Science
Science
Science
P1
a) The non-renewable reserves in the earth are limited which may get exhausted soon if
continued to be used at the current rate.
b) Use of alternate sources of energy will reduce pressure on fossil fuels making them last
longer.
c) By using alternate sources of energy, pollution being caused can be avoided.
OR
There is a need for exploring sources of energy because the sources of energy are
depleting and there is a need for their conservation. It is also becoming difficult to discover
new deposits. The measures taken to conserving energy sources are not effective.
2.
3.
4.
Nuclear energy
Hydro-power
Other (renewable)
20%
7%
4%
Coal
Natural gas
46%
23%
5.
6.
7.
8.
Energy sources which are abundant, renewable, pollution free, eco-friendly that do not get
depleted are called non-conventional sources of energy.
Solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy, geothermal energy and energy from biomass
and wastes.
Non-conventional sources of energy are abundant, renewable, pollution free and ecofriendly.
Non-conventional sources of energy serve two purposes:
a) They supply energy in a decentralized system.
Non-conventional sources of
energy
10.
11.
What are the two processes involved in the use of solar energy.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
The amount of energy reaching per square meter of earths atmosphere is called solar
18
constant. It is equivalent to 1.36kw in 12 hours. Its value is 1.5x10 kwh per day.
Solar energy falling on the surface of the earth is converted into thermal energy. The heat
generated is stored in solar collectors. It is used for purposes like heating of water and
cooking of food.
Solar collector is a device which is used to store the heat generated by radiation of solar
energy.
Solar heaters are used in drying of food grains and vegetables, seasoning of wood,
desalination of marine water.
Solar pond is a new technology in harnessing solar energy. It is a large scale solar
collector with an integrated arrangement for storage of heat energy.
How is solar energy remains trapped in a solar pond?
When water is heated by solar radiation, hot water from the bottom of the pond rises and
reaches the surface. It loses the heat gained to the atmosphere. This makes the water in
the pond to remain at a temperature nearer to that of the atmosphere. The loss of heat is
18.
prevented by dissolving salts in the bottom of the pond. It makes the water denser and
hence cannot rise to the surface. Thus solar energy remains trapped in the pond.
What is the role of salts in a solar pond?
OR
Give reason: Salts are dissolved in the bottom of a solar pond.
The loss of heat from the pond is prevented by dissolving salts in the bottom of the pond.
Dissolving salts makes the water denser and hence cannot rise to the surface. Thus solar
energy remains trapped in the pond.
19.
20.
21.
22.
Solar energy is converted into electricity by using the principle of photo voltaic effect and
device called solar cell.
A Solar cell is a device which converts solar energy directly into electricity.
Solar cells are being used in traffic signals in some cities, lighting lamps and pumping
water in rural areas.
Solar collectors
23.
What is biomass?
24.
25.
Solar cells
27.
Biogas is a clean, unpolluted and inexpensive source of energy produced from cow dung.
It mainly contains 70% methane.
a) Biogas is a clean and unpolluted fuel.
28.
29.
31.
Biogas is more suitable to rural areas because the raw materials like cow dung,
agricultural wastes etc are easily available. It also provides enriched manure which can be
used in agriculture.
Biogas is better fuel because:
Biogas does not causes pollution, whereas burning dung cakes cause pollution.
It does not leave ash behind after burning whereas burning dung cakes leaves ash after
burning.
It can be used for lighting, running small engines whereas dung cake can be used only for
cooking.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
What is fermentation?
38.
The crude oil extracted from the seeds is converted into bio diesel.
What is trans esterification?
39.
Trans esterification is the process of conversion of crude oil obtained from seeds of plant
into commercially useful fuel.
a) Jatropha plant grows in any type of soil.
b) It grows in any kind of climate.
Mention the steps taken by government of Karnataka to encourage the use of bio
diesel.
42.
43.
How is wind energy from solar energy? OR Give reason: Wind energy is the
converted from of solar energy.
Wind energy is the kinetic energy associated with the movement of large masses of air.
The differential heating of the atmosphere by the sun causes air movement and produces
wind. Thus wind energy is converted from of solar energy.
44.
b) It is eco-friendly.
c) It is free and requires no recurring expenses for production.
d) The total potential of wind energy is very large.
45.
46.
Wind turbine is a device used for the purpose of obtaining wind energy.
The energy obtained from movement of large quantities of water up and down in the seas
and oceans in the form of waves is called wave energy.
47.
Give reason: Tropical coastline of India, especially the South West coast is highly
suitable for establishing wave energy.
Due to the blowing of wind on the surface of Arabian Sea, very fast sea waves move to
the surface. Due to their high speed, sea waves have a lot of kinetic energy.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
Name the source of energy which is not directly related to the solar energy.
53.
54.
The cost of energy conversion per unit is very high, since it requires many special
equipment to be created near the sea.
Since the fluctuations in wave energy are comparatively less then that of wind energy.
The energy obtained from the heat of the earth within 10km from the surface is called
geothermal energy.
The word geothermal comes from the words geo means earth and thermal means heat.
Geothermal energy is the heat from within the earth. It refers to the heat of the earth within
o
10km from the surface. It can be used to produce power. It has a temperature of 1300 C.
Geothermal energy.
A huge quantity of wastes is generated in cities and towns. It is also generated in sugar,
paper and pulp industries.
a) Non-conventional sources do not deplete.
b) They are renewable sources of energy.
c) They do not cause environmental pollution.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Solar energy, wind energy, geothermal energy are non-conventional sources of energy.
Solar energy reaches us in the form of small packets called photons.
The amount of energy reaching per square meter of earths atmosphere is called solar
constant.
6.
8.
9.
The device used in drying of food grains and vegetables, seasoning of wood, desalination
of marine water is solar heater.
The new technology of harnessing solar energy is solar pond.
13.
A device which converts solar energy directly into electricity is called solar cell.
7.
10.
11.
12.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
The device which is used to store the heat generated by radiation of solar energy is called
solar collector.
The principle involved in the conversion of solar energy into electrical energy is called
photo voltaic effect.
Plant and plant products are called as biomass.
23.
The conversion of crude oil from plant seeds into useful fuel involves a process called
trans esterification.
The plant whose seeds are used in production of bio diesel is Jatropha, Honge.
27.
The largest installation of wind turbines is near Kanya Kumari in Tamil Nadu.
24.
25.
26.
28.
29.
30.
The energy obtained from movement of large quantities of water up and down in the seas
and oceans is called wave energy.
The energy trapped within 10km of the Earths surface is called geothermal energy.
o
*****
B2
1.
Define pollution.
2.
3.
Give reason: Oxides of nitrogen released during lightning is not pollutant but
oxides released by industries and automobiles are pollutant.
4.
5.
6.
7.
The pollutants that can be made harmless either by quick dilution to a very low
concentration or by conversion are called biodegradable or temporary pollutants. They
can be degraded by biological activity.
Example: Sulphur dioxide librated by combustion of coal will get dissolved in rainwater
and become diluted.
Sewage produced in cities can be made harmless by suitable biological treatment.
Sulphur dioxide gets diluted with rainwater and becomes harmless.
Sewage is made harmless by biological activity.
Hence it is a biodegradable pollutant.
The effect of sulphur dioxide or sewage remains in the environment only till it is converted
into a harmless substance. Hence they are referred to as temporary pollutants.
The pollutants which cannot be converted into harmless constituents are called nondegradable pollutants.
Ex: Lead vapours released from diesel combustion, can accumulate in the lungs.
Insecticide like D.D.T from agricultural fields can accumulate in a pond.
8.
a) Some of the non-biodegradable wastes like D.D.T enter the food chain and cause
biomagnification.
9.
Lead vapours or D.D.T cannot be converted into harmless substance by any known
biological activity hence they are referred to as non-biodegradable pollutants.
Environmental Issues 10
10.
Non-biodegradable
pollutant
11.
12.
13.
14.
c) Petrol combustion
d) Smoking of tobacco
e) Waste incineration
15.
Coal combustion: Coal is used as a major source of fuel in several industries. Coal
combustion releases sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and small amounts of carbon
dioxide which are pollutants.
Diesel combustion: Diesel is used as fuel in heavy duty vehicles and public transport
vehicles. Combustion of diesel releases carbon monoxide and carbon dust which are
pollutants.
Petrol combustion: Petrol is used as fuel in cars and two wheelers. Combustion of petrol
releases oxides of nitrogen, carbon dioxide and lead vapours which are pollutants.
Smoking of tobacco: Smoking of tobacco in various forms releases high content of
carbon monoxide which is a source of air pollution.
Waste incineration: Disposing of city garbage by burning them release carbon monoxide
which is a pollutant.
Environmental Issues 11
16.
Give reason: Air pollution is not an outdoor phenomenon but also an indoor
phenomenon.
Just as various factors outside the house cause air pollution, activities like cooking,
cleaning also causes indoor air pollution.
17.
Sources
Carbon monoxide
Oxides of nitrogen
Emission from
automobiles, burning fossil
fuels, power plants, oil
refineries
Ozone (O 3 )
Poly cyclic aromatic
hydrocarbons
Asbestos
Arsenic
Allergens
Effect on health
Bronchial disease
Asphyxia leading to
heart & nervous
system damage,
death
Respiratory disorders
Respiratory disorders
Lung cancer,
asbestosis
18.
19.
Lung cancer
Lung cancer
Molds and bacteria, carpets and upholstery, pollen, tobacco, pesticides and fumes from
chemicals, dust mites, pets, animal hair and dead skin.
Industries must be established away from towns and cities.
Environmental Issues 12
20.
Mention some measures that can be taken to control air pollution at source.
a) Reducing the use of vehicles for short travel.
b) Using car pooling to travel & reducing individual vehicles.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
Any change in physical (smell, colour taste), chemical and biological characteristics of
water is called water pollution.
a) Effluents from industries.
b) Accumulation of sewage.
c) Extensive use of pesticides & fertilizers in agriculture.
a) Effluent from industries: Waste materials from industries containing enormous
quantities of chemicals are released into the nearby source of water like ponds, lakes,
rivers. Most Indian rivers are polluted by industrial effluents.
b) Accumulation of sewage: Sewage containing vegetable wastes, fruit wastes, animal
excreta, human excreta and organic wastes from factories are released into water
sources.
c) Addition of detergents: Domestic wastes contain a high percentage of detergents.
Detergents on reaching water bodies, they cause foaming and reduction in the
dissolved oxygen content.
d) Addition of agricultural wastes: A variety of pesticides and fertilizers used in agriculture
which are non-biodegradable are washed away into water sources.
Waste materials from industries containing enormous quantities of chemicals are released
into the nearby rivers. Hence most Indian rivers are polluted.
More people are switching over to synthetic detergents than using traditional soap which
is biodegradable. Hence the percentage of detergents in domestic waste is increasing.
The process of increase in the growth of algae in water bodies due to increase of
phosphorous is called eutrophication.
Eutrophication is due to high phosphorous content of detergents and fertilizers.
Oxygen content in water bodies decrease due to rapid growth of organisms which
consume phosphorous compounds.
27.
Pollutants like lead, arsenic and fluoride combine with hydrogen, oxygen, iron and chlorine
in water results in poisoning of ground water.
nvironmental Issues 13
28.
29.
What is meant by marine pollution? What are the causes for marine pollution?
30.
The release of high temperature effluents from furnace and boilers of industries directly
into water sources is called thermal pollution.
Thermal pollution destroys the aquatic life to the thermal shock.
The pollution of seas and oceans is called marine pollution. It is caused due to
condensing of the pollutants after reaching atmosphere, agricultural runoff, oil seepage
from tankers and industrial effluents.
a) Industrial effluents must be treated to remove the pollutants. Toxic chemical
substances must be eliminated. Acid and alkalies must be neutralized. Metallic
compounds must be precipitated.
b) Effluents from furnaces must be cooled to room temperature and treated before
releasing it.
c) Sewage water must be treated to remove suspended particles. It must be aerated and
then chlorinated to purify water. This can be reused.
31.
What are the steps taken before releasing the industrial effluents into water bodies?
a) Industrial effluents must be treated to remove the pollutants.
b) Toxic chemical substances must be eliminated.
c) Acid and alkalies must be neutralized.
d) Metallic compounds must be precipitated.
32.
What are the steps taken before releasing sewage water into water bodies?
33.
34.
Sewage contains human excreta, animal excreta, detergents etc. They contain disease
causing microbes. If sewage water is let out directly into water bodies without treating, it
spreads water borne diseases.
Land pollution is caused due to throwing cans, bottles and plastic items. Burning or
dumping them into open lands. It is also caused by agricultural runoff containing residues
of fertilizers and pesticides. Acid rain also contributes to land pollution.
Environmental Issues 14
37.
a) Noise pollution directly affects the human nervous system, causing deafness,
headache, high blood pressure and heart disorders.
b) Noise causes behavioural discomforts.
c) Noise pollution also affect animals
39.
40.
41.
42.
a) Thinning of the ozone layer allows high levels of UV radiations to reach the earth
causing mutations in organisms.
b) In humans, the incidence of skin cancer and cataract increases.
44.
45.
Environmental Issues 15
46.
The increase in the atmospheric temperature due to trapping of heat by some gasses in
the atmosphere is called greenhouse effect.
What are greenhouse gases?
47.
What is a greenhouse?
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
Give reason: Global warming affects both aquatic and land life.
53.
54.
A green house is built of any material like glass or plastic through which sun light can
pass. The ground inside gets heated up, warming the air inside. The air continues to heat
up because it gets confined within the green house.
Green houses are used in horticulture to provide warm temperature for growing
ornamental plants.
The warming effect is similar to what is seen in green house. Hence it is called
greenhouse effect.
Carbon dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, methane and ozone are the greenhouse gases.
Global warming has resulted in melting of glaciers, causing an increase in the sea level.
Flooding of sea water results in submerging of lands.
Global warming causes melting of glaciers, causing flooding of sea water which in turn
results in submerging of land. Hence it affects both aquatic and land life.
When oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere combine with water vapour,
it forms sulphuric acid, nitric acid respectively. This precipitate as rain, snow or fog.
The main source of the oxides is combustion of fuels in the industries.
The leaves of affected plants develop spots and crack allowing infection.
Effect on monuments and buildings:
It also affects old buildings and monuments.
Environmental Issues 16
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
Acid rain affects egg production in aquatic animals hence it alters the population ratio.
Acid rain makes the soil acidic and leaches the nutrients in soil. It also allows pathogens
through cracks in affected plants. Hence acid rain affects vegetation.
A large number of industries in the neighbouring areas of Taj Mahal release gaseous
pollutants causing the marble to lose its glaze. Hence Taj Mahal is a mute victim of acid
rain.
The pollution caused due to emission of protons (alpha particles), electrons (beta
particles) and gamma rays is called radioactive pollution.
The two types of radiation are:
a) Ionising radiation: Radiations having high penetration power and cause breakage of
macro molecules.
b) Non-ionising radiations: Radiations which affect only those compounds which absorbs
them.
Type of particles
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
61.
Penetrative power
Radio active materials react with biological molecules. It can damage DNA, leading to
cancer and birth defects.
Environmental Issues 17
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Pollutants that can be made harmless by quick dilution or conversion are called
biodegradable pollutants.
Global environmental problems are caused due to long term effects of air pollution.
Any human activity that brings about a significant change in the constituents of
atmosphere is called air pollution.
An example of an activity which causes indoor air pollution is cooking / cleaning.
Any change in physical (smell, colour taste), chemical and biological characteristics of
water is called water pollution.
15.
The process of increase in the growth of algae in water bodies due to increase of
phosphorous is called eutrophication.
Detergents cause a decrease in the oxygen content of water.
17.
18.
19.
According to estimates, every human generates six kilogram of trash every day.
Any sound which causes unpleasant effect and discomfort to human ears is called noise.
The unit of measuring sound is decibels (db).
16.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
The release of high temperature effluents from furnace and boilers of industries directly
into water sources is called thermal pollution.
Earths mean temperature is said to have increased by about 0.8 C since the beginning of
this century.
Increase in the heat content is greater in the oceans than in any other source of energy.
90% of the possible increase in the heat content of the earth system takes place in
oceans.
The greenhouse gases are carbon dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, methane and ozone.
The pH of rain water is 5.6.
The main source of oxides which cause acid rain is combustion of fuel in industries.
*****
C3
When elements are classified such that they have the same properties, study of large
number of elements is reduced to study of few groups of elements.
Classification on the basis of states of matter cannot be justified because for example
bromine and mercury are liquids at room temperature, they cannot be placed in the same
group.
3.
Classification of elements as metals and non-metals is justified because there are more
common characteristics in both the groups but it is not satisfactory because each metal or
non-metal have completely different properties.
4.
5.
According to Dobereiners law of triads: When elements are arranged in the order of
increasing atomic masses in groups of three elements, the atomic mass of the middle
element of the triad is equal to the average atomic mass of the other two elements.
What are triads?
6.
According to Dobereiners law of triads: When elements are arranged in the order of
increasing atomic masses in groups of three elements, the atomic mass of the middle
element of the triad is equal to the average atomic mass of the other two elements.
Example 1:
Atomic mass of chlorine = 35.5
Atomic mass of Iodine = 127
35.5 127
2
Average atomic mass =
162.5
2
81.25
40 137
2
Average atomic mass =
177
2
88.5
7.
In a triad A, B and C, the atomic masses of A and B are 80 and 120 respectively.
What is the atomic mass of element C?
Atomic mass of A=80
Atomic mass of B=120
A C
2
Atomic mass of B =
80 C
2
120x2 80 C
120
240
80 C
240 80
C 160
8.
9.
In a triad of A, B, C elements, if the atomic mass of B and C are 150 and 200
respectively. Find the atomic mass of A.
19
10.
20
The atomic masses of three elements X, Y and Z having similar chemical properties
are 7, 23 and 39 respectively.
a) Calculate the average atomic mass of elements X and Z.
b) How is the average atomic mass of elements X and Z compare with the atomic
mass of element Y?
c) Which law of classification of elements is illustrated by this example?
d) Give another example of a set of elements which are classified according to this
law.
a) The average atomic mass of X and Z =
7 39
2
46
2
23
12.
13.
What similarity was observed by Newland in the properties of elements and octaves
of music?
Dobereiners classification was not satisfactory, as he failed to arrange all of the then
known elements in the form of triads. He could identify only three triads from the elements
known at that time.
New land law of octaves states that When elements are arranged in the order of
increasing atomic mass, the properties of the eighth element (starting from any given
element) are a repetition of the properties of the first element.
When Newland arranged the elements, he found that the properties of eighth element
resembled the properties of the first element, This repetition in the properties is just like
the repetition of eighth note in an octave of music. (sarega ma pa da nisa)
14.
X and Y are the two elements having similar properties which obey Newlands law
of octaves. How many elements are there in-between X and Y?
There are 6 elements between X and Y
15.
16.
17.
18.
As Newland law is similar to the octaves in music, he called the law as law of octaves.
Newland law of octaves could not be extended after 17 elements.
Mendeleevs periodic law states that The properties of elements are periodic functions of
their atomic mass.
Mendeleevs classification is based on atomic mass.
20.
21
Mendeleev left vacant spaces in the table for the elements that were to be discovered.
He was able to predict the atomic mass and properties of elements even before their
discovery.
His periodic table helped to discover new elements like germanium.
1) Mendeleevs periodic table consists of 7 periods (horizontal) and 9 groups (vertical).
2) Elements are arranged in the increasing order of their atomic weights.
3) The elements that have similar property were placed in vertical columns.
21.
Atomic mass is not useful to construct the periodic table. Give reasons with an
example. OR Why is atomic number is more useful than atomic mass to classify the
elements?
Isotopes of an element have same atomic number but different atomic mass. They have
to be placed in four places. This creates confusion because other elements occupied
these positions.
22.
23.
24.
25.
The meaning of isotope is iso-same, tope-place. Atoms having different atomic masses
with the same atomic number. They are given the same place in the periodic table.
Modern periodic law states that The properties of elements are a periodic function of their
atomic number.
When elements are arranged according to increasing atomic numbers, elements having
similar properties are kept in the same group. There is a inter relation between electronic
configuration and atomic number. The elements are arranged in 7 horizontal rows called
periods and 18 vertical columns called groups.
In the modern classification, elements are arranged in the increasing order of their atomic
numbers.
26.
27.
How many periods and groups are there in the modern periodic table?
The horizontal rows in the periodic table are called periods. The vertical columns in the
periodic table are called groups.
In the modern periodic table there are 7 periods and 18 groups.
28.
29.
22
Consider the isotopes of carbon, C-12 and C-14. Would you place them in different
slots because their atomic masses are different or would you place them in the
same position because their chemical properties are the same?
Isotopes are not placed according to their atomic mass but they are all placed in the same
position as they have the same atomic number.
30.
35
17Cl
and
37
17 Cl
. Explain why.
32.
Give reason: Elements of group 18 or group zero are called inert or noble gases.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
Elements of group 18 have valency of zero. Hence they are called zero group elements.
Elements of group 18 do not form chemical bond on their own with other elements as they
have completed shells of electrons. They have no tendency to gain or lose electrons.
Hence they are most un-reactive.
Noble gases do not form chemical bond on their own with other elements as they have
completed shells of electrons.
Why are noble gases placed in a separate group?
Nobel gases are very unreactive. So, they are placed in a separate group.
Give example of noble gases or inert elements.
Helium, Neon, Argon, Xenon, Krypton etc.
What is octet structure?
The electronic structure of elements having 8 electrons in the outermost shellis called
octet structure.
Is it possible to have an element having atomic number 1.5?
23
List the short period, long period and incomplete periods in the modern periodic
table.
Periodnumber
1st
nd
Description
Veryshort
Long
18 elements (K to Kr)
Very long
Short
Long
th
th
7th
2 (H & He)
Short
3rd
th
Number of elements
incomplete
8 elements ( Na to Ar)
40.
41.
The 14 elements coming after Lanthanum are called Lanthanides. 14 elements coming
after actinium are called Actinides.
Give reason: f block elements are kept separately in the periodic table.
Lanthanides and Actinides are series of elements having similar properties and they are
placed at the bottom of the periodic table so that the periodic table can fit on a single page
for our convenience. They is more horizontal similarity rather than vertical similarity.
42.
How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the
modern periodic table?
The group number of elements having up to two valence electrons is equal to the number
of valence electrons.
For example:
Group 1 elements have 1 valence electron.
Group 2 elements have 2 valence electrons.
Group 13 elements have 3 valence electrons.
43.
How is the electronic configuration of an atom related to the period in the periodic
table?
Periods are formed according to the way in which electrons get filled up in different shells
and orbitals. For example first period of the table is completed when the first shell of the
atom is completely filled up.
44.
Give reason: In the first period, hydrogen and helium are not placed adjacent to
each other
OR
There is a big gap between hydrogen and helium in the periodic table.
Because Hydrogen and Helium belong to different groups. The Hydrogen element
belongs to the 'Hydrogen' group, whereas the Helium element belongs to the 'noble gas'
24
group. Helium should be next to hydrogen. But the 2nd group of elements are alkaline
earth metals and Helium is a Noble gas, therefore it is decided that Helium be grouped
with all the Noble gases.
45.
Elements where electrons of their atoms occupy ultimate shells leaving penultimate (last
but one)shells partially vacant are called transition elements.
Electrons of these elements fill normally upto 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s and 3p. After 3p electrons
occupy 4s leaving 3d orbitals vacant.
46.
47.
48.
49.
d block elements are called outer transition elements because they contain at most two
electrons in their outer shell.
The elements for which f sub shells are filling are called the inner transition elements.
Based on electronic configuration, all elements are grouped into four categories. They are
s block, p block, d block and f block elements.
If we know the atomic number and electronic configuration of an element, we can find the
block to which they belong. If the outermost sub energy level is s then it belongs to s
block. If the outermost sub energy level is p then it belongs to p block.
Example: Atomic number of sodium is 11. Its electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1.
The orbital occupied by the outermost electron is s. So sodium belongs tos block.
50.
10
The orbital occupied by the penultimate shell isd. So iron belongs to d block.
c) Cerium (Atomic number 58)
10
10
51.
25
If we know the atomic number and electronic configuration of an element, we can find the
period to which it belongs by finding the number of shells. Total number of shells indicates
period number.
2
52.
53.
54.
Its electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s2
Highest shell number is 4, so it belongs to 4th period.
What is meant by the term periodicity?
When the elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic numbers, elements with
similar chemical properties are repeated at definite intervals. This is known as periodicity.
The cause of periodicity is the recurrence of similar electronic configuration.
What are the factors that decide the chemical behaviour of elements?
a) Periodicity of chemical properties
b) Atomic size
c) Ionisation energy
d) Electro chemical nature
e) Metallic nature
55.
What is atomic size? How does it affect the chemical properties of an element?
56.
The distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost electron shell of an
atom is called atomic size. It refers to the radius of the atom.
Size of an atom decides ionization energy and electron affinity. Electron affinity decides
electro-negativity and electro-positivity.
The atomic radius decreases along a period because the atomic number increases by
one, but the additional electron goes to the same shell.There is no change in the number
of shells but more electrons make the nucleus to exert greater inward pull on the
electrons. As a result, outer electrons are pulled in closer to the nucleus which leads to
contraction of the atom and thus decrease in atomic size.
Decreases
26
Ex: Atomic size of Lithium (Li)>Beryllium (Be) > Boron (B) > Carbon (C) > Nitrogen (N) >
Oxygen (O) > Fluorine (F)
58.
Give reason: Atomic size of sodium atom is greater than that of chlorine atom.
59.
60.
Sodium is in the 1st group where as chlorine is in 17th group. We know that the atomic size
decreases down the group. Hence sodium atom has larger atomic size than that of
chlorine atom.
In moving down a group, new shell is added to the atom. There is an
increase in the energy level. The distance of the outermost electron
from the nucleus increases. This increases the size of the atom down
the group.
a) Li, Be, F, N
a) F<N<Be<Li
b) Cl<Br<I<At
61.
62.
How does ionisation energy vary across a period and down a group?
Ionisation energy is the energy required to remove the electron from the outermost shell
from a free and isolated atom of the element.
Ionisation energy increases along a period and decreases down a
group.
Ionisation energy decreases with increase in the atomic size.
Ionisation energy
Increases
63.
Give reason: Sodium atom has lower ionisation energy than chlorine atom.
64.
65.
66.
How does electro positivity and electro negativity vary across a period and down a
group?
Sodium is in the 1st group whereas chlorine is in 17th group. Atomic size decreases down
the group. We know that Ionisation energy increases with decrease in atomic size. Hence
sodium atom has lower ionisation energy than that of chlorine atom.
Atoms which give up electrons easily are called electro-positive. Ex: Sodium atom.
Atoms which accept electrons easily are called electro negative. Ex; Chlorine.
27
Electro positivity decreases along a period and increases down the group.
Electro negativity increases a period and decreases down the group.
Electro positivity
Electro negativity
67.
Decreases
Increases
A group of elements in the periodic table are given Boron, Aluminium, Gallium,
Indium, Thallium [Boron is the first member of the group and Thallium is the last]
Which element would have the highest electro negativity?
Boron would have the highest electro negativity as it decreases down the group.
68.
Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and Phosphorous (atomic number 15) belong to group
15 of the periodic table. Which of these will be more electro negative? Why?
Nitrogen will be more electro negative as it decreases down the group.
69.
70.
71.
Give reason: sodium has lower electron affinity than chlorine atom.
72.
How does metallic nature vary along a period and down a group?
73.
In which part of the periodic table do we find mostly metals and non-metals?
74.
Metallic nature decreases along a period and increases down the group. Example: In the
14th group there are elements carbon, silicon, germanium, tin and lead. Carbon and silicon
are non-metals, tin and leads are metals.
Most metals are found on the extreme left side of a period. Most non-metals are found on
the right side of a period.
Ga, Ge, As, Se, Be
Maximum metallic character is found in elements on the extreme left side of the periodic
table. Out of the given elements Beryllium will have maximum metallic character as it is on
the extreme left side in the periodic table.
75.
76.
What is the name of those elements which divide metals and non-metals in the
periodic table?
77.
28
Elements which are not distinctively metals and possess some physical properties of nonmetals are called metalloids.
Metalloids
List the elements of 15th group of the periodic table. Name the distinct metals and
non-metals of the group.
The elements of 15th group are Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Arsenic, Antimony and Bismuth.
Nitrogen and phosphorous are non-metals. Arsenic and Antimony are metalloids, Bismuth
is a metal.
78.
Taking first period and 17th group of the periodic table, write gradation of properties
with respect to the following: a) atomic size b) Ionisation energy c) electro positivity
and electro negativity.
The elements of 1st period are hydrogen and helium.
a) Atomic size of hydrogen is larger then that of helium because atomic size decreases
across a period.
b) Ionisation energy of helium is larger than that of hydrogenbecause ionisation increases
across a period.
c) Electro positivity of hydrogen is higher than that of helium because it decreases across
the period. Electro negativity of helium is higher than that of hydrogen becauses it
increases across the period.
The elements of 17th group are Fluorine, Chlorine, Bromine, Iodine and Astatine.
a) Atomic size of Astatine is larger because it increases down the group.
b) Ionisation energy of Fluorine is higher because it decreases down the group.
c) Electro positivity of Astatine is higher as it increases down the group. Electro negativity
of fluorine as it decreases down the group.
79.
a) Study of chemistry is simplified and organized leading to easy access of data of the
elements.
b) It was possible to predict the atomic mass, some properties and other details of
elements which are yet to be discovered during the time of Mendeleev.
c) There is striking similarity between the periodic table constructed empirically by
Mendeleev and the modern periodic table based on electronic configuration and
nature of chemical bond.
d) Interpretation of trends and periodicities of properties of elements provide a clear
understanding and proof for atomic behavior.
29
The following shows a part of the periodic table containing first three periods in
which five elements have been represented by the letters a, b, c, d and e.
a) Select the letter which represents a metal.
b) Select the letter which represents a noble gas.
a) d
b) c
81.
The position of three elements A, B and C in the periodic table shown below:
a) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.
b) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive
than A.
c) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B?
Group 16 Group 17
Give reason: In the construction of periodic table, the periodic law is broken in
some places.
Hydrogen resembles both the alkali metals and halogens. But it has been placed with the
alkalis.
The lanthanides and actinides have not been placed in the main body of the table.
1.
The person in 1815 who suggested in that elements can be classified on the basis of
atomic mass was William Prout.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
The German chemist who pointed out that many of the known elements could be
arranged in groups of three similar elements was Dobereiner.
Elements arranged in group of three are called triads.
10.
The Russian chemist who said that the properties of elements are periodic function of
their atomic mass is Dmitri Mendeleev.
The modern periodic table was adopted by IUPAC in 1984.
15.
16.
11.
12.
13.
14.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30
The full form of IUPAC is International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry.
The horizontal rows of periodic table are called periods.
The cause of periodicity is the recurrence of similar electronic configuration.
The vertical columns of periodic table are called groups.
The element which is referred to as the element that consumes everything is fluorine.
In the modern periodic table, the elements are arranged in the ascending order of their
atomic number.
