A

17236 120 MINUTES

1. An electric bulb of 60W is used for 7 hours in a day. Calculate the units of energy
consumed by the bulb?
A) 0.042 unit B) 0.7 unit C) 0.42 unit D) 0.6 unit

2. What is the common name of poly isoprene?

A) Natural rubber B) Synthetic rubber
C) Nylon D) Teflon

3. A car covers the first 78 km. of the journey in 90 minutes and the remaining 50 km. in 70
minutes. What is the average speed of the car?
A) 50 km/hour B) 48 km/hour
C) 40 km/hour D) 55 km/hour

4. A milkman dilutes 72 litres of pure milk by adding 24 litres of water. What is the percentage
of milk in the resultant product?
A) 66.66 % B) 75 % C) 65 % D) 70 %

5. Match the following

(i) Bronze (a) Copper, Zinc and Tin
(ii) Brass (b) Copper, Tin
(iii) Gun Metal (c) Iron, Nickel, Carbon
(iv) Nickel Steel (d) Copper, Zinc

A) (i) -a ,(ii)-b,(iii)-d,(iv)-c B) (i) -b, (ii)-d,(iii)-a,(iv)-c

C) (i) -a, (ii)-c,(iii)-b,(iv)-d D) (i) - c, (ii)-b,(iii)-a,(iv)-d

6. Which is the correct order?

A) Phylum- Class- Genus- Order- Species
B) Class- Phylum -Genus- Order -Species
C) Phylum- Class- Order-Genus-Species
D) Phylum- Class- Order- Species- Genus

7. The number in each row/column of the square is written according to the same rule. By
identifying the rule, find the missing number

8 6 10

3 4 5
7 24 ?

A) 25 B) 75 C) 50 D) 30
8. The average density of the earth is ------- gm/cm3
A) 2.7 B) 3.2 C) 12.3 D) 5.5

9. Which is/are correct about monsoon/s in Kerala?

(i) Receives rainfall from North East Monsoon
(ii) Receives rainfall from South West Monsoon
(iii) Receives rainfall from North West Monsoon
(iv) Receives rainfall from South East Monsoon

A) (i) only B) (iii) only

C) (i) and (ii) only D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

10. Which is/are true about the Right to Information Act, 2005?
(i) It was enacted by the Parliament in order to promote transparency and accountability
in the working of every public authority
(ii) It extends to the whole of India
(iii) The Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years from
the date on which he enters upon his office
(iv) The Chief Information Commissioner shall not be eligible for reappointment

A) (i) and (ii) only B) (i) and (iv) only

C) (iii) only D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

11. Which is/are true about Reserve Bank of India?

(i) Started functioning in 1935
(ii) New Delhi is the Headquarter
(iii) Managed by one Governor and two Deputy Governors
(iv) Board of Directors is appointed by the Government of India

A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only

C) (i) and (iii) only D) (i) and (iv) only

12. Chandra Gupta Maurya was the king of -------

A) Kanauj B) Magadha C) Vangadesa D) Awadh

13. Assertion (S): Cotton is grown in alluvial soils

Reason(R): Alluvial soils are very fertile

A) Both S and R are true and R is the correct explanation of S.

B) Both S and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of S.
C) S is true and R is false.
D) S is false and R is true.

2
14. Assertion (S): Gandhiji called off the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922
Reason(R): An unruly crowd burnt down a police station in Chauri Chaura in 1922

A) Both S and R are true and R is the correct explanation of S.

B) Both S and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of S.
C) S is true and R is false.
D) S is false and R is true.

15. Match the following:

List I List II
i. Wipro a) V. K. Sharma
ii. State Bank of India b) Vishal Sikka
iii. LIC of India c) Azim Premji
iv. Infosys d) Indra Nooyi
e) Arundhati Bhattacharyya

A) i c, ii e, iii a, iv b B) i c, ii d, iii e, iv b
C) i c, ii d, iii b, iv a D) i e, ii d, iii a, iv b

16. Librehan Commission was appointed by the Union Government to enquire into:
A) Indira Gandhi Assassination case
B) Babri Masjid Demolition case
C) Educational Reforms
D) Centre-State Relations

