NCOER’s – AR 623-3

1. What does AR 623-3 Cover? Evaluating Reporting System (NCOER’s)

2. What publication covers Evaluation Reporting System (NCOER’s?) AR 623-3
3. What does AR 623-3 cover? Evaluation standards for all ranks, Officer, Warrant Officers, and
Enlisted.
4. What is a DA Form 2166-9-1? NCO Evaluation Report.
5. What is a DA Form 2166-9-1a? NCOER Counseling and Support Form.
6. What is used for the NCO Evaluation Report? DA 2166-9.
7. What is DA Form 2166-9-1? NCOER Counseling and Support Form.
8. What is the form for the Service School Academic Evaluation Report? DA Form 1059.
9. Where are the procedures, tasks and steps pertaining to the completion of each evaluation report
and support form contained in? DA Pamphlet 623-3.
10. What do rating schemes show? The rated Soldier’s name, indicates the effective date for each
designated rating official.
11. How rating schemes maintained and distributed? Published within the unit and made accessible,
either manually or electronically, to each rated Soldier and each member of the rating chain. Any
changes to rating schemes will also be published and distributed.
12. When must the NCOER reach HRC? No later than 90 days after the THRU date of the evaluation
report.
13. What should Rating chains correspond as nearly as practical to? The chain of command or chain of
supervision.
14. Who should give timely counseling to subordinates on professionalism and job performance,
encouraging self-improvement, when needed? Rating Officials.
15. What kind of assessments should rating officials give to rated Soldiers? Rating officials provide
candid assessments of rated Soldiers.
16. When should the rated Soldier be provided a copy of his or her rater’s and senior rater’s support
forms? At the beginning of the rating period.
17. Who is responsible for the evaluation function? The evaluation function is the responsibility of
rating officials, rated soldiers, Battalion (BN) and Brigade (BDE) adjutants (S1), or unit personnel
administration office, and HQDA.
18. What will Evaluate the performance and potential of non-comissioned officers (NCOs), in the grades
of Sergeant (SGT) through Command Sergeant Major (CSM), in peacetime and wartime? The NCOER DA
Form 2166-9.
19. What does the NCOER identify for the Army? Identifies soldiers who are best qualified for
promotion and assignment to positions of greater responsibility. The ERS also identifies Soldiers who
will be kept on active duty, retained in grade, or eliminated from military service.
20. What are the two categories of Evaluation Reports? Performance evaluations and School
evaluations.
21. What do performance evaluations focus on? Soldier’s duty performance, potential assessments,
and promotion potential.
22. What does a school evaluation focus on? The Soldier’s performance and accomplishments while
attending a school or course.
23. What is the primary function of the NCOER? To provide information to HQDA for use in making
personnel management decisions.
24. What is the secondary function of the NCOER? To encourage leader professional development, and
enhance mission accomplishment, through sound senior and/or subordinate relationships that stress
the importance of setting standards and giving direction to subordinate NCO leaders.
25. When will initial counseling be completed by? Initial counseling will be conducted within 30 days
after the beginning of the rating period, and quarterly thereafter, for NCOs.
26. What three things should be considered when preparing an Evaluation Report? The relative
experience of the rated officer or NCO. The efforts made by the rated officer or NCO. The results that
could be reasonably expected given the time and resources available.
27. Who may require changes be made to an evaluation report? No person may require changes be
made to an evaluation report, except to comply with this regulation and DA Pam 623-3.
28. Can you request the NCOER prepared by a previous unit on a soldier? No, requests to access
evaluation reports prepared by another unit or rating chain officials cannot be granted.
29. Who establishes a rating chain? Rating chain is established by the CDR.
30. Who approves the rating chain? The next higher CDR, commandant, or leader of an organization.
31. What will the NCOER rating chain consist of? The rated NCO, the rater, the senior rater, and the
reviewer.
32. Who will normally be the rater for an NCOER? Generally the immediate supervisor.
33. What personnel should review every NCOER? The rated NCO’s 1SG, CSM, or SGM to ensure
accountability of Soldier’s NCOERs and to supervise performance of junior NCOs.
34. What should the rater discuss during the initial counseling if the rated soldier is recently assigned to
the organization? Outline a duty description and performance objectives to guide the new NCO in
achieving the standards.
35. Who is responsible for ensuring that the signed and completed NCOER is provided to HQDA and the
Rated NCO? The senior rater.
36. What are the two types of evaluation reports? Mandatory and Optional.
37. What are some examples of nonrated time for NCOER’s? Schooling, leave of 30 days or more, and
hospital patient status.
38. What is the earliest that an NCOER can be signed prior to the THRU date? Up to 14 days prior to the
“THRU” date of the evaluation report.
39. What are the 3 types of NCOER’s? Direct – SGT, Organizational – SSG through 1SG/ MSG, Strategic
– CSM/SGM.
40. What does the Leadership Model establish? What leaders need to … be, know, and do. And a core
set of requirements that informs leaders about expectations.
3 Optional NCOERS ? Complete the record, senior rater option, 60 day option.
6 Mandatory? Change of rater, annual report, change of duty, depart TDY, special duty or Temp change
of station, failed promotion selection, release from active duty, and TDY, special duty, or Temp Change
of station.

NBC Protection – 3-11.4

1. What is the current US policy on NBC? To deter enemy NBC use through a strong nuclear force
and conventional capabilities.
2. What does the acronym NBC represent? Nuclear, Biological, Chemical.
3. What are the 4 core capabilities of Counterproliferation? 1) Counterforce 2) Active Defense 3)
Passive Defense 4) Consequence Management.
4. What is Counterproliferation? A multitiered, integrated approach intended to deter NBC use
and enable US forces to survive, fight, and win in an NBC environment.
5. What are the 2 classification types of NBC hazards? 1) Immediate hazards- produce casualties
immediately after attack 2) residual hazards- delayed effects.
6. What are the 6 major types of Chemical agents? Blister, Blood, Choking, irritants, Nerve, and
Psychochemical.
7. What forms do chemical agents come in? Vapors, solids, liquids, gasses.
8. What is the number of Antidote Treatment Nerve Agent Auto (ATNAA) injectors that must be
given as immediate first aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning? 3.
9. What is the number of Nerve Agent antidote kits (NAAKs) that must be given as immediate first
aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning? 3.
10. How many Mark 1 nerve agent antidote kits does a Soldier receive? 3.
11. The two-chamber auto injector in the Nerve Agent Antidote Kit (NAAK) provides both antidote
agents (atropine and Pralidoxime chloride) through a single injection- which antidote is injected
first? Atropine is injected first followed by Pralidoxime.
12. How long should you apply pressure when using the auto injector? 10 seconds.
13. What do you do with the auto injector after injecting? Stick it through the pocket flap (upper
left) so that you do not lose count and so that someone that happens to come across the
casualty will know that they have already been given X amount of injections and will not give
them more than needed.
14. Whose auto injectors would you use when giving Buddy Aid? The other person’s auto injectors
(the receiver of the medial attention.)
15. When giving Self Aid, how long should you wait before administering a second MK1 if still
experiencing the symptoms of a Nerve Agent? Wait 10 to 15 minutes- then wait 10 to 15
minutes between the 2nd and 3rd as well.
16. What does MOPP stand for? Mission Oriented Protective Posture.
17. What the 5 levels of MOPP? MOPP 0, MOPP 1, MOPP 2, MOPP 3, MOP 4.
18. What are the 3 types of procedures for MOPP gear exchange? 1) Buddy Team 2) Triple Buddy 3)
individual.
19. What 2 types of gasses will the protective mask not protect against? Amonnia vapors or carbon
monoxide.
20. Once unmasked, who can make the decision to unmask? The Unit Commander.
21. What does the acronym “CPOG” stand for? Chemical Protective Outer Garment.
22. What is the first step in putting on your M17 series mask? Stop breathing.
23. What chemical is used when checking the operation of the protective mask? Amyl acetate.
24. What does JSLIST stand for? Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology.
25. What 2 features of the JSLIST suit? Washable up to 6 times and reduces heat stress.
26. What are 3 types of alarms and signals that units use to respond quickly and correctly to NBC
hazards? 1) Audible Alarms 2) Automatic Alarms 3) Visual Signals.
27. What is an NBC-1 Report? It is an initial observer’s report of any type of NBC attack.
28. What communications precedence is an NBC-1 Report? FLASH precedence- All others are
IMMEDIATE.
29. When do you give warning when under an NBC attack? After you mask.
30. What are the 3 fundamentals of NBC defense? 1) Avoid Contamination 2) Protection 3)
Decontamination.
31. What should a unit do when a NBC 3 report is received? Continuous chemical monitoring.
32. What is the shape of a contamination Marker? Triangle.
33. Process of absorbing, destroying, neutralizing, making harmless, or removing chemical/
biological agents/ radioactive material around a person/ object/ area? Decontamination.
34. Three levels of decontamination? Immediate, Operational, Thorough.
35. What is the color of a Nuclear (Radiological) contamination marker? White background with
ATOM in black letters.
36. What 2 things should you avoid doing when crossing a contaminated area? 1) Stirring up dust 2)
touching anything.
37. How should an area be crossed that is suspected of contamination? Quickly, avoiding
depressions and vegetation.
38. What is the current US policy regarding the use of nuclear assets? Last Resort.
39. What is the current US policy regarding use of chemical weapons? The US will never use
chemical weapons.
40. What is the current US policy regarding use of biological weapons? The US will never use
biological weapons.
41. Who has the authority to order the use of nuclear weapons? Only the US President.
42. What are flash burns? Direct burns produced by the flash of thermal radiation from the
fireball.
43. What causes the most casualties in a nuclear attack? The initial blast and the heat of
detonation.
44. What are the 3 types of nuclear burst? 1) Air Burst 2) Ground Burst 3) Subsurface Burst.
45. Which nuclear burst would you use for maximum radiation effect? Air Burst.
46. What are the 2 broad categories of Biological agents? Pathogens and Toxins.
47. What is the best way to protect against biological agents? Personal hygiene.
48. What is the color of a gas chemical/ biological contamination marker? Gas chemical marker=
yellow background with red lettering. Bio marker= Blue background with red lettering.
49. What are the 4 types of micro-organisms found in Biological agents? 1) Bacteria 2) Fungi 3)
Rickettsia 4) Viruses.
50. What is the best decontamination for Biological agents? Warm soapy water.
51. Where would a biological attack be most effective? Cities, large troop concentrations, animals
and veggie crops.
52. What is the first signal that a unit may have been exposed to a biological agent? When large
numbers of personnel become sick.
53. What are the protective actions taken for a Chemical attack? Use MOPP4, give attack warnings.
54. What 3 categories of chemical agents does the US use to classify chemical agents? 1) Persistent
2) Non-persistent 3) Dusty.
55. What are the most effective times to use chemical agents? Evening and early morning because
of lack of wind and sun allows the agents to persist.
56. What are 4 types of chemical agents? 1) Nerve 2) Blister 3) Blood 4) Choking.
57. Which causes the most causalities of the three agents, Nerve, Blood, or Blister? Nerve.
58. What is the best defense against enemy use of chemical and biological (CB) weapons?
Contamination avoidance.
59. What is M8 paper used to detect? Provides nonspecific detection for nerve and blister agents.
60. How is M9 paper worn? Opposite sides of the body (Ie, left leg, right wrist, left arm)
61. What TA-50 can be used as overhead cover during a chemical or biological attack from the air?
The poncho.
62. What chemical agent detector kit will you use to detect chemical agents? M256 (M256A1).
63. When conducting unmasking procedures with the use of a M256 detector kit, how long do you
have the initial one or two soldiers unmask? 5 minutes.
64. After a chemical attack, who is the first to take off their mask? The lowest ranking or least
mission essential personnel.
65. What do 3 to 5 minutes of short blasts from horns, whistles, or other devices indicate? Attack is
imminent, or in progress, or the arrival of nuclear fallout is imminent (same as waivering)
66. What does it mean when a soldier hears: Alarm “Black” or a siren (steady tone) or sees Black
flag? The attack is over and NBC contamination and /or UXO hazards are suspected or present.

