the outlet valve is opened, and the steam escapes into the exhaust column and collects in the condenser.

3.

The piston returns to its lowest point through inertia and the force of a counterweight (in a one-piston engine). As the piston falls, work is done by the surroundings on the system (defined as work energy into the system).

4.

The steam condenses in the condenser and is pumped back into the boiler. During this step, heat is released to the surroundings (defined as heat energy out from the system) as the steam condenses back into water. The cycle then repeats step one again.

The condenser reduces the pressure so that when the exhaust valve is opened,
:he steam within the piston can flow from a region of higher pressure (the piston) :o a region of lower pressure (the condenser). Heat is released in the condenser, so an efficient engine finds a way to recycle that emitted heat. Figure 8-13 shows l pictorial diagram of a steam engine.

Exhaust

Boiler :

Water

pump

Condenser

Figure 8-13

' --. an open system. Petroleum mist and air are injected into the piston. The ::-rfure is ignited, and the piston rapidly expands. The power stroke of the :.::!rn does work on the crankshaft, tuming the crank 180 degrees. Exhaust is -'::.oved from the piston and released to the atmosphere. The conversion of , :-osive linear work into circular motion requires mechanisms that have been ,:=rully engineered with an understanding of the basic physics involved.
- . :', right
@

steam engine is a closed system through which water circulates. A

::'Lbustion engine differs from the Camot heat engine and steam engine in that

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one of the more important physics-based features of an engine is expansion and valve timing. Because the motion generated by an engine is periodic, there must be periods (timing) for each operation of the machine. The inlet valve must open and close (allowing fuel and air to enter the chamber) before the spark can ignite the mixture, followed by the opening of the exhaust valve to vent the products from the chamber. This is what is referred to as the timing of the engine. Modem engines have each piston fitted with four valves (two intake and two exhaust), so that the gas diffuses more evenly in the chamber. Because the up-and-down motion of the piston ultimately turns a crank, torque must be invoked. To maximize torque, a lever arm system is used. This allows the rod to be attached at the edge of the crank (maximizing moment arm) and allows the rod to move in same direction as the piston, for the most part. This maximizes the applied force of the system shown in Figure 8-13.
Engine Efficiency
The efficiency of an engine is simply the output over the input. Work energy is produced from heat energy, so engine efficiency is work out divided by heat in. The most efficient engines have low exhaust temperature (minimal heat G wasted), few moving parts (minimizes friction), and low weight (work energlproduced is not wasted in moving the engine). Efficient engines are multi-piston systems rather than a single piston connected to a counterweight. A good analogy involves a bicycle crank. The pedals are placed out of phase for greatest efficiency. A bicycle could be designed with two pedals in phase attached to a crank housing a counterweight that is out of phase with the two pedals. The counterweight system works well in theory, but this would not be an enjoyable bike to ride uphill because of its extreme mass.

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Thermochemistry Passages
l5
I OO

Passages

Questions

Suggested Thermochemistry passage Schedule: I: After reading this section and attending lecture: Passages I , lll, VI, & Xl Qrade passages immediately after completion and log"your mistakes.

II: III:

Following Task I: Passages IV, v, IX, & x (28 questions in 3i6 minutes) Time yourself accurately, grade your answers, and review mistakes. Review: Passages VII, VIII, XII - XIII & euestions 9J - I OO Focus on reviewing the concepts. Do not worry about timing.

, '!t,t,..,..

I2Effi L)R.E.V.r."E,.wt
Specialtzrng in MCAT Preparation

ffi

l! F
iiflti

:lili

1.I

1e

I.

Energy Diagrams

(r -7)
(8

II.

Bond Energies Born-flaber Cycle

Free-Energy Calculation

14)

III.
IV.
V.

(t5 - 2r)
(22 - 28) (2e - 35) (36 - 45) (44 - 4e)
(5O - 55)

Rocket Fuels

VI.

Enthalpies and Sugars

Salt-Solution Calorimetry Experiment

VII. VIII. IX. X.

tleat Pack
Bomb Calorimeter Hot and Cold Compresses
Calorimetry Experiment
Single'Piston Engine

(56 - 62) (65 - 6e)

(7O - 78)

XI. XII. XIII.

(7e - 85) (86 - s2) (95 1OO)

Carnot Cycle
Questions not Based on a Descriptive Passage

:l.er

Thermochemistry Scoring Scale

Raw Score
MCAT Score

:rO,it
,

Llfr, :

tai

84 - loo

66-85
47 -65

l3 l5 lo l2 7 -9

rineL

1.

34-46

t-33

4-6 L-3

Passage

(Questions 1 - 7)

. If AS is positive for Reaction 2, then as the temperature

is increased, what is observed?

Drawn below are two energy diagrams for two separate processes. Figure 1 shows the energy diagram for Reaction 1, and Figure 2 shows the energy diagram for Reaction 2. For Reaction 1, there are two pathways drawn leading to two separate products, X and Y. Both pathways represent twostep reaction mechanisms. In Reaction 2, therc are two steps to the reaction, as represented by the two peaks, but only one
reaction pathway is shown on the energy diagram.

A. D.

Both the IQO-to-Q ratio and AG increase.

B. _ The K.q-to-q ratio decreases, while AG increases. ,_'.C .)The &q-to-q ratio increases, while AG decreases.
Both the IQO{o-Q ratio and AG decrease.

For Reaction

l, what can be said about

the enthalpies

of
is

both pathways?

--.A. AH for Pathway X is positive; more energy

released from Pathway

X than Pathway Y. .-8. AH for Pathway X is positive; less energy is released from Pathway X than Pathway Y. . C. AH for Pathway X is negative; more energy is

_
a
Reaction Co-ordinate

9_.

-_released -AH

from Pathway X than Pathway Y.

is

for Pathway X is negative; less energy

X than Pathway Y.

released from Pathway

Figure

f:>
.k.
At higher temperatures, what is true about Pathway X
and Pathway Y of Reaction I ?

A.i

Pathway
Pathway

X is the kinetic pathway and is more

X is the thermodynamic pathway and is

.f.

probable than Pathway Y. more probable than Pathway Y.

e.
Figure
2

Pathway

Y is the kinetic pathway and is more

probable than Pathway X.

D. Pathway Y is the thermodynamic pathway and is

more probable than Pathway Y.

In Reaction 1, either pathway can occur, depending on .r: conditions. The pathways are referred as the kinetic and ':.ermodynamic pathways. Lower activation energy is
.,sociated with the kinetic pathway, while a more stable , rduct is associated with the thermodynamic pathway. At '.', temperatures, the reaction is forced to take the pathway ^..t requires the least activation energy. This means that the
'

\
i

:''.

-4.'.

What is observed in Reaction 2?

at lower temperatures. At elevated ;:rperatures, the thermodynamic product is observed.

,,-tic product is observed

{m" B.

intermediate builds up to a detectable level, because the rate-determining step is the first step. The intermediate builds up to a detectable level,
because the rate-determining step is the second step.

-.

In Reaction 1, what is true of the rate-determining step?

".)

B.

D.

The first step is rate-determining, because it has the highest activation energy. The first step is rate-determining, because it has the Iowest activation energy. The second step is rate-determining, because it has the highest activation energy. The second step is rate-determining, because the lowest activation energy.

.d. fn" D.

intermediate cannot build up to a detectable level, because the first step is rate-determining. The intermediate cannot build up to a detectable level, because the second step is rate-determining.

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,[-

*ntrh of the graphs represents the percentages

products X and Y as the temperature is increased?

of

A'

A.

T)

I is favorable at lower temperatures but unfavorable at higher temperatures, then what is true about the change in enthalpy and entropy?
,tReaction

-), (clu<o;AS>o

7/1,.

nu> o; AS > o

ct

LH>0;AS<0

di

)41 aH<o;AS<o
- 1 FoI

GI

g!

Temperature

---------->

/ --\ \ I L-:' \-'(- * \

xG- x'l{

-i'\

! ! ! ! ! ! n

Temperature

-------------->

Temperature

P. ,1

g
Temperature

---....--.>

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Passage

ll

(Questions 8

14)

l.b. Why does an tp2^C-tp3C bond have a higher bond

t

The enthalpy of a reaction can be found using the bond energies. The change in enthalpy can be attributed to the difference between the energies of the bonds broken and the energies of the bonds formed. Equation 1 shows how enthalpy change is obtained from bond energies.

l\

"n"igy A. An sp2 orbital is shorter than an sp3 orbital, hence the sP'C-sP'C bond is shorter and thus stronger.

than an sP3C-sP3C bond?

AH = B.E. (bonds broken) - B.E. (bonds formed)

Equation

Table 1 lists the bond energies of some of the more

common bonds within organic molecules.

sp"2 orbital is shorter than an sp3 orbital, hence the sP"C-sP'C bond is longer and thus weaker. .O. An sp2 orbital is les^s electronegative than an sp3 orbital, hence the sp'C-sprc bond is more polar rand thus stronger. D. An sp2 orbital is more electronegative than un tp3 orbital, hence the sp'C-spJC bond is more polar and thus stronger.

n"

Bond

B.E.
(KJ/moie)

Bond

B.E.
(KJ/mole)
34',1

Bond

B.E.
(KJ/mole)
305

\'
t' t'

( 1-t"' < \ "rr

'

H-C H-H H-N H-O H-F H-CI

H-Br

4t3
432
391

C-C C-H C-N

413
305 358

461 565
42'7

H-I

363 295

C-CI C-Br

C-F

c-o

485 339 276

N-C N-H N-N N-O N-F N-CI

391
160

I 1. The breaking of an H-H and an F-F bond to form

two

H-F

bonds

is:

201 212 200

243
111

C-I

240

N-I

N-Br

-A. highly endothermic. -B. slightlyendothermic. ., ., r \-r.i{ . -slightly exothermic.Ar{ ' " : , 'D. hishlv exothermic. I /
I

rl' 1'-'

:.

....

-r

\ - 2

Table

Table 2 lists the bond energies of some of the less Jommon bonds within organic molecules. Both tables fail to jccount for hybridization or the effects of neighboring
,ubstituents on the stability of a bond.

2.
.

How can the bond energy trend of the sulfur-halide bond

be explained?

k1"'As the halide gets larger, the bond gets stronger.

B.

As the halide gets more electronegative, the bond

gets stronger.

B.E.
(KJ/mole)

9i
D.

The strength of the bond depends on both the srze and polarizability oithe halide. As the electron affinity of the halide increases, the
bond gets stronger.

13

What is the approximate bond energy of a Br-F bond?

A. zil
Table
2

kI

B.
D.

Values were derived from bomb calorimetry experiments -,rng the gas phase reactions of several molecules. The kJ - it is converted into kcal by dividing by 4.18.

mole 242 kI mole

kJ kJ

'i ' ' .t

)

il

c.206

mole mole

161

\.

Which bond is the WEAKEST in diethyl peroxide?

A. H-c ) t1'\,'') B. C-O -: I .r, r-'. 1..

D. C-C

c. G-o.
nitrogen gas?

14.

Why is the

F-F

bond weaker than the

Cl-Cl

bond?

X(fn" F-F
of
the second n-bond in

bond is shorter, and shorter bonds are

What is the bond energy

A. 258.0 kJ per mole B. 390.5 kJ per mole

C,
D

- always weaker. B. Chlorine is more electronegative than fluorine. lQ-;Fluorine atoms repel when close together. -D-. Chlorine is smaller than fluorine.
t

^,'lt Ni - .'\-

ft

313.1 kJ per mole 523.0 kJ per

mole

,.1

l, i , - rovright O by The Berkeley p"rri"*@.*-l--J;

i,
r-

'i

'l

r69

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Passage

lll

(Questions 15 - 21)

#. Ho* do the lattice energies of NaCl, LiF, and MgO '* 'l/\ .--A. Err,lgO > ELir.> ENaCt I. ErureO > ENuCt > ELip t C)E11p>EN'CI>EVgO
. --D.
ENaCt > ELip > EUgO
?.,

The Born-Haber cycle refers to the energy released when a

compare to one another?

salt is formed from its most stable elements in their natural

form. The enthalpy change for the overall reaction can be

found by summing the individual steps of the overall process. The formation of lithium fluoride from lithium metal and fluorine gas is shown in a stepwise fashion below;

n1*
t

''

r. t '-' .'

"r

"

"-',i

t''

Step Step Step

Sublimation of lithium metal: Li(s) -+ Li(e) AHsublimation = +153 kJ

I:

II: Ionization oflithium gas: Li(g) -+ Li+(g) Ionization energy = +513 kJ

-ll['\')

,-,4 I ,l If calcium metal is used instead of lithium metal, hos c4n-the value in Step II be determined?
Cn

III: Dissociation of F-F Bond: Half bond energy F2= +77 H I fz6l -+ F(g) 2 --' Step IV: Electron affinity of atomic fluorine: F(g) + 1 e- -+ F-(g) Electron affinity = -324H Step V: Formation of lattice from gaseous ions: Li+(g) + F-(g) -+ LiF(s) Lauice energy = -1045 kJ
Overall:
Li(s) + ! pzgl

\-/,,/Onlv the value fbr the first ionization should be ur"i.

B.
Only the value for the second ionization should be
used.

C. An average ofthe first and second ionization

should be used.

value:

D.

The sum of the first and second ionization values

should be used.

2'-

-; LiF(s)

t9.
AHreaction

The electron affinity can BEST be described as:

-626k1

. "8.
\

the energy associated with the excitation of ar

electron.

using Equation l, where Q is charge and r is the distance between ions in the lattice:

The total energy of the reaction is found by summing the five steps of the reaction. The lattice energy can be found

the energy associated with the de-excitation of an electron. -El'tlte energy associated with the loss of an electron. t energy associated with the gain of an electron.

g = p QcationQanion r

;..the

Equation I
2

0.

Which change results in LESS energy being released in

the overall process?

15. If

sodium metal were used instead of lithium metal,

A. Using a metal that is easier to sublime tham j r * lithium L The sublimation energy would increase. ., ^ t. I 1 B. Using a halogen that forms a stronger bond a-s * tr. The ionization energy would increase..-^,-.{ "'., :,': - diatomic molecule than fluorine. ' v"' m. The lattice energy would increase. -) C. Using a halogen atom with a greater electrom affinity than fluorine @ I only -4 fu^ -{ L*, -}r.i*J | .-,,.' /' D . Using a cation that can easily lose a second elecrcm --4._ IIonly z{. land II only D. I and III only
what values would be affected?
: | "r in

21.

What changes would reduce the lattice energy?

.f&. *n,

is only half of the bond dissociarion energy used in Step III?

The F-F bond is only partially broken. The table value for the bond dissociation energy is double the actual value for the bond dissociition
energy. Because the bond is broken in a heterolytic fashion, the bond dissociation value is only halfofthe value for the homolytic breaking. atoms, and only one is needed.

{ . . B. r.. -' '!.

L II. m.

Substituting a larger cation for a smaller cation Substituting an anion of less charge for the anion

Reducing the cation charge, anion charge, and distance between ions each by half

-D. The breaking of the bond produces two fluorine

i.,,-'--u'

X I andll onlv III -4.. It, andand only D ) II, III

A:.)only

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Passage

lV

(Questions 22

- 28)

25. If a reaction

The free energy of a reaction depends on the favorability of the reaction and the position of the equilibrium. Reactions that spontaneously proceeds in the forward direction are said to have negative free energy changes. This is defined as a

that is spontaneous as written lowers the solution temperature as it proceeds, then the AS for the reaction is:
negative at all temperatures.

.A. ,}i
,C.

negative at low temperatures and positive at high

.temperatures.

favorable reaction. The equation below shows the relationship ofthe free energy change (AGrJ and the standard
equilibrium shift from equal parts products and reactants.
AGobserved = AG" + RT lnQr*

positive at low temperatures and negative at high

temperatures.

D.

positive at all temperatures.

Equation
when one mole

5.:
26. The AGobserved
for
a

The value for AG' can be found by measuring the AGq

of

each product and reactant are mixed

together in a one liter container. The value for AG" is given by the following equation:

reaction can be found by which of

the following equations?

AG.=_RTlnKsq Equation 2
The free-energy change can also be found using the
.o11owing equation: AG11

A. B.
C.

AGe6sslved = RT ln

ar*
K"q

AGe6sslved = RT ln AG66sglued =

Is
At

=AHrx-TASfx Equation 3

=Qrx K"q

eRT

The AH.* represents the enthalpy change for the reaction, i hich is measured as the heat change (either gained or lost) :uring the reaction. The ASr* represents the entropy change
.

D.
...

AGob.erug6
.

=:E
t'

,.

''' t i I ''

a* *1-:

K-

sRT
':' "

.,.-,o
i)', , -'' t: '
'-"-

-.ndomness of motion during the reaction.

rr the reaction, which is

measured as the change in

i'.'
?7

-i' I /'oirtittutioirtoietrranol from 6ct'# -\ Ii'. Solvation of a salt by water --\ C . Sublimation of, iodine solid D . Diffusion of a pure gas into the air - I -

Which process is NOT entropically favoratle?

11'f i

""

",.. ' :

For a reaction where the reaction quotient (Qr") is greater than the equilibrium constant (Keq), what is true about the reaction and AG66ss1yg6?
side to reach equilibrium. AG66selved < 0; the reaction shifts to the reactant

_..A. AGe6ssrved > 0; the reaction shifts to the reactant

B.
,,C .

side to reach equilibrium.

AG66.erved
AG655g1ved

0; the reaction shifts to the product

side to reach equilibrium.

I3

Which reaction has a AS value > 0?

D.

< 0; the reaction shifts to the product

--J. PCt:(r) + Cl2(g) : C . 2 HzG) + Oz(g) --A.

NaCl(s) + HZO(I)

Na+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

side to reach equilibrium.

PCl5(s) 2HzO(1)

E.Nz(e)+Oz(e)

2NO(e)

28.

\ddition of a catalyst MOST

changes:

The AH for a given reaction is 12.5 kJ/mole. The AS for the reaction is 25 J/mole'K. At what temperature does the equilibrium constant equal 1.0?

A.
8,..

O'C

227'C
327"C

. B. C. D.
A

the free energy ofthe reaction.

the enthalpy of the reaction. the entropy ofthe reaction.

the rate of the reaction.

c. D.

500'c
I-

.1
I

,:

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Passage

(Questions 29 - 35)

0.

What makes kerosene a better fuel for early rocket

stages than hydrogen gas?

Over the past few decades, several advances have been made in rocket propulsion systems. These center on the engineering of the rocket equipment, as well as on advances in the fuels used to propel rockets. The ideal fuel system is lightweight and capable ofproviding large sustained bursts of energy. A perfect fuel system is liquid hydrogen (b.p. 18 K) mixed with liquid oxygen (b.p. 91 K). Reaction I below is the gas phase combustion reaction of hydrogen and oxygen. HZ(g) +

B.
C. D.

At standard temperature, kerosene is far denser thm hydrogen, and thus more convenient to store. Kerosene provides more energy per gram than hydrogen. Kerosene burns at a higher temperature. Oxidation of kerosene produces fewer products.

! Oz(el -+ HzO(g); 2
1.,

LH' =

-242

kJ

mole

31.

Which of the following describes the ideal mixture

hydrazine and dinitrogen tetraoxide?

Reaction

oxidation of hydrogen gas

The oxidation ofhydrogen gas has been used in the later stages of several launches oforbiting space craft, but it is not used for the initial launch from earth, where greater energy is

L.2 B.

c.

I by mass in favor of hydrazine I by mass of hydrazine with N2O4

2 by mass in favor of N2O4

required. Reactions 2, 3, and 4 have also been used to

generate the energy required to move massive projectiles.

D.2 I by mass in favor of N2O4

2.

C12H26(t)

+ 181Oz(g)
2

12 COz(e)

+ 13 H2O(g)

Which of the following reactions CANNOT be used

propel rockets?

AH" =

-75t3

kJ mole

Reaction 2, oxidation of kerosene

2 N2Ha(l) + NzO+(e) AH" =

A. C6H1a(l) + gL OzG) -+
B. N2H4+lKC1O4

6 CO2(g) + 7 H2O(g)

-+

N2

+2H2O+lKCl

3 Nz(e) + 4HzO(e) kJ

-t049

C. D.

Fe + (NH4)2CrO4 -+

mole Reaction 3, hydrazine oxidation via dinitrogen tetraoxide

L Fe'rOr + HrO + .L CrrOr + 2

H2SO4 + 2

KOH -+ K2SO4 + 2H2O

2'2'

2Al(s)+6NHaClOa(s)

-+ I NO2(g)

+ 6 HCl(s) +

Al2O3(g) +9 H2O(s)

AH" =

-1216

kJ

33.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement of

rocket fuel?

mole

Reaction 4, AU(C2Ha)1 oxidation via NH4CIO4

The reactions all generate a great amount of heat by way

of oxidation. By rapidly oxidizing the fuel, a concentrated

stream of energy is produced to in the determined pathway.
2

A. B. C. D.
34.

Highly exothermic combustion reaction A large heat-to-gram fuel ratio Highly reactive
Gas phase at room temperature as an oxidant or reductant

lift

the rocket and project

it
In the N2H4(1) + NZO+(g) reaction, what is true?

9.

The AHformation of H2O(l) is -286 kJ per mole. How can the difference from the value listed in the passage be
explained?

A. B. C. D.

The condensation of water is endothermic, so the AHformation for H2O(1) is more negative than
AHformation of H2O(g). The condensation of water is exothermic, so the

A. B. C. D.
5.

N2Oa(g) is a reducing agent. N2Ha(l) loses four electrons per nitrogen.

Nitrogen-nitrogen bonds are broken.

Hydrazine is being oxidized.

AHformation for H2O(l) is more negative than

AHformation of HZO(g). The condensation of water is endothermic, so the AHformarion for H2O(l) is less negative than AHformation of H2O(g). The condensation of water is exothermic, so the AHformation for H2O(l) is less negative than AHformation of HzO(g).

What is the heat per gram value for kerosene?

A. B. C. D.

Greater than 75.0 kJ per gram Greater than 50.0, but less than 75.0 kJ per Greater than 40.0, but less than 50.0 kJ per Less than 40.0 kJ per gram

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il,,1

Passage

Vl

(Questions 36 - 43)

3V. The difference in the enthalpies of \

combustion for

Thermodynamics is the study of energy and its distribution within a physical or chemical system. One of the common mathematical practices in thermodynamics is the coupling of several processes to sum up to an overall process. For example, the overall enthalpy is the sum of the individual enthalpies for each reaction. This is known as Hess's law. In addition to enthalpy, entropy and free energy :an also be determined using Hess's law. The entropy and tiee energy change for a reaction is equal to the sum of the entropy and free energy changes for any set of reactions that
sum to the same reaction.

xylose (an aldopentose) and ribose (an aldopentose).can , "''"1 '-r'".*' BEST be attributed tor ,^ ] e -' "

d
-D

thedifference in the number of O-H bonds.

. the difference in the number of C=O bonds.

'

rf

A common application of this procedure is the summing the heats of formation for each reactant and product to

3)Q. From the values in Table I, what can be said about the hydrogenation of acetylene (CZH2;' to ethylene (CZHq)?

^r.{Uyarogenation of acetylene is favorable.

HyOrogenation of acetylene is unfavorable.

/\

obtain the heat for the overall reaction, such as the --ombustion of a hydrocarbon. By definition, the heat of lormation for an element in its most natural state at 25'C is
kJ/mole. This is to say that converting an element such as O2(g) into O2(g) (the most stable form of oxygen at room :emperature) requires 0 kJ/mole. A small sampling from a :hart of enthalpies of formation is listed below. The chart :'elow can be used in conjunction with Hess's law (which is rot one of the laws of thermodynamics) to calculate the
.'

(J-

, p. -Ei

The free energy change for the reaction cannot be

calculated without knowing the enthalpy of

formation for H2(g). The free energy change for the reaction cannot be

'_.p';- calculated without knowing the enthalpy of

combustion for HZ(g).

\ C2L{2:.i{,

---$

C'.*ILV

alues common to thermodynamics.

Compound Cor(e)
CzHzG) CrHa(e) CzHsOH(l) Hzo(e)

\mole/ ^H'{
-393.5

kJ I

\mole/ ^c'l
-394.3 +209.1 +68.3 -114.9

k.r

(ot,i
I 3

''2-o1.(

-'{:a'}

9.

Which of the following is the change in enthalpy for

the formation of chloroethene under standard conditions?

+226.8
+52.4
-21',t.1

'A

AH for the reaction:

-241.8

HrO(l)

-285.9

-228.6 -237.2
1

B. AH for

the reaction:

2 C(er) +

Table

tl Hz(e) + I 22 tI Hz(e) + I 22 lI
2

Ctz(t)

+ C2H3C1(g)
-+ C2H3Cl(g)

C. AH for

the reaction:

The phase of the compound is specified, because the =iergies are different for each phase of the compound. The ::fference between the thermodynamic values associated with :.ch phase is the thermodynamic value for the phase change ::ocess. The enthalpy of fusion (associated with melting) -.n be found by subtracting the enthalpy of formation for the i,:lid from the enthalpy of formation for the liquid. The =:thalpy for a reaction is found by subtracting the enthalpy of ::,rmation for all of the reactants from the enthalpy of . :mation for all of the products.
-r

2 C(d) +

Ctz(e)

AH for the reaction: 2 C(d) +

H2(c) + 1 Cl(g) -+ C2H3Cl(g)

0.

Which of the following is the change in enthalpy for

the combustion ofpropene under standard conditions?

6.

What is the free energy change for the vaporization of

water under standard conditions?

k": -44.r kJ
mole

\)-r.o !';

-'''.-'''

t)'/

(.

,d, -8.6 kJ
+8.6
D.

mole
kJ

_z-7t.t-\:{

-.L " ) ';

/ rAo3 ' .( ) AHTHTO +2 AH1CO2 - AHgC3H6 /' Br' 3 AHiH2O + 3 AHpCO2 - AH1C3H6 vre, 4 AH1H2o + 3 AH1co2 - AHpc3H6 -D: AHlC3Ho - 3 AH6CO2 - 3 AH1H2O
(":.

\'(*

'"'

At

-_O-L\

--itjCo->-

ll'J ,

*.:

mole +44.1 kJ mole

@

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Given that AHformation for

H3C-CH: is -87.4 --kJ-,

Passage

Vll

(Questions 44

49)

, I,h (

how can the AHr* of -271.4

kJ fo. the following

H3CCH2CH2CH3

mole

mole
hydrogenation reaction be explained?

The enthalpy of a reaction can be calculated empirically using data from calorimetry experiments. In the standari
procedure, referred to as bomb calorimetry, a known quanriry of a compound is burned in a containment vessel surroundoi by a liquid with a known heat capacity (usually water). Tlie heat absorbed by the surroundings is assumed to equal the heat released by the reaction. This indirectly gives the AH for

Hz9=CFI-CH=CH2 + 2H2

..K'. Thevalue for AH.* is more negative than expected,

because the reactant is stabilized by conjugation.

,"'{ fn" value for AHr* is less negative than expected, . ,because the reactant is stabilized by conjugation. ,' C . .The value for AHo is more negative than expected, -'/ because the product is stabilized by conjugation. it'D.
tne value for AH.* is less negative than expected,
because the product is stabilized by conjugation.
t (','*

the reaction. An error that arises using this method is the loss of heat to the environment. To avoid this, the liquid ri encased in an insulated container.
The results of calorimetry experiments can be combina:

to determine the AH for other reactions using Hess's lan Hess's law states that the AH for a reaction is equal to the sum ofthe AH values for any series ofreactions that sum ry
to the overall reaction.

r fl -i\."t"t

n:' (-t t-\ 6'ot& t . .-, .*( \ t, - tl-, '+ \

A researcher conducts the following two experimenrc rr determine the molar heat of formation for magnesium oxide:
Experiment I

, '/ '!! '

nO,;

*nr.n of the following

under standard conditions?

statements is true about the heat produced from burning one gram of ethyne and one gram of ethene in the presence of excess oxygen gas

,/ Ai
,.

,/

1.0 g C2H2(g) yields more heat than 1.0

CzHq(e).

..,-B-."-.1.0 gCzHzG) yields less heat than 1.0 g C2Ha(g). l,

A researcher places into an insulated beaker 1.00 kg of0.llM HCI solution (C = 4.34 J/g'K) at 22'C. This beaker is labeled Beaker l. 2.43 grams of magnesium metal (24.-: grams/mole) are then added to the solution. A thermometer calibrated in 0.10"C increments is placed into the beaker' The temperature at uniform time intervals is recorded ir Figure 1. Reaction 1 is shown below:
Mg(s) + 2 H+(aq)

.(.

'

D.

t.O g C2H2(g) yields as much heat as 1.0 g czHq(9. The amount of heat cannot be calculated without first knowing the AH1s1rn31i61 of oxygen gas.

-+

Mg2+1aq) + H2(c)
L

Reaction

9rs I
43. Which of the following is the free energy of
combustion for ethanol (CZHSOH) under standard
conditions?

=32
d !

8. :o

8zt

A:'-1325.3 kI '. mole B. -1368.3 kJ

mole

c.
D.

-1675.1 kJ
mole -1920.1 kJ mole
-;.

20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160

Time after addition to Beaker

(seconds)

Figure
_1\

Experiment 2

. -. i' , ,-r' +r/.r\

-''J I
?

! '>'
t *1:

13r-'1'': (J
t

A
\

second beaker, identical to that in Experiment 1, is ss

\ t< te ', \) ( 3Cl

l"

t2't i \

up and labeled Beaker 2. 4.03 grams magnesium orie (40.3 grams/mole) are then added to the solution. A
thermometer calibrated in 0.10"C increments is placed i-nar

- =-Go

'?

t'- ' flf'r

174

the beaker. The temperature at uniform time interval: u recorded in Figure 2. Reaction 2 is shown below: MgO(s) + 2 H+(aq)

-+

Mg2+1aq) + H2O0)

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45.

Adding 1.21 grams of Mg(s) into Beaker 1 instead of

2.43 grams would have led to a temperature increase up to what temperature?

P7) o E:o
&zs &ze

A. 26"C B. 30'C c. 38'C

D.
54"C

6. With

respect

to Experiment 2, what is the molar

20 40 60 80
Figure
2

100 120 140

160

enthalpy for the following reaction?

Time after addition to Beaker 2 (seconds)

MgO(s) + 2 H+(aq) -+ Mg2+1aq; + HzO(l)

,r p (n

1.0 x 4.34 x 7.5 x

The same researcher conducts the following experiment io study an endothermic reaction: Experiment
3

40.3
1.0 x 4.34 x 9.0 x

4.03 4.03 40.3 40.3

kJ kJ kJ kJ

mole mole mole mole

40.3
1.0 x 4.34 x 7.5 x

A third beaker is filled with 1.00 kg pure water also at 22'C and labeled Beaker 3. 5.35 grams ammonium
chioride (53.5 grams/mole) are then added to the water. A thermometer calibrated in 0.10'C increments is placed into the beaker. The temperature at uniform time intervals is recorded in Figure 3. Reaction 3 is shown below: NHaCI(s) + H2O(l) -+ NH4+(aq) + Cl-(aq)

4.03
1.0 x 4.34 x 9.0 x

4.03

7.

Given that the enthalpy of formation for H2O(l) is -286 kJ/mole, what is the enthalpy of formation of MgO(s)?

Reaction

9zr
C)

A. B. C. D.

AHlneaker 1) - AHlneaker 2) - 286 kJ / mole AHpeaker 1) + AHlBeaker D + 286 kJ / mole

AH@eaker 1) + AHlBeaker D

286 kJ / mole

AHgeaker

l;

- AHlBsaker 2)

286 kJ / mole

=20 r
Cd

&ts
818
160 Time after addition to Beaker 3 (seconds)
4

8.

Which of the following is the gas given off in the

reaction of Beaker
added?

after the magnesium metal was

20 40 60 80
Figure
3

100 120 140

. B. C. D.

Carbon dioxide gas

Chlorine gas
Water vapor Hydrogen gas

Each graph shows that the thermometer lags for about rrrtv seconds, before equilibrating with the solution. To

rtain the highest solution temperature, a line must be itrapolated through the data points to the y-axis. This is ' -.ed to determine the change in temperature, which -..imately is used to calculate the AH for the reaction.
i

9.

In calculations, it can be assumed that the heat capacity of 0.1 M HCI is equal to that of water. If the heat capacity of 0.1 M HCI is greater than the heat capacity
of water, how is the calculated value affected?

Which of the following statements is a valid conclusion from the observations ofBeaker 3? A

. B. C. D.

Solvation of NH4CI(s) is exothermic. Solvation of NH4CI(s) is endothermic. Solvation of NH4CI(s) is endergonic. Solvation of NH4CI(s) is unfavorable.

A. B. C.
D

The calculated AH is too small. The calculated AH is too large. The difference is insignificant compared to heat lost to the environment. The reaction rate increases, so the thermometer does not accurately record the temperature.

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Passage

Vlll

(Questions 50 - 55)

53

What is the role of the minimum amount of salt water present in the heat pack?

Heat packs are designed for commercial use to produce heat rapidly. One of the reactions employed to generate the heat is the oxidation of iron. The reaction is exothermic and, if controlled, it can produce uniform heat for several hours. This reaction is shown below as Reaction
1:

A. B. C. D.

The salt water absorbs the heat produced by the

reaction, so that the process is adiabatic. The salt water regulates the rate of heat production as the reaction proceeds, so that the pack does no,t raise to a temperature that is too high. The salt water dissolves the iron metal, providing
more surface area.

4 Fe(s) + 3 O2(g)

2 Fe2O3(s) AH" = -1652 kJ/mole

Reaction

The oxidation-reduction reaction employed is the same reaction observed when iron rusts in moist air. In dry air, iron does not rust as rapidly. The greater rate ofoxidation in the presence of water is attributed to the dissolving of oxygen

The salt water facilitates the transfer of electrons within the reaction.

into water, and the consequential increase in interaction between oxygen and iron. The presence ofions in the water increases conductivity, which also escalates the rate of
oxidation.

54. Which of the following graphs

represents ihe

temperature of the heat pack versus time for both finely

To aid in the transfer of electrons within the heat pack, the reaction is carried out in aqueous sodium chloride with sawdust, activated charcoal, and zeolite. To increase the rate of the reaction, and consequently the production of heat, the

powdered iron and less finely powdered iron filing:l Assume that equal masses of iron are present in botr
heat packs.

Finely powdered iron

iron is finely powdered. The lifetime of the packet

is

A.
(-)

kon filings semi-powdered

indirectly proportional to the degree of powdering of the iron.

5

B.

0.

Roughly how many grams of iron should be added to

the pack to produce 1000 kJ ofenergy?

rr
Cd

a
6)

A. B. C. D.

Less than 50 grams

g E

o Time

More than 50 grams but less than 100 grams More than 100 grams but less than 150 grams
More than 150 grams

Time

r@

6 n

51.

How does the weight of the pack compare before

after opening?

and

il

ft
Time Time

il
because of the loss

A.
B

It weighs less after opening, because of the loss of

heat.

i0

. .

It weighs more after opening,

heat.

of
5

It weighs less after opening, because of the gain of

oxygen.

5.

What is the purpose of placing the packet into a papu

packet inside of a plastic wrapper?

ill I

D. It weighs

more after opening, because of the gain

of oxygen.

The paper allows for the flow of air to carry out rht

B.
5

reaction. It is kept in plastic to prevent oxidatim from the air before it is opened. The paper is impermeable to air, preventing
oxidation of the activated charcoal. The paper allows for the flow of air to carry out ftG reaction. The plastic prevents iron from vaporizing out of the packet. The paper is semipermeable to air, allowing only the activated charcoal to be oxidized.

ilil

!d

2.

What can be concluded about the change in entropy and

change

in free energy for this reaction at room

C.

temperature?

A. AS">0andAG">0 B. AS'>0andAG"<0 C. AS'< 0 and AG" > 0 D. AS'< 0 and AG'< 0

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Passage

lX

(Questions 56 - 62)

57.

What liquid could be substituted for water

experiment?

in

this

The heat released from an exothermic reaction can be determined accurately by carrying the reaction out in a bomb calorimeter. The bomb calorimeter is comprised of a sealed lead reaction vessel encased in a water bath. A thermometer

A. B. C. D.
8.

Decane b.p. 174.1"C, heat capacity 1.44

cil

g."C

Diethyl ether b.p. 34.6"C, heat capacity 0.70 Isopropanol b.p. 82.3"C, heat capacity 0.96
Pentanol b.p. 138.2'C, heat capacity

cl!

is used to determine the change in temperature for

reaction is assumed

the

g''C

surrounding circulating water. The heat released from the

i+
g''C

calorimeter. A
shown in Figure

absorbed by the typical steel-walled bomb calorimeter is

to equal the heat

t.::

-Sal-

1.

Isnition

Thermometer

/,

Why are the walls of the bomb made of steel?

A. B. C. D.
Excess

Steel has a high heat capacity

To prevent any change in pressure Rigid walls maintain the volume of the system
Reactive with water

02

gas 5

9.

Why is excess oxygen gas added to the container? A

Clamp
Lead casing Sample and

. B. C. D.

To ensure a complete reaction To increase the amount of convection To store the heat energy To prevent the formation of CO2

Ignition coil

Figure

0.

What ignites the sample?

The sample is placed in a cup which contains an ignition coil connected to the ignition wires of a circuit. Possible

. B.
A

The oxidation of the wire in the ignition coil

The heat generated by resistance in thc wire of the

errors

the sample, because the amount of heat generated by resistance in rhe ignition coil is not measured directly. Excess oxygen gas is used in combustion reactions to ensure that oxygen is not rhe limiting reagent. The temperature of the water is recorded

in the experiment are introduced by igniting

ignition coil

c.
D.

The friction generated by spinning the wire of the

ignition coil
The reaction of wire vapor with graphite after the

ignition coil sublimes

against time from the start

of the reaction until the

61.
To study a reaction that generates very little heat, what change in the apparatus will NOT help? A

:alorimeter has cooled back to room temperature.

The exact time at which the reaction starts must be estimated. The final temperature of all of the components in
the calorimeter are assumed to reach the same temperature as

$ater.

Because the reaction is to be carried out under

adiabatic conditions, the experiment is designed in way where :he water temperature rises only a small amount, thus the effects of convection and conduction are minimized.
5

. Using a liquid with a lower heat capacity than water B. Using more reactant in the bomb C . Increasing the stir rate D. Using a thermometer with more calibrations
What reaction, assuming all reactions are favorable, is most likely to result in a decrease in temperature?

6.

What is the role of the stirrer in the experiment?

A. B. C. D.

To help to form more stable products so that the

reaction reaches an even more favorable equilibrium

62.

To provide activation energy to initiate the reaction To lower the pressure and thus push the reaction
forward

To homogenize the heat distribution throughout the solution

A. B. C. D.

Oxidation of a metal by oxygen Combustion of a hydrocarbon Precipitation of solute from water

Dissolving of solute into aqueous solution

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Passage

(Questions 63 - 69)

65.

Which of the following solvation reactions could be

used for a heat compress?

Hot and cold packs are commercially available for both

medical treatment and food storage. These packets rely on the heat released or absorbed by a chemical reaction. The change in heat energy is referred to as the enthalpy change for the reaction. A typical pouch contains an anhydrous salt in one membrane and water in the other membrane. Rupturing the wall between the two membranes allows a solution to form, which results in either heat being absorbed (if solvation is endothermic) or heat being released (if solvation is exothermic). It is important that the salts be inert and nontoxic. Two typical reactions are given below: CaCl2(s) + H2O(l) -+ Ca2+1aq; + 2 Cl-(aq) AHsolvation =
6

A reaction breaking weak lattice forces and forming

strong solvent-to-ion interactions

B. A
C

reaction breaking strong lattice forces

ad

forming strong solvent-to-ion interactions

A reaction breaking weak lattice forces and forming

weak solvent-to-ion interactions

D. A

reaction breaking strong lattice forces

ad

forming weak solvent-to-ion interactions

6.

- 82.4 kJ/mole Reaction 1

What is the highest temperature reached after 40 gramr of CaCl2 are added to 200 mL of water at20'C?

NHaNO3(s) + H2O(l)

A. 36"C B. 56'C
c.72'C
D.92'C

NH4+(aq) + NO3-(aq)

AHsolvation = +26.9 kJ/mole

Reaction

The increase or drop in temperature can be estimated by multiplying the moles of salt by the enthalpy (as measured in calories) to determine the energy change, and then dividing this value by the mL of water (which is approximately the mass). This estimate is close, because the heat capacity of water is defined as 1.00 calorie per degree per gram water. As the salt dissolves into solution, however, the heat capacity of the aqueous salt solution increases. For this reason, along with the decreasing reaction rate over time, the packets show
the greatest temperature change initially.

67.

How can a solution temperature of 107"C be

after sodium sulfate is added to water at 50'C?

A. The solvation reaction is highly exothermic,

the boiling point of the aqueous solution is than 100'C because of boiling point elevation.

B. The solvation reaction is highly exothermic,

the boiling point of the aqueous solution is than 100'C because ofboiling point depression.

C. The solvation reaction is highly endothermic,

Ten grams of calcium chloride can raise the temperature of 100 mL of water approximately eighteen degrees. Ten grams of ammonium nitrate can lower the temperature of 100 mL of water approximately seven degrees. Once used, the packets cannot easily be recycled, because the anhydrous salts are difficult to regenerate. Alternative salts for heat packs include magnesium sulfate and sodium sulfate, both of which (when anhydrous) are used as dehydrating agents for organic solvents. Alternative salts for cold packs include ammonium chloride and ammonium iodide.

D.

the boiling point of the aqueous solution is than 100"C because ofboiling point elevation. The solvation reaction is highly endothermic, the boiling point of the aqueous solution is than 100'C because ofboiling point depression.

8.

Which of the following anhydrous salts would likely be found in a cold pack?

63.

Which of the following fluids would be BEST for

generic radiator for a power plant?

A. B. C. D.

A. MgSOa B. CaSO4 C. MgCl2 D. NHaCI

6

Distilled water
Salt water

Nitrogen gas Dehumidified air

9.

What is true about the salts used in cold packs?

A. B.

Lattice forces are strong; solvation is

and driven by an increased entropy.

64. For a heat pack

Lattice forces are weak; solvation is end

and driven by an increased entropy.

designed to reach 100"C, the solvation

reaction must be:

A. B. C. D.

C. Lattice D.

forces are strong; solvation is ex

exothermic and rapid.

and driven by an increased enthalpy.

exothermic and slow.

endothermic and rapid. endothermic and slow.

Lattice forces are weak; solvation is exothermic driven by an increased enthalpy.

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Passage

Xl

(Questions 70 - 78)

71.

The metal with the GREATEST heat capacity is:

two-part experiment is carried out involving four metals and four liquids. In Experiment I, 1O.O-gram samples
of each of the four metals are placed into an insulated heating

chamber

with uniform heat distribution. The initial

temperature for each metal was recorded before it was placed

A. Metal I. B. Metal IL e . Metal IIL ,, g. MetattV.

If a metal and a liquid of identical heat capacities were in the second experiment, what would the

in the heating chamber. After ten minutes in the heating :hamber, the metals were removed and the temperature for each metal was immediately measured. Table 1 below shows
the initial and final temperature for each metal:

used
\'//

Solid Initial Temperature Final Temperature Metal I 22.0 "C 51.0 "C "C Metal II 22.1 81.2 "C Metal III 22.O'C 73.4'C Metal IV 22.0'C 46.9'C Table
1

temperature be once the system reached equilibrium after the energy was fully transferred? Assume that no heat is lost to the environment.

..A. Less than 25.0'C "S. Less than 37.5"C, but greater than 25.0"C .'- C-n' Exactlv -37.-5"C

5 . c."u,.r,nun 31.5"C
73

In Experiment II a 1O.0-gram cylinder of Metal IV is

reated to exactly 50"C from its initial temperature of 25.0'C. The metal is added to a 40.0-gram sample of unknown liquid

,rt 25'C

in an insulated container. The metal is fully

The heat capacity of Metal

IV is less than the heat

submerged into the liquid, and the system is allowed to :quilibrate until the two temperatures are equal. The final :emperature of the solution is recorded when the liquid and \letal IV reach the same temperature. The temperature of the rutside wall of the insulated container did not increase during he experiment. The experiment is repeated three more times :sing a different liquid each time. The results from the four
.rials are recorded in Table 2 below:

capacity of any liquid EXCEPT:

A.
"B.
C, D. -

Liquidl
Liquidtr
Liquid Itr

LiquidIV

Solution Liquid I Liquid tr Liquid Itr Liquid IV

FinalTemoerature

7ai. Had Metal III

have been:

28.3'C
29.2"C

been used in Experiment II instead of Metal IV, the final temperatures for the liquids would

28.1'C 30.7'C

M7

greater than the temperatures found using Metal

IV,

because more heat would have been absorbed by the

solution using Metal III.

Table

,-Ii. .

less than the temperatures found using Metal IV,

because more heat would have been absorbed by the

The two experiments were repeated an additional four :.mes each, to minimize any errors that may have arisen :uring the procedure. The numbers listed in both Table I and lable 2 are the data collected for the first trial only. No ,,gnificant errors were detected in the subsequent trials, so the :ata are assumed to be valid.

solution using Metal IIL tbund using Metal IV,

1 C .l greater than the temperatures t---"''

the heat capacity for Metal

b".uure the heat capacity for Metal

III is less than III is less than

IV.

D.

less than the temperatures found using Metal IV,

because the heat capacity for Metal the heat capacity for Metal IV.

-0.

To determine the heat capacity for any of the metals,

what else must be known precisely

experiment?

in the first

. B.
C

The initial temperature of the heating chamber

The molecular mass of the metal and the initial temperature of the heating chamber
The initial temperature of the heating chamber and the total energy absorbed by the metal
The total energy absorbed by the metal

F,

The GREATEST amount of transferable kinetic energy is found in which of the following?

\) A.

D.

Metal I at 60'C B-. Metal II at 60'C C. Metal III at 80'C D. Metal IV at 80"C

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6.

(a-."ffi>t>II>IV "8.. IV>II>I>III {. w >III>II>I

/'^:\)

The relative heat capacities of the liquids are arranged in which of the following sequences?

Passage

Xll

(Questions 79 - 85)

The focus of the basic design of the one-cylinder engine are a piston and a counterweight, placed on a cyclic crank in

such a way that the maximum potential energy

of

the

{. trII

>

III

>

IV

counterweight occurs when the piston is fully extended. The extension of the piston turns the crank 180', and the descen: of the counterweight turns the crank the second 180' of the
cycle.

77

Had the temperature of the outside wall of the container increased, how would the results have bee affected?

The observed final temperature would be lower than expected, and the calculated heat capacity of the liquid would be too high. The observed final temperature would be lower than expected, and the calculated heat capacity of the solid would be too high.

Drawn below is a diagram of a basic one-cylinder engine The boiler, when rapidly heated, creates a flow of steam thari forces the piston upward. Once the piston is fully extended the intake valve is closed and the exhaust valve is opened so that the counterweight can fall with less resistance. The

steam from the piston

is cooled and condensed in

the

B.

condenser. The water is then pumped from the condenser [c the boiler. A pump must be used because of the pressu-e difference between the boiler and condenser. Figure I shovs a basic single-piston engine.

vel me

observed final temperature would be higher than expected, and the calculated heat capacity of the liquid would be too high. Crankshaft Counterweight Exhaust valve Intake valve

,{. tt't" observed final temperature

would be higher than expected, and the calculated heat capacity of the solid would be too high.

8.

Which of the following relationships represents the ratio of the heat capacity of the liquid to the heat
capacity of the solid in Experiment II?

O.

Ctiquia=4ATliquid

Csolid
Clquid Clquid
CLquiO

ATsotirl Boiler
Water pump

Condenser

". Csolid 4 ATs616 ". Csolid

O.
=4
ATrotto
ATtquiO

ATliquid =I

Figure

The one-piston engine is perhaps best recognized as the

1 ATsolid Csolid 4 ATLqu;6

steam engine that has moved large trains and electricaL generators for years. The point at which the rod connects &c top of the piston to the crank is linked to the top of thc piston by a hinge. The rod must be able to rock back and forth as the piston ascends and descends. The counterweig{n is not exactly out of phase with the piston but is sligh{ offset to ensure that the crank turns in only one direction.
79

Which of the following valves is a one-way valve allows flow from left to right?

thm.

A.

B.

reiF
D.

_r,la-l\_ _:iJ' I
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PAGM

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0. If a cooling fan were added to the system'

be the BBST Place for it?

where would

84

Water is chosen for which of the following reasons? A . Water has a high heat capaciry in the liquid phase'

A. Adjacent to the boiler B. Adjacent to the crankshaft C . Adjacent to the condenser D . Inside of the Piston

B. C.
D

Water has a high heat capacity in the gas phase'

Water can sublime and condense at the temperatures of the engine' Water can vaporize and condense at the temperatures of the engine.

81

two To raise the piston, what must be true about the

valves in the engine?

. Both the intake and exhaust valves must be open' B. Both the intake and exhaust valves must be closed' C. The intake valve must be open' and the exhaust
valve must be closed'

5.

What would make this engine MOST efficient?

D.

The intake valve must be closed' and the exhaust

valve must be oPen'

. If no heat were emitted from it B. Ifheat radiated evenly throughout the engine than from C . If heat radiated more from the condenser
A D

the Piston If heat radiated more from the boiler than the piston

2.

the When the counterweight is at its lowest point on completely compressed' crankshaft, the piston is not What is the reason for this? A. Not all of the steam can escape rapidly enough to

compress the piston completely' -The residual full descent' steam offers too much resistance for

B. All of the gas escapes'

chamber.

so to compress the piston the completely, steam must be pumped back into

C. The exhaust
chamber wall.

valve is situated too high on the

chamber The intake valve is situated too low on the

wall.

the Which of the following statements BEST describes flow of heat in the sYstem?

A. B.

at the Heat is added at the condenser and removed piston. the Heat is added at the boiler and removed at

piston'

C. Heat is added
condenser.

at the Piston and removed at

the

D.

Heat is added at the boiler and removed

condenser.

at the

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Passage

Xlll

(Questions 86 - 92)

7.

For the diagram in Figure 2, the full cycle shows:

The diagram shown in Figure 1 below is a simplified representation of a Carnot engine. The diagram shown in Figure 2 below is a simplified representation of a Carnot heat pump. By definition, the change in energy for the system can be calculated as the sum of work and heat, as shown in
Equation
1.

A. B. C. D.
8

AE AE AE AE

> 0; work < 0; work = 0; work = 0; work

in > work out in < work out

in > work out

in < work out

AF-q+w
Equation
1

8. If nF = 0 for the system, and the work for the system rs

positive, then which of the following is true?

A. B.
C

Heat (q) is negative for both the system and tht

surroundings.

where q is heat and w is work (found by w = -PAV for the system). The actual operations of an engine and refrigerator (heat pump) are not accurately represented by the diagrams; but because the overall pathway between two points can be calculated by any combination of reversible pathways that sum to the overall pathway, it is possible to calculate the

Heat (q) is positive for both the system and &e

surroundings.

Heat (q) is positive for the system and negative fcr

the surroundings.

D.

Heat (q) is negative for the system and positive icr

the surroundings.

values for the Carnot engine and heat pump from these
diagrams.
8

9. After a hand pump has been

operating, the shaft

warm and the tip of the needle is cool. This is becau-*a

A. B.
C

air is compressed in the shaft of the pump, and n expands as it enters the needle tip. air is compressed in the shaft of the pump, anC expands as it leaves the needle tip.
m

air expands in the shaft of the pump, and it

compressed as

rs

it enters the needle tip.

ls

D. Volume
Figure
1

air expands in the shaft of the pump, and it

compressed as it leaves the needle tip.

0.

From point a to point c in Figure 1, what is true?

A. B. C. D.
91.

The The The The

gas expands, and wsy5lsm > 0. gas expands, and wsy5lgm < 0. gas compresses, and wsyslgm gas compresses, and w5yslsrn

) (

0. 0.