17. Which of the following is a famous book by George Orwell?

A) 1954 B) 1984 C) 1794 D) 1947

18. Asato ma sad-gamaya;

Tamaso ma jyotir-gamaya;
Mrtyor-ma amrutam gamaya.
This universal prayer for enlightenment is from:

A) Brihadaranyaka Upanishad B) Bhagavad Gita

C) Ramayana D) Rig Veda

3
 Read the following passage and answer question numbers 19 - 21 based on it.
In the aftermath of the Narendra Modi government deciding to demonetise notes of Rs 500
and Rs 1,000 respectively, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) put out an interesting data. Data
from RBI shows that in 2015-2016 the total amount of paper notes in circulation amounted to
Rs 16.4 lakh crore. Of this, the high denomination notes of Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 amounted to
Rs 14.2 lakh crore. The Rs 500 notes amounted to Rs 7.9 lakh crore whereas Rs 1,000 notes
amounted to Rs 6.3 lakh crore.

19. Which of the following statements are correct?

i) In India, high denomination notes account for the major chunk of the total
value of notes circulated.
ii) The number of Rs. 500 notes was pretty higher than that of Rs. 1000 notes.
iii) The total value of Rs. 500 notes in circulation in 2015 16 was less than that
of Rs. 1000 notes.
iv) There is a difference of 1.6 crore between the value of Rs. 500 notes and Rs. 1000 notes.

A) iii and iv only B) i and iii only

C) i and ii only D) ii and iii only

20. What was the approximate percentage share of the Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000 currencies in
the total amount of currencies in circulation in 2015-16?
A) 14 percent B) 86 percent
C) 76 percent D) It cannot be deduced from the passage

21. The word demonetise means:

A) To reduce the value of a currency
B) To destroy a currency by shredding
C) To remove the status of legal tender of a currency and remove it from circulation
D) To stop the printing of currency and switch to e-payment

22. Which is/are true about the members of the Rajya Sabha in India?
(i). Most are elected by the members of the Legislative Assemblies of States
(ii). Some are elected by the members of the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories
(iii). Some are elected by the members of the Legislative Councils of States
(iv). Some are nominated by the President of India
A) (i) only B) (ii) only
C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

23. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes:
List I List II
i) Kuchipudi M. Karnataka
ii) Yakshagana N. Andhra Pradesh
iii) Ghoomar O. Northern India
iv) Kathak P. Rajasthan
A) (i)-N, (ii)-M, (iii)-P, (iv)-O B) (i)-M, (ii)-P, (iii)-O, (iv)-N
C) (i)-N, (ii)-O, (iii)-M, (iv)-P D) (i)-M, (ii)-N, (iii)-P, (iv)-O

4
24. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes:
List I List II
i) Banabhatta M. Gita Govindam
ii) Chanakya N. Panchatantra
iii) Jayadeva O. Arthasastra
iv) Vishnu Sharma P. Harshacharita

A) (i)- N, (ii)- M, (iii)-P, (iv)- O

B) (i)- P, (ii)- O, (iii)-M, (iv)- N
C) (i)- N, (ii)- O, (iii)-M, (iv)- P
D) (i)- M, (ii)- N, (iii)-P, (iv)- O

25. People belonging to which religion/s practice Sallekhana? Choose from the options
i) Sikhs ii) Bahais iii) Jains iv) Buddhists

A) (i) only B) (iii) only

C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only D) (i) and (ii) only

26. Who was the founder of Pratyaksha Raksha Daiva Sabha (PRDS)?
A) Ayyankali B) Kumara Gurudevan
C) Vaikunda Swami D) Vagbhatanandan

27. From the list given below choose the word/s with incorrect spelling
(i) Accomodation (ii) Minerology (iii) Sieve (iv) Superintendent

A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only

C) (iii) and (iv) only D) (iv) only

28. Ammanur Madhava Chakyar is a renowned performer of

A) Kathakali B) Chakyar Koothu
C) Koodiyattam D) Ottamthullal

29. Vijnana Kairali is a publication of

A) Kerala Sastra Sahitya Parishad
B) Kerala Bhasha Institute
C) Kerala Folklore Academy
D) Kerala State Library Council

