Dispensing, Incompatibility & ADR Page 1 of 19

B 1. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered:

a. pharmacologically active c. free drugs
b. pharmacologically inactive d. bioavailable drugs

D 2. Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when placed in an acidic solution can result in:
a. conversion into free acid c. insolubility
b. precipitation of penicillin d. all of the above

A 3. In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, Filipinos are considered:

a. fast acetylators c. neither slow or fast
b. slow acetylators d. same as the Caucasians

B 4. The following are true regarding incompatibilities except:

a. problems arising during compounding, dispensing and drug administration
b. easier to correct than to prevent
c. may be intentional or unintentional
d. must be recognized by pharmacists

A 5. The following are guidelines for reducing drug interactions except:

a. employ combination therapy c. educate the patient
b. identify patient risk factors d. know properties of drugs

B 6. Enzyme inhibition of coumarin can lead to:

a. hypoglycemia c. blood clotting
b. profuse bleeding d. convulsion

B 7. Anaphylaxis is a:
a. Type A ADR c. Type E ADR
b. Type B ADR d. Type F ADR

B 8. Oxidizing agents are incompatible with reducing agents. This is a:

a. physical incompatibility c. chemical incompatibility
b. therapeutic incompatibility d. both a and b

C 9. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a causal relationship with the treatment is called an:
a. adverse drug reaction c. adverse drug event
b. therapeutic incompatibility d. none of the above

D 10. Teratogenicity is a/an:

a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR
b. Type B ADR d. Type D ADR

B 11. The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibilities, except:

a. immiscibility c. gel formation
b. photolysis d. evolution of gas

B 13. The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when highly soluble salts are added is known as:
a. polymorphism c. racemization
b. salting-out d. eutexia

D 14. Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a ‘cake’ at the bottom of the container.This manifestation is known
as:
a. gelatinization c. emulsification
b. hydrolysis d. cementation

D 15. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in:

a. anemia c. Parkinson’s disease
b. hypertension d. Addison’s disease

C 16. A mathematical model for a potentiating drug effect :

a. 1 + 1 = 2 c. 0 + 1 = 2
b. 1 + 1 = 3 d. 1 + 1 = 0

C 17. A remedy for tablet granulations containing vitamin C:

a. prepare by dry granulation c. both a and b
b. use pre-coated ascorbic acid granules d. none of the above

D 18. Chloramphenicol palmitate exists in 3 different polymorphs, each differ in the following properties except:
a. solubility c. melting point
b. free energy d. none of the above

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D 19. The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug action except:
a. reduces gastric emptying rate
b. milk reduces absorption of tetracycline
c. tea increases absorption of paracetamol
d. vegetables potentiate anticoagulants

D 20. Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug reactions, except:

a. congenital hypersensitivities c. metabolic abnormality
b. genetic or hereditary in origin d. none of the above

D 21. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) and foods rich in tyramine like cheese will lead to:
a. accumulation of pressor amines c. non-metabolism of tyramine
b. increase in blood pressure d. all of the above

C 22. The following condition/s will amplify the activity of cardiac glycosides:
a. hypercalcemia c. both a and b
b. hypokalemia d. none of the above

A 23. Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of the
other drug:
a. pharmacokinetic interactions c. pharmacodynamic interactions
b. pharmacologic interactions d. all of the above

D 24. Displacement of plasma-protein bound drug such as in Warfarin-phenylbutazone interaction results in:
a. hemorrhage c. decreased activity of warfarin
b. increased concentration of warfarin d. both a and b

D 25. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme inducers. As a consequence:

a. one needs to increase dose of drug c. this is an ADR
b. this leads to drug tolerance d. all of the above

B 26. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides:

a. Parkinson’s disease c. hypertension
b. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome d. contact dermatitis

D 27. The following are true regarding excretion of acidic drugs except:
a. exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine
b. exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine
c. acidic urine increases drug action
d. none of the above

A 28. Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are ____ of coumarin:

a. enzyme inducers c. antagonists
b. enzyme inhibitor d. agonists

B 29. Type F ADRs can occur as a result of the following except:

a. antimicrovbial drug resistance c. counterfeit drugs
b. patient compliance d. drug instability

C 30. Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug reaction:

a. agranulocytosis c. both a and b
b. Gray syndrome d. none of the above

A 31. A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by the sudden release of endotoxins from various killed microorganisms
is called:
a. Herxheimer reaction c. skin reaction
b. Lyell’s syndrome d. anaphylactic reaction

A 32. Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will form:

a. eutectic combination c. explosive combination
b. liquefaction d. both a and b

C 33. The manifestation in no. 19 is a result of a:

a. therapeutic incompatibility c. physical incompatibility
b. chemical incompatibility d. adverse drug reaction

B 34. The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma:
a. lipoprotein c. glycoprotein
b. albumin d. none of the above

C 35. Side effect of streptomycin:

a. headache c. ototoxicity
b. dryness of the mouth d. none of the above
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A 36. The following is/are true regarding absorption of salicylic acid:

a. non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble and absorbable
b. ionized form is more lipid-soluble and absorbable
c. polar form is more readily absorbed
d. absorption is increased when taken with an antacid

A 37. UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using:

a. amber bottle c. flint glass
b. plastic container d. carbon box

D 38. Oxidation is a:
a. loss of electrons c. cause of drugs instability
b. dehydrogenation d. all of the above

B 39. The transport of a substance from one part of the body to another by means of blood:
a. absorption c. metabolism
b. distribution d. excretion

D 40. The following are possible remedies for liquefication of solid substances, except:
a. triturate separately and mix by tumbling
b. add adsorbents to liquid combination
c. dispense powders separately
d. incorporate cotton in packaging

D 41. The following type/s of incompatibility may be dispensed:

a. intentional incompatibility
b. unintentional incompatibility
c. delayed chemical incompatibility but within shelf-life of product
d. both a and c