First Aid- TC 4-02.1

1. What FM covers first aid? TC 4-02.1.

2. What is the difference between casualty and patient? An individual being provided 1st aid is
considered a casualty. Once medically trained personnel initiate care of the causality then
they are considered to be a patient.
3. When would you not render First Aid to a casualty? If rendering Aid will put your life in
danger or if you find a casualty with no signs of life- no pulse, no breathing.
4. First step for Care Under Fire? Return Fire as directed or required before providing medical
treatment.
5. When would you advise the casualty to “play dead?” If the casualty is unable to move and
you are unable to move the casualty to cover and the casualty is still under direct enemy
fire.
6. What would you do if the casualty is unresponsive? Move the casualty, his/ her weapon,
and mission-essential equipment to cover, as the tactical situation permits.
7. When would you apply a tourniquet? If the casualty has severe bleeding from a limb or has
suffered amputation of a limb, administer life-saving bleeding control before moving the
casualty.
8. When do you perform tactical field care? When no longer under direct enemy fire or
situations in which an injury has occurred during the mission but there has been no hostile
fire.
9. When evaluating/ treating a casualty, when would you seek medical aid? As soon as
possible, do not stop treatment. If situation allows, send another to find medical aid.
10. What is the ONE question you can ask a casualty you suspect is choking? Are you choking?
11. What would you do if the casualty nods yes to the question? Render aid for conscious
casualty choking.
12. When would you NOT loosen clothing? In a chemical environment.
13. What should you do if you must leave the casualty? Lay his head to the side to prevent
choking if vomiting occurs.
14. What type of materials may burn and cause further injury? Synthetic materials, such as
nylon.
15. What are blisters caused by a blister agent? Blisters caused by blister agent are actually
burns.
16. Would you decontaminate skin where blisters have formed? NO, do not try to.
17. If a burn is caused by white phosphorous, what should the bandage be? Wet.
18. When can you give a casualty small amounts of water to drink when treating burns? If the
casualty is conscious and not nauseated.
19. What are iced sheets? Sheets soaked in cold/ icy water and placed directed onto skin of
casualty to lower body temperature rapidly.
20. What is the purpose of constricting band? To stop blood in the vein from flowing back to
the heart causing it to enlarge and become easier to locate. It should not be applied so
tight arterial blood flow stops.
21. What is the shade of arterial bleeding? Dark, bright blood is more shallow veins.
22. What does an occlusive dressing do? It seals the catheter at its point of insertion to the
surrounding skin.
23. What should you do if foreign material or vomit is in the mouth? Remove it ASAP.
24. Explain how to perform head tilt/ chin life method? 1) Kneel at the level of the casualty’s
shoulders. 2) Place one hand on the casualty’s forehead and apply firm, backward
pressure with the palm to tilt the head back.
25. What are the two methods used to open an airway? Head-tilt/chin-lift method and Jaw-
thrust method.
26. Explain how to perform the jaw-thrust method? 1) Kneel above the casualty’s head
(looking toward the casualty’s feet) 2) Rest your elbows on the ground or floor. The jaw,
below the ears. 3) Stabilize the casualty’s head with your forearms. 4) Use the index
fingers to push the angles of the casualty’s lower jaw forward.
27. What is the maximum amount of times you should attempt to use the Jaw-thrust method if
it does not work? No more than 2 times.
28. When should you insert a NPA? If the casualty is unconscious; if respiratory rate is less
than 2 in 15 seconds, and/or if the casualty is making snoring or gurgling sounds.
29. What nostril are most NPAs designed to be placed in? The right nostril.
30. What are the 2 resuscitation breathing methods to assist a casualty that is not breathing?
Mouth to mouth and mouth to nose.
31. How do you check the casualty for a pulse? Use the first two fingers in the groove in the
casualty’s throat besides the adam’s apple on the side closest to you.
32. Can clearing a casualty’s airway obstruction be done sitting or standing? Yes, either.
33. What position should a casualty be placed in to treat for shock? Lay the casualty on his back
unless a sitting position allows for easier breathing.
34. What is meant by 1st aid or 1st aid measures? Urgent and immediate lifesaving and other
measures which can be performed for causalities by non-medical personnel or by the
casualty himself when medical personnel are not immediately available.
35. What is a combat lifesaver? A member of a non-medical unit with additional medical
training beyond basic first aid procedures. This includes the ability to provide enhanced 1 st
 aid, which includes measures requiring an additional level of training above basic 1st aid
such as self-aid and buddy aid.
36. What is the difference between casualty evacuation (CASEVAC) and medical evacuation
(MEDEVAC?) Casualty evacuation is a term used by non-medical units to refer to the
movement of causalities aboard non-medical vehicles or aircraft without end route
medical care. Medevac is a process of moving any person who has wounded, injured, or ill
and/or between medical treatment facilities while providing reroute medical care.
37. What should be used for recording all 1st aid measures provided to a casualty? Where
should it be located? A TC3 card, DD form 1380. This is in the soldiers individual 1st aid kit.
38. TC3 is divided into what 3 stages? 1) Care Under Fire 2) Tactical Field Care 3) Tactical
Evaluation.
39. 3 phases of TC3? Care under fire, tactical field care, and tactical evacuation care.
40. In order for soldiers to perform 1st aid effectively they must have a basic understanding of
the structure and function of which 3 vital body systems? 1) Respiratory 2) Circulatory 3)
Musculoskeletal system.
41. What is considered to be the first major indicator of the general physiological state of a
casualty when performing an assessment? A pulse.
42. Name the 4 points of the body where the pulse can be readily felt? Carotid, femoral, radial,
and posterior tibial.
43. The body contains how many quarts of blood and takes about how many seconds to
circulate through the body and return to the heart? (5.6 liters) 6 quarts of blood, 20 to 30
seconds.
44. What are the 6 main components of the musculoskeletal system? Bones, joints, muscles,
cartilage, ligaments, and tendons.
45. How many bones are there in the human skeletal system? 206 bones.
46. What are the 3 steps that should be taken when approaching a potentially distressed
soldier, one who is having combat or operational stress reaction? ACE. ASK if they are
suicidal. CARE for them- calmly remove any weapons or other items that may increase the
risk and never leave them alone. ESCORT the soldier to get assistance, staying at their
side.
47. What is an IFAK? Improved First Aid Kit.
48. One providing care under fire the most likely threat to a causalities life is from what? What
is the only treatment that should be given at point of injury? Bleeding, only a tourniquet
should be applied.
49. What should be used for determining the level of consciousness of a casualty? A-ALERT, V-
VISUAL, P-PAIN, U-UNRESPONSIVE.
50. While maintain an open airway, the rescuer should check for breathing by observing the
casualty’s chest and stomach and performing what 5 additional actions? Look, listen, feel,
count, take action.
51. When should a nasopharyngeal airway be used and when should it never be used? It should
be used if there is a respiration rate less than 10 and 15 seconds and/or if the casualty is
making snoring or gurgling sounds. Never use an NPA if there is clear liquid coming from
the ears or nose because this may indicate a skull fracture and may be spinal fluid.
52. What are the 2 prescribed methods for opening an airway obstruction on a conscious
casualty? Abdominal or chest thrust.
53. When should the chest thrust be used in lieu of the abdominal thrust? When the casualty
has an abdominal wound, when the casualty’s pregnant, or when the casualty is so large
that you cannot wrap your arms around the abdomen.
54. Should you slap a choking casualty behind the back to assist them? No, because this may
cause object to go down the airway instead of out.
55. What is the 1st step in treating an open chest wound as to uncover the wound, except when
which conditions exist? Unless clothing is stuck to the wound or you are in a CBRN
environment, in which case uncovering the wound would cause additional harm.
56. While treating for an open chest wound you notice there are multiple wounds. You’re not
