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 Pharmacy  
4. Benzoic acid is a commonly used
preservative of drug products

Review   because of it relatively nontoxic

metabolite

MODULE  1   A. Trichloroethanol
B. Arenol
C. N-hydroxy compound
1. A malnourished 12-year-old child D. Hippuric acid  
who lives in a rural area of the 5. Used in making highly resistant
southern United states presents with glass (Type 1) glass
weakness, fever, cough, abdominal A. Aluminum
pain, and eosinophilia. His mother B. Silicon
tells you that she has seen long, thin
C. Iron
worms in the child’s stoold,
sometimes with blood. A D. Boron  
presumptive diagnosis of ascariasis 6. Also known as heavy hydrogen
is confirmed by the presence of ova A. Protium
of A. lumbricoides in the stools. B. Tritium
However, microscopy also reveals C. Deuterium
that the stools contain eggs of
D. All of the above
Necatoramericanus. The drug most
likely to be effective in the treatment 7. All of the following drugs form
of this child is reactive molecular species that
A. Albendazole alkylate nucleophilic groups on DNA
B. Diethycarbamazine bases, EXCEPT:
C. Ivermectin A. Chlorambucil
D. Niclosamide B. Busulfan
E. Praziquantel
C. Cisplatin
2. An immune modulator that increases
D. Cytarabine
phagocytosis by macrophages in
E. Carmustine
patients with chronic granulomatous
8. Usually results in a low number of
disease?
metabolites due to a limited
A. Aldesleukin
concentration of available
B. Interferon-γ
conjugating substances
C. Lymphocyte immune globulin
A. Glucuronidation
D. Prednisone
B. Glutamine and Glycine
E. Trastuzumab
Conjugation
3. Which drug causes muscle paralysis
C. Sulfate conjugation
in nematodes by enhancing the
D. Both B and C  
action of the inhibitory transmitter
9. Carbenicillin is classified as what
GABA?
type of penicillin?
A. Albendazole
A. Antipseudomonal Penicillin
B. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Amino Penicillin
C. Mebendazole
C. Natural Penicillin
D. Piperazine
D. Methicillin Resistant Penicillin
E. Pyrantelpamoate
10. Isoniazid associated hepatitis is

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 commonly seen in patients who are: C. Phenolphthalein
A. Asians D. Gentian violet
B. Eskimos E. NOTA
C. Western Europeans 17. The first semisynthetic
D. All of the above aminoglycoside
E. Both A and B A. Kanamycin
B. Streptomycin
11. Synthesis of cellular components
C. Paromomycin
needed for DNA synthesis
D. Amikacin
A. G0
E. Gentamicin
B. G1
18. This is the softest mineral known
C. G2
A. Colloidalhydrated aluminum
D. S Phase
silicate
E. M Phase
B. Hydrated Magnesium Silicate
12. The electrophilic substrates is major
C. Native hydrated aluminum
prerequisite of this conjugation
silicate
reaction
D. Magnesium Citrate
A. Glutathione Conjugation
19. All of the following should undergo
B. Glucuronic Acid Conjugation
metabolism first before eliciting a
C. Sulfate Conjugation
pharmacologic effect, EXCEPT:
D. All of the above
A. Clindamycin palmitate
E. Both B and C
B. Chloramphenicol palmitate
13. The ion that gives positive result to
C. Mesalamine
Thenard’s Test causes: D. None of the above
A. Reye’s syndrome 20. Element that has the ability to
B. Minamata diseases destroy the metallic properties of
C. Shaver’s disease aluminum
D. Wilson’s disease A. Gallium
14. This element prolongs/lengthens the B. Copper
duration of action of insulin C. Sulfur
A. Copper D. Magnesium
B. Magnesium E. Iron
C. Aluminum 21. Which of the following drugs is
D. Cobalt LEAST LIKELY to be effective in the
E. Zinc treatment of esophageal candidiasis
15. A preparation in which it’s use if it is used by the oral route?
depends on the route of A. Clotirmazole
administration, oral as a cathartic, B. Fluconazole
parenteral as a anticonvulsant C. Griseofulvin
A. Rochelle salt D. Itraconazole
B. Purgative lemonade E. Nystatin
22. All of the following drugs undergoes
C. Glauber’s salt
extensive first pass metabolism,
D. Epsom salt EXCEPT:
16. . A dye used as an an anti-infective A. Propoxyphene
for the treatment of female yeast B. Morphine
infections C. Ampicillin
A. Basic fuchsin D. Lidocaine
B. Methylene blue E. Isoproterenol