The shortest period in the periodic table is first period.
The longest period in the periodic table is sixth period.
30.
The distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost electron shell of an
atom is called atomic size.
The atomic size decreases as we move from left to right across the period.
33.
The element from the elements Li, Na, K, having the least number of electron shells is Li.
31.
32.
34.
35.
36.
37.
The elements below sodium in the same group would have lower electro negativity.
The elements above chlorine would have higher ionisation energy.
The element with the least atomic size from Carbon, Nitrogen, Boron and Beryllium is
Nitrogen.
The element with highest ionisation energy from the elements of period 1, 2, 3 is period 1.
The first element of 14th group is carbon, which is a non-metal. The metallic members of
this group are tin and lead.
On going down in a group in the periodic table, the metallic nature of element increases.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
31
Elements which are not distinctively metals and possess some physical properties of nonmetals are called metalloids.
Atoms which give up electrons easily are called electro-positive.
Atoms which receive electrons easily are called electro negative.
The energy required to remove the electron from the outermost shell from a free and
isolated atom of the element is called Ionisation energy.
Elements in which electrons of their atoms occupy ultimate shells leaving penultimate
shells partially vacant are called transition elements.
****
Chapter 4: Silicon
1.
C4
Silicon is the 2nd most abundant element in the earths crust. It is widely distributed in
sand, various forms of silicon dioxide (silica) or silicates. It is the chief constituent of semiprecious stones like garnet, zircon, topaz and opal.
4.
The atomic number of silicon is 14 and its mass number is 28. Its electronic configuration
2
2
6
2
2
is 1s , 2s 2p , 3s 3p
Finely powdered silica (sand or quartz) is mixed with magnesium powder and heated in a
fire clay crucible. Magnesium oxide and silicon are formed.
SiO2 + 2Mg
5.
6.
7.
Heat
Si + 2MgO
The product is washed with dilute hydrochloric acid to dissolve magnesium oxide.
Then it is washed with hydrofluoric acid to remove unreacted silica.
The powder left behind is amorphous silicon.
Heat
Si + 2CO
Amorphous silicon
It is a brown powder
Crystalline silicon
When amorphous silicon is heated in air, it oxidizes at the surface level & catches fire.
9.
33
Silicon burns brilliantly in air and vigorously in oxygen to form silicon dioxide. It is an
exothermic reaction.
Si + O 2
SiO 2
10.
11.
(Steam)
12.
Silicon
SiO 2 + H 2
When red hot silicon reacts with steam, it liberates hydrogen. Even when metals like hot
iron, zinc or magnesium react with steam, they liberate hydrogen with their respective
metal oxides. Hence silicon resembles metals in some properties.
13.
When a mixture of silicon and coke is heated in an electric furnace, silicon carbide is
formed. It is an endothermic reaction.
Si + C
SiC
14.
15.
16.
SiC
: Silicon
34
18.
19.
Silicon is the second most abundantly available material and it can be used at higher
temperature. Hence it widely used than Germanium.
20.
Give reason: Carbon is not a semiconductor inspite of its group being 14.
21.
Give reason: Sand is used during roasting and as sand bath in chemical reactions.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
Conductivity increases as you go down a group, so carbon, at the top of its group, is
usually described as a resistor and silicon and germanium are described as semiconductors. Continuing down the group, tin and lead are conductors.
As silicon has high thermal and non combustible property.
Due to the absence of porosity in the polymer of silicon. The structure is so compact that
water cannot enter.
a) Diatoms, radiolarian and siliceous sponges use biogenic silica as a structural material
to construct skeletons.
b) Paddy needs silicon for its growth.
Miners and stone breakers, in asbestos factory, glass factory some times suffer from a
professional hazard.
Silicosis a professional disease which affects miners and stone breakers. Silica particles
suspended in air in the mining area enters into lungs of workers and causes silicosis.
Give reason: Workers in mines, glass factory, asbestos factory and stone breakers
often suffer from silicosis.
Silicon
27.
35
Silica particles suspended in air in the mining area enters into lungs of workers and
causes silicosis.
Give reason: Workers in mines, glass factory and asbestos factory must be
provided with gas masks.
Because long exposure to silica particles suspended in air enter lungs of workers and
causes silicosis.
The chemist who produced crude silicon from silicon dioxide was Berzelius.
The chemist who proved that sans is a compound and not an element was Berzelius.
5.
3.
4.
6.
7.
8.
Silicon is derived from the Latin word Silicium which means stone or flint.
The atomic number of silicon is 14 and its mass number is 28.
2
10.
14.
15.
16.
9.
11.
12.
13.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
Silicon is a semiconductor.
The rubbery compound of silicon, oxygen and hydrocarbons is called silicone.
The compound of silicon used in chromatography is silica gel.
The element used in manufacture of transistor, diodes and integrated circuits is silicon.
The compound used in manufacture of emery paper or sand paper is silica.
B5
3.
c) Angiosperms
4.
5.
6.
The group of plants in which xylem and phloem are absent are called non-vascular plants.
The group of plants in which xylem and phloem is present are called vascular plants.
a) Algae are autotrophic organisms.
What is thallus?
8.
9.
37
b) Algin, a substance obtained from brown algae is used in preparation of ice creams and
chocolates.
c) Agar, a substance obtained from Gelidium a red algae is used as a medium for
culturing bacteria in the laboratory.
13.
14.
Name the two groups of bryophytes and give one example for each group.
Bryophytes are plants that are found both on moist land and in water. They need water for
completing the life cycle. Hence they are referred to as amphibians of plant kingdom.
Rhizoids are the root like extensions present in bryophytes.
15.
16.
Liverworts like Riccia are called so because they resemble the shape of liver.
The life cycle of bryophytes include two generations Gametophyte and Sporophyte.
What is gametophyte?
18.
38
The adult plant body of a bryophyte which produces male and female gametes is called
gametophyte.
Antheridia are the male gamete producing structures in bryophytes/pteridophytes
20.
Sporophyte
21.
22.
23.
A plant growing on moist soil has a thalloid body, rhizoids and archegonium. To
which group of Metaphyta do you include it? Give one example of the group.
The process by which gametophyte and sporophyte formed alternately during the life
cycle is called alternation of generations.
The life cycle of bryophyte includes two successive generations namely a haploid
gametophyte and a diploid sporophyte. The adult gametophyte produces male and female
gametes. The fusion of male and female gametes produces zygote which develops into a
diploid sporophyte. The spores on germination produce gametophyte.
Mosses growing in marshy places are called bog mosses. They are abundant in districts
of Madikeri, Chikkamagalur, Hassan and shivamogga.
24.
25.
26.
Pteridophytes are vascular plants. They are the first terrestrial plants to develop vascular
tissues.
Tracheophytes are the group of plants containing vascular tissues.
27.
28.
39
c) They grow in moist soil, on damp walls, cool & shady regions. The plant body can be
divided into root, stem and leaves.
d) They are commonly called ferns.
e) The life cycle includes two generations namely gametophyte and sporophyte.
f) The adult plant body is called sporophyte.
g) They reproduce by asexual and sexual methods. Asexual reproduction is by spore
formation. Sexual reproduction is by fusion of male and female gametes.
Ex: Nephrolepis, Selaginella, Adiantum, Lycopodium, Marsilea.
29.
30.
31.
What is Prothallus?
32.
33.
The life cycle of pteridophytes includes two successive generations namely a haploid
gametophyte and a diploid sporophyte.
The sporophyte produces spores which germinate into haploid gametophyte called
Prothallus. Fusion of male and female gametes results in zygote which develops into a
sporophyte.
34.
Pteridophyte
1. It is a vascular plant
2. The adult plant body is diploid
sporophyte.
35.
36.
40
When the leaves of Adiantum touch the ground, they develop roots and form a new plant.
Hence it is called walking fern.
a) Ferns are grown for their ornamental value.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
Microsporophyll
They are structures that produce the
male gametes called microspores
41
Megasporophyll
They are structures that produce
female structures called
megaspores.
Angiosperms are a group of plants in which the seeds are enclosed in structures called
fruit. (Angion=cover, sperma=seed)They are the most evolved group of plants.
a) Angiosperms are group of plants in which seeds are enclosed in structure called fruit.
b) They are the most evolved group of plants.
c) The adult plant body is sporophyte.
47.
Draw a neat diagram showing the structure of a typical flower and label the parts.
48.
49.
50.
51.
Monocot seed
52.
Dicot seed
Dicot leaves
53.
54.
Monocot flower
Dicot flower
Monocotyledonous plant
Dicotyledonous plant
42
55.
Draw a neat diagram of a typical dicot plant and label the parts.
56.
43
57.
58.
44
Angiosperms
Give reason: It is slightly difficult to pull out a bean plant from the ground than a
paddy plant.
Bean plant has taproot system with primary root and many secondary & tertiary branches
which grow deep into the soil where as paddy has fibrous root in which primary root is
absent.
59.
Assume that a farmer cultivates jowar and toordal plants in the same plot at the
same time. If there is insufficient rainfall which of the crops will dry faster? Why?
Jowar plant will dry faster because transpiration rate is more in jowar as the leaves are
broader and has fibrous root system as it cannot absorb water from deeper soil.
60.
How do you discriminate dicot from monocot plants as their seed start
germinating?
In monocot, cotyledons remain below the soil during germination and in dicot cotyledon
appear above the soil.
61.
62.
63.
64.
b) Subphylum Urochordata: Notochord is present only in the tail region of the larvae. It is
absent in adults. Ex: Herdmania.
c) Subphylum Cephalochordata: Notochord is present through the length of the body.
Ex: Amphioxus.
Vertebral column refers to a structure containing a series of ring like bones (vertebrae)
arranged one above the other. It supports the body and provides attachment to the
muscles.
66.
45
c) They have a streamlined body which is divided into head, trunk and tail.
d) The body is covered by an exoskeleton composed of dermal scales.
e) Paired and unpaired fins help in locomotion. Pair fins help in balancing.
f) Respiratory organs are in the form of gills. Gill slits may be exposed or covered by
operculum.
g) They are cold blooded animals. Heart is two chambered with one auricle and one
ventricle. It receives and pumps only de-oxygenated blood.
h) Nervous system is well developed with a brain, a spinal cord and 10 pairs of cranial
nerves.
i) They are oviparous animals. Fertilization and development is external.
j) They can be cartilaginous fishes or bony fishes based on the composition of
endoskeleton.
Ex: Shark, Ray fish, Hippocampus, carp, Labeo etc
68.
69.
70.
46
A fish which has escaped from a fishermans net has lost one of its pectoral fins.
What difficulty will it face while swimming?
Pectoral fins are one of the paired fins which help in balance. So the fish would not be
able to balance properly.
71.
72.
73.
74.
Vertebrates that keep changing their body temperature according to the changes in the
environment are called cold blooded or Poikilothermic animals. Ex: Fishes, amphibians,
reptiles.
Animals which lay eggs are called oviparous animals. Ex: fishes, reptiles and birds.
Fertilisation taking place outside the body of the organism is called external fertilisation.
Ex: Fishes, frog etc.
a) Fishes form food for humans in many countries.
b) Oil obtained from the liver of shark and cod is rich in vitamin A and D.
c) The dried skin of sharks is used in making polish.
d) Fishes like Gambusia are used in biological control of mosquitoes.
75.
76.
c) The body is divided into head, trunk and tail. Tail is absent in adult stage.
d) The skin is smooth and moist.
e) Locomotory organs are in the form of fore and hind limbs. Fore limbs have four digits
each and hind limbs have five digits each.
f) Respiratory organs are gills in larva stage, lungs, skin in adult stage.
g) They are cold blooded animals with a three chambered heart.
h) Nervous system consists of brain, spinal cord and 10 pairs of cranial nerves.
i) They are oviparous animals & fertilization is external.
j) They exhibit metamorphosis.
Ex: Frog, Toad, Salamander, Newt, Ichthyophis (apodan)
77.
47
78.
Metamorphosis is a series of changes that take place in some organisms from larvae
stage to the adult stage.
Ex: Frog, Butterfly etc.
79.
80.
The period during which some organisms bury themselves for weeks in damp places
during winder to avoid extreme temperature is called hibernation. Ex: Frog, bear etc.
The period during which some organisms bury themselves for weeks during summer is
called aestivation (Sumer sleep).
a) Reptiles are the first true terrestrial vertebrates.
b) Most of them are land forms and some are adapted for life in water.
c) The body is elongated, divided into head, trunk and tail.
f) Respiration is by lungs.
g) They are cold blooded animals. Heart is three chambered. In crocodiles ventricle is
incompletely divided into two chambers.
h) Nervous system consists of a brain, a spinal cord and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
i) They are oviparous animals. Fertilization is internal but development is external.
Ex: Turtles, tortoise, lizards, snakes
81.
How are reptiles classified? OR Name the major groups of reptiles. Give example.
Reptiles are identified into four groups:
a) Chelones: Turtles and tortoise.
b) Lizards: House lizard, Chameleon, Calotes (garden lizard), Varanus (monitor lizards),
Draco (flying lizard)
c) Snakes: Viper, cobra, sea snake, Python
d) Crocodiles and alligators.
82.
83.
84.
Animals in which have five digits each in both fore and hind limbs.
Fertilisation taking place inside the body of the organism is called internal fertilisation.
Ex: Tortoise, snake, crocodile etc.
85.
1. Skin
2. Digits in limbs
3. Fertilization
86.
87.
88.
Amphibians
48
Reptiles
Raju and Rashmi observe elongated creatures in their school. Raju infers that to be
a garden lizard where as Rashmi infers that to be a salamander. Help them
overcome their confusion.
If the creature has a smooth and moist skin then it is an amphibian as in salamander. If
the creature has dry scales then it is reptile as in garden lizard.
Is there any relationship between warm blooded conditions and four chambered
heart?
One of the major evolutionary adaptations that allowed animals to become warm-blooded
was the formation of the four-chambered heart. Four chambers mean no mixing of
deoxygenated and oxygenated blood, and thus, more oxygen gets to the tissues.
e) Locomotory organs are fore and hind limbs. Fore limbs are modified into wings for
flying. The hind limbs are pentadactyl.
f) The respiratory organs are a pair of lungs.
g) They are warm blooded animals and heart is four chambered.
h) Nervous system is well developed with a brain, a spinal cord and 12 pair of cranial
nerves.
89.
90.
91.
i)
What are the adaptations that enable a bird to fly? OR Make a list of the main flight
adaptations in birds.
a) Streamlined body
b) Forelimbs modified into wings.
c) Arrangement of feathers on wings to provide the lift.
d)
e)
f)
g)
h)
92.
93.
In which class of vertebrates pneumatic bones are found? Mention any one of its
advantage.
49
Hollow, light, air filled bones of birds are called pneumatic bones.
Pneumatic bones are found in class aves. It makes the body very light and fly without
friction.
94.
95.
96.
a) Fore limbs: Fore limbs are modified into wings that help in flight.
b) Bones: Bones are hollow, light and filled with air. This makes their body light and can fly
without friction.
Animals that maintain a constant body temperature, irrespective of changes in the
environmental temperature are called warm blooded or homeothermic animals.
a) Mammals are the most advanced group of vertebrates.
What is diaphragm?
98.
Diaphragm is a muscular membrane in mammals that separate the upper thorax from the
lower abdomen.
50
a) Heterodont (from Greek, meaning 'different teeth') refers to animals which possess
more than a single tooth.
b) Thecodont is a type of teeth arrangement in which the teeth are embedded in the
sockets of the jaws.
c) Diphyodont refers to animals developing two successive sets of teeth, one temporary
and one permanent, as in humans.
99.
Animals which give birth to young ones are called viviparous animals. Both fertilization
and development takes place inside the body of female.
100. What is the function of placenta?
The function of placenta in mammals is to nourish the embryo.
102. Point out any two characteristics that support the idea that Platypus is more
evolved than tortoise.
a) Heart of Platypus is four chambered.
b) Nervous system of Platypus has spinal nerves.
Mammals
104. What was the need for vertebrates to evolve from oviparity to viviparity?
The two reasons for vertebrates to evolve from oviparity (Egg-laying) to viviparity (Giving
live birth) are:
a) To increase the number of successful births as in viviparity the offspring is protected by
the mother whereas in oviparity eggs laid can easily be eaten by other animals. Hence
viviparity is selected by natural selection and they evolved to viviparity.
b) In oviparity the young ones developed are mostly poor as no care is given by the
mother. In viviparity the young ones get full care from the mother in terms off oxygen and
nutrients so the young ones developed are healthier in viviparity. So they were selected
by natural selection and were evolved to viviparity.
Characteristics
1. Habitat
2.Body temperature
3. Exoskeleton
4. Respiratory
system
5. Locomotory
organs
6. Heart chambers
7. Propagation
8. Fertilization &
Development
Pisces
Aquatic
Cold
blooded
Scales
Gills
Amphibians
Terrestrial &
aquatic
Terrestrial
Cold blooded
Cold blooded
Smooth &
moist
Gills, lungs &
skin
Fins
Limbs
2
Oviparous
3
Oviparous
External
Reptiles
External
Lungs
Limbs
(Pentadactyl)
3
Oviparous
Internal &
External
Aves
Terrestrial,
aquatic &
aerial
Warm
blooded
51
Mammals
Terrestrial,
aquatic &
aerial
Warm blooded
Feathers
Hairs
Lungs
Lungs
Fore limbs
wings
Hind limbs legs
4
Oviparous
Internal &
External
Limbs
(Pentadactyl)
4
Viviparous
Internal
4.
5.
6.
7.
The largest of the marine multi-cellular algae are kelps which grow to about 60m in
length.
An example of kelps is Microcystus.
The plant body of Multicellular algae is called thallus.
Ulothrix is an example of green algae.
10.
11.
12.
8.
9.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
24.
25.
26.
21.
22.
23.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
52
The group of plants which contain vascular tissues are called tracheophytes.
The adult plant body in pteridophytes is sporophyte.
The independent structure developed in pteridophytes which produces male and female
gametes is Prothallus.
The subphylum in which notochord is present only in the tail region of the larvae and
absent in adults is Urochordata.
The subphylum in which notochord is present through the length of the body is
Cephalochordata.
The subphylum in which notochord is restricted only to the embryonic stage is vertebrata.
The fins which help fishes in balancing is paired fins.
The respiratory organs of class Pisces are gills.
57.
53
58.
59.
Animals which keep changing their body temperature according to the changes in the
environment are called cold blooded or Poikilothermic animals.
Two chambered heart is present in class Pisces.
Fertilization and development in class Pisces is external.
63.
Fertilisation taking place outside the body of the organism is called external fertilisation.
60.
61.
62.
64.
65.
69.
70.
71.
66.
67.
68.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
The animal group with exoskeleton in the form of epidermal scales is Reptiles.
79.
80.
83.
84.
85.
81.
82.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
The arrangement of colourful feathers in male birds to attract females is called Plumage.
91.
The muscular membrane that divides the upper thorax and the abdominal cavities in
mammals is diaphragm.
The diaphragm which separates thorax and abdomen is a muscular membrane.
95.
96.
92.
93.
94.
97.
98.
*****
54
What is a tissue?
B6
A group of cells which have a common origin, structure and function is called tissue.
2. Define an organ.
3.
4.
Define histology.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
c) inter-nodal meristem: They are found at the nodes between leaves and stem. It helps in
branching.
Mention the features of meristematic tissues.
The tissues composed of cells which keep on dividing forming new cells are called
meristematic tissues.
Meristematic tissues occur in all growing regions like root tip, stem apex and buds.
a) Apical meristem: They are located at the shoot tip which makes the plant, grow taller.
b) Lateral meristem: They add to girth (diameter) of the plant body.
a)
10.
11.
12.
The tissues formed by mature or specialized cells are called permanent tissues.
a) Permanent tissues are formed by mature or specialized cells.
b) They have cell wall composed of cellulose in addition to hemicelluloses, pectin and
lignin.
c) They contain well developed plastids and other cell organelles.
d) Vacuoles are large and prominent.
e) Nucleus may be present or absent at maturity in certain types.
13.
14.
15.
16.
What is parenchyma?
17.
Tissues in which the cells are of the same kind and performing common function are
called simple permanent tissue.
a) Parenchyma
b) Collenchyma
c) Sclerenchyma
Parenchyma is a simple permanent tissue in which is found in the soft parts of plants
body.
Mention the characteristics of parenchyma.
a) The cells of parenchyma tissue are composed of thin walled living cells.
b) They are least specialized.
c) The cells may be round, elongated, polygonal or irregular.
d) The cells are loosely arranged.
18.
What is Chlorenchyma?
20.
56
22.
57
Collenchyma
Parenchyma cells are loosely arranged Collenchyma cells are closely packed
They have thin cell wall.
23.
24.
a) The cells of Sclerenchyma consist of thick, elongated cells, which are dead at
maturity.
b) The living cells of Sclerenchyma get deposited by lignin.
c) They lose nucleus and protoplasm at maturity.
Sclerenchyma cells consisting of elongated, thread like thick walled cells are called fibres.
Sclerenchyma cells consisting of hard cells found in group and having more lignin are
called sclereids. The cells of sclereids are isodiametric or columnar or bone shaped or
star shaped
25.
26.
27.
28.
Sclerenchyma fibres are flexible and elastic; hence they are used in coir industries to
make gunny bags and ropes.
Sclereids are hard cells found in groups and have more lignin, hence they are commonly
called stone cells.
Sclereids are found in fruit wall and seed coat.
Collenchyma
Sclerenchyma
The tissues that comprise of both living and non-living cells are called complex permanent
tissues. Ex: Xylem, phloem
What is xylem?
Xylem is a vascular tissue which transports water and mineral absorbed by the roots to all
the parts of the plant.
Name the four types of xylem cells. OR what is xylem composed of?
Xylem tissue is composed of:
32.
33.
Tracheids are short structures usually found at the tip of the leaf.
What is phloem?
34.
58
Xylem vessels consist of series of elongated dead cells joined together forming end to end
tube like structure for conduction of water and salts.
Phloem is a complex tissue which conducts food to different parts of the plant.
What is phloem composed of?
Phloem is composed of four types of cells.
36.
37.
38.
Sieve tubes comprise of longitudinally arranged cells. The cells are joined end to end in a
series. At maturity the cells lose the nucleus.
Sieve plate is a plate like structure with number of pores is present in between the two
cells.
Companion cells are living cells that are closely associated with sieve tubes. They control
the passage of food through phloem.
State the function of a) sieve tubes b) sieve plate c) companion cells d) phloem
fibres.
a) Sieve tubes: They play an important role in the conduction of food.
b) Sieve plate: It allows the food to pass through the pores.
c) Companion cells: They control the passage of food through the phloem.
d) Phloem fibres: They provide tensile strength to the plant body.
39.
40.
Since xylem and phloem occur together they are called vascular bundles.
Xylem
Phloem
Epidermal tissue is a simple permanent tissue which covers all parts of plant like stem,
leaves flowers, fruits, seeds and roots. It is a protective tissue.
Mention the characteristics of epidermal tissue.
a) Epidermal tissue forms the covering of most parts of plant like stem, leaves flowers,
fruits, seeds and roots.
c) It is living tissue.
d) It is one cell thick.
43.
44.
What is cuticle?
45.
46.
47.
ANIMAL TISSUES
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
59
Squamous epithelium look like the tiles on a floor without any space and tightly packed.
Hence Squamous epithelium is referred to as pavement epithelium.
55.
60
The epithelial tissues composed of tall, narrow and column or pillar like cells are called
columnar epithelium.
They are found in the inner lining of stomach, small intestine, pharynx, larynx and
oviducts.
What is cuboidal epithelium? Where do they occur?
The epithelium that have cube shaped cells are called cuboidal epithelium.
They are found in the lining of many ducts such as pancreatic duct, salivary duct and
sweat ducts.
56.
57.
58.
Cuboidal epithelium in glands help in secretion. For example salivary gland and thyroid
gland.
Columnar epithelial cells containing cilia on their free surface are called ciliated
epithelium.
a) Epithelium forms a thick tough barrier. It protects the underlying tissues in the skin.
b) Epithelium of the skin helps in maintaining a constant body temperature.
c) Epithelium is sense organs, contain receptor cells.
d) Ciliated epithelium helps in the movement of materials.
e) Epithelium also helps in absorption of nutrients and in excretion.
59.
60.
The tissues that are made up of muscle cells which help in the movement of the body are
called muscular tissue.
Muscle fibres or myofibres are specialized cells capable of contraction and relaxation that
is responsible for movement of limbs, bending of the body, movement of internal organs
like heart, stomach and alimentary canal.
61.
62.
c) Cardiac muscles
What are striped muscles? State their function.
63.
64.
Striped muscles are usually attached to the bones. Hence they are called skeletal
muscles.
What are unstriped muscles? Give example.
65.
66.
The muscles that are made up of spindle shaped, elongated muscle fibres without stripes
(cross bands) are called unstriped muscles.
They are also called smooth muscles. They are involuntary muscles.
Example: The peristaltic movements of oesophagus, intestine and stomach are due to
unstriped muscles. They are also found in kidneys, blood vessels and glands.
What are voluntary and involuntary muscles?
The muscles that are under the will of the organism are called voluntary muscles. The
muscles that are not under the will of the organism are called involuntary muscles.
Write the structural and functional differences between striped and unstriped
muscles.
Striped muscles
67.
61
Unstriped muscles
4) They help in
locomotion
a) Cardiac muscles are composed of branched fibres that have stripes or bands.
b) The branches are connected with one another in a cris-cross form.
c) They are involuntary muscles
d) They do not fatigue easily.
e) They are found only in the heart.
68.
69.
70.
Cardiac muscles are responsible for the contraction and relaxation of the heart. It makes
the heart beat continuously throughout ones life.
How is the heart able to function continuously without any rest in between?
The muscles of the heart are made up of cardiac muscles which do not fatigue easily.
Hence they are able to function continuously without rest.
Name the muscles that help in the following muscular movement.
Walking Locomotor
Respiration movement of diaphragm
Speaking muscles of vocal cord
Expression of emotions facial muscles
Propulsion of food in alimentary canal Smooth muscles
Pumping of blood cardiac muscles
Urination contraction of smooth muscles of the urinary bladder.
71.
72.
The tissues that connect various other tissues of the body and provide support are called
connective tissues. They consist of cells, fibres enclosed in a ground substance called
matrix.
62
On the basis of the nature of the matrix, connective tissues are classified into:
a) Loose connective tissues
b) Dense connective tissues
c) Fluid connective tissues.
73.
74.
75.
76.
Since connective tissues connects or binds other tissues, it is also called binding tissue.
The tissues in which the fibres in the matrix are loosely arranged is called loose
connective tissues.
They are of three types. a) areolar tissue b) adipose tissue c) reticular tissue
The tissues that are found below the skin in which the fibres are loosely connected and
having air spaces are called areolar tissue.
They are found in both dermis and sub-cutaneous layers of the skin. It is also found in and
around mucous membrane and around blood vessels and nerves.
a) White fibres or collagen fibres found in groups.
b) Yellow fibres or elastic fibres found singly.
c) Reticular fibres, forming a network.
77.
Name the different types of cells found in areolar tissue and state their function.
Fibroblasts: They are large, flat, highly branched. They secrete and maintain fibres.
Plasma cells: They are oval in shape and have small nucleus. They produce antibodies.
Macrophages: They are amoeboid in shape. They defend against micro-organisms. They
ingest the micro-organisms.
Mast cells: They are large cells having a spherical nucleus with granular cytoplasm. They
are associated with secretion of substances like serotonin, heparin and histamine.
78.
79.
80.
81.
Areolar tissues have air spaces in between the fibres, hence it is referred to as areolar
tissue.
Cells of areolar tissues produce antibodies and also defend against micro-organisms.
They also ingest the micro-organisms. Hence they help in body defence.
The tissues that have closely packed fat cells are called adipose tissue.
Adipose tissues stores nutrients and used as and when the body requires.
83.
Reticular tissue provides frame work for organs like liver, spleen, bone marrow, tonsils
and mucous membrane, lining of the respiratory tract and alimentary canal.
What are tendons?
84.
85.
Tendons are cord like, inelastic structures that joins the skeletal muscles to bones or
cartilage.
Ligaments are elastic fibres which connect bones to other bones. They help in movement
of bones.
Tendons
Ligaments
They join muscles to bones or cartilage They join bones with other bones
86.
The connective tissues consisting of hard matrix are called dense connective tissues.
87.
88.
89.
They form the skeletal system of the body providing an internal supporting frame work.
They enclose the internal organs. Ex: Skull protects brain, eyes, ears, nose.
a) Skull Brain, eyes, ears and nose
90.
91.
92.
63
The refractive index of the fibres and the matrix are same. Hence they are not easily
visible.
93.
94.
95.
64
96.
The cartilage present between the vertebrae in the vertebral column helps in bending and
stretching movements.
What is bone tissue?
97.
98.
Bone is strong, non-flexible, porous connective tissue. The matrix of a bone consists of
collagen fibres, proteins, inorganic salts like calcium phosphate, chlorides of potassium,
sodium and magnesium.
The long and strong bones of limbs are filled with a fluid called bone marrow. The function
of bone marrow is to produce blood cells.
a) The structural unit of bone tissue is called Haversian system.
b) It consists of a central Haversian canal containing blood vessels and nerves.
99.
c) Lacunae: the fluid filled spaces between lamellae are called Lacunae.
d) Canaliculi: The fine canals interconnecting adjoining lacunae are called Canaliculi.
e) Volkmanns Canal: The transverse canals connecting two Haversian canals is called
Volkmanns canal.
100. Differentiate between cartilage and bone
Cartilage
Bone
2. It is non-porous
2. It is porous
cartilage.
the bones.
Blood consists of blood cells like Red Blood Cells, White Blood Cells & platelets.
104. Write short notes on Red Blood Cells.
a) Red Blood Cells are involved in supplying of oxygen to every cell in the body.
b) They remove carbon di-oxide from the cells and transport it to lungs.
c) The number of RBCs vary from 4.5 to 5.5 million cells/cubic mm of blood.
d) They are circular, biconcave discs.
e) They have a life span of 100 to 120 days.
f) They originate in the bone marrow.
a) RBC: They supply oxygen to cells of the body and remove carbon di-oxide from the
cells.
b) WBC: They help in body defence.
c) Platelets: They help in clotting of blood.
Lymph is a colourless fluid that has been filtered out of the blood capillaries. Lymph
consists of white blood cells.
Lymph enters a set of capillaries which form the lymph glands or lymph nodes.
b) Nervous tissue transmits nerve impulses from all parts of the body to nerve centers.
65
66
Each neuron has a cyton or cell body consisting of central nucleus and cytoplasm.
Short projections arise from the cell body called dendrites.
A long, cylindrical fibre called axon extends from the cell body. The axon is covered by a
fatty sheath called Myelin Sheath. The axon ends in branches.
112. What are dendrites?
The short projections arising from the cell body is called dendrites.
113. What is axon?
1. The branch of biology which deals with the study of tissues and their organization is called
histology.
