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Recall Questions September 2014 d. all

12. Elevated cream yellow colored
MICRO-PARA colonies?
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
1. How to prepare agar plates? b. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
a. 1/3water first c. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Pour all agar first d. ALL
c. ½ agar first 13. Optochin test for S. pneumonia?
d. Pour all water first a. <10 mm zone of inhibition in
2. Water bacteriology completed test?
6mm disk
a. Gram neg, non-sporulating on
b. >14mm zone of inhibition in
agar slant
6mm disk
b. Lactose broth -Acid with gas
c. <14mm zone of inhibition in
c. Metallic sheen on EMB
d. Lactose broth -Acid only 6mm disk
3. By product of acetamide utilization? d. >16mm zone of inhibition in
a. Carbon dioxide 6mm disk
b. Ammonia
4. Incubation period for fungal 14. Double zone of hemolysis?
development in bone marrow and CSF? a. C. perfringes
a. 14 days b. C. difficile
b. 7 days c. C. botulinum
c. 28 days d. B. cereus
d. 20 days 15. Cause of whooping cough?
5. Microscope for spirochetes a. Bordetella parapertusis
a. Brightfield b. Bordetella pertussis
b. Fluorescent c. Bordetella bronchiseptica
c. Electron d. ALL
d. Phase contasrt 16. Test for influenza & rubella?
6. How is water bacteriology reported? a. Hemagglutination inhibition
a. CFU b. Neutralization
b. Colonies/ml c. MIT
c. MPN/100ml d.
d. IU/ml 17. True of Leptorspirosis
7. Household bleach inactivated at? a. Smear of urine sediment for
a. 1 hour diagnosis
b. 60 minutes b. Difficult to stain and look for in
c. 10 minutes microscope
d. 60 seconds c. Stained with PAPs
8. What is bench marking? Asked twice. d. all
a. Interlaboratory marketing (1st) 18. Best Quality control in parasitology
b. Interlaboraty monitoring (2nd) Laboratory
c. Bench so others have space a. Slides with ova and adult
d. Comparing results with peers b. Hanging drop from preserved
9. Gravid segments contain? stools
a. Male reproductive organ c. Parasitology atlas
b. Female reproductive organ d. all
c. Egg 19. Stool delayed for 30 minutes must be
d. Scolex transported in
10. Recovered from cestodes in stool are? a. Stuart medium
a. Filariform larva b. Anderson medium
b. Microfilaria c. Francis medium
c. Ova d. Saline Mary medium
d. Proglottids, scolex, ova 20. Undulating membrane (MOORSE TYPE)
11. Enhancement media? a. Trichomonas
a. BAP b. Euglena
b. Thioglycollate broth c. Giardia
c. Selenite broth d. Trypanosoma