sure if some of them actually penetrated the chest wall completely. How should they be
treated? If in doubt treat them as if they were known open chest wounds and treat the
largest wounds 1st.
57. What is Body Substance Isolation precautions? BSI are precautions that include wearing
gloves and eye protection as a minimum when bodily fluids are involved, as all bodily
fluids should be considered potentially infectious.
58. Name the 3 methods for controlling external bleeding? Direct pressure, pressure dressing,
and tourniquet.
59. What are the 4 kinds of burns that are likely to be encountered in a combat environment? 1)
Thermal 2) Electrical 3) Chemical 4) Laser.
60. If the casualty is in contact with an electrical source, turn the electricity turned off. What
steps should be taken if electricity can’t be turned off? Use non-conductive material such as
a rope, clothing, or dry wood to drag the casualty away from the source.
61. What proactive measures should you take for a casualty whose hands or wrists have been
burned? Remove jewelry and place them in their pockets.
62. What are some general precautions when treating for burns? Do not place the dressing
over the face or genital area, do not break blisters, do not apply grease or appointments
to the burns.
63. What are some signs and symptoms of shock? 9 in total: 1) sweaty but cool skin 2) Pale skin
3) restlessness and nervousness 4) Thirst 5) severe bleeding 6) confusion 7) rapid
breathing 8) blotchy blue skin 9) nausea or vomiting.
64. What is the best way to calm a casualty down? By being authoritative and taking charge of
the situation and by showing self-confidence, additional by assuring the casualty that you
are there to help them.
65. What are the 2 categories of nerve agent poisoning? Mild and severe. An accurate
determination of the category helps determine the appropriate field aid measures.
66. What are the signs and symptoms of mild nerve agent poisoning? Unexplained runny nose,
unexplained sudden headache, sudden drooling, tightness in the chest or difficulty
breathing, difficulty seeing, localized sweating and muscular twitching in the area of
contaminated skin, stomach cramps, and nausea.
67. What are some of the signs of symptoms of severe nerve agent poisoning? Strange or
confused behavior, wheezing / difficulty breathing and coughing, pinpointed pupils, red
eyes with tearing, vomiting, severe muscular twitching, involuntary urination or
 defecation, convulsions, unconsciousness with or without respiration failure, localized
sweating and muscular twitching in the area of contaminated skin.
68. What does ATNAA and CANA stand for? ATNAA stands for Antidote Treatment, Nerve
Agent Auto Injector. CANA stands for convulsing antidote for nerve agent.
69. How does 1st aid from mild nerve agent poisoning differ from that for severe nerve agent
poisoning? Mild nerve agent poisoning is considered self-aid and requires the self-
administration of 1 ATNAA. Severe nerve agent poisoning is considered buddy aid and
may require up to 3 additional ATNAA injections along with a CANA injection.
70. Where ATNAA and CANA injections should be given? The Upper Outer Quadrant of the
buttocks.
71. For both types of CBRN auto injectors, the injector should be held in place for at least how
many seconds? 10 seconds.
72. What should be done with spent auto injectors? Bend the needles of all used injectors by
pressing on a hard surface to form a hook and then attaching the used injectors to the
blouse pocket flap of the chemical protective suit.
73. When should CANA be administered? After the 3rd ATNAA injection in order to prevent
convulsions.
74. What is the active ingredient in CANA? Diazepam.
75. What is the 1st step in treating for a tick bite? Remove the entire tick.
76. Tick bites are generally painless, what makes them so dangerous? Ticks can carry tick fever,
Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Lyme disease, and other bacterial diseases.
77. What are some signs of heat exhaustion? Dizziness, headache, loss of appetite, nausea,
weakness, clumsy, or unsteady gait, profuse sweating and pale grey clammy skin, normal
to slightly elevated body temperature, muscle cramps, and heat cramp.
78. When a soldier is heat exhausted, how much water should they consume over a one hour
period to rehydrate? 2 quarts.
79. Name some signs or symptoms of heat stroke? Hot dry skin, headache, convulsions and
chill’s, dizziness, nausea, weakness and rapid pulse, vomiting, confusion and mumbling,
combative patient, unconsciousness.
80. When cooling a heat stroke casualty how do you know when to stop cooling? When the
casualty starts shivering.
81. Should you give a heat stroke victim water to drink? No, give them nothing by mouth.
82. List some signs and symptoms of hyponatremia? Mental status changes, vomiting,
distended or bloated abdomen, and large amounts of clear urine.
83. Give examples of cold weather injuries? Injuries due to decreased temperatures such as
hypothermia, frostbite, and nonfreezing injuries, injuries due to heaters are also a risk,
including carbon monoxide poisoning, and accidents due to impaired physical or mental
function resulting from cold stress.
84. What are some examples of nonfreezing cold weather injuries? Chillblains, snowblindness,
and immersion syndrome.
85. Define Hypothermia? Hypothermia occurs when heat loss is greater than heat production
and at the point where core body temperature drops below 95degrees.
86. Frostbite occurs when tissue is exposed to temperatures below 32 degrees F and is
dependent on what 3 factors? Windchill factor, length of exposure, and adequacy of
protection.
87. What is a good indicator that frostbite has occurred? The answer to frostbite is signaled by
a sudden blanching of the skin on the nose, ears, cheeks, fingers, or toes followed by a
tingling sensation. When the pain you feel in these areas disappears even though they are
still exposed, it is a good indication that frostbite has occurred.
88. What should be considered before any attempt is made to thaw a frostbite injury? Once
tissue is thawed, it must not freeze again. If there is a possibility of tissue refreezing, it is
better not to thaw it in order to avoid further damaging the tissue.
89. What is the temperature range for nonfreezing injuries? 32 to 60 degrees F.
90. Immersion syndrome is also known by what other names? What is typically the cause?
Immersion foot and trench foot although it can occur in the hands, it is a non-freezing cold
weather injury that results from prolonged exposure to cold, damp, and wet conditions.
91. What causes snow blindness? What are some signs and symptoms that snow blindness is
occurring or has occurred? Snow blindness is caused by prolonged exposure to UV rays
without wearing appropriate eye protection. A telling sign or symptom that snow
blindness is occurring is a scratchy feeling in the eyes as if from sand or dirt.
92. 1st aid measures for fractions involve mobilizing the fractured part in addition to applying
life saving measures when necessary. What is the basic splinting principal? Immobilize the
joints above and below the fracture.
93. Any fracture in this bone should be considered a medical emergency and medical assistance
should be south as soon as possible, in what bone? The femur.
94. What is an anatomical splint? This is when an injured part of the body is mobilized using a
healthy part of the body.
95. When performing rescue breathing, you should begin with one slow breath. How long
should it last and what should you be checking for as you do this? About 1 second, watch
for chest rise and fall and listen for air escape upon your cheek.
96. When checking for a carotid pulse, how much time should you devote to this effort? At least
5 seconds but no more than 10.
97. During rescue breathing, how many breaths per minutes should you give the average adult?
12-20 per minute.
98. When should you initiate mouth to nose resuscitation in lieu of mouth to mouth
resuscitation? If you cannot open a casualties mouth, if there are mouse or jaw injuries, or
you cannot maintain a tight seal around the casualty’s mouth.
99. When CPR is necessary, you should perform how many cycles of how many compressions
with how many breaths? 5 cycles of 30 compressions with 2 breaths.
100. What is the optimal rate of delivery for chest compressions? 100 per minute, or 30
compressions in 18 seconds.
101. What should be done at the end of the 5 complete cycles of compressions and
ventilations? Check for a pulse.
102. Head injuries are classified into 2 major types. What are they and what is the
difference? Open injuries and closed injuries. Open have a visible wound and evidence of
bleeding. Closed have no visible evidence of bleeding, such as internal bleeding. However,
closed head injuries may have some visible indications such as depression in the skull or
other deformity.