2. Plants exhibit only tissue level of organisation.
3. The tissues which are meant only for growth is meristematic tissue.
4. The tissues composed on cells which divide forming new cells are meristematic tissues.
5. The meristems which help in branching are nodal meristems.
67
6. The meristems which help in increasing the girth of the plant is lateral meristems,
7. The tissues formed by mature or specialised cells are called Permanent tissues.
8. The tissue found in soft parts of plant like root, stem, and leaves is Parenchyma.
9. Parenchyma containing chloroplasts are called Chlorenchyma.
10. Parenchyma with large inter-cellular spaces filled with air is called aerenchyma.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
20.
21.
22.
17.
18.
19.
23.
24.
25.
26.
The type of permanent tissue found in fruit wall and seed coat is Sclerenchyma.
The cells closely associated with sieve tubes are companion cells.
The outermost covering of the plant body called epidermal tissue.
The tissues found in the inner and outer lining of the body are called epithelial tissues.
The epithelium consisting of flat plate like cells is called Squamous epithelium.
27.
28.
30.
31.
29.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
The type of epithelium found in the inner lining of stomach, small intestine, pharynx, larynx
and oviducts is columnar epithelium.
The type of epithelium found in the lining of salivary glands is cuboidal epithelium.
The type of epithelium found in the lining of ducts is cuboidal epithelium.
The type of epithelium which helps in secretion is cuboidal epithelium.
The type of epithelium which have cilia on their free surface is ciliated epithelium.
The muscles that are elongated, cylindrical and unbranched are called striped muscles.
The muscles that are elongated, spindle shaped are called unstriped muscles.
The muscles that are referred to as skeletal muscles are striped muscles.
The muscles that are under the control of the organism are called voluntary muscles.
The muscles that are not under the control of the organism are called involuntary
muscles.
The muscles that are found only in the heart are cardiac muscles.
The muscles that are involved in the expression of emotions are facial muscles.
The muscles that are involved when we speak are muscles of vocal cord.
The muscles that are involved in propulsion of food from alimentary canal are smooth
muscles.
45.
The muscles that are involved in pumping of heart are cardiac muscles.
47.
The tissues which connect various other tissues of the body and provide support are
called connective tissues.
46.
48.
49.
The muscles that are involved during urination are smooth muscles of urinary bladder.
51.
The tissues in which the fibres in the matrix are loosely arranged is called loose
connective tissue.
The tissue that is found in the dermis and sub-cutaneous layers of the skin are areolar
tissue.
The function of fibroblasts is to secrete and maintain fibres.
55.
56.
57.
The tissue that consists of closely packed fat cells is adipose tissue.
The tissues which act as shock absorber is adipose tissue.
The tissue which provides insulation against cold is adipose tissue.
50.
52.
53.
54.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
83.
84.
The number of RBCs varies from 4.5 to 5.5 million cells/cubic mm of blood.
The lifespan of RBC is 100 to 120 days.
80.
81.
82.
68
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
93.
94.
90.
91.
92.
95.
The fastest nerve impulse in humans travel at eight metres per second.
69
What is Chikungunya?
B7
3.
b) Fever up to 40 C or 104F.
g) Joint pain may last for much longer period some times for years.
4.
5.
6.
The mosquitoes(Aedes aegyptii) breed in stagnant water. They bite during the day. They
are most active early in the morning and late afternoon.
During monsoon season, rain water collects in ditches, coconut shells; waste containers,
unused pots etc. become breeding ground of mosquitoes. Hence the number of cases of
Chikungunya cases increase during monsoon.
a) Avoid stagnation of water especially during monsoon season.
b) Clear water collected in coconut shells, waste containers like unused pots etc.
c) Control the disease by killing immature larvae of mosquitoes by spraying insecticides.
d) Wear long sleeved and full length clothes to avoid mosquito bites.
e) Wear light coloured clothing.
f) Use safe mosquito repellents and mosquito nets to prevent mosquito bite.
7.
What is Dengue?
8.
9.
a) At the onset of the disease headache, fever, exhaustion, severe muscle and joint
pain, swollen glands and rashes.
b) Bleeding gums, severe pain behind the eyes, redness in palms and soles.
10.
11.
Microbial Diseases
71
Reduced platelet count is the main symptom of Dengue fever. The platelet count in
normal healthy person is 2,50,000 in cm3 of blood but in a person with Dengue fever the
platelet count will be 1,00,000 in cm3 of blood.
a) Mosquito (Aedes aegyptii) bites an infected person.
b) Virus enter the body of mosquito
c) Infected mosquito bites a healthy person.
d) Healthy person is infected by Dengue virus.
12.
13.
Name the mosquito responsible for spreading both Chikungunya and Dengue fever.
The mosquito (Aedes aegyptii)can be easily recognized by white spots on the body and
the leg region. It rests indoors in dark places.
14.
Aedes aegyptii
Give reason: A person becomes susceptible to Chikungunya and Dengue infection.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
Mention the steps that can be taken to prevent the spread of bird flu.
20.
The mosquito (Aedes aegyptii) which spreads both Chikungunya and Dengue bites during
the day time and it is likely to go unnoticed as it does not cause skin irritation. Hence a
person is more susceptible to Chikungunya and Dengue fever easily.
A decoction prepared using young leaves of papaya given to Dengue patients can cure it
because it increases the number of platelets.
Bird flu or Avian influenza is a viral fever that infects humans.
Avian flu spreads by touching contaminated surfaces. Birds infected with this flu continue
release the virus in their faeces and saliva for as long as 10 days.
Infection in humans cause symptoms like cough, diarrhoea, breathing difficulty, fever
more than 38oC, headache, muscle pain, running nose and sore throat.
STD stands for Sexually Transmitted Disease. Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are
infections that can be transmitted through sexual contact with an infected individual.
Ex: Syphilis, Gonorrhea, Genital Warts, Genital Herpes, Hepatitis B, AIDS.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
What is Gonorrhea?
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
Microbial Diseases
72
b) Women in the age group 9 26 years can get vaccinated to protect against HPV.
31.
Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted disease caused by Herpes simplex virus type 1
(HSV 1) and type2(HSV 2).
Microbial Diseases
32.
33.
34.
What is hepatitis B?
35.
73
It is transmitted by exposure to infected blood or body fluids, sexual contact with infected
person and drug abuse.
36.
37.
What is AIDS?
38.
39.
40.
41.
Temporary protection for 3 to 6 months from HBV infection can be obtained by taking a
vaccine called Hepatitis B Immune Globulin (HBIG).
AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno deficiency Syndrome. It is a sexually transmitted
disease.
AIDS is caused by the Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV).
A HIV cell is spherical in shape containing RNA as its genetic material. It is covered by a
membrane made up of two layers of fatty material. Inside the membrane there is a core
made up of proteins. In the centre of the core, RNA is present along with the enzyme
reverse transcriptase. This enzyme acts as a catalyst on RNA helping in the synthesis of
DNA in the host cell.
Virus which contains RNA as genetic material is called as retro virus.
HIV belongs to retro group of viruses which are capable of giving rise to DNA.
icrobial Diseases
42.
43.
44.
Give reason: The symptoms of AIDS or HIV take number of years to appear.
45.
46.
47.
74
The genetic material present is RNA. The enzyme present is reverse transcriptase.
When HIV enters into a host cell, the RNA helps in synthesis of DNA. This HIV gets
adapted to the host body so well that the body cells fail to identify the virus as intruder.
Thus, the symptoms make take years to appear.
HIV destroys the natural immunity of the body. This leads to secondary infections. Thus,
the affected person is attacked by various contagious diseases.
A HIV infected person is termed as HIV +ve.
a) Sexual contact with an infected person.
49.
A HIV +ve mother can transmit HIV to the embryo through placenta. It is also transmitted
when a HIV +ve mother breast feeds her child.
AIDS patients show several symptoms which occur at the same time. So AIDS itself is not
a disease but a syndrome.
Microbial Diseases
50.
75
HIV multiplies only in lymphocytes and infection is acquired through contact with body
fluids like semen, blood and vaginal fluids. The virus responsible for the AIDS infection is
regarded as food to the mosquito and is digested along with the blood meal. As a result,
mosquitoes that ingest HIV-infected blood digest that blood within 1-2 days and completely destroy
any virus particles that could potentially produce a new infection. Since the virus does not survive
to reproduce transmission of HIV by mosquitoes is not possible.
51.
As there is still no medicine for AIDS, the only way is to avoid HIV infection.
The safest way to protect from HIV infection is to practice 3As:
a)
b)
c)
necessary.
53.
54.
A boy who is HIV +ve was denied admission in a school. The court did not approve
this. What scientific justification do you make on this?
AIDS is an infectious disease but not transmitted through air, water & food. So it is not a
communicable disease.
HIV is not transmitted by touching, sharing common toilet, playing together or by sharing /
eating food together. Hence schools should not deny admission.
4.
Microbial Diseases
5.
6.
10.
A decoction prepared using young leaves of papaya is used as cure for Dengue fever.
7.
8.
9.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
The most dreadful viral disease that has affected human society in recent decades is
Hepatitis B.
The enzyme reverse transcriptase helps in the synthesis of DNA in the host cell.
*****
76
Define motion.
2.
P8
Motion is a natural event that involves a change in the position or location of an object
with time.
Study of motion of objects is needed because:
a) Chemical reactions are possible only because of movement and collision.
b) Geologists use physics of waves to study and measure the tectonic plate motion and
predict earthquakes.
c) Cosmologists use physics to study the behaviour of heavenly bodies.
d) Doctors use it to map the flow of blood to check whether the arteries are blocked.
3.
a) Constituents of solid are in a state of continuous vibration, not visible to the naked eye.
b) The revolution and spin of the earth is not detected inspite of their high speed.
c) Theory of plate tectonics tells us that the continents are drifting at the slow speed.
4.
5.
When a wave propagates in a medium, the particles of the medium vibrate about their
mean position and the energy is transferred without the transfer of particles of the
medium.
6.
Do the particles of the medium in which a wave moves travel along with the wave?
Explain with an example.
OR
Take some water in a trough and float a piece of cork in it. When the water is
disturbed, the cork moves up and down but not forward. Why?
When a wave propagates in a medium, the particles of the medium vibrate about their
mean position and the energy is transferred without transfer of the particles of the
medium.
For example: Take some water in a trough and float a piece of cork in it. When the water
is disturbed, the cork moves up and down but not forward.
7.
8.
Types of motion
9.
10.
78
11.
12.
If we double the frequency of a vibrating object, what happens to its time period?
Time period and frequency of the wave are related by the equation T=
As time period is inversely proportional to its frequency, when the frequency is doubled, its
time period becomes half.
If the original time period is T
1
, When it frequency is doubled it becomes T
n
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
1
n
1
2n
The waves which need a material medium for their propagation are called mechanical
waves. They can travel only in material medium like water, air and earth.
Ex: Sound waves
The waves in which particles vibrate in the direction perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation are called transverse waves. Ex: Visible light, ultraviolet waves, x-rays etc.
The waves in which particles vibrate along the direction of the propagation are called
longitudinal waves. Ex: Sound waves.
Transverse waves
1. Particles vibrate in the direction
perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation.
2. The wave propagates in the form of
crests and troughs.
3. One crest and one trough constitute a
wave.
Ex: Light waves, waves on the surface of
water, waves on a string
Longitudinal waves
1. Particles vibrate along the direction of
the propagation.
The waves associated with electric and magnetic fields, resulting from the acceleration of
an electric charge are called electromagnetic waves. They require no material medium for
their propagation.
Ex: Visible light, Ultraviolet light, x-rays, radio waves etc.
Types of motion
18.
79
In wave motion, energy is transmitted from one place to another. Can the wave
energy be transformed into any other form?
Yes, movement of large quantities of water up and down in the seas and oceans in the
form of waves can be converted into mechanical energy and electrical energy.
19.
When a rope is tied to hook and one end of the rope is moved up and down, a wave
starts from the point where it is being held and moves to the other end. Identify the
wave produced.
As the rope is moving up and down i.e. perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the
wave, it is transverse waves.
-1
20.
A 50Hz vibrator produces air waves that speed out at 340ms . What is a) its time
period? b) its wavelength?
21.
The wavelength of a longitudinal wave is 1cm and its velocity in air is 330ms . Find
the frequency of the wave.
-1
Types of motion
22.
The frequency of a sound wave is 256Hz and its wavelength is 1.2m. Calculate its
wave velocity.
23.
If the frequency of a transverse wave is 10Hz and the distance between the two
consecutive wave crests is 2m. Calculate the wave speed.
24.
25.
80
Motion which repeats after regular intervals of time is called simple harmonic motion.
Ex: Oscillation of simple pendulum, vibration of a tuning fork.
a) The maximum displacement of the particle on either side of the equilibrium position is
called amplitude.
b) One complete to and fro motion of the particle about its mean position is called
oscillation
26.
c) The time taken by the body to complete one oscillation is called time period (T)
Give example of simple harmonic motion.
a) Oscillation of simple pendulum.
b) When a tuning fork is hit against a rubber pad, its prongs execute simple harmonic
motion.
c) When the load is attached to the lower end of a spring suspended from a support is
pulled and released, it executes simple harmonic motion.
Types of motion
27.
81
d) When the bus is in the clutch gear, we see a vibration and hear the sound produced
by it. This is simple harmonic motion.
Give the practical applications of simple harmonic motion.
a) Simple harmonic motion of a pendulum was used for the measurement of time.
b) Tuning the musical instrument is done with the vibrating tuning form which executes
simple harmonic motion.
c) Study of waves is indirectly the study of simple harmonic motion.
d) The study of molecules is made with the help of vibration spectrum.
28.
l
g
2.
A natural event that involves a change in the position or location of an object with time is
called motion.
Chemical reactions are possible only because of movement and collision.
4.
5.
6.
9.
3.
7.
8.
Geologists use physics of waves to study and measure the tectonic plate motion and
predict earthquakes.
10.
11.
12.
14.
Time period and frequency of the wave are related by the equation T
13.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
1
n
Very large distances which could not be measured were called celeris.
Waves which need a material medium for their propagation are called mechanical
waves.
The waves in which particles vibrate in the direction perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation are called transverse waves.
The waves in which particles vibrate along the direction of the propagation are called
longitudinal waves.
In a longitudinal wave, the vibration of particles and the direction of wave are in the same
direction.
RT I B
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
The waves associated with electric and magnetic fields, resulting from the acceleration of
an electric charge are called electromagnetic waves.
29.
One complete to and fro motion of the particle about its mean position is called
oscillation.
The time taken by the body to complete one oscillation is called time period.
31.
30.
82
The prongs of
*****
l
g
P9
2.
Which effect of heat is used in conversion of heat energy into mechanical energy?
3.
Why cannot increase in temperature and expansion not be used for converting heat
energy into mechanical energy?
4.
5.
6.
The pressure exerted by the large volume of steam is the basis of working of steam
engine.
Chemical change of liquid fuels like petrol or diesel when under goes combustion
produces large volume of gases and exerts pressure. This is the basis of working of petrol
or diesel engine.
Air current has two types of movement:
Why is the Enmass laminar flow along the direction of flow used in the working of
heat engines?
Enmass laminar flow along the direction of flow results in developing pressure hence it is
used in working of heat engines.
8.
9.
10.
A heat engine is a device which converts heat energy into mechanical energy.
a) External combustion engine
b) Internal combustion engine
A heat engine in which combustion of fuel takes place outside the cylinder of the engine is
called external combustion engine.
Ex: Steam engine.
Heat Engines
11.
84
Working: The working of the steam engine is divided into two strokes
Expansion stroke:
In this stage, the water in the boiler is heated to generate steam of high pressure which is
passed into a cylinder fitted with a piston through the inlet valve. As steam occupies larger
volume than the same amount of water, it exerts great pressure on the walls of the
container in all directions. Steam expands in the cylinder, it pushes the piston forward.
Crank shaft connected to the piston also moves. The wheel of the crankshaft makes half
rotation during the expansion stroke.
Exhaust stroke:
After the forward movement of the piston, the steam expands and loses some of its kinetic
energy. As a result it condenses into water. The piston is then pushed back into the
cylinder due to low pressure region. Due to inertia of the crankshaft, the wheel makes
another half rotation and completes one cycle. The condensed water is expelled out
through the outlet valve.
The cycle repeats and the movement of crankshaft is used for mechanical energy.
12.
Give reason: Steam exerts great pressure on the walls of the piston during
expansion stroke.
As steam occupies much larger volume than the same amount of water, it exerts great
pressure on the walls of the piston.
13.
Give reason: After the expansion stroke of a steam engine, steam condenses into
water.
As steam expands, it loses its kinetic energy and gets condensed into water.
14.
Give reason: The wheel makes another half rotation after the expansion stroke of
steam engine.
Due to inertia of the crankshaft, the wheel makes another half rotation and completes one
cycle.
15.
Give reason: Use of steam engines for transport vehicles is outdated today.
Use of steam engines for transport vehicles is outdated today because they have low
efficiency.
eat Engines
16.
17.
85
Heat Engines
18.
86
19.
Give reason:
a) Steam engine cannot be used in small machines.
External combustion/steam engines are bulky and heavy hence cannot be fitted into small
machines.
b) Efficiency of external combustion/steam engine is low.
Efficiency of steam engine is low as there is more loss of heat. Most of the heat is lost in
boiling of water to increase the temperature of water to its boiling point.
c) External combustion/steam engine cannot be started immediately.
Heating water to produce steam takes time, so the engine cannot be started instantly. To
keep the steam ready fuel must be burnt continuously even if the engine is at rest.
20.
A heat engine in which combustion of fuel takes place inside the cylinder of the engine is
called internal combustion engine.
Ex: Petrol engine, Diesel engine.
21.
22.
23.
A petrol engine consists of an air tight piston fitted inside a cylinder. The piston can move
smoothly inside the cylinder. The cylinder has two valves an inlet valve and an outlet
valve. It has a spark plug. The piston is connected to a crankshaft. The engine is linked
with a carburetor where air and petrol are mixed in proper proportion before letting into the
cylinder.
Heat Engines
24.
25.
The motion of piston from one end to another end is called stage/stroke of an engine.
a) Intake stroke
c) Ignition stroke
e) Exhaust stroke
26.
87
b) Compression stroke
d) Expansion stroke
In a petrol engine, petrol vapours are mixed with correct amount of air in the carburetor.
This mixture is passed into the cylinder
a) Intake stroke:
In this stroke, the piston moves away from the sparkplug creating a low pressure inside.
The inlet valve opens and the fuel-air mixture from the carburetor enters the cylinder. The
outlet valve remains closed.
b) Compression stroke:
In this stroke, both inlet and outlet valve remain closed. The petrol-air mixture is
compressed by the piston moving towards the sparkplug. The compression increases the
temperature of the mixture but it is not sufficient to ignite petrol.
c) Ignition stroke:
In this stroke, the compressed petrol-air mixture is ignited by the sparks produced by the
spark plug.
d) Expansion stroke:
In this stroke, the fuel burns quickly producing heat and gaseous products such as carbon
dioxide, carbon monoxide and water vapour along with carbon particles. The gaseous
products expand suddenly and pushes the piston outwards with a great force.
e) Exhaust stroke:
In this stroke, the outlet valve opens. Piston moves inside towards the sparkplug. The
products of combustion gases are pushed out of the cylinder through the outlet valve.
27.
In the expansion stroke of a petrol engine, the piston is pushed with a great stroke.
Why?
When the petrol-air mixture is ignited, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and water vapour
expands suddenly. This exerts a great force on the piston.
28.
The initial kinetic energy needed to start the engine is provided by the starter motor or kick
starter.
:Heat Engines
29.
88
Construction:
A diesel engine consists of an airtight piston fitted inside a cylinder. The piston is free to
move inside the cylinder. The cylinder has two valves an inlet valve and an outlet valve.
It has no sparkplug or carburetor as in the case of petrol engine. In place of the spark plug
there is an injunction pump.
Working:
The working of diesel engine consists of five strokes.
a) Intake stroke:
In this stroke, the piston moves away from the sparkplug creating a low pressure inside.
The inlet valve opens and the filtered air enters the cylinder. The outlet valve remains
closed.
b) Compression stroke:
In this stroke, both inlet and outlet valve remain closed. The air is compressed by the
piston moving towards the head of the engine. The compression is 4:1 to 25:1. The
compression increases the temperature of the air.
c) Ignition stroke:
In this stroke, Diesel bursts into flame producing heat and gaseous products such as
carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and water vapour along with carbon particles. The
gaseous products expand suddenly and pushes the piston outwards with a great force.
e) Exhaust stroke:
In this stroke, the outlet valve opens. Piston moves inside towards the sparkplug. The
products of combustion gases are pushed out of the cylinder through the outlet valve.
30.
31.
32.
Diesel engines are best suited for heavy vehicles, such as lorries, trucks, railway
engines and ships. Why?
The compression of air in the cylinder is 4:1 to 25:1. This compression increases the
temperature to around 1000K which is enough to ignite diesel. In the ignition stroke, a
required amount of diesel is injected. Hence no sparkplug is needed.
In a diesel engine, filtered air enters the cylinder and gets compressed to generate
enough heat to ignite the diesel.
33.
Heat Engines
89
35.
36.
The test conducted to determine the amount of carbon monoxide emitted by vehicles is
called emission test.
Petrol Engine
1. Petrol vapour is used as fuel
2. Petrol engines are spark ignition
engines. It requires a spark plug.
3. Cost of petrol is comparatively high.
4. Expansion of gaseous products with
pressure impulse
5.Efficiency is comparatively less
6. Compression of petrol-air mixture is in
the ratio 4:1 to 10:1
The efficiency of a heat engine is defined as the ratio of the actual work done to the heat
energy consumed. It is expressed as percentage.
Efficiency
37.
Diesel engine
1. Diesel is used as fuel
2. Diesel engine are compression ignition
engines. It does not require sparkplug.
3. The cost of diesel is comparatively less
4. Expansion against constant pressure.
W
x 100 where
H
(pronounced as Eeta )
Efficiency
38.
39.
The efficiency of a heat engine is 25%. If 50,000 joules of heat is supplied to the
engine. Calculate the useful work done by the engine.
No, we cannot have a heat engine that is 100% efficient. Whenever heat energy is
converted into mechanical energy by a heat engine, a part of the heat energy is lost.
Hence we cannot have 100% efficient.
Heat Engines
90
40.
An engine is designed to convert 40KJ of heat energy into work. If the heat engine
consumed by the engine is 60KJ, how high would this engine lift an object of mass
one kilogram from the ground?
41.
Calculate the efficiency of an engine which performs work of 400 joules utilizing
1000j of heat energy.
42.
eat Engines
91
43.
A person develops an engine whose efficiency is 45%. What do you mean by this?
44.
An engine is 35% efficient. If 800KJ of heat is consumed by the engine. How much
mechanical work is done by it?
45.
Efficiency of a heat engine is 40% and it consumes 900KJ of heat energy. Calculate
the mechanical workdone.
46.
An engine is designed to convert 20% of heat energy into work. If the steam in the
engine has 80KJ of heat energy, Calculate the useful work done by the engine.
An engine is 45% efficient means 45% of the heat supplied is converted into mechanical
energy.
eat Engines
47.
92
48.
49.
Internal combustion engine causes more pollution as it produces exhaust gases like
carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and carbon particles.
a) The efficiency of internal combustion engine is greater then that of external
combustion engine.
b) It can be started immediately.
c) It can be fitted into small machines
50.
c) CNG stands for Compressed Natural Gas. It is a clean fuel. It is environment friendly.
Fill in the blanks:
1.
The effect of heat used in converting heat energy to mechanical energy is change of
state of matter.
2.
Volume of steam is 700 times more at STP than the volume of water from which it is
obtained by heating.
3.
The energy transformation in a heat engine is heat into mechanical.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
The basis of working of steam engine is the pressure exerted by the large volume of
steam.
The basis of diesel/petrol engine is Chemical change of liquid when under goes
combustion produces large volume of gases and exerts pressure.
The conversion of steam pressure into mechanical energy was known since Roman
Empire.
First commercially useful steam engine was constructed by Thomas Savery.
Heat Engines
11.
12.
13.
93
14.
In a temporary forest camp, the best way to generate electricity for several hours is to use
diesel engine.
Internal combustion engine was invented by Rudolf Diesel and Nikolaus.
17.
The part of a petrol engine in which petrol vapour and air are mixed is carburetor.
15.
16.
18.
The ignition stroke and expansion stroke are together called power stroke.
The stroke in which both valves are closed is compression/expansion stroke.
19.
20.
Linear motion of the piston in a heat engine is converted into circular motion by
Crankshaft.
The stroke of a heat engine in which outlet value opens isexhaust stroke.
Internal combustion engine that does not use spark plug is Diesel engine.
23.
21.
22.
W
x 100
H
24.
25.
If work done by an engine is equal to the heat supplied, then its efficiency is 100%.
*****
P10
2.
Traditionally used sources of energy like wood, coal and petroleum are not sufficient to
meet the ever increasing demand for energy. We need to shift our dependence from nonrenewable to renewable sources of energy. Hence there is a need for nuclear energy.
a) Charged particles energy from neutral atoms.
b) An atom gets transmuted into another atom with emission of charged particles.
3.
4.
2 He
17
8O
1
1H
5.
The main advantage of nuclear reaction is the production of radioactive and nonradioactive isotopes.
What is meant by artificial radioactivity?
6.
Ex: If aluminium atoms are hit by an alpha particle, we get phosphorous atom which is
radioactive.
What is meant by transmutation?
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
The process of generating radioactive isotopes during nuclear reaction is called artificial
radioactivity.
The process of changing of one element into another element is called transmutation.
a) Nuclear fission b) Nuclear fusion
The process of splitting a heavy nucleus into two medium sized nuclei along with release
of neutrons is called nuclear fission.
When uranium 235 atom is bombarded with a slow moving neutron, fission produced a
barium atom, a krypton atom, 3 neutrons and a large amount of energy.
235
92 U
1
0N
Fission
142
56 Ba
36 Kr
91
3 0 n1
A chain reaction is the process in which number of neutrons keep on multiplying after
each fission rapidly in geometric progression, till the whole of the fissionable material is
disintegrated.
What is a controlled chain reaction?
A chain reaction in which the number of neutrons produced is kept constant is called
controlled chain reaction.
Nuclear Energy
95
12.
13.
14.
15.
How is the Grahams law of diffusion useful in the enrichment of Uranium? Explain.
16.
Nuclear fission reaction produces more than two neutrons. Excess of neutrons are
absorbed so that the number of neutrons per fission is regulated to around one neutron
per fission.
235
and 92 U238
92 U
Naturally occurring uranium contains about 0.7% of 92 U235 isotope which is fissionable.
Self stained chain reaction are not possible in natural uranium which is not possible in
natural uranium which is mostly made up of isotope 92 U238 .
Grahams law states that the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the
square root of its molecular mass. This principle is used to separate by passing gaseous
uranium through several stages of semi-permeable membrane.
Albert Einstein derived an equation which is related to the mass transformed into energy
and the amount of energy released.
2
17.
Calculate the energy released when one a.m.u of mass is converted into energy.
18.
1 Mev = 1.6 x 10
joules
Nuclear Energy
19.
20.
21.
96
One electron volt is the energy gained by the electron when it is accelerated by applying a
potential difference of one volt.
A nuclear reactor is a device used to carry out fission under controlled condition.
a) Breeder reactor [to produce radio isotopes]
b) Power reactor [to generate electricity]
c) Research reactor [to carry out research programmes related to atomic energy]
22.
23.
Nuclear reactor is a large reactor in which heat generated by nuclear fission is removed
by water and the resulting steam is used to rotate turbine which is connected to a
generator.
a) Nuclear fuel
e) Coolant
24.
b) Control rods
f) Radiation shield
c) Moderator
d) Reflector
a) Nuclear fuel: It is the fissionable material used in a reactor. It is in the form of rods
placed in a regular array in a large container.
Ex: Enriched uranium 235, Plutonium
b) Control rods: They are used to absorb the neutrons. Ex: Cadmium, Boron carbide.
c) Moderator: They are used to slow down the neutrons emitted in the fission process.
Ex: Heavy water & graphite.
d) Reflector: It is used to keep the neutrons confined to the core. Graphite or heavy water
can be used as reflector.
e) Coolant: It is used to continuously remove the heat released during the fission process.
The heat is transferred to a heat exchanger.
Ex: Liquid sodium, hydrocarbons with high boiling point, heavy water.
f) Radiation shield: It is used to protect the people in the vicinity of the reactor against the
harmful effects of nuclear radiations. Ex: Lead
g) Heat exchanger: It is used to transfer the heat energy of the coolant to convert water
into steam.
25.
26.
A nuclear reactor is said to be shutoff when the control rods are inserted sufficiently deep
into the core of the reactor.
Nuclear Energy
27.
28.
A nuclear reactor is said to be critical when the number of fissions per unit time remains
constant.
Draw a neat schematic diagram of a nuclear power reactor and label the parts.
Give reason:
a) Cadmium rods are used in nuclear reactor.
97
Nuclear Energy
98
Cadmium is a neutron absorber. Hence they are used as control rods to absorb excess
neutrons produced during fission reaction.
b) A nuclear reactor is enclosed in a concrete building with lead sheets covered
inside.
To prevent radioactive radiations being released into the environment.
c) People working in a nuclear reactor wear lead jackets.
a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre [BARC] has been setup for research and
development work in atomic energy.
b) Tarapur [Maharashtra] atomic power station was the first to be setup in India [1969].
c) Kota [Rajasthan]
d) Kalpakam [Tamil Nadu]
e) Kaiga [ Karnataka]
30.
31.
32.
The process by which two or more lighter nuclei combine to form a heavy nucleus with the
liberation of large amounts of energy is called nuclear fusion.
When deuterium [an isotope of hydrogen] combines with another deuterium nucleus it
combines to form helium nucleus with release of energy.
2
1H
2
1H
Fusion
2 He
energy
The reaction in which fusion of lighter nuclei into heavier nuclei takes place at very high
temperatures is called thermonuclear fusion reaction.
Energy produced by stars and sun are due to thermonuclear fusion reactions.
33.
2. It can be controlled.
Nuclear Fusion
Nuclear Energy
6. Uncontrolled fission results in an
atom bomb.
99
34.
35.
36.
a) Ionising radiations like gamma rays can cause mutation in the living cells.
b) It can cause DNA alterations.
c) Certain types of cancer and hereditary disorder are caused by ionizing radiations.
Since the radioactivity lasts longer.
38.
39.
Radioactive matter is impregnated in glass slab and disposed in the deep sea in strong
steel containers so that radiation cannot reach the level of biosphere.
Production of dangerous weapons like atom bomb cause large scale destruction.
Increased production of nuclear weapons has brought the world to the brink of a major
war. Such weapons can also fall into hands of terrorists. Hence the need of todays world
is nuclear disarmament.
Chemical reactions
Nuclear reactions
4. Mass conserved
Nuclear Energy
100
4.
5.
The process of splitting a heavy nucleus into two medium sized nuclei along with release
of neutrons is called nuclear fission.
6.