30. Kerala Institute of Local Administration is located at

A) Thiruvananthapuram B) Palakkad
C) Malappuram D) Thrissur

31. How many new elements were added to the Periodic Table by the IUPAC in 2016?
A) 5 B) 3 C) 4 D) 7

32. Having an ugly or displeasing sound

A) Cacophonous B) Eternal
C) Glutton D) Impeachable

5
33. The term Long Term Evolution is related to:
A) Human Evolution
B) Evolution of the Universe
C) Genetic Engineering
D) Wireless broadband technology

34. What is the new name of the worlds most powerful telescope, earlier named as Next
Generation Space Telescope, which is slated for launch in October 2018?
A) James Webb Space Telescope
B) Hubble Space Telescope
C) Spitzer Space Telescope
D) Vainu Bappu Space Telescope

35. Find the option in which all the following words are arranged to form a correct sentence.
your (1), didnt (2), mother (3), German.(4), I (5), was (6), know (7)

A) 5,2,7,4,1,3,6 B) 5,2,7,1,3,6,4
C) 1,3,2,7,4,5,6 D) 5,6,4,1,3,2,7

36. What is the correct meaning of the following sentence?

The Principal decide to throw the book at her.
A) The Principal was very angry with her.
B) The Principal was a rude person.
C) The Principal decided to give her maximum punishment.
D) The Principal did not like the book she was reading.

37. Match the following Environment Protection Movements in India in List I with their main
proponents in List II

List I List II
a. Chipko Movement i. S.P.Udayakumar
b. Navdanya Movement ii. Pandurang Hegde
c. Narmada Bachao Andolan iii. Sunderlal Bahuguna
d. Appico Movement iv. Chandi Prasad Bhatt
e. Peoples Movement Against Nuclear Energy v. Vandana Shiva
vi. Teesta Setalvad

A) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-ii, e-i

B) a-iii, b-v, c-vi, d-i, e-ii
C) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
D) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i

38. In India National Air Quality Index is determined on the basis of concentration of ------
pollutants.
A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 8

6
39. In terms of the number of students enrolled, which is the largest university in the world?
A) Harvard University
B) Cambridge University
C) Indira Gandhi National Open University
D) UK Open University

40. Which among the following legislations is/are in force in India to prevent terrorist
activities?

i. POTA ii. TADA iii. UAPA iv. POCSO

A) iii only B) iii and iv only

C) i, ii and iii only D) i, ii, iii and iv

41. Find the missing number in the following series:

3, 8, 15, 24, -----, 48

A) 41 B) 47 C) 35 D) 36

42. In a certain code if MONKEY is written as OPPLGZ , then how is BOMBAY written in the
same code?
A) EFOCCZ B) DPDCCZ C) DPOBCZ D) DPOCCZ

43. Ramesh is taller than Hari who is shorter than Sasi. Mahesh is taller than Indrajith but shorter
than Hari. Sasi is shorter than Ramesh. Who is the tallest?
A) Sasi B) Hari C) Ramesh D) Indrajith

44. Which is/are true about the Benami Transaction Amendment Bill, 2016 passed by the
Lok Sabha?

(i) Aimed at curbing black money

(ii) Imprisonment of up to 5 years
(iii) Provides for a fine of up to 30% of the fair value of the asset
(iv) Provides for a fine of up to 25% of the fair value of the asset and imprisonment of up
to 7 years

A) (i) only B) (i),(ii) and (iii) only

C) (ii),(iii) and (iv) only D) (i) and (iv) only

45. The One hundred and first Amendment of the Indian Constitution relates to which of the
following?
A) Demonetisation of Indian currency (Rs.1000 and Rs.500 currency notes)
B) Introduction of GST
C) Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh
D) Right to Education

7
46. Match the following:
List I List II
i. R. D. Birla Award a) Music
ii. Saraswathi Samman b) Sports
iii. Tansen Samman c) Film
iv. Dada Saheb Phalke Award d) Medical Sciences
e) Literature

A) i d, ii e, iii a, iv c B) i b, ii a, iii c, iv e
C) i c, ii e, iii b, iv d D) i e, ii c, iii a, iv b

47. The age of a father is 9 times the age of his son. After 15 years, the age of the father will be 3
times that of his son .The age of the son now is
A) 9 years B) 7 years C) 5 years D) 10 years

