This document contains a biology exam with multiple choice and short answer questions. It tests knowledge of topics like:
- Scientific naming conventions
- Taxonomic hierarchies of organisms
- Ecological concepts like population density calculations
- Genetics concepts like inheritance patterns, DNA structure and function, restriction enzymes, and recombinant DNA techniques.
The exam contains diagrams illustrating processes like DNA replication, the phosphorus cycle, electrophoresis gel results, and uses of restriction enzymes. Students are required to interpret the diagrams, define terms, describe sequences of events, calculate values, and explain scientific concepts.
This document contains a biology exam with multiple choice and short answer questions. It tests knowledge of topics like:
- Scientific naming conventions
- Taxonomic hierarchies of organisms
- Ecological concepts like population density calculations
- Genetics concepts like inheritance patterns, DNA structure and function, restriction enzymes, and recombinant DNA techniques.
The exam contains diagrams illustrating processes like DNA replication, the phosphorus cycle, electrophoresis gel results, and uses of restriction enzymes. Students are required to interpret the diagrams, define terms, describe sequences of events, calculate values, and explain scientific concepts.
This document contains a biology exam with multiple choice and short answer questions. It tests knowledge of topics like:
- Scientific naming conventions
- Taxonomic hierarchies of organisms
- Ecological concepts like population density calculations
- Genetics concepts like inheritance patterns, DNA structure and function, restriction enzymes, and recombinant DNA techniques.
The exam contains diagrams illustrating processes like DNA replication, the phosphorus cycle, electrophoresis gel results, and uses of restriction enzymes. Students are required to interpret the diagrams, define terms, describe sequences of events, calculate values, and explain scientific concepts.
This document contains a biology exam with multiple choice and short answer questions. It tests knowledge of topics like:
- Scientific naming conventions
- Taxonomic hierarchies of organisms
- Ecological concepts like population density calculations
- Genetics concepts like inheritance patterns, DNA structure and function, restriction enzymes, and recombinant DNA techniques.
The exam contains diagrams illustrating processes like DNA replication, the phosphorus cycle, electrophoresis gel results, and uses of restriction enzymes. Students are required to interpret the diagrams, define terms, describe sequences of events, calculate values, and explain scientific concepts.
1. Which of the following is the correct form of the scientific name for “Flame of the forest” in Linnaeus Binomial system? A. Delonix regia B. Delonix Regia C. Delonix Regia D. Delonix regia 2. All prototista are alike in that they are A. autotrophic B. heterotrophic C. unicellular D. eukaryotic 3. Which of the following sequences is the correct taxonomic hierarchy for man? A. Mammalia, Animalia, Primates, Hominidae, Chordata, Homo, sapiens. B. Animalia, Primates, Mammalia, Chordata, Homo, sapiens, Hominidae C. Animalia, Chordata, Mammalia, Primates, Hominidae, Homo, sapiens D. Mammalia, Chordata, Animalia, Primates, Hominidae, Homo, sapiens 4. Which group could be a population? A. all the animals and plants on an isolated island B. all the birds counted in one day in a garden C. all the bacteria in a colony of Bacillus subtilis D. all the insects occupying three hectares of farmland 5. Of the prey consumed by the lion, into which box, A, B, C or D does the largest amount of energy go?
6. A species that is relatively r-selected might have all the following characteristics except A. a disturbed habitat B. small offspring C. parental care of offspring D. numerous offspring 7. A 25 cm x 25 cm quadrat is used to study the density of Imperata sp. in a school field. The results obtained are shown in the table below. Quadrat 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Quantity 20 4 16 20 0 18 4 10 8 0 Using the data given above, calculate the density of Imperata sp. A.10 B .100 C. 160 D 320
964/ paper 3 / Oct 2016 1
8. A variation that is determined by different alleles of a single gene and has no intermediate form can be found in A. skin colour B. body mass C. iris colour D. height 9. Diagram 1 shows the phosphorus cycle.
Diagram 1 Which of the following matches about the stages of the phosphorus cycle is correct? Sedimentation Decomposition Erosion Absorption & assimilation A. X Y W Z B. X W Z Y C. Y Z X W D. Z W X Y
10. Consider Diagram 2 that models changes in allele frequencies for one trait in a population over two generations. The original population is shown on the left.
Diagram 2 If Diagram 2 models the founder effect, then event X is A. migration. B. a natural disaster. C. random mating. D. a random assortment of alleles. 11. Which pedigree represents an X-linked dominant trait? A. B. C. D.