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b. TSH
21. Rhabditiform larvae: Thread worm c. T3 uptake
22. Stool sample enrichment: Selenite 8. Chloride and Bicarbonate relationship?
broth Reciprocal
23. Vinegar: flukes can’t be killed 9. Active male hormone? Testosterone
24. True of schistosomiasis: Skin 10. Screening test for Cushing’s syndrome
penetration of cercaria in a. Low dexamethasone -----
contaminated water b. 24 hour urine cortisol
25. Normal oral flora: Viridans c. All items
26. Common pathogen: Group A d. Insulin hypoglycaemia test
27. Stool contaminated with S. aureus 11. Hepatic jaundice: Increase in direct and
what to do? Plate with MSA (7.5%NaCl) indirect bilirubin (both)
28. 8 nuclei: Entamoeba coli. 12. Cholelithiasis: Increase in unconjugated
29. Differentiate histolytica and hartmanii: bilirubin (increase TB > 90% is
size conjugated)
30. 90% cause of malaria: Falciparum and 13. In case of liver transplant which are
vivax monitored? Hepatic enzymes, Bilirubin,
31. POCT for dx of malaria: Falciparum, Coagulation factos
vivax, malariae 14. Glucose oxidase negative; Benedict’s
32. Dwarf: H. nana test positive in new born: Inborn error
33. Herpesviridae-ether sensitive of metabolism
34. True of W.bancroftii: no terminal nuclei 15. TAG has fasting 12-15 hrs (ideal- 12hrs)
(B. malayi yun) 16. RACE meaning = rescue, alarm, contain,
35. Cutaneous larva migrans: Ancylostoma extinguish
brasilense 17. <50 mg/dl alcohol level or 0.05%. What
36. Used in coagulase test: is the presumption
a. Sheep a. Not under influence of alcohol
b. Human b. Presumed to be under influence
c. Goat of alcohol
CC c. No presumption can be done
1. What does U stand for in Clearance = 18. Endogenous TAG: VLDL
urine UxV/P? Urine Creatinine in mg/dl 19. Exogenous TAG: Chylomicrons
2. 12 mg/dl of uric acid to mmol/l = 0.71 20. HEPA meaning= high efficiency
3. TC=200; HDL=30; TAG=150 compute for particulate air
LDL = 140mg/dl 21. Uricase: Enzymatic:H202
4. Which one is not needed in 22. Fahey and Mancini method: Fahey 48-
computation for LDL? 72 hours and sensitive
LDL = TC – (HDL + VLDL) 23. Convert 0.5mg/dl IgD to mmol/L: 5.0
a. HDL 24. pH measurement: Potentiometry
b. VLDL 25. Involved in female hormones:
c. TAG- indirectly needed a. Hirsutism
d. TC b. Polycistic ovarian dse
5. Abrupt change to new mean in Levy c. Infertility
Jenning’s chart d. All
a. Dispersion 26. pC02: increase 3% when increase 1’
b. Shift temp
c. Trend 27. Blood with no anticoagulant blood
6. Hypothyroidism T3 and T4 uptake are? glucose decreases: 7mg/dl per hour
a. Both high 28. Activity depends on increase substrate
b. Both low
concentration. Increase in substrate - - -
c. One is very high and one is
- -for enzyme excess: First order kinetics
moderately high
29. Rape victims: ACP
d. Inversely proportional
30. Renal threshold for glucose: 160-
7. Primary hyperthyroidism with normal
180mg/dl
T4. Confirm with
31. Which enzyme is the least specific?
a. TBG
a. LDH

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b. ALT 4. Gives greatest problem in

c. CK refractometer?
d. ACP a. bubbles
32. Increase in gauge of needle: decrease in b. Cells
bore of needle. c. Crystals
33. All are true for Sodium except: for nerve d. High protein
impulses 5. Same patient voided urine thrice. Which
34. Middle value of date: Median has highest specific gravity?
35. Frequently seen in date: Mode a. All have same SG
36. Total divided by the number of b. 30 ml
populations: Mean c. 100ml
37. True about continuous flow: d. 80ml
a. Use of separate cuvets 6. High renin corresponds to?
b. Use of stirring rod a. Low sodium and low plasma
c. Continuous tubing volume
d. Allows STAT b. High potassium and low plasma
38. Differentiate VLDL from LDL and HDL: volume
TAG and chole content daw po (?) c. Low aldosterone
39. Characteristics of DM: Destruction of B 7. Low EPO due to:
cells (sa pancreas hindi sa immunes a. Renal disease
system ibig sabihin nito); deficiency of b. Cardiomegaly
8. Diluent for WBC CSF Count: Acetic Acid
insulin receptors; increase blood
9. Dilute urine effect on RBC: Swell;
glucose
appears like a halo
40. Which of the following is not considered
10. Curshman spirals
emergency: ans is Glycosuria a. Elongated crystals with Charcot
41. Measure of substance in relation to
Leyden
other substance in solution: b. Spiral microorganisms staining
concentration gram negative
42. Color of <350 nm 11. How much can the glomerulus filter?
a. Red
Less than…
b. Orange
a. <50kDa
c. UV
b. <60kDa
d. Infrared
c. <70kDa
43. Newborn screening:
d. 7000
a. Blood spot test
12. Temperature for Total WBC CSF count:
b. Capillary
c. Venipuncture Refrigeration temp.
d. Heat at 42’c---- 13. Phosphate: Aluminum molybdate for
44. LDL mmol/L: use TAG/2.175 ( Binigay po determination
both friedwald and de long but 14. Fructose in seminalysis if delayed for 2
friedwald ang commonly used) hours: store at Freezing temp till
45. Variation in basal state: exercise, diet available for analysis
(All of the above) 15. CaOx Monohydrate shape: Elongated
CM hourglass shape
1. Urinometer steps: 1. Fill urine; 2. Place 16. True about sputum
urinometer in twisting motion; 3. Read a. Normal body fluid
at lower meniscus b. Usually green color
2. Principle of protein strip? Protein errors c. All of the items
d. From tracheo-bronchial
of indicators.
17. First stage in spermatogenesis:
3. Stain that best differentiates small cells
Spermatogonia
and monocytic cells?
18. For newborn screening specimen
a. PAPS
b. Gram stain collection: Blood spot test
c. Giemsa 19. Bilirubin conjugated with albumin to be
d. NMB processed in the liver?
a. Unconjugated