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 23. The most effective respiratory C. Griseofulvin
stimulant D. Amphotericin
A. Carbon Dioxide E. Terbinafine
B. spirit of Hartshorn 30. Which statement about
C. Preston Salt sulphonamides is accurate?
D. All of the above A. Cross allergenicity occurs
24. An agent used to treat or prevent between sulphonamides and
cardiotoxicity caused by penicillins
antineoplastic drugs such as B. Crystalluria due to
doxorubicin sulphonamides is most likely
A. Dexrazoxane to occur at high urinary pH
B. Leucovorin C. Dysfunction of the basal
C. Mesna ganglia may occur in the new
D. Dantrolene born if sulphonamides are
25. Major use is an opacifying agent for administered late in
drug products and as a UV ray pregnancy
protectant in sunblock lotions D. Sulfonamides are
A. Bismuth bactericidal
B. Phosphorous E. Sulfonamides inhibit
C. Zirconium dihydrofolate reductase
D. Titanium Dioxide 31. Trimethroprim-sulfamethoxazole is
26. Serious cardiac effects have effective against which of the
occurred when this drug was taken following opportunistic infections in
the AIDS patient?
by patients using antihistamines
A. Disseminated herpes simplex
astemizole or tefenadine B. Cryptococcal meningitis
A. Amphotericin B C. Oral candidiasis
B. Griseofulvin D. Toxoplasmosis
C. Ketoconazole E. Tuberculosis
D. Terbinafine 32. Which of the following is a
E. Voriconazole pharmacologic effect of exogenous
glucorticoids?
27. Cobalt meta-aluminate is:
A. Increased muscle mass
A. Rinman’s green B. Hypoglycemia
B. Azure crystals C. Inhibition of leukotriene
C. Thenard’s blue synthesis
D. Emerald blue crystals D. Improved wound healing
28. Mottled enamel and abnormal bone E. Increased excretion of salt
growth can be seen in patients and water
suffering from toxicity of 33. Regarding the mechanism of action
A. Cadmium of aminoglycosides, the drugs
B. Calcium A. Are bacteriostatic
C. Fluorine B. Bind to the 50S ribosomal
D. Phosphates subunit
E. Zinc C. Cause misreading of the
29. Binds to ergosterol and cause the code on the mRNA template
formation of artificial pores in fungal D. Inhibit formation of peptide
cell membranes cross bridges in the
A. Ketoconazole peptidoglycan layer
B. Flucytosine 34. Give the IUPAC name of this

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 compound: CH3CH2CH2OCH2CH3 40. Most abundant extracellular anion
A. 1-ethoxypropane A. Kalium
B. 1-propoxyethane B. Natrium
C. 2-pentanol C. Dephlogisticated muriatic
D. 2-pentanal acid
35. Which antibiotic is the most effective D. Inflammable air
agent in the treatment of an infection 41. Which of the following is a
due to enterococci if used in recognized effect of nitric oxide?
combination with penicillin G? A. Arrythmia
A. Amikacin B. Bronchoconstriction
B. Gentamicin C. Constipation
C. Spectinomycin D. Inhibition of acute graft
D. Tobramycin rejection
36. Decreased red blood cells, cyanosis E. Pulmonary vasodilation
and cardiovascular collapse maybe 42. Concentration of iodine in Lugol’s
caused by Solution
A. Vancomycin A. 1%
B. Ticarcillin B. 2%
C. Cefpirome C. 3%
D. Tetracycline D. 5%
E. Chloramphenicol E. 10%
37. The compound found in fish which 43. The chemical CH3CH2COOH is an
resulted in epidemic of neurologic example of what type of organic
and psychiatric disease in compound:
Minamata, Japan
A. Ketone
A. Mercury Oxide
B. Methylmercury B. Ester
C. Mercurous Chloride C. Ether
D. mercuric chloride D. Aldehyde
E. Ammoniated Mercury E. Carboxylic acid
38. Disturbances in the GIT caused by 44. The catalyst used in Lucas’ Test
this drug can lead to candidiasis and A. Mercurous chloride
superinfection B. Benzalkonium chloride
A. Clindamycin C. Zinc Chloride
B. Tetracycline D. Potassium chloride
C. Erythromycin 45. Vleminckx’s solution is prepared by
D. Aztreonam boiling sublimed sulphur and:
E. Carbenicillin A. Lime
39. This drug has activity against many
B. Calcium Carbonate
strains of P. aeruginosa. However,
when is used alone, resistance has C. Calcium oxide
emerged during the course of D. All of the above
treatment. Its activity against gram- E. A and C only
negative rods is enhanced if it is 46. A component of the antidandruff
given with tazobactam shampoo selsun blue
A. Amoxicillin A. Cadmium Sulfide
B. Aztreonam B. Selenium Sulfide
C. Imipenem C. Zinc sulfide
D. Piperacillin D. Both A and B
E. Vancomycin 47. The only single acid that can