A chain reaction in which the number of neutrons produced is kept constant is called
controlled chain reaction.
The principle of a nuclear reactor is controlled chain reaction.
8.
7.
9.
10.
11.
12.
The device used to carry out fission under controlled condition is called nuclear reactor.
14.
15.
16.
13.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
The ratio of number of ordinary water molecules to that of heavy water molecules is
1:6000.
An example of coolant is liquid sodium /hydrocarbon/ heavy water.
The part of the nuclear reactor that controls the speed of neutrons released during nuclear
fission is moderator.
The speed of neutrons in a nuclear reactor is reduced with the help of graphite / heavy
water.
The metal cover used in the walls of nuclear reactor to prevent radioactive radiations
being released to the environment is lead.
A nuclear reactor has to be shutdown, the rods used for this purpose is made of cadmium
/ boron carbide.
In modern reactors there is no need for moderator.
The first atomic power station in India was started at Tarapur [Maharashtra].
1. What is glass?
C11
2.
3.
The molecules of glass are arranged as in that of a liquid. On heating, glass first becomes
soft and flows like a liquid. It does not have a definite melting point. Hence glass is
referred to as super cooled liquid.
a) Soda Ash (Na 2 CO 3 )
b) Lime stone (CaCO 3 )
c) Sand (SiO 2 )
Why are broken glass pieces or cullets added during the manufacture of glass?
5.
6.
Pieces of broken glass are added to increase fusibility and to recycle broken glass pieces.
a) Melting
b) Shaping
c) Annealing
d) Finishing
The raw materials used in the manufacture of glass are soda ash, lime stone, sand and
cullets (broken glass pieces).
The raw materials in proper proportion are finely powdered and mixed. This mixture is
fused by heating it in a furnace at high temperature (about 2073K). The charge melts and
following reactions take place.
CaCO 3 + SiO 2
Na 2 CO 3 + SiO 2
CaSiO 3 + CO 2
Na 2 SiO 3 + CO 2
When all the carbon dioxide escapes out of the molten mass, decolourizers such as
manganese dioxide is added to remove the ferrous compounds and carbon.
7.
b) Manganese dioxide is added to decolourise & remove ferrous compounds and carbon.
8.
Molten glass is made into desired shapes by either blowing or moulding or pressing
between rollers.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Give reason: Glass objects when held to flame acquires golden yellow colour.
15.
103
The process of gradual cooling of glass articles to room temperature is called annealing.
Glass articles are allowed to cool gradually to room temperature by passing through
different chambers with decreasing temperature.
If glass is not cooled slowly, it becomes brittle and breaks easily. On slow cooling, glass
can withstand stress and lose brittleness.
If glass articles are allowed to cool rapidly, glass being bad conductor of heat, the
superficial layer cools down first leaving the interior portion in a state of strain. Due to this
unequal expansion, the articles are likely to crack into pieces.
Air bubbles in glass are removed by adding borax or aluminium powder to the glass and
heating slowly. The air bubbles escape from glass in the process. Aluminium powder /
borax settle at the bottom, which can be removed easily.
The function of borax / aluminium powder is to remove the air bubbles in glass.
The sodium content of sodium silicate present in glass makes the flame to acquire golden
yellow colour to the flame.
a) Glass is chemical resistant. Glass container can hold aquaregia.
b) It has smooth and shining surface. It can be polished.
c) It can be moulded into different shapes.
d) It can be coloured.
e) It is transparent.
16.
17.
18.
When a piece of bangle is heated in a candle flame, it first becomes soft and then melts
as glass does not have a definite melting point.
20.
21.
What is the advantage of synthetic polymer over glass? OR Why is glass being
replaced by synthetic polymers?
104
Glass is a bad conductor of heat but expands easily on heating. When it is suddenly
heated or cooled, due to rapid expansion and contraction along the hot region and cold
region it begins to crack.
Glass is brittle and dense. Glass gets scratched which is difficult to remove.
Glass is being replaced by light and transparent synthetic polymers like poly methyl
metacrylate polymers. The advantages of polymers are that they are unbreakable, light
and scratches on polymers can be removed by wiping with acetone.
22.
Give reason: Glass bottle immersed in a vessel filled with water does not break
even when water beings to boil.
Glass is a bad conductor of heat.
23.
Give reason: When a glass test tube containing a mixture of chloroform and
acetone is immersed in water will disappear.
The mixture of acetone and chloroform has the same refractive index as that of the glass.
The surface of glass will not reflect light. Hence the test tube appears to disappear.
24.
Soda-lime glass is colourless. To make coloured glass, certain metal compounds are
added.
Metallic compound
Colour imparted
Green
Ferric compound
Cobalt compound
Yellow
Blue
Red
25.
26.
Common sand used in the manufacture of glass contains some amount of iron salts. Iron
salts give green colour to the glass.
a) Soda-lime glass.
b) Potash-lime or Bohemian glass.
27.
Type of glass
Additive added
Soda-lime
Potash-lime or
Bohemian
glass
Uses
Silica, calcium
carbonate & potassium
carbonate
Low cost,
resistant to
water
melts easily
High melting
point, fuses
with difficulty
Lead or flint
glass
Lead oxide
Borosilicate or
Pyrex or Jena
glass
Manufacture of
lenses, neon sign
tubings, cathode ray
tubes
28.
Property
105
Safety glass
Does not
form sharp
edges when
broken
Manufacture of
chemical apparatus,
combustion tubes
Preparation of
pipelines, superior
laboratory apparatus
Windshield of
automobiles and
aeroplanes
29.
30.
31.
32.
Optical fibres are flexible and can be bundled as cables hence it is used in
telecommunication and networking.
What is photonics?
33.
a) Optic fibres do not interact with air or water, so it does not corrode.
b) Messages reach the destination much faster as photons transmit much faster than
electrons.
c) Optic fibres can transmit more messages at once, compared to transmission by
electrons in a wire.
34.
106
Give reasons:
(B) Ceramics
35.
What is ceramics?
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
The products that are prepared out of specific mud are called ceramics.
Clay like kaolinite and bentonite, Flint, White clay, Quartz and feldspar.
Clay is complex mixture of silicates. It is a naturally occurring thermally setting substance.
Clay can be moulded to any desired shape. It becomes hard and brittle on heating but it
retains it shape.
The raw materials used in the manufacture of ceramics are clay, feldspar. Clay is mixed
with required quantity of water. Desired shape is given to the mixture. Then the products
are heated in a kiln. This partially eliminates water.
The pores in the baked ceramic articles are plugged by a process of glazing.
The process of making the clay products into non-porous shining material is called
Glazing.
Glazing is achieved by addition of suitable fillers. It is fired again to create coloured,
smooth surface.
a) Glazing plugs the pores present in the baked ceramic articles.
b) Glazing provides a smooth, attractive look and bright glossy surface to the articles.
c) Glazing provides desired colour to the articles.
43.
Ceramic articles are brittle, porous, heat resistant (withstand high temperature) and noncorrosive to chemicals.
46.
107
Unglazed ceramic materials use the small pores to filter dirt, debris and bacteria out of
water.
How can cracking of ceramic articles be controlled?
Cracking of ceramic articles can be controlled if non-clay materials like flint and quartz are
added to the mixture.
Why addition of flint and quartz to molten glass does not shrink or get
transformed?
47.
Flint and quartz are forms of silica, they do not absorb water. As water is not absorbed,
they do not get transformed on heating and do not shrink.
What is the role of feldspar in the manufacture of glass?
48.
49.
50.
Give reason: Water kept in porcelain container will not get cooled if it is glazed.
51.
52.
Two small identical earthen pots A and B are taken. Paint is smeared thoroughly on
pot A. Equal quantity of water is filled in both pots till the brim. In which pot the
water will be cold? Why?
When feldspar is added, glass will have a smoother glossy finish. It also adds strength to
the ceramic articles.
Shaping drying firing is the characteristic of all ceramic manufacture.
On heating ceramic materials to about 1073K to 1273K, they melt into a glass like liquid,
which fills the pores between individual clay particles and strengthens their contact points.
On cooling, the material becomes glossy and has shining & smooth finish.
Glazing plugs the pores present in porcelain articles. If pores are present, water oozes
from these pores and gets evaporated. This has a cooling effect on the water inside,
As the pores are plugged, water does not get evaporated hence no cooling.
An earthen pot has a number of pores. Water oozes out of the pores and gets evaporated.
This has a cooling effect on the water inside.
In pot B water will be colder than that of pot A. In pot A, paint is smeared. The pores are
closed. So water drops cannot evaporate through the walls. In pot B which is unpainted
water evaporates and has cooling effect on the water inside.
53.
Give reason: Pickle is stored in ceramic jars but not in earthen pots.
54.
Give reason: Lemon juice kept in metallic cup will taste different but not in ceramic
cup.
Pickles contain oil and salt. If they are stored in earthen jars (without glazing), oil will ooze
out of the pores and start leaking. In ceramic jars with glazing, oil will not leak so pickles
are stored in ceramic jars.
108
Lemon juice contains citric acid which reacts with metallic cup and makes it toxic. So it
tastes different. Ceramic cup does not react with acid.
55.
56.
57.
Clay
Quartz
Flint
58.
Advantage
Use of ceramics
Reason
Pickle jar
(C) Paper
59.
60.
Paper is produced by pressing together moist fibres (cellulose pulp) derived from wood,
rags or grasses and drying them into flexible sheets.
a) Pulping
b) Mixing additives
c) Drying
d) Finishing
109
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
Strips of newspaper, filter paper and glazed paper are dipped in dilute potassium
permanganate solution. Which paper will have absorbed more potassium
permanganate?
Pulping is the process where wood is chipped and made into fibres.
Fibres, pulp obtained from wood can be mixed with additives like chalk or china clay to
improve the characteristics of paper.
After obtaining paper web, water is removed from it be using air or heat. Earlier method of
drying was to hang paper sheets as clothes. Now steam heated can drier are used for
drying paper.
First wood is chipped into pieces and made into fibres. The moist fibres are pressed
together. Additives like chalk or china clay may be added to improve the characteristics of
paper. Then the pulp is fed into a paper machine where it forms a paper web. Water form
the paper web is removed by hanging or by using steam heated can drier. Now the paper
is cut into different sizes to alter its physical properties.
After normal paper is obtained. a thin coat of calcium carbonate or china clay is applied to
get coated paper.
The level of potassium permanganates in filter paper will be maximum as is more porous.
67.
Why do we find increased porosity, yellowish tinge and lack of tensile strength in
old paper?
Paper contains significant amount of lignin. Exposure of lignin to air and sunlight causes
old paper to turn yellowish.
68.
69.
70.
d) Cardboard paper
What are the characteristics and uses of filter paper?
Paper can be laminated to avoiding fading of printed matter due to air, moisture and
radiations. A thin sheet of polythene is placed on the document to be protected and it is
gently heated to melt the polythene followed by solidification.
a) Filter paper
b) Tissue paper
c) Wax paper
110
71.
Tissue paper is very light. It can be made from virgin or recycled paper.
Tissue paper is used as facial tissue napkins and house hold towels.
72.
Wax / paraffin paper is moisture proof. It is made by applying wax which makes it non
porous.
It is used in wrapping food for storage such as cookies, ice creams etc.
It is also used in arts and crafts.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
Wax paper makes it non-porous and keeps the contents moisture resistant. Hence wax or
paraffin paper is used in storing cookies, ice-creams etc.
Cardboard paper has more tensile strength. This is achieved by having multi layer. It is
used in post card, posters and drawing board.
When oil is smeared on paper, more light is transmitted through oil and less light is
reflected. Hence it becomes translucent.
a) Paper is not perfectly non-porous.
b) The tensile strength reduced on wetting.
New, eco-friendly, biodegradable alternatives are being developed to expanded plastic
packaging made out of paper.
Synthetic materials have been introduced as printing media as more durable material than
paper.
Paper bags can replace plastic bags as they are eco-friendly.
The tensile strength of paper decreases when paper becomes wet.
Paper is biodegradable because it can be recycled and also it gets converted into simpler
substance by microorganisms.
80.
111
81.
h) It is used in pH papers.
i) It is also used in arts and crafts.
Give reason: Paper absorbs water/oil.
2.
3.
4.
7.
8.
9.
5.
6.
10.
11.
12.
13.
The raw materials used in glass manufacture are soda ash, lime stone and sand.
To increase fusibility of glass pieces of broken glass are added.
During manufacture of glass, molten glass is cooled slowly to make it lose brittleness.
The function of borax / aluminium powder is to remove the air bubbles in glass.
The mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid is called
Aquaregia.
14.
15.
16.
20.
A person wants to use a glass vessel in his microwave oven. The type of glass that can
be used is borosilicate glass.
The type of glass used in making electric bulbs is soda-lime glass.
17.
18.
19.
21.
22.
112
23.
24.
25.
27.
28.
29.
The type of glass used in making neon sign tubings is lead glass.
The type of glass preferred to make superior laboratory apparatus is borosilicate / Pyrex
/ Jena glass.
The type of glass used in making windshields of automobiles is safety glass.
33.
34.
The word ceramics is derived from the Greek word Keramos. Meaning burnt earth.
Cracking of ceramic articles can be controlled by non-clay materials like flint/quartz.
26.
30.
31.
32.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
You have to prepare a prism to disperse light to get spectrum. The glass used is lead
glass.
Water kept in porcelain contains do not become cold due to the absence of holes.
A material that can be safely be used in making fuse box is porcelain.
A musical instrument that is made of ceramic material is Ghatam / Jalatarang.
*****
2.
(A) Carbon
C12
Carbon is a non-metal
It is the first member of group 14 of periodic table.
Its valency is four.
What happens when?
Carbon is a unique element. It is the king of versatility. Its ability to connect with other
carbon atoms through strong and stable covalent bonds sets it apart from other elements.
Carbon forms an exceptionally large number of compounds because of its unique
characteristics like catenation, tetravalency and isomerism. Therefore carbon-based
compounds lumped together as a separate subject within the study of chemistry.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Will carbon as an atom interact with other atoms to form ionic or covalent bonds?
Carbon as an atom interacts with other atoms to from covalent bonds.
What is allotropy?
Allotropy is the property of elements which have same chemical properties but different
physical properties.
Name the allotropic forms of carbon
Crystalline carbon Diamond & graphite
Amorphous carbon
Why is diamond hard whereas graphite soft even through both are crystalline forms
of carbon?
The reason for difference is because of arrangement of carbon atoms.
Mention the uses of graphite.
10.
11.
What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the formation of a large
number of carbon compounds?
12.
13.
14.
The unique ability of carbon to form bonds with other atoms of carbon is called catenation.
a) Straight chain b) Branched chain c) Closed chain
Even though B-B, Si-Si, Ge-Ge bonds exits, these compounds are unstable and very
reactive and do not last long.
15.
16.
17.
The electronic configuration of carbon atom in ground state is 1s2, 2s2, 2p2
2
Carbon has four electrons in its outermost orbit, so its valency is four.
The electronic configuration of carbon is 1s2, 2s2, 2p2
It has 2 paired and 2 unpaired electrons. On excitation, one electron from 2s level is
promoted to 2p level thus there will be four unpaired electrons. Hence carbon is
tetravalent.
18.
What is isomerism?
19.
The phenomenon in which organic compounds have same molecular formula with
different structural arrangement of atoms in them is known as isomerism.
a) Isomers have same molecular formula.
b) They have different structural arrangement.
21.
Isomers
Name some elements which exhibit isomerism.
22.
Why do first three alkanes methane, ethane and propane have no isomers?
23.
Butane, Pentane
Methane (CH 4), ethane (C 2H 6 ) and propane (C 3 H 8 ) have no scope for branching of C
C chain hence they do not exhibit isomerism.
n-butane
24.
n-pentane
25.
Iso-butane
Iso-pentane
Neo-pentane
26.
In 1827 Berzelius put forward the vital force theory to account for the formation of organic
compounds. According to this theory Organic compounds were synthesized in living
systems under the influence of a vital force.
Which was the first organic compound to be prepared?
27.
Organic compounds are formed under some vital force. True or false. Explain.
Organic compounds are not formed under vital force is false because earlier they thought
that organic compounds could not be prepared in the laboratory. In 1828 Friedrich Wohler
prepared urea, a typical product of animal metabolism by heating an aqueous solution of
28.
The synthesis of urea by Friedrich Wohler, acetic acid by Kolbe and methane by Berthellot
disproved the vital force theory.
29.
Why are Calcium Carbide (CaC 2 ), Carbon monoxide (CO), Carbon dioxide (CO 2),
Hydrogen cyanide (HCN) and calcium carbonate (CaCO 3) classified as inorganic
compounds through they contain carbon?
These compounds contain only one or two carbon atoms per formula unit and contain no
carbon-carbon (C-C) bonds or carbon-hydrogen bonds. Hence they are classified as
inorganic compounds.
30.
31.
Sl.
No
Property
Solubility
4
5
Combustibility
Nature of reaction
Homology &
Isomerism
Organic
compounds
Low, generally
volatile
covalent
insoluble in water,
soluble in organic
solvents
almost all burn
slower & molecular
is common
Inorganic
compounds
High, generally nonvolatile
ionic
soluble in water,
insoluble in organic
solvents
very few burn
very fast reactions
is not common
32.
33.
34.
Organic chemistry is the study of compounds and reactions involving carbon. OR It is the
study of chemistry of carbon compounds of both natural and synthetic origin.
Starch, sugar, citric acid, cooking oil etc.
(B) Hydrocarbons
35.
36.
Why are hydrocarbons currently the main source of worlds electrical energy and
heat source?
Hydrocarbons are the simplest binary organic compounds containing carbon and
hydrogen.
The energy produced when burnt often this energy is used directly as heat as in home
heaters which use either oil or natural gas.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
The hydrocarbons which consist of straight or branched chains of carbon atoms are called
aliphatic or acyclic hydrocarbons.
Aliphatic hydrocarbons are classified into saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Aliphatic hydrocarbons are the simplest hydrocarbons which have single bond between
carbon atoms.
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons in which the carbon atoms are connected by only
single bond.
Ex: Methane, Ethane, Propane
Give reason: Ethane is a saturated hydrocarbon.
44.
45.
Paraffin is derived from the Latin word meaning less activity. Alkanes are compounds
which undergo few reactions. Hence they are referred to as paraffins.
Why is methane referred to as marsh gas?
47.
Write the molecular formulae of the third and fifth member of homologous series of
carbon compounds represented by the general formula C n H 2n+2
In alkanes all carbon atoms are bonded to the maximum number of hydrogen atoms. They
are made up single bond between carbon atoms and are saturated with hydrogen in every
bond is used. Hence they are chemically stable.
49.
In methane, each carbon is bonded to four other atoms through single covalent bond.
The following is the structure of methane.
50.
51.
A mixture of sodium acetate and soda lime (NaOH + CaO) is heated in a hard glass test
tube and methane gas is evolved. It is collected by the downward displacement of water.
CH 3 COONA + NaOH
CaO
Na 2CO 3 + CH 4
55.
CaO
Na 2CO 3 + CH 4
CH 4 + 2O 2
c) Methane gas burns with yellow flame or methane undergoes incomplete combustion.
It forms carbon monoxide and water.
2CO + 4H 2 O
2CH 4 + 3O 2
CH 4 + Cl 2
UV
CH 3 Cl + HCl
a) Complete combustion:
During complete combustion methane burns in air or oxygen with a non-luminous flame,
forming carbon dioxide and water.
CH 4 + 2O 2
CO 2 + H 2 O
b) Incomplete combustion:
During incomplete combustion, methane gas burns with yellow flame, carbon particles are
seen.
Methane + Oxygen
57.
2CH 4 + 3O 2
2CO + 4H 2 O
b) CH4 + Cl 2
UV
59.
60.
Incomplete combustion leads to unburnt carbon in the form of soot which pollutes the
atmosphere, blackens cooking utensils.
It leads to the formation of extremely poisonous gas called carbon monodioxide.
What is meant by substitution reaction?
The reaction in which one or more hydrogen atoms of a hydrocarbon are replaced by
some other atoms is called substitution reaction.
Name the product obtained when methane and chlorine is exposed to ultraviolet
light (sunlight).
61.
CH 2 Cl 2 + HCl
63.
CH 3 Cl + HCl
62.
UV
UV
CHCl3 + HCl
UV
CCl4 + HCl
64.
65.
66.
A homologous series is a family of organic compounds with the same general formula,
similar chemical properties and successive members differing by CH 2.
Aliphatic hydrocarbons have three homologous series Alkanes, Alkenes and Alkynes
a) They have properties that vary in a regular and predictable manner.
b) They have similar chemical properties.
c) They have gradually varying physical properties.
d) Their formula fit the general molecular formula
Give the names and structural formulae of next two higher homologues of methane.
Ethane C 2 H 6
and Propane C 3 H 8
69.
70.
A hydrocarbon in which the two carbon atoms are connected by a double bond or a triple
bond is called unsaturated hydrocarbon.
Ex: Alkenes and Alkynes
Saturated hydrocarbons
71.
Unsaturated hydrocarbons
Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons in which the two carbon atoms are connected by
double bond.
The name of these hydrocarbons end with ene.
Their general formula is C n H2n .
73.
74.
In alkenes, two hydrogen atoms are less when compared to the saturated hydrocarbons.
The two of the carbon atoms in the molecule is joined together by two covalent bonds.
Thus a double bond is formed.
Give reason: Ethene is said to be unsaturated.
Ethene is said to be unsaturated because each molecule does have carbon-to-carbon
double bond and has less maximum possible number of hydrogen atoms.
75.
76.
77.
Alkynes
78.
Alkenes
Select the hydrocarbons which are members of the same homologous series.
C 5 H 10 , C 3 H 8 , C 6 H 10 , C 4 H 10 , C 7 H 12 , C 8 H 16
79.
80.
Classify the following compounds containing double bond and triple bond
Ethyne, benzene, Butyne, pentene
Double bond: Benzene, pentene
Triple bond: Ethyne, Butyne
81.
Give reason: Alkanes undergo only substitution reactions but alkenes and alkynes
undergo both substitution and addition reactions.
Alkenes and alkynes have double and triple bonds, which on breaking can add hydrogen
atoms to satisfy the valency.
82.
83.
Cycloalkanes are closed chain saturated hydrocarbons having one ring and the general
formula C n H 2n .
85.
86.
Even though alkenes and Cycloalkanes have the same general formula, they are
different. How?
Alkenes and Cycloalkanes have same general formula because they have double bond
between carbon atoms.
Alkenes
1. They are unsaturated
2. They have double bond between
carbon atoms
3. Their name end with ene.
4. They are acyclic.
Cycloalkanes
1. They are saturated
2. They have single bond between
carbon atoms.
3. Their names end with ane
4. They are cyclic
87.
88.
Aromatic hydrocarbons are hydrocarbons that have atleast one aromatic ring (benzene
ring).
89.
Cyclohexane does not belong to aromatic class even though it has a ring structure.
How do you justify this?
Cyclohexane is a saturated hydrocarbon in which the carbon atoms are joined by single
covalent bonds to form a ring where as in aromatic hydrocarbons have alternate single
and double bonds. Hence Cyclohexane is does not belong to aromatic class.
90.
91.
or
or
Write the structure of Toluene.
or
92.
93.
OR
Mention the uses of Benzene
94.
95.
a) Benzene is used as solvent for oils, fats, resins, rubber, sulphur, iodine etc.
b) It is used in the manufacture of dyes, drugs, perfumes, explosives etc.
a) Toluene is used as a solvent for oils, fats, paints, lacquers, resins etc.
b) It is used in the manufacture of TriNitroToluene (TNT) an explosive.
Mention the used of Naphthalene
a) Naphthalene is used as an insecticide in the form of moth balls.
b) It is used in the synthesis of dyes.
96.
Derivative hydrocarbons in which one or more hydrogen atoms have been replaced by
atom or group of atoms of other elements are called functional groups.
Functional groups are specific groups of atoms or bonds within molecules that are
responsible for characteristics chemical reactions.
Functional groups are the sites where reactions occur in organic molecules.
97.
98.
Compounds containing OH as the functional group are called alcohols. Their general
formula is R OH or C n H 2n+1 OH
Even though NaOH & KOH contains OH group. It is not included in the group of
organic substances. Why?
NaOH and KOH are strong bases which are ionic compound that contain OH ions.
Alcohols are covalent compounds, even though they have on or more hydroxyl ( -OH )
functional group, they do not behave like bases. The OH group attached to a carbon
atom is a covalent bond.
Name of Alcohol
1. Methanol
2. Ethanol
3. Propanol
4. Butanol
5. Pentanol
Molecular Formula
CH 3 OH
C 2 H 5 OH
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH or C 3 H 7 OH
C 4 H 9 OH
C 5 H 11 OH
c) C 4 H 9 OH Butanol
b) C 3 H 7 OH Propanol
d) C 5 H 11 OH Pentanol
Compounds containing CHO as the functional group are called aldehydes. Their general
formula is R CHO.
Name of Aldehyde
1. Methanal
2. Ethanal
3. Propanal
4. Butanal
5. Pentanal
Molecular Formula
HCHO
CH 3 CHO
CH 3 CH 2 CHO
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CHO
CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHO
Compounds containing COOH as the functional group are called Carboxylic acids. Their
general formula is R COOH.
105. Write the molecular formula of first five members of carboxylic acid.
Name of carboxylic acid Molecular Formula
1. Methanoic acid
HCOOH
3. Propanoic acid
C 2 H 5 COOH
2. Ethanoic acid
4. Butananoic acidu
CH 3 COOH
C 3 H 7 COOH
C 4 H 9 COOH
Compounds containing NH 2 as the functional group are called amines. Their general
formula is R NH 2
1. Methyl amine
2. Ethyl amine
CH 3 NH 2
C2 H 5 NH 2
c) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH Alcohol
e) Methanol Alcohol
g) Amino acids Amines
d) Methanal Aldehyde
C C
c) CHO
e) COOH
Alkyne
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
b) C C
d) OH
Alkene
Alcohol
113. Give one example each of the compounds having the following functional groups:
a) Aldehyde group Methanal
Organic compounds having more than one functional groups are called polyfunctionsl
compounds.
Ex: Glycerol, Salicylic acid
117. Write the structure of glycerol or Write the structural formula of the compound
having 3 OH group.
118. Write the structural formula of the compound having one COOH group.
Salicylic acid is a poly functional compound which contains one OH and one COOH
group. It is used in the production of aspirin.
122. Even though Methyl alcohol (CH3 OH) and Ethyl alcohol (C 2 H5 OH) contains OH
group. They are not called hydroxides but alcohols. Why?
OR
NaOH is not called as sodium alcohol. Why?
OR
Long chain alkanes or alkenes if contain a terminal carboxylic acid group( COOH ) are
called fatty acids.
Glycerides are fats or oils. When fatty acids react with trihydric alcohol like glycerol to form
ester called glycerides.
When fatty acids react with glycerol, fats and oils are formed.
Fatty acid + Glycerol
Esterification
Fat/oil + Water
Stearic acid is a saturated fatty acid. Its molecular formula is C 17 H35 COOH. Its structure
is
Stearic acid does not contain double bonds in its carbon atom hence it is a saturated fatty
acid.
Oils
They are solids at room temperature They are liquids at room temperature
They are chemically inactive
It is difficult to transport
Unsaturated oils are easy to digest because they are chemically reactive.
b) Fats are digested slowly.
Fats are saturated, they are chemically inactive hence they are digested slowly.
c) Oils have short shelf life.
Unsaturated oils have short shelf life because they undergo oxidation in air and produce a
foul smell.
d) Fats are easy to transport.
Rancidity is the process which causes a substance to become rancid, that is, having
unpleasant smell or taste.
The process of converting liquid oils into solids saturated fats by passing hydrogen gas
through them is called hydrogenation of oils. Finely divided nickel is used as catalyst
during the process.
Ex: Vanaspathi
The reactions in which hydrogen atoms are added are called hydrogenation reactions.
Ex: Addition of hydrogen to make Alkyne into Alkene, Addition to hydrogen to make
benzene into Cyclohexane.
b) It also has a higher melting point and hence used in frying and pastries.
134. Give reason: Hydrogenated Oils are often used in frying and pastries.
Hydrogenated oils have a higher melting point. Hence it is used for frying and pastries.
The process of neutralizing the fatty acids present in oils or fats by adding sodium or
potassium hydroxide is called saponification.
Saponification is the reaction that takes place between oil and sodium hydroxide during
the manufacture of soap.
The steps involved are:
1) Hydrolysis of fats or oil into carboxylic acid and glycerol.
2) Neutralization of the fatty acid by sodium hydroxide.
a) Fats and oils are sources of food in which vitamin A, D, E & K are soluble.
b) It is also a source of light for tribal people.
c) Eskimos use animal fat as a source of light in their igloos.
d) It is also used as a source of heat.
Paraffin wax is a hydrocarbon. Beeswax, a natural wax is mainly made of esters of fatty
acids and various long chain alcohols.
Beeswax is used in cosmetics, preparation of drip less candles and skin ointments.
PUFA stands for Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acid. It is an unsaturated hydrocarbon chain.
Because of the presence of double bonds, it is reactive. This makes them more reactive
than saturated fatty acids. They are susceptible to attack by free radicals which cause
aging, hormone imbalance and immune disorders.
Compound
Molecular formula
1.
Methane
CH 4
2.
Ethane
C2H6
3.
Propane
C3H8
4.
Butane
C 4 H 10
5.
Pentane
C 5 H 12
Structure
Ethene
C2H4
7.
Propene
C3H6
8.
Butene
C4H8
9.
Pentene
C 5 H 10
10.
Ethyne
C2H2
11.
Propyne
C3H4
12.
Butyne
C4H6
13.
Pentyne
C5H8
14.
Cyclopropane
C3H6
15.
Cyclobutane
C4H8
16.
Cyclopentane
C 5 H 10
17.
Cyclohexane
C 6 H 12
18.
Benzene
C6H6
19.
Toluene
C6 H5 CH 3
20.
Naphthalene
C 10 H 8
21
Glycerol
C3H8 O3
22
Salicylic acid
C7H 6O3
1.
2.
6.
3.
4.
5.
7.
9.
The ability of carbon atoms to link together to from short or long chain by covalent bond is
called catenation.
The property of carbon atoms to form long chains in compounds is called catenation.
8.
10.
11.
12.
Organic compounds having same molecular formula with different structural arrangement
of atoms in them is known as isomerism.
The number of organic compounds increases due to the phenomenon of isomerism.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
The person who suggested that organic compounds are derived from organisms is
Berzelius.
The first organic compound which was synthesized from inorganic compound was urea.
The person who synthesized urea from ammonium cyanate was Friedrich Wohler.
Friedrich Wohler prepared the organic compound urea.
The unique properties of carbon atom are catenation, tetravalency and isomerism.
The study of compounds and reactions involving carbon is called Organic chemistry.
21.
Simplest binary organic compounds containing carbon and hydrogen only are called
hydrocarbons.
Compounds of carbon with hydrogen alone are called hydrocarbons.
25.
26.
27.
22.
23.
24.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
The main source of the worlds electric energy and heat source is hydrocarbons.
