SSC CGL Tier 1 Question Paper 10 September 2024 Shift 1

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 20

Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I

Exam Date 10/09/2024


Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Six letters S, T, M, P, R and C are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figures
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to M.

Ans 1. R

2. P

3. C

4. S
Q.2 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 ‘Blossom’ is related to ‘Wither’ in the same way as ‘Stagnate’ is related to ‘________’.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ans 1. Stand

2. Rest

3. Languish

4. Flow

Q.4 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
18 − 23 × 455 ÷ 7 + 28 = 377
Ans 1. + and ×

2. − and ×

3. − and +

4. ÷ and −
Q.5 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘–’ are
interchanged?

4 − 12 + 3 ÷ 12 × 6 = ?
Ans 1. 13

2. 46

3. 11

4. 22

Q.6 The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ‘PRANKED’ is arranged in the
English alphabetical order?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. None

4. Two

Q.7 10 is related to 15 following certain logic. Following the same logic, 42 is related to 63. To which of the following numbers is
22 related, following the same logic? (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can
be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 28

2. 30

3. 33

4. 31

Q.8 How many squares are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 14

2. 12

3. 15

4. 13

Q.9 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Temerity : Shyness :: Pique : ?
Ans 1. Resentment

2. Anger

3. Delight

4. Offence

Q.10 Select the option that represents the letters that when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the given
letter series.
LMBA_HOLMBAC_OLM_ACHOL_BACHOL_
Ans 1. CHMBM

2. CMHBM

3. CHBMM

4. CHMMB
Q.11 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(7, 9, 48)
(6, 8, 42)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (8, 10, 47)

2. (9, 11, 56)

3. (11, 13, 72)

4. (10, 12, 54)

Q.12 Three of the following four options are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the option that does NOT
belong to that group?
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed).
Ans 1. 2 – 4 – 8

2. 2 – 2 – 4

3. 3 – 2 – 5

4. 1 – 3 – 3

Q.13 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements: Some boxes are cartons. All cartons are papers. Some cartons are utensils.
Conclusion (I): No box is a utensil.
Conclusion (II): Some papers are utensils.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.14 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(79, 58, 62)
(54, 33, 37)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (59, 33, 43)

2. (47, 36, 41)

3. (66, 45, 49)

4. (43, 25, 30)

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘sit on chair’ is coded as 'sk mi cn' and ‘the chair broke’ is coded as ‘gm fr mi’. How is ‘chair’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. sk

2. cn

3. mi

4. gm
Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.18 In a certain code language, 'BELL' is written as 'MKFA' and 'BOND' is written as 'EMPA'. How will 'BLEW’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. XMDA

2. XMAD

3. XDAM

4. XDMA
Q.19 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is
different. The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster
Ans 1. LQV

2. DIN

3. PTX

4. AFK

Q.21 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
ZVRN, VSPM, RPNL, ?, JJJJ
Ans 1. RMLN

2. RNLL

3. RNLK

4. NMLK

Q.22 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
23, 27, 43, 79, 143, ?
Ans 1. 240

2. 243

3. 250

4. 200
Q.23 In a certain code language,
A # B means A is the sister of B.
A @ B means A is the son of B.
A & B means A is the wife of B.
A % B means A is the father of B.
How is Q related to R if P & Q % L # R & K?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Wife

3. Father

4. Mother

Q.24 Select the option that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
FM61, EK58, DI55, CG52, ?
Ans 1. BE49

2. CE46

3. CD44

4. BF48

Q.25 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In which of the following cities of Manipur is the Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy located?
Ans 1. Imphal

2. Ukhrul

3. Chandel

4. Thoubal

Q.2 By which of the following state governments is the Tansen Music Festival organised?
Ans 1. Maharashtra Government

2. Madhya Pradesh Government

3. Rajasthan Government

4. Uttar Pradesh Government

Q.3 Which of the following places is related to Gandhi’s Satyagraha of the year 1917?
Ans 1. Kheda

2. Ahmedabad

3. Champaran

4. Bardoli
Q.4 Hubbardia heptaneuron, which has become endangered, is a species of which of the following?
Ans 1. Grass

2. Bamboo

3. Tiger

4. Crane

Q.5 Which of the following is in geographical proximity to Sri Lanka?