An efficient engine would have which of the follou"ingT

A.
Volume-------*
Figure
2

A high exhaust temperature and many points

energy is transferred A low exhaust temperature and many points energy is transferred
energy is transfened

rr

B.
C

v-

The arrow between any two adjacent letters refers to a step in the overall process. Each step can be treated as independent or in combination with adjacent steps for
calculation purposes.
8

A high exhaust temperature and few points u

D. A low exhaust temperature and few points u

energy is transl-erred

6.

Which diagram from the passage represents an engine?

A. B. C. D.

The diagram in Figure 1, because work flows into the system and heat flows out of the system. The diagram in Figure 1, because work flows out of the system and heat flows into the system. The diagram in Figure 2, because work flows into the system and heat flows out of the system. The diagram in Figure 2, because work flows out of the system and heat flows into the system.
@

92. The arrow from point b to point c in

reprgsents:

Figum

. B. C. D.

pure work step.

a pure heat step.

a step with both heat and work, where AE > 0

a step with both heat and work, where AE < 0.

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Questions 93 - 100 are NOT based on a descriptive passage

9.

Expansion of a gas is:

3. The fact that, as order is gained by a system,

its

surroundings are losing order is a consequence of which of the following?

A. B. C. D.

exothermic and entropically favorable. endothermic and entropically favorable. exothermic and entropically unfavorable. endothermic and entropically unfavorable.

A. B. C. D.
94.

The First Law of Thermodynamics The Second Law of Thermodynamics The Third Law of Thermodynamics The Rutherford rules

10

0.

Which of the following relarionships may be TRUE?

I. II. m. A. B. C. D.

Vaporization absorbs more heat than fusion.

More heat is released during sublimation than

condensation.

What is the final temperature after 32 mL H2O at 36.0'C is mixed with 96 mL HrO at 64.0'C?

When a liquid freezes, the environment gets

warmer.

A. B. c. D.
9

57.0'C
54.1"C

51.3'C 50.0"c

I only II only I and III only II and III only

5.

How much work is done on a system when an ideal gas is expanded adiabatically from 0.4 liters to 2.4 literc
under a constant pressure of 950.0 torr?

A. 5.00 liter.atmospheres B. 2.50 liter.atmospheres C, -2.50 liter'atmospheres D. -5.00 liter.atmospheres

96. If PAV = +24.4kIandq=22.2
which of the following values? kJ, then AE is equal to

A. -46.6 k.r B. -2.2kJ c. 2.2 kJ

D.
't1 46.6 k.r

If AH is positive
of the following?

and AS is positive, then AG is which

A. B. C. D.
i8.

Positive at all temperatures Negative at all temperatures 7,ero at all temperatures Can be zero, positive, or negative, depending on
the temperature.

AS for a gas-to-solid phase change is always:

A. B. C. D.

positive at all temperatures and pressures. negative at all temperatures and pressures.
zero at all temperatures and pressures. can be zero, positive, or negative, depending on the temperature.

1.A 2.C 6.A 1.D 11. D 12. C 16. D t7. A 21. D 22. A 26. A 21. A 3r. c 32. D 36. C 37. B 41. B 42. B 46. D 47. B 51. D 52. D 56. D 51. C 61. C 62. D 66. B 67. A 7t. D 12. B 16. A 17. A 81. C 82. A 86. B 87. C 91. D 92. B 96. B 97. D

3.D 8.C
13. B 18. D 23. A 28. B 33. C 38. A 43. A 48. D 53. D

58.
63. 68. 13. 78. 83. 88. 93. 98.

D D D D D
B B

4.D 9.D 14. C 19. D 24. D 29. B 34. D 39. A 44. B 49. A 54. C 59. A 64. A 69. A 14. D 19. A 84. D 89. B 94. A 99. B

.5.8 10.A
15. A 20. B 25. D 30. A

3s.

40. B 45. B 50. C 55. A 60. B 65. A 70. D 75. D 80. C 85. A 90. B

95.
100.

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Thermochemistry Passages Answers

\Choice A is correct. In Reaction 1, for both the thermodynamic and kinetic pathway, the larger activation energy (higher energy transition state) is associated with the first step of the two-step reaction. The greater the activation energy, the slower the step. The slowest step is the rate-determining step, so the transition state of highest energy corresponds to the rate-determining step. The first step is rate-determining in Reaction 1. The correct answer is choice A.
Choice C is correct. The value of the free energy change (AG) is found from the equation AG = AH - TAS. The question states that AS is a positive value, and given that T is measured in kelvins, it too must be a positive number. This means that as the temperature increases, the value of AG decreases (because TAS is increasing)This eliminates choices A and B. Using a second equation, AG = RT ln (Qr*/Keq), it can be seen that as AG decreases, the Q.*-to-Keq ratio decteases, so the K"O-to-Q.* ratio increases. The best answer is choice C. If you didn't recall the second equation above, you could have also used the equation AG = AG" + RT ln Qo, where AG' = - RT ln &q. The standard free energy change (AG') and the equilibrium constant (K"q) are related according to AG' = - RT 11 K"q. As AG' decreases, the value of AG decreases and the value of K"n -increases, so consequently the K"O-to-Q." ratio increases. Choice D is correct. Both Pathway X and Pathway Y begin at the same point (implying that the reactants are the same). This means that only the endpoint of the two pathways must be compared to answer this questicnThe endpoint of Pathway Y is lower than the endpoint of Pathway X, so more energy is released from Pathv"a;n Y than Pathway X. This eliminates choices A and C. Because the endpoint of Pathway X is lower than the starting point, the enthalpy change is negative (it is an exothermic reaction). This makes choice D the best answer choice. Choice D is correct. At higher temperatures, the thermodynamic pathway is preferable, because it yields tfu greatest amount of heat. At lower temperatures, the reaction is forced to go by the lower energy transitimr state. Pathway Y is the thermodynamic pathway, because it produces more energy than Pathway X. At higher temperatures, Pathway Y is preferred, so choice D is the best answer.

J.

4.

5.

Choice B is correct. Because the second transition state (apex in the graph) is of higher energy than the transition state, the second step of the reaction is the rate-determining step in the reaction. This el choices A and C. The intermediate occurs at the nadir (low point) between the two transition states (be the first and second steps). If the second step is the rate-determining step, then the intermediate is allowed build up its concentration. This is referred to as bottle-necking of the intermediate. The best answer is choice
Choice A is correct. As the temperature is increased, more of Product Y is formed, and therefore less of Product is formed. This eliminates choices B and D, which both show increases in Product X and decreases in Product The sum of Product X and Product Y must always be 1,00"/o, so choice C is not possible (the sum is less than 1 at the middle temperatures). The best answer is choice A.

6.

7.

Choice D is correct. Because Reaction t has the endpoint of the energy curve lower than the starting point, it exothermic. This means that the value of the enthalpy change (AH) is negative. This eliminates choices and B. Because the reaction is less favorable as the temperature increases, AG must be increasing with temperature. The equation for the free energy change (AG) is AG = AH - TAS. In order for AG to increase temperature, the TAS term must be negative. The temperature is measured on the Kelvin scale, so it is positive. Only the entropy change (AS) can be negative. This makes choice D the best choice.

8.

Choice C is correct. This question is a "read the chart" question. At 146 kJ per mole, the O-O bond is weakest. Even if you didn't remember what diethyl peroxide was, you could have matched the answer to the values in the table. Pick C.

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Section VIII Detailed

9.

Choice D is correct. The energy of the second n-bond in N=N can be approximated by subtracting the bond energy of a nitrogen double bond from the bond energy of a nitrogen triple bond. Although the eflects of the closer nuclei (associated with the shorter triple bond) may include strengthening of the rlg*u bond, for this question it is best to assume that the change in energy between the double and triple bond is due entirely to the new (second) n-bond. The energy difference is 947 - 418 = 523. The best answer is choice D.
Choice A is correct. Because of the reduced p-character in the sp2 orbital compared to the sp3 orbital, an sp2 orbital is shorter and more electronegative than the sp3 orbital. This eliminaies choices B ind C. The best answer is choice A, because the bond strength is more associated with bond length than the bond polarity. Choice D is a true statement, but not the best answer. Choice D is correct. The bonds broken are both relatively weak (154 and 432), while the bonds formed are both relatively strong (565 each). The heat released is greater than 500 k] per mole (586 - 1130), which makes the reaction highly exothermic. The best answer is choice D. Choice C is correct. The energy trend of the sulfur-halide bonds is not a clear trend. The strongest halide bond to sulfur is with iodine (the largest halide), but because of the weak bond between sulfur and bromine, a trend in size cannot be drawn. This eliminates choice A. The most electronegative halide bond to sulfur listed is with chlorine, but because this is the second strongest bond to sulfur and the weak bond between sulfur and bromine, a trend in size cannot be drawn. This eliminates choice B. The halide with the greatest electron affinity is chlorine, so as with electronegativity, a trend in size cannot be drawn. This eliminates choice D. The best conclusion that can be drawn is that the bond strength depends on two opposing factors, which would explain why bromine has the lowest bond energy. Based on halogen size, the relalive strength order would be: S-Cl > 9-Br > S-I. Based on polarizability of the halogen, the relative strength order would be: S-I > S-Br > gCl. The actual order is S-I = Hl > S-Br, so both effects must be involved. The best answer is choice C. Choice B is correct. A Br-F bond would be stronger than a Br-Cl bond, so the bond energy is greater than 218 kjlmole. This eliminates choices C and D. A Br-F bond would be weaker than a Cl-F bond, so the bond energy is less than 253 kJlmole. This eliminates choice A. The only choice that fits in the energy range is B.

10.

11.

12.

13.

1{.

orbitals allows for the electrons to be shared between nuclei-most readily. This makes choice A a false statement. According to periodic trends, chlorine is both less electronegative than fluorine and larger than fluorine. This eliminates choices B and D. The weakness of the F-F bond can be attributed to the repilsion of the nuclei of the two fluorine atoms. As the fluorine atoms get close enough to form a bond, the two +9 nuclei begin to repel. The repulsion results in the overall weakening of the bond. The best answer is choice C.

Choice C is correct. As a general rule, shorter bonds are stronger than longer bonds, because the overlap of

Choice A is correct. Because sodium metal is heavier than lithium metal, the energy required to sublime sodium is greater than the energy required to sublime lithium. This makes statement I true. As a column in the periodic table is descended, the ionization energy of the element decreases, so the first ionization energy of lithium is greater than the first ionization energy of sodium. This makes statement II a false statement. The atomic radius of sodium cation is larger than the atomic radius of lithium cation, thus the lattice energy of the sodium salt involves a larger r value in the denominator. The lattice energy is decreased when lithium is replaced by sodium, so statement III is a false statement. The correct answer is choice A. Choice D is correct. In the reaction, the F-F bond is completely broken (partial breaks are not possible), so A is eliminated. The value for the bond energy for F2 is 154 k]/mole, although the value ii not from a table. Half of the value is used, because only one fluorine atom is needed. The bond is broken in a homolytic fashion (with each atom receiving one electron), so choices A, B, and C are eliminated and choice D is the best
choice answer.

Choice A is correct. The lattice energy increases with increasing charge (q) or decreasing radius (r). Magnesium carries a +2 charge, and oxygen carries a -2 charge, so the greatest lattice energy is associated with MgO. This eliminates choices C and D. Because Li+ is smaller than Na+ and F- is smaller than C1-, the r""ot d highest lattice energy is associated with LiF. This makes choice A the best answer.

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Section VIII Detailed Explanations

18.

Choice D is correct. If calcium metal is used in lieu of lithium metal, the ionization energy changes, because calcium forms a dication, which requires two ionizations. The total ionization energy for calcium is a sum of the first and second ionization energies. As a note, the extra energy invested in the ionization is recovered by the doubling of the lattice energy. This is because the ionization energy doubles when the cation charge doubles from +1 to +2. The best answer is choice D.
Choice D is correct. Electron affinity involves the gaining of a free electron by a neutral atom. The excitation and relaxation (de-excitation) involve the absorption and emission of a photon when an electron moves between the ground state and an excited state. The charge of the atom does not change in either process. The ionization energy is associated with the loss of an electron, while the electron affinity is associated with the gain of an electron. The best answer is choice D. Choice B is correct. Using a metal that is easier to sublime than lithium requires the input of less energy, so the overall process yields more energy. Choice A is consequently eliminated. Using a halogen that forms a stronger covalent bond than fluorine requires the input of more energy, so the overall process yields less energy. This makes choice B the best answer. Using a halogen with a greater electron affinity than fluorine (which is not physically possible, given that fluorine has the highest electron affinity of the halogens) releases more energy, so the overall process yields more energy. Choice C is consequently eliminated. Using a metal that can easily lose a second electron requires more ionization energy, but double the amount of energy is released in the lattice formation, so the overall process yields more energy. Choice D is also eliminated. Choice D is correct. Substituting a larger cation for a smaller cation increases the distance between ions. Thfu reduces the lattice energy, because the denominator has been increased. This makes statement I trueSubstituting an anion of lesser charge for the current anion in the salt reduces the lattice energy, because the numerator has been decreased. This makes statement II true. Cutting the cation and anion charges by one-haffi each reduces the lattice energy to one-fourth its original value, because the numerator has been decreased br n factor of four. Cutting the internuclear distance by one-half doubles the lattice energy, because denominator has been decreased by a factor of two. Overall, the effect of cutting all three values in halJ i that the lattice energy decreases by a factor of two, making statement III true. The best answer is choice D.

19.

20.

27.

7'

Choice A is correct. In distillation, a mixture is converted into pure components. Distillation results in order for the system, which is entropically unfavorable. This makes choice A a correct answer. The con from a solid salt into two ions in solution is entropically favorable, because the system becomes more r This eliminates choices B. In sublimation, a solid is converted into a gas, which increases the randomness, the process is entropically favorable. This eliminates choice C. Diffusion of a gas into the air results in loss of a pure component into a mixture, which increases the randomness. This is entropically favorable, choice D is eliminated. Choice A is correct. A value of AS > 0 results from an increase in disorder. In choices B and C, the number molecules decreases from reactant to product, so both can be eliminated. In choice D, the number of remains the same, so choice D can be eliminated. In choice A, the salt becomes more random as it into ions. Pick A if you desire the jubilation and enjolnnent associated with correct answers. Choice D is correct. Addition of a catalyst does not affect the thermodynamic values of a reaction, such
as

)?

24.

energy (AG), enthalpy (AH), and entropy (AS). A catalyst stabilizes the transition state, lowering activation energy for a reaction. This affects only the reaction rate and makes the best answer choice D.
Choice D is correct. Because the reaction is spontaneous as written, the change in free energy (AG) reaction is negative. Because the solution temperature lowers as the reaction proceeds, the endothermic. This makes the value of AH positive. Rearranging Equation 3 yields: TAS = AH - AG; so if positive, and AG is negative, then the value of AS must be positive at all temperatures, making choice

25.

best answer.

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Section VIII Detailed

26.

Choice A is correct. This question is answered by combining Equations 1 and 2 into one composite equation follows:
AGobserved = AG" + RT kI Qrx AGobserved = -RT In K"O + RT ln Qr* = RT ln Qr* - RT AGobserved = RT (ln Q.* -

as

Kee

K"o) = o, ,

1r',

Qt"
Ke9

The best answer is choice A.

27.

Choice A is correct. \A/hen the reaction quotient is greater than the equilibrium constant, too many products are present, so the reaction must shift to the reactant side in order to reach equilibrium. This etiminates choices C and D. When the reaction spontaneously shifts in the reverse direction (to the reactants), it is said to be positive, so the best answer is choice A. Choice B is correct. According to Equation 2, LG = -RT ln KuO, the value of AG must be zero for the equilibrium constant to be equal to 1,.0, because the natural log of 1 is 0. Eqriation 3, AG = AH - TAS, must be used to determine the temperature at which AG is zero.
AG = AH - T AS = 0 .'. by adding TAS to both sides of the equation, AH = T AS

28.

Dividing both sides of the equation by

AS leads to the relationship:

T = 4I{

aH

12,500-+
=
mole.K

AS5I

12,500

255

K=

25oo

6 = SooK

Do not blindly choose answer choice D, however, because the answers are in Celsius. The temperature must be converted from Kelvin into Celsius. Subtracting2T3 from the Kelvin value yields 500 K = 227'C, choice B.

Choice B is correct. The value for the water reaction in the passage involves the formation of water vapor. In the question, the value is listed for the formation of water liquid. Conversion from vapor to liquid is exothermic, so the formation of water liquid yields more heat energy than the formation of witer ,rapoi. Th"
best answer is choice B.

Choice A is correct. The first stage of a rocket requires that the greatest total amount of heat be given off, because the first stage is responsible for liftoff and the acceleration away from the earth's gravitational pull. The fuel must provide a great amount of heat, while not occupying too much volume (the storage space m.tit be minimized). It is ideal if the fuel provides a large amount of heat per gram as it burns, making the fuel most efficient without significantly increasing the mass of the rocket. Hydrogen would be ideal, because it is so light (except for the fact that it is a gas at nearly all temperatures). At room temperature, kerosene is a liquid, while hydrogen is a gas. Because liquids ate denser, they are far easier to store conveniently and efficiently. This makes choice A a good choice. Choice B should be eliminated, because kerosene provides less energy per gram than hydrogen. This is to say that 242 divided by 2 is greater than 7513 divided by 170. Whether kerosene bums hotter than hydrogen or not should have no bearing on its use as a rocket fuel. The hotter it burns, the more heat that is wasted by loss to the environment. Choice C can be eliminated. Oxidation of kerosene produces both water and carbon dioxide, which is more products than hydrogen gas (which produces only water). The answer choice D is a wrong statement.
Choice C is correct. From the balanced equation, two moles of hydrazine are required for every one mole of dinitrogen tetraoxide. Hydrazine weighs 32 grams per mole, while dinitrogen tetraoxide has a molecular mass of 92 grams per mole. This means that for 64 grams of hydrazine, 92 grams of dinitrogen tetraoxide are required. This means that roughly one and one-half times as many grams of dinitrogen tetraoxide are needed as hydrazine. This is answer choice C.

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Section VIII Detailed Explanations

JZ.

Choice D is correct. The first three reactions are all oxidation-reduction reactions that mimic the sample reactions from the passage. The last reaction is an acid-base reaction, and it does not produce sufficient energlto propel a rocket. The iorrect answer choice is answer D. Although the passage does not blatantly state that anbxidation-reduction reaction should be used, it can be inferred from the sample reactions. exothermic combustion reactions, provide a large amount of heat Per gram, and are highly reactive ill oxidation-reduction reactions. This makes statements A, B, and D valid. A rocket fuel is better if it is a solid or liquid at room temperafure, rather than a gas, so it can be stored (packed) more efficiently. This means that choice Cis not a requirement of a rocket fuel. You must pick C, you must, you must, you must! Choice D is correct. Dinitrogen tetraoxide gets reduced in the reaction, so it is the oxidizing agent in the reaction. Statement A can therefore be eliminated. Hydrazine is oxidized into nitrogen gas. The oxidation state of nitrogen changes from -2 to 0. This implies that the entire compound loses four electrons (two per nitrogen), not"that eact nitrogen loses four electrons. Choice B can therefore be eliminated. Because the fineprodict iras a nitrogen-nitrog6n triple bond, it can be concluded that nitrogen-nitrogen bonds are formed durins of the reaction, ut d t ot broken. This eliminates choice C. Hydrazine is losing hydrogens, so it is ihu "o.rrr" being oxidized. This makes choice D the best answer.
Choice C is correct. The heat per gram for kerosene can be found by dividing 7573 kJ per mole by 170 Srams pe: mole. The value falls in the range of 40 to 50 k] per gram. The math is set up as follows: 50 = 8500
Because the range is between 40 and 50

JJ.

Choice C is correct. From the sample reactions in the passage, it can be seen that rocket fuels engage in highir

34.

35.

170 170

>

7513

;.

6800 = 49
170

k| per mole, the best answer is choice C.

36.

Choice C is correct. Yaporizatron is a change in the physical state of matter, whereby a liquid evaporates :; form a gas. Writing out ihe reaction for the vaporization of water and using values Table 1" yields: HzO(l) -+ H2O(s)
AGformation H2O(l) = -237.2 AGformation Hzo(g) = -228.6
-228.6 - (-237.2) = + 8.6 k] per mole, choice C' EnerpAGformation of products - AGformation of reactants = AGrx t"qnir"a to vipbrize water, so we expect a positive number. A value of 44.1' results from using AH numbers'

37.

Choice B is correct. Both xylose and ribose form five-membered (furanose rings) rings, according to t.re information in the question. The five-membered rings are not subject to much ring strain (if they were, fir-*' membered rings would not be so common), so choice A is eliminated. Both xylose and ribose are aldopentoses rI they each havJ one C=o (in the form of an aldehyde) and four O-H bonds (in the form of hydroxyls on carbonr' two through five). This eliminates choices C and D. The only choice left is answer choice B. The repul':;on experier,cei by the eclipsed hydroxyl groups in the five-membered ring appears in the enthalpy of reactrc':: Th" *o." ,up.rlrion, the less siable the molecule, and thus the greater the enthalpy of reaction (more heat r.M is released when the ring steric hindrance is relieved). Using the enthalpy of reaction to determine 5e stability of structural features is common in organic chemistry. Using Hess's law with the general cheml':u values does not show the other features that affect a molecule's stability. Many experiments in orga:,,rr chemistry focus differences in the enthalpy changes between reactions with similar bond changes.
Choice A is correct. From Table 1, the AG" values of + 209.1. for acetylene (the reactant) and + 68.3 for ethvlo'nr' (the product) can be read from the free energy change column._ Be sure that you use the values for AG", and rutr AH'ty mistake. The free energy of formation for H2(g) is 0, because hydrogen gas is a diatomic gds at rorrnm temperature in its natural elemental state. This eliminates choices C and D' For the hydrogenation rdf:-r4r the change in free energy is found by AGlsmrtion of products - AGformation of reactantr' The value AG'1a ef,jath 68.3 - ZO9.I, a negative number. A negative numbler for AG' makes the reaction favorable in the fon" direction, so the best answer is choice A. The hydrogenation reaction is shown below:
1.CzHz(6,) + 1H2(g) -+ 1C2Ha(g)

38.

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Section VIII Detailed Ex

39.

Choice A is correct. At standard conditions, carbon exists as graphite, not as diamond, eliminating choice C. Cl2 and H2 are gases at 25"C in their most stable elemental form, so this rules out choice B. Al;, chlorine exists as a diatomic molecule in its most stable form at 25'C, so the answer is not choice D. The only answer choice left is A, which is a good thing considering it is the correct answer. Be sure that the equation baiances. Choice B is correct. The first thing to do is to balance the combustion reaction:

40.

3H2O + 3CO2 The phases are ignored, because they are not listed in the answer choices. Normally, phase is significant, because water can be listed as a liquid or a gas. AHo - AH16.rrlulion of products - AHformation of reactants = 3 AH1611 H2O + 3 AHpe11 CO2- AH6or- qr"u
This is choice B. Oxygen gas (O2) is ignored, because its most stable form at 25"C is the diatomic molecule 02, so its enthalpy of formation is 0.
47-

1C3H6 + 4.502

Choice B is correct. From the values in Table 1, the hydrogenation of one n-bond (from an alkene to an alkane) produces a change in enthalpy (AH"nyarogenation) of -139.8 kj per mole. This value is determined from the following reaction and thermodynamii datl:

CzHsG)+HzG) -+

C2H6(g)

AHformC2H41r1=+52.4 AHformC2HulgS=-87.4 MformH2lg;=0

AHhydtogenation = AHformation of products - AHformation of reactants = (87.4) - 52.4 = -f gg.S

-lImole

The reaction in the question involves the hydrogenation of two n-bonds in butadiene, so a good approximation is that the change in enthalpy for the complete hydrogenation of butadiene has a value of Zl-t3e.d i1 p". mole) = -279.6 k] per mole. The value is given in the question as -271,.4 kf per mole, which is less negative thin expected. This eliminates choices A and C. The logic behind the reduction in heat energy released is rooted in either a increased stability in the reactant or decreased stability in the product. In this case, it is the stability of the reactant (conjugation) that causes the reduction in heat released. The best answer is choice B.
!)

Choice B is correct. The heat produced for the reaction is calculated using the equation: AHy* = AHproductsAFlreactants. Using values from Table 1 (values are in kJ per mole), the two AH are calculated as fo[o#s:

CzHz -=+

AH:

+226.8

HzO + 2CO2 -285.9 -393.5

2H2O

AFII* = t(-285.9) + 2(-393.5)l - 226.8 = -1299.7 kI mole

CzHs

AH: +52.4-->
before comparison to one another.

+ 2CO2 -285.9 -393.5

mole The problem asks for heat per grarn, not the heat per mole, so the values must be divided by molecular mass
C2H2 yields 1299'7 W, which is just less

AH1* =[2(-285.9) + 2(-393.5)] - 52.4

= -141,12 kI

26 g'

'

11',ut'r

1300

\[ 269'

which is 50

K
g

C2H4 yields 1477'2 kL, which is iust over 1400

28 g

289

kL which is 50 kI

Thus, C2H2 produces just under 50 kJ per gram of heat, while C2H4 produces a little more than 50 kJ per gram of heat, making answer B the correct choice.

Choice

AGproducts - AGreactantr. Using values from Table 1 (values are in kJ per mole), AG is calculated as follows:

A is correct. The free energy produced for the reaction is calculated using the equation: AG.* -

C2H5OH

AG:

--+

H2O + 2CO2
AG1, = tg (-237.2) + 2

-774.9

-237.2 -394.3

(49aQl - (-174.9) -

kl-

= (-711.6) + (-788.6) + 174.9 = -1325.3 kI mole

Choice A is the best answer.

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by The Berkeley Review@

Section VIII Detailed Explanations

44.

Choice B is correct. The initial temperature of the water in Beaker 3 before the NHaCI salt L. added to th; water is 22"C. In Figure 3, the temperature decreases to a value less than 2TC (exfiapolation shows that tht temperature is aboui17.S 'C). Once the temperature reaches its lowest point, it slowly climbs up until it leveL off it ambient temperaturc (22'C). This means that the reaction is absorbing heat from the solution during the dissociation of NHaCl. Because heat is being absorbed during the solvation reaction, the solvation of Nt!Cmust be an endothermic reaction. The passage also states that the reaction is endothermic. To score big, vol should pick B.
Choice B is correct. Adding 1.21 grams of Mg(s), instead of 2.43 grams as were added in Experiment 2, resuits r. only half of the heat being releasid that was released in Experiment 2. The temperature increase in Beaker l (using 2.43 grams) was 1d"C, so the temperature increase using 1.21 grams should be about 8'C. This, ivhs added to the starting temperature of 21'C, would yield a final temperature of 30"C. Choice B is the bes;
answer, for those of you interested in best answers.

45.

46.

Choice D is correct. To solve for the molar enthalpy of this reaction, you must first solve for the heat m reaction for MgO in terms of k] per gram (using the data from Beaker 2), and then convert from kJ per gram NIeC to kJ per mole*MgO. To determine the heat released during the reaction, we use the equation E = mCAT, n'he--t m equals 1.0 kg, e = +.5+J per g.K, and AT is extrapolated from the graph. To extrapolate, you draw a-strai53m line ihrough tn"" dutu points to ihe time = 0 axis, in order to estimate the highest temperature of the solution

AT = +9.0"C

20 40

60

80 100 120 1,40 1.60

Time after addition to Beaker 2 (seconds) As extrapolated from the graph in Figure 2 (shown above), the apex temperature is roughly 31'C, so the r a-:rc -heat r"l"ased when 4.03 grams MgO was added to Beaker 2 is calculated as follort -'r of AT is ioughly 9"C. The

E = 1.0ks,x 4.34 I x 9.0K " g.K

= 4'34x9kJ =

43'40 -4'34k1

= 39'06kJ

The molecular mass of MgO is given in the passage as 40.3 grams/mole, so 4'03 grams is exactly 0.10 mo-les

tr{$

5m The molar enthalpy is cJlculaled by dividing the heat of the reaction by the moles of reactant (MgO, in case). The calculation is set up as follows: 1.0 x 4.34 x 9.0 x 40.3 kJ 1.0 x 4.34 x 9.0 kJ x 40.3 Srarns = mole 4.03 mole 4.03 Sam heat is given off by the reaction Choice D is correct. Because the temperature increase during the reaction, the reaction is an exothermic reaction. Because the reaction is exothermic, the sign of the enthalpy cha (AH) is negative. All of the answer choices are negative, so this doesn't help in eliminating wrong answers

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Section VIII Detailed

47.

Choice B is correct. Using Hess's law, we know that the molar heat of reaction is obtained from the heats of reaction for any series of reactions that sum to the overall reaction. For this experiment, the two reactions along with the formation of water are as follows:

Mg(s)+2H+(aq)

Mg2*(uq)+Hz(g) AH=heatreleasedfromBeakerlxl0=-66g.g k]

Mgo(t)+2H+(aq) ----+
Hz(g)

-->

mole

Mg2*(uq)+H2o(1) AH=heatreleasedfromBeaker2xL0=-826.2 kI
mole

lozfzl

_*

H2o(t)
The overall reaction

AHformation =

-286 kJ

mole
VfgOtrl

is: Mg(s) *

l}rtfl

We must reverse the second reaction and then sum the AH values for the three component reactions above, in order to obtain the overall reaction. This means that the AHformatio_n (MgO) = AHlBeaker - AHpeak f; er z1 - 2g6 kJ per mole. The best answer is choice B. The actual value is -669 + Wt'- fgi'= -sGA:"18.

---l>

Choice D is correct. The reaction of a metal with hydronium results in the oxidation of the metal by the H+ ions. The reaction is as follows: Mg(s) + 2 H+(aq) -+ Mg2+{aq) + Hz(g). H2 gas is given off, so choice D is best. Choice A is correct. If the heat capacity (C) is greater for the HCI solution than water, then the value for C (4.18 for water) plugged into E = mCAT is too small. The calculated value is therefore too small. This makes choice A correct. An increased heat capacity does not allow the temperature to increase as much, which lowers the container temperature and actually decreases the reaction rate. This makes choice D invalid.

19.

Choice C is correct- According to the information for Reaction 1, four moles of iron produce 1652kI of heat. This means that 2 moles of iron produce 826 kI, and 3 moles of iron produce 7239 kI. In order to produce 1000 kJ of energy/ just over two but less than three moles of iron are needed. Two and one-half moles of iron produce 826kJ + 207 kJ, which is greater than 1000 kJ. This means that the amount of iron needed is less than 2.5 moles of iron. Iron weighs 55.85 grams per mole, so the mass needed to produce 1000 kJ of heat is greater than 111.2 grams (the mass of two moles) and less than 739.62 grams (the mass of two and one-half moles-of iron). The best"answer is choice C.

exposed to the air, oxygen can enter the pores of the paper container and oxidize the iron. Because'the product (Fe2O3) has gained mass from the environment, the mass after reaction is greater than the initial mais. The exact amount of mass increase is the mass of the oxygen that has reacted. The best choice is answer D.

Choice D is correct. The pack initially contains iron and the solution in which the reaction transpires. Once

Choice D is correct. Because the reaction takes place at room temperature and the iron is oxidized to completion, it is assumed that the reaction is favorable. This results ln a AG' value less than zero, which eliminates choices A and C. The reactants are four solids and three gases that go on to form two solids. This is a. loss in entropy by the system, which carries a negative AS'. The value of A6' is also less than zero, making choice D the correct choice.
Choice D is correct. The role of salt water, as mentioned in the passage, is to increase the interaction of oxygen with iron and to conduct electricity. None of the answer choiceJ addresses the interaction of iron with oxygen. This means that the role of the salt water of interest to us is to facilitate the flow of electrons. Salt water provides the medium through which the electrons may transfer. The best answer to this question is choice D. Heat is released by the reaction, so the reaction cannot be adiabatic. Choice A is thus eliminated. The salt water has no role in thermal regulation, because it does not undergo any chemical or physical changes during the reaction' Choice B is thus eliminated. Iron metal does not dissolve into water, as ytu"perhaps hJve noticed when iron structures are able to stand through the rain. Choice C is thus eliminated.

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Section VIII Detailed Explanations

54.

being produced, so the reaction must have stopped'

55.

behind the packaging. Because oxygen gas l Choice A is correct. Answer choice A best explains the logic tj3:::'^1||o3,1"Yilt"#'?''n"* enter the packet to r"u.i*itr'' the iron, t1e *"'ipJ."1e mustil-t1?1ll';" prematurery, it must not be.exposed to air. The pl pr*"", the packet from oxidizing The plastic wraPper is impermeJfu lo uit, so- the pack is stable-in the anaerobic environment' wrapper nelps to prevent the loss of water due to evaporatlon'

il:H;;;.i:"il

55.

the thermodynamic values (equilibrium consft Choice D is correct. Stirring the solution does not increase t",PT:":* free energy, and enthalpy), but it does-"f;;rhe reaction reaction. rhe energv used to acti to aciivate the1t^1^,t1tj*#1"^-SY::"* :]r;;|1

ffi;T:[l'fi#,il;'f;i#;;;;;."'d;;;;"shenergy' as meas-urt ""ersy the svstem's heat

the reaction is provided by

:ilffiil:'f,J;;;r;;-riir'"
choice D the best answer.

Pl,lYi:ff"T:1"^,":lT""rf-,it"; r,o effectin the pressure of ihe solution, so choice C is elimi '"r,i,l'"-h"ur uniformly throughout the solution' which The stirring of the sol.rTion allows the heat to be distributed
heat capacity similar.to rlater and not have a bo Choice C is correct. The liquid substituted must have a iYtl1 boiling polnT tnal rs LU() ruw. point that is too row. -1n,1:*l"i::"5c:1":,t:,t11* If the heat capacity close to those of water' has a boilfuig^point and heat vaporizes. Isopropanol "upu"ity temperature change is decreased' Choice C is besL of the too high, the AT is too small, and thui ih" u."rrru"y

3/.

t b;

p'i";;'+9

ir"Hl'ffit"$ii

58.

or low heat capacity' the effects of both can b Choice c is correct. whether steel has a high heat capacity b".u*" water can nse- to ".I"]q:iT*":1til?::l,l: calculated for. The lower the heat.upu"ity, tfie better, not expand during the reaction' so the vo -rrtir a trivial point. By having steel walls, the container does choice.B rifl,ana remains constant white the pressure .nungui. :h"fi :,lti:'^ T^1T,Yt'*: The nuat change cannot be attributed sorery to the reaction. is not reactive -ith ;'#;,";*;j;*tn? in calculation) is choice C' be used answer (so that the heat capacity at constant volume cin

*"t*

59.

amount of heat generated a complete reaction. ]h1 Choice A is correct. The excess oxygen is added to ensure i1 tirg reaction)' reagent relative Lv 3"-.."1ff::q1.t-T:: measured lclqLrv ! to the mass of the sample (the limiting IILgdbLrIEu but irreleva*.:t?::::t; the reason for aiding excess oryg:n.. This is a true, "#5 convection, but that is not low heat capacities relative to water' gas stores little to no heat energy, because guJ"s ha'oe.t"H*:ly in CO2 formation' The best rnswer is choice A' D is eliminated, because the presence of o*yf"tt results

60.

from the ignition Choice B is correct. The sample is ignited by heat -emitted 'nl" .i,"'",'' generates the heat *,r,".'rn T:;lT:i*,:?^1:":l1l:"-*'",T

coil' The question is'

fffi"#:il:U'?'#

:ffi

that the sample is ignited when

'Jru ;""* il

th-e

*ilYfi?l ;;; FI :t{:' :T .T'";* il'lflT:ffi: ff;LS" *''' * ":I"".:ffj1 ,"rirtoit"*peratu'e

3 is high enough' The best answer is choice B'

61.

heat' change from a reaction that generates very little Choice C is correct. In determining the temperature a1111i:l::^:v :ilF": problem is that a small Ar results i''.u" ""oiln it' a valid statement' and thus more accuratery measured. choice A is greater sample (reactant) ir tr&, more heat i' g""e*tudi.to q" dt:llll":..*:1"i::'_t?^1*Y

titl'i

i;ffTH,";i:,""ffi

T'iri."l:ffii:f

ffi

ffiii: $::'r;1,,: H,H#:'i#;il;** 'ii' '"1" naps tn!.svstem ," more quickly. rhis does not herp the '"uitio";f: * 11T"'*-T:?:::ffi::h a valid statement' rhe :ffiT;:il*Ji;Lil"'ilH;;: p'".t'" *""surement or Ar. rhis makes choiceb *:liJgilfi::I'fi;
answer is choice C.

lllt-tfq:l:111:tr",T,*,?"ff:T:"f.:l:;

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Section VIII Detailed E

62'

Choice D is correct. As a rule, both the oxidation-reduction reaction of a metal with oxygen and the combustion reaction of a hydrocarbon (which is an oxidation-reduction reaction) are exoth".-i"- reactions. They both result in an increase in temperature of the solution, not a temperature decrease. If the precipitation of a solute is favorable, then the AG that reaction is negative. In a precipitation reaction, the system becomes more ordered, so AS is {etinrlgty negative. The signlf AH must be negative to make the sign fr ac 1.r"guti,ou, based on the equation AG = AH -TAS (negative nuriber - T(negative Dissolving "ytil9| = negative number). the answer a solute into solution is the only one of the choices given that cin possibly be end#hermic, if all of choices represent favorable reactions. An endothermic reaction reiults in'a temperature drop. The best answer is thus choice D.

63.

Choice B is correct. Whether the solution is for the radiator of a power plant, or any system designed to absorb great amounts of heat, the best solution is the one with the greatest heat capaciiy ind greateJt contact area with the heat source. Choices C and D should not be considerld, because they are toth ga"ses. The addition of salt to water increases the he-at capacity, allowing salt water to absorb more heat per degree increase, and to reach a higher temperature before boillng. This can be inferred from the passage where it states that the temperature increase begins to slow, because the heat capacity changes u, ,r,o." salt dissolves. This is why many power plants use salt water in their circulating radialor system. Cars use a mixture of ethylene glycol in distilled water' using an organic compound tike eth"ylene glycoi prevents against salt buildup thut *o.r'id o"".r, if salt water were used, due to the evaporation of *ui"r. rf,e Uest answer is choice B. Choice A is correct. For a heat pack to reach a temperature greater than room temperature, it must exploit a reaction that releases heat energy' This describei an exolhermic reaction. Because the heat is needed immediately, tapid reactions are more favorable. Slow reactions allow more heat to dissipate to the environment. This combination makes choice A the best answer. Choice A is correct- To be to use in a heat compress, the reaction must be exothermic. To be exothermic, the reaction must require minimal energy to break the bonds and obtain a great deal of energy when the new bonds are formed. hr the case of a salt dissolving into water, this would resui from weak lattice forces (bonds broken) and strong solvent to ion interactions (solvation). The best answer is choice A. Choice B is correct. The passage states that 10 grams of calcium chloride raise 100 mL of water approximately eighteen degrees from room temperature. This that forty (40) grams of calcium chloride should increase -ear,, water by 36"C. The final temperature is the initial temperaiure (20"C) plus the temperature 109^ $ increase (36'C), resulting in a final temperature of 56'C. The actual value is a little t""s, due to the reaction time being longer (allowing heat to dissipate to the environment) and the changing heat capacity of the aqueous solution as the reaction proceeds. The best answer is choice B. Choice A is correct. For the temperature to increase, the reaction must be exothermic, so choices C and D are eliminated. The boiling point is greater than that of pure water (100'C), so the boiling point must have been elevated. The best answer is choice A.

64.

65.

66.

68.

the

Choice D is correct. Sulfate salts are exothermic when they dissolve, so they cannot be used in cold compresses. This eliminates choices A and B. Ammonium salts are endothermic when they dissolve, so heat is absorbed

-so-lution (NHaCl). The best answer is choice

f,q

begins to cool. The best answer for an endothermic solvation involves ammonium chloride D. The answer is provided in the last sentence of the passage.

and

Choice A is correct. Cold packs absorb heat because of a chemical reaction, so the solvation reaction must be endothermic for cold packs. This causes the temperature to decrease. The favorability of a reaction depends on the value of AG. If the value of AG is negative, then the reaction is said to be favorable. An endothermic reaction has a positive value for AH, so the only way that the value of AG can be negative is if the value of AS is positive (AG = AH - TAS). This automatically *"uttr that the salt dissociates beciuse of increased entropy, not. favorable enthalpy' This eliminates choices C and D. The lattice forces are most likely strong, requiring high energy to break. The more e_nergy required to break the lattice bonds, the more likelyihat thJ'reac'tion is endothermic. The best answer is choice A.

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Section VIII Detailed Explanations

70.

Choice D is correct. The heat capacity depends on three values: energy absorbed (E), mass of substance (m), and the change in temperature (AT). The mass of each metal is known and the change in temperature is known, so only the heat absorbed, while inside the heating chamber must be known to calculate the heat capacity for each metal. This makes choice D correct.

7'1..

Choice D is correct. Heat capacity has the units calories per gram.Kelvin in the standard case. Using the formula E = mCAT, the heat capacity (C) for each metal sample can be found by dividing the energy absorbei by the mass of the sample and temperature change for the process. Each metal absorbed the same amount c: heat energy and had an identical mass. The only difference between the metal samples was the change ir temperature observed for the process. Because AT is in the denominator when calculating the heat capacity fe: each metal (C = E7-.O1), the greatest heat capacity is associated with the metal that showed the smalles; increase in temperature. According to Table 1, the metal with the smallest final temperature (and therefore smallest AT) is Metal IV, so pick choice D with great pride and satisfaction. Choice B is correct. If the heat loss for the liquid and heat gain for the metal were identical (which is lrue when the process is adiabatic), then the following mathematical equality holds true:
Eheating of liquid = -Ecooling of metal

72.

mliquid Cliquid (Tiinat - Tnit Giquid)) = - mmetal Cmetal (Tful - Tinit (metal)) = mmetal Cmetal (Tinit (metal) - Tritlrr Given that the heat capacities are equal, they can be canceled from each side of the equality:

*.tut (Tinit (metal) - Ttnat) mliquid (Trinat - 25) = rnmetal (50 - T1621) .'. 40 (T6i61 - 25) = 10 (50 - Ttnail + 4 (T1in21 - 25) = (50 - T6"u1) 4 Tfinal - 100 = 50 - T6tt61 ;. 5 T6n21 = 150 .'. T6r.,4 = 30 The best answer is choice B. This could have been solved intuitively by saying that if the heat capacities ::m the liquid and solid are equal, then mixing equal mass quantities of the metal and liquid would lead tr o temperature exactly between the two starting temperatures (the average of 25 and 50 is 37.5). Because thm was excess liquid, the final temperature would be closer to the initial liquid temperature than the inirnlfl metal temperature, which makes it less than 37.5"C. The temperature must increase somewhat from se liquid's initial temperature, so the final temperature is between 25"C and 37.5"C. The best answer is choice B
mliquid uqoia (Trinat - Tinlt (liquid)) = mmetal
73.

Choice D is correct. If the heat capacity of the liquid and metal are the same, then the final temperature 30'C. Considering that the mass of the liquid is four times the mass of the solid, the difference in the temperature (and thus temperature change) can be atiributed to different heat capacities. If the i temperature is greater than 30"C, then the heat capacity of the liquid is less than the heat capacity of solid. The math is shown below:
mliquid Cliquid (Trinat - Tmlt (llquld)) = mmetal Cmetal (Tinit (metal) - Ttnat) Given that m1'n14 = 4 x m11s161, the following substitution and subsequent cancellation can be made:
4

xm5p1g Chquid (Tmd - Tmit gtquid)) = mmetal Cmetal (Ti''1t (metai) - Tmrat) 4 Ctquid (Ttnat - 25) = Cmetal (50 - T6"u1)

By cross-dividing (if there is such a mathematical term), we find that:

Timd - 25 = Cmetal ... n * Tflnal 25 = Cmetal 50 - T66u1 4 x C1iqs14 50 - Tiitrul Ctiquid

If T66u1

30'C, 1',"r',

Cmetal

CIquid

If T1i121

>

30"C,

thsn 9metal
Cliquid

If Tiinal < 30"C, thsn Cmet:- s Cliqrn;

This means that any liquid that shows a final temperature greater than 30"C has a heat capacity less t},.ro heat capacity for the solid. According to Table II, this is true only for Liquid IV. If this wasn't vou: thought, then your test-taking skills should have pulled you through. Only one choice is correct, so d liquids, you should pick the one with either the highest or lowest final temperature, never one in the mj The lower the heat capacity, the more the temperature increases for a given quantity of heat, so the ; choice is the liquid with the highest final temperature, Liquid IV. The best answer is choice D.

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Section VIII Detaited Ex

74.

Choice D is correct. Because Metal IV reached a lower temperature in Experiment I than did Metal III, the heat capacity of Metal IV must be greater than the heat capacity of Metai III. This means that when both Metal III and Metal IV are at 50"C, Metal IV has more kinetic energy than Metal III. This means that when Meial III is added to the liquids, it has less energy to transfer to thE"hquids, so that the final temperature of each liquid must be lower than it would have been had Metal IV been used. More kinetic energy iir the metal results in more kinetic energy being transferred to the liquid and thus a higher final temperature for the liquid. This is_best explained in answer choice D. Choices e ana B are eliminatj, because the heat transferred from Metal III is less than the heat transferred from Metal IV. Choice D is correct. The greatest amount of transferable kinetic energy is found with the metal with the greatest combination of temperature and heat capacity. Metal IV has Iire greatest heat capacity, based on information from Experiment I. of the choices piesenied, Metal IV also has" the greatest temperature. This makes Metal IV at 80'C the correct choice, so chooie answer choice D. Choice A is correct. Using your test-taking skills, you see that the correct answer involves the sequential ordering of liquids in Table II, according to their iit al te*peratures. Because equal amounts of heat were 119 applied to all four liquids and the amount of liquid was identical in each trial, the lower AT is due to a larger heat capacity' This_-means that the greatest heat capacity is associated with the liquid that showed the smallest AT (Liquid iII). The correct choice is III > I > II > iV, ur,r*u, choice A. The answer choices should have been narrowed down to either A or B based strictly on test-taking skills, using the sequence of temperafures from Table 2. For optimum satisfaction, choose A.
Choice A is correct. If the outer wall of the calorimeter increase in temperature during the experiment, heat must be lost during the process. Any heat that is lost to the environ*".,i i, not absorbeld by the liquid, so the final temperature of the liquid is less than is expected. The final temperature of the solid is equal io the final temperature of the liquid at equilibrium, so the final temperature ii lower than expected. this eliminates choices C and D. Because the final temperature is too low, the change in temperature for the liquid is too and the change in temperature for the solid is too high. Because the calculation for the energy transfer |mall, involves equating the two temperature changes, the inaccuiate temperature changes affect the heatLpacities. Because the temperature of the liquid does not increase as high as itihould, the loiver temperature change may be mistaken for a larger heat capacity for the liquid. Becauie the energy (n; equats mCAT, a AT value that is too small will be balanced out by a C that is too lirge. The best answer is choice A. Choice D is correct. The ratio of the heat capacities can be determined by equating the energy changes for both the liquid heating up and the solid cooling dbwn.
Eheating of liquid = -Ecooling of solid

75.

76.

77.

-8.

mliquid Chquia (Trinat - Tinit (liquid)) = - msolid Csolid (Trinat - Tinir (solid)) = msohd Csohd (Ti.rit (rota) - Ttnat) mliquid Cliquid (Trinat - Tmit Giquid)) = msolid Csolid (Thit (solid) - Trinat)
40 C11qqi4 AThquid = 10 Cs6p4 ATsotid

...Chquld-lATsolid

Csohd

4 ATli'rri4

The best answer is choice D.

-9'

Choice

A is correct. A

asymmetric, the valve must be asymmetric. Choices C and D have symmetry, so they can be eliminated. For fluid from left to right, the valve must seal on the left and remain open on"the righi. Choose A. The valve must be viewed in three dimensions to appreciate its operation. If pt"irrrr" is apphJd (due to the flow of fluid) from right to left, the ball seals with the port and no fluid can now. f press.rre-is applied (due to the flow of fluid) from left to right, the ball does not form a seal with the port, so fluia continues to flow. This means that fluid flows in only one direction (left to right) through the valve.

one-way valve allows fluid to flow in only one direction. Because the flow is

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80.

Choice C is correct. A cooling fan, by definition, is designed to cool by convection. In the one-piston steam engine, cooling is required to condense the steam into liquid water. Condensation takes place in the condenser. so the fan should be set up near the condenser (so the condenser can be cooled). The best answer is choice C. A condenser would have many thin fins on its surface to increase the surface are and thus increase heat transfer brway of convection. Choice C is correct. For the piston to rise, the intemal pressure must exceed the external pressure. To build up the internal pressure, steam is added to the core of the piston through the intake valve. Pressure builds up a-. the moles of gas increase. This is because according to the ideal gas equation, when volume and temperature are constant, pressure increases as moles increase. The temperafure is considered to be constant, because steam in the presence of water is at 100"C. Steam is added to the core of the piston by allowing steam to flow into the piston. but not flow out of the piston. This means that the intake valve should be open and the exhaust valve should be closed. The best answer is choice C.

81.

82.

Choice A is correct. When the counterweight is at its lowest point, the cycle of the piston is complete. The counterweight is lifted again as steam is added to the core of the piston. It would be ideal if the piston were completely compressed; but because there will always be some gas present in the core of the piston, fuJcompression is not possible. This is best explained in choice A. In modern engines, the gas is evacuated from the chamber to help the piston descend with less resistance. Modern engines also employ multiple pistons that are out of phase, rather than use a counterweight.
Choice D is correct. Because the liquid is converted into a gas in the boiler, heat must be added to the boi-ler t; induce evaporation. This eliminates choices A and C. The gas is then converted back into a liquid in the condenser, so heat must be removed from the condenser. A well-designed automobile has a passenge: compartment heater that takes advantage of the heat released from the condenser to help heat the passenge compartment. To carry this out, a fan blows across the outside surface of the condenser, and the heat flows intc the passenger compartment with the air flow. The correct answer for this question is thus choice D. Choice D is correct. The engine is operated through the interconversion between liquid water and steam. Th:,i is known as vaporization, so the correct choice is answer D. Choice A is a good explanation for why lr-a:* would be used in a radiator. Choice A is correct. An engine to converts heat into work, so an efficient engine is an engine that converts a-l-1 r the heat into work. If all of the heat is converted into work, then no heat is emitted. A perfect engine is n;* possible. An ideal engine would run at ambient temperature, so that no heat is lost to the environment. Pr.[ choice A if you know what is best for you.

83.

84.

85.

86.

Choice B is correct. A Camot engine is designed to convert heat into work. An engine takes heat in to give rffi work energy overall. The diagram that represents an engine is the diagram that represents a work- releas:ry process (one with work equal to a negative number). The vertical steps in the diagrams (b to c, d to a, e to f. ard g to h) represent steps in which the volume does not change, so no work can be done in these steps (if A\i = I[" then -PAV = 0). The trick to this question is to pick one diagram and solve it. The correct answer is eiLlem choice B or D, because "work flows out of the system" must be true in the statement for an engine. In the diagrm, in Figure 1, the step from a to b represents the expansion of the gas. When a gas expands, the proc# endothermic and work energy is released. This implies that work is a negative number, because work energ"r ri given off by the system. The change in volume (AV) is positive for the process, so -PAV must be negative. In diagram in Figure 1, the step from c to d represents the compression of the gas. When a gas compresses process is exothermic and work energy is absorbed. This implies that work is a positive number, because rt energy is absorbed by the system. The change in volume (AV) is negative for the process/ so -PAV mus;: positive. The pressure is greater from a to b than it is from c to d. This means that the magnitude of the u from a to b is greater than the magnitude of work from c to d. The absolute value of the wu-6 > the absc: value of w"-4. The overall work is the sum of both work steps. Because the negative value has a la: magnitude than the positive value, the process must be negative overall. This makes the diagram in Figu:e an engine. This also makes choice B correct.

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Section VIII Detailed

87.