B 42. The conversion of an optically active form to an optically inactive form is called:
a. polymorphism c. polymerization
b. racemization d. enantiomorphism

D 43. Precipitation can be:

a. physical incompatibility c. adverse drug reaction
b. chemical incompatibility d. a or b

C 44. Examples of co-solvents:

a. water, buthanol c. glycols, sorbitol, glycerol
b. alcohol, mineral oil d. acetone, water, alcohol

C 45. Enzyme induction of phenobarbital with oral contraceptives can lead to:
a. decreased Phenobarbital action c. unreliable contraception
b. increased oral contraceptives action d. none of the above

A 46. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the drug ,metabolized in the liver:
a. first pass effect c. biotransformation
b. drug-receptor interaction d. pharmacokinetics

B 47. These are functions of a pharmacist, except:

a. drug information c. counseling on medications
b. diagnosis d. monitor drug response

A 48. A physiological or a psychological state resulting from drug administration:

a. drug dependence c. drug addiction
b. drug habituation d. drug tolerance

B 49. An ADR experienced as a consequence of receiving an inappropriately high dose of the drug due to patient
characteristics:
a. idiosyncracy c. side effect
b. extension effect d. Type B

D 50. The following is/.are characteristic/s of side effects:

a. dose-dependent c. associated pharmacological effect
b. predictable d. all of the above

C 51. Oral antihistamines exhibit the following side effect:

a. drowsiness c. both a and b
b. sleepiness d. anemia

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B 52. Prescriber of a prescription:

a. pharmacist c. nurse
b. veterinarian d. medical technologist

D 53. Compounding is concerned with:

a. supply of a medicine c. order for medicine
b. preparation and distribution of drugs d. preparation of medicine

C 54. The supply of medicine to an individual patient in accordance to the prescription given by the physician:
a. compounding c. dispensing
b. formulation d. none of the above

C 55. A prescription should be refused when:

a. patient is terribly sick c. essential information is missing
b. there is no available delivery service d. it is not signed by the pharmacist

A 56. An example of a subscription:

a. M. ft. sol c. shake well before using
b. 1 tab q 6 hrs d. 250 mg capsule

B 57. A filled prescription for ethical drugs must be:

a. returned to the patient c. discarded after recording
b. filed for future reference d. forwarded to BFAD

D 58. Which of these drug products require a physician’s prescription:

a. aspirin 325 mg tab c. nubain 10 mg/ vial]
b. paracetamol 500 mg tab d. both b and c]

C 59. Which of the following correctly applies to this group of drug products? Paracetamol 325mg tab, Cortal 325mg tab,
Alvedon 325mg tab:
a. all are generically equivalent c. all are non-prescription drug
b. all are in brand names d. all are prescription drugs

C 60. Because it is the language of medical science throughout the world, this language is still used in Rx writing:
a. English c. Latin
b. German d. Spanish

B 61. The prescription should be read and checked:

a. in front of the patient/customer c. in the counter of the botica
b. in the privacy of the pharmacy d. none of the above

B 62. For dispensing thick viscous liquids, the container should be:
a. standard prescription bottles c. collapsible tubes
b. wide-mouthed bottles d. dropper bottles

A 63. When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is:
a. erroneous prescription c. impossible prescription
b. violative prescription d. none of the above

B 64. Generic dispensing means:

a. dispensing drugs with generic names only
b. dispensing with correct prescription
c. dispensing the customer’s choice form generically equivalent drugs
d. dispensing drugs in proper containers

D 65. When dispensing a compounded prescription, these information must be written on the label except:
a. indications c. name of manufacturer
b. name and strength of actives d. name of physician

B 66. In a prescription, the dispensing directions to the pharmacist is the:

a. superscription c. inscription
b. subscription d. signa

B 67. How many mL will you dispense for a prescription calling for a 100 g of a liquid substance with a sp. Gr. Of 1.25?
a. 75 mL c. 85 mL
b. 80 mL d. 90 mL

B 68. Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the right dose and using the right route of administration to the
right patient is:
a. primary care c. osteopathy
b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy

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B 69. The following are true about dimercaprol except:

a. British anti-Lewisite c. indicated for As poisoning
b. indicated for Fe poisoning d. chemical antagonist

A 70. Identify the odd-man-out:

a. complex formation c. liquefaction of solid ingredients
b. insolubility d. polymorphism

A 71. Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes:

a. anabolic steroids c. antibiotics
b. dexamethasone d. vitamins

A 72. Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis:

a. epinephrine injection c. antihistamine
b. aspirin d. antibiotic

B 73. A drug whose action is affected in a drug interaction:

a. precipitant c. interactant
b. object drug d. none of the above

B 74. The following are remedies for oxidation except:

a. acid pH c. addition of antioxidant
b. change dosage form d. protection from light

B 75. A suspension with the following ingredients (FeCl3, Fe(OH)3, acacia, FD&C # 5 (orange color) and methyl paraben
will reveal this manifestation:
a. polymerization c. cementation
b. gelatinization d. precipitation

B 76. The following are patient-related predisposing factors to ADRs except:

a. age c. genetic disposition
b. formulation d. history of allergy

D 77. Probenecid and penicillin exhibits this type of interaction:

a. enzyme induction c. alteration in gastric emptying
b. enzyme inhibition d. competition for tubular secretion

C 78. Citric acid, atropine sulfate and ferrous sulfate are classified as:
a. eutectic mixtures c. efflorescent substances
c. deliquescent substances d. polymorphs

B 79. A mathematical model for synergism:

a. 1 + 1 = 2 c. 0 + 1 = 2
b. 1 + 1 = 3 d. 1 + 1 = 0

A 80. Term for migration of the drug into the container:

a. sorption c. permeation
b. leaching d. vaporization

D 81. The conversion of an optically active drug with one chiral center into an optically inactive isomer:
a. polymorphism c. epimerization
b. enatiomerism d. racemization

