CENTRAL WAREHOUSING CORPORATION

ON-LINE EXAMINATION - RECRUITMENT OF

MANAGEMENT TRAINEES (GENERAL), MANAGEMENT TRAINEES (TECHNICAL),
ASSISTANT ENGINEER (CIVIL), ASSISTANT ENGINEER (ELECTRICAL), ACCOUNTANT
INFORMATION HANDOUT
This handout contains details pertaining to various aspects of the online exam you are going to undertake
and important instructions about related matters. You are advised to study the handout carefully as it will
help you in preparing for the examination.
The on-line examination will comprise the following objective type multiple choice tests as stated below :

Time allotted for each

Sr. No. of Maximum
Name of the Tests test (Separately
No. Questions Marks
timed)
1. Reasoning and Computer Aptitude 40 55 45 Minutes
2. English Language 35 40 25 Minutes
Data Analysis & Interpretation and
3. 40 55 45 Minutes
Quantitative Aptitude
4. General Awareness 20 20 15 Minutes
5. Professional Knowledge 65 65 50 Minutes
Total 200 235 3 Hours

The total duration for the exam is 3 hours; however you may have to be at the venue for approximately
4 hours including the time required for logging in, collection of the call letters, going through the
instructions etc. All tests except test of English Language will be provided in English and Hindi. You can
attempt any question within the time allotted to that test. All the questions will have multiple choices. Out
of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct answer. You have to select the most
appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which you feel is appropriate/ correct. The
alternative/ option that you have clicked on will be treated as your answer to that question. There
will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For every wrong answer marked by you, 1/4 of
the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
The Scores of Online Examination will be obtained by adopting the following procedure :
(i) Number of questions answered correctly by a candidate in each objective test is considered for
arriving at the Corrected Score after applying penalty for wrong answers.
(ii) The Corrected Scores so obtained by a candidate are made equivalent to take care of the minor
difference in difficulty level, if any, in each of the objective tests held in different sessions to arrive at
the Equated Scores*
*Scores obtained by candidates on any test are equated to the base form by considering the distribution
of scores of all the forms.
(iii) Testwise scores and scores on total is reported with decimal points upto two digits.
Note : Cutoffs will be applied on each section as well as Total Score.
Please note that the types of questions in this handout are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In
the actual examination you will find questions of a higher difficulty level on some or all of these
types and also questions on the types not mentioned here.

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Some sample questions are given below.

REASONING & COMPUTER APTITUDE

This is a test to see how well you can think and also to judge your aptitude/ knowledge for working
with computer. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.

Directions : In each of the following questions, there are five letter groups or words in each
question. Four of these letter groups or words are alike in some way, while one is different. Find
the one which is different.

Q.1. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) paint (5) yellow

Q.2. (1) BC (2) MN (3) PQ (4) XZ (5) ST

Q.3. (1) Mango (2) Apple (3) Orange (4) Guava (5) Rose

Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in which only one of the five
alternatives given under the question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the two
terms to the left of the sign :: given in the question. Find the correct answer.

Q.4. Foot : man : : hoof : ?

(1) leg (2) dog (3) horse (4) boy (5) shoe

Q.5. Day : Night : : Kind : ?

(1) Dark (2) Bright (3) Cruel (4) Generous (5) Gratitude

Q.6. Hut : Mansion : : Rabbit : ?

(1) Hole (2) Carrot (3) Elephant (4) Small (5) Rat

Q.7. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O,
the last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the
answer and if no such word can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X

Q.8. ‘Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader.’ Which of the following inferences
definitely follows from these statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest

Q.9. If ‘A ” B’ means ‘add B to A’, ‘A ’ B’ means ‘subtract B from A’, ‘A # B’ means ‘divide A by B’ and
‘A  B’ means ‘multiply A by B; which of the following gives the average sales of two days
where S1 and S2 are the sales of the first and the second day respectively ?
(1) (S1 ’ S2) # 2 (2) 2 # (S1 ” S2) (3) (S1 ” S2 # 2)
(4) (S1  S2) # (S1 ” S2) (5) Other than those given as options

Q.10. Every person above eighteen years of age who is registered as a voter, can vote. To find out
whether Madhu, who was born twenty years ago, can vote, which of the following further
information is needed ?
(I) Madhu’s date of birth (II) Whether Madhu is registered as a voter
(1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Either I or II (4) Neither I nor II (5) Both I and II

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 Q.11. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and
II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts, consider the two conclusions; together and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts.