Choice C is correct. In a full cycle on the diagram for an ideal system (like the Carnot refrigerator in the diagram in Figure 2), the change in internal energy is zero. This eliminates choices A and B. For a refrigerator, work is added into the system, as heat is removed from the system. The "work in" must therefore be greater than the "work out" for the overall process to be heat absorbing. From the graph in Figure 2, going from f to g involves a positive change in volume, so a negative value for work (w = - PAV) is calculated. From point f to point g, work energy is released, so the process is defined as "work out." From the graph, going from h to e involves a negative change in volume, so a positive value for work (- = - PAV) is calculated. From point h to point e, work energy is absorbed, so the process is defined as "work in." The pressure is greater moving from h to e than it is moving from f to g. The magnitude for the "work in" step (h to e) is therefore greater than the magnitude for the "work out" step (f to g). This makes choice C the best choice.
Choice D is correct. If work for the system is positive and AE (the change in internal energy) is zero, then q (the heat of the system) must be negative (given that AE = q + w). If q is negative for the system, heat was released from the system to the surroundings, meaning that q must be positive for the surroundings. The best answer is therefore choice D.

88.

39.

Choice B is correct. Because the shaft of the pump is becoming hot, it must be that air (and heat) is being compressed in the column of the shaft (assuming the heat is not due to friction). If the heat is greatest at the bottom of the shaft (where the pressure is greatest), then the heat is due to the exothermic nature of compressing gas, not friction. If the heat were due to friction, it would be uniform throughout the column of the shaft. Because the needle tip is cool, the gas must be expanding at that point. The compressed gas expands as it exits from the needle point. Because air is compressed in the shaft, choices C and D are eliminated. Because gas expands as it leaves the needle tip, choice B is the best answer.
Choice B is correct. From point a to point c in the diagram in Figure 1., the volume of the system has increased, so choices C and D are invalid (and thus eliminated), because the gas has expanded. As a gas expands, heat must be absorbed (expansion of a gas is endothermic). When the gas expands, work energy is given off from the system to the surroundings (when AV is positive, work (which equals - PAV) must be negative). This makes
choice B correct.

90.

91.

Choice D is correct. The purpose of an engine is to convert heat energy into work energy. The warmer the exhaust temperature, the more heat that is dissipated to the environment rather than being converted into useful work energy. If heat energy is wasted, the engine is not being efficient. This implies that both choice A and choice C are invalid. The more points at which energy is transferred, the more energy that is dissipated in the way of friction. If energy is dissipated as friction, it is not being used efficiently. This means that many points of energy transfer would result in decreased engine efficiency. The best answer is therefore choice D.
Choice B is correct. From point b to c in the diagram in Figure 1, the volume does not change, so no work can be done. Work is defined as -PAV, so a change in volume (AV) of zero means that PAV is zero and thus no work is done. The best answer is therefore choice B. In choices A, C, and D, there is work being done, and that is not possible at constant volume.

t2.

t3.

Choice B is correct. The First Law of Therrnodynamics deals with the conservation of energy. Energy can be neither created nor destroyed, and as such, energy is neither lost nor gained in any process. The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that in any spontaneous process there is an increase in the entropy of the universe. The magnitude of the entropy change of the surroundings is always greater than or equal to the magnitude of the entropy change of the system. The Third Law states that the entropy of a perfect crystal at 0 kelvins is zero. Rutherford's experiment dealt with determining atomic structure (the location of sub-atomic particles and the nucleus), not the laws of thermodynamics, so choice D is eliminated. The Second Law of Thermodynamics, choice B, is the best choice.

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94.

Choice A is correct. There are a few methods to solve this problem, of which three are listed. It is suggested that you adopt the method that is quickest for you. It is not a bad idea to learn multiple methods to reach a soluiion for att of the questions you practice with. This helps to broaden your understanding of the concepts being tested.

Method one requires taking a weighted mathematical average of the volumes and temperatures:
The final total volume of water is 128 mL. This means that25%

the solution that starts at 36'C. This also means

solution that starts at 64'C. The weighted average is calculated as follows: 0.25 (36"C) + 0.75 (64'C) = 9"C + 48"C = 57'0'C'
This makes choice A the best answer.

t4s!l of the final solution originates from 128mL of the final solution originates from the 75% t4gll that 128mL

A second approach is the intuitive approach. Intuition is often aided by drawing a diagram,
physics. The sketch below shows the change in heat for the reaction and the math involved:
96 rnL at 64'C (higher Ti.,iri"t)

as you do in

4x=28'C :. x=7"C
Tfinal = 64'C - x = 64'C - 7"C = 57'C

or

Difference in T is 28'C

Difference in T is set as 4x
3x

Tfir,ul = 36'C + 3x = 36"C + 21"C = 57'C

32

mL at 36'C (lower

Tir.,iriut)

This leads to a values of.57'C again, so choice A results from this method as well'

The last approach is to equate the heat lost by the warmer solution with the heat gained by the cooler solution. If no heat is lost to the environment, then E"661int + Ehs6ling = 0'
Ecooling = -Eheating

mCAT"oolir1g = - mCAT6uu6r1t

Canceiing the C from both sides and plugging in for AT yields: mAT6oolirr, = - mAThearin,

-Tmail = - 32 8(36 - T6pf = 32 g(Tiinul - 36) 96 g $a- Tmat) = 32 g(Tmat - 36) + 3 (64 -Trinat) = Tfinal - 36 I92- 3 Tfinal = Tfinal - 36 228 = 4 Tfinal 57 = Tfinal
96 g (64

WeIl what do you know? The correct answer is choice A yet again. Each method has its unique advantages, so the best method is the one with which you feel most comfortable'

"'

"'

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Section VIII Detaited Explanatior

95.

Choice C is correct. Knowing that w - -PAV, the work done on the system is calculated by substituting the values for P and AV. Because the answer choices are in units of liter.atmospheres, pressure must be converted from torr into atm. This is done as follows: torr 1J-4tm-) = 1.25 atm AV = V6in61 - Vi.,itial = 2.4L - 0.4L = 2.0 L '760 torr' The value for work is found by substituting w = -PAV as follows:
P = 950

w = - (1.25 atm)(2 L) = -2.50liter.atmospheres

The best answer is choice C. 96.

Choice B is correct. The only mathematical equation to know for the Carnot cycle is that the change in internal energy (AE) equals the sum of the heat energy (q) and the work energy (w): AE - q + w (which can also be written as AE = q - PAV). All of the values you need are given in easy-to-use units, so plug-and-chug to your heart's content. The mathematics should follow:

LE=22.2kI -24.4kI = -2.2kJ. Make sure to pick B to optimize your gratification quotient.
97.

Choice D is correct. The equation you need is: AG = AH - TAS. No numerical values are given for AH, T, or AS, so AG cannot be assigned a definite numerical answer. Since AH and AS are both given as positive, then the free energy change (AG) is:

AG=(+#)-T(+#) A large value for T would make the value of AG negative, while a small value for T would make the value of AG positive. The answer depends on T, so choose D. The solution to this question represents the reasoning
behind Table 8.1
Case

Result

AS positive, AH negative AS positive, AH positive

AS negative, AH negative

all temperatures Favorable at high temperatures Favorable at low temperatures

Favorable at

AS negative, AH positive

Never favorable at any temperature

The term "spontaneous" may be used in lieu of "favorable". Spontaneous implies that the value for the free energy change (AG) is a negative value. The term spontaneous also implies that the reaction is favorable in the forward direction.
98.

Choice B is correct. A gas is the most random phase of the three common phases of matter (solid, Iiquid, and gas), and a solid is the most ordered of the three common phases. Therefore, in changing from a gas into a solid, the atoms are becoming more ordered. AS is a measure of change in randomness for the system, and since the randomness of the system is decreasing, the value of AS must be a negative value. Choice B is the correct
answer.

99.

addition of heat to the system. This makes expansion of a gas C. Because the gas is becoming more random as it expands (it occupies a larger volume once expanded), the expansion process is entropically favorable. The best answer is choice B. When the system becomes more random, the change in entropy (AS) is positive.
gas requires the

Choice B is correct. To expand, a

an endothermic process and eliminates both choice A and choice

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Section VIII Detailed Explanations

100. Choice C is correct. All of the statements entail phase-change processes,

quick reference:
Process (Phase Change)

so the

following table is presented for

Melting (Solid to Liquid) Freezing (Liquid to Solid)

Evaporation (Liquid to Gas)
Condensation (Gas to Liquid)

Sublimation (Solid to Gas) Deposition (Gas to Solid)

Enthalpy Change Endothermic: Small positive value Exothermic: Small negative value Endothermic: Semi-large positive value Exothermic: Semi-large negative value Endothermic: Large positive value Exothermic: Large negative value
does to convert a solid to
a

It requires more energy to convert a liquid to a gas (vaporization) than it

(fusion), because all of the intermolecular forces must be broken. Heat is absorbed during vaporization ( endothermic process). This makes statement I a valid statement. Choices B and D are eliminated. This means that statement II is invalid. \A/hile more heat is involved in a phase change between a solid and a than a phase change between a liquid and a gas, the key word in statement II is "released." Energy is during sublimation, not released. Statement II is invalid. Heat is released when a liquid freezes into a because fueezing is an exothermic process and heat is released in exothermic processes. The release of from the system to the surroundings warms the environment. This makes statement III valid, and makes
best answer choice C.

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Section VIII Detailed

$ection IX
Kinetics
by Todd Bennett
(J

Beaction Kates a) Observed Reaction Rate b) Reaction Rate Experi:ment c) Reaction Order d) Rate Constant and Rate Law e) Reaction Order Experiment

f)

g)

Typical Data and Graphs Half-life

(A

Keaction Flechanisms a) Ceneral Plechanism b) Energy Diagrams c) Catalysis

Types

500

600

Wavelength (nm)

Ist order reaction

tPl

time

time

Specia};ztn;g in MCAT Preparation

Kinetics Section Goals

Be able to intgrpret kinetic information from graphs. The sJudy of kinetics involves the use of graphs that show concentration versus time and graphs that show rate versus time. You must recogniz-e typical graphs for zero-order, first-order, and s"ecdndorder reactions. Many questions on the MCaf 6iinply-reciuire that you recogni ze a graphand read, information from it.

aB

Know the significance of the rate-determining step.

A11

kinetic data in a multi-step reaction are based on the rut*4"t"*itring step. th* ,ut"-d"tur*ilrlr,s step of a reaction is the slow-est step in the overall reaction process. Th"e rale-determining step hai the greatest activation energy (trdnsition-state energy) of all the steps in the reaction"patliway.

Know how to determine the rate equation and rate law. The rate reactants thut uff".

These questions require thai-you analyze rate data from a'table

"quutioffie (all of the ieactants in the rate-determining step). The rate law is found by setting the rate of the reaction equal to the rate constant times the reactants in the rate-determinins step. For a first-order reaction, the rate law is: rate = kIReactant]. The rate Iaw is determined bv"isolitine each reactant and observing how the rate changes when the concentration of that parti'cular reac"tant is altered.
of different trials.

Understand the colrelation=Detr,yeen temperature, ac.tivation gnergy, and rate. 'I'hereact.ionrateisdeterminedbytheactivationenergyo

temperature system is increased, there is more energy av6ilable to overcome the act"ivatibn barrier. With this energy, the reaction can proceed more rap-idly, because more reactants can overcome the activation barrier per unit time. The followin! gfaphs are ones that you must recognize:
Transition state

a
;J Q

C)

Activation energy
required for reaction

C)

li ()

h bo
+i tr
d)

Irl

z
Reaction coordinate

Kinetic energy

"v

Be able to determine quickly the concerrtration at any time for first-order decav. require the use of the half{ife, which is defined as the period of time required for one-haff of a material to decompose (or react). For a first-order reaction, the half-life is iconstant value, no matter what the concentration of the reactant may be.
Thes-e guestions

'v

Know the effect of a catalyst on the reaction rate.

A catalyst (or enzyme in biological reactions) forms a complex with the transition state of the ratedeterminine step i1a reaction.- The complex is more stable!. and thus of a lower energy. Lt esqence. determining rore stable, in a reaction.*The com nplex enersv. ln essence, a catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction by lowering the energy 1e\, of the transitionion bv lowerine enerev level state complex. In doing so, the rate of the reaction is decreased. A catalystis not consumed during the reacti5n. the course of the reaction.

General Chemistry

Chemical Kinetics

Introduction

Kinetics, from a chemistry perspective, is the study of how fast a reaction proceeds and the conditions that affect the speed of the reaction. In its simplest form, chemical kinetics is the study of the rate at which a product is formed or the rate at which reactants are consumed. In kinetic sfudies, the disappearance of reactants is often monitored, in terms of their known spectral data and physical properties. Products are harder to monitor, given that there are no products present when a reaction commences. A problem that often arises is deciding which kind of spectroscopic signal to use to monitor product formation: visible light, ultraviolet light, or electromagnetic radiation of some other frequency.
As we saw in the equilibrium section, chemical reactions move simultaneously in the forward and reverse directions. Chemical kinetics is concerned with the forward reaction rate, the reverse reaction rate, and the overall reaction rate. \Alhen monitoring a reaction, we observe the overall reaction rate. From the overall reaction rate, we can ascertain information about the forward and reverse reaction rates. It is also possible to monitor one component in the mixture by

incorporating an isotopic label. By observing the rate of label incorporation, information about either the forward rate or the reverse rate can be obtained. The main reason for studying reaction rates is to be able to determine the mechanism by which a reaction proceeds from reactants to products.

In organic chemistry, choosing between the various nucleophilic substitution mechanisms is based on kinetic data. If the concentration of the nucleophile influences the rate of the reaction, then it is assumed that the rate determining step involves the nucleophile attacking the electrophile to form the transition state that evolves into product. This is referred to as an Sy2-reaction mechanism and is common in organic chemistry. If changing the concentration of the nucleophile shows no effect on the rate of the reaction, the reaction is said to
follow an SytrI-reaction mechanism. Both mechanisms shows a rate dependence on the electrophile concentration. The number given in the descriptive name of the
mechanism refers to its reaction order.

In biochemistry, enzymatic behavior is monitored through the study of chemical

kinetics. Observing the reaction rate over time reveals features of the enzyme and whether or not it is saturated. A good foundation in chemical kinetics from a general chemistry perspective makes Michaelis-Menten kinetics (studied in biochemistry) easier to understand. Conversely, if you have a strong
understanding of Michaelis-Menten kinetics from a conceptual and mathematical perspective, then reviewing chemical kinetics in general chemistry will be much easier. We will intertwine examples of chemical kinetics from a few fields, so that we can get a more universal understanding of reaction rates and of the aspects of a chemical reaction that influence these rates. In reviewing chemical kinetics, we will focus on experimental studies that tell us about the concentration of a component in a reaction as a function of time. By studying changes in this concentration over time, we can deduce information about the order of the reaction. Knowing the reaction order, in furn, can give us information about the reaction mechanism. If the mechanism is valid, then a reaction can be manipulated to control the rate of formation and the distribution of products. A catalyst influences the rate of a reaction, but it does not affect the product distribution.

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General Chemistry

Chemical Kinetics ffi1iii;1'1ffiui.i$illr1ii1.*11li"1it4r

Reaction Rates
liii';,,,,;,",,,'',-.,,*,;,i1,r,

ffi-s-

Observed Reaction Rate The rate for any reaction can be measured as either the rate of disappearance of a reactant or the rate of apPearance of a product. Given that the ratio of a reactant to a product is not always one to one, we need a way to account for stoichiometn, when studying reaction rates. As a general rule, Equation 9.1 d.escribes the ratl of reactant consumption relative to the rate of product formation for a system with no stoichiometric difference between products and reactants. A[Products] _ AIReactants] At At
(e.1)

Given that products form as reactants are consumed, there is a negative sign in the equality shown in Equation 9.1, which is useful for determiniig the ra"te or formation of a product when the rate of consumption of a reactant is known.
Example 9.1

Given that s2o32-(aq) in a 0.50-liter flask is consumed at the rate of 0.00g0 moles per second, what is the formation rate of SaO52-(aq)?
252O32-(aq) +

I2(aq)

SaO5z-(aq) +

2I(aq)

A. 0.0080 M
S

-->
I L?J \ !. '*-i'r

B.
D.

0.0160

M
S

,-

t bc /\'\
s

c. 0.0320 a4 s
0.0160

-l

Solution
The product (sao62-) appears at half the rate at which the reactant (szo::-rl disappears, because the stoichiometric relationship between the two species is 1, : 2. It is given that s2o32- disappears at a rate or o.oos moles/0.S liters per secorui which equals 0.0160 molar per second. This means that S4O52- appears at a ra@ of 0.0080 molar per second, making choice A a terrific and correct choice. Choie D should have been eliminated immediately, because it has incorrect units.
Example 9.2

o2(g) appears as a reaction product at the rate of 18 torr per second. \zvhat G fu rate of appearance for SO2(g) in the following reaction?
2

SOs(g)

A. +36 torr.s-1 B. +18 torr.s-l C. +9 torr.s-1 D. -18 torr.s-1

Solution

--+

2SO2G) + Oz(g)

The so2 product appears at twice the rate at which the 02 product appears to the 2 : 1 stoichiometric relationship between the two products (soz and This means that the so2 product appears at a rate of z i 18 torr.s-1 = 36 tor: This makes choice A the correct answer.

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General Chemistry

Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Rates

The rate of a reaction is determined by the rate-determining step (the slowest step in the reaction mechanism). This is because the slowest step in a reaction determines the observed rate for the overall reaction. The rate is dependent only

upon the concentration of the reactants involved in the rate-determining step. However, we can observe the rate from any of the reactants or products/ even those that are not involved in the rate-determining step. In addition to knowing numerical relationships between formation rates and consumption rates, it is also important to be able to interpret graphical representations of reaction components. Drawn in Figure 9-1 below are two graphs, each depicting the concentration of a species as a function of time for a generic, multi-step catalyzed reaction. The shape of the graph depends on the reaction order and the ratedetermining step of the mechanism, so the graphs drawn are not universal.

Intermediate
'jJ

d *r
c)

'5
lr
a')

Catalyst

U Time

Time--------+
Figure 9-1

Because the curves in the graph on the left get flatter with time, the rate must be decreasing as the reaction proceeds. Products are formed during the reaction, so

the product concentration starts at zeto, builds rapidly at first, and then slowly levels off to a steady concentration (once the reaction reaches equilibrium). Reactants are consumed during the reaction, so the reactant concentration starts high, drops rapidly at first, and then slowly levels off to a steady concentration (once the reaction reaches equilibrium).
Catalysts present in the beginning of the reaction are part of the transition state

during the reaction, and then are regenerated at the end of a reaction. This
means a catalyst starts with some concentration, drops rapidly at first, stays close to zero for most of the reaction, and then slowly increases back to its original concentration (once the reaction reaches equilibrium). Intermediates are not present in the beginning of the reaction. They are in their highest concentration during the reaction and then are in diminished quantity at the end of a reaction. This means an intermediate starts with zero concentration, increases rapidly at

first, stays at a steady concentration for most of the reaction, and then slowly decreases back to zero concentration (once the reaction reaches equilibrium). When the intermediate concentration remains constant, it is known as a steady
state. The graphs in Figure 9-1 reflect all of these conditions.
These graphs are also seen in biochemistry, where the reactant is referred to as a substrate, the catalyst is an enzyme, and the intermediate is th.e enzyme-substrate complex. Free enzyme is regenerated as the reaction reaches its endpoint and the

enzyme-substrate complex eventually disappears. Other graphs from

biochemistry kinetics that you may recognize include the rate of a reaction as a function of concentration and rate of reaction as a function of time in Figure 9-7.

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Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Rates

Experimental Study of Reaction Rate Rates are observed empirically in laboratory studies, so they are subject to environmental influences and human error. As such, we indicate the values with an error bar. One technique used in the lab to determine the rate of a reaction involves observing product formation or reactant consumption via ultravioletvisible (UV-visible) spectroscopy. In cases where there is no uv-visible peak to observe, rates can be obtained using a second technique. Aliquots can be collected at uniform intervals and analyzed using gas chromatography. This requires removing some of the reaction mixture while the reaction is still proceeding, but the amount is generally so small that it has a negligible effect on the rate of the reaction. A bigger problem is that the reaction may continue to react in the syringe or pipette after it has been removed from the original flask.

To avoid this problem, the sample of solution is quenched upon removal (to prevent further reaction). once the samples are quenched, they are analyzed by a quantitative technique, such as gas chromatography (GC) or nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR). If the concentration is analyzed at uniform intervals, it is possible to plot the data and fit a curve to the points. The graphs shown in Figure 9-2 represent data obtained from gas chromatography done on selected aliquots. The peaks can be integrated to quantify the compounds in the mixture.

I
'6
CJ

Retention

x ':
U)

.9

Retention time

I
.: (n
E
Retention time
I

; !
Figure 9-2

= .

The first and last peaks (of the three) in Figure 9-2 represent reactants, because they decrease with time. The middle peak represents a product, because it grorr-: with time. The retention time is the time it takes the sample to travel through ihe column. It is not important in this particular example.

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General Chemistry

Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Rates

UV-visible spectroscopy can be done in uitro, so timing and quenching are not a problem. When carrying out a reaction in a cuvette, the reaction can be placed into an UV-visible light spectrophotometer. It is best to pulse the sample with light, rather than subject the sample to continual bombardment, because the light from the detector beam adds energy to the system. An increase in the energy results in an increase in reaction rate and consequently inaccurate data. Figure 93 shows absorbance as a function of wavelength at different time intervals during a reaction, using a UV-visible spectrometer to collect data.

Wavelength(nm)+

Wavelength(nm)+

Product Intermediate
Catalyst
a1 l_l

Wavelength(nm)+

Intermediate
l^l

Wavelength(nm)-+
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General Chemistry

Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Rates

The change in height of each curve follow a pattem similar to the one in the intensity graphs in Figure 9-2. In UV-visible spectroscop/, peaks are analyzed for height, rather than area. The peaks from the UV-visible spectrometer are measured in absorbance and can be mathematically converted in concentration using Beer's law, Equation 9.2 (also listed as Equation 1.3):
Absorbance = e[C]I,
(e.2)

where e is the molar absorbtivity constant (also known as the extinction

coefficient), [C] is the concentration of the species, and I is the length of pathway through which light travels through the cuvette.

It is impossible to identify each peak in Figure 9-3 until t = 2, which is why the peaks are labeled with question marks in the t = 1 entry. The biggest change in absorbance is observed between t = 0 and t = 1, and the magnifude of the change in absorbance decreases during each subsequent interval. This means that the reaction rate was fastest during the initial period, but that it slowed down as the reaction proceeded. This is typical for reactions that are not zero-order. Looking at absorbance as a function of time leads to the graphs seen in Figure 9-1.
The best peak to monitor is the peak that shows the greatest change in height (this reduces the effects of any errors). The apex of the peak should be monitored rather than the area under the curve. In measuring the height, it is assumed that the peaks are all symmetrical. In UV-visible spectroscoPy, the wavelength at which the apex of the peak occurs is referred to as )"*o* (the wavelength of maximum absorbance).

Example 9.3 Which of the following methods is the BEST way to study the rate of a chemical reaction? A. Taking samples at regular intervals and immediately placing them into a gas

B.
C. D.

chromatographer Taking samples at regular intervals, immediately quenching each one, and then placing them into a gas chromatogtapher Carrying out the reaction in a cuvette exposed to photons that continually irradiate the sample, and then analyzing the transmitted light for intensity Carrying out the reaction in a cuvette exposed to photons that periodically irradiate the sample, and then analyzing the transmitted light for intensity

As mentioned in the text, it is best to analyze the sample in aitro, thereby avoiding problems associated with transfer. This permits an accurate recording of the time of reaction. Even with expeditious quenching of a sampling, the
timing is not perfect. This eliminates choices A and B. When analyzing a sample by irridiation, cure should be taken not to energize the solution more than is necessary. By continually irradiating the sample, energy is being added to the system, so it does not behave as it normally would. Reaction rates are going to be higher, due to the input of energy. From an energetics perspective, the ideal scenario is periodically to irradiate the sample at the lowest possible frequency (at the l,*u* for the species with the lowest energy absorbance), so that minimal energy is added to the system. This is not always possible, as is the case when the peak intensity is low. The best answer is choice D.

Solution

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General Chemistry
Reaction Order

Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Rates

reactant concentration. The rate law for a zero-order reaction is rate = k. A typical case where zero-order kinetics is observed is during a catalyzed reaction, where the reaction proceeds at the turnover rate of the catalyst. Even with the addition of more reactant, the reaction rate cannot change, because the catalyst has a finite number of reactive sites. A first-order reaction depends only on one reactant (like the 5111 reaction). The rate law for a first-order reaction is rate = ktR]. This means that the rate changes linearly as the concentration of the reactant R is changed. A second-order reaction depends on two reactan_ts (like the 5512 reaction). The rate law for a second-order ieaction is rate = k[R12. this means that the rate changes exponentially as the concentration of the reactant R
is changed.

The order of the reaction is determined by the number of reagents involved in the rate-determining step. There are three reaction orders to consider: zero, first, and second. A zero-order reaction proceeds at a constant rate, independent of

The reaction order with respect to a specific reactant can be masked, however. For instance, in a second-order reaction, if one of the rate-influencing reactants is in significantly higher concentration than the other rate-influencing reactant, then

reaction appears to be first-order, dependent on the reactant in lowest concentration. By saturating a solution with all of the reactants except for one that is involved in the rate-determining step, the reaction can become pseudo firstorder. Something similar to this is seen in enzyme kinetics, when substrate concentration is larger than enzyme concentration. The enzyme is safurated, so the reaction obeys zero-order kinetics relative to the substrate. Additional "cubstrate does not increase the reaction rate. The rate remains constant with the addition of substrate. The rate laws and half-life equations for three different reaction orders are listed in Table 9.L below.
Zero-order
Rate law:

First-order
rate = k[A]

Second-order
rate = k[A]2
t1
2

rate =

Half-life:

tr = [A]o 22k

'" -lrr2 -0.693 2kk

Table
9.1

k [A]o

Example 9.4 What is the reaction order for the following one-step reaction?
2

No2(g)

-+

2 NO(s) + Oz(g)

{.,...Zero-ord,er

B,-rFirst-order
C. ,'second-order

d.

Pseudo zero-order

Solution
Because the reaction is a one-step reaction, the rate-determining step (and the

only step) involves two molecules of nitrogen dioxide colliding. The reaction depends on two reactants, making it a second-order reaction. Choice C is the
best answer.

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General Chemistry
Example 9.5

Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Rates

The half-life is independent of the concentration of reactant for what order of

reaction?

A. Zero-order B. First-order
C. D.
Second-order The half-life is independent of the concentration for all reactions.

Solution
Referring to Table 9.L, we see that only with a first-order reaction is the half-life constant. This means that choice B is correct. It is important to be able to see new information and process it in a simple manner. Each reaction order has its unique features. For zero-order reactions, the rate is constant, so it takes less time for each subsequent half-life, because the quantity for the half-life decreases over time. For first-order reactions, the half-life is constant, which is why you often hear the phrase "half-life for a first-order decay process." Second-order reactions are known for their rapid reaction rate at first, but a drastic decrease in rate after just a short time.
Example 9.6

Given the following table equating reaction time with concentration of reactant, what is the order of reaction?

lAol
1.000 0.500 0.250 0.125

Time
0 sec L5 sec 45 sec 105 sec
ka)

M M M M

A. Zero-order B. First-order
C. D.
Second-order

/z)

f,. ! .. 1 ltt,

.>

"-tf L

C.I

-_'ll

Third-order

Solution
The first half-life, from 1.000 M to 0.500 M, takes 15 seconds. The second half-Life, from 0.500 M to 0.250 M, takes 30 seconds. The third half-life, from 0.250 M to 0.125 M, takes 60 seconds. In this case, as the concentration of reactant decreases. the value of the half-life is increasing. This means that the concentration is inversely proportional to the half-life. This is true for a second-order reaction, so choice C is the best answer.

fn terms of mechanisms, reactions can be only first-order or second-order. Oths observed orders are phenomena associated with catalysts and relative concentrations. First-order reactions entail one molecule breaking apart, and are referred to as dissociatiae reactions. A dissociative reaction involves decomposition in its rate-determining step. Second-order reactions entail hro molecules colliding, and are referred to as associatiae reactions. An associatire reaction involves the combining of two molecules (via collision) in its ratedetermining step.

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General Chemistry
Rate Constant and Rate Law

Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Rates

The rate constant is the term by which the concentrations of reactants in the ratedetermining steps are multiplied to get the rate law. The rate law is derived by determining the reactants that affect the reaction rate, and multiplying this value by the rate constant. Rate constants and rate laws are empirical values, obtained by observing the initial rate of a reaction under several different conditions. Rafe constants haae aarying and odd units! The rate of a reaction is affected by temperature (the reaction rate increases with increasing temperature), activation energy (the reaction rate decreases with increasing activation energy), catalysts, solvent (solvents affect the transition state stability), collision frequency, collision orientation, and the concentration of the reactants in the rate-determining step. The rate constant must account for all of these factors, except concentration of the reactants. Equation 9.3 is used to determine the rate constant.
O

_O

(e.3)

"-E""I/RT

A is the Arrhenius constant; it takes into account collision orientation and

frequency. Not all collisions between reactants result in reactions. The activation energy (Eu") is the energy required to get through the transition state. R is the energy constant given in units of energy per mole.temperature. It is either 8.314 joules per mole.kelvins or 1,.987 calories per mole.kelvins. Example 9.7

If the rate law for the following reirction is found to be: rate = k fiCl2l [HCCI3], what are the units for rate constant (k)?
Clz(g) + CHCI3(g)

--+

HCI(g) + CCla(g)

A. N{ry'
S

B.@
S

C.

/M's
D.
1,

ru/'.t
Solution
The rate of the reaction has units of molar per second. The following equation can be used to solve for units:

Rate

= k/lcltlHCClal

units:

M = ky'MM)=k{ff
.

Solving for the units of the rate constant

yields: k

= -$- = +{ffi.' /M's

It may seem counterintuitive for the rate of a reaction to depend on the square root of a concentration, but because the rate-determining step may be the second or third step of a multiple-step reaction, the rate law for the reaction may involve the concentration of intermediates. If the equation using the intermediates is manipulated in such a way that reactant concentrations replace intermediate concentrations, there are sometimes square root factors involved. The point here
is that the square root is merely an artifact of the mathematical calculations, and it shouldn't upset you. The best answer is choice C.

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Chemieal Kinetics

Reaction Rates

Experimental Study of Reaction Order

Reaction order can be determined experimentally in one of two ways. In one experiment, the concentration of a reactant is monitored over time, and the decay rate is matched with reaction order data. This works well for simple cases. Zeroorder reactions occur at a constant rate, so a uniform decay trend in reactants can be observed within a few data points. First-order reactions occur at a gradually

decreasing rate, so a gradually diminishing decay trend in reactants can be observed within a few data points. second-order reactions occur at a rapidly decreasing rate, so a rapidly diminishing decay trend in reactants can be observed within a few data points. However, to determine the reaction order more precisely, the initial rate is observed as initial concentrations of reactants are systematically varied. The rate law for a reaction is most often obtained in this way. If the reaction rate remains constant when a reactant concentration is varied, then reaction rate does not depend on that reactant. Consider the data in Table9.2 for a hypothetical reaction between one mole of A and one mole of B.

Trial I

Initial Rate
3.07 x 10-3 M.s1 6.11 x 10-3 M.s-i
1.23 x 10-2 M.s-1

IAI
0.10 0.20 0.20

IB1

il ilI

M M M

0.10 0.10 0.20

M M M

Table 9.2
To evaluate the effect of a reactant on the reaction rate, we start with the generic "get rate law: rate = k [A]a[B]b. Upon comparing Trial I with rrial II, we the following results:

Raterl
Rate

= 1 k tAhaFlP

-klAlnalBhP

6.11 3.07

x 10-3M/s _k[0.20]a[0.10]b x ro-3 rvr/s k [0.10]a[0.10]b

The ratio of the rates is approximately 2 (6.11 divided by 3.07is roughly equal to 2), k cancels out in the numerator and denominator, and [0.t0]o cancels out in the numerator and denominator. This leaves the following relationship:

2 =lo.zolu
[0.10]a

= Za ...

a=

We see that the rate doubles when [A] is doubled, so the rate depends on [A]1. This means that the rate law can be modified to: rate = k [A][B]b. Upon comparing Trial II with Trial III, we see that the rate doubles when [B] is doubled, so the rate depends on [B]1. The rate law for the reaction is thus: rate = ktAltB]. This means that the reaction is first-order with respect to A, first-order with respect to B, and second-order overall. This technique is applicable in organic chemistry, as for example when determining the mechanism for a nucleophilic substitution reaction. The data in Table 9.3 describes the kinetic." observed for a generic nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Trial I II

Initial Rate
7.82 x 10-4 M.s-l 1.17 x 10-3 M.s-1 1.54 x 10-3 M.s-1

lNucleophilel lElectrophilel
0.10 0.10 0.20

M M M

0.10

il

M 0.15 M 0.20 M

Table 9.3

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Reaction Ratcs

The numbers may not seem as simple as they were in the previous example, but the procedure is the same. Upon comparing Trial I with Trial II, we see that the rate increases by a factor of 1.5 when [Electrophile] increases by a factor of 1.5, so the rate depends on [Electrophile]1. This ii expected, because the rate of all

nucleophilic substitution reactions depends on the electrophile concentration, whether the reaction proceeds by an Sy1-mechanism or an Sp2-mechanism. Upon comparing Trial I with Trial III, we see that the rate doubles when both [Electrophile] and [Nucleophile] are doubled. We know that there exists a relationship between reaction rate and [Electrophile] that is directly proportional, so the doubling of the reaction rate when comparing Trial I with Trial III can be attributed to the doubling of [Electrophile]. The reaction rate only doubles, so it does not depend on [Nucleophile]. The rate law is: rate = klElectrophile], so the reaction proceeds by an Sp1-mechanism.
For Examples 9.8 through9.12, please refer to Table 9.4 below.

.,, 'a

7'

Trial I II

Initial Rate
3.57 x 10-4 M.s-1 1.43 x 10-3 M.s-1 3.59 x 10-4 M.s-1 L.44 x 10-3 M.s1

IX]
0.10 0.10 0.20 0.20

IY]

M M M M

n
ry

M 0.20 M 0.10 M 0.20 M

0.10

2'4/.

'('-7"

Table 9.4

Example 9.8

\Mrat is the reaction order with respect to Reactant X? A. Zero-order B. First-order

C. D.

Second-order

Third-order

Solution
The order with respect to Reactant X is found by observing the reaction rate as [X] changes. This is done by comparing Trial I with Trial III (or Trial II with Trial ry). Because the reaction rate doesn't change when [X] doubled, it shows no dependence on the concentration of X. The order with respect to Reactant X is the power to which the concentration is raised, which in this case is zero. With respect to Reactant X, the reaction is zero-order. The best answer is choice A.

Example 9.9 Which of the following changes would MOST increase the reaction rate?

A. Doubling [X] and decreasing the temperature by 10'C B. Doubling [X] and increasing the temperature by 10'C
C. D.
Doubling [Y] and decreasing the temperature by 10'C Doubling [Y] and inoeasing the temperature by 10"C Solution The rate does not depend on Reactant X. This eliminates choices A and B. Increasing the temperature provides more energy to the system, so that more molecules can overcome the activation barrier. This means that the reaction rate increases as temperature increases. The best answer is choice D.

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Example 9.L0

Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Rates

What is the overall reaction order? A. Zero-order B. First-order

C. D.

Second-order

Third-order

Solution
change the reaction rate. The order with respect to Reactant Y is found by comparing Trial I with Trial II (or Trial III with Trlal IV). The rate quadruples when [Y] is doubled, so the rate depends on [Y]2. The rate of ttre reuciion depends on two moles of Y, so the reaction is second-order with respect to Y. The overall reaction depends on two molecules of Y and no moles of X, so overall, the reaction is second-order. The best answer is choice C.
The reaction rate does not depend on Reactant X, given that changes in [X] do not

The reaction is second-order, which means that the rate-determining step involves two molecules of Y coming together. This same question can be asked in a more convoluted manner, by asking about the mechanism and the components in the rate-determining step. Example 9.11 is seemingly different from Example 9.10, although both questions are asking about the order of the
reaction and the rate law.

Example 9.11 Which of the following statements accurately describes the reaction mechanism?

A. B.
C. D.

The reaction mechanism is associative, and the rate-determining step

involves one mole of Y. The reaction mechanism involves two moles of Y. The reaction mechanism involves one mole of Y. The reaction mechanism involves two moles of Y.

is associative, and the rate-determining is dissociative, and the rate-determining

step step

is dissociative, and the rate-determining ster

Solution
The order with respect to Reactant Y is found by comparing Trial I with Tria-l U (or Trial III with Trial IV). The rate quadruples when [Y] is doubled, so the rare depends on [Y]2. The rate law for the reaction is thus: rate = k[Y]2. This mear$
rs

that the rate-determining step involves two moles of Y, and the reaction

second-order. Second-order reactions are associative, so the best answer is choice

B.

Although mechanisms can never be proven, from the data you

cam

hypothesize that the reaction proceeds by a multi-step mechanism. For examp,ire" if the reaction is X + Y --> P, then the mechanism must have more than one stmIf the reaction is two-step, then the mechanism is probably:

Firststep: Y + Y -+

Y2

rate-determining step (slowest step)

rndstep: Y2 + X -+ Y + P

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Example 9.12

Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Rates

If the reaction of X with Y is monitored by visible spectroscopy, then which of the following graphs is expected for the absorbance of light by Reactant X as a function of time? The graphs are labeled with t1, t2, and t3, which represent the elapsed time for the reaction, where t3 > t2 > t1.
A.

OJ

-o L

-o L

s
Wavelength (nm)

,a

U)

------>

Wavelength

(nm)--->

l
I

(.)

(J

-8

s H
-o

o a

Wavelength

(nm)+

Wavelength (nm)

-->

Solution
Whether we monitor Reactant X or Reactant Y, the reaction obeys second-order kinetics. Just because reactant X is not in the rate-determining step does not mean it is unreactive. It is consumed at the same rate as Reactant Y, if the two species react in a one-to-one stoichiometric fashion. For a second-order reaction, consumption of reactants (and product formation) is most rapid initially, because as the reaction proceeds, the reactant concentration diminishes, causing the rate to decrease. The greatest change in concentration should be observed between times t1 and t2. This eliminates choice A (which describes zero-order behavior) and choice B, which is erratic behavior. The change between times t2 and t3 should be substantially less than the change between times t1 and t2, so choice D is more indicative of second-order kinetics. Choice C describes first-order
kinetics.

r.rLformation from graphs can be of great benefit on the

Graphs contain a great deal of information, and your ability to extract MCAT. Chemical kinetics entails several graphs, from which trends in reactivity can be extrapolated. Example 9.12 shows this. The information in the answer choices for Example 9.72 can be rewritten in a more traditional form of concentration as a function of time. This results in a graph typically seen in chemical kinetics.
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Typical Rate Data and Graphs Typical graphs in chemical kinetics involve reactant concentration as a function of time during the course of a chemical reaction. The rate data for zero-order, first-order, and second-order reactions have distinctive characteristics, because the concentration of reactant changes in a unique way over the course of each kind of reaction, and the reactant concentration affects the rate differently for
each reaction order.

Zero-order decay is recognized when the concentration of the reactants decreases in uniform increments against uniform time increments. Drawn in Figure 9-4 below are typical data in a typical graphic display for a zero-order reaction: Concentration
1.00 0.75 0.50 0.25 0.00

t
o .5
d
l.{

M M M M M

CJ

d
OJ

Time+
Figure 9-4

Time---+

In Figure 9-4, the data in the table match the graph on the left. The concentration decreases by the same amount, 0.25 M, during each time interval. This means that the reaction rate is constant over time, as seen in the graph on the right. First-order decay is recognized when the concentration of the reactants decreases in a logarithmic fashion against uniform time increments. It may be easier to recognize a first-order reaction by the constant half-life. Drawn in Figure 9-5 below are typical data in a typical graphic display for a first-order reaction: Time
0
1

Concentration
1.00 0.52 0.28 0.16 0.10

2
J

't 6

M M M M M

q,)

tr
0)

&

Time-+
Figure 9-5

Time+

In Figure 9-5, the data in the table match the graph on the left. The concentration decreases by a gradually smaller amount, 0.48 M, then 0.24 M, then 0.12 M,

during each time interval. When the time decreases in uniform increments, the concentration changes by half as much each time. This means that the reaction rate is decreasing with time, as seen in the graph on the right.

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Second-order decay is recognized by the drastic drop in concentration initially followed by smaller decreases in concentration againsi uniform time increments. when the time decreases in uniform increments, the concentration changes by substantially decreasing amounts each time. It may be easier to recognize a second-order reaction by an increasing half-life. Drawn in Figure 9-6 below are typical data in a typical graphic dispray for a second-order r"uJtion' Time
0
1

Concentration
1.00 M 0.35 M 0.25 M 0.18 M 0.14 M

2
J

.5

!
q.)

/,

Time_-+
Figure 9-6

Time_>

changes by a much smaller amount much each time. This means that the reaction ratJ is dlcreasing exponentially with time, as seen in the graph on the right.

ln Figure 9-6, the data in the table match the graph on the left. The concentration decreases significantly in the first intervat, fut tne decrease is substantially smaller during each subsequent interval, 0.65 M, then 0.10 M, then 0.07 M. when the time decreases in uniform increments, the concentration

the rate depends on the reactant, becausethe enzyme is not saturated. Figure 9-Z shows a typical graph from Michaelis-Menten enzvme kinetics: Exhibits zero-order kinetics at high substrate concentration.

A kinetics graph from-biochemistry that should look familiar involves velocity lthe rate of a catalyzed reaction) as a function of substrate concentration for an enzymatic process. Because there is a finite amount oI enzyme,and each enzyme has a finite number of active sites, there is a finite number of reactants that may be reacting at any given time. At high reactant concentrations, the reaction rate appears to be constant (it is equal to a value that depends on concentration of enzyme/ and the turnover rate of the enzyme.) At lowlr reactant concentrations,

'lhe reaction reaches Vrr.,u*

when

enzyme is safurated with substrate.

U
U
c,)

ISubstrate

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Reaction Rates

Half-Life Half-life is defined as the period of time

takes for the concentration of a reactant to decrease to a value that is one-half of its original value' This means that after one half-life, only fifty percent of the initial value remains' Graphs of concentration as a function of time demonstrate the concept of half-life' The graphs in Figures 9-8,9-9, and 9-L0 show half-life dependence on concentration. Zero-order decay involves a constant rate of decay, so the time required to carry out the first hali-life (from L00% to 50%) is double that of the time required to carry out the second half-life (from 50% to 25%). As seen in Table 9'1, the halflife dlminlshes with concentration. Figure 9-8 presents data that show the relationship ofhalf-tife to reactant concentration for a zero-order reaction:
bo
i
(g
qJ

it

Time

Concentration
1.0000

tr
(6

tr

a)

tt=4* z +, -) -* ; t'- 1*
LI'L

0 4.0 6.0

M
M M M

0.s000
0.2500 0.1250 0.0625

d
bD L
(6
(.,]

F--q+ Lt-.v

z.o
7.s

Half-life decreases as the concentration decreases.

25%

U
c.)

bo
(d
OJ

ti

Fi

0)

Time Figure 9-8

First-order decay involves a logarithmically decreasing rate of decay, but thetime required to carry out the firit naff-tlfe (irom 100% to 50%) is equal to that of in the time required to carry out the second half-life (from 50% to 25%). As seen is constant. Figure 9-9 presents data that show the Example 9.i, the half-liie retationship of half-tife to reactant concentration for a first-order reaction:
bo

Time
t,j -*

Concentration
1.0000 0.5000 0.2500 0.1250 0.0625

M M M M M

(!
0)

li (! ti

t--)

+,-)
r l-

0)

bo

; 4 ; +.-t-:> t
A

2.O

4.0 6.0 8.0

ts (c
o o
G)

50%

Half-life remains constant as the concentration decreases"

bD ttrolLr tt 25%
(6
0.)

lr
a)

Figure 9-9

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second-order decay involves a rapidly decreasing rate of decay, so the time required to carry out the first half-life (irom 100% to SoU,; is half tirat of the time t9 garry out the second half-life (from 50% to 2s6/.). As seen in Example 1e9u1red_ 9.6, the half{ife increases as the reactant concentration decreases. Figure 9-t0 presents data that show the relationship of half-life to reactant concentration for a
second-order reaction:
bo

d
(6

Concentration

fi

(! Ir q)
(d
!

tr= '5 tr=1 , tt=2 tt=4

2 2

1.0000 0.5000 0.2500 0.1250 0.0625

M M M

M
M

bo

50%

6
U)

Half-life increases as the

concentration decreases.

CJ

AJ

F.

c,)

Time Figure 9-10

mechanism.

It is.important that you be able to interpret data from both a graph and a table. A useful skill on the MCAT is the ability io recognize trends q.J.dy when scanning numerical data' It is also important to recognize the effect of concentration on the half-life of a reaction. This information cin be used to determine the reaction order, support a proposed reaction mechanism, or eliminate a possible reaction

Because half-life is constant Jor first-order processes, most halflife questions on the MCAT involve decay (a first-order reaction). Equation 9.4 is used to calculate the concentration of a species that undergoes first-order decay at any

time:

C1 =

(os-kt

(e.4)

$'here C1 is the concentration at time t, Co is the initial concentration, t is time, ajld k is the rate constant. Equation 9.4 canbe manipulated to derive the half-tife for a first-order reaction. The half{ife is calculated using Equation 9.5.
C1 =

fog-kt

!t and at t= trl,,Ct = 1 ... 1 ''' C., 2 z "-ktry, * co = "-kt

Taking the natural log of both sides yields:

2 -ekfrt,
= ln

ln2 =kty, :. ty,

kk =

0.693

process.

Equation 9.5 relates the rate constant, k, and the half{ife for a first-order decay

tt1, = 0.693 t

(e.s)

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Reaction Rates

Most half-life questions deal with first-order processes. Rather than using the equations to calculate values, it is often easier to cut a concentration in half several times, until the period of time is completed. For instance, after three halflives, the amount of a material decreases from 100% to 50"h, from 50% to 25"/o, and finally from 25oh to 725%. This technique is far easier than doing long calculations. Examples 9.13 and 9.14 demonstrate how to cut the concentration in half sequentially.

Example 9.13

The concentration of some floral scent is 100

the air?

ppm. If the half-life for its

L pPm

decomposition is 4 minutes, how much time elapses before there is only

in

A. 2o.o minutes B. 26.6 minutes C. 42.2 minutes D. 53.2 minutes

Solution

oc' -)

t;

'' '. t d '

;i

A quick method to arrive at the solution involves calculating

lives. The decrease taken one-half life at a time is:
100

successive half-

-+
{2

50

-r

25

;-

12L

19 -.) -+ { -+ $2 'r 4 ,: 8 -r 1-6 -+

less than 1.0

After seven half-lives (seven arrows), the concentration reaches a value that is less than 1 pp*, so the elapsed time is just less than seven half-lives. Because the
concentration after six half-lives is greater than 1 ppm, the total time is more than six-half lives. Six half-lives is 24 minutes and seven half-lives is 28 minutes, so the time is more than}4but less than 28 minutes. The best answer is choice B.

Example 9.14

If

a drug decomposes according to first-order \inetics, what is its concentraticn after one hour, if the half-life is 21 minutes? ' .,. ''

A. z6.\%ofitsoriginalconcentration i ilt'" i''' I i'"'- B. 24.0oh of its original concentration '' 'i : 'r: -1 C. 13.3% ofits original concentration ' D, 11.7%of its originalconcentration I o..:, ;, ,.. ;,,1,.-; ! l" ' ! Lr 7 t2 'q /^ Solution
:

Because the decay obeys first-order kinetics, the half-life is constant. Within oru hour, given a half-life of 2L minutes, just under three half-lives will transpile The deirease taken one halflife at a time is: 100% to 50"/o, then 50% to 25%, then 25% to a value slightly greater than 12.5%. The best answer is choice C.

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Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Mechanisms

il.

ffin ffiffi#ffi

General Mechanism Types

A reaction mechanism is the stepwise pathway that a reaction is believed to take, and it is proposed based on energetic data, kinetic data, and structural differences between reactants and products (bonds and chirality in particular). Mechanisms account for the steps in the reactant-to-product transformation. There are one-step reactions that are said to have concerted mechanisms. In many cases/ however, the reaction mechanism involves more than one step. To determine the mechanism for a multi-step reaction, we start by determining the components in the rate-determining step. If we know the components that affect the rate, we know the components in the slowest step of the reaction.

If the reaction is first-order, then we know that the slowest step involves one molecule breaking apart. If the reaction is second-order, then we kt ow that the slowest step involves two molecules coming together to form a bond. When considering kinetic data to support a mechanism, the rate information applies only to the rate-determining step of the reaction. Figure 9-11 shows gtuphi tot rate as a function of reactant concentration for some simple cases:

A--+

B+

One-step reaction Dissociative mechanism rate = k [A]

(First-order kinetics)

EZ
tAl

A+B ->C
One-step reaction Associative mechanism rate = k tAltBl (Second-order kinetics)

2A+B+C
One-step reaction Associative mechanism rate = k [A]2 (Second-order kinetics)

EJ
tAl

Figure 9-11

in Figure 9-11 involves the dissociation of the reactant in its rate-determining step (its one and only step). The second reaction in Figure 9-11 involves the association of two different reactants in its rate-determining step (its one and only step). The reaction is first-order with respect to each reactant, but second-order overall. The third reaction in Figure 9-11 involves dimerization the association of two identical reactants) in its rate-determining step. The reaction is second-order with respect to the reactant, which results in the rate as a :unction of reactant concentration being exponential.
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Not all reactions are concerted. Reactants can form intermediates (or activated complexes), which then go on to form products. There may be individual steps in the mechanism that are independent events in the overall Process. Mechanisms can be disproven or supported, but nevel proven. For this reason, mechanisms are best thought of as educated guesses at the reaction pathwav. Figure 9-l-2 shows the graph for rate as a function of reactant concentration for a
multi-step reaction;

A+B -L-c
k_1

C+D -9+ E+B

A + D -*
Rate varies E (overallreaction)

bo

Eaz

Eactl )Eact2
Rate = k1

.'.

h qJ

Step 1 is the rds

CJ

c,)
CJ

[A] [B]

Two-step reaction

rli

*r

with rds

OJ

(!
!

U
OJ

(d

t/
tAl
2

Reaction coordinate

EJl
tcl
Figure 9-12

nl

EIll
tDl

:l

The reaction in Figure 9-12 involves the association of two reactants in both mechanistic steps. Either step could potentially be rate-determining. The step with the higher activation energy is the slower, and thus rate-determining, step.

It is important that you understand the graphs to the extent that you can

interprei data from them. Free energy diagrams are a common way to describe the energetics of the reaction mechanism. The term "teaction coordinate" refers to the stepwise mechanism. The energetics are used as the evidence to propose that the first step in the reaction is rate-determining.
Kinetic data are the basis for most mechanistic proposals. For instance, consider Reaction 9.1. We believe Reaction 9.1 is a one-step reaction, because the ratedetermining step (and only step) involves the two nitrogen dioxide reactant-' colliding to form a bond. Because the reaction shows second-order kinetics, a concertJd, bimolecular mechanism is proposed as the best explanation of such behavior. The rate constant for the reaction is k1, implying that it is the forward rate constant of the first step. The subscript describes the step and the direction' For instance, if we were given ak-3, we could assume that it was the rate constant for the back-reaction of the third step.

No2(g)
Reaction 9.1

Nzo+(e)

According to the rate law, the reaction rate is equal to k1[NO2]2 for Reaction

9'X'

This can Le supported by observing the rate of the reaction as a function of

reactant concentration. This was seen in Example 9.L2. Examples 9.15 and 9'16 are more specific cases where kinetic data can be used to support a proposed mechanism.

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Example 9.15 The mechanism for the reaction that follows is believed to be two consecutive bimolecular reactions.

Reaction:

NOz(g) + CO(g)

-----+

NO(g) + Co2(g)
-'--'!