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 dissolve gold: C. Tartar emetic
A. HCl D. Salt of Tartar
B. HNO3 55. Agent/s used in the treatment of
PUD with H. pylori infection
C. Selenic acid
A. Aluminum hydroxide +
D. Aqua regia Magnesium Hydroxide
48. The combination of ethanol and B. Bismuth subnitrate + Bismuth
disulfiram results in nausea and hydroxide
hypotension as a result of the C. Sodium Bicarbonate
accumulation of which of the D. Calcium Carbonate
following? E. All of the above
A. Acetaldehyde 56. Occurs in the respiratory pigment
B. Acetate hemocyanin
C. Methanol A. Iron
D. Acetic Acid B. Copper
E. Pyruvate C. Cobalt
49. Also known as white precipitate D. All of the above
A. FeSO4 E. A and B only
B. HgNH2Cl 57. The toxicity of Helium is
C. ZnSO4 characterized by:
D. Hg2Cl2 A. Baritone voice
E. HgCl2 B. Donald Duck Voice
50. The first element produced artificially C. Boiled lobster appearance
is: D. Parakeratosis
A. Rn 58. Plumbism in children can cause
B. Ta A. Hemmorhage
C. Tc B. Teratogenic effects
D. Pt C. Dermatitis
51. Dimercaprol can be used as an D. Decrease in IQ
antidote for 59. A small child is brought to a hospital
A. Acute arsenic poisoning
emergency department suffering
B. Mercury Poisoning
C. Iron Poisoning from severe gastrointestinal distress
D. All of the above and abdominal colic. If this patient
E. A and B only has severe acute lead poisoning
52. Used as an indicator in desiccators with signs and symptoms of
A. Mineral Chameleon encephalopathy, treatment should
B. Sympathetic ink
be initiated immediately with
C. Blue Vitriol
D. Beautiful meadow A. Acetylcysteine
53. White vitriol is a B. Deferoxamine
A. Hemihydrate C. EDTA
B. Pentahydrate D. Penicillamine
C. Heptahydrate E. Succimer
D. Anhydrous 60. The regular consumption of a glass
54. Used in the treatment of
of wine each day with meals may
schistosomiasis
A. Cream of tartar decrease the risk of which of the
B. Sodium potassium tartrate following?

