Bulls Eye SSC Clerk

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SECTION - I: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE

DIRECTIONS for question 1 to 7: Select the related world/letters/number from the given alternatives.

1. Flower : Petal :: Book : ?

1. Page 2. Contents 3. Author 4. Library

2. Doctor : Hospital:: ?

1. Plumber : Wrench 2. Chef : Kitchen 3. Water : Reservoir 4. Farmer : Village

3. Patient : Hospital :: Car : ?

1. Hangar 2. House 3. Garage 4. Office

4. COMPREHENSION : NOISNEHERPMOC : : BEAUTY:

1. EAUTYB 2. AUTYBE 3. YTUAEB 4. UTYBEA

5. BADC : XWZY :: QPSR : ?

1. TUVW 2. GHIJ 3. LMON 4. NMPO

6. 64:81::8: ?

1. 7 2. 8 3. 9 4. 6

7. 175:13:: 108: ?

1. 6 2. 7 3. 8 4. 9

DIRECTIONS for question 8 to 11: In questions no. 8 to 11, find the odd words/letters/number pair
from the given alternatives.

8. 1. University : Vice-Chancellor
2. College : Principal
3. Industry : Chairman-cum-Managing Director
4. Newspaper : Reporter

9. 1. Humility 2. Modesty 3. Simplicity 4. Vanity

10. 1. AABE 2. MMNO 3. GGHK 4. KKLO

11. 1. 12 – 39 2. 16 – 52 3. 19 - 61 4. 24 – 76

12. In the following letter series, how many P Q S occur in such a way, Q is in the middle and P
and S are on any one side ?
MDRPQGKPQSLAPQS
TGKPQGMDGPQSTU

1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 1
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13. Find out the set among the four sets which is like the given set.
Given set is (63, 54, 45)

1. (29, 20, 11) 2. (30, 21, 11) 3. (28, 17, 8) 4. (36, 45, 33)

14. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following ?

A. Rain B. Sunlight C. Vapour D. Cloud

1. D, A, B, C 2. B, C, A, D 3. C, B, D, A 4. B, C, D, A

15. Arrange the following words as per order in the English dictionary :

A. Activity B. Attention C. Arise D. Absent

1. D, A, C, B 2. D, C, B, A 3. B, C, D, A 4. C, B, A, D

16. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
complete it ?

ba_abab_b_ba_aba

1. abab 2. Aabb 3. baab 4. Bbaa

DIRECTIONS for question 17 to 19: In questions a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the
correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

17. ZIP, WIP, TIP, ?

1. PIP 2. RIP 3. QIP 4. SIP

18. 10, 18, 28, 40, 54, 70, ?

1. 85 2. 86 3. 87 4. 88

19. 0, 6, 20, 42, ?

1. 82 2. 81 3. 72 4. 76

20. If the day before yesterday was Sunday, when will Thursday be ?

1. Today 2. Tomorrow
3. Day after tomorrow 4. Two days after tomorrow

21. Mohan is older than Prabir. Suresh is younger than Prabir. Mihir is older than Suresh, but
younger than Prabir. Who among the four is the youngest ?

1. Prabir 2. Mihir 3. Mohan 4. Suresh

22. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The
present age of his son is

1. 14 years 2. 22 years 3. 20 years 4. 18 years

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23. If the seventh person from the front in a queue is the tenth person from behind, how many are
there in the queue ?

1. 17 2. 16 3. 14 4. 10

24. `X' and `Y' are brothers. `B' is the daughter of `A'. `A' is the wife of `Y'. What is the relation of
`B' to`X'?

1. Daughter 2. Sister 3. Sister-in-law 4. Niece

25. If W = 23, STRONG = 93, then WEAK = ?

1. 38 2. 44 3. 40 4. 41

26. If INTERNET is written as 14325423 and DISTANCE is written as 61738492, then what will
CENTRE be written as ?

1. 124576 2. 924352 3. 852431 4. 291534

27. If CIGARETTE is coded as GICERAETT, then DIRECTION will be coded as

1. RIDTCENOI 2. NORTECDII 3. RIDTCEION 4. IRDCTIONE

28. Some capital letters are given below in the first line and numbers are assigned to each of them in
the second line. The numbers are the codes for the letters and vice-versa.

M 0 EAS JTZ
3 57 6 2940
Choose the correct number code for the given set of letters.
JEZTMS

1. 970435 2. 970345 3. 970534 4. 970432

29. From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters given in the
word.
PRONUNCIATION

1. NATURAL 2. PRINTING 3. PUNCTUATION 4. RATION

30. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the
given word.
APPEARANCE

1. PANE 2. NEAR 3. PEAS 4. REAP

DIRECTIONS for question 31 to 32: In questions no. 31 and 32, select the missing number from the
given responses.