Ans 1. Only Karaikal

2. Karaikal and Yanam

3. Mahe

4. Only Yanam

Q.6 Which Five-Year Plan primarily focused on the 'Garibi Hatao' initiative?
Ans 1. Sixth Five-Year Plan

2. Fourth Five-Year Plan

3. Fifth Five-Year Plan

4. Third Five-Year Plan

Q.7 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Ans 1. They promote welfare of individuals. Hence, they are personal and individualistic.

2. These have moral and political sanctions.

3. They aim at establishing social and economic democracy in the country.

4. They are positive, as they require the State to do certain things.

Q.8 After the death of Humayun, the 13 year-old Akbar was coronated in 1556 at Kalanaur in ________.
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Gujarat

3. Bengal

4. Punjab

Q.9 The climate of a place is NOT affected by which of the following?


Ans 1. Relief

2. Type of soil

3. Location

4. Distance from the sea

Q.10 In which musical note did Newland put the metals Co and Ni with halogens?
Ans 1. Fa

2. Do

3. Re

4. Mi

Q.11 Which of the following is NOT correct with regards to the history of calculating National Income (NI) in India?
Ans 1. First attempt to compute NI was made by Dadabhai Naoroji.

2. First official attempt to compute NI was made by PC Mahalanobis.

3. Dadabhai Naoroji divided the Indian economy into two parts: primary sector and secondary sector.

4. First scientific method to compute NI was used by Dr VKRV Rao.


Q.12 According to the Indian Railways (2019-2020), which state has the largest railway track in India?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Haryana

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.13 Which government honoured a distinguished percussionist named Pandit Anindo Chatterjee with the Banga Vibhushan
Award in 2022?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Tripura

3. West Bengal

4. Jharkhand

Q.14 Which of the following festivals is celebrated as the birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev?
Ans 1. Hola Mohalla

2. Baisakhi

3. Gurpurab

4. Chappar Mela

Q.15 Who was appointed as India’s 28th Controller General of Accounts (CGA) in March 2023?
Ans 1. Arun Goel

2. Praveen Sharma

3. Vikram Devdutt

4. SS Dubey

Q.16 The Parliament passed the Marine Aids to Navigation Bill, 2021 to repeal and replace which of the following Acts?
Ans 1. The Dangerous Machines (Regulation) Act, 1983

2. The Personal Injuries (Emergency Provisions) Act, 1962

3. The Lighthouse Act, 1927

4. The Dourine Act, 1910

Q.17 Which of the following is a non-perishable food?


Ans 1. Pulses

2. Meat

3. Curds

4. Milk

Q.18 How many awards were presented at the National Sports and Adventure Awards-2022 ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhavan
on 30 November 2022?
Ans 1. 32

2. 44

3. 52

4. 28

Q.19 Which Governor-General of British India helped Raja Ram Mohan Roy legally abolish the sati practice?
Ans 1. Lord Ripon

2. Lord Curzon

3. Lord Cornwallis

4. Lord William Bentinck


Q.20 When was the 1st Asian Kabaddi Championship held?
Ans 1. 1970

2. 1985

3. 1980

4. 1975

Q.21 The decomposition of gaseous Ammonia on a hot platinum surface is a _______________ order reaction at high pressure.
Ans 1. two

2. zero

3. three

4. one

Q.22 Which of the following was the mascot of the FIH men’s Hockey World Cup – 2023?
Ans 1. Jitu

2. Bheema

3. Olly

4. Asha

Q.23 The Indian Constitution has established _________.


Ans 1. partial Judicial system

2. dual judicial system

3. independent judicial system

4. plural judicial system

Q.24 Which organisms are classified as Aves?