The two principal sources of hydrocarbons are petroleum and coal.
Aliphatic hydrocarbons are mainly obtained from petroleum.
35.
39.
40.
41.
The unsaturated hydrocarbons having double bond between carbon atom are alkene.
The general formula of alkene is C n H 2n .
The hydrocarbon having the general formula C n H 2n is alkene.
36.
37.
38.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
The unsaturated hydrocarbons having one triple bond between carbon atoms are
alkynes.
In homologous series one member differs from the preceding member by a CH 2 group.
53.
Compounds containing COOH group as functional group are called Carboxylic acids.
55.
54.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
Long chain alkanes or alkenes containing terminal carboxylic acid ( COOH) are called
fatty acid.
69.
The process of converting liquid oil into solids saturated fats by passing hydrogen gas is
called hydrogenation.
A reaction in which hydrogen atoms are added is called hydrogenation reaction.
71.
70.
The process of neutralizing the fatty acids present in the oils or fats by adding sodium
hydroxide is called saponification.
C13
2.
Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction when glucose combines with
fructose to give sucrose.
C 6 H 12 O 6 + C 6 H 12 O 6
C 12 H 22 0 11 + H 2 O
3.
4.
5.
6.
What is caramel?
7.
8.
9.
The two main sources of sucrose are cane sugar and beet root sugar.
Carbohydrates are classified based on the number of sugar units into monosaccharides,
disaccharides and polysaccharides.
Jaggery is recommended than white crystalline sugar because of the presence of useful
nutrients in addition to carbohydrates.
The sticky substance formed when sugar is heated to about 473K is called caramel.
Caramel imparts a characteristic colour and flavour to chocolates and candies.
Sugar tends to draw water from the microbes. This process leaves the microbial cells
dehydrated, thus killing them. In this way, the food will remain safe from microbial spoilage
c) The shelf life of sucrose is more than that of jaggery.
Jaggery absorbs the moisture and starts to ferment in rainy season. In sucrose the water
content is removed. Hence it can be stored for a longer time.
10.
11.
When compared to jaggery, sugar has a greater shelf life and it can be stored easily in
any climatic condition.
What is meant by fermentation i?
The aqueous solution of sugar undergoes chemical reaction called fermentation.
13.
What is starch?
14.
136
Carbohydrates in the form of starch, disaccharides and mono saccharides get assimilated
by our body.
15.
What happens when quick lime is added to a test tube containing glucose and
gently heated?
Quick lime is a drying agent. It does not get charred.
16.
Give reason: Sulphuric acid added to a test tube containing glucose gets charred
but not when quick lime is added.
Sulphuric acid is a dehydrating agent so it absorbs hydrogen and oxygen present in
glucose. But quick lime is only a drying agent so it does not get charred.
17.
Dehydrating agent
18.
19.
a) Sugarcane or sugar beet is cut into pieces, crushed in a series of roller mills.
b) The juice is warmed and run into settling tanks.
c) It is decanted from the sediment and made alkaline with calcium hydroxide.
d) The impurities get precipitated.
e) The liquid is steamed to coagulate protein matter and allowed to settle.
f) The clear juice is concentrated into syrup by evaporation under reduced pressure. The
syrup is cooled to crystallize into sugar.
g) The crystals are dissolved in hot water and decolourised with animal charcoal or with
coconut shell charcoal. It is then filtered.
h) Hydrosol or sodium bi sulphate is added which generates sulphur dioxide which
removes colour impurities.
i) The filtrate is concentrated and evaporated under reduced pressure to get syrup.
137
20.
21.
What is celotex?
22.
What is norit?
23.
24.
What is molasses?
25.
What is the role of animal charcoal or coconut shell charcoal in the manufacture of
sugar?
26.
27.
Mention a test for sugar/sucrose. OR How do you test the presence of sugar in a
banana? OR How do to test a blood/urine sample of a diabetic person for sugar?
When sugarcane juice is evaporated under reduced pressure, boiling takes place at a
lower temperature and sugar can be obtained at a lower temperature.
Take an aqueous solution of the sample to be tested and mix it with hydrochloric acid.
Add Fehlings solution (Alkaline copper sulphate solution). If reddish precipitate is
obtained, it indicates the presence of sugar/sucrose in the given sample.
28.
Define fermentation.
29.
30.
a) Dilution of molasses by water such that the solution contains about 10% sugar.
b) Addition of yeast and maintaining the temperature range of 308K to 313K.
c) Distillation of the fermented matter.
138
a) Molasses is diluted with water and acidified by adding dilute sulphuric acid.
b) Yeast is added to the solution and the container is closed.
c) The temperature is maintained around 308K.
C12H22 O11
Sucrose
H2 O
C6H12 O6
32.
What is wort?
33.
Enzyme
Invertase
Enzyme
Zymase
C6H12 O6
Glu cos e
C2H5 OH
Ethanol
C 6H12 O 6
Fructose
2CO2
Carbon dioxide
During the manufacture of ethyl alcohol or ethanol, the fermented matter is called wort.
a) Steaming in the process of manufacture of sucrose: It is used to coagulate proteins
and make them settle.
b) Enzyme invertase in the manufacture of ethanol: It converts sucrose into glucose and
fructose.
34.
35.
Milk turns into curds when the temperature is around 30-40 C which promotes the growth
of bacteria (Lactobacillus). Hence milk turns into curds very quickly in summer.
A small quantity of curds is added to milk. The mixture is kept in the refrigerator for
about 4 hours. When it is taken out, it is observed that it has not curdled
completely. Give scientific reason.
When the mixture of milk and curds is kept in the refrigerator, the temperature is about 6
o
o
to 8 c. For the conversion of milk to curds a temperature of 30-40 c is necessary. Hence it
is curdled completely.
36.
37.
38.
Ethanol / Ethyl alcohol is being blended with diesel and used as fuel by KSRTC of
Karnataka.
In many ayurvedic tonics, alcohol is present in small extent. It stimulates and improves
appetite.
Ethanol is a good fuel. It can be mixed with diesel and used as fuel. Hence it reduced the
dependency on fossil fuels.
139
Sucrose is a disaccharide.
The two main sources of sucrose are cane sugar and beet root sugar.
4.
3.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
19.
16.
17.
18.
20.
21.
The residue of sugarcane from which the juice is extracted can be used to prepare
cardboard.
Bagasse is used as a raw material to prepare cardboard.
25.
22.
23.
24.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
The substance added to lighten the colour of jaggery or sugar during its manufacture is
hydrosol or sodium bi sulphate.
The uncrystallised syrup left behind in the form of brown viscous liquid is called
molasses.
The colour observed when hydrochloric acid and Fehlings solution is added to test sugar
is reddish.
The word fermentation is derived from Greek language which means boiling.
RT I B
35.
36.
37.
40.
41.
42.
38.
39.
43.
44.
140
*****
2.
What is an echo?
3.
4.
P14
a) Study of sound produced by heart and lungs can signal the medical problems.
b) Study of properties of sound helps in improvement of acoustics in theatres, concert
halls.
The sound heard after reflection from a rigid surface is called an echo.
time
2d
v
The sensation of sound persists in our ear for about 0.1s. To hear a distinct echo, the time
interval between the original sound and the reflected sound must be later or equal to 0.1s.
-1
By substituting t=0.1s and v=340ms in air
340x0.1
17m
2
5.
6.
7.
A boy standing in front of a hill claps. He hears an echo after two seconds. The
-1
speed of sound in air is 340ms . What is the distance of the hill from him?
a) The time interval between the original sound and the reflected sound must be later or
equal to 0.1s.
b) The minimum distance between the reflecting surface and the source must be 17m.
Sound waves carry energy. When sound waves hit a reflecting surface, it imparts energy
to the surface from which it bounces.
Sound
8.
142
Echoes heard more than once is due to multiple reflections from number of reflecting
surfaces.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
What is ultrasonics?
16.
17.
18.
19.
Roaring of thunder is due to multiple reflections of sound from many reflecting surfaces of
clouds.
a) In the whispering gallery of Golgumbuz at Bijapur, sound is echoed seven times.
b) Echo produced by mountain Lake Killarney in Ireland is repeated almost hundred
times.
Sound is produced when a body vibrates in a particular range of frequency.
The range of frequency from 20Hz to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz) is called audible range. Or
human audible frequency.
Sounds of frequency below 20Hz are called infrasonic sound or subsonic sound.
Sounds of frequency beyond 20,000Hz (20 kHz) are called Ultrasonic sounds.
The branch of science that deals with ultrasound is called ultrasonics.
Animals like dogs, cats and bats.
Normal sounds have low frequency where as ultrasonic sounds have high frequcncy.
Ultrasonic sounds have high frequency because it has high energy.
A thin quartz slice is placed between two thin metallic plates. The metallic plates are
connected to an A.C. source frequency more than 20 kHz. When the current flows through
the metallic plates, the quartz slice vibrates with a frequency more than 20 kHz and
produce ultrasonic sound.
Sound
20.
143
a) By studying the ultrasonic waves passing through a medium, we can infer about its
physical properties like elasticity, configuration of atoms.
b) They can be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal mouldings.
c) They are used in homogenizing two immiscible liquids.
d) They are used in manufacturing of alloys.
22.
Bats produce and hear sounds of frequency upto 100 kHz. The sound produced by flying
bats gets reflected from obstacle in front of it. By hearing this reflected sound it can detect
obstacle even during night.
a) They can be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal mouldings.
b) They are used in homogenizing two immiscible liquids.
c) They are used in manufacturing of alloys.
23.
25.
What is the minimum frequency of sound wave needed to prepare emulsion from
two immiscible liquids?
Ultrasonic waves can kill bacteria. Hence it is used for sterilization purpose.
26.
27.
What is SONAR?
Sound
28.
144
29.
Sonar is used to locate underwater hills, valleys, submarines, icebergs and sunken ships.
Explain how the depth of underwater objects is measured using sonar.
30.
31.
32.
A ship sends ultrasonic sound, it returns from seabed and its is detected after 4s. If
-1
the speed of ultrasonic sound through seawater is 1.5kms . What is the depth of
the sea?
33.
The ultrasonic signal send by sonar takes 3 seconds to return. Find the distance of
the object if the velocity of sound in water is 1.5km/s.
34.
Ultrasonic waves emitted at the ocean water take 3.5 seconds to return. Find the
depth of ocean.
vxt
2
Echo ranging is a technique of using ultrasonic waves used to calculate the distance of
objects.
Sound
145
35.
A ship on the surface of a sea sends an ultrasonic signal vertically downwards into
the sea. The signal is reflected from a submarine and is received after 2 seconds.
Calculate the depth (in km) of the submarine. [Assume the velocity of sound in
water=1450m/s]
36.
An ultrasonic sound sent from a ship travels with the speed of 1530 m/s in sea
water. How deep is the water if the time delay of the echo from the sea bed is 6
seconds?
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
The technique used to get images of internal organs of human body is called ultrasound
scanning.
Ultrasound scanning is less harmful than x-rays. Hence it is widely used.
Echo cardiograph is a technique which uses ultrasound to examine the heart.
a) Ultrasound scanner is used to get the images of internal organs of human body like
bladders, kidneys, ovaries.
b) It is used to examine the heart.
c) It is used in examination of the foetus during pregnancy to detect congenial and
growth abnormalities.
Ultrasound scanner probe is placed over the part of the body to be examined. Lubricating
jelly is put on the skin so that the probe makes good contact with the body. The probe is
Sound
146
42.
connected by wire to the ultrasound machine and monitor. Pulses of ultrasound are sent
from the probe to the body. Ultrasound waves bounce back from the various structures in
the body. This is detected by the probe and the image is displayed on the monitor.
What is the principle of ultrasound scanner?
43.
44.
45.
Ultrasound waves travel through fluid and soft tissues, but are reflected back when it hits
dense surface.
Doppler effect is the apparent change in the frequency of wave motion due to relative
motion between the source of sound and the observer.
Doppler Effect is observed when either the source or the observer or both are in relative
motion.
Example 1:
When a speeding fire engine/ambulance passes a stationary observer, the pitch of the
siren drops as it passes the observer. The waves in front appear to be compressed and
the observer feels the pitch to be higher. When the fire engine/ambulance passes the
observer, the waves behind the engine appear to be far apart. So the observer feels the
pitch lower.
Example 2:
A person standing on the railway platform feels a change in the pitch of the whistle of a
train which is moving past the observer. The pitch of the whistle appears to be lower as
the engine passes the person.
46.
Give reason:
a) A person in the front of an engine feels the pitch of whistle of the train higher.
When the engine is moving, the waves in front appears to be compressed.
b) A person behind the engine feels the pitch of the whistle of an engine to the
lower.
When the engine moves past a person, the waves behind the engine appears to be faster
apart.
47.
a) It can be used to calculate the speed at which the objects of the universe are receding
from us.
b) It can be used to gauge the movements of stars with relative to the earth.
Sound
49.
147
50.
When a source of light moves away from the observer with a velocity comparable to that
of light, the frequency of the light noticed will be less. It shifts towards the red end of the
spectrum. This effect is called red shift.
What is the significance of red shift?
51.
52.
53.
Expand RADAR.
54.
What is RADAR?
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
The study of the spectrum of the stars indicated that all stars in the universe are moving
away from us at very high speed. This indicated that the universe is expanding.
When the source of light wave approaches the observer with a velocity comparable to that
of light, the frequency of light noticed is high. It shifts to blue end of the spectrum. This
shift is called blue shift.
Ultrasonic waves require a material medium for its propagation. Ultrasonic waves also
lose energy to the medium in which they travel. Hence ultrasonic waves cannot be used to
track satellites.
RADAR stands for RAdio Detection And Ranging.
Radar is a device which uses electromagnetic waves (radio waves) in place of ultrasonic
waves to determine the range, altitude, direction or speed of moving objects.
Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which can travel through vacuum and also very
large distances. Hence Radiowaves are used to track artificial satellites.
The time taken by radar to cover distance is very less as it travels with the speed of light.
Hence very accurate instrument which can measure very small time interval of the order
of microseconds is necessary.
Radar makes use of pulse of waves from an antenna and detects the reflected wave after
it bounces odd the target. By knowing the speed of radio waves and the tome taken for
the signal to bounce off the object and hit the receiver, the distance of the object can be
detected.
Radar is used to track aircraft, artificial satellites and motor vehicles.
Radar gun is an instrument used to determine the speed of moving objects like vehicles.
P14: Sound
RT I B
60.
148
How do traffic authorities use radar/ Doppler Effect to detect speed of vehicles?
Radiowaves are sent in the direction of speeding vehicles and the reflected waves are
received. The change in the frequency of the waves is used to determine the speed of
vehicles.
The sound heard after reflection from a rigid surface is called an echo.
3.
5.
6.
7.
The minimum distance between the reflecting surface and the source for an echo to be
heard must be 17m.
More than one echo is heard due to multiple reflections from the reflecting surfaces.
In the whispering gallery of Golgumbuz at Bijapur, sound is echoed seven times.
11.
12.
2.
4.
8.
9.
10.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
2d
.
v
The time interval between the original sound and the reflected sound for an echo to be
heard is >=0.1s.
The wave used in manufacture of emulsion for photographic films is ultrasonic waves.
The wave used in manufacture of emulsion for photographic films must have frequency
greater than 20kHz.
A device which uses ultrasonic sound waves to measure the distance of an object is
SONAR.
The wave used in radar gun used by traffic police to detect over speeding vehicles is
Radiowaves.
RT I B
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
P14: Sound
The name of sound waves whose frequency is grater than 20 kHz is ultrasonic sound.
Doppler Effect of light can be applied in the study of stars.
A strong beam of ultrasonic waves kill bacteria this property is used in sterilization.
149
2. Non sonorous
6. Lustrous
6. Non lustrous
Non-metals
Non-metals
2.
C15
4.
Give reason:
a) Metals are electropositive.
Electropositive element has the tendency to lose electrons and form cation.Metals are
electron donors. Hence they are electropositive.
b) Non-metals are electronegative.
Electronegative element has the tendency to gain electrons and form anions. Non-metals
are electron acceptors. Hence they are electronegative.
c) Even though hydrogen is a non-metal, it is electropositive.
At low temperatures hydrogen shows metallic properties.
Metals
d) Sodium is electropositive.
151
Sodium is electropositive because donates electrons from last orbit to another element
and becomes electropositive.
5.
6.
Classify the following into acidic, basic, neutral and amphoteric oxides.
7.
8.
2 Mg + O 2
4 Fe + 3O 2
9.
2Na 2 O
2MgO
2Fe 2O 3
When a piece of sodium is cut and placed exposed to air, the shining surface of the
metal becomes dull and becomes powder of sodium carbonate.
4Na + O 2 2Na 2 O; 2Na 2O + CO 2
Na 2CO 3
2Na + O 2
It burns brightly in air forming magnesium oxide. A small amount of magnesium nitride
is also formed due to high temperature.
Heat
2 Mg + O2
d) A foil of copper is burnt in air.
2MgO
When a foil of copper is heated in a flame, a black layer of copper oxide is formed.
Heat
Metals
152
Aluminium powder of a sparkler, crackers and fireworks burn with a white light.
10.
4Al + 3O 2
2Al 2 O 3
Rust is hydrated oxide of iron formed on iron articles when they are exposed to moist air
for a long time.
The formula of rust is Fe 2 O 3 2H 2 O
11.
Give reason:
a) Iron exposed to air rusts quickly during rainy season.
12.
13.
14.
Give reason: Metallic articles which are exposed to air over long period of time lose
their lustre.
15.
A student has been collecting silver coins and copper coins. One day she observes
a black coating on silver coins and a green coating on copper coins. Which
chemical phenomenon is responsible for these coatings? Write the names of black
and green coatings.
The phenomenon is called corrosion. Silver gets tarnished when exposed to atmosphere
which forms a black coating of silver oxide. Copper forms a green deposit on its surface
when exposed to moist air. The green coating is copper sulphate.
16.
17.
Sodium is highly reactive in air. It reacts with air gradually forming sodium carbonate. It
catches fire and burns when exposed to air. It does not react with kerosene so sodium is
preserved in kerosene.
18.
Metals
153
Give reason: During burning of magnesium not only magnesium oxide is formed
but also magnesium nitride is formed.
Due to high temperature the triple bond between nitrogen atoms is broken and a small
quantity of magnesium nitride is formed.
19.
Give reason: Magnesium ribbon should not be kept near bottles containing volatile
chemicals.
Magnesium is a reactive metal therefore it should not be kept near bottles containing
volatile chemicals.
20.
Why do gold ornaments look new even after several years of use?
21.
Gold does not corrode when exposed to atmosphere. It is a highly unreactive metal and is
unaffected by air, water vapour and other gases in atmosphere.
Metals react with nitrogen forming respective nitrides at high temperature.
Magnesium reacts with nitrogen to form magnesium nitride.
3Mg + N 2
22.
Heat
Mg 3 N 2
23.
CaH 2
24.
Heat
Heat
2AlCl 3
What happens when heated aluminium powder is sprinkled into a jar of chlorine
gas?
As heated aluminium powder comes in contact with chlorine, bright flashes are seen
forming aluminium chloride.
2Al + 3Cl 2
Heat
2AlCl 3
25.
26.
FeS
Fe + S
How do metals react with water?
2Na + 2H O
2NaOH + H
Metals
154
b) Magnesium reacts with boiling water to form magnesium oxide & hydrogen.
Mg(OH) 2 + H 2
Mg + 2H 2 O
ZnO + H 2
Mg + H 2 O
MgO + H 2
e) Red hot iron reacts with steam forming iron oxide & hydrogen,
3 Fe + 4H2O
27.
Heat
Fe3O4 + 4H 2
Choose a metal out the following which reacts with hot water but not cold water:
Sodium, Magnesium & Iron. Mention the products formed during the reaction.
Magnesium reacts with hot water but not with cold water. The products formed are
magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen.
Mg + 2H 2 O
28.
Mg(OH) 2 + H 2
Of the three metals X, Y and Z. X reacts with cold water, Y reacts with hot water and
Z reacts with steam only. Identify X, Y and Z and also arrange them in the order of
increasing reactivity.
X is sodium. Y is Magnesium and Z can be iron, Aluminium or zinc.
Increasing order of reactivity is sodium, magnesium and iron.
29.
What happens when a piece of sodium is gently dropped into a trough of water?
Sodium floats on water with a hissing noise forming sodium hydroxide & hydrogen.
2Na + 2H 2 O
30.
2NaOH + H 2
5 grams of iron filings is taken in hard glass tube in a horizontal position. One end
of horizontal tube is connected to a boiler filled with water and other end of the
horizontal tube is connected to a delivery tube fixed to a balloon.
i) What happens during the experiment?
Water boils producing steam. Steam reacts with iron filings forming hydrogen gas.
Hydrogen gas fills in the balloon.
ii) Name the gas produced
Hydrogen
iii) How do you know that the gas is hydrogen?
When the mouth of the balloon is tied and released, the balloon goes up and sticks to the
roof as hydrogen is the lightest gas.
31.
32.
33.
34.
Metals
155
In a hard glass borosilicate tube with both sides open, take 5g of iron filings in a horizontal
position and arrange the apparatus as shown in the figure. When water is boiled in the jar
containing water, steam is produced which passes through the horizontal tube containing
iron filings. Iron filings react with steam forming hydrogen.
Hydrogen and oxygen
Metals react with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce respective metallic chlorides and
hydrogen.
a) Magnesium reacts readily to form magnesium chloride.
Mg + 2HCl
MgCl 2 + H 2
Zn + 2HCl
ZnCl2 + H 2
35.
2FeCl3 + 3H 2
What happens when concentrated hydrochloric acid is poured into a test tube
containing zinc granules?
Zinc reacts with concentrated hydrochloric acid vigorously forming and the chemicals spill
out of the test tube.
36.
37.
In a test tube about 10g of zinc granules is taken. Dilute hydrochloric acid is added
to the test tube up to half its volume. A one holed cork is fixed to the test tube. A
rubber tube is taken out of the test tube and passed through a trough containing
soap solution.
i) What do you observe?
Zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid forming zinc chloride and hydrogen gas. As
hydrogen gas pass through soap solution, soap bubbles filled with hydrogen rises up.
ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
Zn + 2HCl
ZnCl 2 + H 2
iii) What happens when you ignite the soap bubbles with a match stick?
When the soap bubbles are ignited with a burning match stick, it makes a pop sound as
hydrogen is a combustible gas.
38.
Metals
156
Give reason:
a) Magnesium reacts more vigorously with hydrochloric acid than zinc or copper.
The reactivity of magnesium is higher than that of zinc. Hence it reacts with hydrochloric
acid more vigorously.
b) Iron takes more time to react with dilute hydrochloric acid than magnesium and
zinc
As iron has lowest reactivity when compare to magnesium and zinc.
39.
Sodium displaces hydrogen from dilute acids violently but copper does not
displace hydrogen from dilute acids. Why?
Sodium is highly reactive than copper. Hence reaction with sodium reacts violently then
that of copper.
40.
Metals displace hydrogen from dilute sulphuric acid and form respective metallic
sulphates.
Zn + H 2 SO 4
41.
ZnSO 4 + H 2
MgSO 4 + H 2
Fe + H 2 SO 4
FeSO 4 + H 2
Heat
CuSO 4 + SO 2 + 2H 2O
61.
43.
Zn +2H 2SO 4
Heat
ZnSO 4 + SO 2 + 2H2 O
a) Very dilute nitric acid reacts with very active metals like magnesium and zinc to give
their metallic nitrates and hydrogen gas.
Zn + 2HNO 3
Mg + 2HNO 3
Zn(NO 3 ) 2 + H 2
Mg(NO 3 ) 2 + H2
b) Moderately dilute nitric acidreacts with metals to give their nitrates and nitric oxide.
3Cu + 8HNO 3
Cu(NO 3 ) 2 + 2NO + 4H 2 O
Cu + 4HNO 3
9844217032
Metals
45.
157
2NO 2
46.
What happens when gold ornament is heated with dilute nitric acid?
47.
The copper constituent of the ornament reacts with the acid forming greenish copper
nitrate solution and reddish brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide. Gold remains unaffected.
Iron nail or aluminium wire does not react with concentrated nitric acid. It makes iron more
passive.
48.
Since concentrated nitric acid is a powerful oxidising agent, it forms a protective oxide
layer on the metal instantly.
49.
50.
When an iron nail is placed in copper sulphate solution, iron displaces copper from copper
sulphate solution.
Fe + CuSO 4
FeSO 4 + Cu
When an iron nail is placed in silver nitrate solution, iron displaces silver from silver nitrate
solution,
Fe + AgNO 3
51.
Fe(NO 3 ) 2 + 2Ag
etals
52.
158
Iron is more reactive than copper. Hence it displaces copper from copper sulphate
solution.
In a solution of silver nitrate, a copper plate was dipped. After some time, silver
from the solution was deposited on the copper plate. Which metal is more reactive
copper or silver?
More reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal. Hence copper metal is more reactive.
53.
A solution of CuSO4 was kept in an iron pot. After a few days, the iron pot was
found to have a number of holes in it. Write the equation that took place. Explain.
Iron metal is more reactive than copper. The equation for the displacement is:
CuSO4 + Fe
FeSO4 + Cu
Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
54.
Copper metal is more reactive than silver metal. So displacement reaction will take place.
55.
56.
Name some metals which do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
57.
Which gas is always produced if a metal reacts with water or dilute acid?
58.
Metals are electropositive and have tendency to donate electrons. Some elements give up
their valence electrons and hence more reactive.
Platinum, gold, silver, mercury & copper do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids.
Hydrogen
sodium
b) Which element will react with cold water?
Sodium, calcium
c) Which element will react with steam but not cold water?
Iron
59.
Metals
159
Mercury
60.
2Fe 2 O 3 + 4Al
AgNO 3 + Cu
Cu(NO 3 ) 2 + 2Ag
FeSO4 + Cu ;
Observe the above chemical equations and arrange the metals in the reactions in
their increasing order of reactivity.
Iron, Copper & Silver
61.
What is an ore?
62.
The compound of a metal from which the metal can be extracted economically is called an
ore.
Name of metal
Aluminium
Iron
Gold
Platinum
Copper
Manganese
Chromium
Magnesium
Name of ore
Haematite
Magnetite(Oxide ore)
composition
Al 2 O 3 2H 2 O
Fe 2O 3
Fe 3O 4
Native form
Cholcopyrites or
copperpyrites (Sulphide
ore)
CuFeS 2
Chromite
Magnesite (carbonate
ore)
63.
64.
Define metallurgy.
65.
MnO 2
FeOCr 2O 3
MgCO 3
Gold is low in the reactivity series. It is least reactive or unreactive. Hence gold is found in
free state.
The technology of extraction of metals from their ores and refining them to required form
is called metallurgy.
The process of removing the gangue particles to increase the percentage of desired
component of the ore is called concentration of the ore.
c) Roasting
Metals
160
The process of heating the ore just below its melting point in the presence of air is called
roasting.
Ex: Zinc blende (ZnS) is roasted in the air to convert it into zinc oxide (ZnO).
d) Calcination
The process of heating the ore just below its melting point in the absences of air with a
purpose of driving away volatile matter like water and carbon dioxide is called calcination.
Ex: Oxide ores containing water vapour are calcined. Carbonate ores calcined to drive
away carbon dioxide.
e) Flux
The substance that is added to the ore before heating with a purpose of removing certain
unwanted impurities which are not removed during concentration of ore is called flux.
f) Slag
66.
The substance formed by the combination of impurities like sand is called slag.
Differentiate between roasting and calcination.
Roasting
67.
Calcination
After some time a mirror of mercury on the cooler part of the test tube is formed. It is
based on displacement reaction.
c)A small crystal of silver nitrate is dissolved in distilled water and a drop of
ammonium hydroxide & a pinch of glucose powder are added.
A coating of silver on the inner walls of the test tube. Aldehyde group in glucose reduced
silver nitrate to metallic silver.
68.
69.
The chief ore of iron is haematite. Haematite ore is concentrated by hydraulic washing.
The crushed ore is washed with a stream of water, lighter gangue particles will be washed
away and the heavy iron ore particles also with silica settles down during washing.
Calcined iron ore is mixed with limestone and coke. The mixture is called charge. Charge
is transferred to a blast furnace.
A blast of hot air is sent through the charge.
a) Coke present in the charge catches fire to form carbon dioxide with a large amount of
heat.
2CO
C + O2
b) Carbon dioxide gas formed reacts with more coke forming carbon monoxide.
Metals
161
CO 2 + C
2CO
c) Limestone decomposes to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
CaCO 3
CaO +CO 2
d) Calcium oxide combines with silica present in the ore to form calcium silicate (slag)
CaSiO 3
CaO + SiO 2
e) At a temperature between 400 and 750oC, carbon monoxide reduces iron oxide to form
iron metal.
2Fe + 3CO 2
Fe 2 O 3 + 3CO
The molten iron metal is collected at the bottom of the furnace is called cast or pig iron,
70.
What is charge?
71.
State the role of lime stone in the extraction of iron from haematite.
Or
Limestone reacts with the sand present as impurity in the ore forming calcium silicate
which is taken out of the blast furnace as slag.
72.
What happens when lime stone is not added during the extraction of iron?
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
If limestone is not added to charge during the extraction of iron, the blast furnace will get
blocked.
Flux in extraction of iron is limestone. Limestone reacts with the sand present as impurity
in the ore forming calcium silicate which is taken out of the blast furnace as slag.
Coke is a good reducing agent. It reduces iron oxide to iron. It is also a good fuel which
supplies heat energy for the chemical reactions.
Slag is lighter than molten iron and collects above molten iron. Slag prevents oxidations of
molten iron back into iron oxide.
Slag obtained in blast furnace is used as one of theraw materials of glass and cement.
Cast iron is used for:
Metals
162
78.
Name the impurities present in cast iron. How can these impurities be removed?
79.
Draw a neat diagram of the blast furnace used in the extraction of iron from
haematite.
Metals
80.
81.
What is a mordant?
82.
83.
163
a) Aluminium salts are used as mordant in textile industry (to bind the dye to the cloth).
b) Potash alum is used to prevent bleeding from small cuts by coagulating the blood at the
surface.
OR
Coke is used in the extraction of iron but not in the extraction of aluminium. Why?
OR
Aluminium cannot be extracted by heating bauxite and coke. Why?
Oxygen of aluminium oxide cannot be easily taken away by reducing agents like coke.
84.
2NaAlO 2 + H 2 O
2Al(OH) 3 + Na 2 CO 3
87.
Al 2 O 3 + 3H 2 O
For electrolysis of we need pure alumina. Hence bauxite is converted into alumina by
chemical process.
What is the difficulty in obtaining aluminium from alumina?
Pure alumina melts at 2323K. At this temperature, aluminium vapourises and there will be
considerable loss. It consumes more energy and also molten aluminium is not a very good
conductor of electricity.
What is the role of molten cryolite in the extraction of aluminium?
88.
When pure alumina is mixed with molten cryolite, it forms an electrolyte at 1223K. Molten
cryolite also acts as a solvent for alumina.