31.
3 15 5
5 35 7
9 ? 5

1. 42 2. 35 3. 45 4. 25
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32.
15 11 20
2 3 1
5 6 7
35 39 ?

1. 30 2. 35 3. 27 4. 24

DIRECTIONS for question 33 to 34: some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On
the same basis, find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.

33. If 8 – 3 + 4= 348, 9 – 6 + 8 = 689, then 5 – 9 + 6 = ?

1. 659 2. 965 3. 596 4. 956

34. If 882 = 20
And 996 = 26, then
739 = ?

1. 24 2. 30 3. 20 4. 21

35. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace Y signs and to balance the given
equation.
8  6  7  3  18

1. + - + = 2. + + - = 3. - + + = 4. + -  =

36. If ‘’ means ‘‘, ‘’ means ‘x’, ‘x’ mean ‘+’ and ‘+’ means ‘’, then
20 + 60  40 – 20 + 10 = ?

1. 0 2. 40 3. 60 4. 80

37. Aman starts walking from his college, walks 10 km towards North, then he turns to his left and
walks 10 km. From there he takes a right turn and walks 10 km. In which direction is he facing
now ?

1. South 2. North 3. East 4. West

38. Medha moves towards South-East for 7 km, then moves towards West for 14 km. Then she
moves towards North-West for 7 km and finally moves a distance of 4 km East and stands there.
How far is the starting point from where she stands now ?

1. 3 km 2. 4 km 3. 7 km 4. 10 km

39. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the
statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have
to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
Indicate your answer.

Statements :
A. Teachers are role models of the students.
B. Teachers are responsible for developing scientific attitude in their students.
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Conclusions :
I. Students do not have scientific attitude.
II. By and large teachers can influence scientific attitude of the students.

1. Only conclusion I follows 2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow 4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

40. Which of the conclusions can be drawn from the given statement :

Statement :
Many creative persons become artists.

1. A creative person will certainly become an artist.

2. It is not possible to become an artist without creativity.
3. A high level of creativity is needed to become an artist.
4. Some artists are creative persons.

41. Manisha is sitting in between Kamini and Suvarna. Smita is right to Suvarna. Kamini is left to
Manisha. Select the correct seating order.

1. Kamini, Suvarna, Smita, Manisha 2. Manisha, Suvarna, Smita, Kamini

3. Kamini, Manisha, Smita, Suvarna 4. Kamini, Manisha, Suvarna, Smita

42. The population of a city doubles every 6 years. If in 2005, the population is 10,562, by which
year will the population increase to 42,248 ?

1. 2011 2. 2023 3. 2017 4. 2029

43. Select the related figure from the given alternatives.

Question figures :

Answer figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

44. Select the figure which is different from the rest three.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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45. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

Question figures:

Answer figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

46. Select the missing number from the given responses.

? 8

11
20

15

1. 24 2. 26 3. 28 4. 30

47. Identify the diagram-that best represents the relationship among the classes given below :
Sparrow, Bird, Cat

1. 2. 3. 4.

48. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure:

Answer figure

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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49. A piece of paper is folded and cut/punched as shown below in the question figures. From the
given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Question figure:

Answer figure

(1) (2) (3) (4)

50. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question figure:

Answer figures:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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SECTION - I: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

DIRECTIONS for question 51 to 55: Some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct.
Find L" out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the oval corresponding to the
appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the oval corresponding to (D) in the
Answer Sheet.

51. Eighty-five thousand rupees (1)/ is a large sum of money (2)/ to earn in a month. (3) /
No error (4)

52. His voice shook with emotion (1)/ and it was so funny to hear him(2) / that all we longed to
laugh and to cry (4) / No error (4)

53. It being a rainy day (1) / I will decide to skip work (2)/ and stay at home.(3) / No error (4)

54. Another baffling change (1)/ that I noticed in him nowdays (2)/ is that he avoids speaking to me.
(3) / No error (4)

55. I had asked him (1)/ how he could go out (2) / if it started raining. (3)/ No error (4)

DIRECTIONS for question 56 to 60: Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative
out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval (() in the Answer Sheet.

56. The Prime Minister insisted __________ fuel prices in the Cabinet meeting.

1. to raise 2. on raising 3. in raising 4. at raising

57. The __________ of puppies is fond of milk.

1. gang 2. Litter 3. group 4. litre

58. He ________ his father.

1. takes back 2. takes after 3. takes off 4. takes out

59. Guard _________ spelling mistakes

1. against 2. after 3. above 4. at

60. Make hay while the sum_________

1. shines 2. is shining 3. was shining 4. has been shining

DIRECTIONS for question 61 to 62: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

61. Impetuous

1. Impious 2. Impressive 3. Hasty 4. Disturbing

62. Evade

1. Vacate 2. Cheat 3. Pretend 4. Avoid

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DIRECTIONS for question 63 to 64: Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and
mark it in the Answer Sheet.