Drill and Ceremony- TC 3-21.5

1. What TC covers Drill and Ceremony? TC 3-21.5.

2. From a Historical perspective, what was the primary purpose of Drill? To prepare troops
for battle. For the most part, the drill procedures practiced today are identical to the
tactical maneuvers employed yesterday’s battlefield. Drill enabled commanders to
quickly move their forces from one point to another, mass their forces into battle
formations that afforded maximum firepower and maneuver those forces as the
situation developed.
3. What is the primary purpose of drill today? It enables a commander or NCO to move his
unit from one place to another in an orderly manner; to aid in disciplinary training by
instilling habits of precision and response to the leader’s orders; and provide for the
development of all soldiers in the practice of commanding troops.
4. What are the three methods of instruction used to teach drill to soldiers? 1) Step-by-
Step 2) Talk through 3) By-the-Numbers.
5. As a rule, marching movements are taught using which of the above methods? Step-by-
Step.
6. Which teaching method is used for movements that have two or more counts? By the
Numbers.
7. TC 3-21.5 refers to something called the “PICAA” effect, what is this? This is a learning
aid used to help people teach the five-step process used in all marching movements.
1) Preparatory Command 2) Intermediate Step 3)Command of Execution 4) Additional
Step 5) Action Step (executing movement) The letters P, C, and A are all given when
the same foot strikes the ground (1,3,5). The letters I and A are executed with the
other foot (2, 5).
8. To enable soldiers to learn or maintain cadence and develop rhythm, an instructor
should have them count cadence while marching. What is the command for this? Count
Cadence, COUNT.
9. The command to COUNT CADENCE should be given as which foot strikes the marching
surface? The left foot.
10. What is the proper procedure to COUNT CADENCE? At “Quick time”, on the command
of execution COUNT of “Count Cadence, COUNT,” the soldier begins to count the next
time the left foot strikes the marching surface and counts as each foot strikes the
marching surface; ONE, TWO, THREE, FOUR.
11. How does COUNTING CADENCE at double-time differ from that at quick-time? The
procedure is basically the same, except the soldier only counts each time the left foot
strikes the marching surface.
12. What command is used to have soldiers COUNT CADENCE for stationary movement of
two or more counts? “In Cadence…”(i.e., “In Cadence, Right, FACE)
13. Once the command, “In Cadence” is given, soldiers continue to COUNT CADENCE for all
stationary movements having two or more counts. What command is given to halt the
execution of the movements in cadence? “Without Cadence…”
14. What is a drill command? An oral order of a commander or leader, the precision with
which a movement is executed affected by the manner in which the command is
given.
15. How should you be positioned when giving commands to troops? Half-way between
formation on the left side, facing the troops. On commands that set the unit in motion
(marching from point A to point B), you should move simultaneously with the unit to
maintain the correct position with the formation. When marching, you should turn
your head in the direction of troops to give commands.
16. What command is given to revoke a preparatory command that has been given? “AS
YOU WERE” the command must be given before the command of execution.
17. What are the FIVE types of commands in drill? 1) Two Part 2) Combined 3)
Supplementary 4) Directive 5) Mass.
18. Most drill commands have two parts, what are they? 1) The Preparatory Command that
states the movement to be carried out and mentally prepares the soldier for its
execution. 2) Command of Execution that tells when the movement is to be carried
out.
19. Are the commands “Ready, port, ARMS” and “Ready, aim, FIRE” considered to be two-
part commands? Yes, even though they both contain two preparatory commands
20. What is the interval between the preparatory command and the command of
execution? One count or one step.
21. What commands are given without inflection and at a uniformly high pitch and loudness
compared to that for a normal command of execution? Combined Command.
22. Give a few examples of Combined Commands? AT EASE, FALL IN, and REST.
23. What is a supplementary command? Oral orders given by the subordinate leader
reinforcing and complimenting the commander’s order. They ensure proper
understanding and execution of a movement (“echo” commands”
24. When in a formation at present arms and the preparatory command “order” of “order,
ARMS” is given, what should subordinate leaders do before giving their supplementary
command? Terminate their salute.
25. When a company commander gives the preparatory command “company” of
“Company, ATTENTION,” what supplementary command should be given by the platoon
leaders? What should the platoon leader do before giving the command? “Platoon”,
platoon leaders should come to ATTENTION before giving the command.
26. What are directives? Oral orders by the commander that direct or cause a subordinate
leader to take action. They are used when it is more appropriate for subordinate
elements to execute a movement or perform a task as independent elements of the
same formation. They are given in sentence form and normally prefaced by the terms
“HAVE YOUR UNITS” or “BRING YOUR UNITS” (I.e., BRING YOUR UNITS TO PRESENT
ARMS)
27. What is the only directive on which a commander relinquishes his command and on
which salutes are exchanged? “TAKE CHARGE OF YOUR UNITS”
28. A correctly delivered command will be understood by everyone in the unit and will
demand willing, correct, and immediate response. What are three elements of a
correctly delivered command? Tone, Snap, and Cadence.
29. What is the best posture for giving commands? The position of ATTENTION.
30. What is inflection? The rise and fall in pitch and tone of the voice.
31. What is the most desirable pitch when beginning a preparatory command? Near the
level of the natural speaking voice.
32. How should the inflection for the command of execution differ from the preparatory
command? The command of execution should be given in a sharper tone and in a
slightly higher pitch than the last syllable of the preparatory command.
33. In verbal commands, what is meant by “cadence”? A uniform and rhythmic flow of
words.
34. What is a Mass Command? Mass Commands are used to develop confidence and
promote enthusiasm, they are effective in developing a command voice when
instructing a leadership course. Mass commands are given simultaneously by each
individual of a unit.
35. What command is use to initiate mass commands? “AT YOUR COMMAND”
36. What are the two parts of a mass command? Preparatory command: Description of
movement (i.e., “face the platoon to the right”) Command of Execution: “COMMAND”
(On the command of execution “Command” all personnel of the platoon give the
command “Right, FACE, in unison, and simultaneously execute the movement.
37. What command is used to stop the use of mass commands? “AT MY COMMAND”
38. From what position are all stationary movements given? The position of ATTENTION.
39. What two commands may be given to call a unit or individuals to attention? 1) FALL IN-
used to assemble a formation or return it to its original configuration. 2) ATTENTION-
used with the appropriate preparatory command for soldiers at rest.
40. What are the four rest positions at half? 1) Parade Rest 2) Stand At Ease 3) At Ease 4)
Rest
41. PARADE REST is commanded only from what position? The position of ATTENTION.
42. What rest positions can be executed from PARADE REST? STAND AT EASE, AT EASE,
REST.
43. What rest positions can be executed from STAND AT EASE? AT EASE, REST.
44. What rest position can be executed from AT EASE? REST.
45. What position should be assumed by enlisted soldiers when addressing all NCOs or
when NCOs address NCO’s officers of superior rank? PARADE REST.
46. You may talk in formation only after what command is given? REST.
47. When at the position of STAND AT EASE, AT EASE, or REST, what position should be
assumed on the preparatory command for ATTENTION? PARADE REST.
48. What is the difference between “REST” and “AT EASE?” When AT EASE, silence must be
maintained and the right foot must remain in place. When at REST, the right foot must
still remain in place but you may move, talk, smoke, or drink unless otherwise
directed.
49. What five facing movements can be executed from the position of ATTENTION? Left,
FACE; Right, FACE; Half-left, FACE; Half-right, FACE; About, FACE.
 50. When marching in formation, who salutes and acknowledges salutes? Only the person
in charge of formation.
51. When double-timing, what must you do before saluting? Go to quick-time.
52. When reporting or rendering courtesy to an individual, turn the head and eyes toward
the person being addressed and simultaneously salute. The salute is initiated by the
subordinate at the appropriate time and terminated upon acknowledgement. When
outside, what is the “appropriate time” to render a hand salute? When you are
separated by “six paces”
53. All Marching movements executed from the half are initiated from what position? The
position of ATTENTION.
54. What is meant by “Marching at ATTENTION”? It is the combination of the position of
ATTENTION and the procedures for the prescribed step executed simultaneously.
55. All marching movements, except two, are executed while marching at ATTENTION.
Which two marching movements are these? ROUTE STEP MARCH and AT EASE MARCH.
56. When executed from half, all step begin with the left foot except? RIGHT STEP.
57. What is quick time cadence? 120 steps per minutes.
58. How fast is the double-time cadence? 180 steps per minute.
59. What is a step? The prescribed distance measured from one heel to the other heel of a
marching soldier.
60. What is the command to march with a 30 inch step from the halt? Forward, MARCH.
61. What is the normal length of a step in march? 30 inches.
62. The Arms swing how many inches forward, and how many inches straight to the rear of
trouser streams? 9 to the front and 6 inches to the rear of the trouser seams.
63. In order to halt while marching, the command HALT is given as which foot strikes the
marching surface? Either foot.
64. When should a CHANGE STEP be executed? It should be executed automatically
whenever a soldier finds himself out of step with all other members of the formation.
It should also be executed as a group when the command “Change Step, MARCH” is
given.
65. The command “Change Step, MARCH” is given as the what foot strikes the marching
surface? The Right foot.
66. What movement is used to change direction of a marching element 180 degrees in a
uniform manner? What is the command for this? MARCHING TO THE REAR; Rear,
MARCH
67. The command “Rear, MARCH” is given as the what foot strikes the marching surface?
The right foot.
68. Which foot do you pivot on when exerting a REAR MARCH command? The balls of both
feet.

