CENTRAL WAREHOUSING CORPORATION

ON-LINE EXAMINATION - RECRUITMENT OF SUPERINTENDENT (GENERAL)

INFORMATION HANDOUT

This handout contains details pertaining to various aspects of the online exam you are going to undertake and
important instructions about related matters. You are advised to study the handout carefully as it will help you in
preparing for the examination.
The on-line examination will comprise the following objective type multiple choice tests as stated below :

Time allotted for each

Sr. No. of Maximum
Name of the Tests test (Separately
No. Questions Marks
timed)
1. Reasoning and Computer Aptitude 40 55 45 Minutes
2. English Language 35 40 25 Minutes
Data Analysis & Interpretation and
3. 40 55 45 Minutes
Quantitative Aptitude
4. General Awareness 35 35 25 Minutes
Total 150 185 2 Hours 20 Minutes

The total duration for the exam is 2 hours 20 Minutes; however you may have to be at the venue for
approximately 3 hours 20 Minutes including the time required for logging in, collection of the call letters, going
through the instructions etc. All tests except test of English Language will be provided in English and Hindi. You
can attempt any question within the time allotted to that test. All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of
the five answers to a question only one will be the correct answer. You have to select the most appropriate
answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which you feel is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option
that you have clicked on will be treated as your answer to that question. There will be penalty for wrong
answers marked by you. For every wrong answer marked by you, 1/4 of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

The Scores of Online Examination will be obtained by adopting the following procedure :
(i) Number of questions answered correctly by a candidate in each objective test is considered for arriving at
the Corrected Score after applying penalty for wrong answers.
(ii) The Corrected Scores so obtained by a candidate are made equivalent to take care of the minor difference
in difficulty level, if any, in each of the objective tests held in different sessions to arrive at the Equated
Scores*
*Scores obtained by candidates on any test are equated to the base form by considering the distribution of
scores of all the forms.
(iii) Testwise scores and scores on total is reported with decimal points upto two digits.

Note : Cutoffs will be applied on each section as well as Total Score

Please note that the types of questions in this handout are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the
actual examination you will find questions of a higher difficulty level on some or all of these types and
also questions on the types not mentioned here.

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Some sample questions are given below.

REASONING & COMPUTER APTITUDE

This is a test to see how well you can think and also to judge your aptitude/ knowledge for working with
computer. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.

Directions : In each of the following questions, there are five letter groups or words in each question. Four
of these letter groups or words are alike in some way, while one is different. Find the one which is different.

Q.1. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) paint (5) yellow

Q.2. (1) BC (2) MN (3) PQ (4) XZ (5) ST

Q.3. (1) Mango (2) Apple (3) Orange (4) Guava (5) Rose

Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in which only one of the five
alternatives given under the question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the two terms to
the left of the sign :: given in the question. Find the correct answer.

Q.4. Foot : man : : hoof : ?

(1) leg (2) dog (3) horse (4) boy (5) shoe

Q.5. Day : Night : : Kind : ?

(1) Dark (2) Bright (3) Cruel (4) Generous (5) Gratitude

Q.6. Hut : Mansion : : Rabbit : ?

(1) Hole (2) Carrot (3) Elephant (4) Small (5) Rat

Q.7. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last
letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no
such word can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X

Q.8. ‘Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader.’ Which of the following inferences definitely
follows from these statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest

Q.9. If ‘A ” B’ means ‘add B to A’, ‘A ’ B’ means ‘subtract B from A’, ‘A # B’ means ‘divide A by B’ and ‘A 
B’ means ‘multiply A by B; which of the following gives the average sales of two days where S 1 and S2
are the sales of the first and the second day respectively ?
(1) (S1 ’ S2) # 2 (2) 2 # (S1 ” S2)
(3) (S1 ” S2 # 2) (4) (S1  S2) # (S1 ” S2)
(5) Other than those given as options

Q.10. Every person above eighteen years of age who is registered as a voter, can vote. To find out whether
Madhu, who was born twenty years ago, can vote, which of the following further information is
needed ?
(I) Madhu’s date of birth (II) Whether Madhu is registered as a voter
(1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Either I or II (4) Neither I nor II (5) Both I and II

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 Q.11. In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts, consider the two conclusions; together and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements : I.All machines are windows. All windows are clouds.

Conclusions : I. All machines are clouds.
II.All clouds are machines.

(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Both I & II follow
(4) Only II follows (5) Either I or II follows

Q.12-13. In the following questions a group of numbers and symbols is to be coded by the letter code as per
the given scheme and conditions. You have to find out the sr.no. of the letter code group which correctly
represents the number symbol combination. The sr. no. of that letter code group is your answer. If none of
the letter code groups is correct then mark (5) i.e Other than those given as options.

Number/Symbol : 2 $ @ 7 6 # 8

Letter Code : Q B H L F M T

Condition :

1. If the first as well as the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as ‘A’.

2. If the first element is even digit and last element is a symbol their codes are to be
inter changed.

Q.12. 67@2#
(1) FLHQM (2) MLHQF (3) MLQHE (4) FLQHM (5) Other than those given as options

Q.13. $687#
(1) AFTLA (2) AFTLM (3) BFTLA (4) BFTLM (5) Other than those given as options

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through
questions on grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a passage
etc.