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 A. Cancer A. Chloroquine
B. Coronary Heart Disease B. Clindamycin
C. Gastritis C. Mefloquine
D. Psychological Dependence D. Primaquine
E. Viral hepatitis E. Quinine
61. Heaviest or densest metal 67. A deficiency in this element can lead
A. Boron to hyperglycemia
B. Gold A. Manganese
C. Platinum B. Chromium
D. Osmium C. Copper
E. Paladium D. Iron
62. Which of the following can be used 68. Metronidazole is not effective in the
to provide an inert atmosphere for treatment of
oxygen sensitive drugs? A. Amebiasis
A. Nitrogen B. Infections caused by B.
B. Helium fragilis
C. Argon C. Infections due to P. jiroveci
D. All of the above D. Pseudomembranous colitis
E. A and C only E. Trichomoniasis
63. The element which is responsible for 69. All of the following are antagonistic
the toxic effects of Lewisite Gas pairs, EXCEPT?
A. P A. Cu –Phosphorous
B. Be B. Magnesium- Calcium
C. As C. Al- PO4
D. Combination of the three D. Na-Li
64. This drug can clear trypanosomes E. Fe-Cu
from the blood and lymph nodes and 70. Agent found in sensodyne
is active in the late CNS stages of A. Sodium Metabisulfite
African sleeping sickness B. Lithium carbonate
A. Emetine C. Zinc oxide
B. Melarsoprol D. Strontium Chloride
C. Nifurtimox 71. A 42-year old man with a history of
D. Pentamidine alcoholism is brought to the
E. Suramin emergency department in a
65. Used in the repair of bones, nerve confused and delirious state. He has
and tissue truncal ataxia and ophthalmlegia.
A. Pt The most appropriate course of
B. Ta action is to administer diazepam and
C. Bi A. Chlordiazepoxide
D. Ti B. Disulfiram
66. This drug is the antimalarial agent C. Folic Acid
most commonly associated with D. Fomepizole
causing acute haemolytic reaction in E. Thiamine
patients with G-6-PD deficiency 72. What is the most toxic element?

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 A. Barium D. Potassium bitartrate
B. Berrylium 78. Electrolyte replenisher and tonicity
C. Magnesium adjusting agent
D. Mercury A. Soda ash
73. A young woman employed as a B. Soler salt
dental laboratory technician C. Chile Salt Peter
complains of conjunctivitis, skin D. Glauber's Salt
irritation, and hair loss. On 79. The form of erythromycin which is
examination, she has perforation of commonly associated with
cholestatic hepatitis
the nasal septum and a “milk and
A. Ethyl Succinate
roses” complexion. These signs and B. Stearate
symptoms are most likely due to C. Estolate
A. Acute mercury poisoning D. All of the above
B. Chronic inorganic arsenic 80. All of the following statements are
poisoning TRUE regarding polypeptide
C. Chronic mercury poisoning antibiotics EXCEPT
A. One of the most potent
D. Excessive use of
agents available against
supplementary iron tablets
some non-spore forming
E. Lead Poisoning
anaerobic bacteria,
74. A potassium compound used as a
Bacteroides
component of toothpaste, gargle and
B. Dose limiting nephrotoxicity
mouthwash
C. Among the most powerful
A. Potassium Permanganate bactericidal antibiotics
B. Sodium Potassium Tartrate D. Lack of systemic activity
C. Potassium Chlorate E. None of the above
D. Potassium Chloride 81. The antibiotic isolated from
75. All of the following metals belong to Pseudomonas fluorescens
the alkali metals group, EXCEPT A. Quinopristin/ Dalfopristin
A. Fr B. Mupirocin
B. Sr C. Novobiocin
C. Li D. Chloramphenicol
D. Cs 82. Used in the treatment of
76. All of the following are ADR of Clindamycin induced Clostridium
cephalosporins except difficile infection
A. Disulfiram like effect A. Metronidazole
B. Hypoprothrombinemia B. Vancomycin
C. Nephrotoxicity C. Linezolid
D. Allergic reactions D. All of the above
77. The use of this drug increases the E. A and B only
risk of congenital cardiac anomalies, 83. Abendazole can be used for the
known as Ebstein’s anomalies in the treatment of
developing fetus A. Enetrobiusvermicularis
A. Cytarabine B. Ascarislumbricoides
B. Lithium Bromide
C. Necator species
C. Sodium thiosulfate
D. Trichuristrichiuria