Admin Separations

1. How is an admin sep. board composed? At least 3 experienced commissioned, warrant, and
non-commissioned officers.
At least 1 member in the rank or MAJ or higher
 The majority must be commissioned or warrant officers
Enlisted members must be SFC or higher and senior to the respondent.
2. When is a soldier entitled to an admin sep. board? 1. When they have 6 or more years in
service
2. When a Soldier is recommended for an OTH even if they have less than 6 years in service.
3. What are the processing goals for a Chapter? 15 working days for Notification Procedures
50 working days for Board Procedures
The time is measured from when the SM acknowledges to when the final separation authority
directs separation.
4. Who are the approval authorities in an admin sep? The Secretary of the Army, any GCMCA, and
General Officers. They must have legal advice available.
5. What rights does the respondent have for an Admin Sep Board? The respondent must be
notified in writing at least 15 days prior of the start of the board. The SM can waive the right to
a board before it is conducted.
6. What are the Separation Characterizations? Honorable, General (Under Honorable
Conditions), Other Than Honorable, Uncharacterized (For entry level only).
7. What is a respondent? Member being processed for separation.

Map Reading and Land Navigation

1. What is the publication for Map Reading and Land Navigation? TC 3-25.26.
2. What are military symbols? Figures used to represent types of military organizations,
installations, and activities.
3. Where is the Legend of the map found? Lower left margin.
4. What are contour lines? Imaginary lines on the ground connecting equal elevation, they
represent high and low ground elevation.
5. What are 3 types of contour lines? 1. Index, 2. Intermediate, 3. Supplementary.
6. How many Mils are in one degree? 17.7 mils.
7. How many Norths are there on a military map? Three: True north, magnetic north, grid north.
8. What shape are the contour lines that indicate a hill? A hill is shown on a map by contour lines
forming concentric circles. The inside of the smallest closed circle is the hilltop.
9. What shape are the contour lines that indicate a saddle? A saddle is normally represented as an
hourglass.
10. What shape are the contour lines that indicate a valley? Contour lines forming a valley are
either U shaped or V shaped.
11. What shape are the contour lines that indicate a depression? Usually only depressions that are
equal to or greater than the contour interval will be shown. On maps, depressions are
represented by closed contour lines that have tick marks pointing to the low ground.
12. What shape are the contour lines that indicate a draw? The contour lines depicting a draw are
U shaped or v shaped, pointing toward high ground.
13. What shape are the contour lines that indicate a cliff? Cliffs are also shown by contour lines
very close together and, in some instances, touching each other.
14. What shape are the contour lines that indicate a cut? This contour line extends the length of
the cut and has tick marks that extend from the cut line to the roadbed, if the map scale
permits this level of detail.
15. What shape are the contour lines that indicate a fill? This contour line extends the length of the
filled area and has tick marks that point toward lower ground. If the map scale permits, the
length of the fill tick marks are drawn to scale and extend from the base line of the fill symbol.
16. What must be done to a map before it can be used? It must be oriented.
17. What are 5 major terrain features found on a map? Hill, Valley, Ridge, Saddle, Depression.
18. What are the 3 minor terrain features found on a military map? Draw, Spur, Cliff.
19. What are the 2 supplementary terrain features found on a military map? Cut and fill.
20. What is a map? A Map is a graphic representation of a portion of the earth’s surface drawn to
scale, as seen from above.
21. What is an azimuth? A horizontal angle, measured in a clockwise manner from a north base
line, expressing direction.
22. What is vertical distance? The distance between the highest and lowest points measured.
23. What is a contour interval? The vertical distance between adjacent contour lines on a map.
24. What is the distance between grid lines on a combat map? 1 kilometer or 1000 meters.
25. How many mils are there in a circle? 6400 mils in 360 degrees.
26. Which north is used when using a military map? Magnetic north when using a compass, and
grid north when using a map.
27. How would you hold a lensatic compass? Away from metal (weapons, electrical devices) level
and firm
28. Name two ways to hold a compass? Compass to cheek method, and center hold method.
29. Are topographic symbols drawn to scale? No.
30. What do topographic symbols represent? Man-made and natural features.
31. In military symbols, what colors are used for a map overlay and what do they represent? Blue,
friendly, red, enemy, black, boundaries, yellow, contaminated area both friendly and enemy,
green, engineer obstacles, both friendly and enemy.
32. How do you figure out a back azimuth? To obtain a back azimuth from an azimuth, add 180
degrees if the azimuth is 180 degrees or less; subtract 180 degrees if the azimuth is 180
degrees or more.
33. What is a back azimuth? The opposite direction of an azimuth.
34. What is the general rule for reading military grid coordinates? Right and UP.
35. How many sights does a compass have? Two.
36. What is a benchmark? A man made marker showing points of elevation.
37. What are parallels of latitude? Measured distance going north or south of the equator.
38. The lensatic compass has a bezel ring; each bezel ring click is equal to how many degrees? Three
degrees.
39. What does UTM stand for? Universal Transverse Mercator.
40. How many times would the bezel ring click if it were fully rotated? 120 times.
41. Large cities on a map are represented by what color? Black.
42. What is the FM for operational terms and graphics? FM 1-02.
43. The arrow on a compass always points what direction? Magnetic north.
44. What does the term FLOT mean? Forward line of troops.
45. What does the term intersection mean? Finding the location of an unknown point by sighting
two or more known points.
46. Why is a map so important? When used correctly, a map can give you accurate distances,
locations and heights, best routes, key terrain features, and cover and concealment
information.
47. What does the term resection mean? Resection is the method of locating ones position on a
map by determining the back azimuth to at least two well defined locations that can be
pinpointed on the map.
48. How many scales are there on a compass, what are they? There are two, degrees and mils.
49. What are the 4 quadrants on a map? North east, south east, north west, south west.
50. What is the feature that makes lensatic compass work well at night? The dials and needles are
luminous.
51. The border line around the edge of the map is called the what? Neat Line.
52. You must find at least how many known locations on a map and the actual ground in order to
plot your location accurately? At least two.
53. What are the three main map sizes? Small, medium and large.
54. How close will an eight digit grid get you to your point? 10 meters.
55. How close will a six digit grid coordinate get you to your point? 100 meters.
56. How close will a 4 digit grind coordinate get you to your point? 1000 meters.
57. What would you use on a map to measure actual ground distance? The Bar Scale.
58. What are the colors on a map? Black, red-brown, blue, green, brown, red, and other (indicated
in marginal information)