What is cryolite? Write its chemical formula.
89.
Briefly explain the extraction of aluminium from alumina with chemical equations.
Metals
164
Aluminium oxide dissolved in molten cryolite is taken in a chamber with gently sloped
base.The inner wall is made of carbon lining.
Graphite rods are introduced in the electrolyte bath.
The carbon lining is connected to the cathode and graphite rods are connected to the
anode.
A strong source of direct current is passed.
90.
Molten aluminium collects at the lining and flows out of the gently sloped base.
Name the process by which the refining of aluminium is done. Name the material
used for the process.
Aluminium is refined by electrolytic refining. Carbon lining acts as the cathode and the
graphite rods act as anode.
91.
Draw a neat diagram of the electrolytic tank used in the extraction of aluminium
from alumina.
92.
93.
c) Distillation
d) Chemical vapour deposition
: Metals
165
e) Liquation process
94.
95.
Liquation is a process of obtaining ultra pure metal. It is based on the principle that metals
are readily fusible where as the impurities are infusible at the temperature at which the
metals fuse.
What is meant by zone refining or fractional crystallization?
96.
Explain the process of zone refining. Name one metal refined by this method.
97.
98.
99.
Draw a neat diagram of the apparatus used in the electrolytic refining of copper.
Zone refining is a technique of obtaining ultra pure metal. It is based on the principle of
differences in solubility of impurities in liquid and solid states of the metal.
The apparatus used for zone refining consists of a circular heater fitted around the rod of
impure metal at one end. The circular heater is slowly moved to the other end. At the
heated zone, the rod melts and as the heater passes on, pure metal crystallizes and
impurities insoluble in solid metal passes into the adjacent molten part.
A metal refined by zone refining is germanium.
Electrolytic refining is a technique of ultra refining of metal. In this method, impure metal is
taken as anode and pure metal are taken as cathode. Electric current is passed through
the electrolyte to obtain pure metal at the cathode.
Copper is purified by electrolytic refining. The apparatus consists of an electrolytic tank
containing copper sulphate solution as electrolyte. A set of thick blocks of impure copper
is made anode (connected to the positive terminal of the battery) and a set of pure copper
plates is made as cathode (connected to the negative terminal of the battery). On passing
direct current through the electrolyte, the positively charged copper ions from copper
sulphate go to the cathode and gets deposited on cathode giving pure copper. The
process continues. Impure anode becomes thinner and pure cathode becomes thicker.
The impurities collect at the bottom.
: Metals
166
As metals belonging to the same group in the periodic table have similarities in electronic
configuration.
104. How are the properties of alloys different from those of metals?
Copper is reddish and zinc is grayish in colour where as brass which is an alloy of copper
and zinc is golden yellow in colour.
Iron is a magnetic substance but stainless steel, an alloy of iron is non magnetic.
Stainless steel
Invar steel
Nickel steel
Composition
Uses
Making surgical
instruments & utensils.
Used in precision
measuring tapes
Surgical steel is not attacked by mild chemicals easily and it does not corrode.
107. What property of invar steel is used in making pendulums and measuring tapes?
Invar steel has the least co-efficient of linear expansion.
Composition
Brass
Copper, zinc
Bronze
Copper, tin
Uses
Copper
110. Mention the alloys of aluminium, their composition and uses.
Alloy
Duralumin
Alnico
Composition
Aluminium, copper,
magnesium, manganese
Metals
167
Uses
Permanent magnets
Pure gold is very soft, it cannot be used to make artistic ornaments. To make it hard,
improve the looks and colour, 6 to8% copper is added to ornamental gold.
b) Indian metallurgist Nagarjuna wrote the book Rasaratnakara in 9th century BC which
explained the preparation of various metallic compounds, the extraction and
purification of metals.
c) Indians were the first to develop the method of extracting zinc and using it in alloys.
d) The famous iron pillar at New Delhi near Qutab Minar constructed by Vikramadithya
about 1600 years ago has withstood the action of weather.
114. What are memory alloys? How are they useful?
Certain alloys which regain their original shape when deformed are called memory alloys.
Preparation of memory alloys saves energy of melting and recasting of used articles.
2.
3.
4.
8.
9.
5.
6.
7.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
Ordinary aluminium strips are not attacked by water because of the presence of a layer of
aluminium oxide on the surface of aluminium.
18.
19.
22.
23.
24.
26.
27.
28.
20.
21.
25.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
Metals
168
Iron exposed to air rusts rapidly in rainy season than in summer due to increase in
humidity.
The compound of a metal from which the metal can be extracted economically is called an
ore.
The technology of extraction of metals from their ores and refining them to required form
is called metallurgy.
The unwanted impurities present in the ore are called gangue.
The process of heating the ore just below its melting point in the presence of air is called
roasting.
The process of heating the ore just below its melting point in the absences of air is called
calcination.
44.
The substance that is added to the ore before heating with a purpose of removing certain
unwanted impurities is called flux.
The substance formed by the combination of impurities like sand is called slag.
47.
48.
49.
53.
54.
45.
46.
50.
51.
52.
C15: Metals
RT I B
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
169
Iron pillar near Qutab Minar in Delhi has not got rusted till now due to coating of Fe 3 O 4 on
its surface.
Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.
Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.
The non metal present in stainless steel is carbon.
*****
Define e.m.f
2.
3.
4.
P16
The energy required to maintain potential difference between the ends of a conductor is called
electro motive force (e.m.f)
The phenomenon in which electro motive force (emf) is induced in the circuit when the
magnetic field linked with a circuit changes is called electromagnetic induction.
Faraday wound a long copper wire on a cardboard cylinder. He wound twine between the
turns and placed calico cloth between the layers. He moved a pole of bar magnet
quickly into the coil. The deflection in the galvanometer indicated electric current in the
coil. When the magnet was at rest inside the coil, no electricity was produced. When he
pulled the magnet out of the coil, the galvanometer deflected in the opposite direction.
The amount of deflection, increased with increase in the speed of the magnet.
This experiment shows that magnetic field can produce electricity
5.
Give reason: In the experiment conducted by Faraday the induced electric current
was not DC.
The deflection in the galvanometer was to one side when the magnet was pushed in and
the deflection was to opposite side when the magnet was taken out. Hence it was AC and
not DC.
6.
7.
8.
Can a static magnet induce an e.m.f in a stationary coil of wire? Give reasons.
9.
No, when both coil and magnet are stationary, the magnetic field linked with the coil
remains constant. Only when the magnetic field linked with the coil changes, current is
produced.
Induced e.m.f in a coil increases with increase in:
a) the number of turns of the coil,
b) the strength of the magnetic field
11.
12.
13.
What should be the angle between the thumb (main) finger and the central finger in
Flemings rule? What does each finger indicate?
The angle between the thumb and the central finger must be 90o. Fore finger indicates
direction of magnetic field, thumb indicates direction of mechanical force / motion of
conductor and the central finger indicates the direction of induced current or electric
current.
14.
15.
16.
17.
What is an AC dynamo?
The three devices which work on the principle of electromagnetic induction are:
b) Transformer c) Induction coil
18.
Working: When the coil is made to rotate in clockwise direction, the magnetic field linked
with the coil changes. This induces an electric current in the coil ABCD. During the first
half of the rotation, the current flows along ABCD R 1 B 1 B 2 . During the second half of the
rotation current is induced in the coil along DCBA R2 B 2 B 1 .
19.
20.
What an armature?
21.
The coil of insulated copper wire wound over a core of soft iron is called armature.
a) Bicycle dynamo: The friction between moving tyre and the cylindrical head of the
armature.
b) Hydro-electric power station: Turbines rotate by the flow of water.
c) Nuclear power reactor: Turbines rotate by the flow of steam.
d) Windmills: Turbine rotate by the force of wind.
What is the voltage and the frequency of the A.C source supplied to our homes and
industries?
The voltage range of domestic AC is 230 to 250 volts.
24.
25.
26.
What is a DC dynamo?
27.
1. Alternating current is used in domestic appliances like lamps, heaters, fans, ovens,
radio etc.
2. It is used to produce required frequency of radio waves for radio and T.V transmission.
Induced current is maximum when the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the plane of the
coil.
Induced current is minimum when the plane of the coil is parallel to the plane of the coil.
A dynamo that produces a "direct current" is called DC dynamo.
When the coil is made to rotate in the clock wise direction, the magnetic field linked with
the coil changes and induces an electric current in the coil ABCD. During the first half of
the rotation, current flows along ABCD S 1 B 1 L B 2 . During the second half of the rotation
of the coil, current is induced in the coil in the direction DCBA S 2 B 1 L B 2. Since the
current flows in the same direction in both the cycles this current is called direct current.
Electromagnetic Induction
28.
29.
30.
Give reason: Split rings are used instead of slip rings to construct DC dynamo
31.
What should be the type of source of electric current to get electric current of
constant magnitude?
Split rings make the current to flow in the same direction in the external circuit in both
cycles.
Direct current
32.
What is a commutator?
33.
The two half rings or split rings used to produce current in the same direction in a DC
dynamo is called commutator.
In electrolysis the ionisation of the electrolyte takes place where the positive and negative
charges move towards opposite electrodes. But if we pass an alternating current the
Electromagnetic Induction
polarity of the electrodes will be continuously changing and the ions will not be attracted
toward any particular electrode resulting in no ionisation. Hence electrolysis cannot take
place with alternating current.
34.
DC dynamo
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
An electric motor is a device that converts electric energy into mechanical energy.
An electric motor utilizes the magnetic effect of current. It works on the principle that a
conductor carrying current in a magnetic field experiences a mechanical force.
If the first three fingers of the left hand are held mutually perpendicular to each other such
that the finger points in the direction of magnetic filed, the middle finger points in the
direction of current, then the thumb points in the direction of mechanical force acting on
the conductor.
Electric fans, electric mixer, electric grinder, washing machine work on AC source.
Dynamo
1) It converts mechanical energy into electric
current.
Motor
1) It converts electrical energy into
mechanical energy.
Electromagnetic Induction
2) The coil is rotated in an electric field by an
external force. It induces an electric current
of the coil of the motor.
41.
42.
The number of rotations of the coil in one second determines the frequency of a AC
generator.
43.
In an AC dynamo, the speed at which the coil rotates is doubled. How would this
affect a) the frequency of output voltage b) the maximum output voltage?
a) Frequency is doubled
b) Maximum output voltage is doubled.
45.
46.
A cyclist riding a cycle fitted with a dynamo to a tyre gets bright light in the bulb
connected, when he pedals fast. Why?
More magnetic lines of force change with respect to the coil, leading to more current being
produced.
47.
Give reason: Stationary coil and stationary magnet cannot produce induced electric
current.
An emf is induced in the coil only when there is relative motion between the coil and the
magnet.
48.
What is a transformer?
49.
50.
Electromagnetic Induction
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
A transformer which decreases the input voltage of the AC source is called step down
transformer.
What are primary and secondary coil in a transformer?
The coil which is connected to input source is called primary coil. The coil which is
connected to the output source is called secondary coil.
Mention the factors on which the magnitude of the e.m.f induced in the transformer
depends.
1) E.m.f in the primary coil
2) Number of turns in the primary coil
Write the relationship between the voltage and number of turns of primary and
secondary coils of a transformer.
=
57.
Write the relationship between the Current and voltage in primary and secondary
coils of a transformer.
=
=
58.
59.
If an AC source of 250 volts has to be stepped down to 10 volts, what should be the
turns ratio of the primary coil and secondary coil?
Step Up Transformer
It is used to increase the AC voltage
Primary coil has less number of turns then
that of secondary coil
Primary coil is thicker than that of the
secondary coil
The turns ratio Ns/Np > 1
Electromagnetic Induction
60.
A primary of 800 turns is connected to a 220V AC supply and the secondary has 8
turns. What will be the output voltage?
61.
62.
The input and output voltages of a transformer are 220V and 44V respectively. Find
the turns ratio.
63.
A transformer lowers e.m.f from 220 volts to 12 volts. If the number of turns in
primary is 8800, how many turns are in secondary coil?
64.
Applying e.m.f to primary coil is 210V. If the number of turns in primary coil is 200
turns and that of in secondary is 20 turns then find the output voltage. Name the
transformer.
Electromagnetic Induction
65.
If the primary of a transformer has 10 turns and the secondary of the transformer
has 200 turns. What type of transformer is it? Express mathematical form related to
this.
It is a step up transformer.
66.
Name the device you would use to convert 200 V AC to 15V AC.
67.
Name the parts labelled A and B. What is the material of this part? Is this
transformer a step-up or step-down? Give reason.
68.
69.
70.
71.
Induction coil is a device which is used to obtain high D.C voltage from a low voltage DC
source.
Briefly explain the construction and working of an induction coil.
Construction: An induction coil consists of a primary P having few turns of thick insulated
copper wire wound over a soft iron core connected to a battery. It also has a secondary
coil S of larger number turns wound over the primary coil. It has a make & break
arrangement.
Working: When a direct current flows in the primary, the core C gets magnetized and
attracts the head of the switch M. The circuit breaks and current in the primary stops. C
gets demagnetized and H comes back. The process repeats. During the make break of
the circuit, large e.m.f is induced in the secondary coil.
Draw a neat diagram of an induction coil and label the parts.
: Electromagnetic Induction
72.
a) Commutator: It is used to alter the direction of the current in me coil after every half rotation.
b) Carbon brushes: it is used to supply a continuous current to the rotating coil through the
commutator.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
When a current carrying conductor experiences highest mechanical force, the angle
o
between the direction of the conductor and the magnetic field is 90 .
The relation between the directions of electric current in magnetic field and the
mechanical force acting on the conductor is given by Flemings left hand rule.
In a conductor, a changing magnetic field linking a conductor induces electromagnetic
force.
The number of times direction of electric current changes when the armature of an AC
dynamo makes five cycles is ten.
7.
A device which works on the principle that a current carrying conductor experiences a
mechanical force in a magnetic field is electric motor.
The SI unit of electro motive force is volt.
9.
10.
11.
The current that changes its direction every half rotation is called Alternating current.
The type of electric current we get in our home is Alternating current.
The frequency of alternating current we get in our home is 50Hz or 50 cycles.
8.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
The type of current required for depositing copper on cathode during electrolytic refining of
copper is direct current.
The frequency of the alternating current is the same as the frequency with which
armature rotates.
In a bicycle dynamo the friction between moving tyre and the cylindrical head of the
armature make the armature rotate.
In nuclear power reactor, the turbines rotate by the flow of steam.
In AC dynamo, the magnitude of induced current is zero when the plane of the coil is
parallel to the direction of magnetic field.
In AC dynamo, the magnitude of induced current is maximum when the plane of the coil
is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field.
The conversion of energy in a motor is electrical energy to mechanical energy.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
Electromagnetic Induction
A transformer which decreases the input voltage of the AC source is called step down
transformer.
The coil which is connected to input source is called primary coil.
The coil which is connected to the output source is called secondary coil.
The magnitude of the emf induced in the secondary coil of a transformer depends on emf
of primary / number of turns in primary / number of turns in the secondary / core material.
NS
is called turns ratio of the transformer.
NP
The number of turns in the primary of a step up transformer is less than that of the
secondary.
The number of turns in the primary of a step down transformer is more than that of the
secondary.
The device which is used to obtain high D.C voltage from a low voltage DC source is
called induction coil.
*****
P17
11--
1.
What is electronics?
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Electronics is a field of physics and engineering dealing with the design and application of
electronic devices.
Substances that allow electric current to pass through them are called conductors.
Example: Metals like copper, aluminium etc.
Substances that do not allow electric current to pass through them are called insulators.
Example: Plastic, rubber, wood, glass etc.
Mobile phone, Laptop, tablet, computers, ultra sound scanner, X-ray etc.
Electronics has influenced communications, medical science, laser technology, nano
technology etc.
Substances that have conductivity between that of conductors and insulators are called
semiconductors. Example: Silicon, Germanium
Conductors
Insulators
Resistance is low
8.
9.
10.
Silicon has 4 valence electrons. Each atom forms 4 covalent bonds with its four
neighbouring atoms. At room temperature, the electrons are bound to the atom and are
not free. Hence semiconductors behave as insulators at room temperature.
Semiconductors require a small amount of energy to break the covalent bond to set the
electron free. Thus as the temperature increases, the number of electrons dissociated
from their atoms increases. Thus semiconductors behave as conductors.
Give reason:
a) 14th group electrons are semiconductors except carbon.
The valence electrons have a low energy that they cannot become free by absorbing
normal energy from the surroundings.
P17: Electronics
Silicon and germanium have same 4 valence electrons but silicon can be used at higher
temperatures, cheaper and abundantly available.
11.
12.
13.
14.
When an electron is detached from the co-valent bond, it leaves a vacancy which behaves
like a positive charge. This vacancy is called a hole.
A semiconductor in which the number of holes and electrons are equal is called intrinsic or
pure semiconductor.
A semiconductor whose conductivity is enhanced by addition of minute traces of
impurities is called doped or extrinsic semiconductor.
Intrinsic semiconductor
Extrinsic semiconductor
15.
16.
17.
18.
When a small amount of a penta valant impurity like antimony, arsenic or phosphorous is
added to a tetra valant element like Silicon or Germanium, four out of five electrons of
each impurity atoms forms a bond with the nearest silicon atom. The fifth electron is free
and acts as current carrier. The impurity added donates an electron to the semiconductor
and becomes an n-type semiconductor. In an n-type semiconductor the majority charge
carriers are electrons.
P17: Electronics
19.
20.
When a small amount of a trivalent impurity like Boron, Indium, Aluminium or Gallium is
added to a tetra valant element like Silicon or Germanium, three electrons of each
impurity atoms forms a bond with the nearest silicon atom. The fourth bond remains
incomplete which has a deficiency of one electron. This results in the creation of a hole.
This hole attracts electrons from the neighbouring covalent bond. The impurity atom
accepts electron from the semiconductor and becomes n-type semiconductor. In an ntype semiconductor the majority charge carriers are holes.
n-type semiconductor
p-type semiconductor
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
A diode is a single crystal of semiconducting material which is doped one side with a
donor impurity and the other side with acceptor impurity.
The junction that is obtained when a p-type semiconductor and an n-type semiconductor
are kept in contact is called p-n junction.
The potential difference that is established due to the diffusion of electrons and holes
across the boundary in the p-n junction is called junction voltage. The junction potential is
0.7v for Silicon and 0.3v for Germanium.
The thin region around the junction containing immobile positive and negative charges is
called depletion region.
When an external source of e.m.f is connected to a p-n junction, it is said to be biased.
The external voltage applied to make p-n junction biased is called bias voltage.
28.
0+ 0-+ +
- ...
+0 <-0
e- - +- +0...e
P17: Electronics
29.
The external voltage over comes the junction potential and provides an easy path for the
flow of charges across the junction. Hence it offers low resistance.
When is a p-n junction said to be reverse biased or what is meant by reverse
biasing of p-n junction? How does it affect resistance?
When the positive terminal of a cell is connected to n-side and negative terminal to the pside of a p-n junction then it is said to be reverse biased. It offers high resistance.
'----11
-
30.
+
Why does a reversed biased diode offer high resistance?
31.
32.
The charge carriers are repelled from the junction and no current flows through the
junction. Thus the diode offers a high resistance.
In reverse bias there is a small flow of current due to minority charge carries electrons in p
region and holes in n region.
33.
34.
What is a rectifier?
35.
36.
37.
Reverse biasing
The two types of rectifier are: a) Half wave rectifier b) Full wave rectifier.
Write the circuit symbol of a diode.
Electronics
o~~~P--..JN~~~~~o
Anode
38.
Cathode
a) Diode has a p-type semiconductor at one end and a n-type semiconductor on the
other end.
b) It can be biased by connecting to an external source of e.m.f
c) It may be forward biased or reverse biased.
d) It allows current to pass through in one direction only.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
Transistor is the short form of transfer resistor. It is a device having three terminal
semiconductor. A transistor has two ends regions called emitter and collector. The middle
is called base.
a) Emitter: It is of moderate size and heavily doped. It emits large number of majority
carriers for the flow of current through the transistor.
b) Base: It is the central region of the transistor. It is very thin and lightly doped. It
regulates the flow of charges from emitter to collector.
c) Collector: It is moderately doped and larger in size compared to emitter. It collects a
major portion of majority carriers supplied by the emitter.
a) Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT)
b) Field Effect Transistor (FET)
45.
Emitter base junction is forward biased while collector base junction is reverse biased.
: Electronics
A small change in the input signal (voltage) results a large change in the output signal
(voltage).
46.
Draw the circuit diagram of a npn transistor amplifier or common emitter amplifier.
47.
48.
pnp transistor
49.
50.
b) It is used in oscillator.
c) It is used in switching circuits.
What is an oscillator?
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
Electronics
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
The total current in the semiconductor is the sum of electric current due to flow of
electrons and the flow of holes.
In a pure/intrinsic semiconductor the number of electrons and holes are always equal.
The impurities added to pure semiconductor to enhance the conductivity are called
dopants.
Dopants are added to pure semiconductors to enhance their conductivity.
13.
14.
18.
15.
16.
17.
19.
20.
21.
22.
Electronics
A single crystal of semiconducting material which is doped one side with a donor impurity
and the other side with acceptor impurity is called p-n junction or semiconductor diode.
The junction potential is 0.7v for Silicon.
23.
24.
The thin region around the junction containing immobile positive and negative charges is
called depletion region.
The process of connecting an external source of e.m.f to a p-n junction is called biasing.
The external voltage applied to make p-n junction biased is called bias voltage.
28.
29.
A device which allows current to pass in one direction only is called rectifier.
The arrow mark in the circuit symbol of a diode represents conventional flow of current.
25.
26.
27.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
The type of diode used in display units of electric & electronic devices is Light Emitting
Diode.
A small change in input signal of a transistor results in a large change in output signal.
The correct relation between current in emitter (I E ), current in base (IB ) and current in
collector (I C ) is I E = I B + I C .
The device used to produce electric oscillations of desired frequency is called oscillator.
The property by which certain materials show almost zero resistance at a very low
temperature is called superconductivity.
The resistance of mercury drops abruptly to zero at 4.2K.
The scientist from Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore who has done a remarkable work
in the field of superconductivity is Professor C.N.R.Rao.
*****
C18
What happens when a balloon with little air is tied to the mouth of a bottle with hot
water? Why?
The balloon increases in size because temperature increases kinetic energy of gas
molecules of balloon. This increases the random movement of gas molecules. Hence the
volume increases gradually.
3.
4.
5.
6.
T or V= KT
V1
T1
K ...........(1)
Similarly V 2 = KT 2 or
V2
T2
K ...........(2)
V1
T1
V2
T2
If the temperature is reduced to one-half, the volume would also be reduced to one-half.
9.
What is the relationship between volume and temperature of gases when pressure
is kept constant?
Volume of a fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
10.
Behaviour of gases
191
Give reason:
a) Soda bottles are often labelled store in cool and dry place.
The carbon dioxide filled in soda bottles on exposure to heat, expands because the gas
inside the bottle expands as temperature rises.
b) Balloons pops out during hot summer more frequently than in winter.
As the temperature increases in summer, the volume of the gas filled in balloon also
increases which makes the balloons to pop out.
c) During winter football filled with air reduces to its original size when taken
outdoors.
When football is taken out, its temperature decreases so the volume to gas filled also
decreases.
11.
Why are the air bubbles smaller in size in lower layers but grows bigger as they rise
up when water is boiled?
Lower layers of water exert a lot of pressure on air bubbles. Hence they are smaller in
size. But the pressure decreases as bubbles rise to the top. Hence they grow bigger.
12.
13.
At constant temperature, the volume of a given mass of dry gas is inversely proportional
to its pressure.
If V is the volume of a certain mass of gas, under pressure P at constant temperature then
according to Boyles law,
1
P
V Kx
PV K
1
P
14.
Give reason: When you exert pressure on air pillow, its size gets reduced.
15.
16.
If P 1 is the initial pressure, V 1 is the initial volume, P 2 is the final volume and V 2 is
the final volume of a gas. Write the he relation between them.
The volume of air filled in the air pillow decreases as we increase the pressure.
The product of the volume and pressure of a given mass of dry gas is a constant.
P 1 V 1 = P 2 V 2 = constant
17.
Give reasons:
a) Deep sea fishes die when suddenly brought to surface.
The pressure at the bottom of the sea is more, but the pressure at the surface is less. So
due to low pressure the fish dies.
Behaviour of gases
192
b) Scuba divers life is under threat when they suddenly come to the surface
quickly.
As a diver goes deeper underwater, that pressure begins to increase. With the
increase in pressure volume decreases, nitrogen gas begins absorbing into the
diver's blood. When the diver begins his ascent, these gas molecules begin to
expand back to their normal volume. With a slow ascent, or through the use of a
depressurization chamber, those gasses can work their way back out of the
bloodstream as they return to their normal volume.
c) Balloons pop when squeezed.
18.
a) Deep sea fishes die when suddenly brought to surface due to low pressure.
b) Scuba divers life is under threat when they suddenly come to surface quickly.
c) It is used in daily life situations like breathing, filling cheeks with air, filling air to vehicle
tyres.
d) We feel pain in the ears when in an aeroplane during take off or landing.
19.
20.
Give reason:
a) Burning of kerosene does not produce much smell but when the burning ceases,
it produces strong smell.
The random movement of gaseous molecules from the region of higher concentration to
the region of lower concentration is known as diffusion.
When kerosene is burnt, only few molecules diffuse with air after combustion. But when
the burning ceases the unburnt hot vapours of kerosene enters into air and strong smell is
got.
b) Smell of hot food reaches faster then that of cold food.
Smell of hot food reaches faster because rate of diffusion is faster. Cold food diffuses
slowly.
21.
ehaviour of gases
193
22.
As HCl gas is denser than ammonia gas they diffuse slowly. Lighter ammonia vapours
move with more velocity and both gases react and produce dense white fumes of NH4Cl
near the HCl cotton plug end.
When does diffusion of gases takes place?
23.
24.
25.
26.
Diffusion of gases takes place when the gases do not react with one another.
The rate of diffusion of a gas is the volume of gas diffusing per unit time.
The rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its density.
Write the mathematical form of Grahams law of diffusion.
or r K
or k
r d
r K
But density
r
m
v
or r
mass(m)
volume(v)
k
v
m
27.
28.
29.
Methyl Isocyanate which is produced by the chemical combination of phosgene gas and
methyl cyanide.
Give reason:
a) During the Bhopal gas tragedy, cockroaches, ants and mosquitoes survived.
Methyl Isocyanate is a gas denser than air. Hence it was unable diffuse in the crevices.
So these animals survived.
b) When there is L.P.G leakage, one is advised to open all doors and windows.
When the doors and windows are opened the rate of diffusion of the LPG with air
molecules is faster. Hence any damage by explosion can be prevented.
30.
Behaviour of gases
31.
194
5
If the product of pressure and volume of a gas is 15x10 and if the pressure is
5
1.5x10 pa. Find the volume in litres. (At constant temperature)
32.
5
If the pressure of a gas is 2.5x10 Pa and the volume of a gas is 6 litres then find
the constant. (At constant temperature)
33.
5
If the volume and the product of a gas are 5 and 15x10 find the pressure of the
gas. (At constant temperature)
34.
The volume of the gas found to be at a pressure of 2500pa when the pressure was
decreased by 500pa the gas occupied a volume of 2400 litres. Calculate the initial
volume occupied by the gas before the change was done at constant temperature.
Behaviour of gases
35.
195
About 6 litres of oxygen gas is collected at 300K. If for a particular use, the volume
has to be reduced to
1
of its original volume, find the temperature to which the gas
3
36.
A balloon has a volume of 2500ml on a day when the temperature is 30C. If the
temperature at night falls to 10C, what will be the volume of the balloon if the
pressure remains constant?
37.
When 50 litres of oxygen at 20C is compressed to 5 litres, what must the new
temperature be to maintain constant pressure?
Under constant pressure degree rise in temperature, the volume of gas increases by
1
273
Behaviour of gases
196
5.
6.
7.
At constant temperature, the volume of a given mass of dry gas is inversely proportional
to it pressure is Boyles law.
3.
4.
8.
9.
10.
11.
V2
T1
V2
.
T2
At constant temperature, the volume of a given mass of dry gas is inversely proportional
to it pressure.
12.
14.
15.
16.
13.
17.
18.
19.
The random movement of gaseous molecules from the region of higher concentration to a
region of lower concentration is known as diffusion.
The rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its density is
Grahams law of diffusion.
The rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its density.
v
.
m
20.
21.
22.
*****
2.
B19
Plants which are grown and cared in the fields, to serve as food or as a source of any food
product and harvested seasonally are called food crop plants.
How are crop plants classified? Give example for each.
Crop plants are classified on the basis of the products obtained into cereals
Crop type
1.
2.
3.
Cereals
Pulses
Spices
Example Additionalexamples
Peas, dal
turmeric, garlic, cloves
Potato
groundnut, yam
4.
Beverages
Coffee tea, coco
5.
Oil crops
Ground nut coconut, olive, corn
6. Sugar crops Sugar cane beetroot
7. Fibre crops
Cotton jute, flax, hemp
8. Plantation crops Coconut banana, rubber, cashew
9.
Root crops
Carrot raddish, onion
4.
5.
6.
Food crops are classified into two types based on the season of cultivation or harvesting.
They are a) Kharif crops 2) Rabi crops.
The crops that are raised in rainy season and harvested at the end of monsoon season
(during September and October) are called Kharif crops. Ex: Rice, maize, pea, groundnut
The crops that are raised in winter season and harvested in the summer (during March &
April) are called Rabi crops. Ex: Wheat, barley, mustard
Kharif crop
7.
Rabi crop
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
The aim of conventional plant breeding is crossing of two closely related plants to
combine the favourabletraits from both the plants and eliminate their unwanted traits.
The term variety describes a group of plants similar in their gene composition but different
in a few characteristics.
a) Selection
b) Hybridization
c) Polyploidy
d) Induced mutation
Selection is the process where a breeder selects from a population of plants having
desirable characteristics. It is the most ancient and basic procedure.
Hybridization is a technique of plant breeding that brings together desired traits through
cross pollination.
The three types of hybridization are:
a) Intervarietal hybridization
b) Interspecific hybridization
c) Intergeneric hybridization
14.
15.
16.
17.
Inter-generic hybridization
18.
19.
20.
21.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
Tissue culture is the practice of growing an entire plant from a single cell or tissue under
aseptic, laboratory conditions.
Define totipotency.
31.
33.
34.
The process in which a specific gene responsible for desired trait is selected and
introduced directly into the new plant variety is called genetic modification.
The plants in which a specific gene responsible for desired trait is selected and introduced
directly into the new plant variety are called genetically modified or transgenic plants.
Merits of transgenic plants:
a) Crops are more productive and have a larger yield.
b) Transgenic plants can offer more nutrition and flavour.
c) A possibility that they could eliminate allergy causing properties in some foods.
d) Crops can have resistance to pests, weeds and disease.
e) Crops are more capable of surviving in regions with poor soil or adverse climates.
f) Crops are more environment friendly as they require less herbicides and pesticides.
g) Foods are more resistant and stay ripe for longer so they can be shipped long
distances or kept on shop shelves for longer periods.
h) Crops can be grown on small part of land.