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b. Conjugated 37. Least significant to most significant cast:

c. Direct hyaline > wbc > granular >rbc >Waxy >
d. None broad
20. Bilirubin measurement in amniotic fluid: hyaline - rbc – granular- wbc-Waxy
Spectrophotometry
21. True of Biosafety cabinet II: Laminar 38. Cast in athlete: Cylinduria
flow 39. Granular cast derived from: Cells
22. Biohazard symbol: Three circles arrange (Apollon)
in a triangle connected by a circle in the 40. Associated with Melanuria: Albinism
middle 41. Which is not a PPE: sharp’s container
23. Sharps sympol: Syringe enclosed in a
Hematology
circle to make it look like an “X”
24. Oligoclonal band: Neurosyphilis not
1. Sex chromosome: Barr body,
Multiple MYELOMA (common mistake) 2. Gray , brown, bluish dots containing
25. Occult blood in stool: Pseudoperoxidase
ribosomes: Basophilic stipplings
activity of haemoglobin 3. Associated with lead poisoning:
26. Blondheim: To differentiate myoglobin
Basophilic stipplings
and haemoglobin 4. Wintrobe tube: 115 mm long 3 mm
27. Principle of protein reagent strip:
internal bore
Albumin accepts hydrogen ions which 5. Tilt tube test size of test tubes:
changes the pH 75x10mm
28. Ketone reagent strip color: Purple 6. Average life span of platelets: 10 days
29. Ketone reagent strip: 7. Not true cell which fragments only from
a. Acetoacetic acid and
the mother cell in the bone marrow?
nitroprusside a. Erythrocyte
b. Acetone and phenosuphthalein b. Leukocyte
c. All items c. Thombocyte ans
d. Betahydroxybutyric acid and --- d. All
30. What tell patient in collection for 8. Computations for corrected WBC count
seminalysis: (MOORSE TYPE) (2 questions)
a. Abstain for 2-3 weeks = (2-7 9. When is nRBC considered significant?
days) 5nRBC present
b. No alcohol driking 10. Vitamin K dependent (asked twice):
c. Place in penicillin bottle
2,7,9,10
d. No smoking
11. >30 x 10^9 WBC: Dilute at 1:200
31. Stool WBC differential count:
12. 0.1 to 30x10^9: Dilute at 1;20 ____
a. Polymorphonuclear cells and
Monocyte 13. Patient is bleeding while being treated
b. Phagocytic and non-phagocytic with thrombolytic infusion something.
c. Segmenters, Monocytes, Blood results of blood taken DURING
Eosinophils infusion (heparin)
32. Most abundant WBC in urine: PTT: Very Prolong.
Neutrophil (?) Fibrinogen: Very Low. What is the most
33. Best indicator for urinary bladder likely disease?
infection: Neutrophil a. Hypofibrinogenemia
34. Indicator for Acute tubular necrosis: b. Hyperplasminemia
a. Brown cast c. Liver and kidney disease
b. >1000WBC d. DIC ans
c. Renal cell- renal tubular 14. Stem cell to blast: 3-5 days. Life span in
epithelial cells circulation: 121 days. What cell?
d. Hemoglobinuria a. Monocyte
35. Most significant cell: Renal cell (RTE) b. Erythrocyte ans
36. Blood in peritoneal fluid c. Lymphocyte
a. TB peritonitis d. Basophil
b. Malignancy 15. Stem cell to blast: 5. Life span in tissue:
10 days. What cell?