Constitution
1. What did the US Constitution establish?
The Constitution established America’s National Government and fundamental laws, and
guaranteed certain basic rights for its citizens.
2. When was the Constitution signed?
The Constitution was signed 17 September 1787.
3. By whom was the Constitution signed?
The Constitution was signed by delegates to the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia,
presided over by George Washington. (George Washington was first to sign, and the document
was also signed by the likes of Benjamin Franklin and James Madison and John adams.)
4. What is the Bill of Rights?
The Bill of Rights is 10 amendments guaranteeing basic individual protections, such as freedom
of speech and religion that became part of the Constitution in 1791.
5. How many Constitutional Amendments to date are there?
There are 27 to date.
6. What are the first 10 amendments?
1st freedom of speech, 2nd right to bear arms, 3rd prohibits quartering of soldiers in private
homes during peacetime and places restrictions, 4th prohibits unreasonable searches and
seizures, 5th right to due process, 6th right to a fair and speedy trial, 7th right to trial by jury, 8th
prohibits excessive fines and cruel and unusual punishment, 9th protects rights not enumerated
by Constitution, 10th Reinforces the principle of federalism)
 Bluebook
th
7. What serves as the core of everything 8 Army does, so we are ready to succeed in our
mission and “fight tonight.”
Readiness, Teamwork, Leadership, and Discipline.
8. What is the intent and purpose of the Bluebook?
The intent and purpose of the Bluebook is to educate and instill upon all Service Members of 8th
Army the basic standards for individual discipline, appearance, conduct and military courtesy as
established by Army Regulations and policies. (BB 1-1, Purpose)
9. Do the Bluebook Standards apply while off-duty?
Yes. (BB 1-1, Purpose)
10. Who do the standards of the Bluebook apply to?
The Bluebook standards applies to all Service Members of Major Subordinate Commands of 8th
Army as well as all Soldiers and units assigned, attached, OPCON, and ADCON, where the CG
exercises authority as the Senior Mission Commander. Service Members who reside on other
installations shall comply with the 8th Army standards, unless the host installation standards and
policies are more restrictive. (BB 1-2, applicability.)
11. Who is responsible for ensuring Soldiers present a neat appearance at all times and conduct
themselves with the level of professionalism accorded to one who took a sacred oath to serve
our Army and Nation, both on and off duty?
Commanders and Leaders are responsible. (BB 1-3, Responsibilities)

12. Who has the duty to read, understand, and enforce all mandates within the Bluebook as well
as ensuring they brief their Soldiers on its contents?
Leaders. (BB 1-3, Responsibilities)
13. Leaders will ensure what?
Leaders will ensure all Soldiers receive a copy of the Bluebook and carry it on their person while
in uniform, or alternatively possess a digital copy on their smartphone. (BB 1-3, Responsibilities)
14. Which portions of the Bluebook are punitive?
Paragraph 9-5, Alcohol Usage and Laws, and paragraph 9-7, Readiness Recall Curfew are
punitive.
15. When will exception to policies be granted?
They may be granted when submitted through the chain of command and approved by the 8th
Army CG, unless exception authority is withheld by policy or regulation. (BB 1-6, Exceptions to
Policy)
16. What is 8th Armies Mission?
8th Army supports United Nations Command (UNC)/ Combined Forces Command (CFC)/ United
States Forces Korea (USFK) efforts to deter North Korean (nK) aggression. On order, 8th Army
conducts Noncombatant Evacuations Operations (NEO) and Reception, Staging, Onward
Movement, and Integration (RSO&I) to set conditions for offensive operations. (BB 2-1, 8th Army
Mission)
17. When was the 8th Army activated?
 8th Army was officially activated at Memphis, Tennessee, on 10 June 1944. (BB 2-2, History of
8A)

WTBD

1. What is the Army’s basic mission? Train and prepare Soldiers, leaders, and units to fight
and win in combat.
2. Who plans the individual training that soldiers need to become warriors and accomplish the
unit’s mission? Noncommissioned officers.
3. What are warrior tasks? A collection of individual soldier skills known to be critical to
soldier survival.
4. What is a battle drill? A battle drill is a collective action executed by a platoon or smaller
element without the application of a deliberate decision making process.
5. Battle drills are group skills designed to teach a unit to react and survive in common combat
situations. Give some examples? React to ambush, react to chemical attack, and evacuate
injured personnel from a vehicle.
6. What manual contains the warrior skills that soldiers must be able to perform, fight, survive,
and win in combat? Soldier’s manual of Common Tasks. (SMCT)
7. What are some of the 40 warrior tasks? Qualify with assigned weapon, operate M2 Cal,
Operate m249, Operate m240b, employ claymore mines and hand grenades, engage
targets with weapon using a night vision sight, perform voice communications, engage
targets using an aiming light, urban operations, move under direct fire, react to indirect/
direct fire, react to unexploded ordnance hazard, maintain weapons and equipment, IED
detect.
8. What are some of the 9 warrior drills? React to contact, avoid ambush, react to ambush,
react to indirect fire, react to chemical attack, break contact, dismount a vehicle, and
evacuate injured personnel from vehicle, secure at a halt.

Sponsorship

1. What Army Regulation covers Army Sponsorship? AR 600-8-8.

2. What DA Form is used to request a sponsor? DA Form 5434.
3. What section of the DA Form 5434 must the sponsor complete once the request is sent? Section
3 Unit information and your information.
4. When selecting a sponsor, what are 4 factors that should be considered? Rank, MOS, Gender,
and Martial status.
5. Personnel activities for soldiers are conducted primarily at 3 levels, what are they? Unit,
Battalion, Installation.
6. What are 6 elements of the sponsorship program? DA Form 5434, welcome letter, ACS
relocation readiness services, reception, orientation, and in-processing.
7. What is S-gate? S-gate provides vital info for incoming soldiers; who sponsor is, sponsor info,
unit info, welcome letter, needs assessment checklist, useful web links and regulating info.
8. How soon after the DA form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned? 10 days unless the
sponsorship is declined.
9. How long do sponsors have to answer correspondence? 10 working days.
10. Explain in processing in sponsorship? The sponsor does not inprocess, only assists when
needed.
11. Who is selected as a sponsor? Only those individuals who can represent the gaining unit or
activity in a positive manner will be selected as sponsors.
12. How are sponsors evaluated? Feed from new soldier, supervisors, etcs. Awards are also
recommended for exemplary service.
13.

Army Correspondence

1. What is the Army Regulation for Army Correspondence? AR 25-50.

2. What are some methods of communication? Personal or telephone contact,
memorandum, letters, electronic mail, and Army Knowledge and Defense Knowledge
Online.
3. According to paragraph 1-10 AR 25-50, writing quality, what will DA writing be? DA
writing will be clear, concise, and effective in according with Public Law 111-274 (plain
writing act of 2010.) The reader must be able to understand the writer’s ideas in a
single reading, and the correspondence must be free of errors in substance,
organization, style, and correctness.
4. What are some examples of unique capitalization found in AR 25-50? Capitalizing the
word Soldier when referring to a US army Soldier. Capitalizing the word Family when
it refers to US Army Family or Family members. Capitalize the word Civilian when it
refers to DA civilians and is used in conjunction with Soldier and/or Family.
5. Is it acceptable to use jargon in letters addressed to non DOD personnel? No.
6. May you use abbreviations in memorandums? You may use abbreviations and brevity
codes authorized in AR 25-52 for memorandums.
7. Describe the Army’s font size and type for official correspondence? Arial 12 point.
8. What are two types of memorandums? Formal and informal.
9. What is a MFR? Memorandum for Record.
10. Where does the signature block go on a memorandum? Center of page, fifth line below
authority line/ last line of text if no authority line.
11. What does Chapter 2 of AR 25-50 cover? Memorandums, formatting and types of Army
Memorandums.
12. What is active voice writing? Emphasizes the actor of the sentence, shows who or what
does the action and puts the actor before the verb, and creates shorter sentences.
13. How many elements does the heading have? Six elements, office symbol, army records
info management system record number, date, suspense date, memorandum for line,
and Subject line.
14. What kinds of abbreviations are okay to use in letters? Common abbreviations found in
standard dictionaries.
15. How many parts does a letter consist of? Three major parts, heading, body, and
closing.

