AIEEE-2010 Solution by Aakash

AIEEE 2010
Answers by
(Division of Aakash Educational Services Ltd.)
CODE
Q.N. A
01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 1 2 3 3 4 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 1 3 1 4 3 1 1 4 4 4 1 4 1
CODE
D
2 3 1 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 2 1 2 1 1 1 3 4 4 4 2 3 2 2 3 1 1 2 2
CODE
D
2 3 1 4 2 4 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 2 1 1 4 2 3 3 4 4 4 3 2 4 1 3 4
B
1 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 1 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 4 2 4 4 4 1 1 1 4 4
C
1 1 1 4 4 2 2 4 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 1 3 1 1 2 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 4
Q.N. A
31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 4 3 1 4 1 3 3 2 2 1 4 3 2 3 2 4 1 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 2 2 4 2 3
B
4 4 3 4 2 4 1 4 1 1 4 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 3 4 1 1 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 2
C
4 4 1 2 4 3 4 2 2 1 2 1 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 1 4 1 2 1 2 4 1 3 2 4
Q.N. A
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 3 2 3 4 4 2 1 2 2 4 1 1 1 1 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 3
B
2 3 2 3 4 1 4 3 1 2 2 1 3 1 1 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 1 4 1 3 1 4 3 4
C
3 4 1 4 4 2 1 3 4 1 3 2 2 4 2 4 1 1 1 4 2 4 2 1 4 4 3 3 3 3
D
1 2 4 3 4 4 2 4 2 3 3 2 4 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 3 1 4 1 1 3 3 1 1 1
Though every care has been taken to provide the answers correctly but the Institute shall not be responsible for error, if any.
(Division of Aakash Educational Services Ltd.)

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(Division of Aakash Educational Services Lt d. )
XII Electricity Easy Medium Tough Total 1 4 0 5 XI syllabus
ANALYSIS OF PHYSICS PORTION OF AIEEE 2010

XI XII XI XII XII Heat & Thermodynamics 0 0 1 1 12
XI
XI Total 7 21 2 30
Modern Unit and Magnetism Mechanics Optics Waves Physics Measurements 0 4 0 4 XII syllabus 3 5 1 9 18
Electricity Heat & Thermodynamics Magnetism
3 3 0 6
0 3 0 3
0 1 0 1
0 1 0 1
Distribution of Level of Questions in Physics
Topic wise distribution in Physics

10% 20%
7% 23% 70%
3%
3% 17%
3%
14%
Mechanics Modern Physics Optics Unit and Measurements Waves
30%
Easy
Medium
Tough
Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class XI & XII
40%
60%
XI syllabus
XII syllabus
ANALYSIS OF CHEMISTRY PORTION OF AIEEE 2010

Organic Chemistry Easy Medium Tough Total 7 2 1 10 Inorganic Chemistry 2 2 1 5 Physical Chemistry 6 6 3 15 Total 15 10 5 30
XI syllabus
13
XII syllabus
17
Topic wise distribution in Chemistry
Distribution of Level of Question in Chemistry
17% 33%
50%
50% 17%
33%
Easy
Medium
Tough
Organic Chemistry
Inorganic Chemistry
Physical Chemistry
43% 57%
XI syllabus XII syllabus
XII Calculus Easy Medium Tough Total 4 2 3 9 XI syllabus
XI
ANALYSIS OF MATHEMATICS PORTION OF AIEEE 2010

XII XI XI XI XI Algebra (XII) 0 1 2 3 Algebra (XI) 0 4 1 5 XII syllabus Coordinate Geometry 2 1 0 3 16 Probability Statistics 1 1 0 2 1 1 0 2
XII 3-D (XII) 1 1 0 2
XII Vectors 2 0 0 2 Total 11 12 7 30
Trigonom etry 0 1 1 2 14
Distribution of Level of Questions in Mathematics
Calculus
Trigonometry Algebra (XII)
Topic wise distribution in Mathematics

7%
7% 30%
17%
23%
37%
Algebra (XI) Coordinate Geometry

Probability Statistics
7% 6%
40%
10%
10%
6%
3-D (XII)
Easy
Medium
Tough
Vectors
53%
47%
XI syllabus
XII syllabus
DATE : 25/04/2010
Code -
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075 Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Time : 3 hrs.
Solutions
for AIEEE 2010
(Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics)
Max. Marks: 432
Important Instructions :
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. The test is of 3 hours duration. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 432. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct response. Part A PHYSICS (144 marks) Questions No. 1 to 20 and 23 to 26 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 21 to 22 and 27 to 30 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. Part B CHEMISTRY (144 marks) Questions No. 31 to 39 and 43 to 57 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 40 to 42 and 58 to 60 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response. Part C MATHEMATICS (144 marks) Questions No. 61 to 66, 70 to 83 and 87 to 90 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Questions No. 67 to 69 and 84 to 86 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response 6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 5 for correct response of each question. (one-fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
7. 8. 9.
10.
AIEEE - 2010 (Code-A)
PARTA : PHYSICS
Directions : Questions number 1-3 are based on the following paragraph. An initially parallel cylindrical beam travels in a medium of refractive index (I) = 0 + 2I, where 0 and 2 are positive constants and I is the intensity of the light beam. The intensity of the beam is decreasing with increasing radius. 1. The initial shape of the wavefront of the beam is (1) Planar (2) Convex (3) Concave (4) Convex near the axis and concave near the periphery Ans. (1) Sol. As the beam is initially parallel, the shape of wavefront is planar. 2. The speed of light in the medium is (1) Maximum on the axis of the beam (2) Minimum on the axis of the beam (3) The same everywhere in the beam (4) Directly proportional to the intensity I Ans. (2) Sol. Given = 0 + 2I
c c sh Also, = v = a ka v 0 + 2 I of A As intensity is maximum at centre, so v ision minimum on the axis. i vi s v=
Directions : Questions number 4-5 are based on the following paragraph. A nucleus of mass M + m is at rest and decays into two daughter nuclei of equal mass Speed of light is c. 4. The speed of daughter nuclei is (1) c
M each. 2
m M + m
2 m M
(2) c
m M + m m M
(3) c Ans. (3)
(4) c
Sol. Energy released Q = mc2
1 M 1 M Q = v2 + v2 2 2 2 2
mc 2 = M 2 v 2
5. d
n atiobinding energy per nucleon for the parent The uc