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 E. All of the above E. None of the above
84. Which of the following is a cell- 89. Which of the following is an immune
specific anticancer drug that acts cell that recognizes foreign peptides
mainly in the M phase of the cell bound to MHC class II molecules on
cycle? the surface of APC cells, secretes
A. Bleomycin interleukin 2 and initiates the cell
B. Cisplatin mediated immunity reaction
C. Etoposide responsible for host versus graft
D. Methotrexate reactions?
E. Paclitaxel A. B lymphocyte
85. The common name of the compound B. Cytotoxic T lymphocyte
HOOC-(CH2)4-COOH is C. Dendritic cell
A. pimelic acid D. Macrophage
B. adipic acid E. TH lymphocyte
C. malonic acid 90. All of the following are third
D. succinic acid generation cephalosporins EXCEPT:
86. At constant volume, the pressure of A. Cefotaxime
a given mass of gas varies directly B. Ceftizoxime
C. Cefamandole
with the absolute temperature then
D. Ceftriaxone
at constant volume. E. Ceftazidime
A. Boyle’s Law 91. A 55 year old patient currently
B. Dalton’s Law receiving a drug for psychiatric
C. Charle’s Law condition is to be started on diuretic
D. Guy-Lussac’s Law therapy for mild heart failure.
E. Ideal Gas Law Consideration should be given to the
fact that thiazides are known to
87. A 2- year old child was brought to
reduce the excretion of twhich of the
the emergency department 1h after
following?
ingestion of tablets he had managed
A. Diazepam
to obtain from a bottle on top of the
B. Fluoxetine
refrigerator. His symptoms included
C. Imipramine
marked gastrointestinal distress,
D. Lithium
vomiting (with hematemesis), and
E. Trifluoperazine
epigastric pain. Metabolic acidosis
92. A hypertensive patient has been
and leucocytosis were also present.
using nifedipine for some time
This patient is most likely to have
without untoward effects. If he
ingested tablets containing
experiences a rapidly developing
A. Acetaminophen
enhancement of the hypertensive
B. Aspirin
effect of the drug, it is most likely
C. Diphenhydramine
due to which of the following?
D. Iron
A. Concomitant use of antacids
E. Vitamin C
B. Foods containing tyramine
88. All of the following are evidence of
C. Furanocoumarins in
chemical changes/reaction,
grapefruit juice
EXCEPT:
D. Induction of drug metabolism
A. Color change
E. Over-the-counter
B. Evolution of a gas
decongestants
C. Formation of a precipitate 93. Which antibiotic is a potent inducer
D. Emission of light of hepatic drug metabolizing

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 enzymes? B. Benzalkonium chloride
A. Ciprofloxacin C. Hexachlorophene
B. Cyclosporine D. Merbromin
C. Erythromycin E. Thimerosal
D. Rifampin 99. Safe to use in pregnancy?
E. Tetracycline A. Lamivudine
94. A traveller in a geographical region B. Lopinavir/rotinavir
where chloroquine resistant P. C. Nevirapine
falciparum is endemic used a drug D. Zidovudine
for prophylaxis but nevertheless E. All of the above
developed a severe attack of P. 100. Used in the prophylaxis and
vivax malaria. The drug taken for treatment of infection caused by
chemoprophylaxis was probably influenza viruses including H1N1
A. Atovaquone strains,this drug facilitates clumping
B. Mefloquine of mature virions and their adhesion
C. Metronidazole to infected cells.
D. Proguanil A. Amantadine
E. Quinine B. Efavirenz
95. Bone marrow suppression, toxic C. Oseltamivir
effects on the skin and D. Rimantadine
gastrointestinal mucosa caused by E. Saquinavir
methotrexate can be prevented by
administration of
A. Mercaptoethanesulfonate
B. Dexrazoxane
C. Leucovorin  
D. Ondansetron
E. GM-CSF
96. Which immune response is triggered
by penicillin injection?
A. An autoimmune syndrome
B. A cell-mediated reaction
C. A type II drug allergy
D. Mediated by IgE
E. Serum sickness
97. Which of the following is an
immunosuppressant that suppresses
both B and T lymphocytes via
inhibition of de novo synthesis of
purines?
A. Cyclophophamide
B. Methotrexate
C. Mycophenolatemofetil
D. Prednisone
E. Tacrolimus
98. Infections caused by gram negative
bacilli have occurred when this
cationic surfactant has been used as
a skin antiseptic
A. Acetic Acid

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