48. Which one is/are correctly matched, at present?

(i) Rani Singh Nair Chairperson, Central Board of Direct Taxes
(ii) Reghuram RajanGovernor, Reserve Bank of India
(iii) Arvind Panagariya CEO, NITI Aayog
(iv) Anurag Thakur- President, Board of Control for Cricket in India

A) (i) only B) (iv) only

C) (i) and (iii) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

49. Which country in the world is certified by WHO as malaria free in 2016?
A) Myanmar B) Bangladesh C) Afghanistan D) Sri Lanka

50. The UN World Humanitarian Summits achievement ' Grand Bargain ' deals with
commitments to reform
A) Immigration Laws B) Immunization programmes
C) Humanitarian financing D) Employment opportunities for immigrants

51. The Article in the Indian Constitution pertaining to Right Against Discrimination
A) Article 16 B) Article 17 C) Article 21 A D) Article15

52. Bill English is:

A) The Prime Minister of New Zealand
B) The President of Finland
C) The Founder-President of Greenpeace
D) The Chief Justice of the International Court of Justice

53. Who among the following are recipients of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awards in 2016?
i. P.V.Sindhu ii. Sakshi Malik iii. Dipa Karmakar iv. Jitu Rai

A) i and iii only B) i and ii only

C) i, ii and iii only D) i, ii, iii and iv

54. Which country hosted the 2016 Kabaddi World Cup Championship matches?
A) Iran B) Nepal C) Bangladesh D) India

8
55. Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes:
List I List II
i) Dipika Karmakar M. Badminton
ii) H S Prannoy N. Gymnastics
iii) Shane Watson O. Wrestling
iv) Yogeshwar Dutt P. Cricket

A) (i)- N, (ii)- O, (iii)-P, (iv)- M

B) (i)- M, (ii)- P, (iii)-O, (iv)- N
C) (i)- N, (ii)- O, (iii)-M, (iv)- P
D) (i)- N, (ii)- M, (iii)-P, (iv)- O

56. Rhodes Scholarship is awarded for post-graduate studies in which of the following
institutions?
A) Cambridge University
B) MIT, U S A
C) Oxford University
D) Harvard University

57. The Indian Panorama Section of the 47th International Film Festival of India (IFFI) opened
with the film Ishti . This film is in which Indian Language?
A) Hindi B) Malayalam C) Sanskrit D) Gujarati

58. Which is not true about Bob Dylan who won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2016?
(i) An American
(ii) A singer
(iii) His lyrics chronicled social unrest
(iv) Was in Stockholm to receive the Nobel Prize in December, 2016

A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only

C) (ii) and (iii) only D) (iv) only

59. Uthishtata, Jagrata, Prapya Varanibodhata, the sloka popularized by Swami Vivekananda,
belongs to which Upanishad?
A) Chandogya Upanishad B) Katha Upanishad
C) B hadranyaka Upanishad D) Mundaka Upanishad

60. In the 21st International Film Festival of Kerala (IFFK) the film Manhole directed by Vidhu
Vincent won ----- Award
A) Suvarna Chakoram B) Rajatha Chakoram
C) NETPAC Award D) FIPRESCI Award

61. Which of the following is not a principal question of ontology?

A) What can be said to exist?
B) What is a thing?
C) Into what categories, if any, can we sort existing things?
D) What is the nature of knowledge?

9
62. Praj (Sanskrit) or pa (Pli) in Buddhism is
A) Insight or knowledge of the true nature of existence
B) Virtues or directions for meditation in Buddhist traditions
C) World of desirelessness
D) Right speech, right action and right livelihood

63. The teacher talks about reality as if it were motionless, static, compartmentalized, and
predictable. Who raised this criticism?
A) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
B) Jean Piaget
C) Paulo Freire
D) Ivan Illich

64. Curriculum that builds on students' cultural understanding or allows them to use their funds
of knowledge in the classroom has proven to be more effective because
A) Teacher education gives special training for handling such curriculum
B) Students can relate it to their own lives
C) Assessment of curricular activities will be realistic
D) It paves chances for implementation of ICT in classroom