Army Leadership and Counseling

1. What publication superseded FM 6-22 as the Army’s keystone manual on leadership? ADRP 6-
22 Army Leadership.
2. The foundations of Army leadership are grounded in what four elements? History, loyalty,
accountability to authority, and evolving Army doctrine.
3. Who is an Army leader? Anyone in the Army who, “by virtue of assumed role or assigned
responsibilities inspires and influences people to accomplish organizational goals.”
4. What is leadership? The process of influencing people by providing purpose, direction and
motivation to accomplish the mission and improve the organization.
5. What does it mean to influence people? Getting people to do what is required. It involves
more than simply passing along orders.
6. What is significant about the fact that leadership is a process? That good leadership does not
happen by chance but is a developed skill.
7. What is it meant by the phrase negative leadership? Leadership that completes requirements
by continuously operating at the compliance end of the influence continuum. Prolonged use
of negative leadership to influence followers undermines the followers will, initiative, and
potential and destroys unit morale.
8. Explain toxic leadership. The combination of self-centered attitudes, motivations, and
behaviors that have adverse effects on subordinates, organization, and mission performance.
9. When a group of military personnel are present, who technically has the greatest authority?
The person with the highest rank or date of rank.
10. What is meant by the term “command?” the authority that a commander in the armed forces
lawfully exercises over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment.
11. What are two requirements of the Army Leadership requirements model? 1. Leader attributes
(what leaders should BE and KNOW) 2. Leader competencies (what the army requires leaders
to DO)
12. What are the three leader attributes within the leadership requirements model? Character,
Presence, Intellect
13. What are the three leader competencies within the leadership requirements model? Leads,
develops, achieves.
14. What quality is a key to a mark of a leader’s character? Integrity.
15. Why is physical fitness such an important leadership attribute for a leader? Physically fit people
feel more competent and confident, handle stress better, work longer and hard, and recover
faster.
16. What are three levels of leadership? Direct, organizational, and strategic.
17. What are the four special conditions of leadership? Formal, informal, collective, and
situational.
18. Morale is the Army’s most important intangible human element. What is meant by morale? The
measure of how people feel about themselves, their team, and their leaders. High morale
results in a cohesive team striving to achieve common goals.
19. Leaders should identify subordinates who exhibit high risk behavior, what are some examples?
Driving under influence, failing to wear proper protective equipment, criminal activity, and
illegal use of drugs.
20. From the army perspective, what are three stages of team development? Formation,
enrichment, and sustainment.
21. What are the two critical steps in the formation stage of any team? Reception and orientation.
22. What publication covers the counseling process? ATP 6-22.1
23. What are the three principle ways leaders have to develop others? By counseling, coaching, and
mentoring.
24. What is meant by counseling? The process used by leaders to review with a subordinate the
subordinate’s demonstrated performance and potential.
25. What is the difference between counseling and coaching? While counseling is a review of
demonstrated performance and potential, coaching refers to the function of helping someone
through a set of tasks and relies on teaching and guiding to bring out and enhance capabilities
that are already present.
26. Explain what is meant by mentoring? Mentorship is the voluntary developmental relationship
that exists between a person of greater experience and a person of lesser experience that is
characterized by mutual trust and respect.
27. What are the three major categories of developmental counseling? Event oriented,
Performance, and professional growth counseling.
28. What is the main focus of crisis counseling? It identifies subordinates short term needs and
includes getting a soldier through a period of shock after receiving negative news.
29. What is referral counseling? Occurs when situation arises that is outside the capacities of the
counselor.
30. In order to be effective counselors, army leaders must demonstrate what five qualities? Respect
for subordinates, self-awareness, cultural awareness, empathy, and credibility.
31. Effective counselors must possess what three basic counseling skills? Active listening,
responding, and appropriate questioning.
32. What are four stage counseling process? Identify need for counseling, prepare the counseling,
conduct the counseling, and follow up.
33. How long should counselings be? Less than one hour.
34. What are three different approaches to counselings? Directive, nondirective, and combined.
35. Name two techniques that can be used during the nondirective or combined approaches to
counseling? Suggesting alternatives, recommending, persuading, and advising.
36. What are two steps during the follow up stage of counseling? Support plan of action
implementation and assess the plan of action.

Wear and Appearance of Uniforms

1. What regulation covers Army Uniforms? AR 670-1.

2. What does a Soldier’s appearance measure? Part of his or her professionalism.
3. What is a matter of personal pride for all soldiers? Proper wear of the Army Uniform.
4. Who has a responsibility for implementing and applying the standards contained in AR 670-1
and to ensure the best interests of the Army, including our shared traditions and customs?
Leaders, at all levels.
5. Who is exempt from policies in AR 670-1? Only those units designated for ceremonial duties,
such as the Old Guard and the US Army Band, are exempt from the policy to wear the Army
Service, dress, utility uniforms in the performance of ceremonial duties.
6. Can commanders and 1SG’s require individuals to purchase optional uniform items? No.
7. Can Commanders and 1SGs require individuals to purchase required uniform items? Yes they
can require the purchase of current issued items of CTA 50-900.
8. Who must maintain their clothing bag items and any supplemental clothing items they are
issued and ensure that their uniforms and insignia conform to AR 670-1.
9. Who must ensure they procure and maintain the uniforms and accessories appropriate to their
assigned duties and ensure that their uniforms and insignia conform to specifications of DA pam
670-1? All Officers.
10. What does pride in appearance include? Includes Soldier’s physical fitness and adherence to
acceptable weight standards in accordance with AR 600-9.
11. What is a vital ingredient of the Army’s strength and military effectiveness? The pride and self-
discipline that American Soldiers bring to their service through a conservative military image.
12. What chapter of AR 670-1 sets the standards for appearance and grooming standards? Chapter
3.
13. Are hair and fingernail grooming standards punitive under UCMJ? Yes.
14. What is the purpose of hair grooming standards? It is necessary to maintain uniformity within a
military population.
15. What are the guidelines leaders must use to judge appropriate hairstyles? By guidance in
chapter 3 AR 670-1 … and by the ability to wear all types of headgear such as beret, patrol cap,
and or service cap/hat and any protective equipment such as protective mask or combat
helmet properly.
16. Who determines if a hairstyle is considered appropriate? Army Leaders.
17. Who will comply with hair fingernail and grooming policies while in any military uniform, or in
civilian clothes on duty? All Soldiers.
18. How can leaders judge the appropriateness of a particular hairstyle? By the appearance of the
headgear when worn.
19. How should the headgear fit? Headgear will fit snugly and comfortably, without bulging or
distortion from the intended shape of the headgear and without excessive gaps between the
headgear and the head.
20. If Soldiers use dyes, tints, or bleaches what color must they use? They must choose a natural
hair color.
21. Who determines if colors are acceptable based on the soldiers overall appearance? Army
Leaders.
22. Who may cut a part into the hair? Only soldiers who have a texture of hair that does not part
naturally.
23. If a soldier is authorized to cut a part into their hair, how should the part be cut? The part will
be one straight line, not slanted or curved, and will fall in the area where the soldier would
normally part the hair.
24. For males what appearance must the hair present? A tapered appearance.
25. What is a tapered appearance? A tapered appearance is one where the outline of the soldier’s
hair conforms to the shape of the head curving inward to the natural termination point at the
base of the neck.
26. When the hair is combed what will it not do? It will fall over the ears or eyebrows, or touch the
collar, except for the closely cut hair at the back of the neck.
27. Is hair that is completely shaved or trimmed closely to the scalp authorized? Yes.
28. When are males required to keep their face clean shaved? When in uniform or in civilian
clothes on duty.
29. How must mustaches be kept? Neatly trimmed, tapered, and tidy, they cannot present a
chopped off or bushy appearance.
30. Who is authorized to grow a beard? Personnel who are authorized by the appropriate medical
authority issuing a medical profile.
31. Are soldiers that have profiles allowing beards authorized to shape the hair growth? No, they
are not authorized to shape the hair growth.
32. What are three basic categories of female hair styles? Short, medium and long.
33. What is short medium and long hair for females? Short is length that extends no more than 1
inch from scalp, no short than ¼ inch from scalp, medium is hair length that does not extend
beyond the lower edge of the collar and extends more than 1 inch from the scalp, long is hair
length that extends beyond the lower edge of the collar.
34. What types of hair holding devices are authorized for wear? Small plain scrunchies, barrettes,
combs, pins, clips, rubber bands and hair bands.
35. What are some examples of prohibited hair holding devices? Conspicuous, excessive, or
decorative.
36. During PT is long length hair authorized to be in a ponytail? Yes a single pony tail centered on
the back of the head is authorized in PT uniforms except when considered a safety hazard. It is
not required to be worn above the collar.
37. What is the authorized use of cosmetics allowed for females? They must be applied modestly
and conservatively and that they complement both the soldier’s complexion and the uniform.
38. How must males keep fingernails trimmed? Males will keep fingernails trimmed so as not to
extend beyond the fingertip unless medically required and are not authorized to wear nail
polish.
39. What are types of tattoos prejudicial to good order and discipline? Extremist, indecent, sexist,
and racist.
40. What jewelry is authorized to wear while in uniform? Soldiers may wear a wrist watch, a wrist
religious or ID bracelet, and a total of two rings.
41. Is a wedding set considered two rings? No, it is considered one.
42. Are males authorized to wear ear rings off duty? Yes as long as the earrings do not create or
support ear gauging.
43. What are considered class c uniforms? Combat, utility, hospital duty, food service, physical
fitness, field or organizational.
44. What types of earrings are authorized for females? Screw on, clip on, or post type earrings in
gold, silver white pearl, or diamond. The earrings will not exceed 6 mm or ¼ inch in diameter.