(1) E1 = 2 E2 (3) E1 > E2 (2) E2 = 2 E1 (4) E2 > E1
2 m rvic c e M al S
td sL
.)
nucleus is E1 and that for the daughter nuclei is E2. Then
3.
As the beam enters the medium, it will (1) Travel as a cylindrical beam (2) Diverge (3) Converge (4) Diverge near the axis and converge near the periphery
(D
Ans. (4) Sol. As energy is released, binding energy per nucleon of products is more than that of reactants. E2 > E1. Directions : Questions number 6-7 contain Statement-I and Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements. 6. Statement-1 : When ultraviolet light is incident on a photocell, its stopping potential is V0 and the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is K max. When the ultraviolet light is replaced by X-rays, both V0 and Kmax increase. Statement-2 : Photoelectrons are emitted with speeds ranging from zero to a maximum value because of the range of frequencies present in the incident light.
Ans. (3) Sol. As the beam enters the medium, axial ray will travel slowest. So, it will lag behind. To compensate for the path, the rays will bend towards axis.
axial ray
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(2)
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the not the correct explanation of Statement-1 (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true Ans. (1) Sol. X-rays frequency is more than that of UV rays. So, KEmax and stopping potential increase. Statement-2 is incorrect. Photoelectrons are emitted with a range of kinetic energies because different electrons have different binding energies. 7. Statement-1 : Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in a completely inelastic collision. Statement-2 : Principle of conservation of momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions. (1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the not the correct explanation of Statement-1 (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true Ans. (2)
Ans. (3) Sol. I = p = m|v| = 0.4 (1 + 1) = 0.8 Ns 9. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out of the plane of the paper as shown. The variation of the magnetic field B along the line XX is given by
B
(1) X
X d d
B
(2) X
X d d
(3) X
is Sol. If the particle moving in same direction loseiall their Div energy, final momentum will become (zero, whereas initial momentum is not zero.
8. The figure shows the positiontime (x-t) graph of one-dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4 kg. The magnitude of each impulse is
fA no
k as
d hE
n a ti o c
i ce e rv lS
td sL
d
.)B
X d
B
(4) X
X d d
Ans. (2) Sol. Taking up as positive, in region 1, field will remain negative, and as one moves from to A, field increases in magnitude from zero to large value.
x (m) 2
(1)
A I
(2)
B I
(3)
10
12
14 16 t (s)
(1) 0.2 Ns (3) 0.8 Ns
(2) 0.4 Ns (4) 1.6 Ns (3)
As one moves from A to B, field changes sign from positive to negative, becoming zero at mid point. As one moves in region 3, from B to +, field decreases from a large value to zero.

10. A ball is made of a material of density where oil < < water with oil and water representing the densities of oil and water, respectively. The oil and water are immiscible. If the above ball is in equilibrium in a mixture of this oil and water, which of the following pictures represents its equilibrium positions? Now, dq = (1)
q d
dq + d
(0, 0) dE
Oil Water
(2)
Water Oil
E=
q
2 2
0 4 0 r
sin d = j
q 2 2 0 r 2
12. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a Carnot engine as the working substance. If during the adiabatic expansion part of the cycle the volume of the gas increases from V to 32 V, the efficiency of the engine is (1) 0.25 (3) 0.75 Ans. (3) Sol. For adiabatic expansion (2) 0.5 (4) 0.99
(3)
Oil Water
Water
(4)
Oil
Ans. (3) Sol. > oil , ball must sink in oil alone. As < water , ball must float in water. 11. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net field
T1V1 1 = T2V2 1
1
E at the centre O is
^ j
(D i
^ i
q 4 2 0 r 2 q
2
n i si o
ka Aa f
d hE
u =
n a ti o c
T1 V2 ice 7 = erv = ( 32 ) 5 1 = (32)2/5 = 4 T2 S lV1
td sL
.)
T2 1 = 1 = 0.75 T1 4
13. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 103 are (1) 4, 4, 2 (3) 5, 1, 5 Ans. (2) Sol. 23.023 5 (2) 5, 1, 2 (4) 5, 5, 2
O
(1)
q 2 2 0 r 2 q 4 0 r
2 2
(2)
j
j j
0.0003 1 2.1 103 2 14. The combination of gates shown below yields
(3) Ans. (4)
(4)
2 0 r 2
Sol. By symmetry,
dE cos
=0
X B
(1) NAND gate (3) NOT gate Ans. (2) (2) OR gate (4) XOR gate
j E = dE sin
dq E = sin j 40 r 2
(4)
A
Sol.
A NOT A B = A + B =A+B B NAND
Sol. Charge enclosed by a Gaussian sphere of radius r(< R) is

5 r Qin = dV = 0 4r 2 dr 4 R 0
r
B NOT
5 r 3 4 r 4 = 0 4 3 4R 0 4
5 r 4 = 0 r 3 R 3
E= Qin r 5 r = 0 2 4 0 r 4 0 3 R
15. If a source of power 4 kW produces 1020 photons/ second, the radiation belongs to a part of the spectrum called (1) -rays (3) Ultraviolet rays Ans. (2) Sol. P = nh 4 103 = 1020 6.63 1034
= 4 10 17 Hz . This is range of X-rays. 6.63
(2) X-rays (4) Microwaves
18. In a series LCR circuit R = 200 and the voltage and the frequency of the main supply is 220 V and 50 Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current lags behind the voltage by 30. On taking out the inductor from the circuit the current leads the voltage by 30. The power dissipated in the LCR circuit is (1) 242 W (3) 210 W Ans. (1) Sol. The series LCR will be in resonance So, P = vIvcos
= v 2 r2 ic v cos = ev SR Z al
2
(2) 305 W (4) 0 W
16. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and atomic number Z) emits 3 -particles and 2 positrons. The ratio of number of neutrons to that of protons in the final nucleus will be (1)
AZ 4 Z2
AZ 4 Z8
(2)
AZ8 Z4 A Z 12 Z4
td sL
.)
(3) Ans. (3) Sol.
(4)
f Aa oare For each emission, 2 proton and 2 neutron i on lost. For each position emission, 1 proton is lost, 1 i vi s (D neutron is increased
np = Z 2 3 2 1 = Z 8 nn = (A Z) 2 3 + 2 = A Z 4
k as
d hE =
n a ti o uc (220)
200
48400 = 242 W 200
19. In the circuit shown below, the key K is closed at t = 0. The current through the battery is
L R2
(1)
R1
17. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge distribution with charge density varying as
5 r ( r ) = 0 upto r = R, and (r) = 0 for r > R, 4 R where r is the distance from the origin. The electric field at a distance r(r < R) from the origin is given by
V V ( R1 + R2 ) at t = 0 and at t = R2 R1 R2
(2)
VR1 R2
2 2 R1 + R2
at t = 0 and
V at t = R2
(1)
0 r 5 r 3 0 4 R 0 r 4 0 5 r 3 R
(2)
4 0 r 5 r 3 0 3 R 4 0 r 5 r 3 0 4 R
(3) (4) Ans. (3) (5)
V ( R1 + R2 ) V at t = 0 and at t = R1 R2 R2 V at t = 0 and R2
(3) Ans. (3)
(4)
VR1 R2
2 2 R1 + R2
at t =

Sol. At t = 0, no current flows through inductor So, I =
V R2
At t = , inductor behaves as a conductor So, I =