B 82. One of the violations committed by a dispensing pharmacist is:

a. informing the patient of the current list of available drugs
b. imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer
c. recording of prescriptions filled
d. dispensing of the product according to the prescription]

D 83. An impossible prescription is described by the following except:

a. only the generic name is written but not legible
b. both generic and brand names are not legible
c. the generic name does not correspond to the brand name
d. the generic name is not legible and the brand is written legibly

B 84. The incorrect prescription that can be filled is the:

a. impossible prescription c. violative prescription
b. erroneous prescription d. none of the above

D 85. The date after which the product is not intended to be used:
a. beyond-use date c. stop date
b. expiry date d. both a and b

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A 86. The following are importance of recognizing potential incompatibilities except:

a. rewarding for the pharmacist
b. savings in time, money , effort
c. safety for the patient
d. quality medicines dispensed

D 87. Poor patient compliance with prescription instruction is usually due to the following, except:
a. patient understood pharmacist’s instruction poorly
b. pharmacist has poor communication skills
c. inadequate time of pharmacist for patient counseling
d. any of the above

A 88. HLB is a system used to distinguish between:

a. surfactants d. excipients
b. glidants e. disintegrators
c. suspending agents

A 89. The purpose of the prescription number is:

a. to identify the prescription for future reference
b. as a substitute for the name of the drug
c. to guide the pharmacist in costing
d. to provide professional fee to the medicine

D 90. In pricing the prescription, the pharmacist must consider:

a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark-up
b. professional fee d. all of the above

C 91. If there is doubt in legibility of the prescription, the pharmacist should:

a. decide based on patient’s ailment
b. make an educated guess
c. consult the prescriber
d. consult MIM

A 92. For the guidance of the patient, the prescription needs:

a. signa b. subscription c. superscription d. inscription

B 93. Importance of a label:

a. for the sake of art c. to improve elegance
b. to establish identity d. to give prominence

A 94. An auxiliary label except:

a. do not repeat c. shake well before using
b. for external use d. ophthalmic use

B 95. Refers to the schedule of dosing (e.g. QID, 10 days)

a. divided doses c. single dose
b. dosage regimen d. total dose

C 96. When dispensing prepared dosage forms, the pharmacist may use which of the following dose equivalents?
a. exact equivalent c. approximate dose
b. exact dose d. a and b

B 97. Indicated the quantitative range or amounts of drug that may be prescribed within the guidelines of usual medical
practice:
a. divided dose c. loading dose
b. usual dosage range d. total dose

A 98. Which of the following does not cause a therapeutic incompatibility?

A. errors in pricing c. prescription writing errors
b. dosage form errors d. errors of storage and supple

B 99. An associated pharmacological effect of chlorphenamine maleate:

a. hypotension c. headache
b. sedation d. nausea

C 100. Ecstasy exhibits this type of ADR:

a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Type D

B 101. Idiosyncratic reactions are considered:

a. Type A ADR c. Type C ADR
b. Type B ADR d. Type E ADR
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D 102. An anionic exchange resin intended to bind acids, cholesterol metabolites and co-administered drugs:
a. chloramphenicol c. tetracycline
b. cholesterol precursor d. colestyramine

C 103. Are added to drug formulations to prevent or reduce oxidation:

a. complexing agents c. antioxidants
b. surfactants d. additives

C 104. This container is impervious to air and other gases under ordinary conditions of handling storage and transport:
a. airtight container c. hermetically sealed
b. security closed d. child-resistant container

C 105. Diuretics tend to enhance lithium salt toxicity due to:

a. direct drug interaction c. sodium depletion
b. potassium depletion d. increased solubility of the lithium salts

A 106. All of the following untoward effects are commonly associated with cancer chemotherapy except:
a. exfoliative dermatitis c. nausea
b. teratogenesis d. alopecia and leukemia

A 107. Glass is a traditional packaging material which has been widely used for both liquid and solid dose forms. All of the
following are types of glass containers, except:
a. closures c. ear and nasal dropper bottles
b. bottles d. containers for semi-solid preparation

C 108. Used as pharmaceutical packaging materials include aluminum, tin and tin-coated lead:
a. glass c. metals
b. plastics d. paperboards

C 109. How many grains are there in 5.0 g of strychnine sulfate?

a. 10.4 gr b. 20.4 gr c. 77.2 gr. d. 0.99 gr.

C 110. How many doses of teaspoonful each are there in a 4-fl. oz. bottle of medication?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 24 d. 30

D 111. To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine:

a. body clearance c. volume of distribution
c. fraction protein bound d. all of the above

A 112. Many diuretics tend to cause depletion of:

a. potassium b. sodium c. carbonate ion d. urea

C 113. Corticosteroids are frequently given with antacids to:

a. enhance absorption
b. slow absorption
c. reduce ulceration and bleeding
d. increase the rate of distribution

A 114. The functions of suspending agents include the following, except:

a. prevent oxidation-reduction reaction
b. increase the viscosity of the vehicle
c. slow down the rate of settling down
d. cause the preparation to remain in suspension

C 115. General corrections of incompatibilities include all of the following, except:

a. separation of immiscible liquids c. use of a different brand
b. change of vehicle d. substitution of ingredients

A 116. Route of administration where drugs are applied to the skin surface to be absorbed slowly into the systemic
circulation:
a. transdermal route c. buccal route
b. inhalation route d. rectal route

A 117. Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients through reaction with the solvents present in the formulations:
a. solvolysis c. photolysis
b. oxidation d. polymerization

C 118. Degradation of drugs or excipient molecules can be brought about by light, either room light or sunlight:
a. solvolysis c. photolysis
b. oxidation d. polymerization