35.
36.
37.
The DNA which is used to transfer the desired gene isolated from another cell into a new
host is called carrier DNA or vector DNA.
Give examples of some genetically modified plants.
No.
Traits/products
Example
Herbicide resistant
Virus resistant
Pest resistant
Nitrogen fixation
Leguminous plants
38.
39.
What is hydroponics?
40.
41.
42.
44.
45.
The main disadvantage growing plats by hydroponics is that it leads to rapid plant death.
The practice of growing plants where the roots of a plant are either continuously or
discontinuously kept in an environment saturated with fine drops of mineral nutrients.
Plants are grown in a green chamber with excellent aeration. The roots hang in air.
Nutrient solutions are sprayed frequently.
46.
47.
Give reason: hydroponics and aeroponics methods are important for space
research organisations
Hydroponics and aeroponics methods are significant for space research organizations in
developing special kind of food for astronauts. Mist is easier to handle in zero gravity
situations than liquids in zero gravity situations.
48.
Aeroponics
49.
50.
51.
The technique of growing plants on roof top in urban areas where sufficient space is not
available is called roof-top gardening.
Precautions must be taken to prevent the leakage of water from roof due to seepage of
water.
Measures must be taken to enable the roof to bear the additional weight of plants. And
soil.
In urban areas where sufficient space is not available for growing plants, roof-top garden
helps.
a) Roof-top gardens increase access to safe outdoor green space.
b) It improves air quality due to increased absorption of carbon dioxide.
c) It provides habitat for butterflies and birds.
g) Rooms under roof-top garden are 3 to 4 degree Celsius cooler than the surrounding
temperature.
52.
The various aspects related to feeding, breeding, caring and sheltering of animals in
service of mankind is called animal husbandry.
53.
Define livestock.
54.
Live stock is a collective term used to describe animals domesticated by man for various
uses.
Cattle, pig, sheep, goat, fowl and duck are common examples of livestock.
On the basis of their utility, livestock is classified into:
Utility
Examples
55.
Sheep, camel
b) Increasing the production of milk, meat, egg, wool and other products.
c) Improving the quality of products.
d) Improving the resistance to diseases.
e) Improving the span of productivity.
f) Increasing the rate of reproduction.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
The main approaches for animal breeding are in-breading, out-crossing and hybridization.
In-breeding is a method of animal breeding in which male and female individuals of the
same species among the breeds.
Out-crossing is a method of animal breeding in which superior male of one breed is
crossed with superior females of another breed.
Hybridization is a method of animal breeding in which superior male of one species is
mated with superior female of a different species.
In-breeding
Out-crossing
Genetic disorders are common in off springs Desirable qualities of two breeds appear
in the off springs.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
The substances which increase the shelf-life and nature of food are collectively known as
food additives.
Food additives are classified into
a) Natural additives b) Man-made additives c) Artificial additives d) Antioxidants
e) Colourants
f) Flavourants
g) Sweeteners
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
The substances which prevent food containing fat or oil from developing a foul smell are
called antioxidants.
72.
73.
The substances which restore colour lost during processing of food are called colourants.
74.
The substances that are used to add a particular taste are called flavourants.
What are sweeteners?
75.
76.
Substances that are added to increase the intensity of sweetness are called sweeteners.
Antioxidant
Colourant
Give reason:
a) Food additives are widely used in modern life.
Food additives are widely used to increase the shelf-life and nature of foods.
b) Addition of artificial food additives should be minimized.
Food additives if used regularly can cause health problems.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
The crops that are raised in rainy season and harvested at the end of monsoon season
are called Kharif crops.
The process where a breeder selects from a population of plants having desirable
characteristics is called Selection.
Variety describes a group of plants similar in their gene composition but different in a few
characteristics.
Hybridization is a technique of plant breeding that brings together desired traits through
cross pollination.
The technique in which crop species are mated with a related species is called
interspecific hybridization.
The technique in which different varieties of the same species are mated to obtain a new
variety is called intervarietal hybridization.
12.
13.
A technique in which two members of two related genera are mated to get a totally new
kind of plant is called intergeneric hybridization.
An example of a crop grown by intervarietal hybridization is wheat.
An example of a crop grown by interspecific hybridization is sugarcane.
17.
18.
14.
15.
16.
19.
20.
24.
The practice of growing an entire plant from a single cell or tissue in aseptic, laboratory
conditions is called tissue culture.
21.
22.
23.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
The technique used to obtain genetically modified plants is called induced mutations.
Genetic changes can be brought in a plant by using certain agents called mutagens.
The plants which have been genetically changed are called mutants.
The plants in which a specific gene responsible for desired trait is selected and introduced
directly into the new plant variety are called genetically modified or transgenic plants.
The practice of growing plants in mineral nutrient solutions in water, without soil is called
hydroponics.
In hydroponics, soil is not required.
34.
35.
The practice of growing plants where the roots of a plant are either continuously or
discontinuously kept in an environment saturated with fine drops of mineral nutrients is
called aeroponics.
An example of a plant grown by aeroponics is potato/ tomato/leafy vegetables.
Hydroponics and aeroponics are significant in the field of space science.
37.
Roof-top gardens improve air quality due to increased absorption of carbon dioxide.
36.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
The technique of growing plants on roof top in urban areas where sufficient space is not
available is called roof-top gardening.
The various aspects related to feeding, breeding, caring and sheltering of animals in
service of mankind is called animal husbandry.
The collective term used to describe animals domesticated by man for various uses is
livestock.
The method of animal breeding in which male and female individuals of the same species
are mated is called in-breeding.
The method of animal breeding in which superior male of one breed is crossed with
superior females of another breed is called out-crossing.
Substances used to improve the nature of food with an increase in its shelf-life is called
food additive.
The method of animal breeding in which superior male of one species is mated with
superior female of a different species is called hybridization.
Animals in which a specific gene responsible for desired trait is selected and introduced
directly into the new animal variety are called transgenic animals.
The substances which increase the shelf-life and nature of food are collectively known as
food additives.
RT I B
51.
52.
54.
The additives which are produced synthetically and not found in nature are called
artificial additives.
53.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
207
The additives which are synthetic copies of naturally occurring substances are called man
made additives.
The substances which prevent the growth of microorganisms are called preservatives.
Food additives used to prevent the spoilage of food are called pre
The substances which prevent food containing fat or oil from developing a foul smell are
called antioxidants.
The substances which restore colour lost during processing of food are called colourants.
The substances that are used to add a particular taste are called flavourants.
The substances that are added to increase the intensity of sweetness are called
sweeteners.
The substances which prevent the growth of microorganisms that cause the spoilage of
food are called preservatives.
The substances which increase the shelf life of food is called preservative.
*****
B20
1. What is irritability?
Irritability is the unique property of all living organisms to respond to changes in the
environment.
2.
3.
4.
5.
If an earthworm is touched, it moves away from the place. Plants grow towards the light.
The special chemicals which bring about coordination in plants are called plant hormones.
The movement of plants in response to various stimuli is called tropism.
7.
Give examples show that not all responses in plants are slow.
The leaflets of touch me not plant (Mimosa Pudica) get folded immediately on touching.
8.
9.
10.
Plant hormones are also called phytohormones. They are organic compounds which are
produced by tissues that regulate plant growth and development.
Phytohormones are organic compounds which regulate plant growth and development in
plants. Hence they are called growth regulators also.
a) Plant growth promoters ex: Auxins, Gibberellins, cytokinins
b) Plant growth inhibitors ex: Abscisic acid, Ethylene
11.
12.
209
Plant growth regulators promote cell division, cell enlargement/elongation and cell
differentiation.
They induce photropic movement of shoot system.
13.
Mention the two ways of transferring information from one part of the body to
another.
a) Sending chemical signals through the blood
What is a gland? Which are the two types of glands in our body?
A gland is an organ made up of cells which are specialised for secretion of particular
chemical substances.
The two types of glands are glands with ducts (exocrine glands) and glands without ducts
(endocrine glands).
15.
16.
17.
The glands that discharge their secretions through the ducts to their target organs are
called exocrine glands. Ex: Salivary gland, pancreas.
The glands that discharge their secretions directly into blood stream are called endocrine
glands. Example: Pituitary gland, Thyroid gland
18.
19.
20.
Endocrine glands
The chemical substances secreted by endocrine glands for the control and co-ordination
of various activities of the body are called hormones.
What are target organs?
The organs on which the hormones act, control or co-ordinate are called target organs.
Why are hormones called chemical messengers?
Hormones are chemical substances that carry stimuli from one part of the body to
another.
21.
22.
210
Pituitary gland is a tiny gland situated at the base of the brain. The functions of pituitary
gland are:
1) It influences the rate of both physical and mental growth of the body.
2) It controls and regulates the production of hormones in other glands.
a) stimulates the secretion of hormones from thyroid gland.
b) regulates the secretion of hormones from adrenal gland.
c) controls the synthesis of melanin in the skin
c) stimulates secretion of milk from mammary gland.
d) excretion of water from the kidneys.
Mention the hormones secreted by pituitary gland and state their function.
Name of hormone
Growth hormone or
(Somato Trophic Hormone)
Thyroid Stimulating
Hormone
TSH
ACTH
Prolaction
Vasopressin
Oxytocin
Follicle Stimulation
Hormone
FSH
Leutinising Hormone
25.
STH
Melanocyte Stimulating
Hormone
24.
Short
form
MSH
LH
Function
211
26.
Somato Trophic Hormone which is secreted by pituitary gland regulates both physical and
mental growth. Hence it is called as growth hormone.
Why is oxytocin call Birth hormone?
27.
28.
What is gigantism?
29.
What is dwarfism?
30.
31.
32.
Give reason: Person suffering from diabetes incipidus pass large quantity of dilute
urine.
Oxytocin stimulates the constriction of uterus muscles during child birth and ejection of
milk form mammary glands. Hence it is referred to as Birth hormone.
Pituitary gland secretes many hormones which control the functioning of other endocrine
glands like thyroid gland, adrenal gland, gonads etc. Hence pituitary gland is called the
conductor of endocrine orchestra.
Gigantism is a condition of the body in which the growth rate is very high due to the over
secretion of growth hormone prior to puberty.
Dwarfism is a condition of the body in which there is retarded growth due to the under
secretion of growth hormone prior to puberty.
The disease caused in adults due to over secretion of growth hormone is called
acromegaly. The symptoms are disproportionate growth of bones particularly jaws, nose,
hands and legs.
Diabetes incipidus is a disease caused due to the low secretion of Anti Diuretic Hormone
(ADH) in the body. In this disease, the person passes large quantity of dilute urine
33.
34.
35.
Thyroid gland is located close to the throat region, below the pharynx in front of the
trachea. Thyroid gland secretes a hormone called thyroxin.
Thyroxin is composed of amino acid and iodine.
a) Thyroxin influences the rate of metabolism.
212
Thyroxin indirectly affects the growth and development of body. Hence it is called
personality hormone.
37.
Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroxin
to meet the normal requirements of the body.
Hypothyroidism leads to simple goitre, myxoedema and cretinism.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
A child is mentally retarded with defective teeth and loose wrinkled skin.
a) From which disease is the child suffering? b) What is the disease due to?
The disease caused due to deficiency of iodine in the food is called goitre. The symptoms
of goitre are abnormal enlargement of thyroid gland in the neck region.
Goitre can be prevented by providing sufficient iodine along with food and water. Using
iodized salt while cooking food can prevent goitre.
People living in coastal regions do not suffer from goitre as they use sea water and sea
food which are rich in iodine.
Goitre is a localised disease and found in areas where iodine is less in soil and water.
Hence goitre is referred to as endemic disease.
Cretinism is a disorder caused in children due to improper functioning of thyroid gland.
The symptoms are stunted growth, retarded mental development, bow legs, defective
teeth, protrusion of tongue and loose wrinkled skin.
The child is suffering from cretinism. The disease is caused in children due to improper
functioning of thyroid gland.
44.
The symptoms are low metabolic rate, loss of mental and physical vigour, thickening of
skin, low rate of heart beat.
45.
46.
The disorder caused due to over secretion of thyroxin is called hyperthyroidism. The
symptoms are high metabolic rate, protrusion of eye balls, high blood pressure, nervous
tension, irritability, profuse sweating, weight loss and fatigue.
Where are parathyroid glands located? Mention the hormone secreted. Mention the
disorder caused due to its under secretion and over secretion. State its function.
Parathyroid glands are embedded in the tissues of thyroid gland.
47.
48.
49.
213
What is the role of insulin in regulating the level of glucose in the blood?
51.
What is diabetes mellitus? What are its symptoms? How can it be controlled?
Insulin promotes the conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage in liver and muscles. It
is secreted when blood glucose levels are high.
Diabetes mellitus is a disorder or condition caused when sufficient insulin is not produced
and the glucose level in blood increases which is excreted through urine.
The symptoms of diabetes are frequent urination and thirst.
Diabetes mellitus can be controlled by administering insulin injection of suitable doses.
52.
Diabetes Insipidus
53.
Where are the adrenal glands located? Mention the parts of the adrenal gland.
54.
Name the hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex. Mention its function.
55.
The adrenal glands are located on the upper part of each kidney. Each adrenal gland has
two parts an outer cortex and inner medulla.
One of the important hormones secreted by adrenal cortex is cortisone. It regulates the
rate of metabolism and the concentration of salts in the blood.
Mention the hormones secreted by adrenal medulla.
Adrenal medulla secretes three hormones adrenaline, nor-adrenaline and dopamine.
56.
214
57.
58.
59.
Assume that you are attacked by robbers as you walk alone. At the moment you
start running at a great speed. Which hormone produced in the body is responsible
for getting that speed?
Adrenaline prepares the body to face emergency and brings co-ordination of several
events like increased heart beat, rate of respiration, dilation of pupil and other parts of the
body. Hence adrenaline is referred to as emergency hormone.
Adrenaline is secreted in excess and prepares the body to face the emergency situations.
It helps us to overcome fright (fear), fight or run away (flight). Hence it is called fright, fight
or flight hormone.
Adrenaline
60.
61.
Gonads are the sex glands. Gonads produce sex hormones after the attainment of
puberty.
a) Testis secretes the male sex hormone androgen.
63.
64.
65.
Testis secretes the male sex hormone called androgen. The most common hormone is
testosterone. The function of testosterone is to help in the appearance of masculine
characteristics at puberty.
The ovaries secrete female sex hormones called estrogens. The function of estrogen is to
help in the appearance of feminine characteristics at puberty.
Progesterone stimulates the changes in the uterus during menstrual cycle and pregnancy.
Androgens
66.
Estrogens
215
a) Nervous system controls and coordinates various activities and functions of different
organs and organ systems in the body.
b) It regulates both voluntary and involuntary activities of the body.
c) It enables us to adjust to the environment or situation.
67.
68.
69.
70.
A neuron or nerve cell is a special type of cell that is the basic, structural and functional
unit of nervous system.
Nervous system consists of receptors, effectors and conductors.
a) Receptor: the organ that receives the stimulus is called receptor. Ex: Sense organs
b) Effector: the organ that shows visible response is called effector. Ex: muscles & glands
c) Conductors: The tissues that transmit nerve impulses from all the parts of the body to
nerve centres are called conductors. Ex: nerves
The human nervous system consists of three components namely
a) Central Nervous System (CNS)
b) Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
c) Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
71.
a) The components of the central nervous system are brain and spinal cord.
b) The brain and the spinal cord are covered by three membranes namely outer
Duramater, middle Arachnoid and the inner piamater called meninges.
The space between the meninges is filled by the cerebro-spinal fluid. This fluid circulates
between the brain and the spinal cord.
72.
73.
74.
What is the advantage of Cerebro Spinal Fluid (CSF) to brain and spinal cord?
Meninges are the layers of connective tissue that surrounds the brain and spinal cord.
a) Meninges act as a cushion against bumps and jolts.
b) Cerebro-spinal fluid protects from injuries.
c) Brain is also protected by a bony case called cranium.
a) CSF protects the brain and spinal cord from injuries
b) It supplies nutrients to the nervous system.
75.
76.
77.
216
Brain is divided into three parts Fore brain, Mid brain & Hind brain.
The two major parts of the fore brain are cerebrum and Diencephalon.
c) The cerebral hemispheres are internally connected by a sheath of nerve fibres called
Corpus callasum.
d) Each hemisphere has two regions an outer cortex and an inner medulla.
e) The outer portion (cortex) contains cytons (cell body of neurons) which forms the grey
matter. The grey matter is folded into ridges to form convolutions.
f) The inner portion (medulla) of the cerebrum consists of white matter which contains
axons of the neurons.
78.
79.
The surface of cerebrum has a number of folds and ridges called convolutions.
What makes the cerebrum to have larger surface area?
80.
The surface of cerebrum has a number of folds and ridges which allows the cerebrum to
have a larger surface area.
a) Cerebrum is the seat of consciousness.
b) Cerebrum has centres for intelligence, imagination, reasoning, emotions and will power.
81.
82.
Cerebrum has centres for intelligence, imagination, reasoning, emotions, will power etc.
which takes place when a person is consciousness. Hence it is called as the seat of
consciousness.
An injury to the left cerebral hemisphere may result in paralysis of organs on the
right side. Give reason.
The nerves coming from the right side of the body are connected to the left cerebral
hemisphere.
83.
84.
85.
86.
What is diencephalon?
The parts of the brain that is below the cerebrum are together called diencephalon.
Name the two parts of the diencephalon.
The two major parts of the diencephalon are a) the upper thalamus b) the lower
hypothalamus.
State the function of thalamus.
The function of thalamus is to receive nerve impulse from the sense organs and send
them to the upper region.
State the function of hypothalamus.
217
88.
a) Mid brain is a small region of the brain made up of nerve fibres connecting cerebrum
and cerebellum.
b) It serves as a relay station for nerve impulses from hind brain to fore brain.
Name the parts of the Hind brain.
89.
90.
91.
The alcohol affects the cerebellum which is responsible for maintaining balance of the
body. It is not able to control and coordinate the movement of muscles while walking.
What are pons? Write their function.
92.
Pons form the middle part of the hind brain. It acts as a conducting medium carrying
impulse from one hemisphere of cerebellum to the other. Out of the 12 pairs of cranial
nerves that arise from the brain, 4 pairs originate from the pons.
The functions of pons are:
Medulla oblongata is the region that is located at the base of the brain. It continues as the
spinal cord.
The functions of medulla oblongata are:
a) It has centres that control the involuntary activities such as breathing, heart beat,
movement of digestive tract (swallowing, coughing, vomiting),
b) It is also involved in the secretion of enzymes
c) It maintains blood pressure.
Part of Brain
Cerebrum
Function
Cerebellum
Medulla oblongata
Thalamus
218
Hypothalamus
Pons
93.
f) 31 pairs of nerves arise from the spinal cord and their branches reach several parts
like heart, lungs, stomach etc,.
g) The spinal nerves are made up of both sensory and motor nerve fibres.
94.
95.
96.
97.
Spinal cord co-ordinates the movements of limbs and organs in the body by reflex action.
Reflex action is an automatic response to an external stimulus. The centre of reflex action
is spinal cord. The actions are independent of the brain.
Ex: a) when we touch a hot object, we withdraw out hand
b) When we step on a thorn unknowingly we withdraw our leg.
The pathway of the nerve impulse involved in reflex action is called reflex-arc.
The five distinct parts of a reflex arc are:
a) A receptor to receive stimulus (sense organs)
b) Sensory neurons to conduct the impulses from receptors to the spinal cord or the hind
brain.
c) An association neuron to transmit the impulse from sensory neuron to a motor neuron.
d) A motor neuron to pass the impulse to an effector.
e) An effector to take necessary action in response to the stimulus.
98.
99.
Stimulus
receptor
sensory neuron
Sensory nerves
Association neuron
motor neuron
Motor nerves
effector.
219
Peripheral nervous system consists of the nerves between the brain, spinal cord and
various organs. It includes 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Cranial nerves are the nerves that originate from the different parts of the brain. It
connects the sense organs, muscles and glands of the head.
Autonomic nervous system consists of a set of peripheral nerves that connect the organs
like heart, lungs and digestive tract and other internal organs.
The function of autonomic nervous system is to regulate the involuntary actions of the
body.
105. Give an example to show that sympathetic and para-sympathetic system work
opposite in function.
Sympathetic system stimulates the pupil in the eye to dilate (open) where as parasympathetic system stimulates it to constrict (close).
The organs through which we sense the objects in our environment are known as sense
organs. The five sense organs are eyes, ears, nose, tongue and skin.
107. How are the eyes protected? OR Name the accessory parts of the human eye. State
their function.
The four accessory parts of human eye are eye brows, eye lid, eye lashes and lacrymal
glands.
a) The eye brows protect the eye from small particles that fall from above the eye and
provide shade to the eyes from bright illumination.
b) The eye lids regularly spread the tears and other secretions on the eye surface to
keep it moist
c) The eye lashes prevent dust particles from the entering eyes.
d) The lacrymal gland produces tears which keep the surface of the eyes moist and wash
the dust particles.
220
Lacrymal glands are the glands present in the outer region of the upper eye lid. It
produces secretions that keeps the surface of the eyes moist and wash out dust when we
blink.
a) The wall of the eye is made up of three layers namely outer sclera, the middle
choroid and the inner retina.
b) The sclerotic layer has a bulged, transparent portion called cornea. Cornea is
protected by a thin membrane called conjunctiva.
c) The choroid has an opening in the front in the centre called pupil. The pupil has tiny
muscles arranged radially called iris.
d) A transparent bi-convex lens is located behind the iris. The lens is held in position by
ciliary muscles and suspensory ligaments.
e) The area between the cornea and the lens is filled with a fluid called aqueous
humour.
f) The space between the cornea and the lens is filled with a thick fluid called vitreous
humour.
g) The inner retina layer contains receptor cells called rods and cones.
110. Give reason: Choroid is thick and rich with blood vessels
Choroid has a layer of blood vessels which nourishes the back of the eye.
111. Which are the two fluids present in the eyeball? Mention their functions.
The area between the cornea and the lens is filled with a fluid called aqueous humour.
The space between the cornea and the lens is filled with a thick fluid called vitreous
humour.
The fluids help in refraction of light rays and maintain the shape of the eye ball.
d)
e)
f)
g)
h)
Cornea: The bulged transparent front portion of the sclera. It allows light to enter the
eyeball.
Conjunctiva: It is a thin membrane that protects the cornea.
Pupil: The tiny hole in the middle of choroid.
Iris: It is a circular contractile diaphragm in front of the crystalline lens. Its function is
to control the amount of light entering the eye. It is also responsible for the colour of
the eye.
Ciliary muscles: It is a muscle along with suspensory ligament holds the crystalline
lens in position. It helps to alter the thickness of the lens, so that the image is clearly
focussed on the retina.
Aqueous humour: The fluid that is filled in the area between the cornea and the lens.
It helps to maintain the shape of the eye ball & to keep the cornea moist.
Vitreous humour: It is a thick fluid filling the space behind the lens. It helps to maintain
the shape of the eyeball. It also helps in focussing the image clearly on the retina.
i)
j)
k)
l)
221
Rods: The receptor cells that are sensitive to dim light. They cannot distinguish
colours.
Cones: The receptor cells that are sensitive to bright light. They can distinguish
colours.
Yellow spot (Fovea): The depressed region located opposite to the pupil containing a
large number of cones where a clear sharp image is formed.
Optic nerve: The bundle of sensory nerve fibres emerging from the eye ball.
m) Blind spot: The region on the retina where the optic nerve exits the eye ball where no
image is formed. Rods and cones are absent in this region.
Blind spot
Cones
a) The light ray reflected from the object are focussed on the retina to from the image on
the retina
b) The receptor cells in the region are stimulated by photochemical reactions.
c) The receptor cells convert the stimulations into electrical impulses. The impulses pass
through the optic nerve to the visual centre in the cerebrum.
d) The impulses are interpreted in the cerebrum, resulting in vision.
116. How is the human eye able to adjust to near and far objects?
The human eye is able to adjust to near and far objects by altering the focal length of the
lens.
When we see a near by object, the muscles around the lens contract which increase the
convexity of the lens.
When we see a distant object, the muscles around the lens relax which decreases the
convexity of the lens.
The ability of the eye lens to see both near by and far away objects clearly is called
accommodation of the eye.
222
Our eyes take some time to adjust to the light in the surroundings. When we are in bright
area pupil constricts. It remains same when we enter a cinema hall and takes time to
dilate. Hence it takes some time to see objects.
b) There is no image formation at blind spot.
Blind spot is a region where the optic nerve exits the eye ball. There are no sensory cells.
Hence no image is formed.
119. Mention the common defects of the eye.
Myopia is a defect of the eye in which the person can see near by objects but cannot see
far off objects clearly. It is caused due to the bulging of the eye ball or elongation of the
eye ball.
It can be corrected by using concave lens.
In a myopic eye light falls too short from the retina. A concave lens forces light to fall on
the retina. Hence concave lens is used to correct myopia.
Hyper-metropia is a defect in which a person can see far off objects clearly but cannot see
the near-by objects clearly. It is caused due to the flattening of eye ball.
It can be corrected by using convex lens.
In a hypermetropic eye, light is focused behind the retina. A convex lens will force it to
form on the retina. Hence a convex lens is used to correct hypermetropia.
Presbyopia is a defect in which a person can see neither near-by nor far off objects
clearly. It occurs at old age due to the loss of elasticity of eye lens.
Cataract is a disorder of the eye in which the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, causing
partial or total blindness.
Diabetic retinopathy is a disorder of the eye that occurs in people suffering from diabetes.
After many years of diabetes, the blood vessels of the retina may leak, close-up or begin
to grow. This causes blood to enter the vitreous humour making it opaque.
It can be prevented by early treatment with laser beam.
223
Vitrectomy is a major surgical procedure to treat diabetic retinopathy. In this procedure the
blood that has leaked into the vitreous humour is removed and vision is restored.
128. A person is advised vitrectomy surgery. Which gland which is not functioning
properly?
Islets of Langerhans.
129. Due to what reason blood from retina would seep into vitreous hormone? What is
the treatment for this condition?
130. What is astigmatism? How can it be corrected?
Glaucoma is a disorder of the eye. The eyeball of a person suffering from glaucoma
gradually hardens. The person sees flashes of light and coloured rings around the objects.
The vision gradually decreases and leads to blindness. It occurs in persons above forty
years of age.
132. A person is not able to identify the colours in the traffic signal. What disease is he
suffering from?
The disease is called colour blindness. It is a genetic disorder in which a person is unable
to differentiate colours.
133. What are the precautions to be taken regarding the care of the eyes?
a) Do not strain your eyes by reading in dim light
b) Avoid reading books during journey on roads.
f) Wash the eyes with cold clean water atleast twice a day.
g) Consult an eye specialist in case of any problem.
134. Describe the structure of the human ear.
a) The human ear is divided into three parts namely the outer ear, the middle ear and the
inner ear.
b) The outer ear consists of pinna, auditory canal and the tympanum.
c) Pinna is a cartilageneous organ covered with skin.
d) Tympanum is an obliquely placed membrane which separates the external ear from
the middle ear.
e) The middle ear consists of three bones namely malleus, incus and stapes.
f) The middle ear is connected to the throat by an air passage called Eustachian tube.
g) The inner ear has two parts namely utriculus and sacculus. The upper part or
utriculus is connected to semi-circular canals. The lower part or sacculus is connected
to cochlea.
224
h) Cochlea has delicate structures called organ of corti, which have receptors that join to
form the auditory nerve.
135. a) What is organ of corti?
b) Name the liquids that are present in inner ear.
a) Cochlea has delicate structures called organ of corti, which have receptors that join to
form the auditory nerve.
b) The entire ear is filled with a fluid called endolymph. The inner ear is surrounded by a
fluid called perilymph.
Perilymph
a) The auditory canal has hairs at its opening to prevent tiny particles from entering the
ear.
b) The wax secreting cells on the inner lining of the auditory canal produces wax that
traps small organisms and dust.
a) Pinna: It is a cartilagenous organ covered with skin. It collects sound waves and
directs them into the auditory canal.
c) Eustachian Tube: The air passage that connects the middle ear and the throat is
called Eustachian tube. It equalizes the air pressure on either side of the ear drum.
d) Utriculus: It is the upper part of the inner ear. It is connected to three semi-circular
canals. It is concerned with the balance of the body.
e) Sacculus: It is the lower part of the inner ear. It contains appendages called Cochlea.
It also contains a delicate structure called organ of corti which forms the auditory
nerve.
139. What are the cares to be taken of the ear?
a) Hardened wax from the auditory canal should not be removed using sharp objects as
they damage the eardrum.
b) Loud noise must be avoided as they damage the eardrum.
c) Visit a doctor if there is ear ache due to infection.
d) Use hearing aid if there is a problem in hearing.
e) Small insects entering the ear can be removed by filling the external ear with salt
water.
140. Give reason:
a) A strong blow on the ears is very dangerous.
225
As it would damage the semicircular canals and cochlea. This would lead to leakage of of
fluids and sometimes even death, with ear bleeding.
b) When there is severe throat infection we normally get ear pain.
Throat infections affect the middle ear because eustachian tubes connect the middle ears
and the throat.
141. Briefly explain the structure of the human nose.
The nasal cavity is lined by olfactory epithelium. The upper part of the nasal cavity has
receptors of smell. The receptors are connected with the olfactory nerve. The olfactory
nerve carries the impulses to the brain.
The molecules from the substance escapes and are carried by the inhaled air. On
reaching the olfactory epithelium, they get dissolved in the mucus and stimulate the
receptors. The stimulations are passed through the olfactory nerve to the brain. Here it
interprets the impulses and gives the sensation of smell.
143. Why does food appear relatively tasteless when one has cold or running nose?
When you put food in your mouth, odour molecules from that food travel through the enter
nose and stimulate the olfactory receptor cells at the top of your nasal cavity, If mucus in
your nasal passages becomes too thick, air and odor molecules cannot reach the
olfactory receptor cells. Thus, the brain receives no signal identifying the odour Hence
food eaten appears tasteless.
144. Explain how a pea or a button which has got into the nasal cavity be removed. OR
What is the first aid to be provided to a person who got a pea or a button into the
nasal cavity accidentally?
If a pea or a button gets into the nasal cavity accidentally, give a pinch of snuff to the
person. It causes violent sneezing and the foreign body will be thrown out. Visit a doctor if
the above method does not work.
The tongue is covered by a mucus membrane. It has numerous tiny sensory cells called
taste buds. Taste buds are composed of a cluster of cells with receptors lying in a small
depression on the surface.
Food that is eaten mixes with saliva and enters the pores of the taste buds. They
chemically stimulate the sensory cells. These cells convert the chemical stimuli into
electrical impulses. The electric impulses pass to the brain through the sensory neuron.
The brain interprets the impulses as taste.
