02/06/2018 TYWE

CODE-B

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Maximum Marks : 360 Time : 1 Hour 30 Minutes

UNIT TEST
(TWO YEAR BATCHES FOR MEDICAL - 2020)
Test - 1

Topics covered :

Physics : Mathematical tools, Physical World, Units and Measurements

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Biology : The Cell : The Unit of Life; Structural Organization in animals - Animal tissues

INSTRUCTIONS :

(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.

(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWE)

PHYSICS
1. If Fg, FN, FW and FE be the gravitational, nuclear, weak nuclear force and electromagnetic forces
respectively, then arrange them in proper order as per their strength
(1) Fg > FN > FW > FE (2) Fg < FW < FE < FN (3) FE > FN > FW > Fg (4) FW < Fg < FE < FN
2. The dimensional formula for moment of couple is
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [MLT–2] (3) [ML–1T–3] (4) [ML–2T–2]
3. The solid angle formed by sphere at a point outside the sphere is
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3)  (4) 4
4. Which one of the following is dimensionless physical quantity ?
(1) Velocity gradient (2) Stress (3) Force gradient (4) Angle
5. If the units of force, energy and velocity are 10N, 100J, 5m/s, the unit of length, mass and time in
the new system will be
(1) 10 m, 5 kg, 1 s (2) 10 m, 4 kg, 2 s (3) 10 m, 4 kg, 0.5 s (4) 20 m, 5 kg, 2 s

a
6. Given F   bt 2 , where F denotes force and t time. The dimensions of a and b are respectively
t
(1) [MLT–1] and [MLT–4] (2) [LT–1] and [T–2] (3) [T] and [T–2] (4) [LT2] and [T–2]
7. The velocity (v) of water waves may depend upon their wavelength , the density of water  and the
acceleration due to gravity g. The method of dimensions gives the relation between these quantities
as

(1) v2  g–1–1 (2) v2  g (3) v2  g (4) v2  g–1–3

8. The speed of light(c), acceleration due to gravity(g) and pressure(p) are taken as fundamental units.
The dimensions of gravitational constant(G) are
(1) [c0gP–3] (2) [c2g3P–2] (3) [c0g2P–1] (4) [c2g2P–2]
9. Precision in measurement depends on
(1) Zero error (2) Parallax
(3) Least count of instrument (4) Calibration of instrument
10. Pick up the most accurate measurement out of
(1) 50.00 m (2) 5.00 cm (3) 5.00 m (4) 5.00 mm
11. The radius of a ball is (5.4 ± 0.2) cm. The percentage error in the volume of the ball is
(1) 11% (2) 4% (3) 7% (4) 9%

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWE)

12. If physical quantity x is represented by x = MaLbT–c and the maximum percentage errors in M,L and
T are %, % and % respectively, then the total maximum percentage error in x is

(1) (a + b – c)% (2) (a + b + c)% (3) (a – b – c)% (4) (a – b + c)%

13. A vernier calipers has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier calipers, the least count is
(1) 0.02 mm (2) 0.05 mm (3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.2 mm
14. A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire. Main scale
reading = 0 mm
Circular scale reading = 52 divisions. Given that 1mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions
of the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is
(1) 0.005 cm (2) 0.52 cm (3) 0.052 cm (4) 0.026 cm
15. Length of rod is measured to 1.0250 m. Number of significant figures in the measurement is
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 2
16. After rounding off. the value of 12.650 m can not be
(1) 13 (2) 12.6 (3) 12.65 (4) 12.7
1
17. The value of 1001 is3

(1) 10.03 (2) 10.00033 (3) 10 (4) 10.3

18. If t1 and t2 are roots of the equation gt2 – 2ut + 2h = 0, then the value of t1+ t2 is

2u 2u 2h 2 u2  2gh
(1) g (2)  g (3) g (4)
g

dy
19. If y = cos2x, then the value of is
dx
sin 2x
(1) –2sinx (2) –sin2x (3) 2sinx cosx (4) 
2