Mechanism: NO2(g) + NO2(g)

NO(g) + NO3(g) (slow)

\
,
...

'i

'1."":

NOs(g) + CO(g) NOz(g) + CO2(g) (fast \Alhat is the rate law for this reaction, assuming that this reaction mechanism is ->
correct?

'

A. k(PNerXP6s) B. k(PNsr)2(Pco)

5.

ir.k1n516r;2 klnNrer;
Solution

it is the slowest step in the reaction mechanism (rate-determining step). The first step of the mechanism involves two No2 molecules colliding together to form No3 and No. The rate depends on the reactants in the rate-determining step. The rate therefore depends otr t*o molecules of No2 gas. odd as it may seem, Co (carbon monoxide) has no effect on the rate of this reaction. The addition of CO does not increase the rate of the reaction according to the mechanism provided. This makes choice C correct. observations about the rate of a reaction can be used to disprove mechanisms from an analytical standpoint. If one were to find that increasing the partial pressure of CO in the reaction mixture resulted in an increase in the rate of the reaction, then the mechanism as proposed would be invalid. Mechanisms should be able to predict the reactivity patterns of reactions before the reaction begins.
Example 9.16

The rate depends on the first step, because

For the reaction in Example 9.15, what would the expected rate law be had the reaction had occurred in one step? A. k(Px1er)(Pco)

B. k(PN1sr)2(Pqs) C. k(Prvoz)2 D. k(P51gr)

Solution Had the reaction taken place in one step, it would have depended on the two reactants colliding with one another in the transition state. This means that the rate law of the reaction would be k(PIrJ9r)(Pgg), choice A. To confirm this rate 1aw (and mechanism), it would be expected that increases in either of the two reactants would result in a linear increase in the rate of the reaction. Again, this observation could either support or disprove the proposed one-step reaction mechanism. on your exam, you may have to make some predictions about the rate of a reaction based on its proposed mechanism. The simple rule is that if the reactant is in the rate-determining step, then the rate of the reaction depends directly on the concentration of that reactant.

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Reaction Mechanisms

Energy Diagrams and Activation Energy Activation energy is the threshold energy required for a reaction to transpire. It is the energy difference between the starting materials and the transition state (apex of the energy diagram). The higher the energy of the transition state (also referred to as the actiaated complex), the greater the activation energy, and thus the more slowly the reaction rate takes place. The highest activation energy of a multi-step reaction represents the rate-determining step in the overall reaction. There are two popular energy diagrams that you may recall. Figure 9-13 is the traditional graph (often found in organic chemistry textbooks) that relates the energy of the system to the pathway of the reaction. Energy must be absorbed by the system in order for it to ascend the energy diagram. The lower the position occupied by a species on an energy diagram, the more stable it is.

The greater the Eu., (activation energy), the slower the reaction
rate, becaus" L

4u-Eact'/RT.

Reaction coordinate

Figure 9-13 Figure 9-1,4is a bar graph of sorts, where the number of molecules in the system is plotted against their energy. The area under the curve represents the sum oi the molecules in the system. Figure 9-14 shows that at any given time, not aI molecules have the same energy within the system. These two popular graphu methods to depict activation energy are presented below:
Threashold energy required for reaction to take place
o
0)

-Tr

T2

o o d o
tsr

Tz>Tr

greater precentage of

molecules are beyond the

-o
E

OJ

threshold energy
than at
T1.

at Tt

z
Kinetic

energy

Eact

Figure 9-L4 AtT2, the average energy of molecules is greater than at T1. Consequentlr-" d more molecules have enough energy to overcome the activation barrier fsr ! reaction. This means that more molecules react at T2 than T1, resulting in a reaction rate at higher temperatures.

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Example 9.17 Using the graph below, find the value of
Ex61.

Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Mechanisms

)1

-8

slope

=&s't-

d *_9
-10
-11

3.00;

10-3

3.25

10-3

3.50

10-3

fcr

A. B.

1.6 x 105 1.6 x 105

C. D.

J/mole J/mole 7.6 x104 J/mole 1.6 x 103 J/mole

we get the following:

Solution By taking natural log of the equation: k = A

R

"-Eactlp1,

lnk = -Eact a 1'''4

It looks like the equation of a line (y = rn* + b, where m is the slope, and b is the y-intercept), so if we plot ln k as a function of T1, then the slope depends on activation energy and the y-intercept is the Arrhenius constant. By multiplying the slope of the line by - R, we get the activation energy. The slope of the line is:

-11-(-6) -5 slone= - -5 --z --zx\}a ' 3.2s x 10-3 - 3.00 x t0-3 0.25 x L0-3 2.5 x 10a 104
Multiplying the slope by -1 and & yields: Eact = - (2xrca1x R = 2x 104 x 8.3 = 1.6 x 105, choice B.
Example 9.18 \ trhich of the following does NOT always affect the rate of a reaction?

A. Changing the temperature B. Adding a catalyst C. Lrcreasing the volume by adding solvent D. Adding a reactant
Solution

step. If the reactant being added is not involved in the rate-determining step, then it does not influence the rate. This is observed in dissociative reactions (like the Sp1-reaction), where the reaction rate is determined by the dissociation of just one molecule. The best answer is choice D. Changing the temperature changes the rate directly. This eliminates choice A. Adding a catalyst lowers the activation energy and thus increases the reaction rate. This eliminates choice B. Increasing the volume reduces the concentrations of all reagents, including the reactants in the rate-determining step. This eliminates choice C. Increasing
volume of a gas phase reaction also results in a decreased reaction rate.

The equation for rate is rate = k lreactants]rds, where rds means rate-determining

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Dxclusive MCAT Preparation

General Chemistry

Chemical Kinetics

Reaction Mechanisms

Effect of Catalyst Catalysts are added to a reaction to lower the activation energy (energy of the transition state) and consequently to increase the rate of reaction. Catalysts react with the reactants to form an activated complex of lower energy than the normal transition state for the uncatalyzed reaction. Biological catalysts are referred to as enzymes. An enzyme lowers the rate of a biological reaction by forming an enzyme-substrate complex. Enzymes are a little more specific than catalysts in that they also help to align the molecules into the correct orientation for reacting. Enzlzmes cause products to have a specific chirality. Catalysts are not consumed in the reaction. Catalysts do not make a reaction more or less favorable, because they increase the rate of the reverse reaction and the rate of the forward reaction equally.

Example 9.19 \Atrhich of the following statements is NOT true about catalysts?

C. D.

A. Catalysts do not react in the reaction pathway. B. Catalysts are not consumed in the reaction pathway.
Catalysts change the reaction pathway. Catalysts allow the reaction to react more quickly.

Solution
The question asks for a "NOT true" statement. This means that you are searching for the false statement in the answer choices. Catalysts do react in the reactisr pathway; otherwise, they would not lower the activation energy of a reaction- ff this seems strange, think about any acid-catalyzed mechanism from organic

chemistry. The acid protonates a reactant to increase its reactivity. A good example is the protonation of a carbonyl to make the OH group. Upor protonation, the carbonyl becomes more electrophilic. Once the reaction fu complete, the proton comes off of the carbonyl. This makes statement A a falm statement. To be sure about choosirg A, remember that catalysts are regenera at the end of a reaction, so they are not consumed in the reaction. Choice B i therefore true. Catalysts do change the reaction pathway (to one of energy), so choice C is true. Catalysts lower the activation energy so reactions may proceed more quickly. This makes choice D true. The only choice is choice A.
Example 9.20

In which of the following values is the concentration of a homogeneous NOT directly involved? A. The equilibrium constant (K)

B. C. D.

The rate constant (k) The reaction rate Both the equilibrium constant (K) and the rate constant (k).

Solution A catalyst (homogeneous or heterogeneous) does not affect the thermod of a reaction. By definition, catalysts change only the reaction rate for a reaction. A catalyst is therefore not involved in the equilibrium constd This makes choice A correct. A catalyst is definitely involved in the because it is involved in the rate constant.

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The Berkeley

Kinetics
Passages
1O Passages

80 Questions

Suggested Kinetics Passage Schedule: I: After reading this section and attending lecture: Passages I, III, IV,VII, & X Grade passages immediately after completion and log your mistakes.

II: III:

Following Task I: Passages II, V & VI, (25 questions in JO minutes) Time yourself accurately, grade your answers, and review mistakes. Review: Passages VIII, IX & Questions 75 - 8O Focus on reviewing the concepts. Do not worry about timing.

I. II. III. ry. V. VI. VII. VIII. IX. X.

Reaction Kate from Visible Spectroscopy

Michaelis-Menten

(L
(B

-7)
14)

Reaction Rate from Graph Catalyst Turnover Rate

(15 -

2l)

(22 - 28) (2e - 35) (36 - 44) (45 - 5r) (52 - 58) (5e , 65) (66 - 72) (73 - 80)

flalf-life Calculations and First-Order Decay

Nucleophilic Substitution Rate
Cobalt-Exchange Mechanism Oxygen-Transfer Mechanism Chelating Effect

Proposed Mechanism
Questions not Based on a Descriptive Passage Kinetics Scoring Scale Raw Score
MCAT Score

70-80 53-69
37 52

l5 t5
10

t2

-9

26-56

4-6
I -5

t-25

Passage

(Questions 1 - 7)

The peak at

l"*u* = 684 is BEST described

as:

Reaction 1 represents a generic reaction between two reactants to form two moles of a single product.

.r'A
-.8

A+B

-*

2C

{. ,t'.

. .

product.

a reactant.

acatalyst.
unintermediate.

The reaction is monitored over time using a spectrometer

with a wavelength range from 200 nm to 800 nm. The three spectra in Figure I represent the reaction initially, the
reaction after one minute, and the reaction after two minutes.

3. Which of the following statements is NOT

regarding absorbance?

true

t e
-o !

'

/ ,K. As the length of a cuvette increases, the absorbance ,///tncreases. 6. fne concentration is directly proportional to t
absorbance.

.o

.-Clfyte absorbance always increases when the <-L- temperatureincreases. rt . Molar absorbtivity constants are specific for each
individual compound.

4.
550

The rate of reaction found by monitoring the peak at

547 nm would be:
_"1

.1

,f

Wavelength (nm)

O.AAbs
At

t.
'
550

..

B)

-AAbt
at
AAbs

At x lClinit

O. _
Wavelength (nm)

AAbs

At x lClinit

t
a)
Cd

^ /t1 \ '/ A. X (e) 550

Wavelength (nm)
700

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the rate of reaction?

Products appear at a constant rate throughout the
reaction. ,/

Products appear at a gradually decreasing rate

tbroughout the reaction. ProOucts appear at a gradually increasin g rate throughout the reaction. Reactants disappear at a constant rate throughout
the reaction.

.o

400

D.
6.

Figure

What CANNOT be determined from the experiment?

The absorbance for each peak can be converted into

solute concentration using Equation 1:

Abs = elCll

4 .{. C.
7

fn"rate ofdisappearance ofA therate of appearance of C

The concentration of B after two minutes order of the reaction with respect to A

-f .-tne

Equation

The term Abs refers to the absorbance of light, e is the molar absorbtivity, [C] is the concentration in solution, and I is the path length ofthe cell. The peak appearingjust below 700 nm is found to belong to the product, C.

Which assumption is NOT true?

'A[A]_ IA[C] 'ir-rN'7 1

I

.tl ^
I

a -'
t

lL
.-1

C ^P f "-''\
C q |,'i'?r''',g

*1 fo monitor the reaction at constant a would be BEST to lock the setting at: A. 470 nm B. 545 nm C. 625 nm 'D.l 695 nCopyright O by The Berkeley Review@

wavelength, it

l--.'

,-;i\ v./L

/i--iorcr + at 2Lt
AtBl

r(' ;'.l f .. \
F1 \:')/

Tb
4 r' ,.^
I ..,/

At
_2

Atcl
At

;- 1

*.r-*ot "\
F

/ V/ ,{.
229

AIAI

Ar

AlCl -r' 7
Ar

-f, r\^11y)e^'\ II

r"'

ir

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

Passage

ll

(Questions 8 - 14)

Which is NOT true about the role of an enzyme?

The kinetics of enzymatic processes obeys the rules of

Michaelis-Menten kinetics. Michaelis-Menten kinetics for enzymatic processes is based on enzymatic reactions being carried out in two steps. The first step is the rapid formation of the enzyme-substrate complex. The second step is the slow step, in which the enzyme is regenerated and the product is formed. A general reaction mechanism is shown in Figure
1.

-* ; -61 tfl G:1,

k helps to align the reactants correctly.

ttlowers the energy of the transition state.
nincreases the reaction rate. makes the reaction more exothermic.

10. When the catalyst

cJ'[]]Zero-orrder

is saturated, what is the reaction order

with respect to substrate?

E+S

k2- E+P =k1- ES k-1

Figure
1

-'.B.

First-order
Second-order Third-orrder

C. 'D.

where E is the enzyme, S is the substrate, ES is the enzymesubstrate complex, and P is the product. The first step is a rapid equilibrium, so the [ES] remains constant, unless the substrate concentration diminishes to a level where it is comparable to the enzyme concentration. At this point, the rate becomes dependent on the substrate. Figure 2 illustrates this behavior:
1

1.

Given the following equation for the reaction rate, wh,m is true when the reaction rate (v) is equal to one-half cd the maximum reaction rate (vtnu^)?

"-kM*tsi
A

V.a"IS]

o
d g

. B. C. D.

The The The The

reaction reaction reaction reaction

is first-order; [S] = kv. is first-order; Vmax = kM' is zero-order; [S] = ky. is zero-order; Vmax = kM'

5 o
cB

()

12. Which graph BEST

[Substrate]

shows [ES] and [E] as a function uff'

+
2

time?

,{;

Figure

The reaction obeys first order kinetics until the enzyme is saturated and the enzyme-substrate concentration remains constant. The rate of the reaction obeys Equation 1, where the k2 is the rate constant for the rate-determining step, and the tESl is found using the steady state approximation.
Rare =

t d
U
o

Ti-".*

Time+

k2[ES]

[ES] =

tEltsl

(\.::-\z)
Equation
L

. rsr
i-"*

The relationships between the rate data can be found through simple algebraic manipulation.
8

tESl-----

fEl

The enzyme-substrate complex can be classified

which of the following? Aproduct d,reactant -A.--A transition state

13. The rate for an enzymatically catalyzed process

obeys the laws of Michaelis-Menten kinetics is:

as

ffi X

-A;-'rate =

kl

41.

A"

intermediate

f . rate = k2 [Enzyme] C. rate = kl [Enzyme'substrate complex]

'D.]}ate
= k2 lEnzyme'substrate complex]

lEnzyme]

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1-4f. Which graph accurately shows substrate concentration as a function of time for an enzymatic process that

Passage

lll

(Questions 15 - 21)

I
I

-i
!

lf

the rate constant, k, is known for a standard reaction at

B.
a)

activation energy,8461, con be determined using Equation

a series of temperatures, the Arrhenius constant, A, and

l:

.o

jj !v 6

(,)

lnk= Eaa!+lnA
Equation
1

U)

Time_>

Time

_->

The Arrhenius constant takes into account collision

frequency and the orientation of the molecules. For instance, in an Sy2-reaction, not all collisions result in a reaction. Only the collisions oriented with the nucleophile aligned to attack the electrophile from the backside of the leaving group

result in a reaction. Although the rate of a reaction can change with varying reactant concentrations, the rate constant for the reaction is constant throughout the reaction.

Time--+

Ti-"-

Reaction 1 is a one-step chemical reaction that was

carried out in CCl4 solvent (an aprotic non-polar solvent) to determine the relationship between temperature and the rate constant (k). The gases were bubbled into two separate solutions of carbon tetrachloride to a saturation point. The

two solutions were then mixed, and the reaction was

observed.

SO:(g) + NO(g) -+ SOz(g) + NOz(e)

Reaction
Table

shows the results

of six trials carried out at

k

various temperatures on the Celsius scale.

('C)
0 25
3-5

r (x-r)
T

log k
1O-l

45
55

x 10-3 x 10-r 3.25 x 10-3 3.14 x l0-3 3.05 x 10-r

3.66 3.36 2.96

l.8l x
3.46
1.35

-6.10 -4.46
-3.87

65

10-3

x 10-5 x 10-a 4.98 x 10-a 1.50 x 10-3 4.87 x l0-3

L

-3.30 -2.82

-2.3t

Table

The values in the chart contain slight errors, due to mechanical error within the UV-visible spectrophotometer used to measure the reactant and product concentrations. The values in this chart show a correlation between the reaction temperature and the rate constant for the reaction.

15.
,. '

As temperature increases, which of the lollowing

observed?

are

A. B. 'C. P.

k increases: reaction rate increases. k increasesl reaction rate decreases. k d""r"uses; reaction rate increases.
kdecreases; reaction rate decreases.

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Which of the following represents log k as a function of

1r T

Y t\\ A.
n
C

Why is the initial rate observed in reaction studies?

A.

As a reaction proceeds, it slows. The same period in the reaction must be compared to be consistent.
As a reaction proceeds, its rate increases. The same

period

in the reaction must be compared to be

consistent.

. D.
1

Only the initial rate can be accurately measured.

Any rate can be measured, but the initial one is

most convenient.

I
T

21, To

measure the rate of a reaction, which lollowing CANNOT be observed?

of the

4 fnerate of appearance of product {fhefute of disappearance of reactant G2fn" change in intermediate concentration
_p-:
1

over time

The change in reactant and product concentration ar

a function of time

17. Which of the following rate equations

Reaction 1?

applies

..4.
-ry.
(_Q,/

rate = k[SOf]
rare = rate = rate =

klNol
klSOrllNOl k[SO:]2

76,
18.

,n / -

When the solvent for the reaction is changed, the rate varies in a predictable manner. Which of the following q$ables is MOST affected by the change in solvent?
nctivation energy
Temperature Reactant concentration The R value

/ l, / 'lf. C. D.

,/)

19.

When plotting ln k as a function of

1, the slope of the

T

7D, \'-J'

A. Eu.t B. - Eact g. Eact -.R \_Eact 'R

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Passage

lV

(Questions 22 - 28)

22.

Which of the following graphs BEST represents the

Heterogeneous catalysis differs from homogeneous catalysis in the phase of the catalyst. As implied by the term "heterogeneous," the catalyst in heterogeneous catalysis is not evenly distributed through the solution. A common example involves hydrogenation of an alkene using platinum metal as a catalyst. The catalysis takes place only on the surface of the platinum, and not throughout the solution. This means that the rate of reaction varies with the surface area of the catalyst, not with its concentration. homogeneous catalysis, the catalyst is evenly distributed throughout the solution, and the catalysis takes place evenly throughout the solution. A common example of homogeneous catalysis is the addition of hydronium ion to solution to assist in the acid catalysis of ketal formation from

In

a ketone. The hydronium ion is evenly distributed in solution. In homogeneous catalysis, the rate of the reaction
varies with the concentration of the catalyst.

l
2

Time+
E.
1
tPl

lPl
Time

To determine the strength of a hydrogenation catalyst,

the Reaction 1 was employed using four different catalysts. The turnover rate was observed and recorded for each of the

Time+ -->

catalysts. The turnover rate is defined as the rate of the reaction divided by the number of active catalytic sites. The units for turnover rate is reactions per second at the catalytic
site.

3. Which catalyst

can be used concentration to obtain a set rate?

in the

LOWEST

HrC -\

Hsc

C:C /\

CH2CH3
H2

H3C\

H> 6-C<H -----'+ H:C/\ cat

/CH2CH?

,./.
p.

lvtqvyrRhcl
,t

#.'Yanao2

c. Pr/PrO2
(Me5C5)2IrCO

i^lt{

Reaction
Table

24.

versus the turnover rate :ssociated with each of the four catalysts:

I below lists the catalyst

Catalyst

For a catalyst in an industrial system, the number of active sites affects the turnover rate. What can be concluded about the maximum turnover rate of one

Turnover rate (rxn)

8000

if the catalyst contains three catalytic sites but the catalyst is NOT saturated with reactant?
catalytic site,

(Me3P)3RhCl
Pd/PdO2

A.
,.B.

26,500 35,000
6500

Pt/PtO2
(Me5C5)2IrCO

The maximum turnover rate of one catalytic site is less than one-third of the observed turnover rate, assuming the three catalytic sites react equally. The maximum turnover rate of one catalytic site is greater than one-third of the observed turnover rate, assuming the three catalytic sites react equally.

Table

The experimental values are obtained from reaction rate ;iudies using UV-visible spectroscopy. The reaction rate is :it'ided by the surface area of each catalyst, which is best ,rproximated by the shape of the material on which the -rtalysts is plated. In industrial processes, the catalysts are

t.'

_*-. 9,r'Tne maximum turnover rate of one catalytic site is exactly one-third of the observed turnover rate,
assuming the three catalytic sites react equally.

The turnover rate of one catalytic site is exactly one-third of the observed turnover rate, assuming
the three catalytic sites do NOT react equally.

,lten applied to the surface of an inert material, such as :raphite. This is done to maximize the surface area of the :ateria{ while keeping it a material large enough to filter
:.rt of solution easily at the end of the experiment.

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25. Which of the following is NOT an

heterogeneous catalysis?

example of

Passage

(Questions 29 - 35)

-+ @3C)2CHOH fi,rhzCCOCl + C6H6 with AlC13 -+ C6H5COCH3 l-,-/,./ " .1. uzCCH2+H2 with Pt/PtO2 -+ H3CCH3 D. CHa + CO with (Me3P)3RhCl -r H3CCHO
Pd/PdO2

X.

tJt*)zCO + H2 with

known. Equation I applies only to a first-order

process.

First-order decay processes follow a predictable pattern of decreasing concentration over time. The concentration at any given time can be calculated using Equation 1, if the initial concentration, the time, and the rate constant for decay are all
decay

Ct = cie-kt

Equation
2

6.

What is always TRUE about a catalyst?

where C1 is the concentration at time t, Ci is the initial concentration, k is the rate constant, and t is time.
The halflife for a first-order decay process is constant over the course of the decay. If the half-life is known, then the rate constant for a first-order decay process can be found' as shown in Figure I below:

d. 4. (9,'
nry.

A catalyst is always consumed in a reaction. A catalyst is always produced in a reaction. A catalyst is always regenerated during a reaction. A catalyst is always altered in a reaction.

Ct - Cie-kt ... 9! = "-k, Ci

att= tr/., Ct = I '"C1 2

27

. If a catalytic site has a binding affinity for the product,

what will be observed over time?

L 2

^-ktrr-

ln L
2

Sotnthe turnover rate and the overall reaction rate

lncrease.

-ktlz

/4. l-/ C.
D.

kttlz= -lnl = ln2

2

Both the turnover rate and the overall reaction rate

decrease.

t. - ln2 -0.693

The turnover rate increases, while the overall

reaction rate decreases.

tlz

ttlz

Figure

The turnover rate decreases, while the overall

reaction rate increases.

The half-life can also be determined from the

constant using the same relationship. In summary, the constant and the half-life for a first-order decay process inversely proportional.

29.
2

Which of the following graphs does NOT depict

order decay behavior?

8.
/

A/ l_-,' - B. C. . D.

,.<)

Why is a heterogeneous catalyst applied to the surface of an inert solid for industrial reactions?
To maximize the surface area To increase the concentration To make the catalyst more buoyant To make the catalyst less soluble

A.
A
I

B.

AtRl At

C.

N $L
LI

Time+

Time+

D.

t
AtPl

t
F o

At
Time

E k
Or

Time

-l>
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0. If k is doubled, then the half-life of a first-order decay: A . increases by a factor of e2. B. increases by a factor of2. C. decreases by a factorof 2. D. decreases by a factor ofe2.

34.

What must be TRUE about a reaction that fits the graph

below?

t
[Reactant]

*
----------t>

31. What is TRUE

reaction?

about the value

of half-life for

A.

The reaction is second-order at high [Reactant] and first-order at low [Reactant].

and and and

A. B. C. D.

The value of the half-life is constant in first-order reaction, while it decreases with time in a zero-order
reaction.

B. The reaction is first-order at high [Reactant]

second-order at low lReactant].

C. The reaction is zero-order at high [Reactant]

first-order at low [Reactant].

The value of the half-life is constant in first-order reaction, while it increases with time in a zero-order
reaction.

D. The reaction is first-order at high [Reactant]

zero-order at low [Reactant].

The value of the half-life is constant in both zeroand first-order reactions.

The value of the half-life decreases with time in both zero- and first-order reactions.
3

5.

Which of these reactions has a constant half-life?

A. One step: X + X -+ X2 B. One step: X + Y -+ X-Y

3

2.

What are the units of the rate constant for a first-order

reaction?

C. Two steps; X + Y -+ Z + Q-+ W + Y D. One step: X -t A + B

A. g. c. D.

sec

I
sec

[M]'sec

tMl
sec

3.

What period of time is required to reach the point in

remains?

first-order decay where only 20Vo of the original reactant

A. t=ln5xk B. t=lnlx k
5

ln5 D. t= ln5
k

c. t=

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Passage

Vl

(Questions 36 - 44)

9.

What would the apparent reaction order be with

following concentrations?
[CH3SNa] = 1.25

the

In both organic and inorganic chemistry, one of the most common mechanistic questions is, "Does the leaving group leave first, or does the nucleophile attack first?" In organic chemistry, the two reaction mechanisms are referred to as Syl and Sy2. In inorganic chemistry, the two reaction mechanisms are referred to as associative (5y12-like) and

[CH3CH2I] = 0.05 M

dissociative (SNl-like).

A. Zero-order B. First-order C. Second-order D. Third-order

4

researcher ran the same

same

nucleophilic substitution reaction four times at the

temperature, varying the concentration of reactants with each trial. Table 1 below lists the data for the four trials:

0. The following reaction is said to proceed b1' a dissociative mechanism. If the concentration cl
Co(en)2NHjCl2+ were to double, and the concentratic,m

lCHsSNal 0.10 M 0.10 M 0.20 M

0.15 M

lCHsCHzIl Rate (M/sec)

0.15 0.25 0.20 0.30

of NH3 to triple, the new reaction rate would

changed in what way?

Le

M M M M
1

2.IO x 0-)
3.52 x g-s 5.58 x 0-) 6.33 x 0-r

Co(en)2NH3Cl2+ +NH3 -+ Co(en)2(NHZ)23+

+Ct'

Table
CH3SNa

CH3CH2I

-+

CH3CH2SCH3
L

+ NaI

A. B. C. D.
41.

It would It would It would

be twice as large. be three times as large. be four times as large.

It would be six times as large.

Reaction

The data in Table I were collected by monitoring the formation of thio ether in Reaction 1 by UV spectroscopy. The rate of the reaction is assumed to equal the rate of

Which of the following does NOT increase the rate C

an associative concerted reaction?

formation of the thio ether. There were no major side products observed during the reaction. The data were repeated in subsequent trials of the experiment. The reproducibility of

. B. C. D.
A

Increasing the temperature

Adding solvent Adding one of the reactants Using a less viscous solvent

the data helps to substantiate the conclusions of the

experiment.
3

42. What is the rate constant for the ethyl

substitution reaction listed in Table 1?

iodr'ie

6. If
A

methanol were used in place of sodium methyl sulfide, then the reaction would show which of the
The The The The reaction reaction reaction reaction rate would increase. rate would stay the same.
rate would decrease.

following changes under identical conditions?

A.

. B. C. D.
3

* 1s-: Ml/ec B. 3.ls * 1s-r MJ/r". C. 1.40 x 1o_3 r4rl.r""

l.4o
3.15

rate would exactly double.

D.
4

x to-3 t/trl.r""

7.

What would the rate be, if the reaction were run with the following concentrations?
[CH3SNa] = 0.25

3.

The reaction order of the dissociative mechanism is:

[CH3CH2I] = 0.10 M

A. 2.10 x 10-5 t*l/,* B. C. D.

3

* 16-s M1/"" s.s8 * 1s-s Ml/ec 6.33 * 1s-s tMl{ec

3.s2

A. B. C. D.
4

zero-order.

first-order.
second-order.

third-order.

4.

Which of the following statements is INVALID

respect to the rate of an concentration.

Spl reaction?
elec

A. The reaction rate varies with B. The reaction rate varies with
C

8.

What is the reaction order of Reaction 1?

nucleo

A. B. C. D.

Zero-order

First-order
Second-order

. D.

concentration. The reaction rate varies with temperature. The reaction rate varies with solvent.

Third-order

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Passage

Vll

(Questions 45 - 51)

7.

Which of the following kinetic relationships is predicted for Reaction 1 using steady-state approximation?

Mechanisms for chemical reactions are either supported or disproven by data. For a mechanism to be accepted by the

A. kr tt$H3)5CoC112+11Ou-1
(k-r + kz) [[(NH:)+Co(NH2)Cl]+l [HzO] = (k-r + kz) [[(NH:)+Co(NH2)Cl]+l

scientific community, it must be capable of predicting reactivity and of holding form, even under varying reaction conditions. Two common procedures for evaluating the validity of a mechanism are isolating an intermediate in the
reaction and studying the effect on the reaction rate when varying the concentration of components. The rate depends on only the rate-determining step, so any altering of the concentrations of species involved in the rate-determining

B. kr ttNH:)sCoC112+1;OH-1
C. kr tt(NH:)sCoC112+11oH-l
= k-r [[NH:)aCo(NH2)Cl]+l [Hzo]
+ kz [[NH:)aCo(NH2)C1]+l

step results in a change in the reaction rate. Conversely, if the species you alter is not in the rate-determining step of the

D. kr ttNH:)sCoCq2+1;oH-l
= k-r [[NHl)aCo(NH2)Cl]+l

mechanism, then the rate is not affected. Reaction has been analyzed by kinetics:

below
-

..
\\{:i'
4

,\
'\.:-"'' -{.t+

kz [[NH:)+Co(NHz)Cl]+l [Hzo]
iI,1

[(NHr)sCoCl]'- +

)+

OH--+[(NH.r):CoOH]''
Reaction
1

a+

+ Cl

8.

fir-r :.. or -\ ,.,\J' Which of the following statements is TRUE about the relative acidity of the cobalt compound?

Figure I lists the currently accepted

mechanism for Reaction 1:

three-step

A.r'pKa NH3 > pKa [(NH3)5cocl]2+1. 1 '. Bli'pKuNH3 = pKa [NH:)scocl]2+1.

Step

(fast):

[(NH3)5CoCl]2* + OH

---!l

k1

tNH, )ac o (N H2 ) c I I

H2

C. D.

pKu NH: < pKa [$H3)5CoC1]2+1.

There is no comparison between the two.

Step

II III

(slow):

[(NH3)aCo( NHz)Cl l+

5
kr

(NH:)+CoNH212* + Cl-

9.

Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the rate of reaction for the reaction presented in the

Step

(fast):

[(NH:)+CoNHz]- + H2O-+[(NHr)sCoOH]-

)+

._passage?

,+

)+

t'
&
-C.

The rate increases as both th.e pH fiHiand temperature

lncrease.

Figure

tne rate
increase.

decreases as both the pH and temperature

The rate data were gathered by observing the formation of intermediates and products over time. The concentration of

The rate increases as the pH increases, while the

rate decreases as the temperature increases.

intermediates and products is found by monitoring the absorbance of various species using UV-visible spectroscopy.
The peak for the intermediate grew initially and then remained constant until the end of the reaction, when it decreased to zero. The peaks for products also grow over time.
-l

D.

The rate decreases as the pH increases, while the rate increases as the temperature increases.

5. What is the rate-determining step in the proposed

mechanism?

0.

A catalyst does all of the following EXCEPT:

step'

,{_,

Step
Step

p;' .{. D.

II Step III
Both Step I and Step II are rate-determining.

affect the rate-determining -k. increase the reaction rate. .d. . lower the activation energy. 7 t.' flinrr"use the equilihrium constant.
i ...,

'.'-. " '-'l t;:; "^i''' r'i 46. Addition of water to the reactibn would have what --l'll
t' *"
effect?

51

What are the units for koOr in the rate equation, if rate =
k665 [[$H3)5CoC1]2+l [OH-] ?

. . .

--fi
C

It would increase the reaction rate. ft would have no effect on the reaction
It would decrease the reaction rate.

rate.

It would make

the reaction third-order.

A. B. C. D.
237

[M]2 secl

[M] sec-l
sec-l

[M]-1

sec-1

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Passage

Vlll

(Questions 52 - 58)

53

Addition of a catalyst to a reaction results in which of

the following?

The mechanism for a reaction can be inferred from the kinetic data. The kinetic data determine the reactants that affect the rate of a reaction. The reactants in the ratedetermining step can be used to predict a mechanism to match the kinetic data. Ifone ofthe reactants does not affect the rate

A
B

. . C. .

An increase in the forward reaction rate only An increase in the amount of SO3 formed An increase in both the forward and reverse reaction
rates

of the reaction, then the reaction must be a multi-step

reaction. A one-step reaction shows a rate dependence on all of the reactants. Reaction 1 was observed at varying initial concentrations for the reactants. The temperature was held constant for each trial.

An increase in the amount of both SO2 and 02

2 SO2(g)

Oz(g)

-+

2 SO3(g)

4.

Reaction 1 Table 1 lists the initial reaction rate for four trials of
Reaction 1, carried out at varied concentrations.

The mechanism for the reaction is MOST likely to be which of the following?

A.

initiar
2.I3

*" (y)
11-2

Psoz ittit
0.60 atm 0.60 atm
1120 atm

Poz itrit
0.40 atm 0.80 atm 0.40 atm 0.80 atm

B.
C.

2.17 x
x

g-2 g-2 g-2

8.66 x
8.',72 x

D.

1.20 atm

Fast: SOz(g) + Oz(g) -+ SO3(g) + O(e) Slow; SOz(g) + O(g) -+ SO3(g) Slow: SOz(g) +OzG) -+ SO3(g) +O(g) Fast: SO2(g) + O(s) -+ SO3(g) Fast: SOz(e) + SOz(e) -+ SO3(g) + SO(e) Slow: SO(g) + OZ(g) -+ SO:(g) Slow: SOz(e) + SOz(g) -+ SO3(g) + SO(g) Fast: SO(g) + OzG) -+ SO3(g)

Table

determined from the data Table l. Because oxygen shows no effect on the reaction rate, the reaction is said to be zero-order with respect to oxygen gas. The fact that oxygen is zeroorder simply means that oxygen is not involved in the ratedetermining step of the reaction. The same results were

The reaction order in terms of each reactant can

be
5

5.

What is the relative change in concentration over tir:r:

between oxygen and sulfur trioxide?

observed when the reaction was repeated at different temperatures. The reactions rates were greater at higher temperatures, but the reaction order remained the same for
both sulfur dioxide and oxygen gas.

^ At _ , At D A[Ozl _ "A[SO:1 At At
..,

AlOzl

A[SO:J

A[Oz]

52. Which of the following accurately reflects

A.
o
L

the

correlation between the initial rate and the concentration of sulfur dioxide?

D. Alot __ r A[So:] At2Lt

".

At

=..,.

1 AISO:I

2Lt

6.

As the reaction proceeds, what is observed for the totapressure of the system?

[Soz]

lsozl

. The total pressure increases at a constant rate. B. The total pressure decreases at a constant rate. C. The total pressure increases at a graduall1
decreasing rate.

D. The total
o
!

pressure decreases

at a

gradual11

decreasing rate.

[Soz]

lSozl

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7.

Which of the following changes does NOT increase the

rate of a reaction?

Passage

lX

(Questions 59 - 65)

. Increasing the temperature of the reaction B . Decreasing the volume of the container C. Adding sulfur dioxide to the mixture D . Adding oxygen to the mixture

The rate at which a metal takes on ligands depends on several factors. The strength of the coordinate covalent bond between the metal and the original ligand (leaving group) plays a major role. The frequency of collision between the new ligand and the transition metal complex also plays a role. Unique to transition metal substitution chemistry is the chelating effect. The chelating effect is observed when a ligand is polydentate (possesses more than one lone pair to be shared with the metal), in which case the second coordinate covalent bond forms more rapidly than the first. This is to say that once one site has been coordinated, the chance for collision of a second lone pair with the transition metal has increased over that of ligands free in solution. The net result is that it is easier for a polydentate chelating agent to form subsequent bonds to a metal than its first bond' Polydentate chelating agents have two or more lone pairs to share.

8.

When the same experiment was carried out at elevated temperatures, it was observed that the rate began to vary with oxygen concentration. How is this best explained?

A. B. C. D.

The mechanism of the reaction changed so that oxygen was now involved in the rate-determining
step.

The mechanism of the reaction changed, so that

oxygen was no longer involved

determining steP.

in the rate-

The bond energy of oxygen is lower at higher

temperatures.

A researcher set up an experiment to study Reaction 1, in an effort to support the concept of the chelating effect. A series of hexa-coordinate metals with three sites bound by a polymer and the other three sites bound by phosphine ligands was exposed to a compound containing three amine
reactant has a visible absorption at l,*u^ = 519 nm. The product transition metal complex has a visible absorption at fnru* = 465 nm. The rate of the reaction is monitored by visible spectroscopy. Reaction 1 is drawn below:

The bond energy of sulfur dioxide is greater

higher temperatures.

functional groups (H2NCH2CH2NHCH2CH2NH2). The

at

*r*"G{Ps,, "r*atratr*atratrY
PRr

3PR3

o"','*(|}r*yrl
HzN
1

Reaction

The rate of the reaction can be monitored by either the disappearance of reactant or the appearance of product' A normal substitution reaction on a transition metal complex shows either first-order or second-order kinetics. In either case, the observed rate gradually decreases over time' The

chelating effect predicts that the rate

phosphine actually increases with time for
59

of formation of
period'

a short

Which method is NOT effective for monitoring the

reaction rate?

A
B

. Monitoring the appearance of polymer-MC4H13N3 . Monitoring the disappearance of PR3 C . Monitoring the disappearance of C4H13N3 D . Monitoring the disappearance of polymer-M(PRs):

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60. Which of the following is TRUE for the observed

reaction rate of a generic reaction?

64.

Which of the following statements CANNOT be true

aboutReaction
1?

A. B. C. D.

The observed reaction rate increases over time

during an endothermic reaction. The observed reaction rate is greater, if a higher energy product is formed. The observed reaction rate is greater, if a higher energy transition state is formed. The observed reaction rate is greater, if a lower energy transition state is formed.

L II. m.

Adding methyl groups to the nitrogens of

triamine species reduces the reaction rate.

the

Steric hindrance forming the transition state

complex increases the reaction rate. Increasing the temperature lowers the energy level of the transition state.

A. I only B. II only C. Iandtronly D. IIandlllonly

1.. How can it be explained that the exchange rate for the first phosphine is slower than that of the second and
third phosphines?

A. B.

The second and third phosphines bind the metal

more tightly, due to increased steric hindrance after the first phosphine has left. The second and third phosphines bind the metal more tightly, due to reduced steric hindrance after the first phosphine has left. The nucleophile can more easily displace the second and third phosphines, due to the chelating effect. The nucleophile cannot displace the second and third phosphines as easily, due to the chelating
effect.

5.

Which of the following does NOT increase the reaction

rate?

A. Using one bidentate ligand in lieu of

monodentate ligands

twc'

B.
C. D.

Adding a catalyst that weakens the leaving group

bond to the transition metal Adding solvent to a saturated solution Increasing the temperature of the solution

c.
D.

62. It in one reaction the R group of

replaced by ethyl (CH2CH3)?

the phosphine is methyl (CH:), what is observed when the methyl is

A. B.
C

D.

The reaction rate increases with the ethyl, because steric hindrance ofthe leaving group has increased. The reaction rate decreases with the ethyl, because steric hindrance of the leaving group has increased. The reaction rate increases with the ethyl, because steric hindrance of the leaving group has decreased. The reaction rate decreases with the ethyl, because steric hindrance ofthe leaving group has decreased.

63.

The FASTEST reaction is observed with which of the following conditions?

A.

A one-step reaction where a strong bond is broken

and a weak bond is formed.

B. A one-step reaction
C

where a weak bond is broken

. .

and a strong bond is formed. A two-step reaction where step I requires breaking a strong bond and step II forms a strong bond. A two-step reaction where step I requires breaking a strong bond and step II forms a weak bond.

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Passage

(Questions 66 - 72)

j*.

Wtri.h graph accurately shows the product concentration nction of time for a first-order reaction?

:hase.

The following reaction can be carried out in the gas Gas phase mechanisms are very different from solution phase mechanisms, in that the solvent can be rnvolved in the transition state in a solution phase reaction.

;t',
El

C:O(e) + HzO(e) -+ CO2(g) + Hz(e) Reaction I Two chemists propose mechanisms to explain the reactivity of the overall reaction. Chemist I proposes the
tollowing two-step mechanism.
H

nulf
Time
li

Step I:

H-o-H
H^

:c(J: 4 kt

\
H

^+ U -\/^--U.

E k
k

'v
6

Time

/\)
Steprl:
-

_,+l-

VUt

k2H + O:C:O -O.r+J ,HI

\/ ' ar'@'r: &^

9.

Mechanism
because:

II

would be preferred over Mechanism I

--*-

Mechanism

4. #
C

Chemist II takes issue with the mechanism proposed by Chemist I, stating that charged molecules are highly unstable in the gas phase. As an alternative, Chemist II proposes the followin g th,ree-step free radical mechanism :
Step I:

/D
7

carbocations are stabler than free radical carbons. anions are highly stable in the gas phase. it requires less energy to break a covalent bond in a heterolytic fashion than a homolytic fashion. free raiicals are stabler in the gas phase than ions'

rl
I i

,-gQe;-9i*
H-O

H-6:o
H-O

+ H--o

0.

Intermediates are defined as:

Step

II:
H

c-o
H

'd unstable with no lifetime. t?unstable with a short lifetime. 'fu nightly stable with no lilerime.
D.
highly stable with a short lifetime.
Step II is the rate-determining step in Mechanism I, then all of the following predictions are valid EXCEPT:

Step

)v, III: zz.-$c:o +

H

71. If

| + O:C:o
II

A. B.
C

Labeled oxygen in CO would not be found in CO2.

Adding H2O would increase the rate, because

lHzCOzl would increase. Removing CO would decrease the rate, because IHzCO zl would decrease. If the temperature were held constant, the rate
would decrease as the reaction proceeds.

Mechanism

Both mechanisms have their respective strengths and weaknesses. Key features to observe include the bond
dissocig(on energy and the stability of intermediates.

D.

, -\,/ K. ttin"rearrangement *
z1l\

step in Mechanism I is slower than the addition step, what is true about the reaction?

1)

With which observation would BOTH mechanisms

agree?

(iL.'tt't" reaction is one-step, and rate = kt [HzO][CO]. ..El The reaction is one-step, and rate =kZlHZCOZl. d. ttre reaction is two-steps, and rate = kt[HzO][CO]. .}. The reaction is two-steps, and rate =kZIHZCOZ).
67

.A. Doubling the [H2O] doubles the rate' .-8. Carrying out the reaction in ether solvent would - vield the same results. CE)n t the temperature increases, the reaction rate
lncreases.

A catalyst plays what role in the reaction mechanism?

/s *f
""D

It increase the value of K"q. It decreases the value of AG.

increases the value of AH.
decreases the value of the activation energy. ,. It

"D.

The K.o is greater with a more stable intermediate.

,.V_It

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Questions 73 through 80 are NOT based on a descriptive

passage.

7.

Given the following data, what is the concentration of

Xattimet=3?
Time

txt

(M)

3.

As AG6s1 increases, which of the following statements

is TRUE?

0
I

1.00

I. II.

0.56
0.35 0.25

A larger temperature is needed to obtain the same

reaction rate.

Fewer molecules have the amount

AGact.

of

energy

necessary to overcome the activation bamier.

m. A catalyst further increases A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II only

A. 0.33 M B. 0.31 M c. 0.30 M

D.
0.28 M

4.

For a first-order reaction with k = .0693 sec-l, what is the half-life, given ln 2 is 0.693?

78

Which of the following graphs BEST represents [B] function of time for the following reaction?

as a

A. B. C. D.

10 seconds
1 second

2A -+ B + C
A.
B.

0.10 seconds 0.01 seconds

5.

1
For the hypothetical reaction listed below, the rate of
disappearance of A is 0.450

IA.
sec

Time+
C.

Time+

2A -+ B + C
The rate of appearance for B is which of the following?

A.

0.225

M
sec sec

B.
D.

0.4s0 ]4
sec sec

c. 0.e00 aa
-0.4s0

F ts1

!L

Time+

Time+

76. Which of the following is NOT true about

intermediate?

an

B. C.

The intermediate is in its highest concentration just after the start of the reaction. Intermediates have finite lifetimes.

79.

The rate-determining step in a two-step reaction is:

A.

always the first step.

An

intermediate intermediate

concentration when

is in its highest it is formed after is in its

it is formed

possible

the rate-

B. always the second step. C. always the fastest step. D. always the slowest step.

D. An

determining step of the reaction.

concentration when

highest possible before the rate-

determining step of the reaction.

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0.

The HIGHEST intermediate concentration is found with which of the following graphs?

A.

ts

o
H]

{)
0)

t!
Reaction Coordinate

-=>

Reaction Coordinate

---+

Reaction Coordinate

Reaction Coordinate

-t>

1.8 6.D 11. A 16. A 21. c 26. C 31. A 36. C 41. B 46. C 51. D 56. D 61. C 66, D ]t. A 76. C
:r-right
@

2.A 3.C 7.C 8.D 12. D 13. D 11. C 18. A 22. A 23. C 21. B 28. A 32. B 33. D 31. B 38. C 42. C 43. B 47. C 48. A 52. D 53. C 57. D 58. A 62. A, 63. B 67. D 68. D 72. C 73. D 17. D 78. C

4.B 9.D 14. A 19. D 24. B 29. C 34. C 39. B 44. B 49. A s4. D 59. B 64. D 69. D 74. A 79. D

10.A
15. A 20. A 25. B 30. C 35. D 40. A 45. B 50. D 55. D 60. D 65. C 70. B 75. A 80. C

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ENOUGH KINETICS FOR NOW!

Kinetics Passages Answers

Choice B is correct. At 625 nm, there is no peak throughout the experiment, so choice C should be eliminate; immediately. The largest initial peak of the three remaining choices occurs at 545 nm. The peak at 695 nm at i = 2 is also large, but it is difficult to monitor product formation, because it is not possible to calibrate the machine in the beginning, given that initially there is no peak for products. It is best to monitor the large=: peak associated with a reactant, because at that wavelength, there is the greatest absorbance. The greater the initial absorbance, the greater the change in absorbance. This leads to the best results when monitoring the
change in absorbance. The best answer is choice B.
J

Choice A is correct. Because the peak at684 nm is growing as the reaction proceeds, the peak is best describec product. The best answer is therefore choice A. A reactant peak disappears over time, as see:l with the peaks at 470 nm and 547 nm. A catalyst peak remains fairly constant throughout the course of lh.e reaction. An intermediate peak grows and then holds steady for a while before gradually dropping off to zer; at the end.
as belonging to a

3.

Choice C is correct. The absorbance is directly proportional to the cell length, the molar absorbtivity constar.: and the concentration according to the equation. This makes choices A and B true. The molar absorbtir-if' constant is specific for each compound, so choice D is true. Only choice C can be false. The absorbance can \rar-; with tempetature as the compound and concentration vary, but not necessarily in a predictable manner. Th.a change is not known, so the word "always" makes choice C invalid.

4.

Choice B is correct. The peak at 547 nm belongs to a reactant, as is shown by its gradual decrease ---. concentration over the course of the reaction. The rate at which the peak at 547 nm diminishes is equal to th. rate of disappearance of reactant, which is the negative of the rate of appearance of product. We defin. reaction rates according to the formation of product, so the reaction rate is the negative of the change r: absorbance. The value for reaction rate should always be positive or zero. The concentration and absorbanct are directly proportional, so their changes should be proportional. The best answer is choice B.
Choice B is correct. Products appear at a gradually decreasing rate, because the reaction rate slows over tir::e until it reaches zero. The products show their biggest change in concentration initially, and the magnitude c: the change decreases with the reaction time. The best answer is choice B. The rate slows because the reacfic: slowly runs out of reactant as it approaches equilibrium. Choice D is correct. The order of the reaction cannot be determined without running the reaction at least tu'ic= The order refers to the dependency of the rate on the reactant concentrations. The concentration of one of th; reactants must be varied between two separate trials to determine its effect on the rate. All other variabtre. must be held constant. The best choice is D. Choice C is correct. The product appears at twice the rate at which the reactants disappear, because of the ito- 2 ratio of reactants to the product in the balanced equation. This factor is important in most instances, but 1: this particular question, the answer can be found based solely on the negative sign. Because the product (C appears while the reactants (A and B) disappear, the rates of change for compounds A and B relative :: compound C must differ by a negative sign. A negative sign is present in every answer choice except for choice C making choice C the best answer.

5.

6.

8.

Choice D is correct. The enzyme.substrate complex is detectable by spectroscopy, meaning it has a measurab-e lifetime, so it cannot be a transition state. Transition states are short-lived species that cannot be detectea Choice C is eliminated. The enzyme.substrate complex is present neither in the beginning nor at the end of tLr reaction, meaning that choices A and B are eliminated. It is best described as an intermediate, so the besr
answer is choice D.

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Section IX Detailed Explanations

9.

Choice D is correct. The enzyme is a catalyst, and like all catalysts, it lowers the activation energy (the energy of the transition state complex in the rate-determining step) and thus increases the reaction rate. This eliminates choices B and C. An enzyme is special in that it is chirally active, and thus it is responsible for aligning the reactant molecules correctly. This eliminates choice A, because it is a valid statement. Catalysts do not affect the thermodynamics of the reaction, as they are not present in the reactant or product. This means that the reaction cannot be made more exothermic by an enzyme. Thus, choice D is a false statement, and
therefore the best answer.

10.

Choice A is correct. Because the rate does not change upon the addition of substrate once the enzyme is saturated, the reaction obeys zero-order kinetics (which is confirmed by the fact that there is no change in rate over time). It is alluded to in the last paragraph of the passage that the reaction has lost its first-order behavior by becoming zero-order. It is best if you were to select choice A. Zero-order reactions have constant reaction rates, which according to Michaelis-Menten terminology is known as V*u*. Choice A is correct. This is a classic Michaelis-Menten kinetics question, which is best solved through mathematical substitution and manipulation. The calculation is as follows:

1.1.

1= 2 krra + [S]

2 ky+ [S] [S] +ku+[S] =2[S] =k1s=[S]

V=Vmax= V*u*[S]

The reaction is first-order, because the enzyme is not saturated when the reaction rate is one-half of V-u*, so the reaction rate depends on the substrate concentration (tS]). The math shows that ky = [S], making choice A the best answer choice.
L2.

Choice D is correct. The enzyme.substrate complex is an intermediate. Therefore, it should not be seen in the beginning and at the end of the reaction. It should be present only during the course of the reaction. This eliminates choices A and C. The enzyme starts and finishes with the same quantity; but because it is converted to the enzyme.substrate complex during the reaction, its concentration dwindles to zero in the middle of the reaction. This is best described by choice D. From the graphs, it can be seen that the intermediate is in a steady-state concentration only during the middle of a reaction. This is why the steady-state approximation only applies during the middle of a reaction, once equilibrium between the intermediate and reactants has been established.

13.

Choice D is correct. The relevant information is given directly in the passage, so your answer should be the obvious choice of answer D. If you chose not to read the passage, then you should at least know that the reaction when the enzyme is saturated has its second step as its slowest, (and thus rate-determining) step. Choice A is correct. Because the catalyst is initially saturated, the reaction proceeds according to zero-order kinetics, which can be viewed as uniform decay at a constant rate. This is seen with all four answer choices. The reaction evolves slowly from zero-order to first-order, meaning that no sharp changes should be observed. This eliminates choice D. Choice C should be eliminated, because the erratic rate behavior shown at the end of the reaction would not be observed. Choice B should be eliminated, because the reaction rate should be constant, and then gradually slowly down, not speed up. The graph that best shows zero-order kinetics slowly evolving into first-order kinetics is choice A.

14.

X5.

Choice A is correct. From the equation, as T increases, the value for

o1

1 du.r"u."r. RT

This means that the value

- Eact increases. Because

ultimate conclusion is that k increases with T. The reaction rate also increases with T, so answer A is correct.