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C 119. Remedy when a solid substance fails to dissolve in a liquid:

a. addition of an inert ingredients c. prepare a suspension
b. prepare an emulsion d. dispensing the ingredients separately

C 120. Occurs immediately upon compounding like presence of precipitate; effervescence of color changes:
a. minor incompatibility c. immediate incompatibility
b. delayed incompatibility d. major incompatibility

D 121. Combinations liable to produce therapeutic incompatibilities when administered at the same time, except:
a. sedatives and stimulants c. caffeine and chloral hydrate
b. tannins and aloins d. aspirin and warfarin

C 122. Water is most likely to cause instability on the following drugs, except:
a. penicillins c. alkaloids
b. cephalosphorins d. benzodiazepines

A 123. Aspirin hydrolyzes in water giving acetic acid and:

a. salicylic acid c. formic acid
b. oxalic acid d. ticarboxylic acid

B 124. During drug interaction, the affected drug may become more active resulting to the following, except:
a. increase drug activity c. less effective
b. longer therapeutic action d. toxicity

B 125. It occurs when drugs are mixed inappropriately in syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration:
a. pharmacodynamic interaction c. phamacokinetic interaction
b. pharmaceutical interaction d. all of the above

A 126. Which statement is not true regarding Lithium-NSAID combinations?

a. NSAID impairs renal synthesis of broncho-dilator prostaglandin
b. NSAID antagonize the renal excretion of lithium
c. NSAID may cause sodium and water retention
d. NSAID inhibit prostaglandin dependent renal excretion of lithium

B 127. Delay in gastric emptying time for the drug to reach the duodenum will_____, thereby prolonging the onset of time
for the drug:
a. slow the rate and extent of drug distribution
b. slow the rate and extent of drug absorption
c. increase the rate and extent of drug absorption
d. increase the rate and extent of drug metabolism

D 128. Factors that tend to reduce stomach contraction and gastric emptying rate, except:
a. consumption of meals high in fat
b. patient lying on left side
c. depression
d. hyperthyroidism

C 129. This drug inhibits the vitamin K dependent synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X:
a. tetracycline c. warfarin
b. diphenhydramine d. aspirin

A 130. Low potassium level in blood produced by diuretics:

a. hypokalemia c. hypocalcemia
b. hyponatria d. hyperuricemia

A 132. True types of incompatibilities:

a. unintentional or unexpected incompatibilities
b. intentional or expected incompatibilities
c. immediate incompatibilities
d. delayed incompatibilities

D 133. Optimum absorption takes place in the:

a. gastrointestinal tract c. stomach
b. receptor d. small intestine

B 134. Type of drug strongly bound to albumin:

a. basic drugs c. alkaline drugs
b. acidic drugs d. all of the above

D 135. Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will result to the following except:

a. peak level decreases c. increased overall elimination rate
b. accelerated metabolism d. pharmacological responses are decreased
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A 136. Principal site of drug metabolism:

a. liver c. stomach
b. kidney d. small intestine

D 137. Major pathway of excretion are via the kidney into the urine and via the liver into the:
a. bile c. alveolar air
b. urine d. feces

B 138. In basic urine, acidic drugs are:

a. un-ionized, hence reabsorbed, decrease half life
b. more ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life
c. more un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increase half-life
d. un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increases elimination rate

C 139. Decreased urinary recycling, increases elimination rate constant hence:

a. increases half life
b. longer duration of pharmacologic response
c. shortens duration of pharmacologic response
d. increases therapeutic concentration in the body

A 140. In acidic urine, acidic drugs are more un-ionized, hence:

a. reabsorbed, increase in half-life
b. not reabsorbed, increase ion half-life
c. reabsorbed, decrease ion half-life
d. not reabsorbed, decrease in half-life

A 141. In acidic urine, basic drugs are:

a. more ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half-life
b. un-ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half-life
c. more ionized hence not reabsorbed, increase in half-life
d. more ionized, reabsorbed, increase half-life

D 142. Increased urinary recycling increases half life hence, except:

a. decreases elimination rate constant
b. blood level rise and persist longer
c. danger of toxicity in multiple dosing
d. increases elimination rate constant

D 143. Which statement is incorrect regarding interaction involving tyramine containing substance and MAO inhibitor?
a. inhibition of MAO result in the accumulation of large amounts of norepinephrine
b. decrease ion the rate of intracellular metabolism
c. large amount of norepinephrine can cause severe headache and hypertension
d. large amount of stored norepinephrine can cause hypotensive crisis

C 144. Acidic group of amino acids responsible for binding basic drugs, except:
a. glutamic c. lysine
b. aspartic d. tyrosine

B 145. Interactions that arise with drug acting on the same receptors, sites of action or physiological system:
a. pharmaceutical interactions
b. pharmacodynamic interactions
c. pharmacokinetic interactions
d. change in body fluid and electrolyte balances

D 146. Factors that reduced binding capacity to albumin, except:

a. liver impairment c. during pregnancy
b. smoking d. neonates patient

A 147. Phenobarbital-antihistamine drug combinations will result to:

a. Phenobarbital metabolism is accelerated by antihistamine
b. Antihistamine metabolism is accelerated by Phenobarbital
c. Phenobarbital peak level ,increases
d. Decreased Phenobarbital overall elimination rate

A 148. Petition for favor of healing and warning from great care and precaution:
a. Rx c. Magistral Pharmacy
b. Signa d. Mark thou

D 149. The approved clinical use of the product based on substantial evidence of the efficacy and safety of the drug:
a. warning c. pharmacologic category
b. formulation d. indication
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B 150. Instruction and special care to avoid undesired effects an to ensure the safe and effective use of the product:
a. warnings c. contraindications
b. precautions d. indications