20. The value of integration  t  3 dt

0
is

(1) 5.5 (2) 4.5 (3) 6.5 (4) 7.5

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21. Slope of the tangent at any point on the curve is

y

x
(1) Continuously decreasing (2) Continuously increasing
(3) First increases and then decreases (4) First decreases and then increases
22. The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular object are 4.576m, 1.243m and 1.22cm
respectively. Volume of object is
(1) 6.94×10–2 m 3 (2) 0.069 cm3 (3) 6.94 m3 (4) 3.73 m3
23. The slope of position vs time curve gives the velocity of the particle. The position versus time curve
for a particle moving along a straight line is shown in figure. The instantaneous velocity of particle
dx
at t = 7 sec is (Instantancous velocity v = ) (in m/s)
dt
x(m)
50

30

t(sec)
0 2 4 6 8
(1) 15 (2) –10 (3) –25 (4) –5

CHEMISTRY
24. Which of the following is having maximum number of significant figures ?
(1) 3.214 L (2) 0.0224 g (3) 5.3×102 m (4) 0.00089

25. The percentage of carbon in CO2 and CO is 27.3 and 42.9 respectively. These observations illustrate
(1) law of definite proportions (2) law of multiple proportions
(3) law of reciprocal proportions (4) Gay-Lussac’s law of gaseous volumes

26. Calculate number of hydrogen atoms present in 0.342g of sucrose (C 12H22O11). [NA is Avogadro’s
number)
(1) 22×10–2×NA (2) 22×10–3×NA (3) 2.2×10–3NA (4) 22×10–4NA

27. Two isotopes of Boron have atomic mass 10 and 11. Calculate percentage abundance of lighter
isotope in a sample of Boron having average atomic mass 10.8.
(1) 80 (2) 20 (3) 40 (4) 60

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWE)

28. A graph is plotted for an element given below. What is the atomic mass of the element for which the
graph is plotted ? (NA = 6.0×1023)

No. of Atoms

–1 22
 = tan (1.5×10 )

weight of element(gm)

(1) 40 (2) 20 (3) 0.025 (4) 80

29. An organic compound containing 40.68%C, 5.08% H and rest is oxygen. Vapour density of the
compound is 59. Molecular formula of the compound is
(1) C2H3O2 (2) C4H6O4 (3) C2H6O (4) CH4O

30. Calculate the minimum Molar Mass of an Enzyme found in shark containing. 20% selenium by mass.
(Atomic Mass of Se = 80)
(1) 400 (2) 200 (3) 800 (4) 440

31. Consider the following reaction – Fe2O3 + CO  Fe + CO2

How many moles of iron can be made when 16 moles of CO reacts with excess Fe2O3?
(1) 10 moles (2) 16 moles (3) 10.7 moles (4) 16.6 moles
32. Oxygen is prepared from catalytic decomposition of potassium chlorate (KClO3). Decomposition yields
KCl and oxygen. How many gram of KClO3 is needed to produce 2.4 moles of oxygen gas?
[Atomic mass of K, Cl and O respectively are 39u, 35.5u and 16u]
(1) 245g (2) 205g (3) 196g (4) 178g
33. 3g hydrogen reacts with 40g of oxygen to yield water. Calculate amount of one of the reactants which
remains unreacted.
(1) 24g (2) 16g (3) 4g (4) 8g
34. Volume of O2 required when 4.4g C3H8 (Propane) undergoes combustion to produce 6.72L of CO2
at S.T.P is
(1) 5×22.4 L (2) 0.5×22.4 L (3) 22.4 L
(4) 8×22.4 L
 W
35. How many moles of acetic acid (CH3COOH) is required to prepare 100ml of 5%   solution ?
V
(1) 0.083 (2) 0.042 (3) 0.055 (4) 0.062
36. Calculate molarity of blood sample containing 63g/100mL glucose (C6H12O6).
(1) 6.3 M (2) 3.5 M (3) 3.3 M (4) 0.63 M
37. Mole fraction of solute in aq. solution is 0.4. Find out molality of the solution. [Density of solution is
1.2g/mL] [Assume volume of water is the total volume of solution.]
(1) 44 (2) 37.03 (3) 46 (4) 30.2
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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWE)