Ans 1. Fishes

2. Frogs

3. Snakes

4. Birds

Q.25 Mahabalipuram emerged as an important centre of temple architecture under which of the following kingdoms of south
India?
Ans 1. Pallava

2. Chola

3. Chera

4. Chalukya

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 The ages of two friends, Ram and Ravi, differ by 7 years. Ram’s mother Mayadevi is three times as old as Ram, and Ravi is
four times as old as his brother Soham. The ages of Mayadevi and Soham differ by 65 years. Find the age of Mayadevi (in
years).
Ans 1. 69

2. 36

3. 85

4. 45
Q.2

Ans 1. 14 : 9

2. 7 : 6

3. 6 : 7

4. 9 : 14

Q.3

Ans 1. 56

2. 48

3. 45

4. 42

Q.4 By applying which of the following criteria can two triangles NOT be proved congruent?
Ans 1. angle-side-angle

2. angle-angle-angle

3. side-side-side

4. side-angle-side

Q.5 Two circles of radii 18 cm and 12 cm touch each other externally. Find the length (in cm) of their direct common tangent.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.6

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 Kiran lent ₹4,000 to two persons such that one part of it at the rate of 8% per annum and the remaining part at the rate of
10% per annum. He got an annual simple interest of ₹352. Then the sum lent at 10% is:
Ans 1. ₹1,800

2. ₹2,200

3. ₹2,400

4. ₹1,600

Q.8 X, Y, and Z are three points on a plane with XY = 11 cm, YZ = 13 cm, and XZ = 24 cm. The number of circles that travel
through points X, Y, and Z is:
Ans 1. 0

2. 2

3. 1

4. 3

Q.9
Ans 1. 8

2. 5

3.

4.

Q.10 If, on a marked price, the difference between selling prices with a discount of 65% and with two successive discounts of
30% and 40% is ₹105, then the marked price (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 1,650

2. 1,050

3. 1,500

4. 1,320

Q.11 A pole 10 m long rests slantly against a vertical wall AB making an angle 30° with the horizontal (ground). Find how far the
foot of the pole is from the wall (in metres).
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.12 The bar graph given below shows the sales of books from six schools during two consecutive years, 2013 and 2014.

What percentage of the average sales of the schools A, B, and C in 2014 is the average sales of schools A, C, and F in 2013?
Ans 1. 81.08%

2. 81%

3. 80%

4. 80.08%

Q.13 A money bag contains one rupee, 5 rupee and 10 rupee coins in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively. If the total amount in the
bag is ₹980,then find the number of coins of ₹10.
Ans 1. 69

2. 70

3. 71

4. 68

Q.14 Which of the following is the largest 5-digit number divisible by 47?
Ans 1. 99999

2. 98888

3. 99969

4. 10000

Q.15

Ans 1. 806 cm2

2. 704 cm2

3. 904 cm2

4. 608 cm2

Q.16 Let 0° < t < 90°. Then which of the followings is true?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.17 Ramesh purchased some items from a dealer on 19 November 2019. The bill generated was for ₹5,480. He had also
purchased some items on 10 November 2019 having the bill value of ₹9,800. He cleared both the bills this time and paid the
total amount in cash. If the dealer gives a scheme of 2% discount on the payments done within 10 days and 5% for the
payments made in cash at the time of purchase, then find the amount paid by Ramesh on 19 November 2019.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.1
8

An 1. 30%
s
2. 20%

3. 15%

4. 40%

Q.19

Ans 1. 144

2. 146

3. 142

4. 140

Q.20 The side of an equilateral triangle is 28 cm. Taking each vertex as the centre, a circle is described with a radius equal to half
the length of the side of the triangle. Find the area of that part of the triangle which is not included in the circles (use =

and ).

Ans 1. 30.89 cm2

2. 38.08 cm2

3. 31.08 cm2

4. 39.08 cm2

Q.21

Ans 1. 238.5

2. 271.25

3. 314.75

4. 284.55
Q.22 In a circular race of 750 m, X and Y start from the same point and at the same time with speeds of 9 km/h and 13.5 km/h,
respectively. If they are running in the same direction then, when will they meet again for the first time on the track?
Ans 1. 750 seconds

2. 900 seconds

3. 500 seconds

4. 600 seconds

Q.23
A bus travels of the distance initially at a speed of 40 km/h, the next of the distance 50 km/h, and the final of the
distance at 60 km/h. Find the average speed of the bus for the entire journey.