V ( R1 R2 ) ( R1 + R2 )
22. A rectangular loop has a sliding connector PQ of length l and resistance R and it is moving with a speed v as shown. The set-up is placed in a uniform magnetic field going into the plane of the paper. The three currents I1, I2 and I are
R I I1 Q
R I2
20. A particle is moving with velocity v = K yi + xj ,

where K is a constant. The general equation for its path is (1) y2 = x2 + constant (2) y = x2 + constant (3) y2 = x + constant (4) xy = constant Ans. (1) Sol.
dy dx = Ky ; = Kx dt dt
(1) I 1 = I 2 =
Blv Blv ,I= 6R 3R
(2) I 1 = I 2 = (3) I 1 = I 2 =
Blv 2 Blv ,I= R R
Blv 2 Blv ,I= 3R 3R
(4) I 1 = I 2 = I = Ans. (3) Sol.
Blv R
dy x = ydy = xdx dx y
y2 = x2 + constant 21. Let C be the capacitance of a capacitor discharging through a resistor R. Suppose t1 is the time taken ash k for the energy stored in the capacitor to reduce a f A to half its initial value and t2 is the time taken for the no si o ivalue. Then charge to reduce to one-fourth its initial iv
t the ratio 1 will be t2
Ed
n a ti o c
R
i ce e rv lS
I1
td sL
.)
I = Bvl R
I2 R
(D
(1) 2 (3) Ans. (4)

1 2
(2) 1 (4)
1 4
2 = R 3R R+ 2 I1 = , I2 = 3R 3R I=
where = Bvl 23. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density 0.04 kg m1 is given by
q 2 (q0 )2 2 t /RC = e = U 0 e 2t /RC Sol. U = 2C 2C

q = q0 e
t /RC
t x y = 0.02(m)sin 2 . 0.04(s ) 0.50(m )

The tension in the string is (1) 6.25 N (3) 12.5 N Ans. (1) (2) 4.0 N (4) 0.5 N
When charge becomes times.
1 1 times, energy becomes 16 4
So, t1 = one half life, while t2 = 4 half lives
(6)
2 0.04 = 0.50 = 12.5 m/s Sol. v = = 0.04 k 2 0.50
Sol. a =
2 v 2 v sin cos i j R R
a
T v= T = v 2 = (12.5)2 0.04
= 6.25 N 24. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an angle 30 and 60 with the vertical are shown in the figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the two planes. What is the relative vertical acceleration of A with respect to B?
(R, )
26. A small particle of mass m is projected at an angle with the x-axis with an initial velocity v0 in the x-y plane as shown in the figure. At a time
t< v0 sin , the angular momentum of the particle is g
A B
v0
60
(1) 4.9 ms2 in vertical direction (2) 4.9 ms2 in horizontal direction (3) 9.8 Ans. (1)
2 Sol. a A(along vertical) = g sin 60
30
(1)
1 mg v0 t 2 cos i td.)(2) mg v0 t 2 cos j 2 sL
ms2
in vertical direction
(4) Zero
aB(along vertical) = g sin 2 30
3 1 g 2 a( A /B ) along vertical = g = = 4.9 m/s 4 4 2
v (D i
is
o i on
fA
s a ka
uc Ed h where
(3) mgna t cos k v0
a ti o
i ce e rv lS
1 2 (4) mg v0 t cos k 2
j i , and k are unit vectors along x, y and
z-axis respectively
Ans. (4) Sol. Angular momentum, L = dt

L = mg x dt k = mg v0 cos t dt k
25. For a particle in uniform circular motion, the acceleration a at a point P(R, ) on the circle of radius R is (Here is measured from the x-axis)
v2 v2 j i+ (1) R R
2 v2 v j (2) cos i + sin R R 2 v2 v j sin i + cos R R
mg v0 cos t 2 k 2
(3)
27. Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make an angle of 30 with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8 g cm3, the angle remains the same. If density of the material of the sphere is 1.6 g cm3, the dielectric constant of the liquid is (1) 1 (3) 3 Ans. (4) (2) 4 (4) 2
2 v2 v j (4) cos i sin R R
Ans. (4) (7)

Sol.
ac =
T F
a=
(12)2 144 = = 7.2 m/s 20 20
dv = 12 m/s 2 dt
2 ac + at2 =
mg
For equilibrium, F = mg tan in oil F = mg tan
g F 1 = k= F g 1
12 2 + (7.2)2
14 m/s2
29. The potential energy function for the force between two atoms in a diatomic molecule is approximately given by U ( x ) = , where a and b are x x6 constants and x is the distance between the atoms. If the dissociation energy of the molecule is D = [U(x = ) Uat equilibrium], D is
12
1 =2 0.8 1 1.6
(1)
b2 6a
(2)
b2 2a
28. A point P moves in counter-clockwise direction on a circular path as shown in the figure. The movement of P is such that it sweeps out a length s = t3 + 5, where s is in metres and t is in seconds. The radius of the path is 20 m. The acceleration of P when t = 2 s is nearly
(3) Ans. (4) Sol. U =
b2 12 a
brvi e 12l S 6 xa x n a
(4)
b2 4a
ce
td sL
.)
y B
m
P(x, y)
O
(1) 14 m/s2 (3) 12 m/s2 Ans. (1) Sol. S = t3 + 5
dS = 3t 2 dt
v xD ( i
is
o i on
fA
sh a ka
a du c
ti o
At equilibrium
12 a x 13 12 a x
13
dU =0 dx
=0
6b x7
20
(2) 13 m/s2 (4) 7.2 m/s2
6b x7
6 x =
2a b
a 2a b
2
U (at equilibrium) =
b 2a b
v = 3t2
dv = 6t dt
At t = 2 s v = 12 m/s
= At x = , U = 0
D=
b 2 b 2 b 2 = 4a 2 a 4a
b2 4a
(8)
30. Two conductors have the same resistance at 0C but their temperature coefficients of resistance are 1 and 2. The respective temperature coefficients of their series and parallel combinations are nearly (1)
1 + 2 1 + 2 , 2 2
Sol. RS = R1 + R2
dRS dR1 dR2 ; R s = R1 1 + R2 2 = + dT dT dT As R1 = R2 R = R1 + R2 = 2R1
1 + 2 2
(2)
1 + 2 , 1 + 2 2 1 + 2 2
1 1 1 = + RP R1 R2
1 dRP 1 dR1 1 dR2 = 2 + 2 2 dT dT R2 dT RP R1 P RP = 1 2 + R1 R2
(3) 1 + 2 ,
1 2 (4) 1 + 2 , + 1 2
Ans. (1)
P =
1 + 2 2
PARTB : CHEMISTRY
31. In aqueous solution the ionisation constants for carbonic acid are K1 = 4.2 107 and K2 = 4.8 1011 Select the correct statement for a saturated 0.034 M solution of the carbonic acid. (1) The concentration of H+ is double that of CO 2 3 (2) The concentration of CO 2 is 0.034 M 3 (3) The concentration of CO2 is greater than of A that 3 i on of HCO 3 vi s H+ and 5 1013 = 0.05 x x = 1011 M KBr Solubility ofice is (120 1011) or 1.2 109 g/L
ak
rv Se 33. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order n al of theio t ionic radii of the elements is u ca (1) Ed O2 > F > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ as h
(2) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F > O2 (3) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2 > F (4) Na+ > F > Mg2+ > O2 > Al3+ Ans. (1) Sol. O > F > Na > Mg > Al
2 + 2+ 3+
td sL
.)
(4) The concentrations of approximately equal Ans. (4) Sol. Since K2 < < K1
Conc. of H+ and same.
HCO 3
(D i
HCO 3
are
are approximately
Decreasing ionic radii with increasing effective nuclear charge for isoelectronic species. 34. In the chemical reactions,
32.
quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass taken as 120 g mol1) to be added to 1 litre of 0.05 M solution of silver nitrate to start the precipitation of AgBr is (1) 5.0 108 g (3) 1.2 109 g (2) 1.2 1010 g (4) 6.2 105 g
Solubility product of silver bromide is 5.0 1013. The
NH2
2 4 A B HCl , 278 K
NaNO
HBF
the compounds 'A' and 'B' respectively are (1) Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene (2) Nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene (3) Phenol and benzene (4) Benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene Ans. (4) (9)
Ans. (3) Sol. [Ag+] = 0.05, [Br] = x M Ksp = [Ag+] [Br]