38. Equivalent mass of Spodumene [Li Al(SiO3)2] having molecular mass M is

M M M
(1) M (2) (3) (4)
2 3 4
39. 10mL of gasous C4Hx exactly requires 55mL O2 for complete combustion at same temperature and
pressure. The value of ‘x’ is
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 8
40. 100 mL 0.3M H3PO4 is titrated against 0.6M NaOH solution. Volume of NaOH required for complete
neutralisation of acid is
(1) 50 mL (2) 100 mL (3) 150 mL (4) 200 mL
41. If the molar mass of MCl2 (metal chloride) is W gram, equivalent weight of metal will be
W  71 W  71 W  71 W  35.5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
35.5 71 2 2
42. What volume of 6M HCl should be mixed with 2M HCl to prepare 2.5L of 3M HCl solution ?
(1) 515 mL (2) 625 mL (3) 475 mL (4) 1025 mL
43. In the following dehydration reaction, percent yield of the product is 75%. How much cyclohexene will
be obtained form 100 gm of cyclohexanol ?
OH
conc.H2SO4
+H2O

M.F=C6H12O M.F=C6H10
(cyclohexanol) (cyclohexene)
(1) 61.5 gm (2) 82. gm (3) 109.3 gm (4) 75 gm
44. Calculate concentration of chloride ions when 100mL 0.05 M HCl solution is mixed with 100 mL 0.03M
MgCl2 solution
(1) 0.055 M (2) 0.04 M (3) 0.045 M (4) 0.05 M
45. What volume of concentrated aq. H 2SO4 (98% w/w and density 1.80g/mL) is required to prepare
1L of 0.02 (M) H2SO4 solution ?
(1) 11.1 mL (2) 1.11 mL (3) 2.22 mL (4) 22.2 mL

BIOLOGY
46. The cell organelle that takes part in detoxification of drugs is
(1) Golgi complex (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lysosome (4) Plastid
47. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(A) Golgi body is a single membrane bound cell organelle
(B) Middle lamella is involved in softening of fruit coat during fruit ripening
(C) Fungal cell wall is generally composed of chitin-a polymer of NAM
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum plays an important role in the formation of plasmodesmata.
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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWE)

(1) Statements A and D are incorrect (2) Only statement B is correct

(3) Statements A and C are incorrect (4) Only statement C is incorrect
48. Which part of bacterial cell envelope allows the bacterium to hide from host’s immune system ?
(1) Capsule (2) Slime layer (3) Cell wall (4) Cell membrane
49. How many of the following bacteria contains techoic acid in its cell wall ?

Bacillus, Lactobacillus, Acetobacter , Vibrio

Staphylococcus, Salmonella,

o
E
.c
li
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Three (4) Five
50. Cell organelle common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes is
(1) Lysosome (2) Ribosome (3) Golgi body (4) Centriole
51. ‘Omnis cellula-e cellula’ was first explained by
(1) Matthias Schleiden (2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Theodor Schwann (4) Anton van leeuwenhoek
52. Select the incorrect match
(1) Mature sieve tube = anucleate (2) Opalina = binucleate
(3) Paramoecium = binucleate (4) Mature RBC = anucleate
53. Contractile vacuole in Amoeba helps in
(1) Excretion (2) Food storage (3) Osmoregulation (4) Both (1) and (3)
54. Which of the following is not a function of Golgi complex ?
(1) Glycosylation (2) Glycosidation
(3) Glycogenolysis (4) More than one option is correct
55. Match the column correctly
Column I Column II
(A) Nucleus (I) Balbiani
(B) Chromatin (II) Flemming
(C) Ribosome (III) Robert Brown
(D) Salivary gland Chromosomes (IV) George Palade
A B C D
(1) (IV) (II) (I) (III)
(2) (III) (I) (IV) (II)
(3) (IV) (I) (III) (II)
(4) (III) (II) (IV) (I)
56. How many statements are true for lysosome ?
(A) It shows polymorphism
(B) Contain enzymes
(C) Involved in intracellular digestion and ephagy
(D) Capable of digesting all the structural biomolecules except nucleic acid
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWE)