65. Education acts as an integrative force in society by

A) Imparting high standard knowledge
B) Organizing extra-curricular activities
C) Communicating values that unite different sections of society
D) Imparting various subjects in an integral manner

66. Which of the following is not a contributing factor for the social mobility of a student?
A) Amount of education B) Educational curriculum
C) Social strata of the student D) Quality of institution

67. A teacher uses the strategy of self-help while providing psychological support to a student.
This strategy belongs to:
A) Psycho analytic approach B) Humanistic approach
C) Trait approach D) Behaviouristic approach

68. The WISC can provide insights in cognitive functioning that are:
A) Quantitative and qualitative in a proportion of 75:25
B) Fully Quantitative
C) Fully Qualitative
D) Quantitative and qualitative in a proportion of 50:50

69. Piaget developed his theory of learning on the base of certain assumptions about children.
Which of the following is not an assumption of Piaget?
A) Children enjoy learning in collaborative settings
B) Children are intrinsically motivated to learn and do not need rewards from adults to
motivate learning
C) Children learn many things on their own without the intervention of older children or
adults
D) Children construct their own knowledge in response to their experiences

10
70. Adolescents are often vulnerable to negative peer pressures due to:
A) Change of moods rapidly, vacillating between happiness and distress and self-
confidence and worry
B) Unstable sense of self and try out new personal labels and associate with various peer
groups
C) Limited life experience and under-developed decision-making skills
D) Mood changes stem from biological sources

71. Which of the following is not correct?

A) Values are dynamic B) Values can be inculcated
C) Values are to be professed D) Values do not change

72. The first National Policy on Education in India was promulgated in the year
A) 1992 B) 1986 C) 1962 D) 1968

73. What was the name of the organization formed in India, in the year 1925, to promote
university activities, by sharing information and cooperation in the field of education, culture,
sports and allied areas?
A) University Grants Commission
B) Inter-University Board
C) Association of Indian Universities
D) Central Advisory Board of Education

74. The new variant of earlier National Literacy Mission is known as

A) Akshar Bharath B) India Literacy Project
C) Sakshar Bharath D) Department of School Education and Literacy

75. Lesson planning should be guided primary by the consideration of:

A) Meeting the needs of the average child in the class
B) Creating a happy classroom environment
C) The curriculum goals
D) Providing pupils with intellectually challenging work

76. Individual differences within a class are best handled by

A) Coaching slow children after school
B) Giving the bright students free reading time
C) Peer tutoring
D) Organizing groups for specific purposes

77. Consider the following statements:

(1) An interactive teacher can prove himself / herself effective in a constructivist
paradigm
(2) An interactive teacher applies the strategies of participatory learning

A) (1) is the cause and (2) is the effect.

B) (2) is the cause and (1) is the effect.
C) (1) and (2) are unrelated statements.
D) (1) and (2) are related, but do not have cause- effect relationship.

11
78. A teaching approach to problem solving, learning, or discovery that employs a practical
method not guaranteed to be optimal or perfect, but sufficient for the immediate goals is
known as
A) Project method B) Heuristic method
C) Discovery method D) Supervised study

79. The relationship between a senior teacher and a new teacher based on a mutual desire for
development towards career goals and objectives is known as
A) Mentoring B) Guidance
C) Professional collaboration D) Supervised training

80. "Instructional experiences which make the acquisition of knowledge and skill more efficient,
effective, and appealing" is known as
A) Discovery learning B) Experiential learning
C) Curriculum design D) Instructional design

81. A process through which a teacher adds supports for students in order to enhance learning
and aid in the mastery of tasks is known as
A) Mastery learning B) Advance organizer
C) Instructional scaffolding D) Reciprocal teaching

82. Which of the following educational psychologist is known for the theory of Conditions of
Learning?
A) Robert Gagne B) David Ausubel
C) Henry Giroux D) Noam Chomsky

83. Which of the following is not a major element in the situated learning?
A) Content B) Context
C) Community D) Supervision

84. According to Maslow, which of the following is not correct?

A) It is the perception that motivates, not the rewards
B) Needs are hierarchically arranged
C) Lower needs take priority
D) Sex is a physiological need