Ans. (3)
NH2
Sol.
NaNO2 HCl , 278 K
N NCl
HBF4 Benzene diazonium chloride
Sol. Tf = i Kfm i for Na2SO4 is 3(100% ionisation)
Fluorobenzene
Tf = 3 1.86 Tf = 0.0558 K
0.01 1
35. If 104 dm3 of water is introduced into a 1.0 dm3 flask at 300 K, how many moles of water are in the vapour phase when equilibrium is established? (Given : Vapour pressure of H 2 O at 300 K is 3170 Pa; R = 8.314 J K1 mol1) (1) 1.27 103 mol (3) 1.53 102 mol Ans. (1) Sol. PV = nRT 3170 103 = n 8.314 300 (2) 5.56 103 mol (4) 4.46 102 mol
38. Three reactions involving H2 PO are given below 4 (i)
H3 PO 4 + H2 O H3 O + + H2 PO 4
2 (ii) H2 PO 4 + H 2 O H2 PO 4 + H3 O+ (iii) H2 PO 4 + OH H3PO 4 + O2
In which of the above does H2 PO act as an acid? 4 (1) (i) only (3) (i) and (ii) Ans. (2) (2) (ii) only (4) (iii) only
n=
31.7 103 = 1.27 10 3 8.314 3
36. From amongst the following alcohols the one that would react fastest with conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2, is (1) 1-Butanol (2) 2-Butanol
Sol. O P O rvic OH H +
(3) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol (4) 2-Methylpropanol Ans. (3)
Sol. Alcohols which give more stable carbocation is more (D reactive with Lucas reagent (Anhy. ZnCl2 + conc. HCl)
io i vi s
no
ka Aa f
d hE
n oO a H tiAcid a c
l Se
td sL
H
.)
O O P O +H O H OH H
Base
39. The main product of the following reaction is

2 4 C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH(OH)CH(CH 3 )2 ?
conc. H SO
H5C6CH2CH2
(1)
C = CH2 H3C
H5C6 H C= C H CH(CH3)2
OH | Anhy.ZnCl+ HCl CH3 C CH2 CH3 CH3 C CH2 CH3 | | CH3 CH3
More reactive More stable tertiary carbocation
(2)
C6H5CH2
(3)
CH3 C= C CH3
37. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated into cations and anions in aqueous solution, the change in freezing point of water (Tf), when 0.01 mol of sodium sulphate is dissolved in 1 kg of water, is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol1) (1) 0.0186 K (3) 0.0558 K (2) 0.0372 K (4) 0.0744 K (10)
C6H5
(4) Ans. (2)
CH(CH3)2 C= C H
Sol.
H OH CH2CHCH CH3 CH3 O
H
Ans. (4)
H CH3 CH3 CH3 CHCH C H (A) CH3 CH = CHCH (A) (B) H CH3
Sol. %N =
=
1.4 NV W
1.4 0.1 (20 15) 29.5 10
3
CH2CHCH
700 = 23.7 29.5
42. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 1018 atom1. The energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of Li2+ is (1) 8.82 1017 J atom1 (2) 4.41 1016 J atom1 (3) 4.41 1017 J atom1 (4) 2.2 1015 J atom1 Ans. (3)
CH3 Extension of conjugation (More stable) Major product CH3 (B) CH2CH = C CH3 (Minor)
Sol. E
EHe+
Li +2
2 ZHe+
Z 2 +2
Li
40. The energy required to break one mole of Cl Cl bonds in Cl2 is 242 kJ mol1. The longest wavelength of light capable of breaking a single Cl Cl bond is (c = 3 108 ms1 and NA = 6.02 1023 mol1) (1) 494 nm (3) 640 nm Ans. (1) (2) 594 nm (4) 700 nm
19.6 10 18 4 = ELi +2 9
Li +2
hc Sol. E =
E= 242 103 6.023 10 23 242 103 6.023 10 =
23
J /atom 6.6 10 34 3 108
v (D i
i si o
fA no
h k as
43.
heptane and octane from E solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures ofan ideal the two
ti o ucamixing, On d
Energy of orbit of Li+2 is 4.41 1017 J/atom n al
= 4.41 rvic J/atom 1017
9 19.6 10 18 .) 4 Lt d
Se
es
liquid components (heptane and octane) are 105 kPa and 45 kPa respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.0 g of heptane and 35 g of octane will be (molar mass of heptane = 100 g mol1 and of octane = 114 g mol1) (1) 144.5 kPa (3) 36.1 kPa (2) 72.0 kPa (4) 96.2 kPa
19.8 10 26 6.023 10 23 242 103
Ans. (2)
= 0.494 10
6
0 0 Sol. P = X A PA + X B PB
= 494 nm 41. 29.5 mg of an organic compound containing nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl's method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of the acid required 15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for complete neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is (1) 29.5 (3) 47.4 (2) 59.0 (4) 23.7 (11)
nheptane = noctane =
25 = 0.25 100
35 = 0.307 114
P=
0.25 0.307 105 + 45 0.25 + 0.307 0.25 + 0.307
= 47.127 + 24.84 = 71.96 72 kPa