57. How many of the following features are associated with an animal cell?
Cell wall, Plastids, Go lgi complex, Centrioles, Sap vacuole, Cytoskeleton, Single envelope system

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Five (4) Six

58. Which of the following subunit of ribosome is composed of 5S rRNA ?
(1) 30S subunit (2) 60S subunit
(3) 40S subunit (4) More than one option is correct
59. The cytoskeletal structure associated with cilia and flagella is
(1) Microtubules (2) Microfilaments
(3) Microfibrils (4) Intermediate filaments
60. Read the statements and mark them as True (T) and False (F)
(A) Microfilament helps in pseudopodia formation
(B) Centrioles help in the formation of basal bodies
(C) 70S ribosomes are absent in eukaryotes
(D) The mitochondrial DNA contain less G  C content
A B C D
1 T F T F
 2 F T T F
3 T T F F
 4 F F T T
61. Semi-autonomous organelles
(1) Have linear ds DNA (2) Have ETS and ATP forming machinery
(3) Have 70S ribosomes (4) Both (2) and (3)
62. Read the following statements A and B carefully and choose the correct option
A) Peroxisomes possess both peroxide producing as well as peroxide destroying enzymes
B) Peroxisomes are involved in photorespiration
(1) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(2) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
63. Which one of the following is correct for the plasma membrane ?
(1) Transmembrane proteins are absent in plant cells
(2) The lipid component of the membrane mainly consist of phosphoglycerides
(3) The amount of lipids present in the plasma-membrane of erythrocyte is higher than proteins
(4) Both proteins and lipids show flip-flop movement

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64. The axoneme is made up of (i) microtubule doublets arranged (ii) along the periphery.
i   ii
1 27 Radially
 2 3 Vertically
3 9  2 Radially
 4 9 Radially
65. Which of the following cell organelles is not bound by a membrane and is capable of duplication?
(1) Ribosome (2) Mitochondria
(3) Centriole (4) More than one option is correct
66. The number of SAT-chromosomes present in a human diploid cell are
(1) 23 pairs (2) 5 pairs (3) 10 pairs (4) 3 pairs
67. The number of kinetochores, centromeres and chromosome arms present in the given diagram are

(1) 2, 2, 2 respectively (2) 2, 2, 4 respectively (3) 1, 2, 4 respectively (4) 2, 1, 4 respectively

68. Particles of Fernandez and Moran are associated with which of the following structures ?
(1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosome
(3) Golgi body (4) More than one option is correct
69. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to epithelial tissue ?
(1) Cells rest on a basement membrane
(2) Cells may be arranged in single or multiple layers
(3) Cells possess abundant intercellular matrix
(4) Mostly provides a covering or lining of some body parts
70. Pick the odd one out with respect to compound epithelium locations in the body
(1) Skin surface (2) Lining of buccal cavity
(3) Surface of tongue (4) Thyroid follicles
71. Match the columns A and B and choose the correct option
Column A Column B
(i) Goblet cells (a) Unicellular
(ii) Salivary gland (b) Multicellular
(iii) Mammary gland (c) Exocrine
(iv) Pituitary gland (d) Endocrine
(v) Pancreas (e) Heterocrine
(1) i-a,d; ii-b,c; iii-b,e (2) i-a; iii-b,c; iv-b,d
(3) iii-b,d; iv-b,c; v-b,e (4) i-b,c; iii-a,e; v-b,e

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72. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
A. Inner surface of fallopian tube is lined by ciliated epithelium
B. This helps in the movement of ovulated oocyte towards uterus
(1) Only A is correct (2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct (4) Both A and B are incorrect
73. With respect to the diagram given below, how many of the given statements are true?