85. Which of the following is not an objective of diagnostic tests?

A) To assess students' strengths in a specific subject area
B) To assess students' weaknesses in a specific subject area
C) To grade students in a specific subject area
D) To know how much students know about a subject area

86. Which of the following is not a function of evaluation?

A) To determine the existence of a disability
B) To determine the effect of a disability
C) To determine need for specialized services
D) To determine the instructional strategies

12
87. Evaluation that monitors learning progress is:
A) Placement evaluation B) Formative evaluation
C) Diagnostic evaluation D) Summative evaluation

88. Which of the following is not advisable for effective classroom communication?
A) Starting the lecture with one or two questions you are trying to answer, and closing
with questions the lecture raised or left unanswered
B) Introduce alternative perspectives in your lecture
C) Have students use the material they are learning to propose solutions to a problem
D) Reduce your lecture to very minimum and make extensive use of visual techniques
with the support of technology in the classroom

89. GER determines the number of students enrolled at:

A) Only primary level
B) Only secondary level
C) Primary and secondary levels
D) Pre-primary and higher education levels

90. Which of the following cannot be treated as a barrier of communication?

A) Differences in perception and viewpoint between sender and receiver
B) Cultural differences between sender and receiver
C) Level of intelligence of the sender
D) Expectations and prejudices of the receiver

91. Read the following statements and choose the correct answer:
(1) Moodle is a free and open-source software learning management system
(2) Moodle is used for blended learning, distance education, flipped classroom and other
e-learning projects in educational institutions

A) Both (1) and (2) are true and (2) is the benefit of (1)
B) Only (2) is true
C) Only (1) is true
D) Both (1) and (2) are true but not related to each other

92. Worksheets help students to explore topics, practice skills, and build knowledge
A) The statement is true but not practical
B) The statement is true and is practical but depends up on class room environment
C) The statement is true and is practical but depends up on teacher competence
D) The statement is not true and practically impossible

93. Consider the following hypotheses:

(1) Children who were taught through concept attainment model for six months will
show a higher achievement than children who were not
(2) Children who were taught through concept attainment model for six months do not
show high achievement than children who were not.

A) Both are null hypotheses

B) (1) is alternate hypothesis and (2) is null hypothesis
C) (1) is null hypothesis and (2) is research hypothesis
D) Both are research hypotheses

13
94. Arrange the steps of doing historical research in its right order:
(1) Isolate the problem, (2) Collect source materials, (3) Evaluate source material,
(4) Formulate hypotheses, (5) Report and interpret findings

A) (1), (4), (2), (3), (5) B) (2), (1), (3), (4), (5)
C) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) D) (3), (1), (2), (4), (5)

95. Consider the following psychological tests: (1) Raven's Progressive Matrices, (2) Children's
Apperception Test, (3) The Muller-Lyer Illusion
.
A) (1) is Intelligence Test, (2) and (3) are Personality Tests
B) (1) is Perceptual Process Test, (2) is Personality and (3) is Interest Inventory
C) (1) is Memory Test, (2) is Emotional Stability Test and (3) is Lie Detection Test
D) (1) Is Intelligence Test, (2) is Personality Test and (3) is Perceptual Process Test

96. Match the following:

P) National Curriculum Framework 2010 1) NUEPA
Q) Right to Education Act 2009 2) NCERT
R) Educational Planning 3) SIEMAT
S) Educational Management 4) NCTE
5) MHRD

A) (P)- 2; (Q)- 4; (R)- 1; (S)- 5 B) (P)- 4; (Q)- 5; (R)- 1; (S)- 3

C) (P)- 2; (Q)- 3; (R)- 5; (S)- 4 D) (P)- 4; (Q)- 2; (R)- 5; (S)- 3

97. Consider the following statements regarding virtual classroom:

(1) Virtual classroom is a web based tool dependent on internet connectivity
(2) In a virtual classroom queries of learners get answered by the resource person

A) Only (1) is true B) Only (2) is true

C) Both (1) and (2) are true D) Both (1) and (2) are not true

98. The primary focus of the curriculum framework for 2 year Secondary Teacher Education
Programme is to make student- teachers:

A) Disciplined practitioners
B) Reflective practitioners
C) Transacting practitioners
D) Methodology practitioners

