ATA 24 1. Tn s u ra IDG c gi 400 HZ nh vo thit b no? CONSTANT SPEED DRIVE (CSD) VIA control signal GCU 2.

CSD disconnection must be performed if: A. Low oil pressure or oil overheat is detected B. Low oil pressure or oil overheat or underspeed is detected C. Low oil pressure and oil overheat and underspeed are detected 3. Principle of CSD operation is: A. Increase or decrease in hydraulic pressure depending on engine speed B. Increase or decrease in exciter current depending on engine speed C. Increase or decrease in speed of an electrical motor inside CSD depending on engine speed 4. Protection circuit triggers the automatic trip function with an inverse time delay due to the following failure(s): A. Overvoltage or overload B. Undervoltage or short circuit C. Open phase or overload 5. Battery charger controls charging current by two methods: constant current and constant voltage. When a battery is fully charged, which charging method is used? A. Constant voltage: to compensate for battery self-discharge and to prevent overcharge B. Constant current: to make a quick and safe charge C. Constant current: to prevent battery overheat 6. Thermal runway occurs when a battery is charged with: A. Constant current B. Constant voltage C. Either constant current or constant voltage 7. Khi my bay 320 b mt c hai AC bus, ngun in no c s dng? 8. GCU functions can be divided into: A. 02 parts B. 03 parts C. 04 parts 9. Each Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) is designed to convert 115VAC to 28VDC and includes main components as follows: A. 01 transformer of 03 windings in star/star/delta connection & 02 rectifiers B. 01 transformer of 02 windings in delta/delta connection & 01 rectifiers C. 01 transformer of 02 windings in delta/star connection & 01 rectifiers

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10. Receptacles for external power connection consists of: A. 03 thick, long pins & 01 thin, short pin B. 04 thick, long pins & 02 thin, short pins C. 03 thin, short pins & 02 thick, long pins ATA 26 11. Which statement is true for semi-conductor loop used in fire detection system? A. Material inside semi-conductor loop increases its electrical resistance with increasing temperature B. Material inside semi-conductor loop decreases its electrical resistance with increasing temperature C. Material inside semi-conductor loop increases its pressure with increasing temperature 12. Dual fire detection loops make fire protection system highly reliable because it will: A. Not trigger faulty message on the ECAM/EICAS B. Prevent false alarm & not prevent a fire warning in case of single failure C. Not prevent false alarm & prevent a fire warning in case of single failure

13. What statement is true for normal operation of a gas pressure loop? (no fires detected) A. Monitor switches are closed; Alarm switches are open B. Both Monitor and Alarm switches are open C. Monitor switches are open; Alarm switches are closed 14. If a fire occurs, a fire control unit triggers fire warnings. In a gas pressure loop system, the fire control unit triggers fire warnings when it receives an input of: A. Decreasing resistance B. Increasing pressure C. Increasing temperature 15. The ionization source in ionization smoke detector is used to: A. Make the air molecules move B. Electrically charge the air molecules C. Absorb smoke molecules and trigger alarms 16. Addition to electrical circuits for control and monitoring, main components of a basic fire extinguishing system include:

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A. Extinguisher bottle with Halon 1211; squib and spray nozzle B. Extinguisher bottle with halon 1301; cartridge head and spray nozzle C. Extinguisher bottle, cartridge head, explosive powder, squib and spray nozzle 17. Smoke detectors are installed in: A. Engines and APU B. Cargo, avionics compartments and toilets C. Cargo, avionics compartments, cabin, toilets, engines and APU 18. In twin engine aircraft, number of extinguisher bottles installed on engines and APU are: A. 6 bottles: 2 for ENG 1, 2 for ENG 2 and 2 for APU B. 3 bottles: each for ENG 1, 2 and APU C. 5 bottles: 2 for ENG , 2 for ENG 2 and 1 for APU 19. Inside the discharge head, there are: A. A wire, explosive powder, a frangible disc and a filter B. An extinguishing agent, explosive powder, and a filter C. A SQUIB, explosive powder, and a filter 20. In APU fire extinguishing system, when the yellow disc is burst and disappears, which statement is correct? A. Halon discharges over spray nozzles B. Overpressure happens in the bottle C. Fire detection is failed ATA 30 21. Ice build-up on the airplane mainly has the following effects A. Reduce in aerodynamic quality; decrease in weight and visibility B. Decrease in lift and drag, Increase in weight, blocked probes C. Disturbed air at engine inlet can lead to a compressor stall or damaged fan blades/inlet vanes. 22. When ice is formed on the ice detector, A. It triggers a message on ECAM/EICAS immediately B. It triggers a message on ECAM/EICAS after some certain cycles of heatingmeltingice building are counted C. It triggers the highest warning level in cockpit 23. Thermal anti-ice system is designed for: A. Engine inlet and wing leading edge B. Engine outlet and Probes C. Wing trailing edge and drain mast