63. Indomitable

1. Adamant 2. Certain 3. Arrogant 4. Cowardly

64. Felicity

1. Innocence 2. Sorrow 3. Mimicry 4. Infidelity

DIRECTIONS for question 65 to 66: In questions four words are given in each question, out of which
only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer
Sheet.

65. 1. Acquaintence 2. Acquintance 3. Acquiantance 4. Acquaintance

66. 1. Deteriarate 2. Deteriorate 3. Detireorate 4. Detiorrate

DIRECTIONS for question 67 to 69: Four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in
the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it
in the Answer Sheet.

67. The die is cast and nothing can be done now.

1. The game has been played 2. There has been a failure

3. The effect has worn out 4. The decision has been taken

68. He is in the habit of picking holes in everything.

1. delving deep into 2. finding fault with

3. causing trouble to 4. asking questions about

69. The member took exception to the secretary's remark about the current political situation in the
State.

1. accepted readily 2. laughed at 3. objected to 4. granted

DIRECTIONS for question 70 to 72: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
substituted for the given words/sentence.

70. One who possesses many talents.

1. Versatilew 2. Unique 3. Dexterous 4. Attractive

71. Detailed plan of journey.

1. Travelogue 2. Travel-kit 3. Schedule 4. Itinerary

72. One who lives/survives on others/other lives.

1. Expatriate 2. Pesticide 3. Parasite 4. Refugee

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DIRECTIONS for question 73 to 74: In questions, a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are
given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B), (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the
correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the
Answer Sheet.

73. He argued endlessly with him on the subject.

1. argued on and on 2. argued all the time 3. argued continuously 4. No improvement

74. She sat on the tree to protect herself from the rain.

1. sat upon 2. sat before 3. sat under 4. No improvement

DIRECTIONS for question 75 to 79: A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the
four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active
Voice and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

75. They proposed to hold a meeting.

1. A meeting had to be proposed to be held by them.

2. It was proposed by them to hold a meeting.
3. A meeting should be proposed to be held.
4. It was proposed to hold a meeting.

76. Her manners pleased us very much.

1. We were very much pleased on her manners.

2. We are very much pleased with her manners.
3. We pleased her very much with manners.
4. We were very much pleased with her manners.

77. The driver was blowing the horn.

1. The horn was blown by the driver. 2. The horn was being blown by the driver.
3. The horn has been blown by the driver. 4. The horn is being blown by the driver.

78. I shall post these letters tomorrow.

1. These letters would be posted tomorrow. 2. These letters will be posted tomorrow.
3. These letters are to be posted tomorrow. 4. These letters have to be posted tomorrow.

79. A massive search operation has been launched to nab the suspects.

1. The police had launched a massive search operation to nab the suspects.
2. The police have launched a massive search operation to nab the suspects.
3. The police launched a massive search operation to nab the suspects.
4. The police had been launched a massive search operation to nab the suspects.
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DIRECTIONS for question 80 to 84: A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct and
mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

80. He said, "He took tea in the morning."

1. He said that he did take tea in the morning.

2. He said that he had taken tea in the morning.
3. He said that he took tea in the morning.
4. He said that he would take tea in the morning.

81. He requested the boss to let him go on with his project.

1. He said to the boss, "You better let me go on with my project."

2. He told the boss, "Please go on with my project."
3. He said to the boss, "Let me go on with my project please."
4. He told the boss, "Go on with my project please."

82. I told her, "It was raining last night when you left."

1. I told her that it had been raining the previous night when she had left.
2. I told her that it was raining last night when she left.
3. I told her that it has been raining the night before when she left.
4. I told her that it had been raining last night when she had left.

83. She said, "I shall try to bring you the books tomorrow."

1. She said that she should try to bring me the books the next day.
2. She said that she would try to bring me the books the next day.
3. She said that she would try to bring me the books tomorrow.
4. She said that she should try to bring me the books tomorrow.

84. He said, "Alas ! The little puppy is run over by the car."

1. He exclaimed, alas, the little puppy was run over by the car.
2. He exclaimed sadly that the little puppy was run over by the car.
3. He exclaimed sadly that the little puppy had been run over by the car.
4. He exclaimed sadly that the little puppy is run over by the car.

DIRECTIONS for question 85 to 90: The last sentences of the passage/parts of the sentence are
numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage/sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S.
These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the passage /sentence and find out which of
the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it by blacken' the
appropriate in Answer Sheet it.