44. Which one of the following has an optical isomer? (1) [Zn(en)2]2+ (2) [Zn(en)(NH3)2]2+ (3) [Co(en)3]3+ (4) Ans. (3) [Co(H2O)4(en)]3+ 47. Consider the reaction Cl2 (aq) + H2S (aq) S(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2Cl(aq) The rate equation for this reaction is rate = k [Cl2] [H2S] Which of these mechanisms is/are consistent with this rate equation?
3+
N N
Sol.
Co
N N
Co
3+
A. Cl2 + H2S H+ + Cl + Cl+ + HS (slow) Cl+ + HS H+ + Cl + S (fast) B. H2S H+ + HS (fast equilibrium)
N Optically active
Cl2 + HS 2Cl + H+ + S (slow) (1) A only (3) Both (A) & (B) Ans. (1) Sol. Rate depends only on slow step (2) B only (4) Neither (A) nor (B)
Exist as enantiomeric pair Co ( en ) 3 45. Consider the following bromides Me
3+
Me Br (C)
48. The Gibbs energy for the decomposition Al2O3 at 500C is as follows
Me (A)
(1) A > B > C (3) B > A > C Ans. (2)
Br
Br (B)
Me
2 4 Al 2 O 3 Al + O 2 , r G = +966kJ mol 1 3 3
The correct order of SN1 reactivity is (2) B > C > A (4) C > B > A
td The potential difference needed for electrolytic s Lat 500C is at least reduction of Ale 3 ic2O E h Ans. (4) a ti o n V (3) 3.0 a du c
(1) 5.0 VS l
.)
e rv
(2) 4.5 V (4) 2.5 V
Sol. Formation of carbocation is rate determining step in s k SN1 reaction. Hence alkyl halide which gives more a 2 4 f Aa stable carbocation is more reactive towards SN1 Al 2 O3 Al + O 2 Sol. no 3 3 io reaction i vi s G = 966 kJ/mol (D Me Me 4e are involved > Me > Me Br G = nFE Br Br decreasing order of SN1 reactivity 966 103 = 4 96500 E 46. One mole of a symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular mass of 44 u. The alkene (1) Ethane (2) Propene (3) 1-butene (4) 2-butene Ans. (4) Sol. CH3
E=
966 V = 2.5 V 4 965
2.5 V potential difference is required 49. The correct order of increasing basicity of the given conjugate bases (R = CH3) is (1) RCOO < HC C < NH 2 < R (2) RCOO < HC C < R < NH 2
CH
CH
CH3
(i) O3 (ii) Zn-H2O
CH3
CHO
(3) R < HC C < RCOO < NH 2 (4) RCOO < NH 2 < HC C < R Ans. (1) (12)
44 amu
R COO < HC C < N H 2 < R Sol. increasing basic strength

As sp 3 C is less electronegative than sp3 N alkyl carbanion ( R ) is more basic than N H 2 . However
52. For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T, H and S were found to be both +ve. If Te is the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous when (1) T = Te (3) T > Te Ans. (3) Sol. G = H TS For equilibrium G = 0 For spontaneous reaction, G < 0 T > Te 53. Percentages of free space in cubic close packed structure and in body centered packed structure are respectively (1) 48% and 26% (2) 30% and 26% (3) 26% and 32% (4) 32% and 48% (2) Te > T (4) Te is 5 times T
sp hybridized carbon is more electronegative than sp3 N. Hence N H 2 is more basic than HC C 50. The edge length of a face centered cubic cell of an ionic substance is 508 pm. If the radius of the cation is 110 pm, the radius of the anion is (1) 144 pm (2) 288 pm (3) 398 pm (4) 618 pm Ans. (1) Sol. In fcc crystal, R + r =
a 2
Ans. (3)
110 + r =
r = 144 pm
508 = 254 2
Lt Sol. Packing fractions of fcc and bcc lattices are 74% and ce s 68% rvi h k as
54.E
d. )
ti o ucapolymer containing strong intermolecular forces d The

e.g. hydrogen bonding, is (1) Natural rubber (2) Teflon (3) Nylon 6, 6 (4) Polystyrene
Vacancies are 26% and 32% n al
Se
51. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical i on isomerism is i vi s (1) 2-methyl-2-pentene (2) 3-methyl-2-pentene (3) 4-methyl-1-pentene (4) 3-methyl-1-pentene Ans. (4) Sol.
a of A
(D
Ans. (3) Sol. Nylon 6, 6 involves amide linkage therefore, it will also have very strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding between
C group of
H
1 2
H Et Et C
two polyamide chains 55. At 25C, the solubility product of Mg(OH) 2 is 1.0 10 11 . At which pH, will Mg2+ ions start precipitating in the form of Mg(OH) 2 from a solution of 0.001 M Mg2+ ions? (1) 8 (3) 10 (13) (2) 9 (4) 11
C
3
Me Me mirror image 3-methyl-1-pentene Chiral Chiral Non superimposable

Ans. (3) Sol. Ksp = [Mg+2] [OH]2 59. A solution containing 2.675 g of CoCl3.6NH3 (molar mass = 267.5 g mol1) is passed through a cation exchanger. The chloride ions obtained in solution were treated with excess of AgNO3 to give 4.78 g of AgCl (molar mass = 143.5 g mol1). The formula of the complex is (At. mass of Ag = 108 u) (1) [CoCl(NH3)5]Cl2 (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (3) [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl (4) [CoCl3(NH3)3] Ans. (2) Sol. Moles of complex =
1 1011 = 0.001 [OH]2

[OH]
= 104 M
pOH = 4, pH = 10 56. The correct order of Eo 2 + /M values with negative M sign for the four successive elements Cr, Mn, Fe and Co is (1) Cr > Mn > Fe > Co (3) Cr > Fe > Mn > Co Ans. (2) Sol. Mn > Cr > Fe > Co
E o 2 + /Mn = 1.18 Mn E o 2 + /Cr = 0.91 Cr E o 2 + /Fe = 0.44 Fe
(2) Mn > Cr > Fe > Co (4) Fe > Mn > Cr > Co
2.675 = 0.01 267.5 4 78 = 0.033 143.5
Moles of AgCl precipitated =
It means 3Cl are released by one molecule of complex [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
E o 2 + /CO = 0.28 CO
57. Biuret test is not given by (1) Proteins (3) Polypeptides Ans. (2) Sol. (2) Carbohydrates (4) Urea
fA n o are Biuret test is only given by amides. Carbohydrates i si o not amides and hence it does not give biuret test. Div (
A Products is 1 h. When the initial concentration of the reactant 'A', is 2.0 mol L1, how much time does it take for its concentration to come from 0.50 to 0.25 mol L 1 if it is a zero order reaction?
(1) 1 h (3) 0.5 h (2) 4 h (4) 0.25 h
rv 60. The standard enthalpy of formation of Se kJ mol1. If the enthalpy of formation NH3 nal46.0 is a io of tH2 from its atoms is 436 kJ mol1 and that of uc Ed N2 is 712 kJ mol1, the average bond enthalpy of sh N H bond is NH3 is a ka
(1) 1102 kJ mol1 (2) 964 kJ mol1 (3) +352 kJ mol1 (4) +1056 kJ mol1 Ans. (3) Sol.
i ce
td sL
.)
58. The time for half life period of a certain reaction
1 3 N 2 + H2 NH 3 2 2
HNH3 = 46 kJ
1 3 NH3 N 2 + H2 2 2 1 3 46 = 3HN H ( 712 ) 436 2 2
H N H = 352 kJ /mol
Ans. (4) Sol. K =
a 2 = =1 2t 1 2 1
2
t=
C 0 C t 0.5 0.25 = = 0.25 h K 1