SGT Eric Coggins Award

1. When and by who established? Award established in 1997 under direction of MG Walter
Huffman, the Judge advocate general of the US Army at the time.
2. Who was Eric Coggins? A Paralegal Specialist in Korea whose skills led to his selection as
NCOIC of the Camp Stanley Legal office while still a SPC. After his Korean tour Coggins
 volunteered for duty in Kuwait where he became NCOIC of the Camp Doha Legal Office,
and was awarded the meritorious Service Medal. After his death from liver cancer, the
award was established in his honor.

JAG Corps History

1. Who founded the JAG Corps? General George Washington.

2. When was the JAG Corps founded? 29 July 1775.
3. Who died in the JAG Corps? Six people, Michael Martinez, Coty Phelps, Sharon Swartworth
and SGM Cornell Gilmore, Michael Merila, and Sascha Struble.

532nd BN History

1. When was the 532nd MI Service Company constituted in the regular Army? Constituted on
16 February 1951.
2. Where was it officially activated? Stuttgart, Federal Republic of Germany, 15 August 1951.
3. How long did the BN remain in Stuttgart? For 11 years and inactivated on 1962.
4. What does the city crest of Stuttgart includes? A prancing or “rampant” black horse on a
gold shield.
5. Why did the BN adapt the rampant black horse as the dominant feature of the crest? In
recognition of its close ties with Stuttgart.
6. What does teal, blue and gold represent on the crest? Truth and knowledge.
7. What does the checkboard pattern suggest? The strategic and tactical intelligence function
of the BN.
8. What does the scroll at the bottom of the unit crest read and what does it represent?
NOSCE HOSTEM and represents Know Your Enemy.
9. What campaign participation credits are credited to 532? Company B- WW2- Rhineland, A
Company- Korean War- UN Defensive, UN Offensive, CCF Intervention, First UN Counter
Offensive, UN Summer-Fall Offensive, 2nd Korean Winter, Korean Summer-fall 1952,
Third Korean Winter, Korea Summer-fall 1953.
10. What decorations are credited to A Company? Two Meritorious Unit Commendations with
streamers embroidered with Korea and Republic of Korea Presidential Unit Citation
embroidered with Korea, 1950-1953.

Chain of Command

1. Chain of Command for INSCOM? MG Gary Johnston, CSM Eric Schmitz.

2. Chain of Command for USFK? Gen Robert Abrams, CSM Walter Tagalicud.
3. Chain of Command for 8A? LTC Michael Bills, CSM Jason Schmidt.
4. Chain of Command for 501st? COL James Walsh, CSM Kristen Grover.

Promotions

1. What regulation covers enlisted promotions and reductions? AR 600-8-19.

2. What are the three levels of promotion? Unit Level, Semi-Centralized, and DA Centralized.
3. At what level are soldiers promoted to the grade of E5/ E6? Semi-Centralized.
4. TIG/ TIS requirements for promotion to PV2/ E2? TIG 6 months, TIS 6 months.
5. TIG/TIS requirements for promotion to PFC/ E3? TIG 4 months, TIS 12 months.
6. TIG/TIS requirements for promotion to SPC/ E4? TIG 4 months, TIS 24 months.
7. TIG/ TIS requirements for promotion to SGT/ E5? PZ 36 months TIS, 8 months TIG/ SZ 18
months TIS, 6 months TIG.
8. What are military education requirements for promotion to SGT/ E5? Must be a graduate of
SSD1 prior to board appearance.
9. What are the military education requirement for SSG/ E6? Must be a graduate of ALC prior to
board appearance.
10. What should leaders look for when recommending an individual for promotion? Overall
performance, attitude, leadership ability, and development potential.
11. Name five reasons that a soldier may be administratively reduced? Erronenous enlistment
grade, misconduct, inefficiency, approve for discharge under OTH, failure to complete
training.
12. What are three different ways that a soldier may be reduced for misconduct? By article 15, by
court martial, or conviction by civil court.
13. What is the composition of a promotion board? A board president, at least three voting
members, and a recorder without a vote.
14. What is a DA FORM 3355? Promotion Point Worksheet.
15. What are the two types of promotion point reevaluations? Administrative and total.
16. What are the three types of promotion point worksheets? Initial, reevaluation, and
recomputation.
17. What does a unit level promotion board mean?
18. What does a semi centralized promotion mean? Semi cent promotion process means that the
unit/ company plays a part in the promotion selection process, but it’s the Army that decides
who gets promoted.
19. What does a DA centralized promotion board mean?
20. What is special about the secondary zone? It gives exceptional performers an early shot at
promotion.

Publications

1. Awards and Decorations – AR 600-8-22

2. Promotions – AR 600-8-19
3. Army Leadership, military bearing – ADP 6-22
4. Leadership Counseling – ADP 6-22
5. Chain of Command AR 600-20
6. NCO Support Channel – AR 600-20
7. First Aid- TC 4-02.1
8. NBC Protection- FM 3-11.4
9. Map reading and Land Navigation-TC 3-25.26
10. Basic Rifle Markshmanship- TC 3-22.9
11. PRT- 7-22
12. Drill and Ceremony- TC 3-21.5
13. SHARP AR 600-20 (CH7)

NCO Support Channel

1. Who is responsible for everything their unit does or fails to do? The commander.
2. Can a leader assign responsibility and authority to their subordinates? Yes but overall
responsibility is still the leaders.
3. What is crucial to the proper functioning of all units? Effective communication between senior
and subordinate soldiers within the chain of command.
4. What must soldiers do when they need to communicate issues and problems? Must use the
chain of command.
5. Who does AR 600-20 direct that they will have open door policies? Only commanders are
directed that they must have open door policies.

Awards and Decorations

1. What publication covers Awards and Decorations? Army Regulation 600-8-22

2. Can Officer’s be awarded Good Conduct Medals? No, only enlisted.
3. What is the general time limitation for beginning administrative action for awards? Must be
entered into military channels within 2 years of the act.
4. What is the exception to the 2 year rule? Awarding of the PH, because an individual is not
recommended for it, they are entitled to it.
5. Are Combat Badges governed by a time limit? No.
6. What are some Combat badges? Combat Action Badge, Combat Infantryman Badge, Combat
Medical Badge.
7. Are NJP automatic disqualifications for consideration of AGCM? No, the Commander should
look at entire picture.
8. What are disqualifications? Conviction by court martial starts a new period of service,
individuals who are barred from reenlistment are not eligible.
9. What is the NCOPD Ribbon awarded for? Completion of NCO professional development
courses, BLC, ALC, SLC, etc.
10. What is the purpose of awarding badges and tabs? To provide recognition of attainment of a
high degree of skill, proficiency, and excellence.
11. What are the types of badges? Combat and Special Skill, Marksmanship, Identification.
12. What are the three levels of parachutist badge? Basic, Senior, and Master Parachutist.
13. Who is the approval authority for AGCM? The commander.
14. What form is used to initiate process, and approve award? DA FORM 638.
15. Can Generals receive ARCOMS? No.
16. What happens if an MSM is downgraded? It is approved as an ARCOM.
17. What is the MSM awarded for? Meritorious service or achievement in a noncombat area.
18. Is Self-recognition allowed? No.
19. What is a military decoration? An award in recognition of heroism, meritorious achievement,
or meritorious service.
20. What is an award? A decoration, medal, badge, ribbon bestowed on an individual or unit
21. Who presents the MOH and where is it presented? The President at the WH.
22. Are soldiers flagged for being overweight eligible for awards of valor and heroism? Yes.
23. What is the time limit for a request for reconsideration of a downgraded or disapproved award?
1 year from the date of the decision.
24. When may soldiers flagged for being an APFT failure be awarded a decoration for valor or
heroism? Posthumously if they die during combat operations.
25. How does the PH differ from other awards and decorations? It does not require exception or
waiver to be presented.
26. Who may revoke an award? The awarding authority.
27. Who is the approving authority for the Medal of Honor? Congress.
28. What is the word inscribed on the suspension bar of the MOH? Valor.
29. What is the ribbon awarded to members of the US army for successful completion of Basic and
AIT? Army Service Ribbon.
30. What three words are inscribed on the front of Army Good Conduct Medal? Honor, Efficiency,
and Fidelity.
31. Who can make recommendations of an award? Any person having knowledge of an
outstanding act or achievement.
32. What form is used to recommend/ request an award? DA Form 638.
33. When was the MOH established? 1862.