85. 1. Sappho was one of the greatest and earliest of women poets.
P. Whatever we know about her poetry today is from the quotations found in the works of
others.
Q. She lived on the island of Lesbos in the late 600's BC.
R. Most of Sappho's works – about 10 books of verse have been destroyed.
S. Only one of her poems has survived in its complete form.
6. Without doubt, she was one of the best lyric poets of Ancient Greece.

1. PRQS 2. PQSR 3. QSPR 4. QRSP

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86. 1. Most men spend most of their lives looking after and waiting upon machines.
P. They must be fed well and kept at right temperatures.
Q. They might burst with rage and blow up causing ruin.
R. If they do not get their meals they refuse to work.
S. Machines are very stern masters.
6. So, men need to wait upon machines attentively.

1. SPRQ 2. PQRS 3. QSPR 4. RPQS

87. 1. Books have been present since the time the first scripts were formed – about 5000 years ago.
P. The books of that time looked different from the ones available today.
Q. Then an important invention, letter press printing, also known as `black art' changed the
world.
R. Later, the books came in the form of rollers, or texts were stapled together and covered with a
wooden book cover.
S. Initially, people bound the small clay tablets together with leather bands.
6. There was no longer the need to write text by hand; instead copies of text could be made with
the help of a printing press.

1. PRQS 2. PSRQ 3. SPRQ 4. SRQP

88. 1. The harnessing of our rivers

P. is a great national problem
Q. the waters of which
R. which must be considered
S. now mostly run to waste
6. and dealt with on national lines.

1. RPQS 2. QSPR 3. QSRP 4. RPSQ

89. 1. Many people drive

P. hopelessly jammed
Q. their own cars to work
R. the roads would become
S. but if everyone did this
6. especially during rush-hours.

1. QSRP 2. PRQS 3. RPSQ 4. QSPR

90. 1. I realize that peace and

P. security are rightful aims,
Q. violent adventure is probably
R. and that my own desire for
S. merely an adaptation to the
6. age in which I live.

1. PQRS 2. SRQP 3. PRQS 4. SPQR

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DIRECTIONS for question 91 to 95: The following passage some of the words have been left out.
Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer to each question out of the four alternatives
and fill in the blanks.

Meeting old school friends can be a strange experience. Some have changed so much that you
can 91 recognize them : they speak with a different 92, are interested in different things, and all you can
do is make 93 talk and hope they'll go soon. Others, though you might have been out of 94 with them
for years, are just the same as they always were; it's 95 if you saw them yesterday.

91. 1. Nearly 2. Almost 3. hardly 4. Easily

92. 1. Language 2. Accent 3. way 4. Tongue

93. 1. Small 2. Little 3. Silly 4. Gossip

94. 1. Sight 2. Touch 3. Sound 4. Feel

95. 1. Just 2. Like 3. So 4. As

DIRECTIONS for question 96 to 100: A brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read
the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark
it by blackening the appropriate in the Answer Sheet.

Earth is the only planet so far known with the suitable environment for sustaining life. Land, water, air,
plants and animals are the major components of the global environment. Population, food and energy
are the three fundamental problems facing mankind. Unemployment, inflation, crowding, dwindling
resources and pollution are all due to the factors like increasing population, high standard of living,
deforestation, etc.

Man has been tampering with the Ecosphere for a very long time and is forced to recognize that
environmental resources are scarce. Environmental problems are really social problems. They begin
with people as cause and end with people as victims. Unplanned use of resources has resulted in the
depletion of fossils, fuels, pollution of air and water, deforestation which has resulted in ecological
imbalance and draining away of national wealth through heavy expenditure on oil and power
generation.

96. Increasing population causes

1. unemployment and crowding

2. inflation and pollution
3. dwindling resources
4. unemployment, inflation, crowding, dwindling resources and pollution

97. National wealth is drained away by spending heavily on

1. power generation 2. Fuels

3. water and power generation 4. oil and power generation

98. The three major components of the global environment are

1. food, energy and population 2. high standard of living, crowding and inflation
3. land, water and air 4. plants, animals and mankind
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99. Depletion of fossils and fuels, pollution of air and water and deforestation will never occurin
case of

1. improper use of resources 2. planned use of resources

3. unplanned use of resources 4. over use of resources

100. We face the three fundamental problems that are

1. inflation, deforestation and unemployment

2. population, deforestation and energy
3. population, inflation and food
4. population, food and energy
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SECTION - III: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE

101. When n is divided by 6, the remainder is 4. When 2n is divided by 6, the remainder is

1. 2 2. 0 3. 4 4. 1

1 1 1 1 1 1
102. The value of      is
20 30 42 56 72 90

1 3 3 7
1. 2. 3. 4.
10 5 20 20

1 1 1
103. Let = a    . Then we have
2 3 3 8 4  15

1. a < 18 but a  9 2. A > 18

3. a = 18 4. A = 9

104. The smallest among the numbers

2250, 3150, 5100 and 4200 is

1. 4200 2. 5100 3. 3150 4. 2250

105. The greatest of the following numbers 0.16, 0.16 , (0.16)2, 0.04 is

1. 0.16 2. 0.16 3. 0.04 4. (0.16)2

 
 