(14)
PARTC : MATHEMATICS
61. Consider the following relations : R = {(x, y) | x, y are real numbers and x = wy for some rational number w};
m p S = , m , n , p and q are integers such that n, n q
Sol. and are roots of the equation x2 x + 1 = 0. + = 1, = 1
x=
1 3i 1 + 3i 1 3i , , 2 2 2
q 0 and qm = pn}. Then (1) R is an equivalence relation but S is not an equivalence relation (2) Neither R nor S is an equivalence relation (3) S is an equivalence relation but R is not an equivalence relation (4) R and S both are equivalence relations Ans. (3) Sol. R is not an equivalence relation because 0 R 1 but
1 R 0 , S is an equivalence relation.
x = or 2 Thus, = 2, then = = , then = 2 where 3 = 1 2009 + 2009 = ()2009 + (2)2009 = [(3)669.2 + (3)1337.] = [2 + ] = (1) = 1 64. Consider the system of linear equations: x1 + 2x2 + x3 = 3 2x1 + 3x2 + x3 = 3 3x1 + 5x2 + 2x3 = 1 The system has
62. The number of complex numbers z such that |z 1| = |z + 1| = |z i| equals (1) 0 (3) 2 Ans. (2) Sol. (2) 1 (4)
(1) Infinite number of solutions rvic
(0, 1)
(D
(1, 0) O (1, 0)
io i vi s
of A
sh a ka
ti o ucaA unique solutions (3) d

(4) No solution
(2) Exactly 3 solutions na
l Se
td sL
.)
Ans. (4) Sol. The given system of linear equations can be put in the matrix form as
|z + i|
We have, |z 1| = |z + 1| = |z i| Clearly z is the circumcentre of the triangle formed by the vertices (1, 0) and (0, 1) and (1, 0), which is unique. 63. If and are the roots of the equation x2 x + 1 = 0, then 2009 + 2009 = (1) 2 (3) 1 Ans. (3) (15) (2) 1 (4) 2
1 2 1 x1 3 2 3 1 x = 3 2 3 5 2 x3 1
1 2 1 x1 3 ~ 0 1 1 x2 = 3 by R2 R2 2 R1 0 1 1 x3 8 R3 R3 3R1
1 2 1 x1 3 ~ 0 1 1 x2 = 3 0 0 0 x3 5
R3 R3 R2
Clearly the given system of equations has no solution.

Alter Subtracting the addition of first two equations from third equation, we get, 0 = 5, which is an absurd result. Hence the given system of equation has no solution. 65. There are two urns. Urn A has 3 distinct red balls and urn B has 9 distinct blue balls. From each urn two balls are taken out at random and then transferred to the other. The number of ways in which this can be done is (1) 3 (3) 66 Ans. (4) Sol. (2) 36 (4) 108 Sol. We have, f:RR
x
lim
f (3x ) =1 f (x)
2 f x f (2 x) f (2 x ) 3 = . 2 f (x ) f (x ) f x 3
x f f (2x ) 1 3 = . . 2 f (x ) 2x f x f 3 f x 3 3
3 red balls
9 distinct blue balls
Taking limit x and lim We find that,
f (2 x ) =l f ( x)
Urn A
Urn B
Two balls from urn A and two balls from urn B can be selected in 3C2 9C2 ways = 3 36 = 108 66. Let f : (1, 1) R be a differentiable function with f(0) = 1 and f (0) = 1. Let g(x) = [f(2f(x) + 2)]2. Then g(0) = (1) 4 (3) 0 Ans. (2) Sol. We have,
f : ( 1, 1) R f (0) = 1 f (0) = 1
1 1 l = 1 1 l
68. Let p(x) be a function defined on R such that sL

f (3x ) erv lim l S = 1 p(x) = p(1 x), for all x [0, 1], p(0) x n ax ) o f(
l 2 = 1 l = 1.
i ce
t d. )
(2) 4 (4) 2
(D
io i vi s
no
f Aa
h k as
uc Ed
a ti
= 1 and p(1) = 41. Then (1)
p(x )dx
0
equals
41
(2) 21 (4) 42
(3) 41 Ans. (2) Sol. We have,
g(x) = [ f(2f(x) +
2)]2
g(x) = 2[ f(2f(x) + 2)] f (2f(x) + 2) 2f (x) g(0) = 2[ f(2 f(0) + 2)] f (2 f(0) + 2) 2f (0) = 2[f(0)] f (0) 2f (0) = 2 1 1 2 1 = 4 67. Let f : R R be a positive increasing function with
x
p(x) = p(1 x), x [0, 1], p(0) = 1, p(1) = 41 p(x) = p(1 x) + C 1 = 41 + C C = 42 p(x) + p(1 x) = 42
lim
f (3x ) f (2x ) = 1. Then lim = x f ( x ) f ( x)
I = p(x )dx = p(1 x )dx

0 0 1 1
(1) 1 (3) Ans. (1)

3 2
(2)
2 3
(4) 3
2 I = ( p( x ) + p(1 x ))dx = 42.dx = 42

0 0
I = 21
(16)
69. A person is to count 4500 currency notes. Let an denote the number of notes he counts in the nth minute. If a1 = a2 = ... = a10 = 150 and a10, a11, ... are in an AP with common difference 2, then the time taken by him to count all notes is (1) 24 minutes (3) 125 minutes Ans. (2) Sol. Number of notes person counts in 10 minutes. = 10 150 = 1500 Since, a10, a11, a12, ....... are in A.P. with common difference = 2 Let n be the time taken to count remaining 3000 notes, then (2) 34 minutes (4) 135 minutes
71. The area bounded by the curves y = cosx and y = sinx between the ordinates x = 0 and x = (1) 4 2 2 (3) 4 2 1 Ans. (1) Sol. (2) 4 2 + 2 (4) 4 2 + 1
3 is 2
3 2
Required area
=
/4
n [2 148 + (n 1) 2] = 3000 2
n2 149n + 3000 = 0 (n 24) (n 125) = 0 n = 24, 125 Time taken by the person to count all notes = 10 + 24 = 34 minutes 70. The equation of the tangent to the curve y = x + that is parallel to the x-axis, is (1) y = 0 (3) y = 2 Ans. (4) Sol. We have,
y = x+ 4 x2
(cos x sin x )dx +
5 /4 /4
(sin x cos x )dx