RT

ry RT

is directly proportional to ln k, ln k must also increase, as does

k'

The

16.

Choice A is correct. Equation 1, the rate equation, is the equation of a line where y is ln k and x is T-1. This eliminates choices C and D. As log k increases (as you read down the chart), the value of T-r increases' This makes graph A correct.

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Section IX Detailed Explanations

17.

Choice C is correct. It is stated in the passage that the reaction is a one-step reaction, so the rate depends on both reactants. The reaction is second-order when there are two reactants and the mechanism is Th" "ott."itud. correct answer is choice C, rate = k[SOs][NO]. Choice A is correct. The temperature and R constant are independent of any other factors. This eliminates D. Tlre concentration of all solutes (including the reactants) is affected by changing the solvent, but only by the quantity of solvent added, not the iype of solvent. In one liter of solution, the concentration is the same, independent of the solvent. This means that changing solvent may not necessarily change the concentration of reactants. The question emphasizes a change in the type of solvent, not a change in the amoulll of solvent (concentration). This makes choice A the best answer. The activation energy is affected, because the solvent can solvate the transition states and thus stabilize or destabilize the transition state. Changing the stability of the transition state changes the activation energy, so changing the solvent affects the reaclion rate. If you need a tangible example to support this notion, consider nucleophilic substitution reactions. -Apolar/protic solvent favors an S511-reaction while a polar/aprotic solvent favors an Sy2-reaction.
choices B and

18.

79.

Choice D is correct. Viewing Equation 1 as the equation for a line, Lr k is the y-term and T-1 can be considered tc Ea"t and the y-intercept is ln A. The question asks for the slope, so choose D is tlte be the x-term. The slope is -

'R

best answer. 20.

Choice

A is correct. The reaction rate depends on the concentration of the reactant, so the reaction ra:E

decreases as the reaction proceeds, because the reactant concentration decreases over the course of the reaction

The fact that the rate decreases eliminates choice B, In reality, the rate at any given time can be measurej accurately, but precisely the same time interval in the course of the reaction must be measured in each trial f:t the values to be comparable. In practicality, the rate is determined after the concentration has been measur*j for the duration of a reaction. The rate at any point in the reaction is thus easy to measure, This eliminates choice C. The initial rate is chosen primarily because that time can most accurately be repeated in subseque,r: trials, which assures that the time of the reaction is the same in each comparative trial. This makes choice -rt the best choice.
2'1..

Choice C is correct. The rate of a reaction is defined as the rate of appearance of product and/or the rate :n disappearance of reactant. This means that either the rate of appearance of product or the rate :'t disappearance of reactant can be monitored to determine the reaction rate. This eliminates choices A and 5 The intermediate concentration should remain fairly constant in a multi-step reaction; but in a one-sie: reaction, there is no intermediate formed. This means that choice C is an invalid statement and thus --= correct answer selection. Choice D is eliminated, because by definition, the rate of a reaction is the change m reactant and product concentration as a function of time.

.rn

Choice A is correct. If the catalyst is the limiting reagent in the rate-determining step, then the cata-,d regulates the rate of the reaction. The reaction can go only as fast as free sites on the catalyst open up. Ii:m means that the reaction proceeds at a constant rate (the rate at which the catalyst can reopen catalytic s;lenm after binding a reactant molecule) until the reactant begins to be depleted. The product forms at a constant :M until the reaction reaches a point where the catalyst is no longer the limiting reagent. At this point, it follroaffis; standard kinetics by gradually slowing to a stop. The graph that shows this best is choice A. Choice D sl -nom; a change in rate that is too abrupt. The reaction gradually slows, rather than abruptly stopping. Cho::E shows a reaction that gradually speeds up, then abruptly stops. There is no common scenario that r,,; produces such results. Choice B is just tossed in there to complete the four choice per question requiremen: should be eliminated immediately. Choice C is correct. The catalyst that can be used in the lowest concentration is the one with the gre turnover rate. The passage does not discuss the lifetime of a catalyst, so only the rate of reaction nee: considered. Table 1 lists the turnover rate of the four choices. The fastest turnover rate is 35,000 reactiors I second, so the catalyst that can be used in lowest concentration and still have a fast reaction rate is Pt : The best answer is choice C. The rate of a catalyzed reaction depends on catalyst concentration and tu:: rate.

23.

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Section IX Detailed

,/l

Choice B is correct. If all three catalytic sites react equally, then it can be assumed that each site has a turnover rate of one-third that of the observed turnover rate for the catalyst. Because the catalyst is not saturated, the observed turnover rate is less than the maximum turnover rate for the catalyst. Combining these relationships yields the following:
Maximum site rate = I Maximum catalyst tumover rate > I Observed catalyst turnover rate = Observed site rate

This assumes that the maximum turnover rate per catalytic site is equal to or less than one-third of the maximum tutnover rate for the catalyst. Choice A can be eliminated, because the maximum tumover rate of one catalytic site is greater than, not less than, one-third of the observed turnover rate. Because the maximum turnover rate per catalytic site is therefore greater than one-third of the observed turnover rate for the catalyst when it is not saturated, the best answer is choice B. The maximum tumover rate of one site equals onethird of the observed turnover rate only when the catalyst is saturated. Because the catalyst is nof saturated, choice C can be eliminated. If the sites do not react equall/, then no solid conclusion can be drawn. This eliminates choice D. Pick choice B.
25.

Choice B is correct. A heterogeneous catalyst does not evenly distribute itself in solution. This is most commonly observed when the catalyst is in the solid phase and the reaction is either a gas phase or solution phase reaction. Aluminum trichloride is a Lewis acid that dissolves into solution evenly to react throughout the solution with the acid chloride. The three metal catalysts listed as other choices (PdlPdO2, Pt/PtO2, and (Me3P)3RhCl) are from Table 1 of heterogeneous catalysts, so they are all examples of heterogeneous catalysts.
The best choice is answer B.

:i

'il

26.

Choice C is correct. A catalyst by definition is neither consumed or produced in a reaction, so choices A and B A catalyst is regenerated in the reaction, which means that the correct choice is answer C. A catalyst is not altered in a reaction, unless it undergoes an undesirable reaction that renders it useless. The word "always" appearing the answer choice should get your attention, but because it is present in all of the
are eliminated. answer choices, we can disregard any concems.

'il

27.

If the product has a binding affinity for a catalytic site, then it does not release from the catalytic site as easily. This means that the product competes with the reactant for the catalytic site. Less
Choice B is correct.
free catalyst is available for the reactant as more of the product is formed. Because increasingly more product is formed as the reaction proceeds, the catalytic turnover rate slows as the reaction proceeds. This means that both the reaction rate and the turnover rate slow as the reaction proceeds. That makes choice B correct. This is

,i

Ll

ii

known
28.

as feedback

inhibition.

Choice A is correct. The tumover rate for a heterogeneous catalyst in the solid phase depends on its surface area. The more surface area, the more active sites available to reactant. To maximizethe surface area, a solid catalyst can be powdered. An alternative to powdering the catalyst is to apply a thin coating of the catalyst to the surface of an inert solid. As mentioned in the passage, carbon is often chosen as the inert solid, because metals can be reduced onto the surface of carbon through electroplating. Choose A as the best answer to this question. The other advantage to plating a metal catalyst onto the surface of an inert solid is the ease with which the catalyst can be removed (filtered) from solution once the reaction is complete. A large chunk of solid can be removed from solution rather easily.

29.

Choice C is correct. For a first-order reaction, the rate does in fact decrease with time, so choice A accurately depicts a first-order reaction. For a first-order reaction, the half-life remains constant, so the decay of reactant and formation of products is greatest initially, and slowly the rate tapers off. The concentration is based on an exponential relationship, so the graphs of both the disappearance of reactant and formation of product appears as they do in choices B and D. In choice C, the graph shows a steady rate throughout the process/ which is true for zero-order'reactions, but not for first-order reactions. The best answer is choice C. Choice C is correct. Because the product of the half-life and rate constant
(t,
/

30.

life and rate constant are inversely proportional to one another. This implies that if the rate constant is doubled, the half{ife is cut in half. The best answer is choice C.
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k) is ln 2 (a constant), the half-

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Section IX Detailed Explanations

31.

Choice A is correct. One notable feature of a first-order reaction is that the half-life remains consta-n: throughout the reaction. This eliminates choice D. The rate for a zero-order reaction is constant, so it take= more time to go from 100% reactant to 50% reactant than it does to go from 507o reactant to 25"h reactant. Thi' means that for a zero-order reaction, the half-life is decreasing with time. The best answer is choice A.
Choice B is correct. Because the product of the rate constant and the half-life is a constant, the units of the rate constant must cancel the unit of half-life. The unit of half-life is simply time, so the units of the rate constar: must be inverse time (sec-1). The best answer is choice B. Choice D is correct. Twenty percent is one-fifth, so in the derivation in the passage, simply substitute one-fijr for one-half. The math is shown below, which leads you to select choice D'

32.

JJ.

Q= ... e-kt = 1 Ci5 "-kt h:r 1= -kt ... -hl = kt 55

...

ln5 = kt

,-lns
t --

34.

Choice C is correct. At low reactant concentration, the half-life of the reaction remains constant, whic implies that the reaction is first-order at low concentrations. At higher concentrations, the half-life increase. as the reactant concentration increases. Because a zero-order reaction has a constant rate, the first fifty percen: of reactants takes longer to decay than the next twenty-five percent (the second half-life). This means that as the concentration increases, the half-life increases for a zero-order reaction. The graph shows zero-orde: behavior at higher reactant concentrations. The best answer is choice C. You may recall from enzyme kineti.that at high substrate concentration, the reaction is zero-order (saturated), but at lower substrat" concentrations, the reaction becomes first-order.

35.

Choice D is correct. A constant half-life is associated with a first-order reaction. A first-order reactio: depends on just one reactant in its rate-determining step. In choices A and B, there is one step, but they ea.l have two reactants, so both of them are second-order. In choice C, there are two steps, but both steps invol"-= two reactants, so no matter which step is rate determining, the reaction is second-order. In choice D, thers ''
one step and just one reactant, so the reaction is first-order.

36.

Choice C is correct. Because the overall reaction is second-order, there is a first-order rate dependence on Li. nucleophile. Methanol is not as good a nucleophile as the methyl sulfide, so the reaction rate should decreawith methanol. To support this idea, methyl sulfide is a stronger base than methanol, so methyl sulfide is . stronger lone pair donor than methanol. This makes choice C the best answer. Choice B is correct. The reaction is second-order, so rate = k [CHSSNa]ICHgCHZI]. The concentration values given in this problem correspond to the values given in the second row of the chart within the passage/ excep: in the .".r"r"e order (which does not matter in this case, since the reaction is first-order with respect to bo-: substrates). Rate = k [0'25][0.10] = 3.52x 10-5, so answer B is the right choice'

37.

38.

Choice C is correct. It is stated in the passage that the reaction is a substitution reaction, which depends c: either one or two reactants. This makei it either an 5511 reaction, and thus a first-order reaction, or an Sai reaction, and thus a second-order reaction. To determine the dependence on both reactants, hold ti-= concentration of one of the reactants constant, and observe how the rate changes with an increase in th. concentration of the other reactant. Comparing the data for the first two trials, [CHgCHzI] is increased br- ' factor of five-thirds, while ICHSSNa] t"miit t constant. The rate between the first two trials also increases i a factor of five-thirds. This implies that the reaction is first-order with respect to CH3CH2I. There are r': two trials to compare where [CFI3CH2I] stays constant. This is where intuition comes into play. From Trial 1 :; Trial 4, tCHgCH2Il increases by a factor of two, while [CH3SNa] increases by a factor of 1".5. If the reaclic: depends only on [CHgCHZI], then the rate will increase by a factor of two, while if the reaction depends c: boih, tne rate will triple. The rate does in fact triple, so the reaction rate depends on both reactants' T-:: reaction is second-order, meaning it is an Sp2 reaction. Choose C'
-

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Section IX Detailed ExPlanations

39.

Choice B is correct. According to Table 1, the reaction is second-order; but since [CH3SNa] is much larger than [CH3CH2I], we can disregard the reactant in high concentration ([CH3SNa]) in the rate equation. The normal rate law for a second-order reaction is rate = k [CHeSNa][CH3CH2I]; but because [CH3CH2I] << [CH3SNa], the rate law is g"iven as rate = k66s [CH3CH2I], because throughout the duration of the reaction, the [CH3SNa] stays relatively constant so it does not act as a variable. It becomes engulfed by kous. Thus, even though the reaction is truly second-order, it appears to be first-order due to the vast difference in concentrations. This is referred to as pseudo first-order. The best answer is B. Choice A is correct. Since the reaction mechanism is dissociative, the rate of the reaction can be only as fast as the reactant that dissociates. This also means that the rate of the reaction depends on the concentration of the species that dissociates. In this case, Co(en)2NH3C12+ is the only reactanf in the rate-d.etermining step, so doubling its concentration will in tum double the reaction rate. The new reaction rate is twice as large as the reaction rate was before doubling the reactant concentration. The nucleophile NH3 has no direct effect on the rate. Choose A for success and correchress.

40.

4't.

Choice B is correct. Increasing the temperature of a system increases the reaction rate, by providing the reactant molecules more energy to overcome the activation barrier. Choice A is thus eliminated. Adding solvent lowers the concentrations of all species in solution, including the two reactants in the rate determining step. Adding solvent decreases the reaction rate, so choice B does not increase the reaction rate. The best answer is choice B. Adding a reactant in the rate determining step increases the reaction rate. The reaction is concerted (one-step), so all reactants are involved in the rate determining step. This means that addition of one reactant increases the reaction rate, so choice C is eliminated. Using a less viscous solvent in a one-step reaction allows the molecules to move through solution faster, and thus collide more frequently. An increase in collision frequency causes an increase in reaction rate, so choice D is eliminated. Choice C is correct. According to the data in Table 1, the reaction order for the ethyl iodide substitution reaction is second-order, so the rate is proportional to the product of reactant concentrations. This makes the rate law for the reaction equal to k [CH3SNa][CH3CH2I]. The rate constant can be solved for by substituting any row of data points from the table. Choosing the first row of data points yields: 2.70 x 10-5 = k [0.15][0.10], and solving for k yields:

42.

. -.^-..-- ll4k _ 2.10 x ro-s /s = 1..40 x

0.015 M2 43.

10_3[M]_1s_1,choiceC.

Choice B is correct. A dissociative reaction mechanism is synonymous with the 51111 reaction mechanism in organic chemistry, which is known to be a first-order reaction. In inorganic chemistry, a dissociative mechanism means a ligand dissociates (leaves) first before another one attaches to the central metal. Choice B
is the best answer.

44.

Choice B is correct. The rate of an 5511 reaction depends exclusively on the electrophile concentration, since the electrophile must dissociate (the leaving group must leave) before a nucleophile can attack. The dissociation reaction of the electrophile is the rate-determining step, so answer choice B is not a valid statement. The nucleophile has no influence on the rate of an 51.11 reaction. The rest of the choices are valid with respect to the rate of an S1rJ1 reaction.

45.

Choice B is correct. As stated in the passage, the slowest step of the three steps is Step II. A reaction can proceed only as fast as the slowest step in the mechanism, so the rate-determining step must be Step II. Choice
B is the best answer.

46.

Choice C is correct. Adding water to the reaction mixture would push the Step I reaction backwards, generating more reactants ([(NH3)5CoCl]z+ and OH-) and consuming the intermediate product ([(NH3)aCo(NHZ)C1]+). The rate-determining step, Step II, depends on the concentration of the product from Step I [(NH3)aCo(NH2)C1]+. Thus, a decrease in products from Step I slows down the rate-determining step, thereby decreasing the overall reaction rate. The best answer is choice C. Choose C for sensations of correctness and satisfaction.

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Section D( Detailed Explanations

47.

Choice C is correct. The steady state approximation says that after an initial period of time, balance within the reaction takes place, and the concentration of any intermediates stay relatively constant (in a steadrstate). This means that the rate at which the intermediate is produced is equal to the rate at which it is consumed. The intermediate in this case is [(NH3)aCo(NH2)C1]+, which is held constant by being in the ratedetermining step. It is formed by the forward reaction in Step I and consumed by both the reverse reaction of Step I and the forward reaction of Step II. Water is involved only in the reverse reaction of Step I, so water must appear only with k,1. This eliminates all choices except C, which is the correct choice. In choice C, the rate law for the reaction that forms the intermediate is set equal to the sum of the rate law for the reverse reaction of Step I and the forward reaction of Step II.
Choice A is correct. Because of the bulky metal group attached to NH3, the lone pair is withdrawn from the nitrogen, which increases the acidity of the protons bonded to nitrogen. This is verified by Step I, where the hydroxide anion (OH-) deprotonates a proton from the NH3 that is attached to the cobalt. Hydroxide anion is not strong enough to deprotonate ammonia normally, so the cobalt complex must have increased the acidity oi ammonia. Increased acidity results in the lowering of the pKu, so choose A for best result. The metal acts like a Lewis acid, and the ammonia acts like a Lewis base. Choice A is correct. As pH is increased, the [OH-] is increased, so the equilibrium of Step I is pushed to the product side, resulting an increase in [[(NH3)aCo(NH2)Cl]*1. As [[(NHg)+Co(NH2)Cl]+l increases, the rate o: the reaction increases. So, as the pH increases, it can be concluded that the rate of the reaction increases. -{ temperature increase always affects the reaction rate, so pick A. Choice D is correct. A catalyst does not increase the equilibrium constant (product yield). A catalyst increase-. only the ease and rate at which the reaction proceeds to the products. That is, it lowers the activation energl' which speeds up the rate-determining step, which increases the reaction rate. Choice D is not characteristic o: a catalyst. Choice D is correct. The units for rate are molar per second, and the units for concentration are molar. Solvinl for the units of ko6, gives us M-1s-1, which makes choice D the best answer.
kobs =

48.

49.

50.

51.

rate
product of

concentrations

M/ /sec
M2

1l /sec

M.sec

52-

Choice D is correct. Table 1 shows that when the partial pressure (and thus the concentration) of sulfur dioxide is doubled, and the partial pressure of oxygen remains constant, then the rate of the reaction is quadruplec This means that there is an exponential relationship between the initial rate and sulfur dioxide. This is bes: shown in choice D,

53.

Choice C is correct. A catalyst lowers the activation energy for a reaction. According to the principle c: microscopic reversibility, the same pathway that is taken for the forward reaction is also taken for the reverse reaction. This means that a catalyst lowers the activation energy for both the forward and the rever: reactions by the same amount. Consequently, the forward and reverse reaction rates are both lowered, makir.;
choice C the best answer.

54.

Choice D is correct. Because the reaction rate does not depend on oxygen gas, 02 cannot be involved in the rattdetermining (slowest) step of the reaction mechanism. This eliminates choices B and C. Because the ra.depends on the square of the partial pressure of sulfur dioxide, SO2 must be in the rate-determining (slon'es: step twice. This is demonstrated by the slowest step involving two molecules of SO2. This eliminates choi;ts A, making the best choice D. Choice D is correct. For every one oxygen molecule lost, two sulfur trioxide molecules are gained. This mea::. that the equality between the two rates must contain both a negative sign and a factor of 2. Choices A and l are both eliminated because they both lack a negative sign in the equality. The magnitude of the rate --r consumption of oxygen is one-half that of the magnitude of the rate of formation of sulfur trioxide, so choice D is the best answer.

55.

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Section IX Detailed Dxplanationr

56.

Choice D is correct. Because three gas molecules lie on the reactant side of the equation and only two gas molecules lie on the product side of the equation, the total pressure of the system decreases as the reaction proceeds forward. The reaction is fastest initially, so the prlrrrrr" shows the greatest reduction in the early stages of the reaction. As the reaction slows, so does the rate at which the total pressure of the system decreases. The total Pressure decteases, but at a gradually decreasing rate, until it comes to rest. Choice D is
the best answer.

Choice D is correct. The rate of the reaction increases when the temperature increases, so choice A is valid and thus eliminated' Decreasing the volume of the container increases the concentration of the reactants, so the rate increases' Choice B is valid and thus eliminated. Because sulfur dioxide shows a dependency on the rate of the reaction, choice C is valid and thus eliminated. As shown in Table 1, there is no eflect on the rate when oxygen is added. Choice D is the best answer.
58.

reaction proceeds

Choice A is correct. The only way that the rate could depend on oxygen would be if the rate-determining step involved oxygen. At the temperature of the original experiment, oxygen was not involved in the ratedetermining step. Adding a catalyst sometimes lowers one step of a reaction enough so that it is no longer the rate- determining step. In this case, the increased temperature gives rise to an altogether different mechinism, where oxygen is now involved in the rate determining step. This is sometimes seen with thetmodynamic versus kinetic control reaction mechanisms, where a change in the system temperature changes the mechanism the

by.

The best answer is choice A.

59.

work. The reactants

50.

are CaH13N3 and polymer-M(PR3)3, so disappearance. Choice B is the best answer.

Choice B is correct. To monitor the rate of a reaction, one must monitor either the appearance of product or disappearance of reactant. The products are polymer-MCaH13N3 and PR3, so the reaction can be monitored by the appearance of either one. Choice B suggests monitoring by the disappearance of PR3, which wouId, not

it is correit to monitor the reaction by their

Choice D is correct. An endothermic reaction absorbs heat, so that over time, the reaction cools the solution. As the solution cools, the reaction rate decreases, resulting in a lower observed reaction rate. This eliminates choice A. A higher energy product is associated with an endothermic reaction (or less exothermic reaction), so the rate decreases, because the heat energy in the system decreases. Choice B is eliminated. A higher energy transition state requires more activation energy, so the rate decreases. This eliminates choice C. The correct answer must be choice D because of the lower activation energy associated with the lower energy transition
s

ta te.

5't_.

Choice C is correct. The ligand replacing the phosphines is a tridentate ligand. Therefore, after the new ligand attaches, the second and third lone pairs of the tridentate ligand can more easily bind the metal and displace the phosphine. This is known as the chelating effect and makes choice C the best answer choice. The chelating effect is greatest in associative (SN2-like) mechanisms where there is a rate depend.ence on the nucleophile. The chelating effect is weakest in dissociative (Syl-like) mechanisms where there is no rate
dependence on the nucleophile.

52.

Choice A is correct. The ethyl substituent is larger than the methyl substituent, so the triethyl phosphine is bulkier than the trimethyl phosphine. This makes the triethyl phosphine a better leaving gto,rp. The rate of the reaction increases with the ethyl substituents, making choice A the best answer. Whether the reaction mechanism is associative or dissociitive, the leaving gtonp affects the reaction rate.
Choice B is correct. Any time that a strong bond must be broken it slows the reaction rate. A one-step reaction is faster than a two-step reaction as a general (but not absolute) rule. The lowest activation energy ii associated with the breaking of a weak bond. The best answer is choice B.

63.

54.

Choice D is correct. By adding methyl groups onto the nitrogens of the amine, the steric hindrance in the transition state increases and thus the reaction rate decreases. This makes statement I a true statement. The fact that steric hindrance in the transition state reduces the reaction rate makes statement II false (nof true). Changing the temperature affects only the free energy in the system and does not affect the energy levels of any transition states. This makes statement III false (not true). The correct answer is therefore choice D.
@

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Section IX Detailed Explanations

55.

Choice C is correct. Using one bidentate ligand instead of two monodentate ligands increases the reaction rate, because of the chelating effect. It is easier for the second lone pair of a bidentate ligand to bind the central metal than it is for a second ligand to attach to the metal. Choice A is thus eliminated. Adding a catalyst that weakens the leaving group's bond to the transition metal lowers the transition state energy and thus increases the reaction tut".- Cnoi.e B is therefore eliminated. Adding solvent lowers the concentration of all species in solution, so the concentration of any species in the rate-determining step is reduced' The rate of the reaction decreases (or remains the same, if it remains saturated), so choice C is the choice that does not inctease the reaction rate. Increasing the temperature of a reaction always increases the reaction rate. Choose C for
best results.

66,

Choice D is correct. Regardless of which step is the rate-determining step in the reaction, according to Mechanism I, the reaction is a two-step reaction, so choices A and B are eliminated. On top of that, the question discusses two steps (rearrangement and addition), so it can't be one-step. Because the second step is *t"-d"tur*ining, the rate law for the reaction is k2 times the reactant in step two (H2CO2). Choice D is the
best answer.

6/.

Choice D is correct. A catalyst does not affect the thermodynamic values of a reaction; it affects only the reaction rate and the transition state energy. Choices A, B, and C are all thermodynamic values, while choice D involves a kinetic value. This eliminates choices A, B, and C, while making choice D the only possible choice. The lower the activation energy (transition state energy), the greater the rate of the reaction. This makes choice D the best answer.
Choice D is correct. Choice A would represent the product formation, if the reaction proceeded at a constarLt rate; but a constant reaction rate describ", u ,uro-order reaction, not a first-order reaction' Choice B describes the consumption of reactant in a first-order reaction. Choice C does not describe any obvious typical grap: associated with kinetics in chemistry. It shows exponential growth, but such things are more associated wit population genetics than chemical kinetics. I-n choice D, the product concentration is building with time, bu: ine rate at whicn it builds (slope of the tangent) is gradually decreasing, indicating that the reaction slowing as it proceeds. A gradually diminishing reaction rate is observed with a first-order reaction, so the best answer is choice D. Choice D is correct. In the gas phase, free radical carbons are more stable than carbocations, so choice A is ' (nl: false statement. If choice A were a true statement, it would support Mechanism I over Mechanism II be eliminated. Ions in general are not stable in the gl' Mechanism II over Mechanism I), so choice A should phase, so anions (being a sub-group of ions) are not stable, making choice B a false statement. Choice C requirt=

68.

69.

previous knowledge io be elimlnated. More energy is required to break a bond in a heterolytic fashic: radicais). Choice C should b" iresulting in ions) t[an to break a bond in a homolytic fashion (resulting in free D. Chemist II states that charged molecules ar: eliminatJd. If you didn't know this, then move on to choice highly unstable in the gas phase, so choice D must be valid, because free radicals are more stable in the g;s phase than ions are.
a-: Choice B is correct. Intermediates are considered to be unstable relative to products and reactants, so thev C and D. A transition state is defined as unstab.r* not collected in high concentration. This eliminates choices with no measurable lifetime, so choice A can be eliminated. An intermediate is said to have a short lifetrn"'
so choice B is the best answer.

70.

7'1..

r; Choice A is correct. Labeled oxygen in the reactant (CO) can still be found in the CO2, because carbon dioxict reactants (labeled or not) will be founc :: the only reactant that contains oxygen, so all oxygen atoms in the --:c carbon dioxide. This means that lhoice A is invaiid. Adding H2O causes more intermediate to form, so reaction rate increases with the increasing intermediate concentration. This makes choice B a valid statem.:r;; Removing CO causes less intermediate to"form, so the reaction rate decreases with the decreasing intermed:":n* concentralion. This makes choice C a valid statement. As the reactant concentration decreases, the rate m';n lbs decrease, because there are fewer collisions between reactant molecules as the concentration decreases.

makes choice D a valid statement. Choice A is the best answer'

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Section IX Detailed ExPlanations

72.

Choice C is correct. Doubling the [H2O] may or may not change the reaction rate, depending on whether water is involved in the rate-determining step. Choice A is probably eliminated. Carrying the reaction out in a different solvent (or in this case, using a solvent), definitely changes the reaction, meaning that one mechanism may be preferred over the other. This eliminates choice B. Because the rate constant varies directly with temperature, it is always true that as the temperature is increased, the reaction rate increases. Choice C is thus the best answer. The stability of the intermediate affects the reaction rate, but should have no bearing on the Ksq for the overall reaction. This eliminates choice D. The Ksq for a reaction depends on the stability of the products and reactants.

/5.

Choice D is correct. Be careful not to use thermodynamics when looking at kinetics in this case. AG" = -RT ln K, and a reaction is favorable if AG is negative, according to thermodynamics. This is AGact, however, and that is the activation energy. As the activation barrier becomes greater, fewer molecules can overcome the activation barrier, and more energy (heat) is needed to obtain the same reaction rate. Statements I and II are both correct. A catalyst lowers the energy needed to form the transition state, which reduces the value of AGq61. It does not increase the value of AG661, so statement III is eliminated. Answer choice D is consequently the best answer
choice.

74.

Choice A is correct. For a first-order reaction, the half-life is found as follows:

tl" = h2 'k
As given in the problem, the value of ln 2 is 0.693 and k is 0.0693 sec-1, so this is just a plug-in mathematical
problem.

u^= 0'693 '' 0.0693 s-l

The best answer is choice A.

=loseconds

75.

Choice A is correct. Using the equation for the reaction, it is easiest to follow changes in concentration for each component in the reaction.
-

2A-)B+C 0.450 +0.225

+0.225

The rate of disappearance of A is twice the rate of appearance of B and C, The rate of appearance of B must be half of the rate of disappearance of A, which is 0.225 molar per second. Select answer choice A for correctness rewards.

/o.

Choice C is correct. The intermediate is in its highest concentration just after the start of the reaction, because used up to form the product. As the reaction proceeds toward completion, the intermediate is depleted. Choice A is valid. Intermediates are defined as species that have finite lifetimes and exist only during the course of the reaction. If the lifetime is too small to be measured, then the species is referred to as a transition state. Choice B is therefore valid. An intermediate builds up when it collects before the rate-determining step. This makes choice D valid and choice C invalid, which means the latter is the best choice.

it is formed from the reactant but is not yet

77-

Choice D is correct. To solve this problem, you must see the trend in the data. The rate of decomposition is greatest initially, and it slows drastically with time. The data describe a second-order process, where 0.25 is the concentration after 4 minutes. Because the half-life constantly doubles, the first half-life is 1 minute 20 seconds and the second half-life is 2 minutes 40 seconds. The trend shows that significantly more X decomposes between 2 minutes and 3 minutes than decomposes during the period between 3 minutes and 4 minutes. This means that the [X] at the 3-minute mark is less than the midway point between 2 minutes and 4 minutes. The correct answer must be less than 0.30 M, making choice D the best answer.
Choice C is correct. B is a product, so the [B] is initially zero. This eliminates the graphs in choices A and B. Equilibrium is represented by a flat slope, but it is reached gradually and is not the sharp point indicated in the graph in choice D. The graph in choice C is the best representation of the reaction.
@

78.

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Section IX Detailed Dxplanations

79.

Choice D is correct. The rate-determining step of a reaction is always the slowest step in the reaction. The slowest step in a two-step reaction can be either the first or second step. The best answer is choice D. Choice C is correct. Choices A and B can be eliminated, because there is no intermediate (both reactions are one-step). The deeper nadir (low point) between the two transition states is associated with the greater concentration of the intermediate. This makes choice C the best answer.

80.

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Section D( Detailed

Redox Reactions

$ection X
ElectroChemistry
by Todd Bennett

Determining Oxidation States b) Oxidation and Reductinn c) Balancing Kedox Keactions

a)

by the Bridge Method ii. ' by the Half-Cells l{ethod d) Variations on Balancing

i.

Voltage and Energy a) Energetics b) flalf-Reaction Potentials c) Cell Potentials c) Free trnergy Change

(nMf')

Hlectrochamical Cells a) Definitions and Terminology b) Calvanic Cell c) trlectrolytic Cell d) Concentration Effects on Voltage e) Nernst Eguation
M(s):

-:->

M.,*2*

Oxidation occurs at the anode

l{r.d2* -+ M{s) Reduction occurs at the cathode

Kedox Applications a) BatLeries b) Electrical Devices c) Chemical Applications d) Electrolysis e) trlectroplating

fl

Calvanizing

L)R.E.v.r.E.-ff
:

I2EKITAMY

Speii alizing in MCAT Prep aration

Electrochemistry Section Goals

Know the definitions of terms used in oxidation-reduction chemistrv. .h"",trtry;lrery are tw-o half-reactions whi.ch together form the overall I" "-rd"til"^-*d".t1"" The sfecies losing electrons is b_eing oxidized ind is referred to as the reaction. "l*.t.onll.insfer species gainin'g electrons dUeing reduced and is referred to as the oxidizing agent. iiiiiing ogn f . The
Be able to balance a redox equation rn neutral aqueous s xidationstatesofatom$withinthemolecu1es,determinewhich tne,stoigliglgtlfg ;i.* ii;r gui""d electrons'and,which atom has lost electron?, uld then.setnumber of electrons reactant equals lhe init t[" **" number of electrons lost by onejn .""iii.l""tirr ;;i";J bt the other reactant. This balances the elections the reaction. The atoms and charges il""iifr,i balance, and this is often accomplished by adding either hydroxide anions or hydronium cations along with water to the reaction.

The voltaee for a redox reaction is the sum of the half-reaction voltages. You do not multiply the voltage biany factor to balance elecirons, because voltage is measuret jn terms of a.setrtumber of electr?ns.' Foi the free enerqv the number of electrons becomes important, because the free energy is expressed in terms; of m"o'les, not electrons. The equation for the free energy is: AG" = -nFE".

6s a51e to calculate the voltage for redox reactions, given the half-cell potentials.

Be able to draw an electrochemical cell and label its components. lectrons)oCCurSattheanodeandreduction(gainof eleitrons) occurs at the cathode. This means that electron flow-(the opposite. of current) is from io i"thode. Ttre counter-flow of anions is from cathode solutionio anode solution, through "".a" a membrane or salt bridge.

cell. cell and an electrol Be able to that releases energy. An electrolytic A r"|"""i.. *tl ir.haracterized by a favorable redox reaction -enprgy,. ."ff ii .nuru.terized by an unfavorible redox rea-ction that requires the addition of { Salvanic has a battery (applied voltage) cell has a solid wire oi a voltmeter in the wire, while an electrolytic cell in the wire.
Understand the behind the Nernst esuation.

@tratesthatvoltagedependsnotonlyonthestandardreaction,butalso true irf,all reactions, ;; th";;;.;ritiations of the products and reictanis. As isan equilibrium state, an electrochemical ;;;;tilG;o*"r itt..uuringly'less favorable urrtil.il reachesno en6rgy is exchanged, so thedryI_",Tlltl ryherep reaction in cfidcentration. At equilibrium, ;h;;; ig equat'iirn_calculates the voltage of a cell ";;"i.hu.ts" ."r"ol.i" ;; ih; .-"il li .to lo.rger functionall The Nernst
und6r any conditions, taking in"to account this concentration dependence'

able o? M"tut to determine the quantity o@

Be

cations plate out on the surface of the cathode (electron-rich electrode) yhfn.a current is a special case of electrolysis. The voltage must be great enough to fdrce ah unfavorable reactioh to proceed. ;iFii;J *ften Jectiopl'ating

;;;li"j i;; i"lt. fnit process is known as clectroplating,

Understand how a frrnctions.

Batteries are essentially reversible cells that discha.rge voltage when

can be

for ion eichange.

cells. O gf Understand the similarities between circuits and electrochemlcal :l'current,whileinchemistrythesearereferredtoaselectyochemicaI

^"aA;;;;;-i";,ies?ectiuelv. 'p;;liili;;a1h; i"i.tuntt a'ffect its'physical

iitii.iiii

You should recognize these sy'nonyms and know how chemical values (elg., electron"affinity and reduction potential).

General Chemistry

Electrochemistry

Introduction

Electrochemistry addresses the features of chemical reactions in which electrons are transferred. Noting changes in oxidation state and accounting for electrons are both important observations to be made in an oxidation-reduction reaction. The number of electrons lost by the molecule being oxidized equals the number of electrons gained by the molecule being reduced. The reactant being oxidized experiences an increase in oxidation state that is reflected in the number of electrons lost. Likewise, the reactant being reduced experiences a decrease in oxidation state that is reflected in the number of electrons gained. These facts create (or constitute) the foundation that makes it possible to balance any oxidation-reduction reaction.

when electrons are exchanged in an oxidation-reduction reaction, large quantities of energy are involved. Of the different types of chemical reactions that may occur (including oxidation-reduction, acid-base, substitution, precipitation, composition, and decomposition), oxidation-reduction reactions generate the greatest change in free energy and enthalpy. As a consequence of the iarge amount of energy involved in oxidation-reduction reactions, they are the chemical source of energy for many household devices. Most fuels and power sources rely upon oxidation-reduction reactions. Common examples include hydrocarbon fuels for combustion engines, and oxidation-reduction reactions involving the transition metals used in batteries. Keeping track of the energy associated with oxidation-reduction reactions is imperative to chemists, but actually harnessing the energy unleashed by these powerful reactions involves the application of physics and engineering principles as well.
To hamess the energy of electron transfer in chemical reactions, electrochemical cells are designed to separate the oxidation half-reaction from the reduction halfreaction. Electrons are transferred through a wire from the molecule releasing the electrons to the molecule gaining the electrons. The energy associated with

electron flow can be converted into mechanical work, heat, light, and translational energy for particles. The role of a chemist in all of this is to design a fuel source that efficiently generates electron flow. This is done with galvanic cells and batteries. We will address the difference between a galvanic cell and a battery within the core of this section. To understand electrochemistry, one must understand how to generate electron flow and determine the energy and voltage associated with this process. Electromotive force determines the cell voltage, which can be converted into an amount of energy that is proportional to the number of electrons involved in the overall oxidation-reduction reaction.
Electrochemistry also entails reactions that naturally occur in an oxygen-rich envitonment. Oxygen in the air oxidizes (rusts away) most metals with which it comes in contact. Natural oxidation is facilitated in the presence of moisture or a conducting solvent. We shall consider chemical processes that work against the natural deterioration of materials due to oxidation in air. Galvanizing involves placing a more reactive species in the environment, so that this more reactive species (the sacrificial metal) is the one oxidized by aft, rather than the material being protected. Repairs to an oxidized metal can be made by electroplating, which lays a coat of a conducting material onto its surface. This works only if the material can conduct electricity. Oxidation-reduction chemistry can also be used to form pure liquids and gases. This procedure is referred to as electrolysis, and we will address it briefly. Electrochemistry, in summary, is the part of chemistry that looks primarily at reactions and energetics of electron transfer.
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General Chemistry

Electrochemistry

Redox Reactions

Redox:Keactions

":,

Determining Oxidation States Each atom within a molecule shares electrons with the neighboring atoms to which it is bonded. The oxidation state of the atom results from electronic bookkeeping. Oxidation states are based on an all-or-nothing approach to electron-sharing. Within a bond, the more electronegative atom is assumed to take all of the electrons, while the less electronegative atom gets none of the bonding electrons. Determining the oxidation state of an atom within a molecule requires comparing the electronegativity of the atom of interest with the electronegativity of all the atoms to which it is bonded. Bonding electrons are viewed as being completely associated with the more electronegative atom. The oxidation state is a sum of these bonding values. Drawn in Figure 10-1 below are the oxidation states for a series of molecules.
-tt

ou:t- tl
Hydrogen:
+1
-1

'+l l+'

+q+

H.I U
Hydrogen: +1 Chlorine: -1 +1 +1 =
Oxygen: -1 -1 = -2
+1

Hydrogen: +1 Sulfur: +1 +1 +1 +1 = +4
Oxygen: -1 -1 = -2

Oxygen: -1 +0 =

Figure 10-1 Oxygen usually has an oxidation state of -2 (except in molecular oxygen, when it's 0, and in peroxides, when it's -1) and hydrogen usually has an oxidation state of +1 (except in hydrides, when it's -1, and hydrogen gas/ when it's 0). For exampie, in the compound H3PO3, H is +1 and O is -2. In order for H3PO3 to be neutral, the sum of the oxidation states must be zero. The oxidation state of P must be +3. In addition, be aware that alkali metals (group I metals) usually have an oxidation state of +1, alkaline earth metals (group II metals) usually have an oxidation state of +2, and halogens usually have an oxidation state of -1 (except in oxyacids and molecular halogens). The oxidation state of sulfur in SOCI2 is +4, because oxygen is -2 and chlorines are -1 each. To be neutral, the oxidation state of sulfur must be +4. The sum of the oxidation states of the atoms within a molecule must equal the charge of the molecule.

Example 10.1

In which of the following compounds is the oxidation state of phosphorus the

GREATEST?

A. P4O6 ' B. P4 t' , D. POC13

C, .PH3

1'

'

Solution Using the idea that hydrogen carries an oxidation state of +1, chlorine -1, and oxygen -2,'the oxidation state of phosphorus can be found in each compound. Lr P4O6, the oxidation state of P is +3. In P4 (a pure element), the oxidation state of P is 0. In PH3, the oxidation state of P is -3. Finally, in POCI3, the oxidation state of P is +5. The oxidation state of phosphorus is highest in POC13, choice D.

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General Chemistry

Electrochemistry

Redox Reactions

Oxidation and Reduction Oxidation-reduction reactions involve the transfer of electrons from the reducing agent to the oxidizing agent. The consequence of electron transfer in a chemical reaction is a change in the oxidation states of at least two atoms. If the oxidation state increases due to the loss of electrons, then that process is oxidation. If the oxidation state decreases due to the gain of electrons, then that process is reduction. In every redox reaction, there must be both oxidation and reduction. Remember the mnemonic acronym LEOGER, which stands for lose electrons oxidation, gain electrons reduction. Listed below are some common terms to reacquaint yourself with in the electrochemistry section.
Oxidation: A loss of electrons by an atom, resulting in an increased oxidation state. Reduction: A gain of electrons by an atom, resulting in a decreased oxidation state.

Oxidizing agent: The resctant doing the oxidizing, getting reduced itself in the process.
Reducing agent: The reactant doing the reducing, getting oxidized itself in the process.

Example 10.2 Which of the reactions below represent oxidation-reduction?

I: II: III:
C. D.

-+ Hz(g) + AlBr3(s) + Ti(OH)2(aq) + HCIO(aq) + TiQ(s) + 2H2O(l) Na2CO3(aq) + HCl(aq) -+ H2O(l) + CO2(g) + NaCl(aq)
HBr(g) + Al(s)

HCIOa(aq)

A. I only B. II only
I and II only I and III only

Solution In Reaction I, the oxidation state of hydrogen changes from +1 (in HBr) to 0 (in H2), so hydrogen is reduced. Aluminum changes from 0 (in Al) to +3 (in AlBr3), so aluminum is oxidized. This makes Reaction I an oxidation-reduction reaction. In Reaction II, the oxidation state of chlorine changes from +7 (in HCIOa) to +1 (in HCIO), so chlorine is reduced. Titanium changes fuom +2 (in Ti(OH)2) to +4 (in TiO2), so titanium is oxidized. This makes Reaction II an oxidation-reduction reaction. This makes choice C correct. Reaction III is an acid-base reaction in which no oxidation states change. Protons are transferred, but not electrons.
Example L0.3 In the following reaction, which compound is the oxidant (oxidizing agent)?
HCl(aq) + KMnO4(aq) + FeCl2(aq)

-+

MnCl2(aq) + FeCl3(aq) + H2O(l) + KCI(aq)

A. B. C. D.

HCI(aq) KMnOa(aq)
FeCl2(aq)

MnCl2(aq)

Solution Oxidizing agents (oxidants) get reduced, thus causing oxidation. Mn in KMnO4 has an oxidation state of +7. Once reduced, Mn (in MnCl2) has an oxidation state of. +2. Manganese is reduced f.rom +7 to +2 in the reaction. Oxidizing and reducing agents are reactants. The reactant containing Mn is the oxidizing agent. This makes choice B, KMnO4, correct. In the reaction, Fe is oxidized from +2 to +3, making FeCl2 (the reactant that contains iron) the reducing agent.

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General Chemistry

Electrochemistry

Redox Reactions

Balancing Redox Reactions (Balancing Electrons, Charges, and Atoms) Balancing redox reactions may be accomplished using either the bridge method or the half-cell method. The bridge method involves connecting atoms that have changed oxidation states, and determining the number of electrons that have been exchanged. The half-cell method involves breaking the reaction into two sub-reactions: oxidation and reduction. With either method, you start by determining the oxidation states of atoms within the reactant and product molecules, you balance the reaction electronically by having equal numbers of electrons involved in the oxidation and reduction half-reactions, and you balance the charges and atoms last. Balancing oxidation-reduction reactions entails following a basic recipe, shown below, which holds true for both the half-cell and the bridge methods.

First: Third:

Determine the oxidation states of the atoms.

Second: Identify how many electrons are involved in the oxidation half-reaction and how many electrons are involved in the reduction half-reaction.
Balance the number of electrons.

Fourth: Balance the charges on each side of the equation by adding H+ to the side with either excessive negative charge or insufficient positive charge (or OH- to the side with either excessive positive charge or insufficient
negative charge).

Fifth:

Balance the atoms

reaction.

by adding water to the appropriate side of

the

Bridge Method (Connect-the-Reactants Method) Balancing by the bridge method entails connecting the oxidizing agent to its reduced product and the reducing agent to its oxidized product, thereby creating a so-called 'bridge'. The electron count in each bridge must be the same. To accomplish this, the bridges are cross-multiplied, as shown below:
Consider the following reaction: Cr(s)

+ Cu2+ -+ Cr3+ +

Culs;

First:

The oxidation state of Cr is 0, while the oxidation state of chromium in Cr3+ is +3. The oxidation state of copper in Cu2+ is +2, while the oxidation state of Cu is 0.

Second: Identify how many electrons are involved in the oxidation half-reaction and how many electrons are involved in the reduction half-reaction. Connect like reactants and products by a bridge.
Oxidized by
3e-

,*^
Cr(s)

+C.ur+ + -rl

Crr++Cg1s)
n

l'

Reduced by 2e-

Third:

To balance the electrons, cross-multiply the two bridge half-reactions. The oxidation half-reaction is multiplied by 2 and the reduction halfreaction is multiplied by 3.

Following these three steps yields the following balanced reaction:

2Cr(s) + 3Cu2+ -+ 2Cr3+ + 3Cu(s)

This particular example is straightforward, and likely could have been done by inspection. More challenging cases involve the balancing of charges and atoms, which is accomplished by adding either hydroxide or hydronium, (depending on the pH), and then water. Copyright
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General Chemistry
VO3-(aq)

Electrochemistry

Redox Reactions

Consider the balancing of the following reaction in a basic solution:

+ Ti(OH)2(aq) -+ VO(s) +

Ti(OH)a(aq)

First:

The oxidation state of vanadium in VO3- is +5. The oxidation state of vanadium in VO is +2. The oxidation state of titanium in Ti(OH)2 is +2. The oxidation state of titanium in Ti(OH)a is +4.

Second: Identify how many electrons are involved in the oxidation half-reaction and how many electrons are involved in the reduction half-reaction. Connect like reactants and products by a bridge.
Reduced bv 3e-

+5

VO3-(aq)

+ Ti(OH)2(aq)

+2

+2

+4

O"rClr"d by r"-

-->

VO(s) + Ti(OH)a(aq)

Third:

To balance the electrons, cross-multiply the two bridge half-reactions. The oxidation half-reaction is multiplied by 3 and the reduction halfreaction is multiplied by 2.

2VO3-(aq)

+ 3Ti(OH)2(aq)--'> 2VO(s) +

3Ti(OH)+(aq)

w,

Fourth:

The net charge on the left side of the equation is 2 (-7) = -2, while the net charge on the right side of the equation is 0. Because the reaction is carried out in base, hydroxide is added to balance charges. To balance the charges, 2 OH- are added to the right side, making the net charge on each side of the equation -2. This yields the following:

2VO3-(aq) + 3Ti(OH)2(uq) -+ 2VO(s) + 3Ti(OH)a(aq) + 2OH-(aq)

Fifth:

To balance atoms, count the H atoms on both sides. There is an excess of 8 H atoms (74 - 6 = 8) on the right side of the equation, so 4 H2O are added to the left side of the equation to balance the hydrogen atoms. This leaves the following overall balanced equation:

aH2O(l) + 2VO3-(aq) + 3Ti(OH)z(uq)

Example 10.4

-r

2VO(s) + 3Ti(OH)a(aq) + 2OH-(aq

In acidic solution, what is the balanced form of the following reaction?

BiO3-(aq)

A. 8H+(aq) +3 BiO3-(aq; B. 14H+(aq) +5BiO3-(aq; C. 12H+(aq) +5BiO3-(aq; D. 1,4H*(uq) + 3BiO3-(aq;

Solution

+ Mn2+1aq; -+ Bi3+1aq; + MnO4-(aq) +2Mn2+(uq) -+ 5Bi3+1aq; +2MnO4-(aq) +4H2O(l)

+2Mn2+1a9) -.> S Bi3+(aq) +2MnO4-(aq) +7H2O(l) +2Mn2+1a9) -+ SBi3+1aq; +2MnO4-(aq) +6H2O(l) +2Mn2+1aq) -+ gBi3+1aq; +2MnO4-(aq) +7H2O(l)

First, the electrons must be balanced. The oxidation state of Bi changes from +5 to +3 (Bi is reduced by 2 electrons), while the oxidation state of Mn changes from +2 to +7 (Mn is oxidized by 5 electrons). To balance the electrons, the bismuth compounds must be multiplied by 5, and the manganese compounds must be multiplied by 2. This eliminates choices A and D. Charge must also balance. In choice B, the reactant side charge is +14 -5 +4 = +13 and the product side charge is +15 -2 = +13. The charges balance, so choice B is the best answer.

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General Chemistry

Electrochemistry

Redox Reactions

Half-Cell Method (Separate the Half-Reactions Method) Balancing by the half-cell method entails separating and independently balancing the half-reaction of the oxidizing agent to its reduced product, and the half-reaction of the reducing agent to its oxidized product. The two halfreactions are balanced independently. The electron count in each half-reaction must be equal. To accomplish this, the half-reactions are cross-multiplied. This method is shown below:
Consider the following reaction: MnO4-

+ Zn -+ MnO2 +

Zn(OH)az

First:

The oxidation state of manganese in MnO4- is +7, while in MnO2, the oxidation state of manganese is +4. The oxidation state of zinc in Zn is 0, while in Zn(OH)a2- th" oxidation state of zinc is +2. Using this information, the half-cell reactions can be drawn:

Second: Identify how many electrons are involved in the oxidation half-reaction and how many electrons are involved in the reduction half-reaction.
Reduction half-reaction:

Oxidation half-reaction:

MnOa- + 3 e- -+ MnO2 Zn -+ Zn(Of1n2- + 2e'

Third:

To balance the electrons at six for each half-cell reaction, the reduction

half-reaction must be multipliedby 2 and the oxidation half-reaction

must be multiplied by 3. Reduction:
2 (MnOa-

Oxidation:

+ 3 e- -+ MnO2) 3 (Zn -+ Zn(OlH1nz- + 2 e)

This leads to the electronically balanced equation: Reduction:

Oxidation:

2MnOa- + 6e- -r 2MnO2 3Zn -+ 3Zn(OH)az- + 6e-

Fourth: For the reduction half-reaction, the net charge on the left side of the equation is -8, while the net charge on the right side of the equation is 0. For the oxidation half-reaction, the net charge on the left side of the equation is 0, while the net charge on the right side of the equation is -12. Because the reaction is carried out in base, hydroxide is added to balance charges. To balance the charges, 8 OH- are added to the right side in reduction half-reaction, and 72 OH- are added to the left side in
oxidation half-reaction. Net charge does not have to equal zero on both sides of a reaction, but it must be the same on both sides. This yields the f ollowin g half -reactions :
Reduction:

Oxidation:

2lvlnOa- + 6e- -+ 2MnO2 + 8OH3Zn + 12OlH- -+3 Zn(OH)+2- + 6e-

Fifth:

To balance atoms in the reaction, count the H atoms. There is an excess of 8 H atoms on the right side of the reduction half-reaction, so 4H2O are added to the left side to make the hydrogens balance. The halfreactions are added to complete our balancing process, yielding the final

balanced equation.