 
 
 5  3
106. If  4 
1  th part of a journey takes 10 minutes, then to complete th of that
 1  5
 1 
3
 1 
 2 
 4 

journey, it will take

1. 40 minutes 2. 45 minutes 3. 48 minutes 4. 36 minutes

107. If a number is increased by 25%, then the percentage increase or decrease finally is

1 1
1. no change 2. decreased by 6 % 3. Increased by 6 % 4. Increased by 6%
4 4

108. A reduction of 20% in the price of rice enables a customer to purchase 12.5 kg more for Rs. 800.
The original price of rice per kg is

1. Rs. 14 2. Rs. 16 3. Rs. 12 4. Rs. 15

109. In two alloys A and B, the ratio of zinc to tin is 5 : 2 and 3 : 4 respectively. Seven kg of the
alloy A and 21 kg of the alloy B are mixed together to form a new alloy. What will be the
ratio of zinc and tin in the new alloy ?

1. 2:1 2. 1:2 3. 2:3 4. 1: 1

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110. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 6 : 5, then C : A is

1. 10: 9 2. 9: 10 3. 8: 9 4. 9: 8

111.
If a, b are rationals and a 2  b 3  98  108  48  72 , then the values of a, b are respectively

1. 1, 2 2. 1, 3 3. 2, 1 4. 2, 3

112. The ratio of boys and girls in a college is 5: 3. If 50 boys leave the college and 50 girls join the
college, the ratio becomes 9: 7. The number of boys in the college is

1. 300 2. 400 3. 500 4. 600

113. The average age of a class of 35 students is 15 years. If the teacher's age is also included the
average age increases by one year. Furthermore, if the average age of the teacher's family having
a wife and a son is 40 years and the son's age is 80% less than his mother's age, then the age of
the teacher's wife is

1. 57.5 years 2. 50 years 3. 47.5 years 4. 55.5 years

114.
3
If the amount is 3 times the sum after 3 years at compound interest compounded annually, then the
8
rate of interest per annum is

2 1
1. 25% 2. 50% 3. 16 % 4. 33 %
3 3

115. A shopkeeper sells an article at 15% gain. Had he sold it for Rs. 18 more, he would have gained
18%. The cost price (in Rs.) of the article is

1. 540 2. 318 3. 600 4. 350

116. A cloth merchant on selling 33 metres of cloth obtains a profit equal to the selling price of 11
metres of cloth. The profit is

1. 40% 2. 22% 3. 50% 4. 11%

117. A single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 20%, 10% and 5% is

1. 35% 2. 35.6% 3. 31.6% 4. 36.1%

118. A, B and C started a business with their investments in the ratio 1: 2: 4. After 6 months A
increased his capital by 50% and B invested twice the amount as before, while C withdrew 1/4 th
of his own investment. The ratio of their profits at the end of the year was

10:5:9 2. 5:12:14 3. 6:9:17 4. 5:14:16

119. Two trains 180 metres and 120 metres in length are running towards each other on parallel
tracks, one at the rate 65 km/hour and another at 55 km/hour. In how many seconds will they be
clear of each other from the moment they meet?

1. 6 2. 9 3. 12 4. 15
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120. Three men can complete a piece of work in 6 days. Two days after they started the work, 3 more
men joined them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?

1. 1 day 2. 2 days 3. 3 days 4. 4 days

1
121. If x   1, then (x+1)5 equals
x 1

1. 1 2. 2 3. 4 4. 8

1 1 1
122. If   , then the value of a3 + b3 is:
a b ab

1. 0 2. – 1 3. 1 4. 2

ac
123. If a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca, then is equal to
b

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4

124. If the graphs of the equations x + y = 0 and 5y + 7x = 24 intersect at (m, n), then the value of m
+ n is

1. 2 2. 1 3. 0 4. – 1

x
125. If x = 5 - 21 , then the value of is
32  2 x  21

1.
1
2
 3 7  2.
1
2
 7 3 
3.
1
 7 3  4.
1
7  3 
2 2

126. In ABC, the internal bisectors of ABC and ACB met at 1 and BAC = 500. The measure
of BIC is

1. 1050 2. 1150 3. 1250 4. 1300

3 5
127. BL and Cm are medians of ABC right-angled at A and BC = 5cm. If BL = cm, then the
2
length of CM is