B 151. Generic equivalent drugs are finished pharmaceutical products having the same ingredients, same dosage form and
the same strength. They differ only in:
a. generic name
b. brand name
c. international and non-proprietary name
d. active constituents

D 152. Drug products that are considered prohibited, except:

a. Heroin and morphine c. mescaline and Indian hemp
b. coca leaf and its derivative cocaine d. secobarbital

A 153. Regulated drugs, except:

a. LSD c. methaqualone
b. amphetamine d. Phenobarbital

A 154. Violation on the part of the pharmacist in generic dispensing, except:

a. adequately inform the buyer about available products that meet the prescription
b. failure to record and file the prescription filed
c. imposing a particular branded or product to the buyer
d. failure to report to the nearest DOH office cases of incorrect prescriptions within 3 months after receipt of
such prescriptions

B 155. Exempt prohibited drugs, except:

a. Lomotil c. Robitussin AC syrup
b. Benzodiazepines d. Phenergon Expectorant with Codeine

B 156. Drugs requiring strict precautions in their use, except:

a. Methotrexate c. Nitrofurantoin
b. Codeine d. Phenytoin

A 157. Official name of drug products containing 2 or more active ingredients with single INN:
a. INN of the combination products
b. Generic names of 2 or more active ingredients
c. Based on the nomenclature used by the PNDF
d. Products with standards formulation included in the current PNDF

D 158. Source/s of information regarding incompatibilities:

a. Remington c. Product inserts
b. USP d. all of the above

A 159. This parchment scroll found in Egypt mentioned 700 drugs with formulas for more than 800 remedies:
a. Papyrus Ebers c. Remington
b. De Materia Medica d. USP NF

A 160. The chief active constituent:

a. base c. corrective
b. vehicle d. adjuvant

A 161. Instruction for patient in taking the medication:

a. transcription c. superscription
b. inscription d. subscription

B 162. Part of a label that is most likely to be presented, shown or examined under customary conditions for display for
retail sale:
a. outer label c. inner label
b. principal display panel d. label

A 163. Patron saints of medicine and pharmacy:

a. Cosmas and Damian c. George Ebers
b. St. Peter d. Don Leon Maria Guerrero

A 164. Combination of a salt substitute and potassium sparing drugs will result to:
a. hyperkalemia c. alkalosis
b. tacycardia d. calcemia

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B 165. A written order signed by a licensed medical practitioner for medicine to be compounded by a pharmacist to meet the
needs of a certain person at a particular time:
a. letter c. recommendation
b. prescription d. receipt

B 166. It forms the beginning of a direct order from the prescriber to the compounder:
a. inscription c. subscription
b. superscription d. errors in the written order

B 167. Dispensing directions to the pharmacist is:

a. inscription c. superscription
b. subscription d. transcription

A 168. A prescription where the generic name is not written:

a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx
b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB Rx

A 169. The part of the prescription which directs the patient on what to do is:
a. signa c. subscription
b. inscription d. superscription

C 170. A prescription where the generic name does not correspond to the brand name:
a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx
b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB RX

B 171. The meaning of the abbreviation p.c. in the signa of a prescription:

a. as necessary c. at bedtime
b. after meal d. sufficient quantity

A 172. Complimentary list is a list of _____ drugs when there is no response to the core essential list:
a. alternative c. Additional
b. substitute d. supplementary

B 173. When suppositories containing phenol causes the vehicle to soften the melting point may be raised by adding:
a. lanolin c. fixed oil
b. petrolatum d. vehicle

C 174. Which one of the following antacid products is a chemical combination of aluminum and magnesium hydroxides?
a. Maalox b. Mylanta . Riopan d. Gelusil

A 175. Simethicone is most likely to be included in what type of OTC product?

a. antacids b. cough product c. decongestant d. laxative

B 176. The label text outside the principal display panel on the immediate container of pharmaceutical products as specified
by RA 3720 contains the following information, except:
a./ formulation c. batch and/or lot number
b. contraindication d. mode of administration

A 177. Theophylline when taken with high fat breakfast will result to the following:
a. combination reduces the amount of theophylline
b. action of theophylline is enhanced by the fat present
c. combination increases the metabolism of theophylline
d. both have synergistic effects

D 178. Valium and Tagamet combination will not result to one from the following:
a. Tagamet delay elimination of anti-anxiety agent
b. Increased sedation and dizziness
c. Blood levels of anti-anxiety drug increased
d. Valium increases the metabolism of theophylline

C 179. The “NO SUBSTITUTION” instruction is seen on:

a. erroneous prescription c. violative prescription
b. impossible prescription d. any of the above

C 180. A STAT order means the drug has to be administered:

a. as needed by the patient c. immediately
b. at the hour of sleep d. before surgery

C 181. Piroxicam is a/an:

a. prohibited drug c. OTC drug
b. regulated drug d. any of these answers

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B 182. If the pharmacist doubts the correctness of the prescription, he should:

a. consult the patient c. consult other pharmacist
b. consult the prescriber d. base decision on ailment of the patient

B 183. Providing the correct medicine at the correct time, in the correct dose and the correct route of administration is
called:
a. primary care c. osteopathy
b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy

D 184. In pricing prescription, the pharmacist must consider:

a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark-up
b. professional fee d. all of the above

B 185. When the word otic appears on the label of the drug, the patients should be informed that the drug is applied on the:
a. mouth b. ear c. eyes d. nose

A 86. Salt of zinc that is valuable as an eyewash for the treatment of conjunctivitis:
a. zinc sulfate c. zinc oxide
b. zinc chloride d. all of these answers

D 187. The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is due to:

a. ozone c. peroxidase
b. acetanilide d. oxygen

B 188. Which of the following is most closely related to cefazolin?

a. erythromycin c. carbenicillin
b. moxalactam d. gentamycin

B 189. Failure to mix or dissolve when two or more ingredients are combined may be termed as:
a. adverse reactions c. drug precipitation
b. physical incompatibility d. complexation