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a. Monocyte an 2. If three phases of Ab screen is negative,

b. Erythrocyte what to do: Add IgG coated cells (check
c. Lymphocyte cells)
d. Basophil 3. Which is a classification of cell (?)
16. Patient is bleeding while being treated
according to function?
with thrombolytic infusion a. NK cell
something.Blood results of blood taken b. B cell
BEFORE heparin c. Tcell
d. All
PTT: Prolong. Fibrinogen: Very low 4. CD marker for T cells: CD4 and CD8
5. C3 has high affinity for:
a. Hypofibrinogenemia a. IgM
b. Hyperplasminemia b. IgG
c. Liver and Kidney disease 6. Mycetoma & “Black lung?”: Aspergillus
d. DIC fumigatus
17. Bone marrow smear is prepared by: 7. MHC lymphotoxicity microscope used:
a. Crush
Phase contrast microscope
b. Concentrate
8. Deficiency in C3: Disease of the kidney
c. Particulate
d. All ans (presumed to be AGN)
18. How to make good smear? 9. Enzyme present in neutrophil but
a. Smooth and rapid absent in monocyte?
b. Smooth ans a. Peroxidise
c. Slow b. ALP
d. Rapid c. ACP
19. What can be made with automated 10. All has end stage except?
smear maker? a. Monocyte
a. Wedge ans b. Neutrophil
b. Cover slip c. Eosinophil
c. All 11. Penicillin (Anti-penicillin): Type II
20. Failure to create secondary enzymes: hypersensitivity
Pelger huet 12. Associated with hairy cell leukemia?
21. Hyposegmentation: Pelger huet a. EBV
b. CMV
22. FAB classification of acute myeloblastic c. HTLV-2
leukemia WITHOUT maturation = M1 13. Antibody is to Antigen; Immunogen is to
23. Differentiate ALL from AML in that ALL Immunoglobulin
is: Negative to both esterase and 14. Ragocytes: Rheumatoid Arthritis
peroxidise 15. Circulating in Rheumatoid arthritis:
24. Differentiate CML from leukemoid Rheumatoid factor
a. Basophils present 16. Paternity testing: dna testing
b. LAP score of more than 100 17. To differentiate ABO & Rh HDN:
25. Grading of codocytes 20-50/oif: +3 Amniotic fluid O.D
26. MCV <85; MCHC <31 18. Amniotic fluid, bilirubin:
a. Macrocytic, normochromic Spectrophotometry
b. Microcytic, hypochromic ans 19. WB to PRBC what to do: Change label to
c. Normo,normo PRBC and adjust expiration date
d. Marco, hypo (rationale: becomes open system)
27. Increase in WBC: 20.
a. Strenuous exercise
b. Emotions Anti A Anti B Anti AB Cell A Cell B
c. Crying ++ + + ++++ +++
d. All ans Possible cause?
ISBB a. Contamination
b. Cold agglutinins
1. Gel technology centrifuge time: 10
minutes

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21. Emergency and no O negative or O

positive cells available. What should be
given?
a. AB negative plasma
b. Oh Bombay blood
c. Crystalloid
22. Not indicated for Cryoppt:
a. Hypofibrinogenemia
b. vWF dse
c. XIII deficiency
d. ITP
23. Mr. Palanca is a resident in Palawan for
10 years. How many years deferral
before blood donation: 3 years ( 1 year
if traveller)
24. Point of care testing for HBSAg
a. Viral load
b. PCR
c. Sandwich method (inisip ko na
lang po yung kit na readily
available at yung principle niya)
25. Most number of subgroups:
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O

Histopath-MT laws

1. Revocation of license: 3/3 or unanimous

2. Suspension of license: 2/3 or majority
3. 1 legal counsel and 2 members of
board- h
Composition of tribunal who will
conduct administrative investigation
4. Members of board are appointed by:
President of Philippines
5. Most commonly used fixative: Aldehyde
6. Fixative for Immunohistochemistry:
Osmium tetroxide and Glutaradlehyde