Reduction: Oxidation:
reduction reaction:

4H2O +2MnO4- + 6e- -+ 2MnO2 + 8OH3Zn + 12OH- -+3 Zn(OH)+2- + 6e-

Adding the two balanced half-reactions leads to the overall balanced oxidation-

4H2O + 2MnO4- + 3Zn + 4OH- -+ 2MnO2 + 3 Zn(OH)a2-

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General Chemistry

Electrochemistry

Redox Reactions

Variations on Balancing (Compounds with Multiple Redox Sites) Balancing redox reactions is easy when you follow the procedure just outlined in the previous section. Flowever, there are a few pitfalls of which you should be aware. They involve compounds with multiple atoms undergoing oxidation or reduction. Reaction 10.1 and Reaction 10.2 are examples of reduction halfreactions with multiple atoms within a molecule being reduced.
Cr2O72-

+ 6 e- -+

Cr2O3

H2O2 + 2e- -+ 2 OHReaction 10.2

Reaction 10.1

Example 10.5 What are the coefficients after the following reaction is balanced in base?

+ Vo2+ -.> vO2+ * ottA. H2O2 + 2vo2+ -+ 2YO2+ + 2 OH- + 2H2O B. H2O2 + 2vO2+ + 2 OH- -+ 2YO2+ + 21120 C. 2H2o2 + 2vo2+ -s 2Yo2+ + 2 oH- + 2H2o D. 2H2O2 + 2vo2+ + 2 OH- -+ 2Yo2+ + 2H2O
lH2o2

Solution
The oxidation state of oxygen inH2O2 is -1, while in_OH-, the oxidation state of oxygen is -2. The oxidation state of vanadium in VO2+ is +4, while in VO2+ the oxidation state of vanadium is +5. Two oxygen atoms per peroxide molecule are reduced, so the peroxide reduction half-reaction requires two electrons (as shown below). The vanadium oxidation half-reaction releases one electron.

H2O2 + 2e-

-+ 2OH-

Upon cross-multiplying the half-reactions, the ratio of peroxide to vanadium oxide dication 1VO2+) is 1. :2, eliminating choices C and D. Although it seems from the reduction half-reaction that hydroxide should be on the product side of the overall reaction, the charges, oxygen atoms, and hydrogen atoms do not balance in choice A. This eliminates choice A. Choice B is correct, because hydroxide is added to the reactant side to balance charges. This cancels out the hydroxide formed upon the reduction of peroxide.
Example 10.6 VVhat is the ratio of silver species to aluminum species in the following reaction?

4...3:1 B. 1:3

.,-('-

AgOH(aq) + Al(s)

Ag(s) + AlO2-(aq)

,'.-\

C.3:2
D. 2:3

Solution

In this example, the silver atom is getting reduced by one electron, and the
aluminum atom is getting oxidized by three electrons. This means that balancing yields a ratio of three silver species (AgOH) to one aluminum atom, Al, choice A.
You may have experienced Example 10.6 firsthand (or more appropriately, "first

tooth"),

ever bitten into a piece of aluminum foil with a tooth containing an old silver filling. This experience is rather jolting.

if you have

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General Chemistry
Energetics

Electrochemistry

Voltage and Dnergy

ff$lffiiilffiffiiiffiil
Electrochemistry studies the transfer of energy in oxidation-reduction reactions. Energy is released in the form of electrical flow, and is harnessed in the form of voltage (joules per coulomb). Current is the result of a potential difference

(voltage) between two points that have an electrically conducting medium between them. This is what causes the sensation when you bite on aluminum foil with a silver filling! The task of interest now becomes converting what causes this less than pleasurable jolt into a productive form of energy (such as heat, light, or mechanical work). The first step involves determining the voltage that is generated by an oxidation-reduction reaction.
Electrons flow from the species with the lower electron affinity to the species with the greater electron affinity. However, we do not calculate the energetics of the reaction based on electron affinity difference. We use electromotive force (emf). Electromotive force is a voltage, and exhaustive tables have been produced that list the emf values associated with hundreds of half-reactions. Half-Reaction Potentials (Standard emf Values Relative to Hydrogen) The energetics of half-cells are measured relative to the reduction of hydronium into hydrogen. The reduction of two protons (H+) to form hydrogen gas (H2) is defined as the reference standard, and assigned an emf of zero volts. Any compound that can be reduced more favorably than a proton has a positive

reduction potential. Likewise, any compound for which reduction is less favorable than a proton has a negative reduction potential. Oxidation values are relative to the oxidation of hydrogen gas, H2(g). Any compound that can be oxidized more favorably than a hydrogen gas has a positive oxidation potential.
Likewise, any compound for which oxidation is less favorable than hydrogen gas has a negative oxidation potential. Table 10.1 is an abbreviated list of some of common reduction half-reactions and their corresponding emf values.

Half Reaction
Au3+ + 3e- --> Au

E'(V)
1.50 1.36 0.99 0.80 0.34 0.00 -0.23

Half Reaction
2e- -+ Fe Cr3+ + 3e- -+ Cr
Fe2+ +

E"

(v)

-0.44
-0.73
-0.76

Cl2+2e- -> 2CIPd2++2e- + Pd As+ + 1e -+ Ae Cu2++2e- + Cu 2H+ + 2e- -+ Hl Ni2+ + 2e- -+ Ni

Zn2+

+2e-

--+ Zn

-+ Al Me2+ + 2e- -+ Ms Na+ + 1e -+ Na K++1e- -+ K

Al3+ + 3e-

t.66
nan
-2.77

-2.92

Table L0.1 Most tables list reduction half-reactions, rather than oxidation half-reactions. The greater (more positive or less negative) the emf value, the more favorable the reduction half-reaction. This table can be used to determine the relative strength of an oxidizing agent. Of the reactants listed in Table 10.1, Au3+ is the strongest oxidizing agent, because it is the species that undergoes the most favorable reduction half-reaction. Conversely, of the products listed in Table 10.1, K is the strongest reducing agent, because it is the species that undergoes the most favorable oxidation half-reaction. Reactions in Table 10.1 can be reversed to show oxidation half-reactions. \rVhen the half-reaction is reversed, the sign of the emf changes, but the magnitude does not.

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Electrochemistry

Voltage and Energgr

Cell Potential (Voltage Associated with Redox Reactions Pairs) The cell potential for an oxidation-reduction reaction is the sum of the oxidation half-reaction potential and the reduction half-reaction potential. This is shown as Equation 10.1below:
treacfion = treduction + oxidation
(10.1)

The values for t are listed in terms of voltage, which is independent of the number of electrons in the reaction. Voltage is defined as joules per coulomb, so the number of electrons in a reaction is not pertinent, given that a coulomb of charge is the same amount, no matter how many electrons are exchanged in a reaction. This is to say that a coulomb represents a fixed number of electrons" \zVhether a coulomb of charge is gathered one electron at a time or three electrons at a time, there is a fixed amount of energy per coulomb. The emf value for the oxidation-reduction reaction from Example 10.6 is determined by a standard procedure, as shown below: AgOH(aq) + Al(s) -+ Ag(s) + AlO2-(aq)
The half-cell reactions are:

Al(s) -+ Al3+(aq) +
Al3+1aq;

3e-

Ag+(aq)

+ 1e- -+

Ag(s)

From Table 10.1, the t" for each reduction half-reaction is:

Ag*(uq) + 1e- + Ag(s) + 0.80 V The A1 half-reaction must be reversed to fit the overall reaction, because Al is oxidized in the reaction. When reversing the Al half-reaction, the emf sign is reversed too. However, it should be noted, when you multiply a reaction by an integer, you do not multiply the emf by an integer. Reduction potential is an intensive property that does not change with conditions. This means that voltage does not depend on the number of electrons in the reaction. The following value is determined for the silver-aluminum oxidation-reduction reaction: Oxidation: Al(s) + A13+1aq) + 3e1.66V Reduction: 3 Ag+(aq) + 3e- -+ 3 Ag(s) 0.80 v
-1..66V

+ 3e- -+ Al(s)

Overall:

3 Ag+(aq)

+ Al(s) -+ 3 Ag(s) + AI3+1aq; 2.46V

Emf values need not be memorized; but in general, the greater the electron affinity, the greater the reduction potential. Likewise, the lower the ionization energy/ the greater the oxidation potential.
Example 10.7
\A/hat is the emf for the following oxidation-reduction reaction?-

Cu(s) +Cl2(g)

$t.ozv D. 0.68 V
Solution

A.2.38V 8.7]0V

C,

ii

, -+CuCl2(aq) '\" +?-(

(r''l/

re t* ']t Ct.Lt-Le ,
^
.-J

")l

,L

t-.3

: ''j '

'\-l

l.-\l+

t2 t'z

-.

'

O-"-

The two half-reactions are: CIZ(g) + 2e- -+ 2 Cl-(aq) and Cu(s) -+ Cu2+(aq) + 2e-. According to Table 10.1, the emf for the reduction of chlorine gas is + 136V, and the emf for the oxidation of copper metal is - 0.34V. This means that the overall reaction voltage is 1.36 - 0.34 = 1.02 V. Choice C is the best answer.

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Electrochemistry

Voltage and Energy

Free Energy Change (Conversion from Voltage to Energy)

are broken and is exchanged when an electron is transferred from one atom to formed, energy another. F{owever, unlike electromotive force (cell potentials), the energv associated with an electrochemical cell depends on the number of electrons. Free energy is considered in units of joules per mole of electrons. The energy per mole of electrons can be determined from the cell voltage. Equation 10.2 is the equation for free energy in an electrochemical cell:

in the same manner that energy is exchanged when bonds

AG=-nF
where F =96,500 C per mole and n = electrons per reaction

(10.2)

A positive electromotive force (cell voltage) is associated with a favorable

associated with a favorable oxidation-reduction reaction.

oxidation-reduction reaction, while a negative free energy change (AG) is

Example 10.8

How much work can be done by a7.60 V cell in which there is one electron in the oxidation half-reaction and from which 1.00 mole of electrons flow?

rJ'

.t'Y

(-

(c)4554

A.0.772x10:l V. /'Y^t 1.286x105J

D.
x 10:J 1.882x 1057

\t

)t'' *'.\ -(,.)'JL,

.,'

Solution The units for work are joules (newton'meters). By keeping units in mind, calculations can be made far more easily. This is even truer in physics where there are more units. Work is a form of energy, so the equation to use in solving this question is:

w=nFt
The sign is ignored, because all of the answer choices are positive numbers. Substituting into the equation yields the following:

x 1.60I = (96,500x w =lmoleelectronsx 96,500 C C mole electrons

This multiplies out to be just less than 1.6 x

1.60)J

1d joules, which makes choice C the best choice. The important conceptual message here is that energy is proportional to both cell voltage and the number of electrons involved in the
oxidation-reduction reaction.

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mffi$ff#$ffiffi$ffifffi[xii $
Definitions and Terminology

Electrochemistry

Electrochemical Cells

Electrochemical cells convert energy produced in a chemical reaction into electric

flow (current). This is accomplished by separating the oxidation half-reaction from the reduction half-reaction, and connecting the two half-reactions using some conducting material. Rather than generate heat energy, the reaction generates electrical flow from the reducing agent to the oxidizing agent. Electrical flow is a form of energy, just as heat, light, and mechanical work are
forms of energy.
There are some standard terms that hold true for all electrochemical cells. These

terms are often a source of confusion, because physicists, chemists, and biochemists focus on different aspects of electricity and electrochemical cells, so each scientist defines the terms slightly differently. A primary goal of this section is to develop a generic set of definitions that can be used in several
electrochemical cells. Oxidation occurs at the anode; therefore, electrons flow away from the anode.
Reduction occurs at the cathode; therefore, electrons flow towards the cathode.
CeIIs are cyclic; therefore, ions must
electron

related areas of discussion about electricity. The following terms are fundamentally defined to hold true for all electrical circuits, electric fields, and

flow to balance the charge dffirence

caused by

flow.

Anions migrate towards the anode, and cstions migrate towards the cathode'

battery according to the type of flow that the poles of the battery induce' Electrons flow from the anode to the cathode, so a physicist reaches the conclusion that the anode of a battery carries a negative charge (repelling the electrons) and the cathode of a battery carries a positive charge (attracting the electrons). Conventional usage among physicists denotes the cathode of a
battery by a positive sign, and the anode is denoted by
a negative sign.

Physicists often concern themselves with the flow of charge through a wire (current or electron flow), so they assign charges to the anode and cathode of a

Biochemists focus on the flow of ions through electrical fields (gel electrophoresis occurs between the charged plates of a capacitor). They assign charges to the anod.e and cathode of a capacitor according to the type of ions they attract. Anions migrate to the anode because of the anode's positive charge buildup (the anode haslost electrons). A biochemist concludes that the anode of a capacitor carries a positive charge (attracting anionic molecules). Cations migrate towards the cathode because of the cathode's negative charge buildup (the cathode has gained electrons). A biochemist concludes that the cathode of a capacitor carries a negative charge (attracting cationic molecules).

Physicists and biochemists define the anode and cathode differently, because

they are looking at different circuit elements (battery versus a charging capacitor). Both perspectives are valid. They each are specific for their topic of inierest. In electrochemical cells, we have both electron flow and ion migration, so we need a more general set of rules. To achieve that, we start by presenting
the cathode and anode according to a multi-disciplinary perspective.

Cathodes have a positive core and accumulate negative charge on their surfaces as current flows. Anodes have a negative core and accumulate positive charge on their surfaces as current flows.

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universal perspective.

Electrochemistry

Electrochemical Cells

Figure 10-2 shows the circuit notation for a battery and capacitor from this

Cathode

Anion migration

@;
@

@ p. @ 5

@ ! 6-

0) @'-o bo

Cation migration

@. U
@
0)
@

@' @' o

Electric field of a capacitor plate Anode late 3Pl

@ o. @

Figure 10-2

Figure 10-2 shows the flow of electrons through a wire, the migration of ions through a field, the poles of a battery, and the plates of a charging capacitor. The significant electricity terms are addressed, so any observations in Figure 10-2 are universal for all electrical devices. The universal rules for electrical circuits,
electric fields, and electrochemical cells are thus:

1. 2. 3.

Electrons flow from the anode to the cathode. Cations migrate to the cathode.

Anions migrate to the anode.

The physical makeup of an electrochemical cells allows for the transfer of electrons from the reductant (material being oxidized) to the oxidant (material being reduced). This is accomplished by placing the oxidation half-reaction in the anode and the reduction half-reaction in the cathode. Figure 10-3 shows a
generic electrochemical cell, where the reactions and components are defined.

M(s)

Mo^'*

M."d2*

M(s)

Oxidation occurs at the anode

Keduction occurs at the cathode

Figure 10-3

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Electrochemistry

Blectrochemical Cells

The salt bridge (or porous membrane in some cells) permits the flow of ions (specifically anions). Anions flow in the direction opposite to the direction of the electron flow, in order to balance out the distribution of charge associated with flowing electrons. The salt bridge completes the circuit of the cell. Without a salt bridge, or some form of anion transfer, the circuit is incomplete and the cell could not produce energy. By definition, a cell has specific components that carry out specific tasks. Reduction occurs at the cathode, and oxidation occurs at the anode. In electrochemical cells where both electrodes involve a reaction with a cation and metal, cathodes plate out (cations in solution are converted into a metal coating on the surface of the electrode), and anodes dissolve (the metal coating on the surface of the electrode is converted into cations that dissociate into solution). Salt bridges are not made of salt. They contain an aqueous solution, held in place by a membrane, through which ions can diffuse from one half-cell into the other half-cell.

In addition to cell layout, there is also standard cell short hand to consider when writing the equation of a cell. When reading cell short hand from left to right, it goes from anode to cathode, and reactant to product within each half-reaction electrode. It follows the format shown in Figure 10-4: Moxidation(s) lMoxidatior.,2* (uq yM) I lMreduction2* (uq yM) lM.u4rr.1i61(s)
Figure 10-4
The oxidation reaction in Figure 10-4 is Moxidation(s) to M6ai6n1ior,2*(uq), and the reduction reaction is Mys6rslie.r2*(uq) to M1g6r.1i.n(s). The molarity of the cation in each cell is given with the individual cell.

Example 10.9

A cell is composed of Zn metal in 0.10 M Zn2+1aq) solution in one half-cell and Cu metal in 0.10 M Cu2+(aq; solution in the other half-cell. The metal plates are connected by a wire, and the solutions are connected by a salt bridge in the standard cell manner. After a certain amount of time, it is expected that:

A. zinc metal dissolves away. B. copper metal dissolves away. C. both zinc metal and copper metal dissolve D. zinc cation precipitates out as zinc metal.
Solution

away.

The first task is to determine which metal is being oxidized and which cation is

being reduced. This requires using the Table 10.1. The reduction half-cell potential for Cu2+1aq) + 2 e- -+ Cu(s) is 0.34V, and the reduction half-cell potential for Zn2+1aq) + 2 e- -+ Zn(s) is -0.76 V. For a positive cell potential, zinc must be oxidized and copper cation must be reduced. Because zinc is being oxidized, zinc metal dissolves away. This makes choice A the best answer.
There are two types of electrochemical cells we shall considered. They are galoanic (a spontaneous cell with E' > 0) and electrolytic (a non-spontaneous cell with E" < 0 and an applied voltage present to power the cell). Galvanic cells release energy in the form of electrical flow. Electrolytic cells are used for the
storage of electrical potential, as is seen when charging a battery. Electrolytic
cells are also used in electrolysis (used to purify gases) and electroplating (used to purify metals and coat conducting surfaces). Because the voltage can be controlled, the rate of plating (dependent on the current) can be controlled.

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Electrochemistry

Electrochemical Cells

Galvanic Cell Galvanic cells discharge voltage, which means that they harness the energy of a favorable oxidation-reduction reaction. The oxidation-reduction reaction of a galvanic cell has a negative AG and a positive emf. By convention in chemistry, galvanic cells are drawn with the anode on the left and the cathode on the right. Electrons flow naturally from left to right (anode to cathode) through a wire connecting the two electrodes, because the reaction is favorable. A salt bridge must be present if spectator anions are to migrate from the cathode to the anode. The spectator anion is often chloride or nitrate, because of their high solubility and lack of base properties. Drawn in Figure 10-5 below is a galvanic cell composed of a zinc anode and copper cathode with a salt bridge.

Salt bridge

Zn(s)->

711

ct'*Copper dication (Cu2*) is reduced in the cathode.

t"tt'

Zinc metal (Zn(s)) is

oxidized in the anode,

Figure 10-5

over the life of the cell, the anode dissolves away and the cathode plates out.
Salt bridges are devices that allow anions to flow. Higher quality electrochemical cells employ a membrane that selects for spectator ion flow exclusively.

The voltage of a cell is calculated by summing the reduction half-cell potential and the oxidation half-cell potential, as shown in Equation 10.1. To increase the

voltage of a galvanic cell, the concentrations of the ions in the cathode solution
can be increased or the concentration of the ions in the anode solution can be decreased. The more a reaction can proceed in the forward direction, the greater its voltage. A change in cation concentration changes voltage only slightty. To increase voltage significantly, multiple cells are aligned in series. This is whv several batteries are hooked up in a row in many battery-operated devices.

(E-s
--D.

A.6
e

Example 10.10 How many of the galvanic cells shown in Figure 10-5 must be aligned in series to attain a potential of approximately 5.5 volts? :
<:L tJ
!..

:\'\

1'tul

Solution
The reduction half-reaction potentials (emf values) for zinc dication and coppe: dication are - 0.76Y and + 0.34V respectively, according to Table 10.1. The ce]-l voltage is 0.34 - (- 0.76) = 1.10 volts. To have a voltage near 5.5, five cells are needed, and they should be aligned in series. This makes choice B correct.

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Electrochemistry

Electrochemical Cells

Electrolytic Cell Like all electrochemical cells, an electrolytic cell has two half-cells that are separated to allow electrons to flow from the site of oxidation to the site of reduction. However, an electrolytic cell is based on a chemical reaction going in the thermodynamically unfavorable direction. Energy must be added to the electrolytic cell to accomplish this. This means that electrolytic cells must be connected to a voltage source. The sequence of circuits in Figure L0-6 shows two batteries opposing one another, which is analogous to an electrolytic cell. If two batteries are set opposing one another, then current (and electron flow) are determined by the relative strength of the voltage sources. The greater voltage source dictates the direction of current and electron flow. This is the reason why a voltage source is added to an electrolytic cell to oppose the natural flow of electricity from the chemical reaction.

oa

| '-l I'rl
r---+
Ic

4V

all"

-r :] LJF
|
2V

Without the voltages, the direction of the electron flow is uncertain.

The greater voltage dictates the

direction of the electron flow.

The poles of the lower voltage battery Electrons flow in a counterclockwise are reversed by the forced electron flow. direction, charging the lower battery. Figure 10-6

r=
4V

@4V

_ZVa

iEP*
c _2Va

In an electrolytic cell, the applied voltage must exceed the natural voltage in
order to force the reaction to proceed in the reverse direction. An electrolytic cell is the reverse of a galvanic cell, with electrodes interchanged because of the applied voltage. If the applied voltage is not high enough, then the reaction does not proceed in the reverse direction, and no charge is stored. Figure 10-7 shows
the same half-reactions (except now they are reversed) as seen in Figure 10-5.
Eapplied

)
o

Cu(s) --------+6.12+

Zinc dication (Znz*) is

reduced in the cathode.

Copper metal (Cu(s)) is oxidized in the anode.

Figure 10-7 Copyright

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Electrochemistry

Electrochemical Cells

Concentration Effects on Cell Voltage Galvanic cells eventually die out, so reactant and product concentrations must affect cell voltage. There are three ways to address this: first by observation of a battery-operated device (a flashlight is a good example) second by using Le Chateiieis principle, and finally by more rigorous mathematical calculation (using the Nernst equation). If one observes the light emitted by a flashlight over iime,"the intensity is constant for several hours before the light dims and then rapidly diminishes to zero after a few minutes. Figure 10-8 shows light intensity (a direct measure of cell voltage) as a function of time'

*t
a 0-

stsb boy

5u
CJ

-o

Time Figure 10-8 --+

A good explanation for this observation is provided_by Le Chatelier's principle.

As more reactant is added to a reaction, the reaction becomes more favorable, so it produces more energy. Likewise, as more product is added to a reaction, the reiction becomes less f-avorable, so it produces less energy. Over the course of a reaction, reactants are converted into products, so the reaction becomes gradually less favorable until it reaches equilibrium, whete it stops. once at Jquilibrium, the reaction can release no more energy. As a galvanic cell runs,

reactants (cathode cations) are consumed and products (anode cations) are formed. This lowers the favorability, the energy, and the voltage of the cell' To maximize cell voltage, the reactants must be maximized and the products must be minimized. In fact, no products are needed to get the reaction to start.

Example L0.11" Which of the following cells has the GREATEST voltage? A. Zn(s) I 0.10 M Zn2*(uq) I I 1.00 M Cu2+1aq; I Cu(s) B. z"i'j r 1.00 M zS.ail I I 0.10 M Cu2+1aq) I Cu(s)

C. Ni(s) l0.10MNi2+1aq) ll 1.00MAg+(aq) lAg(s) D. Ni(s) I 1.00MNi2+1aq; ll0.10MAg+(aq) lAg(s)

Solution This question can be answered by first using Table 1"0.1 to-get emf values and then considering Le ChAtelier's principle. The zinc oxidation half-reaction produces +0.76V, and the copp"t reduction half-reaction produces +0.34 V' bverall, the zinclcopper cell produces +1.10 V. The nickel oxidation halfreaction produces +O.lZg V, and the silver reduction half-reaction produces +0'80 V. Overall, the nickel/silver cell produces +1.03 V. This eliminates choices C and D. To decide between choice A and choice B, the concentrations must be considered. The greater voltage is found in the cell with the most reactants and the fewest products. Copyright @by The BerkeleY Review

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Electrochemistry

Electrochemical Cells

In the zinc-copper cell, copper cation is a reactant (it's being reduced), and zinc cation is a product (it's being formed from the oxidation of zinc metal). The cell with the greatest voltage is the cell with more copper cation and less zinc cation. This is choice A. As a point of general interest, because concentration affects the voltage, emf tables are measured starting at standard conditions of 25"C,1 atm, and 1.00 M concentration of ions. And because temperature affects the equilibrium, it affects the voltage. That's why when flashlight batteries appear to have died, they work again for a short time after the flashlight is switched off for a brief interval to cool down. As the batteries cool, the reaction is no longer at equilibrium. Equilibrium changes with temperature.
Electrochemical potential can be generated when the anode and cathode are at different concentrations. This creates what is known as a concentration cell. Concentration cells have no common application, but the effect of concentration is observed as a cell loses reactant and gains product. Using the Nernst equation,

it is possible to calculate the effect of concentration on the voltage of an

electrochemical cell. This is observed in the generation of action potentials in physiology, but we will not address that here. The key fact is that as a cell runs down, voltage drops, because reactants are depleted. Nernst Equation The effect of half-cell concentrations on voltage can be quantified according to the relationship between the reaction quotient (Qr") aod the equilibrium constant (K"O). For an oxidation-reduction reaction with K"O greater than 1.0, if there are mor'e reactants than products, then the cell voltage'is greater than the standard cell voltage. If there are fewer reactants than products, the cell voltage is less than the standard cell voltage. In a general sense, the following estimate is valid: Zn(s) I 0.10M Zn2+(uq) I I 1.00MCu2+1aq; I Cu(s) cell voltage is: 1.10 V + a little bit Zn(s) I 1.00M Zn2+1aq) I I 0.10MCu2+1aq; I Cu(s
cell voltage

is:

1.10 V - a

little bit

The Nernst equation can be used to determine the exact value of the quantity represented by the phrase "a little bit" in the relationships above. The Nernst equation is derived from standard thermodynamic principles, The energy of any reaction, including electrochemical reactions, is the energy released as the reaction proceeds from its starting point to equilibrium. You should recall that AG" is RT lnKeq (the energy of reaction starting at standard conditions), and Q11 is the reaction quotient at initial conditions. This means that the following relationship holds true: Energyinitial-to-equilibriu*=Energylnit.-to-standa.4+Energystandard-to-equil.
This equation translates in a free energy relationship as: AGoverall = AG'+ RT lnQrx

Substituting - nFt for AG in the equation yields:

-nFt6vs12ll = -nFt" + RT

lnQr*

(because AG = -nFt)
10.3:

Upon dividing both sides of the equation by - nF, we get Equation

toverall = t'
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nF

(10.3)

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Electrochemical Cells

Converting from natural log to base-10log is done by multiptying by 2.3, which converts Equation 10.3, the Nernst equation, into Equation 10.4:

toverall = t"

2.3RI log e.*

nF

(10.4)

By substituting 8.314 for R,298 for standard T, and 96,500 for F, we get a working

equation, Equation 10.5:

toverall = t' -

0.059 log Qrx

(10.s)

Equations 10.4 and 10.5 are derivations of the Nernst equation, which puts a quantitative value on the effects of concentration on cell voltage. The equation looks intimidating, but the likelihood of using it in a calculation on the MCAT is minimal. Conceptually, however, it is useful for determining relative voltages of different electrochemical cells. For instance, in the two zinc-copper examples in answer choices A and B in Example 10.11, Q is 0.1 in choice A and e is 10 in choice B. There are two electrons in the reaction, log 10 is equal to 1.0, and log 0.1 is equal to -1.0. This means that the voltage of the cell in choice A is 1.10 + 0.03 = 1.13 v and the voltage of the cell in choice B is 1.10 - 0.03 = 1..07 v. Because 0.03 is small compared to the standard emf for the cell, the conceptual method using Le ChAtelier's principle is more than adequate for arriving at an answer. The small magnitude of the difference in voltage as concentration goes from 1.00 M to 0.10 M also explains why cell voltage remains relatively constant during the lifetime of a galvanic cell. \Arhile ion concentration affects the voltage, it does not significantiy affect the voitage until the ratio of products to reactants is either extremely high or extremely low. The Nernst term for concentration is on the millivolt scale, making it useful in cell physiology, but not in general chemistry.

Example 10.1,2 What is the voltage an electrochemical cell with an anode of zinc metal in 0.01 M Zn(NO3)2 (aq) and a cathode of silver metal in 1.00 M AgNQ (aq)? A. 2.42V B. 2.30 V 7.62V D. 1.50 V

c.

Solution
First, we must balance the oxidation-reduction reaction:

Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq)

2Ag(s) +

Zn2+1aq1
1.0.1

The standard cell potential for the reaction is found using values from Table and substituting into Equation 10.1:
E" = 0.80 - (-0.76) = 1.56 V

The actual cell voltage is slightly higher than 1.56, because there is a higher cation concentration in the cathode than in the anode. The exact value is found using

Equation 10.5:

toverali = t"

Yt"t

1zn2+unn6"1

7.56

- 0.059

[Ag+.utnc,d"]2

log0.0l

"t2

toveral =

1.56

0.03 (1og0.01)V

1'.56

- 0.03(-2)V =1.56 + 0.06V =

1.62\-

Choice C is the best answer.

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rcffix::::iffiHHlilfiflti$ffs
Batteries

Electrochemistry

Redox Applications

Batteries are essentially a galvanic cell or a group of galvanic cells in series. Batteries convert electrical potentiai energy into direct current. By using a reversible oxidation-reduction reaction, a battery can act as either a galvanic cell or an electrolytic cell. As the battery discharges current (releases voltage), it is acting as a galvanic cell. By applying voltage to a battery, it can be recharged. As the battery absorbs current (recharges voltage), it is acting as an electrolytic cell. Batteries have a membrane that is highly selective, so that only spectator ions can pass. By keeping the two electrodes (half-reactions) separate, it is possible to discharge and recharge a battery for many years. Evenfually, entropy and chemical side-reactions will deteriorate the battery; but until that time, it can be used as a reliable power source. The lead battery found in most cars can be
discharged and recharged roughly 2000 times.

Example 10.13
\A/hat is the cell potential of the following reaction used in a car battery?

Overall reaction: Pb(s)

PbO2(aq)

+ H2SO4(aq) -------+

2PbSOa(aq)

2H2O(1)

Half-reactions:
PbO2(aq)

+3H++HSO4(aq)

+2e-

PbSOa(aq) +2H2O(1) e"

= 1'.69Y
= -0.35 V

PbSOa(aq) + H+ + 2

-+ e- --------+ Pb(s) + HSOa-(aq)

t"

A. 1.02 V B. 1.34 V c. 2.04v

Solution

D. 4.08 V

The second half-cell reaction must be reversed, so that when it is added to the first reaction, the sum is the overall reaction. This means that the emf must also be reversed. The cell potential for the battery is 1..69 - (-0.35) = 2.04 volts, choice C. To achieve 12 volts total (as most standard car batteries provide), six cells must be aligned in series. This is why there are six cells in water-based batteries, to which you must add distilled water if you have a maintenance battery.

The dry cell batteries with which we are most familiar (used to power flashlights, radios, and other devices) are alkaline-based. They employ the oxidation of zinc metal coupled with the reduction of manganese dioxide (MnO2). A graphite rod is the conducting material through which electrons are transferred. A paste made of MnO2 in NH4CI surrounds the graphite rod in the interior of the battery. This paste in tum is surounded by insulated zinc connected to a cap at the end of the battery. If the battery is placed into a circuit, then the cap is connected to the graphite rod, resulting in the transfer of electrons from the zinc to the manganese dioxide, through the circuit. Graphite is a good conductor because of its conjugation, but it has an internal resistance of roughly 15 O' As a

result, batteries heat up when they are in use. The emf is not significantly affected, but the equilibrium of the reaction is.

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Electrochemistry

Redox Applications

Electrical Devices (Conversion of Electrical Flow into Work or Energy) Some common devices are designed to convert electrical flow into other forms of
energy, such as light, heat, and mechanical work. Knowing the basic schematics of how such devices operate will help you on the MCAT. Listed below are some typical examples of the conversion of electrical flow into other energy forms.
Fluorescent Tubes

Fluorescent tubes work by creating a potential difference between two plates (i.e., one plate builds up a positive charge by losing electrons as the other plate builds up a negative charge by gaining electrons). A gaseous ion between the plates is

accelerated towards the oppositely-charged plate (and away from the likecharged plate). Acceleration increases the kinetic energy of the particle, until it collides with another gas particle. Some of the ion's kinetic energy is transferred to the other particle, which absorbs this energy by exciting an electron. When this excited electron relaxes to its ground state, a photon is emitted from the gas particle in the tube. The energy of each photon is random, although the average energy of an emitted photon depends on the density of the gas, the length of the tube, and the plate charges. The inner surface of the tube is coated with either a fluorescing or phosphorescing agent to convert ultraviolet radiation into visible

light.
Fluorescent tubes use altemating current. If direct curent were used, then the plates would always carry the same charge, and the ion in the tube would accelerate in one direction until striking the oppositely-charged plate. After reaching the plate, the ion would no longer move. The tube would be finished, and thus only a flash of light would be produced. In order for the tube to function, the ion must move back and forth, which occurs as the plates reverse charges because of the alternating current. This means that fluorescent tubes actually produce pulsing light, much like a strobe lamp. The frequency is too fast for the human eye to detect, so the bulbs appear to produce continuous light.

Example 10.14

It dangerous to use fluorescent lighting in saw mills, because the tubes emit light at a frequency that could: A. deterioratelubricants. B. decompose wood. C. be in phase with the saw blade. D. initiate combustion. Solution
The fluorescent bulb emits light that is periodic. Under certain circumstances, the spinning saw blade in a saw mill could be in phase with the light. The result would be an optical illusion that would make the spinning saw blade appear to be stationary. Needless-to-say, spinning saw blades that appear stationary to the
eye can be dangerous to the touch. This makes choice C the best answer.

Heating Coils

Conventional heaters function by having a coiled wire through which current passes. A fan blows air across the surface of the hot coils, removing heat energy

from the coils via convection. Electrical flow is converted into heat by the resistance in the wire. Each coil is thin, so resistance is high. Coils are employed to maximize surface area. Heat is transferred only at an interface between
mediums, so more surface area allows for more heat transfer. Copyright
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Incand es c en t Light Bulb s

Electrochemistry

Redox Applications

Incandescent bulbs convert electrical flow into light by passing current through a resistor in a vacuum. The thermal energy builds up in the resistor, but it cannot be dissipated through convection or conduction in a vacuum (due to the absence of a medium). The only way to release energy to the environment is through

radiation of light causing the hot bulb filament to glow. The bulb emits
electromagnetic radiation of many wavelengths.

Incandescent bulbs are spherical to maintain their structural stability. The bulbs contain gas at low pressure, so the design prevents the atmospheric pressure

from crushing the bulb. Gas-filled bulbs are typically more tubular than

evacuated incandescent bulbs. An added benefit is the inert nature of a vacuum, which protects the filament from oxidation. If preventing oxidation were the only consideration, some incandescent bulbs might be filled with an inert gas, such as nitrogen or a noble gas. This is not the case. If an incandescent bulb were filled with an inert gas, then the increase in temperature would cause the gas to expand, which could rupture the bulb.

Example 10.15 why is the filament of the typical incandescent bulb thin and made of tungsten? A. It is thin to maximize resistance, and tungsten is used because of its low thermal coefficient of expansion. B. It is thin to maximize resistance, and tungsten is used because of its high heat of fusion. C. It is thin to maximize resistance, and tungsten is used because of its low ionization energy. D. It is thin to minimize resistance, and fungsten is used because of its high sublimation point.

B.- P; 'ra

Solution

A thin filament maximizes resistance, and thus removes more energy from the current. This eliminates choice D. Tungsten is chosen because it has the highest melting point of any conducting metal. The temperature of the filament is extremely high, so a filament with a high melting point must be used to avoid
having the filament melt and break the circuit. A high melting point is associated with a large enthalpy of fusion, so choice B is the best answer. A material with a low melting point would be used in a fuse. A fuse is designed to break when current exceeds a certain value, which is why metals used to make fuses generally have a low melting point.

Electric Motors

Electric motors function by means of a magnetic field induced by electrical flow. When current flows through a loop, a magnetic field with specific orientation is generated. By allowing the induced field to interact with an existing stationary magnetic field, a torque can be exerted upon the loop (depending on the orientation of the fields). The loop rotates to align with the existing stationary magnetic field (rotating up to a maximum of 180'). When the current is reversed, the induced magnetic field reverses, and thus opposes the existing stationary magnetic field. Torque is again generated, so the loop rotates 180" to realign. By repeating this process (using alternating current through the loop), the loop spins, generating mechanical work that can turn the axis of a motor. The loop may actually be a series of loops that make up a solenoid.

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General Chemistry

Electrochemistry

Kedox Applications

Chemical Applications (Common Usage of Redox Reactions) In addition to being responsible for most of the energy used to power household devices and heavy equipment, redox chemistry is also useful in the purification of materials, the production of catalytic surfaces, and cosmetic applications in automobile detailing and jewelry plating. The surface of any material that can conduct electricity can be the site of an electrochemical reaction. The different processes involve different reactants and materials for the electrodes. Electrolysis
Electrolysis involves the application of a voltage (addition of electrical energy) to carry out an overall unfavorable process. This is what an electrolytic cell does as well. The goal of electrolysis is not to store charge, however, but to generate less

favorable compounds. It is commonly used to obtain pure samples of gases (such as oxygen and chlorine) and reduced metals that are normally oxidized under standard conditions (such as sodium and calcium). Shown below are Reaction 10.3, the electrolysis reaction of water to form oxygen and hydrogen gas; and Reaction 10.4, the electrolysis reaction of hydrochloric acid to form hydrogen gas and chlorine gas:
2

H2O(l) -+

2HzG) + 1O2(g)
Hz(g) + 1Cl2(g)

Reaction 10.3
2

HCl(aq) ------+

Reaction 10.4
Because hydrogen ion is reduced in both Reaction 10.3 and Reaction 70.4, it forms

on the cathode (reduction occurs at the cathode), and the bubbles of hydrogen
gas can be collected as they rise from the cathode. Chlorine gas and oxygen gas can also be collected from the anode. Generally, the anode and cathode plates in

an electrolysis apparatus are made of an inert material that can conduct electricity. Materials commonly used include carbon (in its graphite allotrope) and platinum. Figure 10-9 below is the basic schematic of an electrolysis
apparatus as applied to Reaction 10.3:

H2(g) forms

the

at cathode
2HzG)
Figure 10-9

O2(g) forms at

the anode
2 H2O(l)

4H+(aq)

+4e-+

---->

O2(g) + 4 H+(aq) + 4 e

To carry out an electrolysis reaction, the applied voltage must be great enough to

overcome the negative voltage of the unfavorable redox reaction.

If

an

excessively large voltage is applied to the cell, then other unfavorable reactions can take place, resulting in multiple products being formed. The ideal scenario is to apply a voltage that is slightly in excess of the absolute value of the voltage for

the unfavorable oxidation-reduction reaction. Because the half-reactions both

have water as the reactant, they need not be separated into half-cells.

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General Chemistry

Electrochemistry

Redox Applications

Example 10.16 When a voltage is applied to the following reaction in the electrochemical cell below, what is true of the gases that form on each electrode and the solution?
2

H2O(l) + 2 Cl-(aq)

-+

1Hz(g) + Ci2(g) +

2 OH-(aq)

A. B. C. D.

HZ(g) bubbles form on the left electrode, Cl2(g) bubbies form on the right electrode, and the pH of the solution gradually increases. H2(g) bubbles form on the right electrode, C12(g) bubbles form on the left electrode, and the pH of the solution gradually increases. H2(g) bubbles form on the left electrode, Cl2@) bubbles form on the right electrode, and the pH of the solution gradually decreases. HZ(g) bubbles form on the right electrode, Cl2(g) bubbles form on the left electrode, and the pH of the solution gradually decreases.

Solution
Because the applied voltage is drawn the way it is, then according to convention, electrons are considered to be flowing from right to left. As a result, reduction takes place on the left electrode, and oxidation takes place on the right electrode.

Hydrogen gas forms bubbles on the left electrode, and chlorine gas forms bubbles on the right electrode. This eliminates choices B and D. Because hydroxide anion is formed as a by-product, the solution becomes basic over time, causing the solution pH to increase. This makes the best answer choice A.
Electroplating Electroplating is the process of reducing ions from solution onto the surface of a conducting material. Reduction occurs at the cathode, so the cathode gains a thin film of the reduced metal on its surface. Practical applications of this include jewelry, chrome-plated car parts, and platinum-plated carbon matrices used in catalytic processes. Electroplating can be used to convert your copper necklace with medallion into a beautiful gold-plated necklace with medallion (increasing your desirability at the local discotheque). The copper necklace is placed at the electrode pole in the cathode cell, which is filled with a solution of gold cations. Gold is reduced and consequently plates out onto the surface of the copper. Electroplating requires a voltage source so that the current (and thus rate of plating) can be controlled. Electroplating is used to maximize the surface area of a catalytic metal, such as platinum and palladium. Catalytic metals are often plated onto the surface of graphite, so that all of the molecules of the precious metal are on the surface and involved in catalysis. This maximizes the utility (surface area) and makes recovery easier (a large solid can be filtered more easily than a small solid). Because the carbon matrix of graphite contains extensive conjugation, graphite conducts electricity, making it a material for use as an electrode. You may recall from organic chemistry that hydrogenation reactions employed platinum metal plated on a carbon support, Pt(C). Copyright
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General Chemistry
Galvanizing

Electrochemistry

Redox Applications

better than fresh water and air. To prevent against this, a metal can be galvanized. Galvanizing involves the addition of a more reactive metal (known as the sacrificial metnl) to be preferentially oxidized over the metal being preserved. Consider a steel-hulled boat, for instance. The boat rests in salt water for most of its life, so it oxidizes at a rapid pace. To avoid this, the steel is galvanized by adding a metal that is easier to oxidize than iron (the major component of steel). A thin, reactive metal plate is added to the surface of the steel hull to prevent the iron in steel from rusting away. Because iron conducts electricity, the galvanizing plate can be placed anywhere, as long as it's in direct contact with the iron and is not submerged in the water.
Example 10.17 \z\4rich of the following metals can be used to galvanize steel?

Metals exposed to the environment oxidize over time. This is especially true when they are exposed to salt water, because salt water conducts electricity

A. Iron B. Nickel C. Potassium D. Ztnc

Solution
\Alhen galvanizing steel, the goal is to protect the iron. The metal added must be more reactive than iron, which has an oxidation potential of +0.44 V, according to

Table 10.1. Iron is the component in steel that needs to be protected, so iron cannot be added to protect iron from oxidation. Choice A is eliminated. Nickel is not reactive enough, with an oxidation potential of +0.23 V, so choice B is eliminated. Potassium is too reactive, with an oxidation potential of +2.92Y. Potassium would explode in water, and while this would minirnize the oxidation of iron in steel, as a general rule, exploding boats are not as effective as nonexploding boats! This eliminates choice C. Ztnc is slightly more susceptible to oxidation than iron, with an oxidation potential of +0.76 V, so zinc is a good galvanizing materiai. Choice D is the best answer.

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ffic ffi
I.

##ffi.,'ffiffiiilffi##HEes'
(r -7)
(B

Water-Based Redox Reaction

pFI Meter and Calomel Cell

II.

14)

III.
IV.
V.

Metallurgy

(15 - 20)

Electrochemical Titration
Redox Titration

(2r - 26)
(27 - 33) (54 - 40)

VI. VII.

Purification of Metals
Calvanic Cell

(4r - 47)
(48 - 54) (55 - 60)

VIII. IX.
X.

Photochemical Cell
Batteries Electrolysis

(6t - 67)
FICI

XI. XII. XIII.

XIV.

Electrolysis of

(68 - 74)

Standard Cells

(7s - 8r)
(82 - 87) (88 - e5) (e4 - roo)

Corrosion Prevention
Electroplating Experiment
Questions not Based on a Descriptive Passage

Electrochemistry Scoring Scale

Raw Score
MCAT Score

84 - 100

15-15

66-85
47 -65

ro-t2
7 -9

34-46

4-6

t-55

t-3

Passage

(Questions 1 - 7)

3.

What is the oxidation state of chlorine in both HOCI

and HCI?

Many oxidation-reduction reactions take place in water. Water provides the medium through which electrons may
transfer. The presence ofions, cations in particular, enhances the conductivity of water. Reactions 1 through 4 are some oxidation-reduction reactions that take place in water, which
acts as a reactant:

,,4.. +l
-V.'"

p-+l in HCI and -l in HOCI C. -l in HCI and +l in HOCI

-t
in HCI and -1 in HoCl

in HCI and +1 in HOCI

Br2(g) + HzO(l) -+ HOBr(aq) + HBr(aq)

Reaction 1 cl2(g) + Hzo(l) -+ Hocl(aq) + HCl(aq) Reaction 2

$(s) + H2Orl)

4.

What is the ionization energy of Rb metal?

A.
B'.
C'.

The value is greater than

1000 kJ

+ KOH(aqt + lHztgl neactii' I 'i

lHz(g)
2

mole The value is less than 1000, but greate.r than 495.9

kJ.
mole The value is less than 495.9,but greater than 418.7

Na(s) + HzO(l) -+ NaOH(aq) +

kJ.
mole
value is less than

Reaction

418.7

kJ

.'l

In Reactions I and 2, the water is not being oxidized or reduced. The water counteracts the charges ofthe halides. In Reactions 3 and 4, the hydrogen of water is being reduced to form hydrogen gas. A correlation can be drawn between ionization energy of the species and the electromotive potential associated with oxidation of the species. The lower the ionization energy, the more favorable the oxidation. The first ionization energy for each ofthe non-aqueous reactants is
listed in Table
1.

mole
ri!ina

L.
""^-"

t Li'

lr'
i

. .

What forms whefiithium iretal is added to water?

.-...' /
'-i

A. B.
,

No reaction is observed.

D. \',

Lithium hydroxide (LiOH) and lithium hydride .-(LiH) form. 'Only lithium hydroxide (LiOH) forms. Q.
Only lithium hydride (LiH)

Compound
B12(g):

Ionization Energy
987.2 1251 418.1 495.9

(,[f')
6

':

'

: t

forms. j \,' '''r

cl2(g):
K(s)
Na(s)

In the reaction of potassium metal in water, what

the oxidizing and reducing agents?

are

Table

' , reducing agent is H2 (hydrogen gas). y'. fne oxidizing agent is H2 (hydrogen
reducing agent is K (potassium).

4L the oxidizing

agent

is K (potassium), and the

gas), and the

The same relative reactivity of the species observed in water can be observed in other solvents. but not with the same absolute energy values as those found in water solvent.
1

Gt',,The oxidizing agent is

"

(potassium), and the

)reducing agent is H2O (water).

Dr" The oxidizing agent is H2O (water), and the

reducing agent is K (potassium).

Which of the following processes does NOT involve the

loss of an electron?

Oxidation .B-': Ionization 'i Conversion of oxidation state from -1 to 0 Dl , Electron affinity
I

-Af

Which

of the following

statements must be TRUE

about redox chemistry in water?

I. II. m.
:,.,

Metals are more easily oxidized than non-metals.

Metals

in

water form metal oxides and metal

L>-.-'

hydroxides.

2. Which of the following reactions is the MOST

favo,rable (has the MOST positive value for E')?

Non-metals in water form metal oxides and metal

hydroxides.

$. B- '. c. 'D.

2 K(s) + Br2(g) -+ 2 KBr(aq) 2 Na(s) + Br2(g) -+ 2 NaBr(aq) 2 K(s) + Cl2(g) -+ 2 KCl(aq) 2 Na(s) + C12(g) -+ 2 NaCl(aq)

',.' ''l "] '

,'''1 A ." I only ,{ Ironty C j I and II only D. II and III only

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Passage

ll

(Questions 8 - 14)

To reduce the reading on a pH meter, which of the

following can be added to a solution?
HCI(aq)

A pH meter is an instrument that uses two electrodes to measure the potential difference between a solution of unknown pH and a standard solution of known pH. Because the potential difference between the solutions is dependent upon the [H+], it is possible to determine the pH from the voltage of the cell. A typical standard cell employed in the electrode of a pH meter is the calomel half-cell, which is
shown as Reaction 1 below: Hg2C12(s)

r: A.

B. NH3(aq) C. NaOH(aq) D. KCI(aq)

*\-';

',

\! '_'

10.

Which of the following would be observed after base

added to a solution monitored by a pH meter?

is

\ st

+ 2e-

--> 2HpOt

2C1-(aq) -1.1.

ReactionPl

*--

--a----\
A

The standard E'""1 for the calomel half-cell is 0.285 V'

Combining this with the Nernst equation provides the

equation used to calculate

Both Eobserved and pH would increase. -#Eo6r".us6 would increase and pH would decrease' --t:-E66ssrvg6 would decrease and pH would increase' *Sf Both Eobserved and pH would decrease'

pH. The Nernst equation is:

t.
I
1

Eobserved = E"cell

0'0592log [H+]
L

Equation

. If the E'ss11 were actually A. -3f

..

Using Equation 1, it is possible to calculate the pH of a solution from the observed voltage of the cell, because the electrode of the pH meter contains the calomel cell' When

0.300 V rather than 0.285 V' what would be true of the pH measured by the pH meter, assuming that no correction is made? The pH determined by the pH meter would be too high, because the E"sell in calculation is too high' The pH determined by the pH meter would be too high, because the E"ss11 in calculation is too low' The pH determined by the pH meter would be too low, because the E's.11 in calculation is too high' The pH determined by the pH meter would be too low, because the E"..11 in calculation is too low'

in contact with the calomel half-cell through a porous membrane, the unknown solution experiences a potential difference. The electrode probe of a pH meter is shown in
Figure
1.

+ +To

circuit with voltmeter

, Ci ''-./ "F.

-'t'-

^ L\.!,''-

12.In

the calomel half-cell, which of the following

is

TRUE?

Reference half-cell

{-34' " D.
13.

-"A-. Chlorin e inHg2Cl2(s) is reduced. .B{, Chlorine inHg2Cl2(s) is oxidized.

Mercury in Hg2Cl2(s) is reduced. Mercury inHg2Cl2(s) is oxidized.

Porous bulb

What is the pH of a solution that shows Eobserved =

0.699

Figure I
Getting an accurate reading of the pH requires that the bulb be neutralized and dried before it is placed into an unknown solution. To preserve the lifetime of the electrodes, they are stored in saturated chloride solutions' Cells must be refilled at least three times a year to prevent crystallization of the salt caused by the evaporation of water.

V?

A .0.7

0' + '::.
oL.'
t

i)

L--

. 4.1 /"D -': 7.0

C

B .1.0

..
l; .

a
-t
o

,i:C

i.

8.

A pH meter would yield what reading in

a 0.010

M HCI
.i..

rj""

solution? A. .01 B. I
2

14. Which of the following does NOT affect the pH of the /*- . ' SOlutiOn? .-, '-t 'l\ i t.. ' .

\/'

. -ry:
A

A chang'e in temPeiature A change in the volume of water solvent A change in the tyPe of solvent A change in the position of the electrode in
solution.

p.7

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Passage

lll

(Questions 15 - 20)

6.

What is the oxidation state of gold in Au(CN)2-?

Metallurgy is the process by which metals are purified.

The metals are often isolated as a pure salt (usually through precipitation), and the salt is purified by either electrolysis or an oxidation-reduction reaction (single displacement). Listed below are industrial methods for purifying gold, zinc, mercury, silicon, and phosphorus.

Gz*r
-c. D.
-1

.x1"+3
-3

{\

c^* 4
I
i

i'
17

','

'

Gold:

Impure samples of gold ores can be treated with

behind. ,e Rx I: 4 Au(s) + 8 CN-(aq) + OZG) + H2O(l) -+ -2

Rx

aqueous cyanide anion in the presence of oxygen gas. Other contaminants in the ore can be filtered out. The gold cyanide complex can then be reduced by zinc metal, leaving pure gold

In the purification of zinc metal, which of the following

statements must be true?

I.
III.

Sulfur is reduced in the overall process. Zinc is reduced in the overall process. Oxygen gas is the oxidizing agent.

4 Au(CN)2-(aq) + 4 OH-(aq)

m.

II:

Zn(s) + 2 Au(CN)2-(aq) -+ Zn(CN)a2- + 2 Au(s)

.-.k"," llonly

Zinc: Zinc sulfide can be mined and then purified by

exposure to a hot stream of oxygen gas. The zinc oxide that forms can be treated with finely powdered carbon at 700"C to generate carbon monoxide and pure zinc metal.