99. Consider the following:

(1) School Management Committee;
(2) Free Uniform, free text books and mid-day meal for students

A) (2) is the cause and (1) is the effect

B) (1) is the cause and (2) is the effect
C) (1) and (2) have no cause effect relationship but they are related
D) (1) and (2) have no cause effect relationship and are not related at all

14
100. Consider following philosophers and select the best choice below:
(1) Charles Sanders Peirce (2) Dane Sren Kierkegaard
(3) Friedrich Nietzsche (4) William James

A) (1) and (4) are Pragmatist Philosophers and (2) and (3) are Existentialist Philosophers
B) (1) and (2) are Pragmatist Philosophers and (3) and (4) are Existentialist Philosophers
C) (1), (2) and (3) are Pragmatist Philosophers and (4) is Existentialist Philosopher
D) Only (1) is Pragmatist Philosopher, rest are Existentialist Philosophers

101. The three sequential phases in skill learning:

A) Cognition, attention, fixation
B) Fixation, automation, cognition
C) Cognition, fixation, automation
D) Attention, cognition, fixation

102. Consider the following ideas of Piaget and choose the right choice from below:
(1) Difficulty in thinking about more than one aspect of any situation
(2) Inability to see a situation from another person's point of view

A) (1) is Multiple Attention Deficiency and (2) is Perceptual Disorder

B) (1) is Irreversibility and (2) is Animism
C) (1) is Centration and (2) is Ego centrism
D) (1) is Object Permanence and (2) is absence of Symbolic Representation

103. Consider the following notions of Erick Erickson:

(1) struggle to find a balance between developing a unique, individual identity while still
being accepted and fitting in
(2) intensive analysis and exploration of different ways of looking at oneself.

A) (1) is related to identity vs. role crisis (2) is related to Industry (competence) vs.
Inferiority
B) (1) is related to Intimacy vs. Isolation and (2) is related to identity vs. role crisis
C) (1) and (2) are related to Industry (competence) vs. Inferiority
D) (1) and (2) are related to identity vs. role crisis

104. Consider the following statements:

(1) The ideal of what the child should become
(2) The common beliefs of society's members, even though individuals or groups of them
may have different beliefs

A) (1) is the cause and (2) is the effect

B) (1) is the effect and (2) is the cause
C) (1) and (2) are unrelated
D) (1) and (2) are related but there is no cause effect relationship

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105. Which of the following are generally true for a normal adolescent student?
(1) Generally idealistic, desiring to make the world a better place and to become socially
useful
(2) In transition from moral reasoning which focuses on whats in it for me to that
which considers the feelings and rights of others?
(3) Quick to see flaws in others but slow to acknowledge their own faults

A) All are true generally for an adolescent

B) All are false generally for an adolescent
C) (1) and (2) are true but (3) is false generally for an adolescent
D) (1) and (3) are true but (2) is false generally for an adolescent

106. Match the following:

P) Thorndike 1) Libido
Q) Ivan Pavlov 2) Collective unconscious
R) Sigmund Freud 3) Animal intelligence
S) Carl Gustav Jung 4) Spatial visualization
5) Stimulus generalization

A) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1 B) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

C) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3 D) P-4, Q-3, R- 2, S-5

107. Consider the following statements:

(1) Around 80 percent of the girls wore uniform, Rani is a girl. Therefore, she wore
uniform.
(2) Some actors in the school drama are girls. Aby is a boy. Therefore, Aby is an actor.

A) (1) is a inductive statement and (2) is a deductive statement

B) (1) is a strong deductive statement and (2) is weak deductive statement
C) (1) is strong inductive statement and (2) is weak inductive statement
D) (1) is deductive statement and (2) is inductive statement

108. Logically arrange the first phase of advance organizer model in the classroom:
(1) Present the advance organizer (2) Clarify the aims of the lesson
(3) Prompt for awareness of relevant knowledge

A) (2) (1) (3) B) (1) (2) (3)

C) (3) (2) (1) D) (2) (3) (1)

109. Following are statements related to qualities of a test;

(1) The extent the test measures what the test maker intends to measure,
(2) The extent a test is consistent from one measurement to other