A 190. The unusual result of triturating camphor and menthol is:

a. liquefaction c. solidification
b. synergistic effect d. lowering of melting point

D 191. Mixtures of phenolic, aldehydes, ketonic compounds and alcohols are examples of:
a. insoluble substances c. delinquent substances
b. hydroscopic substances d. eutectic mixtures

B 192. Substances which absorb moisture from the air are called:
a. effervescent powders c. anhydrous powders
b. hygroscopic powders d. efflorescent powders

D 193. Liquefaction of crystalline salt occurs on trituration is due to:

a. addition of water
b. addition of other liquid ingredient
c. absorption of moisture from the air
d. liberation of water of crystallization

B 194. Urinary alkalinizer administered with sulfonamides treatment to prevent crystalluria:

a. Na2CO3 c. NaOH or KOH
b. NaHCO3 d. Na2CO3-10H2O

C 195. NPO means:

a. patient should be given drugs after meals
b. patient should be given drugs before meals
c. patient should not be given anything by mouth
d. patient should be left undisturbed

B 196. Drugs that can be dispensed only through a yellow prescription pad:
a. essential drugs c. OTC products
b. dangerous drugs d. prescription drugs

A 197. The objective of the Generic Law is to:

a. provide the patient the choice of drugs at the lowest cost
b. provide regulated drugs
c. provide prohibited drugs
d. use habit forming drugs

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C 198. Zephiran is used in ophthalmic solution as:

a. suspending agent c. anti-microbial agent
b. surfactant d. anti-microbial agent and surfactant

B 199. The lowering of melting point is called:

a. evolution c. hydrolysis
b. eutexia d. none of these

D 200. Combination of NaHCO3 with an organic acid (citric or tartaric acid) will result in:
a. precipitation c. oxidation
b. color changes d. effervescence

C 201. When an oxidizing agent is triturated in a mortar with a reducing agent, this would likely result to:
a. formation of damp mass c. violent explosion
b. discoloration of powders d. volatilization of some of the ingredients

B 202. The reaction between sodium bicarbonate and aspirin would result to:
a. formation of precipitate c. hydrolytic changes
b. evolution of gas d. invisible changes

A 203. Benzalkonium chloride is incompatible with:

a. soap c. a and b
b. cationic agent d. none of the above

D 204. Chemical incompatibility includes all of the following except:

a. racemization c. cementation
b. implosion d. liquefaction

C 205. When the response of a patient to one or more drugs is different in nature then that intended by the prescriber is
called:
a. antagonistic incompatibility c. therapeutic incompatibility
b. chemical incompatibility d. physical incompatibility

A 206. Adverse drug reactions characterized by exaggerated or inordinate response to normal doses of a drug:
a. idiosyncrasy c. hypersensitivity
b. allergy d. potentiation

A 207. Occurs when one drug increases the action of another drug:
a. potentiation c. summation
b. antagonism d. summation/potentiation

B 208. Isotonic solution of this subsrtance will still cause hemolysis of RBC:
a. benzoic acid c. sodium bicarbonate
b. boric acid d. sodium benzoate

B 209. Substance used as a test for, liver function by measuring the amount of hippuric acid in urine:
a. sodium borate c. sodium salicylate
b. aspirin d. sodium benzoate

B 210. The risk of aspirin in children with fever due to viral infection:
a. Gray baby syndrome c. bone fraction
b. Reye’s syndrome d. all of the above

B 211. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:

a. penicillin c. aspirin
b. antihistamine d. sulfonamide

D 212. The combined action of two or more drugs which results in an enhancement or intensifying effect is termed:
a. metabolism c. stimulation
b. antagonism d. synergism

C 213. Sodium benzoate is effective as a preservative if the pH of the preparation is:

a. above 4 c. below 4
b. above 7 d. below 7

C 214. Upon exposure to air, aminophylline solution may develop:

a. a gas c. crystals of theophylline
b. a precipitate of theophylline d. a straw color

A 215. The degradation reaction for aspirin involves:

a. hydrolysis c. oxidation
b. racemization d. photolysis

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B 216. Reactions which are noxious , unintended and which occur at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis
or therapy:
a. drug interactions c. pharmacodynamic interactions
b. adverse drug reaction d. therapeutic incompatibilities

D 217. The ingestion of alcoholic drinks while on analgesic or sedative therapy represents a commonly encountered drug
interaction that may result in:
a. tolerance c. excessive CNS stimulation
b. antagonism d. excessive CNS depression

A 218. Biological half life of many drugs is often prolonged in newborn infants because of:
a. incompletely developed enzyme system
b. microsomal enzyme inhibition
c. higher protein binding
d. well developed renal function

C 219. To prevent errors, the pharmacist uses:

a. his knowledge of pharmacognosy c. his broad knowledge of drugs
b. his knowledge of chemistry d. his knowledge of diseases

A 220. The following are aminoglycosides, except:

a. quinidine c. streptomycin
b. kanamycin d. neomycin

A 221. Theophylline is used for:

a. asthmatic c. hypertensive patients
b. diabetic d. all of these answers

B 222. Drug that should not be given to children with chicken pox or flu symptoms:
a. acetaminophen c. ibuprofen
b. aspirin d. all of these answers

A 223. Drug that should not be given to patients who have undergone surgery including dental surgery:
a. aspirin c. ibuprofen
b. acetaminophen d. all of these answers

A 224. Aspirin with antacids will cause:

a. alteration of pH c. alteration of GIT flora
b. complexation and adsorption d. alteration of motility

A 225. The most serious drug-induced blood disorder:

a. aplastic anemia c. agranulocuytosis
b. leukemia d. thrombocytopenia

A 226. The most clinically significant adverse drug reactions affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract results from the use of:
a. NSAIDs c. enteric coated KCl tablets
b. corticosteroids d. all of these answers