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24. Electrical anti-ice circuits are designed to control heating power. Which statement is NOT true for heating power switching? A. Heating elements receive 115V on the ground and 200V in the air B. On the ground, heating elements receive only positive wave through a diode in the AC circuit. In the air, the diode is bypassed C. Heating elements are switched in parallel on the ground and they are switched in series in the air 25. How can you control drain mast heat system? A. By a pushbutton inthe cockpit B. By a pushbutton at theFAP (Flight Attendant Panel) C. No pushbutton; the system i s switched on automatically when electrical power is supplied 26. In most windshields, how many thermistors are installed? A. 01 B. 02 C. 03 27. By usesing repellent fluid or special coating, the contact anglebetween water droplets and windshield glass will: A. Increaseto 80 or 100 degrees B. Decreaseto 20 degrees C. Decreaseto 60 degrees 28. When the wiper control switchis at OFF, which statement is true? A. Power and speed control relays are energized and then the motor and wiper stop immediately B. Motor rotating still continues but in reverse direction until the park switch moves up C. The park switch moves up makes the motor circuit open and then stops both the motor and wiper immediately ATA31 29. On Airbus aircraft, automatic display switching isperformed when the: A. Navigation Displays (ND s) or the System Display (SD)fail B. PFDs orthe Engine & Warning Display (EWD) fail C. PFDs orthe Engine & Warning Display (EWD)fail or the related control switch is at OFF position 30. With adual EFISdisplayunit failure on either captain or firstofficer side, the EFIS image on the affected side: A. Can be recovered

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B. Cannot be recovered C. Can or cannot be recovered, depending onthe manufacture (Airbus or Boeing) 31. All functionsof the central warning system on the Airbus aircraft are controlled and displayed by: A. 7 computers B. 4 computers C. 5 computers 32. Heading information canbe normallyindicated on: A. PFDs and NDs B. EICAS/ECAM and SD C. NDs only 33. What happensifbarometric reference settingis not appropriate? A. Altitude shown onthe PFDs is always not correct B. Altitude shown onthe PFDs might be not correct C. Altitude shown onthe PFDs is not affected by barometric setting ATA33 34. Integral lights are used to illuminate: A. Flight compartment B. Cabin area C. Controls and indications on panels in flight deck 35. Service lights can be found in: A. Landing gear wheel bay B. APU compartment and lavatory
C. Forward cargo compartment only

36. Anti-collision lights are installed: A. At the top and bottom of the fuselage B. At wing tips and tail cone C. At the top and bottom of the fuselage; at wing tips and tail cone 37. When being turned on, which light(s) will be flashing? A. Navigation lights and Logo lights B. Navigation lights and Beacon lights C. Beacon lights and Strobe lights 38. If the control switch is at AUTO, on Airbus aircraft, which signal causes the strobe lights illuminated?

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A. Flaps and slats extended B. Shock absorbers not compressed C. Landing gear downlocked

39. At the Forward Attendant Panel, on Airbus aircraft, cabin crew can control lighting of: A. Cabin lights; Passenger Reading lights, Lavatory lights & Entry lights B. Cabin lights; Cockpit Reading lights, Lavatory lights & Service lights C. Cabin lights; exterior lights; Lavatory lights; Entry lights & EMER lights