A) (1) is Reliability and (2) is Validity

B) (1) is Validity and (2) is Reliability
C) (1) is Validity and (2) is Usability
D) (1) is Usability and (2) is Reliability

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110. Following are some specification that a teacher observed in the class room. Arrange them in
exact categories given below:
(1) Implementing, (2) Differentiating, (3) Critiquing
A) (1) is application, (2) analysis and (3) is evaluation
B) (1) is evaluation, (2) knowledge and (3) is application
C) (1) is analysis, (2) comprehension and (3) is application
D) (1) is analysis, (2) application and (3) is Creation

111. Two teachers wanted to assess their students.

Teacher (1) wanted to determine whether each student has achieved specific skills or
concepts.
Teacher (2) wanted to rank each student with respect to the achievement of others in broad
areas of knowledge.

A) (1) must follow Norm referenced testing and (2) must follow Criterion referenced
testing
B) Both must follow Norm referenced testing
C) Both must follow Criterion referenced testing
D) (1) must follow Criterion referenced and (2) must follow Norm referenced tests

112. Consider the following statements:

(1) Online course aimed at unlimited participation and open access via the web,
(2) A learning platform,
(3) Open licensing of content, structure and learning goals, to promote the reuse and
remixing of resources.

A) (1) and (2) are about Moodle and (3) is about MOOC
B) (1) and (3) are about MOOC and (2) is about Moodle
C) Only (1) is about MOOC and rest are about Moodle
D) All the statements are about MOOC

113. Consider the following question and hypothesis:

(1) Are teens better at Mathematics than adults?
(2) Age has no effect on mathematical ability.

A) (1) is a research question and (2) is its simple hypothesis

B) (1) is a guess and (2) is its alternate hypothesis
C) (1) is a research question and (2) is its null Hypothesis
D) (1) is a guess and (2) is its Null hypothesis

114. Read statements (1) and (2). Choose the correct answer:
Statement (1): Class represents ones achieved social status
Statement (2): Caste represents ones ascribed social status
A) Both statements (1) and (2) are correct.
B) Both statements (1) and (2) are false.
C) Statement (1) is correct but (2) is false.
D) Statement (2) is correct but (1) is false.

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115. Which of the following statements about NCERT are true?
(1) NCERT is an autonomous organization,
(2) NCERT controls the entire school system in India,
(3) NCERT acts as a nodal agency for achieving the goals of Universalisation of
Elementary Education
A) (1) and (3) are true B) (1) and (2) are true
C) (2) and (3) are true D) All are true

116. The general strategy followed in qualitative research paradigm is based on:
(i) deductive approach (ii) inductive approach
(iii) non- linear approach (iv) linear approach
A) (i) only B) (i) and (ii) only
C) (ii) and (iii) only D) (iii) only

117. Which of the following statements are about Wardha Educational Resolutions (1937)?
(1) Free and compulsory education should be provided on a nation-wide scale,
(2) The system of education will gradually be able to cover the remuneration of the
teachers,
(3) Medium of instruction should be the mother tongue

A) (1) and (3) are correct but (2) is false

B) (1) and (2) are correct but (3) is false
C) (2) and (3) are correct but (1) is false
D) (1) , (2) and (3) are correct

118. Which of the following are the needs under Love and Belongingness as suggested by
Abraham Maslow:
(1) self-respect, (2) intimacy, (3) being part of a group,
(4) friendship (5) respect from others
A) (2), (3), and (4) only B) (1), (3) and (4) only
C) (3), (4), and (5) only D) (1), (4), and (5) only

119. Which of the following are true:

(1) National Policy on Education (1968) recommended common school system,
(2) National Policy on Education (1986) recommended to introduce yoga in all schools
A) (1) is false (2) is true B) (1) and (2) are true
C) Only (1) is true D) (1) and (2) are false

120. Match the following:

P) Mahatma Gandhi 1) Integral education
Q) Tagore 2) Infinite power from within
R) Aurobindo 3) Nature as teacher
S) Vivekananda 4) Para Vidya and AparaVidya
5) Nai Talim
A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3 B) P-1; Q-3; R-2; S-5
C) P-5; Q-3; R-1; S-2 D) P-4; Q-2; R-5; S-3
__________________

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