Statements : I.All machines are windows. All windows are clouds.

Conclusions : I. All machines are clouds.
II.All clouds are machines.

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Both I & II follow
(4) Only II follows (5) Either I or II follows

Q.12-13. In the following questions a group of numbers and symbols is to be coded by the letter code
as per the given scheme and conditions. You have to find out the sr.no. of the letter code
group which correctly represents the number symbol combination. The sr. no. of that letter
code group is your answer. If none of the letter code groups is correct then mark (5) i.e Other
than those given as options.

Number/Symbol : 2 $ @ 7 6 # 8

Letter Code : Q B H L F M T

Condition :

1. If the first as well as the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as ‘A’.

2. If the first element is even digit and last element is a symbol their codes are to be inter changed.

Q.12. 67@2#
(1) FLHQM (2) MLHQF (3) MLQHE (4) FLQHM (5) Other than those given as options

Q.13. $687#
(1) AFTLA (2) AFTLM (3) BFTLA (4) BFTLM (5) Other than those given as options

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through
questions on grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a
passage etc.

Q.1. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is
no error, the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or communal problem/

(1) (2) (3)

in varying degrees. / No error.
(4) (5)

Q.2. Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would complete the
sentence correctly and meaningfully.

Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind of _____ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger (5) awakening

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Q.3-8. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers
are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The true (3) of rights is duty. If we all (4) our duties, rights will not be (5) to seek. If leaving duties
unperformed we run (6) rights, they will (7) us like an elusive person. The more we pursue them,
the farther (8) they fly.

Q.3. (1) end (2) source (3) joy (4) purpose (5) power

Q.4. (1) deny (2) devote (3) discharge (4) imagine (5) fulfill

Q.5. (1) far (2) close (3) easy (4) against (5) common

Q.6. (1) as (2) after (3) at (4) from (5) for

Q.7. (1) hold (2) grab (3) fight (4) escape (5) chase

Q.8. (1) off (2) can (3) did (4) could (5) towards

DATA ANALYSIS & INTERPRETATION AND QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz.
computation, quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs etc.

Q.1-3. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below ––––

Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination

out of 300 and interview out of 100 in a selection examination

Written INTERVIEW MARKS

Examination
Below 30 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 70 & above
Marks
260 & above 8 18 26 18 26 4
210 to 259 5 4 30 22 10 9
160 to 209 16 10 45 56 18 9
110 to 159 28 42 100 190 15 5
60 to 109 35 115 20 8 7 5
Below 60 32 32 20 4 6 2

Q.1. How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written
examination and interview ?
(1) 22 (2) 49 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) Other than those given as options

Q.2. if approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should be
the percentage of the qualifying marks ?
(1) above 20 (2) above 70 (3) above 36
(4) above 63 (5) Other than those given as options

Q.3. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks ?
(1) 110-159 (2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70
(4) 50 & above (5) Other than those given as options

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 Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning. For example :
Q.4. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 610 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.6. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the
pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) Other than those given as options
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.7-9. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees
ranking six attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully
and answer the questions that follow :

% of Employees Giving Different Ranks

Attribute I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13

Q.7. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency

Q.8. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ?

(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10

Q.9. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?