1. 2 5 cm 2. 5 2 cm 3. 10 2 cm 4. 4 5 cm

128. In ABC, D and E are points of sides AB and BC respectively such that DE || AC and AD :DB =
3:2. The ratio of area of trapezium ACED to that of BED is

1. 4: 15 2. 15: 4 3. 4: 21 4. 21: 4
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129. A quadrilateral ABCD circumscribes a circle and AB =6 cm, CD = 5 cm and AD = 7 cm. The
length of side BC is

1. 4 cm 2. Cm 3. 3 cm 4. 6 cm

130. P and q are centres of two circles with radii 9 cm and 2 cm respectively, where PQ = 17 cm. R is
the centre of another circle of radius x cm, which touches each of the above two circles
externally. If PRQ = 900, then the value of x is

1. 4 cm 2. 6 cm 3. 7 cm 4. 8 cm

131. The area of a rhombus is 216 cm2 and the length of its one diagonal is 24 cm. The perimeter ( in
cm) of the rhombus is

1. 52 2. 60 3. 120 4. 100

132. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 544 cm and each of the equal sides is 544 cm and each
5
of the equal sides is times the base. What is the area (in cm2) of the triangle?
6

1. 38172 2. 18372 3. 31872 4. 13872

133. A metallic sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and then recast into small cones each of radius 3.5
cm and height 3 cm. The number of cones thus formed is

1. 140 2. 132 3. 112 4. 126

134. If the ratio of the diameters of two right circular cones of equal height be 3: 4, then the ratio of
their volumes will be

1. 3: 4 2. 9: 16 3. 16: 9 4. 27: 64

135. A right pyramid stands on a square base of diagonal 10 cm. If the height of the pyramid is 12
cm, the area (in cm2) of its slant surface is

1. 520 2. 420 3. 360 4. 260

136. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 150°, the number of sides of the polygon is

1. 8 2. 10 3. 15 4. None of these

137. If the Altitude of a right prism is 10 cm and its base is an equilateral triangle of side 12 cm, then
its total surface area (in cm2) is

1. (5  3 3 ) 2. 36 3 3. 360 
4. 72 5  3 
138. The value of tan 10° tan 15° tan 75° tan 80° is

1. 0 2. 1 3. -1 4. 2

139. The minimum value of 4 tan2  + 9 cot2  is equal to

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
140. If sin 7x = cos 11x, then the value of tan 9x + cot 9x is
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1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4

141. If tan2  = 1 + 2 tan2  (,  are positive acute angles), then 2 cos  - cos  is equal to

1. 0 2. 2 3. 1 4. – 1

142. From a tower 125 metres high, the angles of depression of two objects, which are in horizontal
line through the base of the tower, are 45° and 30° and they are on the same side of the tower.
The distance (in metres) between the objects is

1. 125 3 2. 125  
3 1 3. 125 /  
3 1 4. 125 /  
3 1

143. If a + b + c = 0, then a3 + b3 + c3 is equal to

1. a + b + c 2. abc 3. 2 abc 4. 3abc

144. Two numbers 11284 and 7655, when divided by a certain number of three digits, leaves the
same remainder. The sum of digits of such a three-digit number is

1. 8 2. 9 3. 10 4. 11

145. Two pipes X and Y can fill a cistern in 24 minutes and 32 minutes respectively. If both the pipes
are opened together, then after how much time (in minutes) should Y be closed so that the tank
is full in 18 minutes ?

1. 10 2. 8 3. 6 4. 5

146. The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio 7: 4. A path 4m wide running all
round outside has an area of 416 m 2. The breadth (in m) of the field is

1. 28 2. 14 3. 15 4. 16

DIRECTIONS for question 147 to 148: Study the table and answer questions.

Height (in cm) Number of girls

less than 140 4
less than 145 11
less than 150 29
less than 155 40
less than 160 46
less than 165 51

147. The number of girls whose height is above 150 cm is

1. 22 29 3. 86 4. 97

148. Average height (in cm) of the girls whose heights are 155 cm and above is about

1. 158.7 2. 159.8 3. 160.4 4. 162.6

DIRECTIONS for question 149-150: Student’s strength of a college in Arts, Science and Commerce
from 2004 – 05 to 2007-08 sessions are shown in the following bar graph. Study the graph.
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149. The ratio of average number of students in Arts to the average number of students in Commerce
is

1. 12: 5 2. 10: 7 3. 7: 4 4. 48: 35

150. The ratio of average number of students in Arts to the average number of students in Commerce
is

12: 5 2. 10: 7 3. 7: 4 4. 48: 35

PART IV: GENERAL AWARENESS

151. Production of a commodity mostly through the natural process is an activity of

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1. Primary Sector 2. Secondary Sector 3. Tertiary Sector 4. Technology Sector