B 227. Used in the treatment of alcoholism by inhibiting activity of aldehyde dehydrogenase:

a. probenecid c. Phenobarbital
b. antabuse d. aspirin

B 228. A reaction that is noxious and unintended, which occurs in doses used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis and
therapy:
a. drug interaction c. adverse drug effects
b. adverse drug reaction d. pharmacodynamic effects

A 229. Allergic reactions that are due to a person’s immune response:

a. hypersensitivity c. synergy
b. idiosyncracy d. potentiation

B 230. A type of synergism in which the combined effect is equal to the additive effect of the combined drugs is termed:
a. potentiation c. metabolism
b. summation d. hyperactivity

A 231. Which of the following factors influence drug metabolism and metabolic pathway?
a. genetic variation c. physiologic or disease state
b. drug dosage d. all of these answers

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A 232. A metal catalyzed oxidation reaction pathway can be prevented by:

a. chelating agents c. surface active agents
b. antioxidant d. none of these answers

D 233. Which of the following factors may make it necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric patients?
a. reduced enzyme activity c. enhanced absorption
b. reduced kidney function d. a and b

A 234. This reaction is classified under Bizarre reactions (type B):

a. anaphylactic shock c. adverse effect
b. teratogenesis d. drug dependence

D 235. Consequence of adverse drug reactions:

a. increased mortality c. increased cost of therapy
b. prolonged hospital stay d. all of the above

C 236. A common adverse effect related to the use of aluminum antacids:

a. nausea c. constipations
b. vomiting d. all of the above

D 237. Tetracycline tend to form complexes with:

a. iron salts c. calcium salts
b. magnesium salts d. all of the above

B 238. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:

a. sulfonamides c. aspirin
b. antihistamines d. penicillin

A 239. Increases serum levels and prolongs the activity of penicillin derivatives by blocking the latter’s tubular excretion:
a. probenecid c. propranolol
b. indomethacin d. methyldopa

A 240. Well known side effects of salicylate therapy:

a. tinnitus c. headache
b. vomiting d. nausea

D 241. Most common side effects of erythromycin therapy:

a. anaphylaxis c. GI bleeding
b. ototoxcicity d. abdominal cramps

C 242. A drug that increases the anticoagulant action of warfarin because its metabolite competes with the anticoagulant for
plasma protein binding sites:
a. tolbutamide c. chloral hydrate
b. aspirin d. diazepam

A 243. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus increases the plasma levels of:
a. mercaptopurine c. disulfiram
b. chloral hydrate d. aspirin

D 244. Aspirin combines with Phenylsalicylate resulting to:

a. melting c. turbid solution
b. non-homogenous mixture d. moist mass

A 245. A formulation of FeSO4 suspension cannot use acacia as a suspending agent, because the final product may exhibit:
a. gelatinization c. cementation
b. precipitation d. oxidation

D 246. Cold preparations when taken in large doses may interact with:
a. sedatives c. MAOIs
b. guaiafenisin d. a and c

A 247. Which of the following properties would characterize a drug when it is bound to plasma albumin?
a. it is biologically inactive c. it is promptly metabolized
b. it can pass through the glomerulus d. a and b

D 248. Traditional classification of adverse drug reactions:

a. side effect c. allergy
b. extension effect d. all of the above

D 249. These reactions belong to Augmented type (type A):

a. extension effect c. side effect
b. allergy d. a and c
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C 250. The following drugs often precipitate an interaction when administered with a second drug, except:
a. Sedation c. hemolytic anemia
b. headache d. hypokalemia

C 251. The following responses belong to Type B adverse drug reactions, except:
a. allergy of Cefotaxime
b. aplastic anemia in patients taking chloramphenicol
c. facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mothers
d. peripheral neuritis in a British missionary ill with tuberculosis

C 252. An ointment is prepared by incorporating 10 g of a drug into 100 g of white petrolatum. What is the percent w/w
of active ingredient?
a. 10.0% d. 0.95%
b. 9.1% e. none of the above
c. 0.91%

C 253. What is the proof strength of a 50% (v/v) solution of alcohol?

a. 25 proof d. 75 proof
b. 50 proof e. 150proof
c. 100 proof

A 254. Certified dyes may not be used in the area of:

a. the eye d. the nose
b. the scalp e. all of the above
c. the lips

A 255. The principal use of magnesium stearate in pharmaceutics is as a/an:

a. lubricant d. disintegrator
b. antacid e. binder
c. source of magnesium ion

A 256. The major use of titanium dioxide in pharmacy is in:

a. sunscreens d. effervescent salts
b. antacid capsules e. emulsions
c. capsules as a diluent

C 257. A synonym for vitamin C is:

a. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin
b. tocopherol e. thiamine
c. ascorbic acid

D 258. Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of its properties?
a. neutralizing d. adsorptive
b. emetic e. stabilizing
c. absorptive

C 259. The abbreviations SOS on prescriptions means:

a. at once d. do not repeat
b. freely e. on alternate days
c. if needed

D 260. Clindamycin is closely related to which if the following in effective spectrum?

a. chloramphenicol d. lincomycin
b. tobramycin e. it is unique in spectrum
c. kanamycin

C 261. Prednisone is converted to which of the following by the liver?

a. cortisone d. methylprednisolone
b. hydrocortisone e. dexamethasone
c. prednisolone

B 262. The dose of a drug is 5mg/kg of body weight. What dose should be given to a 100-lb female patient?
a. 2500 mg d. 44 mg
b. 250 mg e. 440 mg
c. 25 mg

A 263. How many grains of a drug is needed to make 4 fluid ounces of a 5%(w/v) solution?
a. 91 grains d. 100 grains
b. 96 grains e. 24 grains
c. 48 grains