(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability
GENERAL AWARENESS
This test is designed to measure your awareness about the past and present events.
Q.1. Which of the following stands for I in RBI ?
(1) India (2) International (3) Insurance (4) Income (5) Institute
Q.2. Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states
in India ?
(1) Energy (2) Tourism (3) Service (4) Transport (5) Agriculture
Q.3. In which of the following states is the number of people living below poverty line the maximum ?
(1) Bihar (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (5) Orissa
Q.4. OSCAR awards are given for best performance in which of the following field ?
(1) Films (2) Literature (3) Sports (4) Science (5) Social Service
Q.5. Who among the following is the current Prime Minister of India ?
(1) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (2) Dr. Manmohan Singh (3) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(4) Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee (5) Other than those given as options

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 PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE
Syllabus for Management Trainee (G)

A. Human Resource Management & IR (25)

i. Management of Industrial Relations & Labour Legislation
ii. Recruitment and Selection
iii. Employee Discipline
iv. Organisation Behaviour, Organizational Change and Intervention Strategies
v. Trade Unions
vi. Compensation Management& Performance Management
vii. Human Resource Development: Strategies and Systems
viii. Manpower Planning
ix. Management of Training and Development
x. Interpersonal Processes and Counselling Skills for Managers
xi. Change & Conflict Management
xii. Dispute resolution and Grievance Management

B. Marketing Management (20)

i. Marketing: Concept
ii. Marketing of Services
iii. Advertising and Brand Management
iv. Segmentation and Positioning
v. Rural and Social Marketing
vi. Promotion Management and B2B Marketing
vii. Customer Relationship Management
viii. Consumer Behaviour
ix. Marketing Research
x. Internet as a Tool of Marketing
xi. Pricing Theories

C. Supply Chain Management (20)

i. Supply Chain Management: Concept
ii. Total Quality Management
iii. Logistics Management: National and International
iv. Retail Management
v. Transportation Management
vi. Service Operations Management
vii. Business Process Reengineering
viii. Role of IT in Supply Chain Management

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 ix. Emerging Issues in Supply Chain Management
x. Aggregate Planning
xi. Designing Supply Chain Network
xii. Warehousing and Inventory Planning and Management
xiii. Contract Management

Syllabus for Management Trainee (Technical)

i. Basic Agriculture (20) – Principles of Crop Production, Crop Protection, Post-harvest care,
Grain Protection, Agriculture Extension, Horticulture, Animal Husbandry, Distribution & Economic
Scenario.
ii. Biotechnology (12) – Microbes: Beneficial & Harmful, Genetic Engineering, Biotechnological
Principles, Economic Biotechnology, Pathogens & Control, Recent trends
iii. Entomology (20) – Basic Entomology, Economic Entomology, Beneficial & harmful Insects, IPM,
Storage Entomology, Vertebrate Pests, Taxonomy
iv. Chemistry (13) – Physical Chemistry, Inorganic Chemistry, Organic Chemistry.

Syllabus for Assistant Engineer (Civil)

a) Structural Engineering (18)

i. Engineering Mechanics
ii. Solid Mechanics
iii. Structural Analysis
iv. Construction Materials and Management
v. Concrete Structures
vi. Steel Structures

b) Geotechnical Engineering&Geomatics Engineering (18)

i. Soil Mechanics
ii. Foundation Engineering

iii. Principles of surveying

iv. Maps

v. Distance and angle measurement

vi. Traversing and triangulation survey

vii. Horizontal and vertical curves

viii. Basics of GIS and GPS

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 c) Water Resources Engineering(10)
i. Fluid Mechanics
ii. Hydraulics
iii. Hydrology
iv. Irrigation

d) Environmental Engineering(11)
i. Water and Waste Water
ii. Air Pollution
iii. Municipal Solid Wastes
iv. Noise Pollution

e) Transportation Engineering(8)
i. Transportation Infrastructure
ii. Highway Pavements
iii. Traffic Engineering

Syllabus for Assistant Engineer (Electrical)

A. Electric Circuits (8)

i. Network graph
ii. KCL, KVL, Node and Mesh analysis
iii. Transient response of dc and ac networks
iv. Sinusoidal steady‐state analysis
v. Resonance, Passive filters, Ideal current and voltage sources
vi. Thevenin’s theorem, Norton’s theorem, Superposition theorem, Maximum power transfer theorem
vii. Two‐port networks, Three phase circuits, Power and power factor in ac circuits.