3 /2 5 /4
(cos x sin x )dx
= (4 2 2) sq. units
4 x2 ,
72. Solution of the differential equation i ce
(2) y = 1 (4) y = 3
(D i
n i si o
of A
sh a ka
du c
cosatio = y(sin x y )dx , 0 < x < xdy
e al S
rv
td sL
.)
is 2
(1) secx = (tanx + c)y (3) ytanx = secx + c
(2) ysecx = tanx + c (4) tanx = (secx + c)y
Ans. (1) Sol. The given differential equation can be put in the form
1 dy 1 tan x = sec x y 2 dx y
dy 8 = 1 3 dx x The tangent is parallel to x-axis, hence
dy =0 dx
dz 1 + ( tan x ) z = + sec x , z = dx y
x3 = 8 x=2 and y = 3 The equation of the tangent to the given curve at (2, 3) is
which is linear is z
I.F = e
tan x dx
= e ln sec x = sec x
The solution is
z.sec x = sec 2 xdx = tan x + c
dy y3 = ( x 2) = 0 dx (2, 3)
y=3
where c is a constant of integration
sec x = y ( tan x + c )
(17)

j j 73. Let a = k and c = i k. Then the vector b
satisfying a b + c = 0 and a . b = 3 is 75. If two tangents drawn from a point P to the parabola y 2 = 4x are at right angles, then the locus of p is (1) x = 1 (3) x = 1 Ans. (3) Sol. Locus of P from which two perpendicular tangents are drawn to the parabola is the directrix of the parabola Hence locus is, x = 1 (2) 2x + 1 = 0 (4) 2x 1 = 0
j (1) i + 2 k j (3) i 2 k
Ans. (1) Sol. We have
j (2) 2i + 2 k j (4) i + 2 k
ab + c = 0
a ab + ac = 0
a .b a a . a b + a c = 0
3a 2b + a c = 0
76. The line L given by
x y + = 1 passes through the 5 b point (13, 32). The line K is parallel to L and has the
( ) ( )
equation and K is (1) (3) Ans. (4)
x y + = 1. Then the distance between L c 3
23 15 17 15
2 b = 3 a + a c ; a c = 2 i j k = 3 j 3k 2i j k = 2 i + 2 j 4 k b = i + j 2 k
(2) (4)
17
23 17
j 74. If the vectors a = i + 2 k.

j b = 2i + 4 + k and c = i + + k j orthogonal, then (, ) =
(1) (3, 2) (3) (2, 3) Ans. (1) Sol. We have are
(2) (2, 3) Di ( (4) (3, 2)
vi s
o i on
mutually ak
fA
as
.) Lt d 13 32 32 s 8 + = 1 ice = b = 20 Sol. rv b 5 5 b Se nal K must have equation Theo ti line u ca d y x hE x y

5 20
=1 = a or 5 a 20 a
Comparing with
x y + =1 c 3
3 Given 20 a = 3, c = 5a = 4
Distance between lines is
a .b = 2 4 + 2 = 0 a . c = 1 + 2 = 0 b . c = 2 + 4 + = 0
Thus = 1 2 and 2 4 + 4 + = 0 3 = 6, = 2 = 3 (, ) = (3, 2) =
3 1 23 20 = = 1 1 17 17 + 25 400 400 a1
77. A line AB in three-dimensional space makes angles 45 and 120 with the positive x-axis and the positive y-axis respectively. If AB makes an acute angle with the positive z-axis, then equals (1) 30 (3) 60 Ans. (3) (2) 45 (4) 75
(18)
Sol. cos245 + cos2120 + cos2 = 1
1 1 + + cos2 = 1 2 4
cos 2 = 1 4
80. The circle x2 + y2 = 4x + 8y + 5 intersects the line 3x 4y = m at two distinct points if (1) 85 < m < 35 (3) 15 < m < 65 Ans. (2) Sol. Centre (2, 4) r2 = 4 + 16 + 5 = 25 Distance of (2, 4) from 3x 4y = m must be less than radius
|6 16 m| <5 5
(2) 35 < m < 15 (4) 35 < m < 85
1 cos = = 60o or 120 o 2

78. Let S be a non-empty subset of R Consider the following statement : P : There is a rational number x S such that x > 0. Which of the following statements is the negation of the statement P ? (1) There is a rational number x S such that x0 (2) There is no rational number x S such that x0 (3) Every rational number x S satisfies x 0 (4) x S and x 0 x is not rational Ans. (3)
4 5 79. Let cos( + ) = and let sin( ) = , where 5 13
25 < 10 + m < 25 35 < m < 15 81. For two data sets, each of size 5, the variances are given to be 4 and 5 and the corresponding means are given to be 2 and 4, respectively. The variance of the combined data set is (1)
5 2
(2)
11 2 13 2
(3) 6 Ans. (2) =4 Sol. E(X2) (E(X))2 vice
(4)
0 ,
25 16
. Then tan 2 = 4
(1)
(2)
56 33
19 (3) 12
Ans. (2) Sol. cos( + ) =
20 (4) 7
(D i
n i si o
ka Aa f
sh
n a ti oX uc Ed
E(X2al=S + 4 = 8 ) 4
2 i
er
td sL
.)
= 40
E(Y2) (E(Y))2 = 5 E(Y2) = 5 + 16 = 21
= 105 = 10, Yi = 20
i 2 i
(X (X
+ Yi ) = 30 + Yi2 ) = 145
145 55 11 9 = = 10 10 2
4 + 1st quadrant 5 5 1st quadrant 13
Variance(combined data) =
sin( ) =
2 = ( + ) + ( )
tan 2 = tan( + ) + tan( ) 1 tan( + )tan( )
82. An urn contains nine balls of which three are red, four are blue and two are green. Three balls are drawn at random without replacement from the urn. The probability that the three balls have different colours is (1) (3) Ans. (2)
1 3
(2) (4)
3 5 + 56 = 4 12 = 3 5 33 1 . 4 12
2 7
2 23
1 21
(19)

Sol. Total number of cases = 9C3 = 84 Favourable cases =
p= 24 2 = 84 7
3C .4C .2C 1 1 1
= 24
1 * * Sol. Consider * 1 * . By placing a1 in any one of * * 1

the 6 * position and 0 elsewhere. We get 6 nonsingular matrices.
83. For a regular polygon, let r and R be the radii of the inscribed and the circumscribed circles. A false statement among the following is (1) There is a regular polygon with
r 1 = R 2
* * 1 Similarly * 1 * gives at least one nonsingular 1 * * 85. Let f : R R be defined by

k 2 x , if x 1 f (x) = 2 x + 3, if x > 1
r 1 = (2) There is a regular polygon with R 2

(3) There is a regular polygon with
r 2 = R 3
If f has a local minimum at x = 1, then a possible value of k is (1) 1 (3) Ans. (4) Sol.
1 2
(2) 0 (4) 1
r 3 = (4) There is a regular polygon with R 2