Q.1. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any,
will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer
is ‘5’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or communal problem/

(1) (2) (3)

in varying degrees. / No error.
(4) (5)

Q.2. Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would complete the sentence
correctly and meaningfully.

Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind of _____ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger (5) awakening

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Q.3-8. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The true (3) of rights is duty. If we all (4) our duties, rights will not be (5) to seek. If leaving duties
unperformed we run (6) rights, they will (7) us like an elusive person. The more we pursue them, the
farther (8) they fly.

Q.3. (1) end (2) source (3) joy (4) purpose (5) power

Q.4. (1) deny (2) devote (3) discharge (4) imagine (5) fulfill

Q.5. (1) far (2) close (3) easy (4) against (5) common

Q.6. (1) as (2) after (3) at (4) from (5) for

Q.7. (1) hold (2) grab (3) fight (4) escape (5) chase

Q.8. (1) off (2) can (3) did (4) could (5) towards

DATA ANALYSIS & INTERPRETATION AND QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation,
quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs etc.

Q.1-3. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below ––––

Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination

out of 300 and interview out of 100 in a selection examination

Written INTERVIEW MARKS

Examination
Below 30 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 70 & above
Marks
260 & above 8 18 26 18 26 4
210 to 259 5 4 30 22 10 9
160 to 209 16 10 45 56 18 9
110 to 159 28 42 100 190 15 5
60 to 109 35 115 20 8 7 5
Below 60 32 32 20 4 6 2

Q.1. How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written examination
and interview ?
(1) 22 (2) 49 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) Other than those given as options

Q.2. if approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should be the
percentage of the qualifying marks ?
(1) above 20 (2) above 70 (3) above 36
(4) above 63 (5) Other than those given as options

Q.3. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks ?
(1) 110-159 (2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70
(4) 50 & above (5) Other than those given as options

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 Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning. For example :
Q.4. At 10 paise each, how many paise will 6 lemons cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 610 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.6. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) Other than those given as options
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.7-9. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking
six attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer the
questions that follow :

% of Employees Giving Different Ranks

Attribute I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13

Q.7. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency

Q.8. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ?

(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10

Q.9. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?

(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability

GENERAL AWARENESS
This test is designed to measure your awareness about the past and present events.
Q.1. Which of the following stands for I in RBI ?
(1) India (2) International (3) Insurance (4) Income (5) Institute
Q.2. Which of the following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the states in
India ?
(1) Energy (2) Tourism (3) Service (4) Transport (5) Agriculture
Q.3. In which of the following states is the number of people living below poverty line the maximum ?
(1) Bihar (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (5) Orissa
Q.4. OSCAR awards are given for best performance in which of the following field ?
(1) Films (2) Literature (3) Sports (4) Science (5) Social Service
Q.5. Who among the following is the current Prime Minister of India ?
(1) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (2) Dr. Manmohan Singh (3) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(4) Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee (5) Other than those given as options

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(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern
(1) The examination would be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.
(2) The tests except test of English Language will be provided in English and Hindi.
(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the
correct answer. The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that
alternative which he/ she feels is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is clicked on will
be treated as the answer to that question. Answer to any question will be considered for final
evaluation, only when candidates have submitted the answers by clicking on “Save & Next” or
“Mark for Review & Next”.
(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen will
display the time remaining for you to complete the test. When the clock runs out the exam ends by default
- you are not required to end or submit your exam.
(5) The question palette at the right of screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the questions
numbered:

The Marked for Review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the question again. If an
answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final
evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that
numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current
question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in
sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Reviewand Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to
go to the next question in sequence.

(7) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.

(8) To change your answer, click another desired option button.

(9) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.

(10) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button.

(11) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a question
that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.

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(12) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option
followed by a click on the Save & Next button.

(13) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for
evaluation.

(14) Test name(s) will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. The test you will view will be highlighted.

(15) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a test, you will be taken to the first question
of the (next) test only after the time allotted to that test elapses.

(16) You cannot shuffle between tests during the examination as all tests are separately timed.

(17) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any
candidate does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/ adoption of
unfair means and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations for a
period as decided by Central Warehousing Corporation.

(18) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the
commencement of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.

(19) After the expiry of time allotted to a particular test the candidates will not be able to attempt any question
or check their answers. The answers of the candidate would be saved automatically by the computer
system even if he/ she has not clicked the “Submit” button.