B. Electromagnetic Fields (7)

i. Coulomb's Law, Electric Field Intensity, Electric Flux Density

ii. Gauss's Law, Divergence
iii. Electric field and potential due to point, line, plane and spherical charge distributions
iv. Effect of dielectric medium
v. Capacitance of simple configurations
vi. Biot‐Savart’s law, Ampere’s law, Curl, Faraday’s law, Lorentz force
vii. Inductance, Magnetomotive force, Reluctance, Magnetic circuits
viii. Self and Mutual inductance of simple configurations.

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C. Signals and Systems (7)

i. Representation of continuous and discrete‐time signals

ii. Shifting and scaling operations
iii. Linear Time Invariant and Causal systems
iv. Fourier series representation of continuous periodic signals
v. Sampling theorem, Applications of Fourier Transform, Laplace Transform and z-Transform.

D. Electrical Machines (7)

i. Single phase transformer: equivalent circuit, phasor diagram, open circuit and short circuit tests,
regulation and efficiency
ii. Three phase transformers: connections, parallel operation
iii. Auto‐transformer, Electromechanical energy conversion principles
iv. DC machines: separately excited, series and shunt, motoring and generating mode of operation
and their characteristics, starting and speed control of dc motors
v. Three phase induction motors: principle of operation, types, performance, torque-speed
characteristics, no-load and blocked rotor tests, equivalent circuit, starting and speed control
vi. Operating principle of single-phase induction motors
vii. Synchronous machines: cylindrical and salient pole machines, performance, regulation and
parallel operation of generators, starting of synchronous motor, characteristics
viii. Types of losses and efficiency calculations of electric machines.

E. Power Systems (8)

i. Power generation concepts, ac and dc transmission concepts

ii. Models and performance of transmission lines and cables
iii. Series and shunt compensation
iv. Electric field distribution and insulators
v. Distribution systems, Per‐unit quantities, Bus admittance matrix
vi. Gauss-Seidel and Newton-Raphson load flow methods
vii. Voltage and Frequency control, Power factor correction
viii. Symmetrical components, Symmetrical and unsymmetrical fault analysis
ix. Principles of over‐current, differential and distance protection
x. Circuit breakers, System stability concepts, Equal area criterion.

F. Control Systems (7)

i. Mathematical modelling and representation of systems

ii. Feedback principle, transfer function, Block diagrams and Signal flow graphs

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 iii. Transient and Steady‐state analysis of linear time invariant systems
iv. Routh-Hurwitz and Nyquist criteria, Bode plots, Root loci
v. Stability analysis, Lag, Lead and Lead‐Lag compensators
vi. P, PI and PID controllers
vii. State space model, State transition matrix.

G. Electrical and Electronic Measurements (7)

i. Bridges and Potentiometers

ii. Measurement of voltage, current, power, energy and power factor
iii. Instrument transformers, Digital voltmeters and multimeters, Phase, Time and Frequency
measurement
iv. Oscilloscopes, Error analysis.

H. Analog and Digital Electronics (7)

i. Characteristics of diodes, BJT, MOSFET

ii. Simple diode circuits: clipping, clamping, rectifiers
iii. Amplifiers: Biasing, Equivalent circuit and Frequency response
iv. Oscillators and Feedback amplifiers
v. Operational amplifiers: Characteristics and applications
vi. Simple active filters, VCOs and Timers, Combinational and Sequential logic circuits, Multiplexer,
Demultiplexer, Schmitt trigger, Sample and hold circuits, A/D and D/A converters
vii. 8085Microprocessor: Architecture, Programming and Interfacing.

I. Power Electronics (7)

i. Characteristics of semiconductor power devices: Diode, Thyristor, Triac, GTO, MOSFET, IGBT
ii. DC to DC conversion: Buck, Boost and Buck-Boost converters; Single and three phase
configuration of uncontrolled rectifiers, Line commutated thyristor-based converters
iii. Bidirectional ac to dc voltage source converters, Issues of line current harmonics
iv. Power factor, Distortion factor of ac to dc converters, Single phase and three phase inverters,
Sinusoidal pulse width modulation.