- B. III only .E . I and II only

D..l II and III only

Rx
Rx

I:
II:

2 ZnS(s) + 3 6zG)

-+ 2ZnO(g+

2 SOite)

ZnO(s) + C(s) -+ Zn(s) + CO(g)

Mercury: Like zinc, mercury sulfide can be mined and then purified by exposure to a hot stream of oxygen gas. The mercury oxidethat forms can be heated. drive off 02 gas. 99 RxI: 2 HgS(s)+3Oz(g)--) 2HgO(s)+2 SO2(g) t'i Rx II: 2 HgO(s) + heat -+ 2 Hg(s) + O2(g)
'v:.

18.

What is the reduction half-reaction in the purification of silicon?

A. C(s) +2e- -+
---B:" C(s) + 2 e- +

Silicon: Silicon oxide (known as sand) can be treated with

finely powdered carbon at 1350'C to yield carbon monoxide and pure silicon (a liquid at that temperature). Rx

.; SiO2(s) +2e- -+ Si(l) + Oz2-(e) alllsio2(s) + 4 e- -r Si(l) + 2O2-(e)

I orrnr -+ co(e) 2 -"

co(e)

I:

SiO2(l) + 2 C(s)

- flQ + 2 CO(e)

(1350'C)

Phosphorus: Calcium phosphate (the major component of tooth enamel) can be treated with silicon dioxide (sand) and finely powdered carbon (charcoal) to yield calcium silicate,
carbon monoxide, and pure phosphorus (occurring naturally in the tetra-atomic state).

19.

Which reactions involves the oxidation of oxygen?

l

, '

Rx

I:

2 Ca3(POa)2(s) + l0 C(s) + 6 SiO2(s) -+ 6 CaSiOr(s) + 10 CO(e) +

.-*- The purification of gold, zinc, and silicon ( B. Thepurificationofmercury - 2 * Q \ -t7 The purification of gold, zinc, and mercury D. The purification of phosphorus

P4(s)

The multi-reaction processes require some form of purification between the two reactions. Often, filtering the product mixture through a molecular sieve works well. This removes any impurities that are too large to fit through the pore, or too small to be caught, depending on the design on the sieve. Solid oxides are assumed to be pure.

20

In the purification of mercury metal:

A. ..-{:'
,C .

mercury is reduced by one electron when HgO is

heated.

mercury is oxidized by two electrons when HgO is

heated.

\S.

Wtrat is the role of CN- in the first reaction in the

purification of gold?

) L. The cyanide serves as a reducing agent. ), ,; ' 9.. The cyanide serves as an oxidizing agent. -t'l 'C. The cyanide serves as a Lewis acid. D . The cyanide serves as a Lewis base.
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mercury is oxidized by two electrons when HgS is "-. _ treated with oxygen gas. n )sutfur is oxidized by six electrons when HgS is treated with oxygen gas.

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Passage

lV

(Questions 21 - 26)

To test the Nernst equation, a student titrates the cathode

cell of a zinc-lead galvanic cell with potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O) under acidic conditions. The lead dication forms
an insoluble precipitate (PbCr2O7(s)) with the dichromate dianion. As the lead concentration lowers, the cell potential decreases. Reaction I is the redox reaction of lead dication with zinc metal.

Equation 1 can be used to determine the exact voltage at any point during the titration prior to the equivalence point. Equation 2 canbe used to determine the exact voltage at any point during the titration after the equivalence point.
Eobs = Ecell - o'059 1o,

4
[pb2*]

Equation
Eobs = Ecerr -

I
Ic:?:12

Pb2+(aq)

+ Zn(s) -)
Reaction

Zn2+1aq7
1

Pb(s)

Q.p 6rtzn2if
2

lCr2C,72-l

Figure 1 shows the titration apparatus and the two half-cells of the electrochemical cell. A voltmeter measures the
potential difference throughout the duration of the reaction.

Equation
experiment.

Figure 2 graphs the voltage as a function of time for the

C)

oo

mL 0.10 M
C9O72-(aq) added

Figure

21.
Figure
1

The reduced voltage prior to reaching the equivalencpoint can be attributed to which of the following?

A. B.
D

The precipitation ofPb2+(aq) from solution

Competing reduction half-reactions betu ee:

Pb2+(aq) and Cr 20 72- (aq) A redox reaction with Pb2+(aq) andCr2Ol-@qt

The voltage of the cell drops almost negligibly until just before the equivalence point, where it drops rapidly. Once the lead has been completely precipitated, excess dichromate anion can be reduced, as shown in Reaction 2.
14 H+(aq)

C. .

Competing oxidation half-reactions betu e::

Pb2+(aq)
and. Cr

20 72- (aq)

Cr2O72-1aq) + 3

Zn(s)
2

-r
22.
The higher maximum voltage following the equivalen:'r point can be attributed to which of the following?

3 Zn2+1aq1 + 2 Cr3+1aq; + 7 H2O(l)

Reaction

The following voltage data can be used to determine the

exact voltage at any point during the titration. Before equivalence, the voltage depends on the reaction of lead dication and zinc metal. After equivalence, the voltage
depends on the reaction of dichromate anion and zinc metal.

A. B.
C

Pb2+(aq) has a lower oxidation potential tl-'ar Cr2of-@q). Cr2O12-(aq) has a lower oxidation potential ili,n
Pb2+(aq).

Pb2+(aq) + 2

e- -r Pb(s) Zn2+1aq1 + 2 e- -+ Zn(s) Cr2OfGq)+ 14 H+(aq) + 3 e- -+

E'=

-0.13 V

Pb2+(aq) has a higher reduction potential l:-ur

E' = -0.76 V
2 Cr3+1aq; + 7 H2O(i)

Crzo*-@q).

D.

Cr2O12-(aq) has a higher reduction potential t"ilrn

Pb2+(aq).

E'=

+1.33 V

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23.

Given that zinc sulfate and lead sulfate are used in the reaction, what is the role of sulfate anion?

Passage

(Questions 27 - 33)

. B. C. D.
A

To be oxidized
To be reduced To precipitate excess dichromate To migrate through the salt bridge

Oxidation-reduction (redox) titration can be used to ascertain the concentration of transition metal cations in solution. Other techniques, like ultraviolet spectroscopy, visible spectroscopy, and precipitation may also work. The optimal method is solution-dependent. A redox titration is similar to an acid-base titration, except that the titrant is an oxidizing or reducing agent. For a cation such as titanium
+2, an oxidizing agent can be added quantitatively to oxidize the titanium dication to a +4 charge. It is critical to balance the redox equation to determine the stoichiometric ratio of the titrant to the reactant in the solution.

24

Why should the circuit be left open until the start of the
titration?

. B. C.
A

D.

To prevent the cell from charging voltage To prevent the cell from exchanging electrodes To prevent the lead and zinc from crossing through the salt bridge To prevent the cell from depleting voltage

A student fills three flasks with iron sulfate solution, so that each flask may be titrated by an oxidizing agent. The oxidation state of the iron is initially +2. After titration, the iron is oxidized into a +3 cation. This means that the
oxidizing agent removes one electron from each iron dication. Iron sulfate is fairly soluble in water, so it completely dissociates when mixed into water: The contents of each of the three flasks is listed in Figure 1. Flask
Flask

1:

1.52 grams FeSO4 is added to enough water to

make 100 mL solution.

2

5.

What must be true about the zinc half-cell?

2:
3;

1.52 grams FeSO4 is added to enough water to make 200 mL solution. 3.04 grams FeSO4 is added to enough water to make 100 mL solution.

A. It is the oxidation half-cell found at the anode. B. It is the oxidation half-cell found at the cathode. C. It is the reduction half-cell found at the anode. D. It is the reduction half-cell found at the cathode.

Flask

Figure

The molecular mass of FeSO4 is 152 grams per mole. A 20.00-mL aliquot from each of the three flasks is titrated

with 0.020 M KMnOa(aq) solution in three separate titrations. The unbalanced equation for the oxidation-

26.

The observed voltage reaches a minimum when:

reduction reaction that takes place between permanganate anion and iron dication is shown in Reaction 1.
Fe2+1aq;

. B. C. D.
A

[Pb2+]in i1> lCr2O12-ladded. [Pb2+]in i, = ]Cr2Of-ladded.

+ MnO4-(aq; --)
Reaction

F"3*1uq)
1

MnO(s)

mL 0.1 M Pb2+init > mL 0.1 M Cr2O72-added. mL 0.1 M Pb2+;nir = mL 0.1 M Cr2O72-added.

MnO4-(aq) is a purple solution, which causes some difficulty in reading the volume of titrant in the burette. The product MnO(s) is a brown solid that precipitates from the solution. The Fe2+1aq; solution is clear. The titrations can be monitored by observing the color change of the solution.
When the equivalence point is reached, the titration is stopped and the volume of titrant added is recorded. The concentration of the initial iron dication solution can be determined, if the concentration of the titrant solution is known. Conversely, the concentration of the titrant solution can be determined, if

the concentration of the initial iron dication solution is known. Equation I is used to determine the concentration of either species, when only one concentration is known. Deviations from the formula are found with reactions that
have different coefficients.

eq x Ms61u1;6n x Vsolution = eq x M1i116nt x Vtitrant

Equation
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27

The endpoint of the titration of ferrous ion (Fe2+) by permanganate (MnOa-) could be detected by which of
the following?

32

Given the values for the reduction half-cells of Fe2+ and Fe3+, what is the E' for the oxidation half-reaction of
the titration ofFlask l?

. B. C. D.

The clear solution turning and remaining brown The brown solution turning and remaining clear The violet solution turning and remaining clear

Fe3+ + 3eFe2+ + 2e-

-+ -+

Fe Fe

-0.04

-0.44v

The clear solution turning and remaining violet

A. +0.76 V B. +0.40 V
D.

c. -0.40 v

-0.76 V

28. lf

Na2Cr2O7(aq) solution of unknown concentration to reach the endpoint, then a 20.00-mL sample from Flask 3 would require which of the

a 20.00-mL sample from flask 2 requires a 17'50-mL

aliquot

of

33

following?

The BEST container for the titration would be made of which of the following materials?

A
B

. A 70.00-mL aliquot of Na2Cr2O7(aq) solution . A 25.00-mL aliquot of Na2Cr2O7(aq) solution C . A 17.50-mL aliquot of Na2Cr2O7(aq) solution D . A 8.75-mL aliquot of Na2Cr2O7(aq) solution

A. Aluminum metal B. Glass C. Copper metal D. Polyethylene

9.

Which of the following is the reducing agent in the titration of Flask I with KMnO4(aq) solution?

A. KMnO4(aq) B. MnO(s) C. Fe2+(aq) D. Fe3+(aq)

30.

Which of the following is the oxidizing agent in the

titration of Flask 2 with Na2Cr2O7(aq) solution?

A. Na2Cr2O7(aq) B. CrzOl(s) C. Fe2+(aq) D. Fe3+(aq)

31.

Which of the following is the ratio of Na2Cr2O7(aq) to Fe3+1aq; in the titration of Flask 2, where CtzOf-@q) is reduced into CrZO:(s)?

A. B.

1 1

I
3

C,2 D. I

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Passage

Vl

(Questions 34 - 40)

6.

What is the oxidation srate of gold in AuCl4-?

Most precious metals can be found in nature in the form of an ore with an oxide coating. An ore is defined as an alloy of two or more metals homogeneously mixed. The oxide layer on the outside of the ore protects the inner core from oxidation. This occurs because metal in the core cannot transfer electrons through the oxide coating. To isolate selected precious metals, the ore is extracted in its entirety and then selectively treated to separate the metals, often in ion form. Gold, for instance, is purified by first converting it to AuCl4- and then selectively precipitating the AuCl4- anion with some cation. The gold in the anion is next reduced to gold metal and thus is purified. The reduction of gold requires the application of current to the solution to plate out the gold onto the cathode (which must be an inert electrode
from which gold can be removed easily).

A. B. C. D.

-3

0
+1

+3

7.

Since silver is in a column of the periodic table that

expresses filled d-shell stability when electrons fill the orbitals, what electronic configuration is observed with silver cation (Ag+)?

A. B. C. D.

[Kr]Ss2+48 [Kr]Ss1+49 1rr1ss14610

Jrrl+610

Recently, scientists have aimed their research at

techniques useful for mining precious metals from sea water.

The plan involves running a microscopic net lined with

sequestering agents that selectively bind target metals. The

selectivity can be carried out by cation size or binding

strength of the ligands in the sequestering agent. Once the sequestering agent has bound the metal, it can be isolated and the metal can be released by lowering the pH

38. A
A

sequestering agent should contain which following structural features?

Atoms Atoms Atoms Atoms

of the

drastically. The free precious metal cations can then

be

reduced by applying a current to the solution and plating the metal onto the cathode. Table I shows the standard reduction potentials for some precious metals in water:

. B. C. D.

with no lone pairs of electrons able to donate electron pairs without completed octet valences that are good Lewis acids

Ag+(aq) + Pt2+(aq) +
Au3+1aq1

I e- + Ag(s) 2e' -+ Pr(s)

3 e-

0.80 V

-+ Au(s)
1

1.20V 1.50 V

9.

Which of the following is the mass percent of gold in

AuCl4-?

Table
3

4.

Gold trication could be recovered in the form of gold metal by adding which of the following to the solution?

A. Cl2(g) B. Ag+(aq) C. Zn(s) D. Pt2+(aq)

4

A. Less than25Vo B. Between 25Vo and5j%o C. Between 50Vo andl5Vo D. Greater than'|SVo

0.

Which of the following reactions would produce the LOWEST (or most negative) voltage?

A. Ag+(aq) +
3

Cl-

-+

Ag(s) +

5.

Because the Cl-(aq) anion is NOT oxidized by the

it can be safely assumed that the reduction potential of Cl2(g) is which of the following?
Ag+(uq) cation,
Less than -0.80 volts

B. Pt2+(aq) + 2 Cl- -r Pr(s) + Cl2G) C. Au3+1aq; + 3Cl--+ Au(s) + 3Ctz(g)

l.rrrrt,
2

A. B. C. D.

D. All of the above reactions would require

voltage.

the same

Between -0.80 and 0.0 volts Between 0.0 and 0.80 volts Greater than 0.80 volts

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Passage

Vll

(Questions 41 - 47)
a

43

Which of the following combinations does NOT result in a galvanic cell when the reduction half-cell carries an
E" value greater than zero?

The galvanic cell, by definition, is a cell utilizing

favorable redox reaction that releases energy in the form of electron flow. The cell is composed of two half-cells: an oxidation half-cell and a reduction half-cell. The oxidation half-reaction takes place in the anode half-ce1l, and overall electrons are released from the anode half-cell. The reduction half-reaction takes place in the cathode half-cell, and overall electrons are absorbed at the cathode half-cell. Figure 1
shows a standard galvanic cel1.

A. E'oxidation < 0; lE"1g6u61isnl > lE'6ai6stionl B. E'oxidation > 0; lE"1s6us1;enl > lE'61i6stionl C. E"oxidation < 0i lE"166us1;6nl < lE'616s11sn1 D . E'oxidation > 0; lE'166us1i611 < lE'611631i6n1
44

What is NOT true about a galvanic cell?

A. B. C. D.

The electron flow is from the anode to the cathode' Reduction occurs at the cathode. The voltage of the cell decreases as the cell runs in the discharging direction.

Salt bridge (allows for anion

Ecell starts greater than zero and finishes when E""1 is less than zero.

45.

What BEST describes the initial composition

galvanic cell?

of

A.
Anode Cathode

Figure
Cu2+1aq; + Ni(s)

Cu(s) + Ni2+(aq)
L

B. C. D.

Reaction

The overall voltage of the cell is the sum of the half-cell voltages for the two component reactions. Equation I shows this calculation.

E'cell=E'1s6+E'.x Equation I
Also by definition, a galvanic cell has a positive cell voltage overall. Reduction is defined as the gain ofelectrons, so reduction occurs at the cathode of a battery.
4

The cathode half-cell contains a cation in a high oxidation state, and the anode half-cell contains a metal with a low ionization energy. The cathode half-cell contains a cation in a high oxidation state, and the anode half-cell contains a metal with a high ionization energy. The cathode half-cell contains a cation in a lou oxidation state, and the anode half-cell contains a metal with a low ionization energy. The cathode half-cell contains a cation in a lou oxidation state, and the anode half-cell contains a metal with a high ionization energy.

6.

What is the ratio of reducing agent to oxidizing agent in

the following reaction?

1.

In the galvanic cell shown in Figure

ati

1,

oxidation occurs

MnO+-(aq) + Al(s)

MnO(s) + AlO2-(aq)

A. B. C. D.

the anode, because electrons flow from the anode to

the cathode.

the cathode, because electrons flow from the anode

A. 3:5 B. 5:3 C. 2:3 D.3:2

47

to the cathode.
the anode, because electrons flow from the cathode to the anode. the cathode, because electrons flow from the cathode to the anode.

What must occur after the shown in Figure 1?

is closed

the cell

I. II. Itr.

Copper metal builds up on the cathode. The overall cell voltage is greater than 0.00 V.

Anions flow through the salt bridge from th;

cathode to the anode.

2.

Which of the following half-reactions could occur at the anode in a galvanic cell?

A. Cl2(g) + 2e- -+ 2 Cl-(aq) B. Na+(g) + 1 e- -+ Na(s) C. VO3-(aq)+3e-+VO(s) D. Cr2O3(s) -+ Cro+2-(aq) + 3 eCopyright

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A. I only B. I and II only C . II and III only D. I, II' and III

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Passage

Vlll

(Questions 48 - 54)

50.

According to the diagram of the cell, photons of light directly cause which of the following?

Photoelectric cells function by absorbing photons and converting photon energy into electrical flow (electricity). The electricity generated is then collected and stored as a

potential difference in the form of a cell (battery). The electricity is generated when the photon strikes an ionizing plate (an electrode) and discharges an electron from the ionizing plate. The electron flows through the wire from one
electrode to the other electrode where it is then stored. The potential builds up across the two plates. This potential difference is known as capacitance. A sample photoelectric cell is shown in Figure l.
51

. B. C. D.
A

The The The The

anode to be oxidized anode to be reduced cathode to be oxidized cathode to be reduced

The BEST material for the anode (ionizing plate) would be which of the following?

e+

A. A metal B. A metal oxide C. A non-metal D. A non-metal oxide

2.

The overall conversion of energy in a photoelecric cell is from:

(Ionizing plate)

(Storage plate)

Figure

A. potential energy to electrical energy. B. electrical energy to potential energy. C. radiation energy to electrical energy. D. radiation energy to potential energy.
3.

The incident photon must have an energy high enough to overcome the electrical potential for the cell; otherwise, the cell cannot build up charge difference. Cells are chosen with a negative (unfavorable) E' value so that upon the addition of the energy, they build up a charge that can discharge in a favorable manner. Equation 1 shows the conversion between free energy and cell voltage: where F = 96,500 C and

When the cell discharges, it will:

A. B.
C

AG = -nFE' E' = Ered * Eox.

1

dissipate the most energy initially, because it has the highest voltage at the start. dissipate the least energy initially, because it has the highest voltage at the start. dissipate a constant amount of energy, because the cell has a constant voltage throughout the
discharging period. dissipate an increasing amount of energy, because the anode is dissolving throughout the discharging period.

Equation

The efficiency of the cell is determined by comparing the energy of the incident photon relative to the stored energy of the cell. An efficient cell dissipates little or no energy.
4

D.

8.

An electrolytic cell:

A. B.
C

produces energy by way of a favorable oxidationreduction reaction.

4.

What is true about the current, I, at points a, b, and c in the following circuit?

produces energy

by way oxidation-reduction reaction.

stores energy by way

of an unfavorable
favorable oxidation-

t2v

of

D.
9.

reduction reaction. stores energy by way of an unfavorable oxidationreduction reaction.

For a photochemical cell to work, the energy of the

photon absorbed must exceed:

A. the AG for oxidation at the anode. B. the AG for the overall oxidation/reduction C. the ionization potential for the anode. D. the electron affinity for the cathode.
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reaction.

A. Ia>Ib>Ic B. Ic>Ib>Iu C. Ic>Iu>Ib D. IU>Ic>Iu

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Passage

lX

(Questions 55 - 60)
household

Dry cell batteries are common in many

products such as flashlights and radios. They contain no aqueous solution through which ions migrate, but instead
contain a gelatinous paste of concentrated aqueous NHaCl. It is important that the electrons can easily flow through the membrane. Dry cell batteries are convenient because of their small size and long lifetime. A similar battery is the alkaline manganese cell, which exploits the same reaction, but in a basic medium. In a basic medium, the battery employs the lollowing two hal f-cel I reactions:

All of the cells function in a similar manner, allowing substitutions to be made to achieve different voltages. The lifetime of a battery is determined by the quantity of species.
5

5.

What is the overall balanced reaction for a nickelcadmium battery?

A. B. C. D.

Cd + 2 NiO2H + 2 OH- -+ Cd(OH)2 + 2 Ni(OH)2 Cd + 2 NiO2H + 2H2O -+ Cd(OH)2 + 2 Ni(OH)2 2 Cd+ NiO2H + 2 OH- + 2 Cd(OH)2 + Ni(OH)2 2Cd + NiO2H +2H2O -+ 2 Cd(OH)2 + Ni(OH)2

Anode: Zn + 2 OH- -+
Cathode: MnO2 +

ZnO(s) + H2O + 2 e'

lUzO

1 e-

-+

MnZO: + OH-

6.

What is the oxidation state change for manganese in the

ZnlMnO2battery?

In lieu of manganese oxide, the cells can also use silver oxide and mercury oxide. In acidic medium, the dry cell
battery employs the following two half-cell reactions.

Anode: Zn -+ Zn2+ + 2 eCathode: MnO2 + NH4+ + I e- -+

A. B. C. D.
7.

Mn Mn Mn Mn

goes goes goes goes

from from from from

+4 +4 +2 +2

to +6
to +3 to +6 to +3

l}r/rn2Q

HzO + NH3
5

The overall cell potential (E") for the dry cell battery is slightly greater than 1.50 V. The nickel-cadmium battery is
a rechargeable battery as well. The nickel-cadmium battery (also known as the nicad battery) is found in calculators and

Which of the following reactions represents the cathode

reaction in a zinc-mercury oxide battery at pH = 10?

electric shavers. The following two reactions are employed

for the nickel-cadmium battery:

A. Zn-)Zn2+ +2eB. Zn +2OH-+ZnO(s) +H2O+2eC. HgO + 2 NH4+ + 2 e- -+Hg + H2O + 2 NH3 D. HgO+ H2O +2 e- -) Hg+2 OH8.

Anode:

Cd + 2 OH- -+ Cd(OH)2 + 2 e1 e-

Cathode: NiOOH +H2O +

-+ Ni(OH)z +

OH5

battery has a fairly low voltage. The outer wall of the anode solution is initially the
cadmium metal, but as the cell runs, the cadmium dissolves

A typical nickel-cadmium

Which of the following reactions CANNOT take pla;:

at the anode?

away. Figure 1 shows a cross section of a typical nicad

battery. As drawn, the outer casing contains zinc metal (in lieu of cadmium) in a basic potassium hydroxide solution. The cathode is made of HgO (NiOZH in typical nicad
batteries), which reduces on the surface of a stainless steel electrode. The electrons flow to the top of the cathode. The insulation holds the cell together. lnsulation

A. B. C. D.

2 FeO + 2 OH- -r Fe2O3 + H2O + 2 eAg2O + H2O + 2e- -+ Ag(s) + 2 OHTi(OH)2 + 2 OH- -+TrO2+H2O +2eV2O3 + 4 OH- -+ V2O5 + 2H2O + 4 e-

9.

The electrons in a dry cell battery flow from:

A
B

the outer casing to the surface of the stainless :::f-'

cap.

. C. .

one wall of the core to the other wall of the core

bottom of the insulator to the top of the stair:l:l'.

steel cap.

D
.#?,'-'@rltiiiLiitllllllll llliiltititiiiiii jiNf {linnni

from the stainless steel cap to the wall of the cc:;

60.
Solution of HgO in a basrc medium of Zn(OH)2/KOH Solution of Zn powder in KOH

After time, what is observed with the nickei-cadn--in

battery?

Figure
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A. B. C. D.
292

Electrons build up in the anode. Cadmium metal builds up in the anode. Nickel hydroxide builds up in the anode. Cadmium hydroxide builds up in the anode.

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Passage

(Questions 61 - 67)

62.

In an electrolytic cell with a molten salt:

One type of electrolysis referred to as electropLating, is a technique used either to purify a gas or to obtain a pure solid of an easily oxidized metal. For instance, sodium metal and

B. C. D.

chlorine gas can be obtained by treating molten sodium chloride salt with a current of substantial voltage. The
applied voltage must be greater than the voltage released upon the oxidation of sodium metal to sodium cation, coupled with the reduction of chlorine gas to chloride anions. If aqueous sodium chloride is used, hydrogen gas is obtained rather than sodium metal, because less voltage is required to reduce protic hydrogen cations than sodium cations. Table 1 shows the voltages associated with selected reduction half-reactions:

boiling point of the electrode must be less than melting point of the salt. melting point of the electrode must be less than melting point of the salt. the boiling point of the electrode must be greater than the melting point of the salt. the melting point of the electrode must be greater than the melting point of the salt.
the the the the

Reaction

emf
1.36 volts 1.09 volts 0.34 volts 0.00 volts -0.23 volts -0.76 volts

Clz(e) + 2e- -+ ZCl' BrZ(1) + 2e- -+ 2Br Cu2+ + 2 e- -+ Cu(s) 2H+ + 2e- -+ H2G) Ni2+ + 2 e- -+ Ni(s) Zn2+ + 2 e- -+ Zn(s) Mn2+ + 2 e- --r Mn(s)

63

When must a molten salt be used rather than an aqueous

solution?

B.
C

-l

18 volts

D.

Table
A

When the oxidation potential of the cation is larger than the oxidation potential of hydrogen in water When the oxidation potential of the cation is less than the oxidation potential of hydrogen in water When the reduction potential of the cation is larger than the reduction potential of hydrogen in water When the reduction potential of the cation is less than the reduction potential of hydrogen in water

standard electrolysis apparatus is shown in Figure 1. The anode is the right electrode, and the cathode is the left electrode in conventional electrolytic cells. There is no salt bridge required when both electrodes exist in the same cell.

64.

What is TRUE about the left electrode of the standard electrolysis cell that releases hydrogen and chlorine
gases

from aqueous hydrochloric acid?

. The left electrode is the anode, where H2(g) forms. B. The left electrode is the anode, where Cl2(g) forms. C. The left electrode is the cathode, where H2(g) D.
forms.

The left electrode is the cathode, where Cl2(g)

forms.

Figure

Reduction occurs at the cathode, while oxidation occurs at the anode. The voltage necessary to run the cell gradually increases over time, because the concentrations change as the cell runs. Equation 1, the Nernst equation, is used to determine the cell voltage as the concentrations vary, where Q is the ratio of the anode cation concentration to the cathode
cation concentration. Eobserved

65

Which of the following reactions would NOT

observed when the indicated voltage is applied?

be

E'cell - 0'059 1ot

n
1

Equation

A. NiCl2(l) + Ni(s) + Clz(e) from 1.75 V B. ZnClZ{0) -+ Zn(s) + Cl2(g) from 2.25 Y C. NiBr2(l) + Ni(s) + Brz(l) from 1.60V D. ZIBTZQ) + Zn(s) + BrZ(l) from 1.50 V

61.

When aqueous sodium chloride undergoes electrolysis, at25"C, what are the gases formed?

A. Na(g) and Cl2(g) B. Hz(e) and Clz(e) C. Na(e) and OzG) D. Hz(e) and O2(g)
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66.

Why does copper metal plate from CuCl2(aq), while

nickel metal does NOT plate from NiCl2(aq)?

Passage

Xl

(Questions 68 - 74)

A. E'red(Cu2+; > E'rcd(H+; > E'rcd(Ni2+) B. E"1s611q;2+; > E"1sd(H+; > E"1sd(Cu2+) C. E"red(Cu2+; > E'1sd(Ni2+; > E'1gd(H+) D. E'1g61H+) > E"red(Cu2+; > E'rcd(Ni2+)

Pure gases can be obtained through a process known as electrolysis. Electrolysis is the cleaving of a compound

using an applied voltage.

A typical

example

is

the

conversion of water liquid into hydrogen gas and oxygen gas.

Electrolysis can also be used to form metals from cationic salts. Figure 1 is a schematic layout of an electrolysis cell used industrially to make chlorine gas from aqueous sodium
chloride:

7.

Which of the following electrolysis reactions can be carried out in an aqueous solution, as well as in a
molten salt?

1n,,,,

A. CuBr2(l) -+ Cu(s) + Brz(l) B. MnCl2(l) -+ Mn(s) + Cl2G) C. ZnCl2Q) -+ Zn(s) + Clz(g) D. NiBrz(l) -+ Ni(s) + Br2(l)

t
Figure
1

.'rtrl

The oxidation of chloride anion must use less voltage than the oxidation of the oxygen of water; otherwise, the reaction must be carried out in the absence of water. Sodiun transfers electrons from the cathode of the applied voltage ir the lower electrolytic region to the hydrogens of water in the upper galvanic region. Because the voltage is reducin-E sodium, the applied voltage must be high enough to reduce sodium cation and oxidize chloride anion' Heat energf is
released when the sodium metal reduces the hydronium ion r.' water. The appropriate half-cell reactions for the electro1l s.' apparatus shown in Figure I are listed below:

Clz(g) + 2e- -+ 2
H+(aq) + 1e-

Cl-(aq) +1.36 V -2.71V Na+(aq) + 1e- +Na(s)

-+

trrtt,

0.00 V

8.

Overall, what occurs in the cell as written?

. Na is oxidized, and Cl is reduced. B. Na is reduced, and Cl- is oxidized. C . H+ is oxidized, and Cl- is reduced. D . H+ is reduced, and Cl- is oxidized.
A

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69.

What must be true regarding the applied voltage in

Figure 1?

74.

Which of the following is the STRONGEST

agent?

reducing

A. It must lie between 0 and 1.36 volts. B . It must lie between .36 and 2.71 volts' C. It must lie between 2.71 and 4.07 volts. D. It must be greater than 4.07 volts.
1

A. Na+(aq) B. Na(s) C. Cl-(aq)

D'

Hz(e)

70.

The overall reaction is:

A. NaCl(aq) + HCI(aq) -+ Hz(g) + Na(s) + Clz(g) B. Na+(aq) + H2O(1) -+ HzG) + Na(s) + Oz(g) C. NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) + Hz(g) + NaOH(aq) + Clz(e) D. NaCl(aq) + Hz(g) + HzO(l) + Na(s) + Clz(g)

71.

Which of the following statements describes sodium

cation in the electrolysis cell?

I. II. Itr.

Sodium cation is more favorably reduced than

hydronium cation.

Sodium cation
segment

of

reduced in the salt solution the cell, because it can cross the

is

membrane into mercury metal'

The [Na+] in the NaCl(aq) solution that enters the electrolytic cell is greater than the [Na+] in the
NaCl(aq) solution that leaves the cell.

A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D . I, II, and III

2.

Electron flow is defined as moving:

A. B. C. D.

from anode to cathode in both the battery and the

electrolytic cell. from cathode to anode in both the battery and the electrolytic cell. from anode to cathode in the battery, and from the cathode to the anode in the electrolytic cell' from cathode to anode in the battery, and from the anode to the cathode in tbe electrolytic cell.

3.

In an electrolytic cell, what must be TRUE about the

cell and battery voltages?

A. Both values are positive; Ebutt"ry > E.*. B. Both values are positive; Ebutt"ry < E.*. C. Ebattery > 0 and E.* < 0; Ebattery > lErxl' D. EUatt".y > 0 and E.* < 0; Ebattery < lErxl'

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Passage

Xll

(Questions 75 - Bl)

75. In Cell I,

the anode and electron flow are correctly

A researcher sets up an electrochemical cell, Cell 1 in Figure 1 below, by placing a strip of zinc metal into a solution of 0.10 M ZnSO4 in the left half-cell and a strip of copper metal into a solution of 0.10 M CuSO4 in the right half-cell. The two metal strips are connected by a copper wire connected to a voltmeter. The half-cells then are
connected by a string soaked in NaZSO+(aq).

described by which of the following statements?

The anode is the zinc electrode, and the electron ___-$o* is from right to left. (-n. the anode is the zinc electrode, and the electron flow is from left to right.

--d,

r'l

C. D.
_ 1

The anode is the copper electrode, and the electron flow is from right to left. The anode is the copper electrode, and the electron flow is from left to right.
ei 1..,, -! ? ,. ,." '' i '' .. r\
r

.j*--t 76

1''-1

Cell I is BEST described as which of the following?

A. An electrolytic cell Bi A concentration cell CelAgalvaniccell-'-- ''"' -D; Achargingcell L.t

'i'

" -'--ri'
l-/

-i t, \ t.'
iq

The researcher next creates a second cell, Cell 2 in Figure 2 below, by placing a strip of copper metal into a solution of

M CuSO4 in the left half-cell and a strip of copper metal into a solution of 1.00 M CuSO4 in the right half-cell.
0.001

7..*: lf the string in Cell I were replaced by a copper wire. { whichi-f the following would be the cell potential foi i-r Cell I ?

-.

The two metal strips are connected by a copper wire connected to a voltmeter. The half-cells are then connected
by a string soaked in Na2SO4(aq).

\ '/ A. 1.46v J ,1 ,-.."--'1. :1 --'-'t ^T "'"' 5fi'rov 4,' 4: ! a{ {' c. 0.76 v D. 0.00 v r' i ' r*--r''i
"1

-i:

')''t

Salt bridge

A.
\/

ouof the following are observed, once the switch ir

)
Cell 2 is closed, EXCEPT:

-. ,\ --.-

from left to -ffilectrons flowno electron flow right, gradualii is observed. slowing, until to ,
increases.

qB-. The mass of the left copper electrode decreases while the mass of the right copper electrode
C

. The copper .

cation concentration

in the ngh:

i'
{:

Figure

f,

.-D

electrode decreases to a value of roughly 0.50 M. The copper cation concentration in the left electro'tre increases to a value of approximately 1.00 M.

in a concentration cell is the equilibrating of concentration in the two half-cells. The first cell is driven by the standard cell potential. Listed in Table 1 below are the reduction potentials for selected standard half-cells:

9.

Half-reaction As+ + le- -+ As

Cu2+ + 2e- -+ Cl Fe3+ + 3e- -+ Fe Niz+ + 2e- -+ Ni FeZ+ + 2e- -+ Fe CrJ+ + 3e- -+ Cr znZ+ + 2e- --> Zn

E'.oll
0.80 v 0.34 V -0.04 v -0.23 V -0.44 V -0.73 V -0.76 V
1.66
1

Given that the cell potential can be calculated b1 :'t following formula, what is the cell potential in Cell I
E=

E'- o.?tn tor q

A. 0.177 V B. 0,089 V c. 0.517 V

D.
0.429 V

AIJ+ + 3e-

-+ Al
Table

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80

. What is the standard cell potential for Cell 1? /-''(A. 1.10 v B. 0.42 V c'. 2.20v
"6.
-0.+zv

Passage

Xlll

(Questions 82 - 87)

With items made from metal, corrosion is a major problem. Corrosion is the air-induced oxidation of metal in
the presence of moisture. Water serves as a solvent through which anions and cations may flow, to assist in carrying out the oxidation-reduction process. Several techniques have been

developed to minimize, and even eliminate, the effects of corrosion. The techniques of concern are galvanizing, coating, and cathodic protection (the insertion of sacrificial

metal). Each has its benefits and drawbacks.

81.

What are the coefficients when the following equation is

balanced?

H2O(l) + ClO3-(aq) + Mg(s) -+

Cl-(aq) + Mg2+1aq; + OH-(aq)

x.2 '-N e 6-:z

p.3
\;,

I I
2

2->l:2:4 3->l:3:3 3->2:3:6 3->1:3:6

'
.1''. ,.!

Galvanifing: Galvanizing is the process of mixing two metals of different oxidation potentials. One of the metals is oxidized preferentially over the other, leaving behind the other metal in its elemental form. For instance, iron can be galvanized with zinc so that zinc oxidizes away, leaving the iron. If zinc were not present, iron would be oxidized
and eventually weaken.

ci -i

-?

'

Q'1,,

Coating'. Coating is the process of plating the surface of a metal with a material that are not oxidize. For instance, 'chromium, tin, and aluminum form oxide coatings through which electrons cannot transfer. The coating serves to insulate the metal from the environment.
,q

ior"t;o

-{C
-t)

trt-*

l n -..&1 "j

ct-+

7tr.-.)

7ol{'

2\^ro
"r
'2

( t c':. -"",4"uiJ --i ?ci r

2M<'''

)l

Cathodic protection: Cathodic protection involves running a wire through the material and connecting the end of the metal. The sacrificial metal is - wire to an easily oxidized guarded metal intact. This technique oxidized, leaving the is often used to protect long iron pipelines.

+'!.1"

.- .;

c)

tl{+..-

-r

"',

J 1..

To apply these techniques, the electromotive potentials for each component in the mixture must be known. Table I lists the emf for favorable half-reactions of selected metals.

Ca(s) Me(s) Al(s) Mn(s)

-) -+ --) -+ Pd2+1aq) + 2e- -+ Zn(s) -) -+ Fe(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2e- -+ --) Ni(s) -+ Pb(s)

Ca2+1aq)

+ 2e-

2.81V 2.36V 1.66 V

1.18 V

Mg2+(aq) + 2e' Al3+(aq) + 3eMn2+(aq) + 2ePd(s)

0.99 V + 2e'

Zn2+(aq) + 2eFe2+(aq1

Cu(s) Ni2+(aq) + 2ePb2+(aq) + 2e

a.75Y o.44 V 0.34 V 0.28 V 0.13 V

Table I
The emf for an oxidation or reduction half-reaction not listed in Table I can be determined, if two or more reactions that sum to that half-reaction are known. Hess's law is used to determine AG" values, but not the emf values' The overall

AG" value is found by summing the AG' values for the

component reactions. The AG" for each half-reaction is found

from the emf vaTtes given. The emf for the overall reaction is found using Equation 1.

AG'= -nf'

Equation
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1)
To calculate the emf for the oxidation of Cr to Cr3+, the AG" for oxidation of Cr to Cr2+ and Cr2+ to Cr3+ may be

, ,,.1- .,''

r' "'

'.

- i,.

,.

$S.

Wtrictr of the following reactions is NOT favorable

as

used. The two oxidation Cr(s) -+ Cr2+(aq) -+

Cr2+1aq; + Cr3+1aq;

half-reactions, and their

corresponding AG" and emf values are shown below:

2e- e' = +0.89V AG" = -2(0.89)f

+ le- e" = +0.41

AG" =

-(0.41)f

.,' written? (e. Rtfsl + Cr3+1aq; -+ Cr(s) + Al3+(aq) Xun(r) + Pd2+1aq; + Pd(s) + Mn2+1aq; <7 ZnG) + Ni2+1aq; -+ Ni(s) + Zn2+1aq1 D. Pd(s) + Cu2+1aq; -+ Cu(s) + Pd2+1aq; '

The emf for the oxidation of Cr to Cr3+ is calculated from the AG" for oxidation of Cr to Cr3* as follows:

Y; - :. ''., /
(',.,'' ' ' r:8

-!

cr(s)
. =

-)
-AG

cr3+1aq; + 3e- AG" = -2(0.89)r +

-Q.4Dr

nf

_-Gl.78f

+ (-0.41D)
3ry

=z.t9,F = 0.73 V

3r

6.

Which of the following graphs represents the change in the mass of zinc metal and iron metal as a function of time in a galvanized steel sample?

,su. Given the following reaction and its corresponding e" value, what is the emf value for the oxidation of iron ,A metal to iron trication? 11 Fe2+1aq; -+ Fe3+1aq; + 1e- e" = -0.77 Y

-----Zn A. -Pe
B.

K"?tn!a>:!g!l)
3

/.*. -l + 2(-0.71) .' ? .)(+0.44) \_-,/ 3 (+0.44) -2(-0.17) ,. '3

2(+0.441- (0.77)

Time--+

3.

Given that Cu2+(aq) + e- -+ Cu+(aq) has e" = 0.15 V, what is the free energy change for the following
reaction?

Time Cu(s) -+ Cu+(aq) + e-

Time+ -.>

A.

B.

C. D.

AG" = (2(-0.34) +0.15))f AG' = (2(-0.34) -(0.tsDr AG'= (2(0.34) +(0.15))f AG" = (2(0.34) -(0.15)r
8

7.

Which of the following would NOT form a protectrve

oxide coating on copper?

4.

Which of the following is NOT possible as a sacrificial

coating to protect the indicated metal?

A. Aluminum B. Chromium C. Tin lI. Palladium

A. B,

Aluminum as the sacrificial metal to protect iron Zinc as the sacrificial metal to protect copper $,,:'rZinc as the sacrificial metal to protect iron
as the sacrificial metal to protect zinc

1D./Nickel

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Passage XIV (Questions 88 - 93) A student

sets up an experiment to determine the effects

9.

Why is it NOT possible to electroplate onto a plastic

material?

ofthe cell potential, concentration, and cunent on the degree of electroplating. In the first experiment, the student sets up six solutions with the following contents:

A.

The plastic melts at the high temperatures required

for electroplating.

I: II: Solution III: Solution IV: Solution V: Solution VI:

Solution Solution

B. The plastic is oxidized by the current. C. Plastic is an insulator and does not conduct D.
9

0.10 M AgNO3 (aq)

1.00 M AgNO3 (aq)

electricity. Plastic is too malleable to allow for electroplating.

0.10 M ZnSO4 (aq)

M ZnSO4@q) 0.10 M CuSOa (aq) 1.00 M CUSOa (aq)

1.00

0.

Which of the following graphs shows the relationship of mass as a function of time for Solutions I and IV?

Into each solution, an inert electrode weighing exactly 5.00 grams is inserted. A steady current of electricity is applied to each electrode for the duration of one minute for all six solutions. The electrode is then removed and the mass is measured. The degree of plating can be determined by subtracting the original mass of the electrode from the final
mass of the plated electrode. The mass for each electrode after

Solution

IV

Time+

Time

it is removed is listed below:

I: II: Solution III: Solution IV: Solution V: Solution VI:

Solution Solution

6.187 6.182 5.360 5.358 5.347 5.350

grams grams grams grams grams grams

-l>

uro4j

The difference between the solutions in the mass after plating of the electrode is attributed to both the difference in molecular mass for each element, and the number of electrons required to reduce each cation. The degree of plating can be calculated, if the current and the duration of time are both known. The conversion from coulombs to moles involves
Faraday's constant (96,500 coulombs per mole).

Time+
91.
Electroplating results from:

Time

------>

The procedure in this experiment can be used to form pure samples of metal. The metal coating adheres to the electrode until it is removed using the application of some force. This technique is used in the purification of gold. Electroplating is also used in the application of protective metal coatings to materials. Chromium can be applied to metal surfaces in this manner.

. B. C. D.

the the the the

oxidation reduction oxidation reduction

of a metal into a cation. of a metal into a cation. of a cation into a metal. of a cation into a metal.
a

2.

Which of the following is a desirable property of

exposed to moisture?

metal to be used to coat a structural beam that will be

88. If

an equal current is applied for an equal duration of time to separate flasks containing the aqueous ions gr2+,7n2+, Ag*, and Au3+, which ion yields the
Cu2+

A. Its cation has a large positive reduction potential. B. The metal has a large positive reduction potential. C. Its cation has a large positive oxidation potential. D. The metal has a large positive oxidation potential.
93.
Approximately what mass would be expected for a solution of Cd2+, if it were exposed for one minute to
the same current and electrode used in the experiment?

MOST precipitated metal by mass?

A. B.

D.

c. Ag*

zn2+
Au3+

A. A mass less than 5.347 grams B. A mass greater than 5.350 grams, but less than C.
D
5.358 grams A mass greater than 5.360 grams, but less than
6.182 grams mass greater than 6. 182 grams

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To calculate the emf for the oxidation of Cr to Cr3+, the

*s .

Which of the following reactions is NOT favorable

written?
""4-

as

AG' for oxidation of Cr to Cr2+ and Cr2+ to Cr3+ may be used. The two oxidation half-reactions, and their corresponding AG' and emf values are shown below:

^ '

, A. Alisl + Cr3+1aq; -+ Cr(s) + Al3+1aq) -#tvtn(r) + Pd2+(aq) + Pd(s) + Mn2+(aq)

Cr(s) -+ Cr2+1aq; -+

Cr2+1aq; + Cr3+1aq;

2e- e" = +0.89V AG' = -2(0.89)f

+ le- e' = +0.41

V lC" = -(0.41)f

{ D.

Zn1s1+ Ni2+(aq) -+ Ni(s) + Zn2+1aq1 Pd(s) + Cu2+(aq) + Cu(s) + Pd2+1aq)

The emf for the oxidation of Cr to Cr3+ is calculated from the AG' for oxidation of Cr to Cr3+ as follows:

ii

-!

cr(s) *)
e. = -AG

cr3+1aq; + 3e- AG'

= -2(0.89)f + -(0.4Dr

nf

_-(-1.78f +(0.41D) _2_Jg-f-=0.13y

3F

3f

6.

lC. A. /f' -

Which of the following graphs represents the change in the mass of zinc metal and iron metal as a function of time in a galvanized steel sample?

Giu"n the following reaction and its corresponding e' value, what is the emf value for the oxidation of iron metal to iron trication?
Fe2+(aq)

-----zn A. -Fe
B.

-+
J

Fe3+1aq;

le-

e' =

-0.7'7

o,.

2(+0.44) + (-0.77) 2(+0.44)-- (-0.77)

q

O. r )G0.44) + 2(-0.77) ,_>2

3

a
Time

-->

Time+

o.

G0.44)-2(-0.17)
3

c.

83.

Given that Cu2+(aq) +e- + Cu+(aq) has '= 0.15 V, what is the free energy change for the following
reaction?

Time-'+

Time+

Cu(s) -+ Cu+(aq) + e-

A.

B. AG' = (2(-0.34) -(0.ls))f

C. D.

AG' -- (2(-0.34) +0.15))f

AG" = (z(0.34) +(0.15))f AG" = (2(0.34) _(0.15)r

87.

Which of the following would NOT form a protective

oxide coating on copper?

/., |

84

Which of the following is NOT possible as a sacrificial

coating to protect the indicated metal?

A. Aluminum B. Chromium .C. Tin II. Palladium

A. Aluminum as the sacrificial metal to protect iron B . Zinc as the sacrificial metal to protect copper llZinc as the sacrificial metal to protect iron 6E.TNickel as the sacrificial metal to protect zinc \_/

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Passage XIV (Questions 88 - 93) A student

sets up an experiment to determine the effects

9.

Why is it NOT possible to electroplate onto a plastic

material?

ofthe cell potential, concentration, and current on the degree of electroplating. In the first experiment, the student sets up six solutions with the following contents:

A.

I: II: Solution III: Solution IV: Solution V: Solution VI:

Solution Solution

B. C. Plastic is an insulator D.
9

The plastic melts at the high temperatures required for electroplating. The plastic is oxidized by the current.

0.10 M AgNO3 (aq)

1.00 M AgNO3 (aq)

and does not conduct

electricity. Plastic is too malleable to allow for electroplating.

0.10 M ZnSO4 (aq)

1.00 1.00

M ZnSO+ (aq) M CuSOa

(aq)

0.

0.10 M CuSO4 (aq)

Which of the following graphs shows the relationship of mass as a function of time for Solutions I and IV?

Into each solution, an inert electrode weighing exactly 5.00 grams is inserted. A steady current of electricity is applied to each electrode for the duration of one minute for all six solutions. The electrode is then removed and the mass is measured. The degree of plating can be determined by subtracting the original mass of the electrode from the final
mass of the plated electrode. The mass for each electrode after

Time

it is removed is listed below:

Time

-----J>
Solution I

I: II: Solution III: Solution IV: Solution V: Solution VI:

Solution Solution

6.187 grams 6.182 grams 5.360 grams 5.358 grams

->

5.347 grams
5.350 grams

The difference between the solutions in the mass after plating of the electrode is attributed to both the difference in molecular mass for each element, and the number of electrons
required to reduce each cation. The degree ofplating can be calculated, if the current and the duration of time are both known. The conversion from coulombs to moles involves Faraday's constant (96,500 coulombs per mole).

Time+
91.
Electroplating results from:

Time+
of a metal into a cation. of a metal into a cation. of a cation into a metal. of a cation into a metal.
a

The procedure in this experiment can be used to form pure samples of metal. The metal coating adheres to the electrode until it is removed using the application of some force. This technique is used in the purification of gold. Electroplating is also used in the application of protective metal coatings to materials. Chromium can be applied to metal surfaces in this manner.
8

A. B. C. D.
9

the the the the

oxidation reduction oxidation reduction

2.

Which of the following is a desirable property of

metal to be used to coat a structural beam that
exposed to moisture?

will

be

8. If an equal

current is applied for an equal duration of time to separate flasks containing the aqueous ions gr2+,7n2+, Ag*, and Au3+, which ion yields the
Cu2+ Zn2+ Au3+

A. Its cation has a large positive reduction potential. B. The metal has a large positive reduction potential. C. Its cation has a large positive oxidation potential. D . The metal has a large positive oxidation potential.
93.
Approximately what mass would be expected for a solution of Cd2+, if it were exposed for one minute to
the same current and elechode used in the experiment?

MOST precipitated metal by mass?

A. B.

D.

c. Ag*

A. A mass less than 5.347 grams B. A mass greater than 5.350 grams, but less than
5.358 grams

. A mass greater than 5.360 grams, but less than .

A
6.182 grams mass greater than 6. 182 grams

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Questions

94 through 100 are NOT

based on

99.

descriptive passage.

Which of the following graphs represents voltage as a function of time for a galvanic cell obeying the Nernst
equation?

94.

Tarnish on silver is attributed to Ag2S forming on the

E = E" - 0.059 1ot

n

surface. By placing silver in an aluminum pan and

adding aqueous baking soda (NaHCO3), the tarnish can be removed. Which of the following equations shows that reaction taking place?

A.

B.

A. B. c. D.
9

Ag2S(s) + 2NaHCO:(aq)

t
o

Hz(e) + 2 Ag(s) + NazS(s)

Ag2S(s) + 2 NaHCO3(aq)

ttl"

-+CO2(g)+2Ag(s)+S(s)
Ag2S(s) + 2 Al(s) -+ 2 Ag(s) + AlzS(s) 3 Ag2S(s) + 2 Al(s)

Time+

Time+

-+ 6 Ag(s) + Al2S3(s)
of

5.

Given that AG' = -RT ln K and AG' = -nFE", which the following equations holds true?

A. -RT ln K = nFE' B. lnK=nFE'

RT

Time+

Time-+

C. lnK__nFE'
RT

D. lnK=-BTnFE"
9

100. Aluminum metal is formed according to the Hall

process. The reaction for the Hall process is drawn
below: 2 Al2O3(solution) + 3 C(s) -+ 4 Al(s) + 3 COz(g) What must be true for this reaction?

6.

What are the coefficients for the following oxidationreduction reaction?

Cr(s)

HI(aq)
.,)

4.2 8.2

->

HZ(g)

CrI:(s)

D.4
97. If

c.2

6 6
J

3 3 3

4
2 4

A. Aluminum oxide is reduced. B. Carbon is reduced. C. Aluminum metal is oxidized. D. Carbon dioxide is oxidized.

a solution

of

1.0

M ZnCl2 were exposed to a 9.65

ampere current for 1,000 seconds, how many grams of zinc metal would plate onto the cathode?

(F =

96,500 coulombs ;
mole electrons 3.269 grams Zn 6.538 grams Zn 9.807 grams Zn 13.016 grams Zn
The

A. B. C. D.

98. What is the cell potential for the following cell?

reduction potentials of nickel and magnesium are -0.23 Y and -2.37 V, respectively.

Mg(s) + Ni2+(aq)

Ni(s) + Mg2+1aq;

A. B-

D.

c.