12. Plasmids of bacteria are used to transfer selected genes from one species to another. The process can be represented as follows.
bacterial plasmid cut foreign gene and plasmid mixed plasmid with inserted foreign gene
Enzymes are used to facilitate several of these steps. Which one of the following shows the enzymes required for the first and last steps of the process? Cuts plasmid Inserts genes A. restriction enzyme DNA ligase B. restriction enzyme DNA polymerase C. DNA ligase DNA polymerase D. DNA polymerase DNA ligase
964/ paper 3 / Oct 2016 2
13. In populations of fruit flies, there are individuals that are resistant to the effects of insecticides. Insecticide-resistant fruit flies arose as a result of a mutation. In normal insecticide-susceptible fruit flies, a specific section of mRNA has the sequence GCU, whereas in the insecticide-resistant fruit flies, the sequence is UCU. This mutation is an example of a A. chromosomal deletion during the formation of a gamete. B. nucleotide substitution during the formation of a gamete. C. chromosomal deletion during the formation of a somatic cell. A. nucleotide substitution during the formation of a somatic cell. 14. The following is a sequence of amino acids located within a polypeptide: – Asn – Gly – Pro – Arg – Ser –
Using the table provided, the DNA template sequence that could code for this amino acid sequence is A. TTG / CCC / GGT / GCT / TCG B. TTG / GTT / GGT / GCT / TCG C. TTG / CCC / GGT / GCT / TCT D. UUG / CCC / GGU / CGU / UGC 15. During a fight between a numbers of people, one was seriously injured. Blood samples were taken from the victim, the crime scene and four suspects. DNA was extracted from white blood cells in each of the blood samples and electrophoresis of the samples was carried out. The results are shown in Diagram 3. The person most likely to have been at the crime scene is suspect A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
Diagram 3 964/ paper 3 / Oct 2016 3 Section B [15 marks] : Answer all questions in this section.
16. Diagram 4 illustrates replication of DNA in cells.
Diagram 4 a) i) Describe the sequence of events shown within the dotted rectangle in Diagram 4. [2 marks] ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) What is the role of DNA polymerase in the process? [1 mark]
c) The table below shows the bases guanine and cytosine as percentages of the total nucleotides present in three different micro-organisms. Base composition (%) Microorganism G C Yeast 18.7 17.1 Bacteria 36.0 35.7 Virus 42.0 13.9 Suggest which type of nucleic acid is present in the virus shown in the table. Explain your answer. [2 marks] ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
964/ paper 3 / Oct 2016 4
17. Restriction enzymes are essential tools of genetic engineering. A restriction enzyme cuts the double-stranded DNA molecule at its specific recognition site. Diagram 5 shows how one such enzyme would cut out a DNA fragment.
Diagram 5 a) i) Draw in the bases which are missing from the ends of the fragment of DNA which has been cut out. [1 mark] ii) Explain why the parts completed in (i) are known as ‘sticky ends’. [1 mark] …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. iii) A number of different restriction enzymes are now available, some of which are shown in the table below: Enzyme Source Recognition site EcoRI Escherichia coli RY13 GAATTC BamHI Bacillus amyloliquefaciens H GGATCC HindIII Haemophilus influenzae Rd AAGCTT
Name the enzyme used in the example above. [1 mark]
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… b) In recombinant DNA technology, the piece of DNA which has been cut out is inserted into a plasmid which has been cut open using the same enzyme. i) Define the term ‘plasmid’. [1 mark] …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. ii) Why is it important to use the same enzyme? [1 mark] …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. iii) Name the type of enzyme used to join the cut fragment into the plasmid. [1 mark] ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
964/ paper 3 / Oct 2016 5
c) Restriction enzymes are also used to cut up DNA during DNA fingerprinting/profiling. Labelled DNA probes are then used to identify the positions of the fragments on an electrophoresis gel. The fragments used are sections cut from introns rather than exons. Explain why introns are more useful for genetic fingerprinting than exons. [2 marks] …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Section C [30 marks]
Answer any two questions in this section.
18. a) Explain the meaning of the term ecosystem. [5 marks]
b) Explain how energy is transferred along the food chain in an ecosystem. [10 marks]
19. a) What is meant by allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation? [2 marks]
b) Explain the process of isolation in the speciation process. [8 marks] c) Illustrate by means of a genetic diagram, the stages involved in the hybridization between grasses of Spartina alterniflora (2n=70) and Spartina stricta (2n =56) to form a new species Spartina townsendii (4n = 126) [5 marks]
20. a) A population of fruit flies consists of 250 individuals. 195 individuals have grey bodies. The allele for grey is dominant (K) and the allele for ebony body is recessive (k). Assuming the population is in a genetic equilibrium; calculate the frequency for the alleles and the ratios for the three genotypes in the population. [8 marks] b) The ABO blood group is governed by a set of three multiple alleles, IA, IB and IO. IA and IB are codominant, IO is recessive. A man of blood group B married a woman of unknown ABO blood group. They had three children. One of the children had blood group A, one had blood group AB and one had blood group O. i) State the genotypes of the parents and give an explanation for your answer. [5 marks] ii) Draw a genetic diagram to show the inheritance of ABO blood groups in this family. [2 marks]