Syllabus for Accountant

a) Financial Accounting (20)

i. Accounting Standards
ii. Accounting Process and Principles
iii. Preparation of bank reconciliation statement

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 iv. Rectification of errors
v. Receipts and payment accounts
vi. Single entry system
vii. Amalgamation, Absorption and Reconstruction of Companies
viii. Preparation and Presentation of company final accounts
ix. Insurance Claims
x. E-Banking, RTGS, NEFT etc.

b) Cost Accounting (15)

i. Nature and functions of Cost Accounting
ii. Cost Concepts
iii. Methods of Costing
iv. Techniques of cost control and cost reduction

c) Taxation (15)
i. Income Tax: Concept and various provisions as per Act
ii. Set off and carry forward of loss
iii. Deductions from Gross Total Income
iv. Salient features/ provisions related to VAT and Service Tax.

d) Auditing (15)
i. Auditing: Concept
ii. Company Audit
iii. Audit reports and Audit Certificates
iv. Vouching
v. Internal Control
vi. Audit of Banking/ Insurance/ Non-Profit Organisation/ Charitable Societies/ Trust/ Organisations

(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern

(1) The examination would be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.
(2) The tests except test of English Language will be provided in English and Hindi.
(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be
the correct answer. The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse
click’ that alternative which he/ she feels is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that
is clicked on will be treated as the answer to that question. Answer to any question will be
considered for final evaluation, only when candidates have submitted the answers by
clicking on “Save & Next” or “Mark for Review & Next”.

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(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen
will display the time remaining for you to complete the test. When the clock runs out the exam ends
by default - you are not required to end or submit your exam.
(5) The question palette at the right of screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the
questions numbered:

The Marked for Review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the
question again. If an answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer
will be considered in the final evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that
numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the
current question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in
sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Reviewand Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review,
and to go to the next question in sequence.
(7) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.
(8) To change your answer, click another desired option button.
(9) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.
(10) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response
button.
(11) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a
question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(12) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer
option followed by a click on the Save & Next button.
(13) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for
evaluation.
(14) Test name(s) will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. The test you will view will be
highlighted.

(15) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a test, you will be taken to the first
question of the (next) test only after the time allotted to that test elapses.

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(16) You cannot shuffle between tests during the examination as all tests are separately timed.
(17) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any
candidate does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/
adoption of unfair means and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for
examinations for a period as decided by Central Warehousing Corporation.
(18) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the
commencement of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the
examination.
(19) After the expiry of time allotted to a particular test the candidates will not be able to attempt any
question or check their answers. The answers of the candidate would be saved automatically by
the computer system even if he/ she has not clicked the “Submit” button.
(20) Please note :
(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the
actual test time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once
the exam starts as this will lock the exam.
B] General Instructions:
(1) Please note date, time and venue address of the examination given in the call letter.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that
you are able to report on time (as printed on the call letter) on the day of the examination.
Late comers will not be allowed.
(3) The call letter should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your recent
photograph duly pasted on it. (Preferably the same photograph as was as uploaded).
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and Organization
Representative at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified
and will be asked to leave the examination venue.
(5) FOLLOWING ITEMS ARE NOT ALLOWED INSIDE THE EXAMINATION CENTRE: -
Any stationary item like textual material (printed or written), bits of papers, Geometry/Pencil
Box, Plastic Pouch, Calculator, Scale, Writing Pad, Pen Drives, Log Table, Electronic
Pen/Scanner etc, Any communication device like Mobile Phone, Bluetooth, Earphones,
Microphone, Pager, Health Band etc, Other items like Goggles, Handbags, Hair-pin, Hair-
band, Belt, Cap, etc, Any watch/Wrist Watch, Camera, etc, Any metallic item, Any eatable
item opened or packed, water bottle etc, Any other item which could be used for unfair means
for hiding communication devices like camera, blue tooth devices etc. Any infringement of
these instructions shall entail cancellation of candidature and disciplinary action including ban
from future examinations.
(6) Full sleeved shirts or tops are not permitted and only half sleeved clothing is allowed. Shoes
or other footwear which cover the toes should not be worn. Footwear should be open toe type
and sandals or chappals are permitted. Candidates with long hair should tie their hair so that
ears are not covered. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail cancellation of
candidature and disciplinary action including ban from future examinations. The candidates
wearing any religious dress shall be advised to reach the examination venue at least 30
minutes before the prescribed reporting time so that they may checked thoroughly.