40. When the lavatory door is unlocked, brightness level in the lavatory: a. Remains b. Increases 100% c. Decreases 50% ATA22 41. Speed adapter circuit isdesigned in theinnerloop to: A. Prevent damage in control surfaces at high airspeeds B. Make control surfaces move smoothly C. Help pilotsfeel comfortable and less heavy during surface control 42. Related to autopilot safetylevels, a hardover is adangerous failure. A hardover causes: A. A full surface deflection atthe wrong time B. A full surface retraction at the wrongtime C. A control surface jammed at where it stays 43. A certain difference signal compared from 2 autopilot channels for the same axis will causeboth autopilotsdisengaged completely. Then, the system will follow pilots command. This system is called: A. Fail-safe system B. Fail-passi ve system C. Fail-operational system 44. Thepilotis following the flight director (FD)indications to control the aircraft. If theFD pitchbar moves UP and the roll bar to theleft, which statementis true for nose and aileron of the aircraft at that time? A. Nose Down, Left Aileron Down B. Nose UP, Left Aileron UP
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C. Nose Down, Left Aileron UP 45. TheFlight Mode Annunciator (FMA) on the modern PFDs shows: A. Autothrust operation, AP/FD pitch modes, AP/FD roll modes (1) B. Approach capabilities, Engagement status of AP, FD, Autothrust (2) C. Both (1) and (2) 46. The YD computer will differentiatebetween a duct roll oscillation and a steady turn and prevent a constant rudderdeflection during turnby: A. Airspeed signalfromthe air data computer B. Roll attitudefrom the vertical gyro or inertial reference system C. A band passfilter integrated insidethe computer 47. An aircraft with tuck-under condition results in a unwanted effect: A. A pitch up effect B. A pitch down effect C. Yaw motion effect 48. Alpha trim subsystem isprimarily used to: A. Prevent high pressure differences at the wing tips by increasing the maximum angle of attack B. Decrease the induced drag during high speedflights C. Smoothly control pitch attitudefor passengers and pilots comfort 49. Speed Trim subsystemprovides speed stabilityduring: A. Low speed and highthrust operation during take-off and go-around B. High speed and low thrust operation duri ng cruise C. One engine shut down in-flight

50. Thrust Mode controls: A. Calibrated airspeed (CAS) B. Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) or N1 rotation speed C. CAS or EPR or N1, depending on the engine type 51. During CRUISE phase, the autothrottle system uses: A. Thrust Mode only B. Speed Mode only C. Thrust or Speed Mode depending onthe active AP orFD pitch mode 52. At TOUCH-DOWN, the autothrottle system uses: A. Thrust Mode only B. Speed Mode only

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C. Neither Speed nor Thrust Mode because the system is automatically disengaged and the pilot control the engines manually

53. To calculate the thrustlimit for enginesin certain situation, the following information or signals are needed: A. Total air temperature (TAT) & altitude (ALT) from the ADC, Bleed air (for air condition, anti-ice, pneumati c loads) from the BMC and Flight phase from the FMS B. TAT, ALT fromthe ADC andFlight phase fromtheFMS C. Bleed airfromthe BMC andFlight phasefromthe FMS

54. Flexible takeoffis selected when: A. One engines isfailed B. The highest thrust is limitedfor upto 5 minutes C. Maximumthrust i s not required because of lowtakeoff weights or long runway 55. L-NAVpartof theFMC will command the aircraft to: A. Fly left or right (for roll channel) accordingto theflight plan B. Fly withthrust limit suppliedtothe Autothrottle System (ATS) C. Fly with optimum speed (for pitch channel) &thrust limit to the ATS 56. To calculate the optimum speed (ECON SPEED), theFMC needs: A. Pressure, temperature signal s fromthe ADC; aircraft weight & cost index B. Pressure, temperature signal s fromthe ADC & aircraft weight C. Pressure, temperature signal s fromthe ADC & cost index 57. Cost index can vary from 0 to 999. When 0is inserted via the MCDU, it means: A. Time costs are important andthe flight is planned with maximum speed B. Fuel costs are important andtheflight is planned with minimumfuel use C. Time costs & Fuel costs are not important and the flight is planned with best comfort for passengers 58. Which database or software should be updated every 28 days? A. Performance database B. Navigation database C. Softwarefor theFlight Management Computer ATA 23 59. Reception qualityof which systemis not alwaysgood due to daytime? A. SATCOM B. VHF C. HF 60. Static electricity generated due to air friction at sharp trailing edges must be continuouslydischarged. If not, for communication purpose, it would make:

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the wing structure damaged reception of radio signals di sturbed the wing structure damaged and reception of radio signals disturbed

61. When you jack the aircraft and no shock absorbers are compressed, which interphone system will be automatically disabled? A. Flight interphone system B. Cabin interphone system C. Service interphone system

62. Passenger Address (PA) system is to give i nformation to passengers from: A. Cockpit or cabin crew signal s which is priority-controlled by AMU B. Cockpit or cabin crew signal s which is priority-controlled by CIDS C. Cockpit or cabin crew signals, pre-recorded announcement, boarding music controlled by AMU

63. Volumelevel ofloudspeaker will be automaticallyincreased when: A. At least one engine is started (via engine oil pressure switch) B. The oxygen masks are released after a cabin decompression (via 14,000 ft. pressure switch) C. engine oil pressure switch or 14,000ft. pressure switch i s acti v ated 64. In order for the Solid state CVR to store thelast 120 minutesof the flight in memory, it recei ve inputs from: A. 03 channels B. 04 channels C. 05 channels 65. All data recordedin the CVR canbe erased: A. Whenthe aircraft is on ground andthe parking brake is set B. Whenever you press & holdthe ERASE pushbutton onthe control panel C. Automatically to keepthe pri vacy of the crew after engines are shut down 66. In modern aircraft, there are three independent VHF systems. Which systemis normallydesigned for the ACARS system? A. VHF 1 B. VHF 2 C. VHF 3 67. When the transmission works with the normal output power, which statementis NOT true for sidetone signal? A. Pilots can hear his own voi ce in the headphones with sidetone B. Sidetone signals comefrom ground station C. Mi ssing sidetone is always an indicationfor a systemfailure

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68. The Radio Management Panel is used to: A. Makefrequency selectionsfor VHF, HF, SATCOM and ACARS B. Makefrequency selectionsfor VHF, HF C. Control transmission and reception of VHF, HF,flight interphone 69. Reports automatically transmitted by the ACARSoccur: A. When all engines finish starting; or when the aircraft lifts off or touches down; or whenfirst door is opened B. At 120, 20 and 07 minutes after the arri v al C. Whenever engine problem i s detected 70. For normal SATCOMoperation (bothdata and voice communications), make sure that: A. TheInertial Reference System (IRS) and Low gain antenna arefunctional B. TheIRS and High gain antenna are functional C. TheIRS, Low & High Gain antennae are functional 71. Theportable ELTsis automatically activated when: A. Its battery comes in contact with water B. Its internal G-switch detects an acceleration of more than 5G in the longitudinal axis C. A pushbutton onthe overhead control panel is pressed 72. Track is the direction in which an aircraft is moving over the earth and is measured from: A. True north or magnetic north B. Ground station C. aircraft longitudinal axis 73. The Automatic tuning for navigation system is based on: A. Database and software uploaded in the FMS (1) B. Flight plan created by pilots before each flight (2) C. Both (1) and (2)

74. In addition to aural output, the Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) system also provides: A. Magnetic Relative bearing presented on the Navigation Display (ND) and Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) B. True bearing presented on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) and RMI C. Magnetic bearing presented on ND and PFD
75 In order to achieve the direction to the station, the ADF antenna will be searching for: A. Minimum signal strength B. Maximum signal strength C. Average signal strength 76 With the loop antenna alone, the station could be in:

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a. Only one direction b. Two different directions c. 4 different directions 77 The VOR indication on the RMI is called: a. Manual VOR mode b. Automatic VOR mode c. True relative bearing 78 When the aircraft is on the right side of the runway center line: a. The left lobe modulated with 90 Hz predominates b. The right lobe modulated with 150 Hz predominates c. The right lobe modulated with 90 Hz predominates 79 When the aircraft is lower than the G/S signal, its deviation pointer: a. Deflects upwards b. Deflects downwards c. Is out of view (disappears from the display) 80 CAT 3 landinginstrument requireslimitations in runway visibility range (RVR) and decision height (DH) as follows: A. RVR of lessthan 200 m, DH of below 100ft. B. RVR of 400 m & DH of 100ft. C. RVR of 800 m & DH of 200ft.