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B 264. Methyl salicylate is used primarily as a/an:

a. flavoring d. emulsifier
b. counter-irritant e. binder
c. suspending agent

C 265. Which of the following is not used as a vehicle for injections?

a. peanut oil c. theobroma oil
b. cottonseed oil d. sesame oil

A 266. Lidocaine HCl is not administered orally because it is:

a. ineffective by this route d. a cause of arrhythmias
b. too acidic e. unstable
c. too toxic by this route

E 267. The two major properties of drug that are usually modified by complexation are:
a. odor and taste d. chemical structure and stability
b. taste and solubility e. stability and solubility
c. chemical structure and solubility

E 268. What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the processes of biotransformation and elimination?
a. high blood levels of drug d. potentiation
b. low blood levels of drug e. failure to attain diffusion equilibrium
c. synergism

C 269. In radiopharmacy, the term “rem” means:

a. radiations per millisecond d. external roentgens per minute
b. radiations per minute e. roentgen exposure per minute
c. roentgen-equivalent-man

B 270. pH is:
a. not temperature d. high for acids
b. a measure of acidity e. none of the above
c. the same as pOH

E 271. Which of the following types of tissues frequently store drugs?

a. fatty tissue d. a and b
b. muscle tissue e. a and c
c. protein tissue

B 272. Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI tract?
a. aspirin d. hydrocortisone
b. penicillin G e. chlortetracycline
c. acetaminophen

E 273. Surface-active agents tend to enhance absorption due to:

a. their effects on biological membrane
b. their effects on the dissolution rate of drugs
c. reduction of interfacial tension
d. b and c only
e. a, b and c

C 274. Emulsions made with tweens are usually:

a. unstable d. clear
b. w/o e. reversible
c. o/w

A 275. A solution contains 3 gr of a drug per fluid ounce. What is the percentage w/v of the solution?
a. 0.66% d. 1.0%
b. 0.59% e. 6.5%
c. 10.0%

D 276. Cyanocobalamin is a/an:

a. steroid d. vitamin
b. choline esterase inhibitor e. enzyme
c. hallucinogen

C 277. Spans and tweens are:

a. highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrides
b. phospholipids
c. polyoxyalkalene derivatives
d. glycosides
e. none of the above
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C 278. Solutions that contain bacteriostatic agents:

a. cannot be tested for sterility
b. must be cultured on agar plates for sterility tests
c. must be diluted beyond the bacteriostatic level for sterility tests
d. do not require a sterility test
e. are none of the above

C 279. The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg. What dose should be given a 6-year old child who weighs 44 lbs?
a. 0.003 g d. 0.100 g
b. 0.033 g e. 0.05 g
c. 0.010 g

E 280. Salicylic acid is used primarily as a/an:

a. analgesic d. uricosuric agent
b. antipyretic e. keratolytic agent
c. cough suppressant

A 281. The chemical substance used commonly in running a GI series is:

a. barium sulfate d. sodium bicarbonate
b. fluorescein dye e. sodium carbonate
c. radioactive iodine

B 282. Which of the following may be used as plasma expanders?

a. sodium salts d. calcium salts
b. dextrans e. prostaglandins
c. starches

A 283. Denaturation of emulsions is characterized by:

a. irreversible precipitation d. changing of external phase
b. reversible precipitation e. c and d
c. creaming

B 284. Freeze drying is based on:

a. pressure filtration d. pasteurization
b. sublimation e. densification
c. polymerization

D 285. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring emulsifier?

a. acacia d. veegum
b. cholesterol e. tragacanth
c. gelatin

C 286. The most prevalent commercial solid dosage forms are:

a. hard capsules d. bulk powders
b. soft gelatin capsules e. divided powders
c. tablets

A 287. The purpose of sorbitol in formulations of soft gelatin capsules is as a /an:

a. plasticizer d. thickener
b. disintegrating agent e. emulsifier
c. lubricant

D 288. Pharmacists should caution patients who are taking niacin that this drug:
a. stains the urine bright red c. causes muscular weakness
b. causes ringing in the ears d. should be taken with meals

E 289. Tetracycline tends to form complexes with:

a. calcium ions d. iron ions
b. magnesium ions e. all of the above
c. aluminum ions

B 290. Most drugs are:

a. strong electrolytes d. highly ionic
b. weak electrolytes e. none of the above
c. non-electrolytes

C 291. A humectant retards:

a. bacterial growth d. spreadability
b. degradation e. all of the above
c. surface evaporation

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A 292. Transdermal scopolamine is a drug used to prevent:

a. motion sickness d. coronary insufficiency
b. hypertension e. rabies
c. diabetes

B 293. Reaction rate is increased most readily by:

a. humidity d. photolysis
b. high temperature e. hydrolysis
c. freezing

A 294. A primary disadvantage of ethylene glycol as a solvent in oral preparations is its:

a. potential toxicity d. high cost
b. lack of solvent action e. high viscosity
c. very limited miscibility

B 295. Glucose is not subject to hydrolysis because it is:

a. a disaccharide d. insoluble
b. a monosaccharide e. both b and c
c. a polysaccharide

C 296. Purified water USP may not be used in:

a. syrups d. elixirs
b. topical preparations e. effervescent solutions
c. parenteral preparations

B 297. Ferritin is a/an:

a. vitamin d. amino acid
b. micelle e. protein
c. emulsion

D 298. Gums are used in tableting primarily as:

a. disintegrators d. binding agents
b. glidants e. both b and c
c. lubricants

D 299. Vanishing creams are classified as:

a. oleaginous d. o/w bases
b. absorption bases e. w/o bases
c. water-soluble bases

A 300. Syrup NF is:

a. self-preserving d. highly unstable
b. a supersaturated solution e. flavored and preserved
c. a dilute solution

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