(20) Please note :

(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test
time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once the
exam starts as this will lock the exam.
B] General Instructions:
(1) Please note date, time and venue address of the examination given in the call letter.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that you
are able to report on time (as printed on the call letter) on the day of the examination. Late comers
will not be allowed.
(3) The call letter should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your recent
photograph duly pasted on it. (Preferably the same photograph as was as uploaded).
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and Organization
Representative at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and
will be asked to leave the examination venue.
(5) FOLLOWING ITEMS ARE NOT ALLOWED INSIDE THE EXAMINATION CENTRE: -
Any stationary item like textual material (printed or written), bits of papers, Geometry/Pencil Box,
Plastic Pouch, Calculator, Scale, Writing Pad, Pen Drives, Log Table, Electronic Pen/Scanner etc,
Any communication device like Mobile Phone, Bluetooth, Earphones, Microphone, Pager, Health
Band etc, Other items like Goggles, Handbags, Hair-pin, Hair-band, Belt, Cap, etc, Any watch/Wrist
Watch, Camera, etc, Any metallic item, Any eatable item opened or packed, water bottle etc, Any
other item which could be used for unfair means for hiding communication devices like camera, blue
tooth devices etc. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail cancellation of candidature and
disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

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(6) Full sleeved shirts or tops are not permitted and only half sleeved clothing is allowed. Shoes or other
footwear which cover the toes should not be worn. Footwear should be open toe type and sandals or
chappals are permitted. Candidates with long hair should tie their hair so that ears are not covered.
Any infringement of these instructions shall entail cancellation of candidature and disciplinary action
including ban from future examinations. The candidates wearing any religious dress shall be advised
to reach the examination venue at least 30 minutes before the prescribed reporting time so that they
may checked thoroughly.

(7) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones (with
or without camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the examination.

(8) Please bring the call letter with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid photo identity proof in
original and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS IS ESSENTIAL.
Please handover the call-letter alongwith photocopy of photo identity proof duly stapled together to
the invigilator. Currently valid photo identity proof may be Currently valid photo identity proof may be
PAN Card/ Passport/ Permanent Driving Licence/ Voter’s Card/ Bank Passbook with photograph/
Photo Identity proof issued by a Gazetted Officer on official letterhead alongwith photograph/ Photo
Identity proof issued by a People’s Representative on official letterhead alongwith photograph/ Valid
recent Identity Card issued by a recognised College/ University/ Aadhaar Card/ E-Aadhaar Card with
a photograph/ Employee ID/ Bar Council Identity card with photograph. Please Note - Ration Card
and Learner’s Driving License will NOT be accepted as valid ID proof. Please note that your
name as appearing on the call letter (provided by you during the process of registration) should
exactly match the name as appearing on the photo identity proof. Female candidates who have
changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special note of this. If there is any mismatch
between the name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof you will not be allowed to
appear for the examination. In case of candidates who have changed their name will be allowed only
if they produce Gazette notification/their marriage certificate/affidavit. Photo ID should be valid as on
the day of the examination.

(9) Biometric data (thumb impression) and photograph will be captured twice at the examination venue
i.e. before the start of examination and after completion of examination. Decision of the Biometric
data verification authority with regard to its status (matched or mismatched) shall be final and binding
upon the candidates. Refusal to participate in the process of biometric data capturing/ verification on
any occasion may lead to cancellation of candidature. With regards to the same, please note the
following:

(a) If fingers are coated (stamped ink/ mehndi /coloured...etc), ensure to thoroughly wash them so
that coating is completely removed before the examination day.

(b) If fingers are dirty or dusty, ensure to wash them and dry them before the thumb impression
(biometric) is captured.

(c) Ensure fingers of both hands are dry. If fingers are moist, wipe each finger to dry them.

(d) If the primary finger (thumb) to be captured is injured/ damaged, immediately notify the concerned
authority in the test centre.

(Any failure to observe these points will result in non-admittance for the examination)

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 (10) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity of
right and wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/concluded
that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your candidature
may be cancelled. Any candidate who is found copying or receiving or giving assistance or engaging
in any behaviour unbecoming of a candidate will not be considered for assessment. The Organization
may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.

(11) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be used for
rough work or taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of the test before
submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST hand over this sheet of paper to the Test
Administrator before leaving the venue.

(12) The possibility of occurrence of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot be
ruled out completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that event,
every effort will be made to rectify such problem, which may include movement of candidates, delay
in test. Conduct of a re-exam is at the absolute discretion of test conducting body. Candidates will not
have any claim for a re-test. Candidates not willing to move or not willing to participate in the delayed
process of test delivery shall be summarily rejected from the process.

(13) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be
equated to adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across
sessions. More than one session are required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical
disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.

(14) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating

transmission and storage of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or part
thereof or by any means verbal or written, electronic or mechanical or taking away the papers
supplied in the examination hall or found to be in unauthorised possession of test content is likely to
be prosecuted.

(15) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected at any
stage of the selection, process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the selection process
and he/she will not be allowed to appear in any recruitment process of Central Warehousing
Corporation in the future. If such instances go undetected during the current selection process but
are detected subsequently, such disqualification will take place with retrospective affect.

IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER

You are advised to bring with you the following:

(i) Call letter with Coloured Photograph affixed thereon and photo ID card in Original and photocopy as
mentioned in point 6.

(ii) One Ball point pen

WISH YOU GOOD LUCK