A. This is an example of connective tissue

B. This tissue is mesodermal in origin
C. It is found in the skin
D. Fibroblasts and fibres are present in the matrix
(1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) Four
74. Choose the incorrect point of difference between bone and cartilage
Bone Cartilage
(1) Non-pliable matrix Pliable matrix
(2) Growth is bidirectional Growth is unidirectional
(3) Cells present in groups within lacunae in matrix Cells present singly in cavities in matrix
(4) Richly vascular Avascular
75. The neural tissue consists of neurons and neuroglia, which are all (i) in origin except (ii) .
(i) (ii)
(1) Ectodermal Microglia
(2) Ectodermal Astrocytes
(3) Endodermal Microglia
(4) Endodermal Astrocytes
76. Read the following statements (A and B) and choose the correct option with respect to mammalian
bone
A. The Haversian system is a characteristic feature of mammalian long bones.
B. Haversian system includes Haversian canal, bone marrow and Haversian lamellae
(1) Both A and B are correct (2) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) Only A is correct (4) Only B is correct

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77. Given below are some characters of muscle cells. Pick out how many are unique characters of
cardiac muscles
Cylindrical, Branched, Uninucleated, Striated,
Involuntary, Intercalated discs,

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 2

78. The type of tissue which mainly provides protection against external mechanical stress is
(1) Keratinised as found in dry surface of skin
(2) Keratinised as found in buccal cavity lining
(3) Pseudostratified as found in dry surface of skin
(4) Non-keratinised as found in buccal cavity lining
79. From the given box, choose the exception with respect to cartilagenous or replacing bones
Humerus, Femur, Clavicle, Vertebrae, Ribs

(1) Clavicle (2) Vertebrae (3) Ribs (4) Femur

80. ________ prevent substances from leaking across a tissue, while ______ perform cementing to keep
neighbouring cells together
(1) Gap junctions; Tight junctions (2) Tight junctions; Adhering junctions
(3) Tight junctions; Gap junctions (4) Adhering junctions; Tight junctions
81. Which of the following belongs to elastic cartilages ?
(1) Nasal septum (2) Tracheal rings (3) Pubic symphysis (4) Pinna
82. Read the following statements (A-D) and choose which is true(T) / false(F) with respect to sarcomere
of skeletal muscles
A. It is the area between two Z-lines
B. A-Band consists of only the thick myosin filaments
C. I-Band consists of only the thin filaments
D. H-Zone is the non-overlapping part of thick filaments
A B C D
(1) T T T F
(2) F T T F
(3) T F T T
(4) T F F T
83. With respect to tissue – type, origin and example, select the incorrect combination.
Tissue Origin Location
(1) Areolar Mesodermal Beneath skin
(2) White fibrous connective tissue Mesodermal Tendons
(3) Single-unit smooth muscle Ectodermal Iris
(4) Skeletal muscle Mesodermal Abdominal wall

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Two Year Medical - 2020 Unit Test - 1 (TYWE)

84. Match the given columns with respect to a multipolar neuron and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
(a) Dendrite (i) Single, elongated, cylindrical
(b) Axon (ii) Numerous, branched
(c) Cell Body (iii) Presence of Nissl’s granules, nucleus, cell organelles
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii (2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
85. Amongst the cells which are typically present in connective tissues, which is responsible for engulfing
microbes ?
(1) Mast cell (2) Fat cell (3) Plasma cell (4) Histiocyte
86. The muscle fibres present in walls of blood vessels show which of the following features?
A. Fusiform, uninucleate
B. Non-striated, involuntary
C. Well developed sarcolemma and branched
(1) A and C (2) B and C (3) A and B (4) A, B and C
87. Among the following statements about connective tissues, how many are false?
A. Brown fat, present in new born babies may be a food substitute
B. Areolar tissue may serve as a support framework for epithelium
C. Ligaments are yellow elastic while tendons are white fibrous connective tissue
D. Adipose tissue acts as a shock absorber, insulator, etc.
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0
88. The neuroglial cells which are responsible for myelination in CNS and PNS are _______ respectively
(1) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes (2) Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells
(3) Schwann cells and Microglia (4) Astrocytes and Schwann cells
89. In each skeletal muscle, there are numerous bundles of muscle fibres called _______, which are
individually covered by a connective tissue layer called _______
(1) Fascia; Perimysium (2) Fascicle; Epimysium
(3) Fascicle; Perimysium (4) Fascia; Endomysium
90. The fibreless connective tissue in the human body is
(1) Blood (2) Bone (3) Cartilage (4) Tendons

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