152. The Law of Demand is based on

1. Manufacturer's preference 2. Seller's preference

3. Supplier's preference 4. Consumer's preference

153. Which one of the following is not a method for computing GNP?

1. Income Approach 2. Expenditure Approach

3. Savings Approach 4. Value Added Approach

154. A part of National Debt known as External Debt is the amount

1. borrowed by its citizens from abroad 2. lent by its citizens to foreign governments
3. borrowed by its government from abroad 4. lent by its government to foreign government

155. The non-expenditure costs which arise when the producing firm itself owns and supplies certain
factors of production are

1. Explicit costs 2. Original costs 3. Implicit costs 4. Replacement costs

156. Who said "Rama Rajya through Grama Rajya" ?

1. Mahatma Gandhi 2. Vinoba Bhave 3. Jayaprakash Narayan 4. Jawaharlal Nehru

157. Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution ?

1. The Preamble 2. Part III 3. Part IV 4. Part I

158. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the

1. Prime Minister 2. President 3. Finance Minister 4. Lok Sabha

159. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State Governments to organize Village
Panchayats ?

1. Article 32 2. Article 37 3. Article 40 4. Article 51

160. The Attorney General of India has the right of audience in

1. the Supreme Court 2. any High Court

3. any Sessions Court 4. any Court of Law within India

161. The capital of the ancient Chola kingdom was

1. Uraiyur 2. Kaveripoompattinam 3. Thanjavur 4. Madurai

162. Arrange the dynasties of Delhi Sultanate given below in chronological order :

1. Khilji 2. Tughlaq 3. Sayyad 4. Slave

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1. 4, 1, 3, 2 2. 1, 4, 2, 3 3. 1, 2, 3, 4 4. 4, 1, 2, 3

163. Which was the earliest settlement of the Dutch in India ?

1. Masulipatnam 2. Pulicat 3. Surat 4. Ahmedabad

164. During British rule, who was instrumental for the introduction of the Ryotwari system in the then
Madras Presidency ?

1. Macartney 2. Elphinstone 3. Thomas Munro 4. John Lawrence

165. Who amongst the following was not associated with the Unification of Italy ?

1. Cavour 2. Garibaldi 3. Mussolini 4. Mazzini

166. The Greater Himalayas is otherwise called as

1. Himadri 2. Sahyadri 3. Assam Himalayas 4. Siwaliks

167. The cup-shaped mouth of the volcano is

1. Focus 2. Epicentre 3. Crater 4. Cinder cone

168. The cool temperate grasslands of South America are known as

1. Pampas 2. Prairies 3. Veld 4. Savannah

169. Which of the biomes is called the "Bread Basket" of the world ?

1. Mid-latitude grasslands 2. Taiga

3. Mediterranean 4. Tropical Savanna

170. Asia and North America are separated by

1. Bass Strait 2. Strait of Dover 3. Bering Strait 4. Cook Strait

171. Phototropic movement is controlled by

1. Auxin 2. Gibberellin 3. Cytokinin 4. Ethylene

172. Lactogenic hormone is secreted by

1. Mammary glands 2. Placenta 3. Ovary 4. Pituitary

173. An organism which can monitor air pollution is

1. Bacteria 2. Lichen 3. Algae 4. Fungi

174. In the human body, which of the following organs is responsible for water balance ?

1. Heart 2. Liver 3. Kidneys 4. Lungs

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175. Chlorophyll containing autotrophic thallophytes is called as

1. Algae 2. Lichens 3. Fungi 4. Bryophytes

176. Match correctly the insect vectors in List I with the diseases transmitted by them given in List II :

List I List II
a. Anopheles (female) 1. Kala-azar
b. Culex 2. Sleeping sickness
c. Sand fly 3. Filariasis
d. Tse-tse fly 4. Malaria

1. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3 2. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 3. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4 4. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

177. A white and smooth surface is

1. good absorber and good reflector of heat

2. bad absorber and good reflector of heat
3. good absorber and bad reflector of heat
4. bad absorber and bad reflector of heat

178. When a body is immersed in a liquid, the force acting on it is

1. Upthrust 2. Weight 3. Mass 4. Both (A) and (B)

179. When two semiconductors of p- and n-type are brought in contact, they form p-n junction which acts
like a/an

1. Conductor 2. Oscillator 3. Rectifier 4. Amplifier

180. The mass of a body measured by a physical balance in a lift at rest is found to be m. If the lift is going
up with an acceleration a, its mass will be measured as

1. m (1- a/g) 2. m (1+ a/g) 3. m 4. Zero

181. A computer programming language often used by children is

1. LOGO 2. PILOT 3. BASIC 4. JAVA

182. A portable, personal computer small enough to fit on your lap is called a

1. Note-book computer 2. PDA 3. Mainframe computer 4. Workstation

183. Assembler is a program that translates the program from

1. high-level to assembly 2. assembly to machine

3. machine to low-level 4. low-level to high-level

184. `Table sugar' is which type of sugar ?