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(7) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones
(with or without camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the
examination.

(8) Please bring the call letter with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid photo identity
proof in original and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS IS
ESSENTIAL. Please handover the call-letter alongwith photocopy of photo identity proof duly
stapled together to the invigilator. Currently valid photo identity proof may be Currently valid
photo identity proof may be PAN Card/ Passport/ Permanent Driving Licence/ Voter’s Card/
Bank Passbook with photograph/ Photo Identity proof issued by a Gazetted Officer on official
letterhead alongwith photograph/ Photo Identity proof issued by a People’s Representative on
official letterhead alongwith photograph/ Valid recent Identity Card issued by a recognised
College/ University/ Aadhaar Card/ E-Aadhaar Card with a photograph/ Employee ID/ Bar
Council Identity card with photograph. Please Note - Ration Card and Learner’s Driving
License will NOT be accepted as valid ID proof. Please note that your name as appearing
on the call letter (provided by you during the process of registration) should exactly match the
name as appearing on the photo identity proof. Female candidates who have changed
first/last/middle name post marriage must take special note of this. If there is any mismatch
between the name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof you will not be allowed
to appear for the examination. In case of candidates who have changed their name will be
allowed only if they produce Gazette notification/their marriage certificate/affidavit. Photo ID
should be valid as on the day of the examination.

(9) Biometric data (thumb impression) and photograph will be captured twice at the examination
venue i.e. before the start of examination and after completion of examination. Decision of the
Biometric data verification authority with regard to its status (matched or mismatched) shall be
final and binding upon the candidates. Refusal to participate in the process of biometric data
capturing/ verification on any occasion may lead to cancellation of candidature. With regards
to the same, please note the following:

(a) If fingers are coated (stamped ink/ mehndi /coloured...etc), ensure to thoroughly wash
them so that coating is completely removed before the examination day.

(b) If fingers are dirty or dusty, ensure to wash them and dry them before the thumb
impression (biometric) is captured.

(c) Ensure fingers of both hands are dry. If fingers are moist, wipe each finger to dry them.

(d) If the primary finger (thumb) to be captured is injured/ damaged, immediately notify the
concerned authority in the test centre.

(Any failure to observe these points will result in non-admittance for the examination)

(10) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of
similarity of right and wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is
inferred/concluded that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not
genuine/valid, your candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate who is found copying or
receiving or giving assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a candidate will
not be considered for assessment. The Organization may take further action against such
candidates as deemed fit by it.

(11) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be
used for rough work or taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of
the test before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST hand over this sheet
of paper to the Test Administrator before leaving the venue.

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 (12) The possibility of occurrence of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot
be ruled out completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In
that event, every effort will be made to rectify such problem, which may include movement of
candidates, delay in test. Conduct of a re-exam is at the absolute discretion of test conducting
body. Candidates will not have any claim for a re-test. Candidates not willing to move or not
willing to participate in the delayed process of test delivery shall be summarily rejected from
the process.

(13) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be
equated to adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across
sessions. More than one session are required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical
disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.

(14) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating

transmission and storage of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or
part thereof or by any means verbal or written, electronic or mechanical or taking away the
papers supplied in the examination hall or found to be in unauthorised possession of test
content is likely to be prosecuted.

(15) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected
at any stage of the selection, process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the
selection process and he/she will not be allowed to appear in any recruitment process of
Central Warehousing Corporation in the future. If such instances go undetected during the
current selection process but are detected subsequently, such disqualification will take place
with retrospective affect.

IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER

You are advised to bring with you the following:

(i) Call letter with Coloured Photograph affixed thereon and photo ID card in Original and photocopy as
mentioned in point 6.

(ii) One Ball point pen

WISH YOU GOOD LUCK

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