964/3 Answers: 16. i) DNA molecule unwinds; a) Unzips/ breaks hydrogen bonds/ strands separate; (free) {nucleotides } {join/align} with {complementary bases/ A to T/ C to G}; ii) {To join the nucleotides together/ catalyses the addition of nucleotides} to form a {new strand/ backbone/ phosphodiester bonds}; b) Each new DNA molecule has one {original/ template} strand; And one new strand which has been {made/ synthesised/ replicated}; c) RNA; NOT mRNA, tRNA, rRNA The percentages of G and C are not equal and so there is no (complementary) base pairing;
17. i) AATT and TTAA;
a) ii) they have unpaired bases / they have exposed bases / they are single stranded DNA sections; iii) EcoR1; b) i) {Ring of / circle of / loop of} DNA (found in bacteria); Accept {additional / extra} DNA qualified ii) so that the cut ends (of the fragment and the plasmid) are complementary; iii) Ligase; c) P1: Introns are {non-coding / blocks of repeated nucleotides} /exons code (for proteins); P2: so there is more variability / more unique to individual / {number of times that the blocks are repeated varies/ {STRs / VNTRs} vary / ORA for exons;
18. 1) an ecosystem comprises biotic components and abiotic components that mutually interact and a) function together (to form a stable and balanced natural system) 2) the biotic component of an ecosystem involves all the living organisms that interact with each other in the ecosystem 3) the biotic components of an ecosystem comprises at least three trophic levels: producers (autotrophs), consumers (heterotrophs) and the composers 4) The energy flow in an ecosystem is continuous and produces an output of heat energy 5) Nutrients such as water, sulphur and phosphorus are recycled by biogeochemical cycles 6) example: Pond ecosystem that consists of biotic components such as carp, Daphnia and abiotic components such as pond water, soil and sunlight [Max: 5] b) 1. Solar energy / sun is the source of energy / energy enters as light energy; 2. Photosynthesis (by primary producers) converts light energy to chemical energy (in organic molecules); 3. Not all light / only some light / 1-5% of light striking plants is used for photosynthesis / biomass production; 4. Some is reflected / passes between cells / chloroplasts / wrong wavelength/ is transmitted/ passes through; 5. Correct definition of GPP/ total (bio)mass of (organic) produce/ rate at which products are formed/ kJm-2yr-1 / Correct definition for NPP/ Mass available to primary consumers / GPP- Respiration=NPP; 6. Biomass/ plant matter / chemical energy is transferred from producer / plants to herbivores / primary consumers when it is eaten; 7. Not all plant is eaten (e.g. roots) / digested (e.g. cellulose) // only 10 % of the biomass produced consumed by the herbivores // 10% of the energy is transferred to the next trophic level; 8. (Respiration / excretion) energy is lost as heat energy/ used for movement/ metabolism/ active transport // 90% of the energy is lost to the environment // 9. secondary consumers feed on primary consumers - 1 10. energy is transferred from second to third trophic level - 1 11. tertiary consumers feed on secondary consumers - 1 12. there are seldom more than 5 trophic levels - 1 13. large amount of energy is lost during each transfer (within and between the organism) //Each trophic level received less energy than the level below it - 1 14. at the fourth or fifth level. only a small amount energy is left / insufficient to support further trophic level - 1 964/ paper 3 / Oct 2016 7 15. limiting the number of members in the higher trophic level – 1 Max 10
19. Allopatric speciation is the speciation that occurs when one population becomes a) geographically separated from the rest of the species and subsequently evolves into a new species Sympatric speciation is the evolution of a new species within the same geographical region (as the parental species) b) P1: One population may become geographically separated due to rivers / P2: mountain range/ ocean/ physical barrier P3: Forming into two demes/ smaller population/ sub-population P4: Geographical isolation may prevent inter breeding/ genetic exchange P5: Leading to reproductive isolation P6: reproductive isolation can be brought about by prezygotic barriers P7: such as temporal isolation, habitat isolation, behavioural isolation, mechanical isolation P8: which prevent mating / interbreeding P9: reproductive isolation can be brought about by postzygotic barriers P10: such as hybrid inviability, hybrid sterility or hybrid breakdown P11: that reduce the viability or fertility of zygotes after mating has occurred P12: The isolated populations will gradually diverge// adapt to the new environment P13: Through natural selection P14: different forces of natural selection act on isolated populations P15: natural selection favours the survival of different gene pools / individuals P16: Will lead to changes in allele/ gene (and genotype) frequencies P17: Prolonged separation of populations may result in them becoming genetically isolated// no gene flow P18: Over time, two distinct populations result, each with their own gene pool P19: new species can no longer interbreed with individuals in the original population to produce fertile offspring; c) Spartina alterniflora X Spartina stricta 2n = 70 2n = 56 Gametes: n = 35 n = 28 F1 (hybrid) 2n = 63 The F1 hybrid are sterile but occasionally non-disjunction of the F1 hybrids produces gametes with the diploid set of chromosomes (2n = 63)
Gametes: 2n = 63 X 2n = 63 F2 (hybrid): Fertile new (tetraploid) species ( Spartina townsendii, 4n = 126)
20 The number of Drosophila with ebony body = 250-195 = 55
a) The frequency for homozygous recessive genotype (ebony body) q2 = 55/250 = 0.22 q = √0.22 = 0.469 p=1–q = 1 – 0.469 = 0.531 Frequency for KK (grey body) = p2 = 0.531 x 0.531 = 0.282 Frequency for Kk = 2 pq = 2 (0.282)(0.469) = 0.498 Genotype ratio = 0.282 (KK) : 0.489 (Kk) : 0.220 (kk)