5.20 V 4.28 V 2.60 v

2.t4 Y

l.D 2.C 3.C 6.D 7.C 8.C 11. C 12. C 13. D 16. B 17. D 18. D 2t. A 22. D 23. D 26. D 21. D 28. A 31. D 32. C 33. B 36. D 37. D 38. B 41. A 42. D 43. C 46. B 47. D 48. D 51. A 52. D 53. A 56. B 57. D 58. B 61. B 62. D 63. D 66. A 67. A 68. D 71. C 12. A 73. C 't6. c 11. D 78. D 81. D 82. A 83. D 86. A 87. D 88. C 91. D 92. A 93. C 96. A 97. A 98. D

4.D 5. C 9.A 10.A 14. D 15. D 19. B 20. D 24. D 25. A 29. C 30. A 34. C 35. D 39. C 40. A 44. D 45. A 49. B 50. A 54. C 55. B 59. A 60. D 64. C 65. D 69. D 10. C 74. B ',75. B 19. B 80. A 84. D 85. D 89. C 90. A 94. D 95. B 99. D 100. A

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Electrochemistry Passage Answers

Choice D is correct. The loss of an electron from a compound is referred to as oxidation, so choice A is a valid answer. When an element loses one electron, the process is referred to as ionization (the ionization energy is the energy required to lose an electron if you recall), so choice B is valid. To convert an oxidation state from -1 to 0 requires losing an electron, because the new oxidation state is more positive (less negative). This makes choice C valid. The correct choice must be answer D. The electron affinity is the energy released when an element gains an electron, meaning that choice D does not involve the loss of an electron.

Choice C is correct. Potassium is less electronegative than sodium, so potassium gives off an electron more easily. This means that the oxidation potential for potassium is more positive than the oxidation potential for sodium. Chlorine is more electronegative than bromine, so chlorine gains an electron more easily. This means that the reduction potential for chlorine is more positive than the reduction potential for bromine. The best reaction (most favorable and with the largest cell voltage) is the reaction of potassium with chlorine. This makes choice C the best answer.
Choice C is correct. The oxidation states of hydrogen and oxygen are +1 and -2, respectively. The oxidation state of chlorine can be found by looking at the difference in the two compounds in question. In HCl, the oxidation state of chlorine must be -1, to keep the overall compound neutral. In HOCI, the oxidation state of chlorine must be +1, to keep the overall compound neutral. This makes choice C the correct answer choice. Choice D is correct. From the periodic table, it can be determined that Rb has a lower ionization energy than either potassium (K) or sodium (Na). This results in a value for the ionization of Rb that is less than that of potassium or sodium, so it is less than either 495.9 or 418.7 kJ per mole. The best answer is choice D, less than
478.7 kJ per mole.

J.

4.

5.

Choice C is correct. Because lithium is in the same column of the periodic table as sodium and potassium, the reaction of lithium with water should produce similar products, but with different energy. Both sodium and potassium when added to water produce metal hydroxide and hydrogen gas. No metal hydride forms, so choices B and D are eliminated. There is a reaction, so choice A is eliminated. Although both hydrogen gas and lithium hydroxide are produced, "only lithium hydroxide" is the best answer. Choose answer C.

6.

Choice D is correct. Potassium metal is oxidized by the water, and because reducing agents get oxidized, potassium must be the reducing agent. This eliminates choices A and C. Water is a reactant, not hydrogen gas/ so choice B is eliminated. The correct choice is answer choice D.

Choice C is correct. Metals have a lower ionization energy than non-metals, so metals are more easily oxidized. This can be confirmed from the highly positive reduction potentials of non-metals and the highly positive oxidation potentials of metals. Statement I is therefore true. From the reactions listed, metals definitely form metal hydroxides. Several metals form the oxides when the water is removed. Although the passage does not provide enough information, calcium and magnesium are examples of metals that form both oxides and hydroxides in water. This makes statement II true. From the reactions of bromine and chlorine, it can be inferred that non-metals do not form metal oxides and metal hydroxides. The best answer is choice C.

8.

Choice C is correct. The pH of the solution is found using the equation: pH = -log [H*]. In this question, the concentration is 0.010 M, so pH = -1og (.01) = -log 1,0-2 = 2. Pick choice C for optimum satisfaction. Choice A is correct, Reducing the pH requires making the solution more acidic. Increased acidity results from an increase in the [H+]. Only the addition of HCI(aq) (choice A) would result in an increase in the [H+]. Choose A. Answer choices B and C are bases, so when they are added to solution, the result is a decrease in the [H+]. Choice D is a neutral salt, meaning that the only affect it has is to dilute the solution, which also results in a decrease in the [H+].

9.

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Section X Detailed Explanations

10.

Choice A is correct. As base is added, the concentration of hydronium decreases. The passage provides the following equation: Eobserved = E'cell - A.0592log [H+]. as [Ui] decreases, the pH increases, which eliminates choices B and D' As [H+] decreases, the log [H+] (which equals -pH) gets more^negative. This means a larger negative number is subtracted, thus making the number more positive. This makes the value of Eo6ru.rr"6 increase. Pick choice A today and smile tomorrow. Choice C is correct. The pH read by the pH meter is adjusted linearly using the Nernst equation. plugging the voltage values into the Nernst equation yields: Eobserved = E"cell - 0.0SgZ 1og [H+]. If the ?eal value foi-E"""11 is
answer choice C.

11.

actually higher than the,value being plugged in, then a value that is too large is being subtracted to get Eobserved. This means that the [H+] is too high, so the calculated pH is too low. This ii best explained in
12. Choice C is correct. From the equation in the passage, it can be seen that Hg2Ct2(s) is gaining electrons, which is defined as reduction. This eliminates both choice B and choice D. In Hg2Cl2(s;, the oxidation state o{ mercury is +1, so mercury in the reactant has an oxidation state of +1 and 0 in the product. Mercury is the atom being reduced in the reduction half reaction. Chlorine has an oxidation state of -1 befor" and after the reaction. This means that chloride is simply a spectator ion, and it does riot get involved in the oxidation-reduction reaction. ln light of this revelation, the correct answer choice for this question must be choice C. Choice D is correct. Again, Equation 1 from the passage must be used. Eo6r"rved = E"cell - 0.01gzlog [H+] with the Eo6rurrr"4 is 0.699V yields:
0.69e

13.

- 0.0592
't4.

= 0.285 - .0s92(log tH*l) + 0.414 - -log[H+] = pH ... pH

0.414

0.0592

= - .ossz(log tu+l) 0.414 = 47.4 = Q _ 7

5.92

The closest answer choice is 7 , so you really should pick D.

Choice D is correct. A change in temperature always shifts the equilibrium of a reaction. The equilibrium oi the reaction affects the [H+], so pH of the solution is affected by a change in the temperature. ihoi"" A is a valid statement. Because the pH of the solution is dependent on the hydronium concentration ([H3O+]), a change in the volume of solvent changes the [H3O+], and thus, changes the pH. Choice B is a valid statement. The degree to which a proton can dissociate into solution depends on the solvent, so the [HaO*] and therefore pH vary with the type of solvent as well. Choice C is a valid statement. The solution is homogeneous, so nc matter where the electrode probe is positioned in solution, it reads the same [HgO*], so pH d,oei not vary wit]. position of the electrode. Choice D is an invalid statement, so it is the best choice.

15.

Choice D is correct. The cyanide anion is a ligand (lone pair donor) to the gold cation. The gold cation forms when oxygen gas oxidizes the gold metal. The cyanide ligand is simply acting as a Lewis base. The best ansn,e: is choice D. Choice B is correct. The sum of the oxidation states of the atoms in the compound must add up to the overa-, charge on the compound. The cyanide ligand carries a -1 charge, so the gold cation must carry a +1, in order fc: the sum of the two cyanide ligands and one gold cation to have a -1 charge. The correct answer is choice B. Choice D is correct. Sulfur goes from a -2 oxidation state in zinc sulfide to a +4 oxidation state in sulfur dioxicie oxidized. This means that statement I is not true. Zinc goes from a +2 oxidation state in zin: sulfide to an oxidation state of 0 in zinc metal, so zinc has been reduced. This means that statement II is tnie Oxygen gas gets reduced by oxidizing the sulfur in the first reaction, so oxygen gas is the oxidizing agent. Th:-. means that statement III is true. The correct answer is choice D.
so sulfur has been

't6.

17.

1.8.

Choice D is correct. Silicon is reduced from an oxidation state of +4 to an oxidation state of 0. The silicon --. therefore reduced by a total of four electrons, making choice D the only reasonable choice. The reaction does r.c: need to be balanced; the four electrons are enough to distinguish the best answer.

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Section X Detaited Explanations

19.

Choice B is correct. Oxygen is only oxidized when heat is applied to mercury oxide. All of the reactions listed show oxygen in a reduced form in the final product, except when it exists as oxygen gas. The best answer is
choice B.

20.

Choice D is correct. Mercury is not oxidized in the first reaction; it remains with an oxidation state of +2. This eliminates choice C. Sulfur goes from -2 in HgS to +4 in SO2, so sulfur is in fact oxidized by six electrons. This makes choice D the best answer. Mercury is reduced by two electrons in the second reaction, so choices A and B are both wrong.

21-..

Choice A is correct. As we read in the passage, the_ dichromate anion precipitates out of solution with lead dication as an ionic solid. As the concentration of Pb2+ decreases, the obierved voltage decreases, because the denominator of the Q term in the Nernst equation becomes smaller, making the overall value larger. The result is that the cell voltage decreases. This is best explained as choice A. The last three choices should be eliminated, because Pb2+1aq; and Cr2O72-(aq) do not react with one another by any redox reaction, only precipitation. Choice D is correct. The lead-zinc galvanic cell has an E"g"11 of -0.13 - (-0.76) = 0.63 V. The dichromate-zinc galvanic cell has an E"qs[ of 1.33 - (-0.76) = 2.09 V. Regardless of the concentration difference between the zinc cation and the other species in solution, the E"C"lt for the dichromate-zinc cell is so much greater than the lead-zinc cell that the E66sstr"4 is greater for the dichromate-zinc cell. The reason is that the reduction potential of dichromate (1,.33 V) is much higher than the reduction potential of lead (-0.13 V). The best answer is choice D. Choices A and B can be eliminated, because dichromate (Cr2O72-) and lead dication (fbz+, do not oxidize, according to the data presented. Even if they do, their presence in the cathode half-cell requires that they undergo reduction rather than oxidation. From the data presented, choice D is true, while choice C is false.
Choice D is correct. The sulfate anion is a spectator ion that balances out the positive charge in each cell. The lead cation is reduced at the cathode so the [Pbz+, is decreased; while zinc metal is oxidized at the anode, so the lZn2+l is increased. This means that the sulfate anion must flow from the tathode to the anode through the salt bridge to keep the net charge in each half-cell balanced. The best answer is therefore choice D.

'J

23.

24.

Choice D is correct. When the switch is closed, the circuit is complete, and the cell begins to produce electricity. As the cell produces electricity, the [fUz+, slowly deireases. This prevents the iccurate measurement of the amount of lead present in the cathode half-celI, so determination of the exact equivalence is not possible. Given the answer choices, the best answer is choice D, because the voltage is depleted. Choice B is a throw-away choice, and regardless of whether the circuit is open or closed, the lead and zinc can possibly migrate through the salt bridge, eliminating choice C.
Choice A is correct. Zinc metal is being oxidized into zinc cation (zinc is losing electrons), so choices C and D are eliminated. Oxidation occurs at the anode, so choice A is the best answer. You should recall that oxidation
occurs at the anode and reduction occurs at the cathode.

25.

26.

Choice D is correct. The observed voltage reaches a minimum when the concentrations of lead and dichromate are closest to zero. This occurs when the moles of Pb2+ present initially equals the moles of. Cr2O72- added. When volume is multiplied by molarity, the result is moles of solute. Only choice D lists when the moles of the two species are the same. Pick D and be a star-studded chem trooper.

27.

Choice D is correct. The endpoint of titration occurs when the clear Fe2+ solution tums and remains purple from the excess MnO4-(aq) in solulion following the complete oxidation of Fe2+ by MnOa- (KMnOa is an oxidizing agent). MnO is a solid, so the solution does not turn brown, but a brown precipitate forms on the bottom of the flask. Over-titration with KMnO4 results in the purple color remaining in solution. It tums clear only if the KMnOa reacts. The lingering of the purple color indicates that the reaction is complete. Pick D.

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Section X Detailed Explanations

28.

Choice A is correct. Flask 3 has twice as much solute by weight and half the volume of solution compared to Flask 2. Relatively, as measured in grams per liter, the following is true:

MFIask, =

fi:#*bLffi

xMFIask, =

= ? "MFhsk2
2

xMFlask2

Flask 3 has four times the concentration of Flask 2, as measured in grams per liter. It is given that Flask 2 requires a 17.50,mL aliquot of Na2Cr2O7(aq) to reach equivalence, so Flask 3 (containing 20.00 mL solution) re{uires four times the volume of titrant (4 x 17.50 mL) = 70.00 mL Na2Cr2O7(aq) solution. Flask 3 requires a 70.00-mL aliquot, so choice A is the correct answer.
29.

Choice C is correct. Since we know that KMnO4 is the oxidizing agent in-the reaction, Fe2+ must be the reducing agent. Based on this, you must choose C. The Fe2+ ion is oxidized to Fe3+, so it causes reduction, thus defining itself as the reducing agent of the reaction. Choice A is correct. In Flask 2, FeSO4 is titrated with a Na2Cr2O7(aq) solution. Na2Cr2O7(aq) acts similariy to KMnO4 and is also a great oxidizer, so it must be the oxidizing agent. Choose A'

30.

31.

choice D is correct. First, you should write out the unbalanced equation: Fe2+ + Na2Cr2o7 -+ Fe3+ + Cr2o3 From here, the first step is to balance the electrons in the two half-reactions. The ferrous (+2) cation loses one electron, while the dichromate gains three electrons per chromium (and thus six electrons per compound). To balance the electrons, the ferroui and ferric (+3) cations must both be multiplied by a factor of six.
6Fe2+ +
1,

Na2Cr2o7

-->

6Fe3+ + 1 Cr2o3

This solves the question and allows you to choose answer choice D'

On the MCAT, you should stop at this point and not waste time going further. Because this is a learning environment, however, we wid continue to balance the reaction completely. From here, the next step is to balance the charges on each side of the reaction. The reactant side has a +12 net charge, while the product side has a +20 net chirge. To balance the charges requires that an additional +8 be added to the reactant side of the equation. This is done by adding 8 H+ to the left side of the reaction. -+ 6Fe3++1Cr2O3+2Na+ 8H++ 6Fe2+ +1Na2Cr2O7
overall charge = +20 overall charge = +20

The final step is to balance the atoms in the equation. There are seven oxygen atoms on the reactant side and only three ot, ttn" product side. The product side requires four more oxygen atoms, so to balance the atoms, 4H2O must be added to the product side:

BH++

can The ratio of Na2Cr2O7(aq) to Fe3+1aq) is confirmed to be L : 6. This correlates to answer choice D' The ratio counts. Fe is oxidized by one electron, while the be found quickly Uy .o-pur*g the'oxidation and reduction two chromium compounds aie red"uced by three electrons per chromium (from +6 to +3). Because there are necessary to reduce the compound is six (2 x 3 Na2Cr2O7, the total amount of electrons

6Fe2+ +1Na2Cr2O7 overall charge = +20

-)

6Fe3+ + 1 Cr2O3 + 2Na+ + 4H2O

overall charge = +20

chromium atoms in electrons). This makes the ratio 1 : 6'

32.

Choice C is correct. The oxidation half-reaction of Flask 1 is Fe2+ -+ Fe3+ +

Component reactions:
Fe2+ + 2e- -+

1e-

Fe Fe -+ Fe3+ + 3e-

-0.44

0.04 V

the When the two reactions are added together, the overall oxidation half-reaction is found. This means that E" = -0'44 + 0.04 = -0.40 V. Pick C' E" for the half-reaction can be found by summing the two voltages.
33.

in a Choice B is correct. The best container is made of the least reactive material. Glass (SiO2) is already chemistry. Glass is thus the best fully oxidized form, so it is unreactive with respect to oxidation-reduction maierial in which to carry out the titration. Aluminum readily oxidizes, coPper slowly oxidizes, and polyethylene oxidizes over time in air. The best answer is B' 3o4 Section X Detailed ExPlanations

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34.

Choice C is correct. Gold trication (Au3+, has a reduction potential of 1.50 V, so almost any compound that can be oxidized can reduce gold trication. The Cl2(g) has chlorine atoms with oxidation states of 0, so they won't be oxidized (lose electrons to be cations). Ag+ is oxidized in its cation form, so Ag+ cannot be oxidized any further. Pt2+ is already oxidized as it is, so it cannot be oxidized any further. The best choice is zinc metal (Zn(s)) which readily loses two electrons. Pick C.

35.

Choice D is correct. The reduction potential for silver cation is 0.80 volts. This means that because chloride anion is nof reduced to Cl2(g), the oxidation potential of Cl- to CIZ(S) is less than -0.80 volts. Reversing this means that the reduction potential of C12(g) to Cl- is greater than +0.80 volts, which is selection D.
Choice D is correct. The chlorine atoms in the compound have an oxidation state of -1 each. This means that for the overall charge of the compound to be -1, the oxidation state of the gold must be +3 (4 (-1) + (+3) = -t),
choice D.

36.

3/.

Choice D is correct. Silver (Ag) has an electronic configuration of [fr]Ss1+d10 when neutral because of the filled d-shell stability associaied with the d10 electronic configuration. The electron is lost from the outermost shell when the silver becomes a cation. This would be the 5s1 electron that silver loses, which leaves an electronic configuration for Ag+ of: [Kr]4a10. Pick D.
Choice B is correct. A sequestering agent must bind a metal cation, so it must be capable of donating a lone pair of electrons to a metal cation in a ligand fashion. Sequestering agents donate electron pairs, so they are Lewis bases. Atoms without filled octet valences can accept electrons, which makes them good Lewis acids. This eliminates both choice C and choice D. Choice B is the best answer.
Choice C is correct. The mass percent of Au in AuCl4- can be solved as follows:

38.

39.

ting = 1'97 > l. efiminatins choices A and B. (35.5) 197 +1'42 2 Mass AuCl4- 197 + a L97 = W- < ?7-9 = 3- ehminating choice D. 07 + a Q5.5) 339 360 4
Mass Au
197

This leaves only choice C, which you should pick for best results. The actual value can be approximated

as

follows:197 -797 -ahttle =

339 333

591, 999

-alittle=59%-alittle.

40.

Choice A is correct. Because chlorine is oxidized in each answer choice, the question is really which cation has the lowest reduction potential, since the metal cations are reduced in each case. The lowest reduction potential, according to the chart, is found with Ag+. This makes choice A the correct choice.

41.

Choice A is correct. In all galvanic cells, oxidation occurs at the anode, so electrons are lost from the anode and hence flow from the anode to the cathode. The best answer is choice A. Choice D is correct. Oxidation occurs at the anode, and the loss of electrons occurs with oxidation, so choice D must be the best answer. It is only in choice D that electrons are lost. Choice C is correct. In a galvanic cell, the E1s4r61ion * Eoxidali6l must be greater than 0 volts. If Eo*i4u1ion is greater than 0 volts, the overall voltage is positive, so choices B and D are galvanic cells, meaning they are eliminated. The only way that E."11 can be less than zero when Er"4rrction is positive, is when E6ai4uliqn is a negative value with a magnitude greater absolute value than Ereduction. The best answer is choice C. Choice D is correct. In all cells, electron flow is from the anode to cathode, and reduction occurs at the cathode. This makes both choices A and B true in a galvanic cell, so they can be eliminated. Choice C is true according to the Nernst equation, because the cell eventually dies out once the voltage has dropped. The voltage never drops below iero, however, so choice D is not true. The best answer is choice D, because the cell stops when the voltage equals zero (not when it is less than zero).

42. 49.

44.

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Section X Detailed Explanations

45.

Choice A is correct. The reduction of the cation in the cathode is most favorable when it starts at a high oxidation state. This eliminates choices C and D. The anode should contain a metal that is easily (favorably) oxidized, if the cell is to be galvanic. This describes a metal with a low ionization energy. The best answer is thus choice A.
Choice B is correct. To answer this question, the reaction must first be balanced. The oxidation and reduction half-reactions are shown below.
Reduction: MnOa-(aq) + 5 e- -+ MnO(s) To balance the reaction from an electronic standpoint (at fifteen total electrons transferred in each halfreaction), 5 Al(s) are needed to react with 3 Mnoa-(aq). Because Al(s) is oxidized, it is the reducing agent, making MnO4-(aq) the oxidizing agent' The ratio of reducing agent to oxidizing agent is therefore 5 : 3. The best answer is choice B.

46.

Oxidation: Al(s)

AlO2-(aq)+3e

47.

Choice D is correct. At the cathode, reduction occurs, so copper cations in solution plate out onto the surface of the electrode' This makes statement I valid. A galvanic *tt Uy definition involvls a favorable reaction that releases energy as it runs. The voltage of a favorable reaction is greater than 0.00 volts, so statement II is valid. To balance the flow of electron charge from anode to catho-de, anions flow from cathode (where the positive charge diminishes due to reduction) to the anode (where the positive charge increases due to oxidation) through the salt bridge. This makes statement III true. Because all three statements are true, the best answer is choice D.

48.

Choice D is correct. By definition (and from the passage), electrolytic cells are unfavorable thermodynamically' Energy must be supplied for an electrolyiic cei to run. The electrolytic cell can build up potential energy that can be harnessed later (the energy can be discharged in the form of a galvanic cell). The
best answer is therefore answer D.

49.

Choice B is correct. The first sentence of the second paragraph states that the energy of the photon must be high enough to overcome the electrical potential for the ce[. firis makes choice B correct. Choices A and C are t!9 samg answer just stated differently, so they cannot both be correct on a multiple-choice exam. The electron affinity for the cathode is usually favorable, so no energy should be required for the gain of an electron by the cathode. The total energy to move the electron from the photon and the-affinity for the catfiode "o*er (attraction to the storage plate).
Choice A is correct. Photons strike the ionizing plate and emit an electron. The ionizing plate loses an electron, so it has been oxidized. By definition, the anode loses electrons (gets oxidized), *it ltrg choice A the best
ANSWEI.

50.

51.

Choice A is correct. The best material is one that can be oxidized very easily. A non-metal and non-metal oxide do not readily lose electrons because of their high electron affinity (and electronegativity). A metal oxide is in a higher oxidation state than the metal, so metal oxides are leis able to share tfieir electrons than metals. Metal oxides have already been oxidized. The best answer for this question is a metal, choice A. Choice D is correct. As is stated in the first paragraph of the passage, a photoelectric cell absorbs a photon, which then emits an electron that flows through a wire in the circuit, ultimately to be stored in a capacitor or battery' The overall process involves converting a photon into potential energy. A photon is electromagnetic radiation, so the best answer is choice D, the converiion of radiation into poten"tial energy. pick choice O If you want to be outstanding in electrochemistry.
Choice A is correct. If you believe the Nemst equation, then the voltage is constantly dissipating as a cell run-.. ]f9 mo_st energy is released initially, because that is when the volta[e (joules per co,"rlomb) ; the greatest This is best described by answer choice A. If you have any doubt lbout this, think about how a flashlighr slowly becomes dimmer rather than brighter. The change in voltage is minimal, but nonetheless evid.ent.

52.

5J.

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Section X Detailed Exptanations

54.

Choice C is correct. The current at point c should be the greatest, because it has not been through a resistor. The resistors are in parallel, so the current is split between the two resistors (Ic = Ia + 16). The greatest current flows through the paihway of least resistance. Yorl muy recall that current and resistance are inversely proportional to onJ anothlr. The best answer is choice C, because the resistance is less through the resistor through which current a flows. I is equal to current.

55.

Choice B is correct. The two half reactions for the nickel-cadmium battery are given in the passage Anode: Cd + ZOH- + Cd(OH)z + 2 eCathode: NiOOH + H2O + 1e- -+ Ni(OH)2 + 1OH-

as:

To find the overall balanced equation, the number of electrons in each half-cell must be the same. In the oxidation half-cell, two electrons are produced, while in the reduction half-cell, only one electron is consumed' This means that the reduction half-cell must be multiplied by two. This yields the following two half-cells that upon addition yield the overall reaction:
Anode:

+?OI{- -+ Cd(OH)2 + }eCathode: 2 NiOOH +2HtO + *e- -+ 2 Ni(OH)z + ?HOverall: Cd +2NiOOH +2H2O -+ Cd(OH)z + 2 Ni(OH)2
Cd

The correct answer is choice B.

55.

Choice B is correct. ln the reduction half-cell, MnO2 is converted to Mn2O3. In MnO2, the oxidation state of Mn state is +4. In Mn2O3, the oxidation state of Mn is +3. These can be determined by assuming that the oxidation of Mn goes from +4 to _+3. Because zinc is oxidized, of oxygen is -z itr all of the compounds. The oxidation state *u1gi^"r" must be reduced, making choices A, C, and D incorrect. The correct choice is answer B. Only one electron is absorbed, so it should be reduced by one electron'

57.

Choice D is correct. Reduction takes place at the cathode, so choices A and B are immediately eliminated' (NHa*) Because at a pH equal to 10 the solution il basic, the correct answer must be choice D. Ammonium cation 10. It would exist as ammonia (NH3) in a pH = cannot exist at a pH of L0, because it has a pKu value less than 10 solution. The cell is basic, so choice D is best'
the Choice B is correct. Oxidation takes place at the anod.e, meaning that the reaction that cannot occur at electrons, meaning that electrons are anode is reduction. In choice B, the reictant side of the equation shows the anode. gained in the reaction. A gain of electrons is the definition o? reduction, so choice B cannot occur at

58.

59.

to the Choice A is correct. The flow of electrons in any electrochemical cell is defined as being from the anode The trick to this question,is therefore cathode (from the oxidation half-cell to the ieduction half-cell). the- oxidation deciding where the anode and cathode actually are. The core of the dry cell battery carries 9ut manganese,is reduced' In the battery half-reaction, while the stainless steel cap is lhe electrode on which ir defined as- the cathode. This means that the correct answer must drawing in Figure L, the stainless steel "up stainless steel cap. This eliminates choices B and D. The insulator have the electron flow going towards the "insulator"). This means that does not get involvea in tne reaction or the flow of electrons (hence the term The electrons flow choice C is eliminated and makes the best answer (and only choice remaining) choice A. (as stated in the passage)' from the metal being reduced, which is found in the outer casing flow, but Choice D is correct. Electrons do not build up in a cell; potential difference builds,tp. T" electrons oxidized in the reaction, meaning they do not exactly collect. Choice A is therefore eliminated. Cadmium is B is thai cadmium meial disappears and does not build up, whether it's at the anode or the cathode' Choice hydroxide builds up somewhere' therefore eliminated. Nlctet hydroxide is a product of the reaction, so nickel the Nickel hydroxide does not build up at the anode, however, because nickel hydroxide is formed from half-cell equations' Choice C is reduction half-reaction, so it builds up at the cathode, according to the two up at the therefore eliminated. Cadmium hydroxide is formed from the oxidation half-reaction, so it builds anode. The best answer is choice D.

60.

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Section X Detailed ExPlanations

61.

answer is choice B.
62.

Choice B is correct. It is easier to form hydrogen gas than sodium gas (consider that hydrogen reduces more readily than sodium, and that sodium does not readily vaporize),io choices A and C are"eliminated. The reduction potential of sorijum is negative, while the reduction potential of protons from water is zero. It is easier to oxidize chlorine than oxygen gas (chlorine is less electronegative), so chlorine gas will form. The best

Choice D is correct. The electrode must remain solid to allow for a reaction to take place on its surface, The electrode cannot melt into the molten salt or there would be no plate on which the reduction half-cell could take place. Thus, the electrolysis cell would not work. This means that the melting point of the salt must be lower than the melting point of the electrode. The potential material for an electrode is therefore limited. The best answer is choice D. Choice D is correct. A molten salt is used rather than an aqueous solution when the salt is less reactive than water. When dealing with water, the reduction half-reaction H2O + 2 e- --> Hz(g) + O2-(uq) and the oxidation half-reaction H2O -r 2 H+(aq) + 1 / 2 OzG) + ?_ e- must always be considered. Wi-en the reiuction potential of the cation is negative, then it is more favorable to reduce the protons of water. Thus, the reaction must be carried out on the molten salt. This means that a molten salt should be used when the reduction potential of the cation is less than the reduction potential of hydrogen in water. Choice D is the best answer.
cathode-, so the product from reduction forms at the cathode. Hydrogen gas is formed when protic hydrogen is reduced, so-hydrogen gas is the correct choice. The best answer is choice C. Chlorine gas is formed upon the

63.

64.

Choice C is correct. The left electrode, according to the diagram, is the cathode. Reduction occurs at the

oxidation of chloride anions.

65.

Choice D is correct. For an electrolysis reaction to take place, the applied voltage must be greater than the voltage released when the cell runs in the favorable direction (the siandard potential). Tlie standard cell potential can be found from the reactions in the chart. The voltage released when chlorine gas oxidizes nickel metal is 1.36 volts plus 0.23 volts (negative -0.23 volts for nickel). The result is a value oif .Sq volts. Upon adding 1.75 volts, the reverse reaction (unfavorable reaction) transpires. This makes choice A valid. The voltage released when chlorine gas oxidizes zinc metal is 1.36 volts plus 0.76 volts. The result is a value of 2.12 volts. Upon adding 2.25 volts, the reverse reaction (unfavorable ieaction) transpires. This makes choice B valid' The voltage released when bromine liquid oxidizes nickel metal is 1.09 volts plus 0.23 volts. The result is a value of 1-.32 volts' Upon adding 1.60 volts, the reverse reaction (unfavorableleaction) transpires. This makes choice C valid. The voltage released when bromine liquid oxidizes zinc metal ls t.b9 volL plus 0.76 volts. The result is a value of 1.85 volts. Upon adding only 1.50 volts, the reverse reaction (uniavorable reaction) cannot transpire. This makes choice D invalid and thus the not true choice. pick D.
Choice A is correct. Nickel cannot plate from an aqueous solution when a voltage is applied, because a proton has a higher reduction potential than nickel dication. The applied voltage the protons of water rather than nickel dication to be reduced. The higher the reduction potential,lhe"urrri", likeiy a species is reduced, more implying that the reduction potential of copper must be greaterlhan the reduction potential of protons. This is best shown in answer choice A. The answer could also have been found by simply reading the chart. Choice A is conect. The reaction that can be carried out in an aqueous solution is the reaction where the cation of the salt is more easily reduced than the proton of water. (Does this question sound familiar?) This question is better reduced to asking :"Which metal has the most positive reduction potential?" The correct choice (and only positive choice) is answer choice A.

55.

57.

68.

Choice D is correct. In the electrolytic portion (lower half) of the overall cell, chlorine gas is released. This means that chloride anion loses an electron to form chlorine gas. Because Cl- (chloride) iJ oxidized, choices A and C are eliminated' The sodium metal produced in the lower cell ultimately serves to reduce hydronium ion in water in the upper portion (galvanic section). Choice D is correct, because H+ is reduced to H21g; in the

overall cell reaction.

@

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Section X Detailed Explanations

69.

Choice D is correct. The applied voltage causes the unfavorable reaction in the lower electrolytic portion of the electrolysis cell. The lower reduction and oxidation half-reactions are: Na+(aq) + L e- -+ Na(t) with Ecell (reducti on) = -2.71'V Cl-(aq) -+1/ ZCl2(g) + 1 e- with Ecell (oxidation) = -1'36 V' The overall voltage is -4.07 V, so a voltage greater than 4.07 V must be applied to force the unfavorable reaction. The best answer is choice D.

70.

Choice C is correct. Both hydrogen gas (H2G)) and chlorine gas (C12(g)) are released from the cell, so they must both be products, which eliminites ihoices B and D. In the upper portion of the cell, NaOH(aq) is produced,

which makes choice C the best answer.

71.

Choice C is correct. Because the reduction potential of sodium cation is negative and the reduction potential of hydronium ion is zero (see the reactions), statement I is a false statement. In the electrolytic portion of the cell, ,odirr* metal is formed, because the electrons are delivered from the cathode into the mercury liquid, and sodium metal flows through mercury, while hydrogen gas does not. This makes statement II a true statement. Because there are ro1n" rodirrm cations that are transferred to the upper cell to form NaOH, the [NaCl] entering the cell must be greater than the [NaCl] leaving the cell. This makes statement III a true statement, and thus
makes choice C the best answer.

n,

Choice A is correct. By definition, reduction occurs at the cathode and oxidation occurs at the anode, in a battery, a galvanic cell, and an electrolytic cell. Oxidation involves loss of electrons, so electrons must flow Overall, the flow from the ariode. Reduction involves gain of electrons, so electrons must flow fo the cathode. of electrons is always from anode to cathode, so choice A is the best answer.
Choice C is correct. An electrolytic cell is defined as a cell that carries out an unfavorable reaction by applying an external voltage. This means that the reaction voltage is negative, so to have the reaction occur, the battery voltage niust be positive, with the absolute value of the battery voltage greater than the absolute value tf the rioltage of the reaction. When the two values are summed, the cell voltage will be positive. The
best answer is choice C.

73.

74.

Choice B is correct. The strongest reducing agent is the compound (or element) that is most easily oxidized. Sodium cation cannot give up ai electron (because it would lose its noble gas electronic configuration), so choice A can be eliminated. The reactions in Table l" are reductions, so the product formed from the least favorable reduction is the most favorably oxidized, and thus the strongest reducing agent. This makes choice B the best
answer,

75.

Choice B is correct. The net reaction for Cell 1 is favorable, if the zinc electrode is oxidized and the copper electrode is reduced (an electrochemical cell is favorable when E'.u11 is positive). Thus, the electron flow must be from the Zn electrode (anode) to the Cu electrode (cathode). Because the copper electrode is not the anode, choice C and choice D are both eliminated. Since, by definition, electron flow is always from the anode to the the cathode, and the Zn electrode (anode) is on the left, the electron flow must be from the left. Referring to illustration of Cell 1 in the passage, the electron flow is from left to right, so, choice B is the correct answer.
The Choice C is correct. Cell 1 does not use energy to produce chemical change, so it is not an electrolytic cell. that two half-cells do not differ in cation .or,""t i*tion, so it is not a concentration cell. The cell is set up so energy from a spontaneous redox reaction is converted into electrical energy (electrical energy is discharged), which is a galvinic cell by definition. Pick C. "Nernst cell" is a fictitious term'

76.

77.

Choice D is correct. The cell would no longer be complete without the saturated aqueous salt string, which from serves as a salt bridge to complete the circuil Copper wire does not allow for the flow of sulfate anions one half-cell to the other half-cell, so the cell potential is 0 volts. Pick D.

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Section X Detailed ExPlanations

78.

Choice D is correct. Cell 2 is a concentration cell, given the different concentrations in each half-cell. The electrons flow in such a way that the concentration of Cu2+ in each half-cell becomes equal over time. When electrons flow from the anode, the copper electrode dissolves into solution, resulting in an increased Cu2+ concentration in solution and a reduced mass of the electrode. This means that the half-cell with the lower concentration of Cu2+ is the anode, and the half-cell with the greater concentration of Cu2+ is the cathode. The haif-cell on the left is less concentrated (making it the anode), so electrons flow from the left to the right as drawn. This makes choice A a valid statement, so it is eliminated. The left copper electrode dissolves away and thus decreases in mass, while the right copper electrode plates out and thus increases in mass. This makes choice B a valid statement, so it is eliminated. In a concentration cell, the electrons flow from the less concentrated half-cell to the more concentrated half-cell, until the two cells have equal Cu2+ concentration. The electrons flow from the half-cell with 0.001 M Cu2+ to the half-cell with 1.00 N[Cu2+. The Cu2+ ions in the 1.00 M solution get reduced. The Cu2+ concentration decrease from 1.00 M until both cells are equally concentrated. The final concentration is the average of the two initial concentrations, which is 0.5005 M Cuz+. This makes choice C a valid statement and choice D an incorrect statement, so choice D is the best answer.
Choice B is correct. You are given the equation

79.

t = t" g$9 n

log Q, where -

q = -4t9d"J-.
tCathodel

Q=

0'001 1.000

M = 0.001, n = 2molesof
M

electrons,andg" = g

Plugging the values into the equation yields:

r = r" _ 0.059 toge = g _ 0.Q59 log(.0gi) = (_0.0295X_3) = 0.0885v n*2

The cell potential in Cell 2 (the concentration cell) is calculated to be 0.089 V, so choice B is the best answer.

80.

Choice A is correct. The half-reactions are listed as reduction reactions in the table, so be sure to change the sign for zinc oxidation from positive to negative. The largest positive cell potential for Cell 1 is obtained when the zinc is oxidized and the copper cation is reduced. In a cell, there must always be both a reduction half-

reaction and an oxidation half-reaction. The numerical value for E'.u11 is calculated from the following equations and half-cell potentials:

Zn

Cu2+ + 2e- -r Cu --+Zn2+ +2e-

+0.34 V

+0.76Y +1.1"0 V

The cell potential of CeII 1 is therefore 1.10 V, answer choice A.

81.

Choice D is correct. Starting with H2O + ClO3- + Mg -+ CI- + Mg2+ + OH-, first balance the electrons either through the bridge method or the half-cell method. Magnesium goes from an oxidation state of 0 to +2, so 2 electrons are lost. Chlorine goes from an oxidation state of +5 to -1, so 6 electrons are gained. This needs to be balanced so that there are 3 magnesiums for every L chlorine.
?

H2O+ 1 ClO3- + 3 Mg -+ 1 Cl- + 3 Mg2+ + ? OH-

Choices A and C are eliminated, because they do not have the correct ratio of magnesiums to chlorines. After the electrons, the charges must be balanced. The overall charge on the left side is -L due to the chlorate anion and the overall charge on the right side is +5 due to the three magnesium cations and one chloride anion.

?H2O+1C1O3-+3Mg -)
overall charge = -1

1Cl-+3lrlg2++?OHoverall charge = +5

To balance charge, six hydroxide anions are added to the right side of the equation. This eliminates ansrve: choice B, narrowing the answer down to choice D. The last step of the balancing, if you wish to go on (alihoug: you could stop here), is to balance the atoms. To balance atoms, water is added to the left side of the reaction.

?H2O+1ClO3-+3Mg
overall charge =
-1

-+

1Cl+3Mt2++6OHoverall charge = -1

There are six oxygen atoms on the right, and only three on the left, so three waters must be added to the ie:: side of the equation. Adding three waters results in the following balanced equation:
3 H2O + 1 ClO3- + 3 Mg -+ 1 Cl- + 3 Mg2+ + 6 OH-

Thecoefficientsofthebalancedequationare3:1:3-+1:3:6,sochoiceDisthecorrectanswer.
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Section X Detailed Explanations

82.

Choice A is correct. By using the chromium sample as a reference, the following mathematical process can be employed to determine the electromotive force (emfl for the iron system:
Fe(s)
Fe2+1aq)

-) -+
-+

Fe2+1aq; + 2eFe3+1aq; + 1e-

t'= +0.44V t' = -0.77 Y

AG" = -2(0.44)f AG'= _(_0.72)f

Fe(s)

Fe3+(aq) +

3e-

^
The best answer is choice A.
83.

-AG

- (-2

x 0.44f 3q

nf

AG' = -zQ.aDf + -(-0.77)y (-0.77r)) _ 2(+0.a9 + (0.77)

Choice D is correct. By using the chromium sample as a reference, the following mathematical process can be employed to determine the free energy change (AG")for the copper system:

-) Cu2+1aq7 + 2e- t' = -0.34 V Cu2+(aq) + 1e- -+ Cu+(aq) t'= +0.15 V -+ Cu+(aq) + 1eCu(s)
AG"iculs) -+ cu+(aq))
The best answer is choice D.

Cu(s)

AG' = -2(-0.94)f = +2(0.g\f AG" = -(0.15)f

AG" = +2(0.34)F - (+0.15)f +2(0.34)F- (+0.15)7

84.

Choice D is correct. To be a sacrificial metal, the metal must have a higher oxidation potential than the metal being protected. Aluminum oxidizes more favorably than iron, zinc oxidizes more favorably than copper, and zinc oxidizes more favorably than iron. This eliminates choices A, B, and C. Because zinc oxidizes more favorably than nickel, protecting zinc with nickel would not be effective. The best answer is choice D.
Choice D is correct. The reaction that is not favorable is the one with a negative reduction potential (e" < 0). In choice D, the cell voltage is 0.34 - 0.99 = -0.65, which is an unfavorable reaction. The reaction is drawn below:

85.

Pd(s) +Cq2*(uq)

--+C..t(t)

+ Pd2+1aq;

Reduction: t' = +0.34 V The cell potential for the aluminum-chromium (III) cell is 1..66 - 0.73 = 0.93 V. The cell potential for the manganese-palladium (II) cell is 1.18 - 0.99 = 0.19 V. The cell potential for the zinc-nickel (II) cell is 0J6 - 0.23 = 0.53 V. The cell potential for the chromium half-reaction is taken from the passage, while the cell potentials for the other half reactions (aluminum, manganese, palladium, zinc, and nickel) are all from Table 1. The only unfavorable reaction is choice D.
86.

Choice A is correct. Because zinc is the sacrificial metal in galvanized steel, it will decay (oxidize) away first before any of the iron will. The mass of the zinc will steadily decrease to zero before any iron begins to oxidize away, choice A. Choice D is correct. The passage states that aluminum, tin, and chromium can be used to form protective oxide coatings. If you did not read the passage, then the answer can be found by looking at the reaction between palladium oxide and copper. From the table, the reduction potential for palladium dication (present in PdO) is E' = 0.99 V. The oxidation potential for copper metal is E' = -0.34 V. The cell potential (E') for the following reaction is thus 0.65 V:
PdO(s) + Cu(s)

87.

-+

Pd(s) + CUO(s)

A palladium oxide coating on copper would actually oxidize the copper metal into copper cation rather than protect the copper from oxidation. An oxide coating of palladium would be effective, so choice D is correct.

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Section X Detailed Explanations

88.

Choice C is correct. Because the charge on the silver cation is +1, twice as many moles of silver metal (Ag) form as both copper metal (Cu) and zinc metal (Zn). Three times as many moles of silver metal (Ag) form as gold metal (Au). To find the mass formed, the moles formed must be multiplied by the atomic mass of the element. The answer choice with the greatest value from moles times molecular mass is the correct answet choice. Silver has an atomic mass of 107.9, and it requires one electron per ion, so one mole of electrons produces 107.9 grams of silver. Copper has an atomic mass of 63.5, but it requires two electrons per ion, so only 31.75 grams form from one mole of electrons. Zinc has an atomic mass of 65.4,but it requires two electrons per ion, so only 32.7 grams form from one mole of electrons. Gold has an atomic mass of 797.0,but it requires three electrons per ion, so only 65.67 grams form from one mole of electrons. The greatest mass results from the silver cation, so choice C is the best
answer.

89.

Choice C is correct. To carry out electroplating, a current must run through some material suspended in a solution of ions. The charge builds up on the surface of the material where ions are reduced and thus can precipitate (onto the surface of the metal). If the material does not conduct electricity, charge cannot build up on iti surface. Plastic is an insulator, not a conductor of electricity, making choice C the best answer. Choice A should have been eliminated, because high temperatures are not required for electroplating. Choice B should be eliminated, because a current of electrons causes reduction, not oxidation. Choice D should have been eliminated, because malleability does not effect electroplating'
Choice A is correct. Because Solution I has a lower concentration of metal than Solution IV, Solution I finishes before Solution IV. This means that either choice A or choice D is the correct choice. Silver has a greater mass than copper, and it requires only one electron for complete reduction, so the electrode of Solution I has a greater initial increase in mass per unit time than solution IV. This can be seen in choice A where Solution I shows a steeper slope than Solution IV.

90.

91.

Choice D is correct. Electroplating results from the conversion of cations in solution into precipitated metal atoms. To convert a cation to a neutral element, electrons must be added. The gain of electrons is defined as reduction, so choice D best describes the process.
Choice A is correct. A good protective metal coating is one that does not oxidize away. This means that it must be unfavorable for the metal to oxidize awayt which would imply that the metal has negative oxidation potential. A negative oxidation potential for the metal would result in a positive reduction potential for the cation (the reverie reaction). This is answer choice A. This also explains why choice D is eliminated. Choice B is incorrect, because the reduction of a metal to an anion is not known to occur. This not only would not be a desirable property, but it would not be practical. A large positive oxidation potential for its cation just means that the cation can further be oxidized, making choice C a bad choice. Choice C is correct. In the experiment, the cation solutions are exposed to the current for one minute. Like zinc and copper, cadmium cation (Cd2*) takes two electrons to be reduced. Because cadmium has an atomic mass greateithan that of both copper and zinc, the mass of the electrode is greater than the electrodes for Solutions iII, IV, V, and VI. The elec[rode has a mass greater than 5.360 grams (the mass of the heavier zinc plated electrode), which eliminates choices A and B. To form the same mass as the silver cation, cadmium would have to have twice the atomic mass of silver. The atomic mass of cadmium is less than twice the atomic mass of silver, so the electrode has a mass less than 6.182 grams (the mass of the lighter silver plated electrode ' This eliminates choice D. The best answer is choice C.

92.

93.

94.

Choice D is correct. Choice A can be eliminated, because both the H+ and the Ag+ are reduced in the reaction a. given, and nothing is oxidized. An oxidation-reduction reaction must have both an oxidation half-reaction arl: a reduction half-reaction. If choice B were true, then tarnish could never occur, because the reduction of silr'e: would be carried out by the sulfide anion it binds. Choice C is eliminated, because Al cannot exist in a -oxidation state. The coriect answer is choice D, because the oxidation state of aluminum (which was oxidizej is +3. Pick choice D and feel happy.

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312

Section X Detailed ExPlanatiorc

95.

Choice B is correct. Setiing the two equation equal to each other yields: -RT h K = - nF". This becomes RT ln K = nFt' once the negative signs have been eliminated. Choices A and C are therefore wrong. Dividing both sides

by RT yields choice B: l:rK =

96.

dto.
RT

Choice A is correct. By simply balancing the atoms in the equation, we find that the coefficients should be 2 : 6 : 3 : 2, so choose A. Sometimes it is easier to balance by inspection than to balance by the redox method. A simple guideline to follow is: If the molecules are all uncharged, balance by inspection. Choice A is correct. First, convert the current units into coulombs: C = amps x sec. = (9.65 amps)(1000 sec) = 9650 C. One mole of electrons carries a charge of one faraday (F), which equals 96,500 coulombs (C), and each mole of Zn dication requires two moles of electrons to be reduced to zinc metal. The molecular weight of Zn is 65.38 g. By substitution:

97.

e6s0c
Choice A is the correct answer.

sraqls u.run fllqlc-e:l/rz more zn)/65.98mole Zn I = " * r^ c /\ mote e- /\ 1 \eo,soo

zn)

98.

Choice D is correct. Magnesium is oxidi zed., and.nickel dication is reduced. The half-reactions for the given cell are as follows:

Mg -+ M** * z"Ni2+ + 2e- -+ Ni

2.37V
-0.23 V

Because Mg is oxidized, not reduced, the value for the reduction potential must be reversed to +2.37 potential is 2.37 + (-0.23) = 2.L4 V. Choice D is the best answer.

V.

The cell

99.
L00.

Choice D is correct. The Nernst equation shows logarithmic decay of the voltage. The log value is multiplied by a small term, making the decay insignificant until the last few moments of the decay. This is best shown in choice D. Choice A is close, but the linear decay at the end is inaccurate. Choice A is correct. Because aluminum and carbon dioxide are products in the reaction, choices C and D are eliminated. Carbon is oxidized to carbon dioxide, and aluminum oxide (A12O3) is reduced to aluminum metal. The best answer is choice A.

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313

Section X Detailed Explanations

lGeneral Chemistry
Sections VI - X
Section Answers

General Chemistry Bubble Sheet (Make five copies, one for each section of the book.)
1.

)
3. 4.

6. 7.
8.

9. 10.
11.

12.
13.

14.
15.

16. 17.
18.

19. 20. 21.

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23.
24.

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26.
27.

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60.@@@@ 61.@@@@i 62.@@@@l 63.@@@@ 64.@@@@
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@ @ @ @ 38.@@@@ 3e.@@@@ 40. @ @ @ q 41.@@@@ 42. @ @ o @ 43.@@@@ 44. @ @ @ @ 4s.l@@@@l 46. @ @ @ @ 47. @ @ @ @ 48.@@@@ 4e.i@ @ @ @ s0.@@@@ sl.@@@@ s2. @ @ o @
37.

28.

to
30. 31.

32.
33.

34.
35. 36.

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66.@@@@ 67.@@@@ 68.@@@@ 6e. @ @ @ @ 70.@@@@ 7t.@@@@

@o @

@@@@ 74. @@@@ t5. @@@@ 76.:, @@@@ 77. @@@@ 78. @@@@ 79. @@@@ 80. @@@@ 81. @@@@ 82. @@@@ 83. @@@@ 84. @@@@ 85. @@@@ 86. @ @ @@ 87. @ @ @@ 88. @ @ @@ 89. @ @ @@ 90. @ @ @@ 91. G) @ (o @ 92. @ @ @ @ 93. @ @ @ @ 94. @ @ @ @ 95. @ @ @ 96. @ @ @ @ 97. @ @ @ @ 98. @ @ @ @ 99. @ @ @ @ 100. @ @ @ @
73.

Chemistry
Section

t L

lRaw
I

Score

72.@@@q
320

Estimated
Scaled Score
The Berkeley Review Specializing in MCAT Preparation

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ERKELEY
R.E.V.I.D.W'"

PEBIODIC TABLE OF TTilE ELEMENTS

H
1.0
3

Li
6.9

iB
10.8 13

He 4.0
6
7
8

10

Be 9.0
12

N
r4.0

o
16.0 16

F
19.0

Ne
20.2
18

t2.0

l1
Na 23.0
19

t4
Si
28.1

l5
P 31.0
JJ

l7
CI
35.5
35

Mg
24.3 20
21

AI
27.0
22
23

s
32.1

Ar
39.9 36

24

25

26

2'l
Co
58.9 45

28

29

30

31

32

34
Se

K
39.

Ca

Sc

Ti
47.9 40

v
50.9

Cr
52.0 42

Mn
54.9 43

Fe
55.8 44

Ni
58.7 46

Cu
63.5
4',7

Zn
65.4 48

Ga
69.'l 49

Ge
72.6 50

As
74.9
51

Br
79.9 53

Kr
83.8 54

40.1

45.0
39

79.0 52 Te 84 Po (2Oe)

37

38

4l
Nb
92.9 73

Rb
85.5 55 Cs

Sr
8'7.6

Y
88.9
"'L

Zr
91.2 72

Mo
95.9 74

Tc (98)
75

Ru
101.1

Rh
102.9

Pd
106.4 78

Ag
79

Cd
1

In
14.8
81

Sn
118.7

Sb
83

I
126.9 85

Xe
131.3

t07.9 112.4
80

l2l.8 t27.6
Bi
209.0

56

<7

76

7'l

82

86

Ba
137.3

Lal
138.9

Hf
178.5

Ta
180.9 105

w
183.9 106

Re
186.2
107

t32.9
87

Os t90.2
108

Ir
192.2 109

Pt
195.

Au
I
111

Hg
112

TI
204.4

Pb
207.2

At

Rn

197.0 200.6

(210) (222)

88

89a

IM

110

Mt Uun Uuu Uub Ac" Rf Db Bh Hs Fr Sg Ra (223) 226.0 227.0 (261) (262) (263) (262) (26s) (266) (269) (272) (277)
58 Ce
140.1

59

60

61

62

63

65

68

69

Pr
140.9

Nd
144.2 92

:--%

Pm (145)

Sm
94

Eu 50.4 t52.0
95 96

Tb
158.9 98

Er
167.3

Tm
168.9

90

9t

Pa U 232.0 (231) 238.0

Th

Np Am Cm Pu (237) (244) (243) (247)

cf
(2s 1)

Specializing in MCAT Preparation