1. Fructose 2. Galactose 3. Glucose 4. Sucrose

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185. An alloy used in making heating elements for electric heating device is

1. Solder 2. Alloy Steel 3. Nichrome 4. German Silver

186. The degree of dissociation of an electrolyte depends on

1. dilution 2. Impurities 3. atmospheric pressure 4. method of dissolution

187. Chlorophyll contains

1. Iron 2. Magnesium 3. Cobalt 4. Zinc

188. The gas causing acid rain in an industrial area is

1. Carbon dioxide 2. Carbon monoxide 3. Sulphur dioxide 4. Methane

189. The famous three P's of environmental awareness are

1. People, Poverty, Politics 2. Power, Production, Pollution

3. Population, Politics, Price 4. Population, Poverty, Pollution

190. The stagnant water at the bottom of a lake is called

1. Epilimnion 2. Mesolimnion 3. Metalimnion 4. Hypolimnion

191. Shri Jyotiraditya Madhavarao Scindia is the Minister of State with independent charge of the Ministry
of

1. Tourism 2. Chemicals and Fertilizers

3. Power 4. Information and Broadcasting

192. Who won the Wimbledon Men's Singles in 2013 ?

1. Andy Murray 2. Novak Djokovic

3. Juan Martin Del Potro 4. Fernando Verdasco

193. Who won the Silver Medal for the Women's 400 metre race in the Asian Athletic Championships 2013
?

1. Zhao Yanmin 2. M.R. Poovamma 3. Tintu Luka 4. Mayookha Johny

194. Where is Taksim Square, which witnessed in 2013 prolonged massive protests against the
redevelopment of Gezi Park ?

1. Ankona 2. Cairo 3. Istanbul 4. Teheran

195. Among the following political leaders of South India, who has not acted in any film ?

1. C.N. Annadurai 2. Jayalalitha 3. N.T. Rama Rao 4. M.G. Ramachandran

196. Which one of the following days is not observed on a fixed date every year ?

1. World Environment Day 2. International Women's Day

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3. International Friendship Day 4. World Habitat Day

197. Which one of the following novels was a source of inspiration for the freedom fighters in India ?

1. Pariksha Guru 2. Anandmath 3. Rangbhoomi 4. Padmarag

198. Which prestigious award was given in 2013 to Aparajita Datta for her outstanding contribution for the
conservation of hornbills ?

1. Magsaysay Award 2. Right Livelihood Award

3. Whitley Award 4. Rajiv Gandhi Ecology Award

199. Which presently serving State Chief Minister has been in office continuously for the longest period ?

1. Sheila Dikshit 2. Narendra Modi

3. Bhupinder Singh Hooda 4. Manik Sarkar

200. Which one of the following monuments is the first inhabited World Heritage Monument ?

1. Agra Fort 2. Red Fort 3. Jaisalmer Fort 4. Amber Fort

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Answer Key

SSC CGL Nov 2013

Qno. Answer Area LoD Course Qno. Answer Area LoD Course
151 A 130 33 ABJL 191 C 121 66 ABJL
152 D 130 33 ABJL 192 A 121 33 ABJL
153 C 130 99 ABJL 193 B 121 99 ABJL
154 C 130 66 ABJL 194 C 121 66 ABJL
155 C 130 66 ABJL 195 A 122 33 ABJL
156 A 128 66 ABJL 196 B 122 33 ABJL
157 A 128 33 ABJL 197 B 132 66 ABJL
158 B 128 66 ABJL 198 C 121 66 ABJL
159 C 128 99 ABJL 199 D 121 66 ABJL
160 D 128 66 ABJL 200 C 121 66 ABJL
161 A 126 99 ABJL
162 D 126 33 ABJL
163 B 126 99 ABJL
164 C 126 99 ABJL
165 C 126 99 ABJL
166 A 127 66 ABJL
167 C 127 33 ABJL
168 A 127 33 ABJL
169 A 127 66 ABJL
170 C 127 33 ABJL
171 A 129 99 ABJL
172 D 129 99 ABJL
173 B 129 99 ABJL
174 C 129 33 ABJL
175 A 129 99 ABJL
176 D 129 66 ABJL
177 B 129 33 ABJL
178 D 129 33 ABJL
179 C 129 99 ABJL
180 C 129 33 ABJL
181 A 129 66 ABJL
182 A 129 33 ABJL
183 B 129 66 ABJL
184 D 129 33 ABJL
185 C 129 99 ABJL
186 A 129 33 ABJL
187 B 129 99 ABJL
188 C 129 33 ABJL
189 D 129 33 ABJL
190 D 129 99 ABJL