Types of taste
Salt
Anterior margin
Sweetness
Sour
Front
Sides
Bitter
226
Posterior
148. After relay race, Runner-A pours glucose powder into his mouth. Runner-B tastes
the glucose slowly with the tip of his tongue. Whom do you think, experiences the
sweetness most? Why?
Runner-B experiences most sweetness because the taste buds of sweetness are
distributed in the front.
Sensory receptors are distributed all over the skin which perceive the stimuli. Touch
receptors are located near the surface of the skin. Pressure receptors and pain receptors
are located deep inside the skin.
150. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the vertical section of the human eye.
151. Draw a neat diagram of the structure of human ear and label the parts.
*****
227
Define genetics.
B21
Genetics is a branch of biology which deals with a systematic study of heredity, variations
and factors responsible.
2.
Define heredity.
3.
Mention the reasons as to why Mendel selected pea plants for his experiments.
c) They give self-pollinating flowers and also it is easy to conduct cross pollination
artificially.
d) They produce large number of seeds.
e) They show contrasting heritable characters.
Stem length
Round
Wrinkled
Green
Yellow
Tall
Seed colour
4
5
5.
Character
Yellow
Grey
Inflated
Axial
Dwarf
Green
White
Constricted
Terminal
How did Mendel obtain pure or true breeding varieties of the contrasting forms of
pea plants?
Mendel obtained pure or true breeding varieties of pea plants by allowing them to self
pollinate for several generations.
6.
7.
A cross between two plants which differ in one specific character is called monohybrid
cross.
The plants obtained by Mendel by cross pollinating plants
Mendel collected the seeds of the cross pollinated plats and sowed them in the next
season. The plants obtained were called as F 1 or first filial generation.
Heredity
8.
9.
Mendel planted the F 1 generation seeds. When the plants flowered, he allowed them to
self pollinate. He collected and sowed the seeds. The plants which germinated were
called the F 2 or second filial generation.
10.
The ratio obtained in the F 2 generation by crossing of two different traits of a single
character is called monohybrid cross ratio. It is 3:1
What is meant by dominant trait/factor?
11.
12.
Give reason:
a) Tallness is called dominant factor in the F2 generation of pea plants.
The factor which expresses itself in the generations is called dominant trait/factor.
Example: In the F 2 generation of pea plants, the factor for tallness is called as dominant
factor.
The factor which remains hidden or concealed in the generations is called recessive
trait/factor. Example: In the F 2 generation, the factor for dwarfness remained hidden so it
is called recessive factor.
In the F2 generation tallness was the factor which expressed hence it is called the
dominant factor.
b) Dwarfness is called recessive factor in the F2 generation of pea plants.
In the F2 generation dwarfness was hidden or concealed, hence it is called the recessive
factor.
13.
14.
Mendel crossed a tall plant with a dwarf plant. Write a checker board/Punnet
squares to represent the result obtained in F 2 generation.
15.
Draw the checker board to represent crossing the plants grown from pure round
(RR) seeds with plants grown from pure wrinkled (rr).
When two factors responsible for a pair of contrasting forms of a single character come
together, normally one expresses itself, while the other does not.
Heredity 230
16.
What is phenotype?
17.
18.
What is genotype?
19.
20.
Genotype
21.
22.
23.
Mendel crossed a tall plant with red flowers with a dwarf plant with white flowers.
Write a checker board/Punnet squares to represent the result obtained in F 2
generation.
24.
Write the phenotype ratio with the types of plants produced in Mendels
dihybridisation experiment.
A cross between two plants which differ in two specific characters is called dihybrid cross.
The ratio obtained in the F 2 generation by crossing of two different traits of two characters
is called monohybrid cross ratio. It is 9:3:3:1
Heredity 231
The type of plants used by Mendel was Tall plant with red flowers and dwarf plants with
red flowers.
25.
The pair of factors for a given character separates in equal ratio at the time of gamete
formation during meiosis.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
The two pairs of factors separate during the formation of gametes. They do not blend but
separate into different gametes. The gametes combine together by random fusion at the
time of gamete formation.
Factors controlling separate characters normally move independent of each other during
gamete formation.
Combinations of characters which are not present in the parental forms are produced in
the next generation.
When there are two pairs of contrasting characters, the distribution of the members of
one pair into the gametes is independent of the distribution of the other pair.
When the results of hybridization experiments are similar to that of Mendels experiment
then it is called Mendelian type of inheritance.
When the results of monohybrid cross and dihybrid crosses do not follow the Mendels
principles then it is called incomplete dominance.
Carl Correns conducted hybridization experiments using the Four O clock plant. He
crossed a homozygous plant with red flowers (RR) with another homozygous plant with
white flowers (ww). The F1 generation produced all plants with only pink flowers. This was
deviation from Mendelian inheritance. This is called incomplete dominance.
31.
Name the type of plants obtained by Carl Correns experiment and write the
phenotype ratio.
Carl Correns selected Four O clock plant with red flowers and white flowers. In the F1
generation he obtained all pink flowers. In the F2 generation he obtained red, pink and
white flowers in the ratio 1:2:1.
32.
Heredity 232
F1 Generation
F2 Generation RR,
33.
34.
RW (Pink)
RW, RW,
WW
Explain why there is deviation in the F1 generation of the 4O clock plants with red
and white flowers.
Red colour is expressed only in homozygous condition and the white colour is also
expressed only in homozygous condition. But in heterozygous condition both the genes
express. Hence intermediate pink coloured flowers are produced.
35.
Heterozygous
character with both the factors same (RR) character with different factors (RW)
36.
37.
38.
What is centromere?
39.
40.
A nucleus has long, diffused and thin thread like structure called chromatin thread or
chromatin network in the nucleoplasm.
Chromosomes are made of two main substances proteins and nucleic acids.
The two parallel stands of chromosomes are called chromatids.
The chromatids are held together by centromere.
The thousands of hereditary units in the DNA molecule are called genes.
The structure of DNA molecule resembles a spirally twisted ladder called double helix. It
has a pair of polynucleotide chain running anti-parallel (run parallel to each other but with
opposite alignments) to each other.
Each polynucleotide unit consists of Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate and a nitrogenous
base.
The Deoxyribose sugar is a pentose sugar (C 5 H 10 O 5 ). Each strand of the ladder is made
up of Deoxyribose sugar and phosphate arranged alternatively.
The nitrogenous bases connect the two opposite strands like the rungs of a ladder.
Heredity 233
41.
42.
Nitrogenous bases Cytosine (C) and Thymine (T) are called pyramidines.
43.
44.
45.
Give reason: The two strands of DNA molecule are complementary to each other
but are not identical.
The four nitrogenous bases are Adenine (A), Guanine (G), Cytosine (C) and Thymine (T).
The pairing of Adenine (A) with Thymine (T) and Guanine (G) paring with Cytosine (C) is
called complimentary base pairing.
The two strands of DNA are not identical because the nitrogenous bases are different in
pairing. A purine base of one polynucleotide chain always pairs with a pyramidine base on
the other. Adenine (A) pairs with Guanine (G) and Cytosine (C) pairs with Thymine (T).
Hence the two strands of DNA are complementary.
46.
Give reason: Genetic material present in the mother cell must get doubled.
47.
48.
The daughter cells produced by cell division must receive the same genetic materials in
same quantity so as to resemble the parent cell. Hence the genetic material present in the
mother cells must be doubled.
DNA replication is the process of producing two identical replicas from one original DNA
molecule.
DNA replication is the process of producing two identical replicas from one original DNA
molecule. The process of replication begins with the breaking of hydrogen bonds between
the nitrogenous bases of complementary nucleotide strands.
The two unwound strands of DNA helix serves as templates for the assembly of new but
complementary nucleotides to form the daughter strands. The assembly of nucleotides on
the parent DNA template is brought about by some enzymes.
49.
50.
Replication of DNA ensures equal distribution of the genetic material to the future
daughter cells.
a) DNA has the coded information for controlling all the metabolic activities of the cell
both directly and indirectly.
Heredity 234
b) By the property of self replication, it ensures the equal distribution of similar genetic
material to off springs and thus responsible for heredity.
c) DNA indirectly helps in protein synthesis.
d) DNA sometimes undergoes mutation and recombination which brings about variations
in the characters of the off springs.
51.
52.
Gene mutation can occur naturally or it can be induced. Mutations are due to change in
the base sequence of DNA.
53.
Knowledge of DNA technology has led us to study the possibilities of many genetically
related physical and physiological problems.
Knowledge of DNA technology helps in improving the quality of plants and animals.
It helps even to obtain materials from plants and animal species for the human benefit.
It has applications in the field of agriculture, health, food management, conservation of
environment etc.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
Recombinant DNA technology is used to transfer nitrogen fixing gene from bacteria into
plants which enable them to get nitrogen.
Recombinant DNA technology is used for improving the quality of animal breeds.
It is used to transfer nitrogen fixing gene from the bacteria into plants to enable them to
obtain nitrogen.
Heredity 235
59.
60.
61.
The technique in biotechnology used for identifying individuals by determining the genetic
relationships is called DNA finger print technology.
The technique in biotechnology used for identifying individuals by determining the genetic
relationships is called DNA finger print technology.
The technique involves breaking down the DNA of individual into short segments using
specific enzymes. The fragments get separated on the basis of size and net electrical
charge. They get arranged to form a finger print.
The technique of breaking down the DNA of individual into short segments using specific
enzymes is called gel electrophoresis.
62.
Write the importance of gel electrophoresis during DNA finger print technology.
63.
64.
65.
66.
What is a clone?
67.
Name the first clone and the person who developed it?
68.
Gel electrophoresis helps to break down the DNA of an individual into short fragments
from which a DNA finger print can be obtained.
The short fragments of DNA get separated on the basis of their size and net electrical
charge.
The series of bands in the form of fingerprint with a unique pattern is called DNA finger
print.
The technique of obtaining genetically similar molecules, cells, tissues or organism from a
common precursor invitro process is called cloning.
The group of molecules or cells or organism which is derived from the same parent by an
asexual process is called a clone.
The first clone was a sheep called Dolly. It was developed by Dr.Wilmut.
a) Biotechnology helps in large scaled synthesis of life saving drugs like antibiotics,
vaccines, artificial hormones.
b) It helps in improvement of plant and animal breeds, pests and pathogen control in
agriculture.
: Heredity 236
a) The use of biotechnology in plants has resulted in seed sterility which causes severe
threat to the conservation of plant species.
b) Genetically modified foods are a threat to human and animal health.
c) It is against nature and upset the delicate balance of the nature.
d) Cloning pose a very serious social, ethical, moral and cultural problems.
e) Cloning can be used for illegal purposes and destructive activities.
70.
By genetically modifying plants we can increase the yield, improve the plant breeds, make
them pest and disease resistant. We can also transfer nitrogen fixing gene.
The greatest disadvantage of genetically modified plants is the sterility of seeds which is a
threat to conservation of plant species.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The branch of biology which deals with a systematic study of heredity, variations and
factors responsible is called genetics.
6.
7.
9.
10.
8.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
Mendel called the factor which is hidden or concealed in the generations is called
recessive factor.
The pair of factors for a given character separates in equal ratio at the time of gamete
formation during meiosis is Mendels law of segregation.
Heredity 237
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
Factors controlling separate characters normally move independent of each other during
gamete formation is Mendels law of independent assortment.
The type of dominance which deviates from the Mendelian inheritance is called
incomplete dominance.
The genetist who proposed incomplete dominance is Carl Correns.
Carl Correns used 4O clock plants for his experiments on incomplete dominance.
The condition in which a single trait or character with both the factors same is called
homozygous.
The condition in which a trait or character with different factors is called heterozygous.
The two parallel stands of chromosomes are called chromatids.
Nitrogenous bases Adenine (A) and Guanine (G) are called purines.
Nitrogenous bases Cytosine (C) and Thymine (T) are called pyramidines.
The pairing of Adenine (A) with Thymine (T) and Guanine (G) paring with Cytosine (C) is
called complimentary base pairing.
The process of producing two identical replicas from one original DNA molecule is called
DNA replication.
The technique of inducing desirable changes in the genetic material such as DNA of an
organism is called genetic engineering.
The technique of manipulating the genes in the laboratory is called recombinant DNA
technology.
The technique in biotechnology used for identifying individuals by determining the genetic
relationships is called DNA finger print technology.
The technique of breaking down the DNA of individual into short segments using specific
enzymes is called gel electrophoresis.
The short fragments of DNA get separated on the basis of their size and net electrical
charge.
The series of bands in the form of fingerprint with a unique pattern is called DNA finger
print.
The technique of obtaining genetically similar molecules, cells, tissues or organism from a
common precursor invitro process is called cloning.
The first clone was a sheep called Dolly.
*****
C22
2.
3.
4.
5.
What is an electrolyte?
The type of conduction which is due to the flow of delocalised electrons is known as
electronic conduction.
The type of conduction in which cations and anions participate in the flow of electricity in
molten state or aqueous solution of salt is called as electrolytic conduction.
The aqueous solutions in in which chemical reactions occur when direct current is passed
are called electrolytic solutions.
6.
The chemical substances that conduct electricity in aqueous state or molten state are
called electrolytes.
State the types of conduction of electricity.
7.
a) Metallic conduction
b) Electrolytic conduction
8.
1. It is a physical change
Electrolytic conduction
1. It is a chemical change
2.
Ionic conduction
239
3.
4.
5.
6.
Electrolytes that dissociate almost completely are called strong electrolytes. Ex: Ionic
compounds like Sodium chloride, copper sulphate, covalent compounds, hydrochloric
acid, nitric acid, sulphuric acid.
Electrolytes that dissociate partially are called weak electrolytes. Ex: Vinegar, carbonic
acid, phosphoric acid and organic acids like acetic acid, formic acid etc.
Substances which do not conduct electricity are called non-electrolytes. Ex: Sugar
solution, distilled water etc.
a) When the electrodes are dipped in aqueous solution
of sodium chloride. What do you observe?
We observe the bulb glows brightly as sodium chloride is a
strong electrolyte.
b) When the electrodes are dipped
in vinegar solution.What do you observe?
We observe the bulb glows faintly as vinegar is a weak
electrolyte
c) When electrodes are
dipped in sugar solution. What do you observe?
8.
9.
10.
Ionic conduction
240
11.
Draw a neat diagram of the apparatus used in the electrolysis of copper chloride
solution.
12.
In the electrolysis of copper chloride, write the equation which takes place at the a)
cathode b) anode.
a) At cathode: Cu 2
b) At anode: Cl
2e
Cl
Cl + Cl
Cu
Cl 2
13.
14.
It
15.
Electro chemical equivalent is defined as the mass in grams liberated by one Ampere of
current in one second.
E.C.E
16.
17.
The masses of different substances liberated by the same quantity of electricity are
proportional to their chemical equivalents.
Ionic conduction
18.
241
Atomic Mass
Valency
Chemical Equivalent
19.
20.
21.
22.
MA
MB
EA
EB
F or
E
Z
Cons tan t
c) Purification of metals
d) Decomposition of salts
e) Electro polishing
What is electroplating?
24.
25.
Draw a neat diagram of apparatus used to electroplate a brass article with silver.
Electroplating is the process of plating one metal onto another by passing current through
the electrolyte.
The aim of electroplating is to give the articles made of one metal a coating of another
metal either to improve the appearance or to protect it against rusting and tarnishing.
Ionic conduction
242
26.
27.
28.
What mass of copper is deposited at the cathode in the copper voltameter by the
passage of 2 amperes of current for 30 minutes?
29.
30.
How much time is required to deposit 1.1g of copper by passing 0.5 ampere of
current? (E.C.E of copper is 0.00033 g/coulomb)
Ionic conduction
243
31.
32.
Silver voltameter and copper voltameter are connected in series. The amount of
silver and copper deposited are 0.31g and 0.091g respectively. If the E.C.E of
copper is 0.00033 g/coulomb. Calculate the E.C.E of silver.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
The type of conduction which is due to the flow of delocalised electrons is known as
electronic conduction.
The type of conduction in which ions participate in the flow of electricity is called as
electrolytic conduction.
The aqueous solutions in which chemical reactions occur when direct current is passed
are called electrolytic solutions.
The chemical substances that conduct electricity in aqueous state or molten state are
called electrolytes.
Ionic conduction
8.
9.
13.
10.
11.
12.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
A group of atoms that have lost an electron to become positively charged are called
cations.
It or M = Zit.
The mass in grams liberated by one Ampere of current in one second is called Electro
Chemical Equivalent (E.C.E).
The masses of different substances liberated by the same quantity of electricity are
proportional to their chemical equivalents.
MA
MB
EA
EB
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
244
The process of coating one metal onto another by passing current through the electrolyte
is called electro plating.
The aim of electroplating is to improve the appearance or to protect it against rusting and
tarnishing.
The electrochemical process that removes material from a metallic article is called Electro
polishing.
*****
B23
a) Charles Darwin gave the most accepted explanation for the mechanism of organic
evolution.
b) He suggested that human beings evolved from monkeys.
c) He noticed similarities between man and apes.
d) He also suggested that man, apes and monkeys have a common ancestor.
245
2.
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Order: Primates
Family: Hominidae
Subphylum: Vertebrata
Genus: Homo
3.
Class: Mammalia
Species: sapiens
What are the characteristics that humans share with other primates?
a) Primates have a distinct face in place of snout.
Dryopithecus had strong muscular arms that were longer than the legs. They were found
in certain parts of Europe and China.
What are the characteristics of Zinjanthropus?
a) Zinjanthropus occurred about 14 to 15 million years ago.
b) They developed stronger and straighter legs with feet suited for walking.
c) They could focus their eyes on objects which they were holding.
What were the changes that led to the upright posture of man?
7.
The upright posture of Zinjanthropus was the result of evolutionary changes in the pelvic
girdle and associated muscles. The pelvic girdle changed into a broad basin like structure
to support the trunk.
The second change which led to upright posture was the change on the skull. The hole in
the skull through which the brain continues got shifted to the lower surface.
Write a note on Ramapithecus.
8.
Ramapithecus lived about 13 to 14 million years ago. They were the descendents of prehuman who appeared in Siwalik range of India. They are considered as the true ancestor
of modern man. They were widely distributed in both Australia and Africa.
a) Shift in the earths crust
b) Severe change in climate which resulted in the conversion of large forests into
grasslands.
246
9.
10.
The descendent of Ramapithecus who appeared 5 million years ago in the drier regions of
Eastern and Southern Africa were known as Australopithecus.
a) Australopithecus were the descendent of Ramapithecus who appeared 5 million years
ago in the drier regions of Eastern and Southern Africa.
b) They were relatively short (four and a half feet in height)
c) The forehead was low.
d) The brain capacity was equal to that of the modern gorilla.
e) The cranial capacity was about
f) They walked erect.
rd of modern man.
13.
The form of Homo erectus which was discovered in Peking in China was called Peking
man.
How do we know that Peking man was using fire?
The form of Homo erectus which was discovered in Java in Indonesia is called Java man.
14.
The occurrence of charcoal along with the fossils suggested that Peking man was using
fire.
What are the characteristics of Homo sapiens?
15.
16.
247
c) They were rather short, heavily built and strong.
d) They had heavy brow ridges.
e) The fore head was sloping with small chin and protruding jaws.
f) He was good in making tools.
g) He also developed speech.
17.
18.
19.
Neanderthal man disappeared about 50,000 years ago during the last glaciations. They
were also exterminated by men who overpowered them. They were unable to compete
with a culturally more advanced group of men, armed with better tools and weapons.
The group of early men who replaced the Neanderthal man were known as Cro-Magnon
men.
a) Cro-Magnon men lived about 30,000 years ago around the end of ice age.
b) They had a large stature.
c) They were active and intelligent.
d) They had association with animals.
e) They used finely chipped stone arrows and spear points.
f) They carved tools and ornaments from ivory.
20.
21.
22.
A classification system used to categorize humans into large and distinct populations.
a) Caucasoids
b) Mongoloids
c) Congoids
d) Capoids
23.
e) Australoids
Briefly explain the characteristics of the five races.
1) Caucasoids
248
c) They have a high ridged nose with narrow nostrils.
d) Hair is straight or wavy.
e) They live in Europe, India and certain parts of America.
2) Mongoloids
d)They live in China, Japan, Mongolia, Malaysia, American Indians and Eskimos.
3) Congoids
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
The person who suggested that man, apes and monkeys have a common ancestor was
Charles Darwin.
Man, apes and monkeys have a common ancestor.
10.
11.
8.
9.
249
RT I B
12.
Most reliable and direct evidence for evolution comes from the study of fossils.
14.
15.
The ancestors of modern apes like orangutan and gorilla have evolved from
Dryopithecus.
The arrival of upright pre human form appeared about 14 to 15 million years ago.
19.
The fossil remains of Ramapithecus have been recovered from Siwalik range.
13.
16.
17.
18.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
Apes and humans have evolved from a semi erect terrestrial from of primates called
proconsul.
Homo habilis evolved into more modern form of humans called Homo erectus.
Homo erectus lived about 2,50,000 years ago.
*****
P24
The process from the birth to the death of a star is called stellar evolution.
2.
What is a protostar?
3.
A protostar is a large mass that forms by contraction of the gas mostly hydrogen.
The birth of a star begins when a gaseous cloud of hydrogen contracts due to gravity. The
gaseous cloud contracts due to its own gravity. As the cloud contracts, there is increase in
density which leads to increase in pressure. Gradually a spherical mass is formed at the
centre of the cloud.
4.
5.
6.
How does a star change from steady state to red giant stage? OR Briefly explain
how a red giant is formed.
A star on reaching the steady state will start giving out steady energy. As the radiation
pressure increases beyond the opposing gravitational pull, the star begins to swell. As a
result of this the temperature decreases and hence emits red light. This stage of star is
called Red giant.
7.
8.
9.
After the red giant stage the star envelope expands, the core contracts, the temperature
reaches 108 Kelvin. Helium starts converting into carbon in the core. When all the helium
gets converted to carbon, the core cannot contract further. Due to the outward force, the
outer envelope gets detached and thrown out into space. This stage is called planetary
nebula.
If a star has a mass less than 1.4 times the mass of the sun, the star collapses under
gravity. Due to the high temperature, the star glows with white light of high frequency. This
stage is known as white dwarf.
What is Chandrashekars limit?
The value 1.4 times the mass of the sun is known as Chandrashekars limit.
Space Science
10.
11.
Name the stages of stellar evolution of sun like stars in the galaxy.
12.
13.
Briefly explain the evolution of stars which are more massive than the sun.
14.
What is a supernova?
15.
251
Dr.S.Chandrashekar developed the theory of white dwarf and showed that if mass of a
star is greater than 1.4 times the mass of the sun, its life will end by collapsing into a black
hole.
Protostar
dwarf
Protostar
Black hole
Steady state
Steady state
Red giant
Red giant
Planetary nebula
Supernova
White
Neutron star or
Stars which are 5 times more massive than the sun evolve in different way after the red
giant stage. Several stages of nuclear reactions get ignited one after the other. The
carbon nuclei produced during the fusion of helium forms carbon core. The carbon nuclei
in the core fuse and liberate energy. Heavier elements like oxygen, magnesium and
silicon. The fusion continues till element iron is formed. The star explodes as a supernova.
The explosion of a star that is 5 times or more massive than the sun is called supernova.
A star whose core contains only neutrons is called neutron star.
What is a pulsar?
17.
18.
Briefly explain the evolution of stars which are 30 times the mass of the sun.
Fast spinning neutron stars emitting radiation in pulses are called pulsars.
Quasar is the short form of Quasi Stellar radio sources. Quasars are galaxies that are
thousand times brighter than ordinary galaxies which emit radiowaves.
OR
What is a black hole? How is it formed?
Space Science
20.
252
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
The presence of a black hole can be inferred from the gravitational force it exerts on
bodies close to it.
Sun would become a black hole if it is compressed to a radius of 3km.
Stars differ in their colour because of different surface temperatures.
Colour of a star depends on the surface temperature.
Analysis of the lines of spectrum of a star helps us to identify the elements present in the
star. The intensity distribution of these elements decides the apparent colour of the star.
Betelgeuse, Arcturus, Sun, Sirius, Rigel
Star
Temperature
Colour
3500K to 5000K
Orange yellow
6000K to 10,000K
Yellowish white
Betelgeuse
2000K to 3500K
Sun
5000K to 6000K
Arcturus
Sirius
Rigel
10,000 to 50,000K
Red
Yellow
Bluish white
27.
What is a galaxy?
28.
29.
30.
c) It appears like a flat disc with a central bulge when viewed from the edge.
d) Its central thickness is 6000 light years.
Space Science
31.
253
32.
Spiral galaxy
33.
34.
35.
36.
Which are the two factors that are related to one another according to Hubbles
law?
Edwin Hubble, an American astronomer studied various galaxies and showed that the
universe is expanding. At the beginning of the universe, all the matter comprising of stars
and galaxies were compressed into a fiery ball. The fire ball exploded with a bang which
started the expansion of the universe. This is the essence of big bang theory.
The red shift of galaxies shows that they are moving away from us at enormous speeds.
The velocity of recession of a celestial body is proportional to its distance from us
38.
39.
What is an oxidizer?
40.
What is a propellant?
Aircraft uses oxygen in the atmosphere where as a rocket has to carry the necessary
oxidizer to burn the fuel.
Rockets are able to operate in vacuum or space as they carry oxidizer to burn the fuel.
The substance that provides oxygen to burn the fuel is called oxidizer.
Space Science
254
Launching of rocket works on the principle of Newtons Third law of motion & the law of
conservation of momentum.
43.
44.
The total momentum of the system is conserved when the net force acting on the system
is zero.
During firing of rocket, the fuel burns & is converted into gases at high pressure. The
gases escape from the nozzle of rocket with a high velocity. The rocket acquires an equal
momentum in opposite direction.
45.
Define payload.
46.
The scientific instruments which is usually placed in the front region of the rocket is called
payload.
a) Amount of fuel burnt
b) Exhaust velocity
c) Mass of the rocket
47.
Thrust on the rocket is the product of rate of fuel consumption and velocity of exhaust
gases.
Thrust = Rate of fuel consumption x Exhaust velocity
Thrust = R x V ex
48.
49.
a) As the rocket consumes fuel every instant, its mass goes on decreasing.
Space Science
255
The ratio of payload mass (m) to the ratio of the fuel mass (M) is called payload ratio.
Payload ratio
50.
Payload mass
Fuel mass
m
M
Streamlining of rocket minimizes the friction of air. It also gives stability to the rocket when
it moves in the earths atmosphere.
52.
Draw a neat diagram of a single stage rocket and label the parts.
Space Science
256
53.
54.
Derive an expression for the orbital velocity of a body revolving around the earth at
a height h.
The velocity of the satellite along a circular path is called orbital velocity. It is denoted by
Vo.
M Vo 2
-------------(1)
R h
GMm
-------------------------------(2)
(R h)2
Vo2
M Vo
(R h)
2
GMm
(R h)2
GM
(R h)
GM
(R h)
Vo
Cross multiplying
2
G= Gravitational constant
M=Mass of earth
R=Radius of earth
h=height above the
surface of earth
Write the formula for orbital velocity of an artificial satellite very close to the earth.
Vo
GM
or Vo
R
Rg where g
GM
R2
56.
57.
Give reason: A single stage rocket cannot be used to place satellites into orbit.
58.
59.
60.
Several rockets joined one on top of another to provide the necessary power is called
multistage rocket.
A single stage rocket cannot lift heavy load to a greater height. Hence multistage rockets
are used.
Space Science
257
A multistage rocket consists of several rockets joined together one on top of another.
When a multistage rocket is launched, the first stage engine begins. After travelling a
certain distance, the first stage detaches from the rocket system. The engine of the
second stage begins. It carries the rocket to a certain height and detaches itself. Now the
3rd stage starts and so on. Generally first stage is massive and other stages are smaller.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
The minimum velocity with which a body must be projected so that it escapes from the
gravitational field of earth is called escape velocity. It is denote by Ve. The value of
escape velocity is 11.2 km/s.
The escape velocity of an object from earth depends upon the radius of the earth and
acceleration due to gravity and is independent of the mass of the object.
Why does a slow moving object thrown upwards fall back to the earth?
Slow moving objects fall back to earth because it cannot escape from the earths
gravitational field.
Write the formula for escape velocity.
Ve
gravity.
66.
Calculate the escape velocity for earth given (Radius of earth is 6.37x10 m and
-2
acceleration due to gravity is 9.8ms )
67.
What happens when a stone is thrown upwards with a velocity of more than
11.2km/s?
The stone would escape the earths gravitational field.
68.
Rg
Space Science
Escape velocity = Ve
Ve
Ve
Ve
258
2R g
2R g
2 x Rg
2 Vo
69.
70.
71.
72.
No, escape velocity of moon is less than that of the earth as mass of moon is less when
compared to earth.
An artificial satellite having a period of revolution same as that of the period of rotation of
the earth is called geostationary satellite.
Establishment of communication link.
73.
The period of revolution of satellite has to be the same as that of period of rotation of earth
which is 24 hours.
How many geostationary satellites are required to cover every part of the earth?
74.
75.
Mention the orbital period and distance from the surface of the earth of
geostationary satellites.
Geostationary satellites must be placed 36,000km above the surface of the earth.
76.
77.
Artificial satellites are used for communication, weather forecast, surveying and
exploration of space.
India has made many achievements.
a) Indian space scientists have successfully built many types of satellites. They include
communication satellites, meteorological satellites, remote sensing satellites and
scientific satellites.
b) Many of these satellites have been launched from India itself using rockets like PSLV,
GSLV.
c) PSLV has been used to launch many satellites of other countries.
Space Science
259
79.
a) The place from which the first indigenous sounding rocket was launched Thumba
b) Indias first artificial satellite Aryabhata
c) Indias first experimental remote sensing satellite Bhaskara I
d) First satellite to be launched from Indian soil Rohini
e) Indias first experimental communication satellite APPLE
f) Indias first operational remote sensing satellite IRS 1A
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
The stage of the star where the outer envelope gets detached and thrown out into space
is called planetary nebula.
The value of Chandrashekars limit 1.4 times the mass of the sun.
The heaviest element formed in the stellar evolution before supernova explosion is iron.
8.
The last stage in the stellar evolution of stars which are 5 times the mass of sun is
supernova.
The stage of star formed by the remnants of supernova is neutron star.
12.
13.
14.
9.
10.
11.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
The properties that can be recognized in a black hole are density and gravity.
If the radius of the sun is reduced to 3km it can become a black hole.
Space Science
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
The matter in the universe was compressed into a very small fiery region called
primordial fire ball.
The ratio of payload mass to the fuel mass is called payload ratio.
The velocity of the body moving along a circular path is called orbital velocity.
GM
.
R h
34.
35.
37.
36.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
260
The minimum velocity with which a rocket must be projected to get away from earths
gravitational field is called escape velocity.
-1
2 Vo .
44.
45.
A geostationary satellite must be placed at a height of 36,000km from the surface of the
earth.
The first Indian to fly into space is Rakesh Sharma.
The unmanned spacecraft sent by India to explore the moon was Chandrayaan 1.
49.
50.
46.
47.
48.
****