(Rounded off to two decimal places)


Ans 1. 48.65 km/h

2. 51.43 km/h

3. 54.13 km/h

4. 46.85 km/h

Q.24 Three pipes P, Q and R can fill a cistern in 40 minutes, 80 minutes and 120 minutes, respectively. Initially, all the pipes are
opened. After how much time (in minutes) should the pipes Q and R be turned off so that the cistern will be completely filled
in just half an hour?
Ans 1. 14

2. 10

3. 16

4. 12

Q.25 If the sum of three numbers is 18 and the sum of their squares is 36, then find the difference between the sum of their cubes
and three times of their product.
Ans 1. 1449

2. −1944

3. −1494

4. 4149

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Identify the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Timid
Ans 1. Meek

2. Anxious

3. Daring

4. Spooky

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.


On the ball
Ans 1. Unaware of any changes or developments and lazy to react to them

2. Aware of any changes or developments but slow to react to them

3. Aware of any changes or developments and quick to react to them

4. Aware of any changes or developments but doing nothing

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
I have been living in Hyderabad since I am born .
Ans 1. since I have born

2. since I will be born

3. since I born

4. since I was born


Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who sells and arranges cut flowers.


Ans 1. Horticulturist

2. Botanist

3. Gardener

4. Florist

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
After the concert was over, / they go to a restaurant, / had dinner together / and talked until midnight.
Ans 1. had dinner together

2. they go to a restaurant,

3. After the concert was over,

4. and talked until midnight

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A small group of people who spend their time together and do not welcome other people into that group
Ans 1. Squad

2. Clique

3. Employees

4. Lobby

Q.7 The following sentence contains a word with a spelling error. Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling of the
identified word from the given options.

He has to be conscious of his public manners as he is a decendent of a reputed family in this region.
Ans 1. Dicsendent

2. Descendant

3. Discendent

4. Decendant

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The Morbi bridge mishap has left Gujarat in a deplorable state.
Ans 1. Jubilation

2. Despicable

3. Complaining

4. Rejoicing

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

He was trembling with fear.


Ans 1. Shivering

2. Weeping

3. Running

4. Intrepid
Q.10 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
A. More children go to school than at any time in the past. But more children today are out of school than any time in the
past.
B. But it is not enough to blame the high birth rate for this state of affairs.
C. Indeed, it can be reasonably argued that continued mass illiteracy is not the result but the cause of the high birth rate.
D. There are more literate people in India today than ever before. But there are also more illiterates than ever before.
Ans 1. ABCD

2. CBAD

3. DABC

4. BADC

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the bold word in the following sentence.
He tried to alleviate the sufferings of his neighbours.
Ans 1. Swell

2. Add

3. Intensify

4. Relieve

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Renewable energy / sources like solar and wind power / will replaced traditional fossil fuels / and help reduce carbon
emissions.
Ans 1. and help reduce carbon emissions

2. Renewable energy

3. will replaced traditional fossil fuels

4. sources like solar and wind power

Q.13 Identify from the given options the word which is similar in meaning to the following word.
Equivocal
Ans 1. Clear

2. Ambiguous

3. Representative

4. Balanced

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

She was elated about her promotion, but her colleague felt quite disheartened.
Ans 1. cheerful

2. proud

3. discouraged

4. delighted

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The contract was grabbed by the biggest telecom company in India.
Ans 1. The biggest telecom company in India grabbed the contract.

2. The biggest telecom company in India grabs the contract.

3. The biggest telecom company in India will grab the contract.

4. The biggest telecom company in India has grabbed the contract.

Q.16 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

I'm _______________ about whether to accept the job offer or continue freelancing. Both options have their advantages.
Ans 1. on the fence

2. cutting corners

3. left out in cold

4. up in arms
Q.17 Select the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Conscensus

2. Entrepreneurship

3. Collaegue

4. Bizzaire

Q.18 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
By whom was grammar taught to you?
Ans 1. Did he teach you grammar?

2. Who had taught you grammar?

3. You were taught grammar by whom?

4. Who taught you grammar?

Q.19 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A place where fruit trees are grown


Ans 1. Orchard

2. Garden

3. Quay

4. Museum

Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A government by the officials
Ans 1. Autocracy

2. Bureaucracy

3. Monarchy

4. Plutocracy

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. at

2. for

3. in

4. to
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. to

2. and

3. in

4. for

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. group

2. human

3. species

4. breed

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. conflict

2. diversity

3. focus

4. rejection
Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. including

2. gathering

3. counting

4. mixing

You might also like