81 Marker beacons (OM MM IM) have: a. Similar transmission signals; differences in modulated tone & indication colors (blue amber red, respectively) b. Similar transmission signals & modulated tones but differences in indication colors (blue amber white, respectively) c. Similar to transmission signals; differences in modulated tone and indication colors (blue amber white, respectively)

82 Radio altimeter shows its calculated data on the display: a. When the aircraft is above 2,500 feet b. When the aircraft is below 2,500 feet c. From take-off, climb, cruise, approach to landing phase 83 Antenna assembly of which system includes an antenna pedestal? a. WXR b. GPWS c. TCAS 84 The azimuth motor is used to move the weather antenna:

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85 In WXR turbulence detection, Doppler effect says the frequency of echoes: a. Increase when the targets move towards the aircraft and vice versa b. Decrease when the targets move towards the aircraft and vice versa c. Remain unchanged, compared to the transmission frequency 86 Without an correct action when passing the windshear area, the aircraft will: a. First get a strong tail wind, then in a very short time, a head wind b. First get a strong head wind, then in a very short time, a tail wind

c. Be damaged in wing structure due to high stress by windshear

87 In mode S, the ATC transponder transmits: a. Aircraft identification code b. Barometric altitude c. Messages in reply to selective interrogations from ground or other aircraft 88 TCAS can monitor up to 50 aircraft and put them into one of: a. 02 groups: Resolution Advisory (RA), Traffic Advisory (TA) b. 03 groups: RA, TA and Proximate traffic c. 04 groups: RA, TA, Proximate traffic and other traffic 89 If a target aircraft (intruder) reaches the RA-TAU area, TCAS will give: a. Aural traffic warning, intruder position on the NDs (1) b. Escape maneuver information on the PFDs (2) c. Both (1) and (2) 90 Squitter signals which contain aircraft identification and altitude are permanently transmitted from: a. Intruders without TCAS b. Intruders with TCAS c. Any intruders within 40 NM 91 The TCAS roll call list contains a list of aircraft. The TCAS computer uses it to: a. Track all the aircraft in the list b. Track some highest threatening aircraft in the list c. Track 08 first-reply intruders

92 Two types of aural alert during an RA intruder are: Preventive action RA & Corrective action RA. The Preventive action RA occurs when: a. The present vertical speed achieves a safe altitude separation b. The altitude separation is not safe c. Pilots have to follow instructions from the Air traffic controller 93 The purpose of the GPWS is to warn the pilot when a. Turbulence happens

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b. The aircrafts may collide each other c. The aircraft mistakenly comes too close to the ground 94 Additional functions of an EGPWS can be: a. Terrain Awareness (TA) (1) b. Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) (2) c. Both (1) and (2) 95 GPWS Mode 7 Windshear alerts the flight crew about a dangerous windshear condition during take-off or approach by comparing: a. True airspeed (TAS) from the ADC & Ground speed (GS) from the IRS b. Transmission and reception frequencies c. TAS and a database in the GPWS computer 96 The Terrain Awareness function of an EGPWS shows: a. Terrain structure around the aircraft by green, yellow and red dots (1) b. Buildings & mountains around the runway by colored dots (2) c. Both (1) and (2) 97 In order to create outputs for the TA function, the EGPWS computer compares: a. Minimum height around the runway and actual radio altitude b. Actual aircraft position (from the GPS or the FMS) with a world-wide terrain database inside the computer c. Terrain signals from weather radar and a world-wide terrain database inside the computer

98 The EGPWS has a function/mode called Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF). In this mode, the computer compares: a. Actual radio altitude & elevation of buildings/mountains in its database b. Actual radio altitude & terrain floor envelope in its database c. Actual radio altitude & the highest buildings/mountains around the runway 99 Global Position System can calculate: A. Radio Altitude, Latitude, Longitude B. Altitude, Latitude, Longitude C. Latitude, Longit ude 100 In order to calculate accurate position, the aircraft must receive signals from : A 2 satellites B. 3 satellites

C. 4 satellites

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