Ans. (3)
2x + 3 k 2x
Sol.
R 2 n
r n
a = sin 2R n
a = tan 2r n
vi s (D i
r = cos R n
io
fA no
h k as
Ed
ti o u ca
al S
k e rv +2
i ce
td sL
1
.)
k+21 k 1
Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion Reason type questions. Each of these questions contains two statements. Statement-1 : (Assertion) and Statement-2 : (Reason). Each of these questions also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice. 86. Four numbers are chosen at random (without replacement) from the set {1, 2, 3, , 20}. Statement-1 : The probability that the chosen numbers when arranged in some 1 order will form an AP is . 85 Statement-2 : If the four chosen numbers from an AP, then the set of all possible values of common difference is {+1, +2, +3, +4, +5}.
n=3 n=4 n=6
gives gives gives
r 1 = R 2
r 1 = R 2
r 3 = R 2
84. The number of 3 3 non-singular matrices, with four entries as 1 and all other entries as 0, is (1) Less than 4 (3) 6 Ans. (4) (20) (2) 5 (4) At least 7
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1 (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true Ans. (3) Sol. Statement-2 is false. The outcomes 2, 8, 14, 20 is an AP with common difference 6. 87. Let S1 = j( j 1)10 C j , S2 = j 10C j and
j=1 j=1 10 10
Sol. The image of the point (3, 1, 6) w.r.t. the plane x y + z = 5 is
x 3 y 1 z 6 2(3 1 + 6 5) = = = 1 1 1+1+1 1
x3 y1 z6 = = = 2 1 1 1
x=32=1 y=1+2=3 z=62=4 which shows that statement-1 is true. We observe that the line segment joining the points A(3, 1, 6) and B(1, 3, 4) has direction ratios 2, 2, 2 which one proportional to 1, 1, 1 the direction ratios of the normal to the plane. Hence statement-2 is true. 89. Let f : R R be a continuous function defined by
f ( x) = 1 e + 2e x
x
S3 = j 2
j=1
10
10
Cj
Statement-1 : S3 = 55 29 Statement-2 : S1 = 90 28 and S2 = 10 28 (1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1 (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true Ans. (3) Sol. S2 = j 10C j = 10.2 9
j=1 10
Statement-1 : f ( c ) =
Statement-2 is false. Only choice is (3).
(D i
vi s
o i on
fA
sh a ka
a ti duc Statement-1 E (1)
Statement-2 e 0 < f (x ) l S:
on a
rvic
td sL
1 , for some c R. 3 )
1 2 2
, for all x R.
is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true Ans. (1) Sol. f (0) =
1 3
88. Statement-1 : The point A(3, 1, 6) is the mirror image of the point B(1, 3, 4) in the plane x y + z = 5. Statement-2 : The plane x y + z = 5 bisects the line segment joining A(3, 1, 6) and B(1, 3, 4). (1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1 (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true Ans. (1) (21)
Statement-1 is true.
f (x) =
1 ex ex + + e x + e x 2 2
By AM GM
ex ex + + e x + e x 4 2 2
4
1 = 43/4 4
0 < f (x )
1 4
3/4
1 2 2
Statement-1 : Tr(A) = 0. Statement-2 : |A| = 1. (1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1 (2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1 (3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false (4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true Ans. (3) Sol. A satisfies A2 Tr(A). A + (det A)I = 0 comparing with A2 I = 0, it follows Tr A = 0, |A| = 1.
Equality holds if ex = 2ex e2x = 2. Since

f (c ) =
1 1 by intermediate value theorem 3 2 2

1 same c R. 3
90. Let A be a 2 2 matrix with non-zero entries and let A2 = I, where I is 2 2 identity matrix. Define Tr(A) = sum of diagonal elements of A and |A| = determinant of matrix A.
(D
io i vi s
no
ka Aa f
d hE
n a ti o c
i ce e rv lS
td sL
.)
(22)

AIEEE-2010 Solution by Aakash

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AIEEE 2010

(Division of Aakash Educational Services Ltd.)

TOP RANKERS ALWAYS FROM AAKASH

(Division of Aakash Educational Services Lt d. )

XII Electricity Easy Medium Tough Total 1 4 0 5 XI syllabus

ANALYSIS OF PHYSICS PORTION OF AIEEE 2010

Distribution of Level of Questions in Physics

Topic wise distribution in Physics

Mechanics Modern Physics Optics Unit and Measurements Waves

Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class XI & XII

(Division of Aakash Educational Services Lt d. )

ANALYSIS OF CHEMISTRY PORTION OF AIEEE 2010

Distribution of Level of Question in Chemistry

Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class XI & XII

XI syllabus XII syllabus

(Division of Aakash Educational Services Lt d. )

XII Calculus Easy Medium Tough Total 4 2 3 9 XI syllabus

ANALYSIS OF MATHEMATICS PORTION OF AIEEE 2010

XII 3-D (XII) 1 1 0 2

XII Vectors 2 0 0 2 Total 11 12 7 30

Distribution of Level of Questions in Mathematics

Topic wise distribution in Mathematics

Algebra (XI) Coordinate Geometry

Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class XI & XII

Max. Marks: 432

AIEEE - 2010 (Code-A)

(3) c Ans. (3)

Sol. Energy released Q = mc2

n atiobinding energy per nucleon for the parent The uc

nucleus is E1 and that for the daughter nuclei is E2. Then

AIEEE - 2010 (Code-A)

(1) 0.2 Ns (3) 0.8 Ns

(2) 0.4 Ns (4) 1.6 Ns (3)

AIEEE - 2010 (Code-A)

T1 V2 ice 7 = erv = ( 32 ) 5 1 = (32)2/5 = 4 T2 S lV1

(3) Ans. (4)

AIEEE - 2010 (Code-A)

A NOT A B = A + B =A+B B NAND

Sol. Charge enclosed by a Gaussian sphere of radius r(< R) is

(2) X-rays (4) Microwaves

(2) 305 W (4) 0 W

(3) Ans. (3) Sol.

48400 = 242 W 200

(3) (4) Ans. (3) (5)

(3) Ans. (3)

AIEEE - 2010 (Code-A)

At t = , inductor behaves as a conductor So, I =

20. A particle is moving with velocity v = K yi + xj ,

Blv Blv ,I= 6R 3R

Blv 2 Blv ,I= R R

Blv 2 Blv ,I= 3R 3R

(4) I 1 = I 2 = I = Ans. (3) Sol.

(1) 2 (3) Ans. (4)

q 2 (q0 )2 2 t /RC = e = U 0 e 2t /RC Sol. U = 2C 2C

t x y = 0.02(m)sin 2 . 0.04(s ) 0.50(m )

When charge becomes times.

1 1 times, energy becomes 16 4

So, t1 = one half life, while t2 = 4 half lives