Bio Mcqs

.1- Which of the following is not a disaccharide?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Sucrose
Q.2- What is the molecular formula of Glucose?
a) CH3OH
b) C12H22O11
c) C6H1206
d) C6H12O5
Q.3-Sucrose is composed of which two sugars?
a) Glucose and Glucose
b) Glucose and Fructose
c) Glucose and Galactose
d) Fructose and Galactose
Q.4- In which of the following forms Glucose is stored in plants?
a) Starch
b) Dextrins
c) Glycogen
d) Cellulose
Q.5-Which out of the following is a Carbohydrate with no nutritional value?
a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose
Q.6- Choose a sugar out of the following that is non reactive to Seliwanoff reagent?
a) Sucrose
b) Fructose
c) Inulin
d) Ribose
Q.7- Choose a keto triose-

a) Glyceraldehyde
b) Dihydroxyacetone
c) Erythrose
d) Arabinose
Q.8- A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-
a) Xylose
b) Xylulose
c) Lyxose
d) Aldose
Q.9- d -Glucose and l- Glucose are-
a)Stereo isomers
b)Anomers
c) Keto- Aldose Isomers
d) Optical isomers
Q.10- All the following tests are positive for Lactose except-
a) Benedict
b) Barfoed
c) Molisch
d) Osazone
Q.11- Glucose can have — isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-
a) 4
b) 2
c) 12
d) 16
Q.12- Fructose and Ribulose are-
a) Epimers
b) Anomers
c) Ketoses
d) Ketose- Aldose isomers
Q.13- The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around one
carbon atom are called-
a) Optical isomers
b) Anomers
c) Stereo isomers
d) Epimers
Q.14- What does the following equation represent?
α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5 ο → +19 ο β- D glucose
a) Stereoisomerism
b) Optical isomerism
c) Mutarotation
d) Epimerization
Q.15- The carbohydrate of honey is
a) Fucose
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Fructose
Q.16- Mannonic acid is a-
a) Sugar acid
b) Deoxy sugar
c) Amino sugar
d) Sugar alcohol
Q.17- Which of the following is not a monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms?
a) Arabinose
b) Trehalose
c) Xylulose
d) Ribulose
Q.18- Which of the following gives a brown color on reaction with iodine?
a) Starch
b) Glycogen
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose
Q.19-Invert sugar is-
a) Starch
b) Fructose
c) Glucose
d) Hydrolytic product of Sucrose
Q.20- Which out of the following is a structural homopolysaccharide?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Chitin
c) Inulin
d) Starch
Key to Answers
1) -a, 2)-c, 3)-b, 4)-a, 5) -d, 6)- d, 7)- b, 8)-c, 9)-d, 10)- b,11) -d, 12)-c, 13)-d, 14)- c,15)-d, 16)-a,17)-b,
18)- b, 19)- d, 20)- b.
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Posted in Chemistry of Carbohydrates, Multiple Choice Questions
Chemistry of Carbohydrates- Multiple choice questions-
Revision- Set-1
Published May 31, 2014 | By Dr. Namrata Chhabra
Q.1- Which of the following is a non reducing disaccharide?
a) Galactose
b) Maltose
c) Trehalose
d) Sucrose
Q.2- Which of the following is a true statement about glucose?
a) It cannot be utilized by red blood cells
b) It has 4 asymmetric carbon atoms
c) It is stored as starch in animals
d) It is oxidized to form glycerol
Q.3-Sucrose is composed of which of the following two sugars?
Q.4- Which of the following is not a homopolysaccharide?
a) Starch
b) Heparin
c) Glycogen
d) Cellulose
Q.5-Which out of the following is a fructosan?
a) Glycogen
b) Agar
c) Inulin
d) Cellulose
Q.6- Choose a sugar abundantly present in honey-
a) Maltose
b) Fructose
c) Ribulose
d) Lactose
Q.7- Choose an Aldo pentose-
a) Glyceraldehyde
b) Dihydroxyacetone
c) Erythrose
d) Arabinose
Q.8- Which of the following is a keto tetrose?
a) Xylose
b) Erythrulose
c) Fructose
d) Sedoheptulose
Q.9- α –D-Glucose and β-D- Glucose are-
a) Stereo isomers
b) Anomers
d) Optical isomers
Q.10- All tests are positive for Lactose except-
a) Benedict
b) Barfoed
c) Molisch
d) Osazone
Q.11- Which out of the following is a carbohydrate with 6 carbon atoms and a keto group as the
functional group?
a) Glyceraldehyde
b) Dihydroxy acetone
c) Fructose
d) Galactose
Q.12- Mucic acid and Gluconic acids are
a) Glycosides
b) Sugar acids
c) Amino sugar acids
d) Sugar alcohols
Q.13- Sorbitol and Mannitol are-
a) Optical isomers
b) Anomers
c) Stereo isomers
d) Epimers
Q.14- Which of the following tests is not based on the reaction of carbohydrates with strong
acids?
a)Molisch
b) Benedict’s
c) Bial’s
d) Seliwanoff’s
Q.15- Which out of the following does not form osazone crystals?
a)Galactose
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Sucrose
Q.16- N- Acetyl Neuraminic acid is a-
a) Sugar acid
b) Amino sugar acid
c) Amino sugar
d) Sugar alcohol
Q.17- Which of the following gives a negative reaction with Barfoed’s test
a) Glucose
b) Maltose
c) Erythrose
d) Fructose
Q.18- A polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages between glucose residues is
a) Inulin
b) Amylose
c) Agar
d) Cellulose
Q.19- Which of the following sugars is laevorotatory predominantly?
a) Starch
b) Fructose
c) Sucrose
d) Glucose
Q.20- Which of the following Mucopolysaccharides is non sulfated and most abundant in tissues?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Keratan sulphate
c) Heparin
d) Dermatan sulphate
Key to answers
1)-c, 2)-b, 3)-b, 4)-b, 5)- c, 6)-b, 7)-d, 8)-b, 9)-b, 10)-b, 11)-c,12)-b, 13)-d, 14)-b, 15)-d, 16)-b, 17)-b, 18)-
d,19)b, 20)-a .

Multiple Choice Questions- Chemistry of Carbohydrates
Published December 24, 2011 | By Dr. Namrata Chhabra
Q.1-Which of the following is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?
a) Galactose
b) Lactose
c) Maltose
d) Sucrose
Q.2- What is the molecular formula for Glucose?
a) CH3OH
b) C6H1206
c) C12H22O11
d) C6H12O5
Q.3- Maltose is composed of which two sugars?
b) Glucose and Galactose
c) Glucose and Fructose
Q.4- In which form is Glucose stored in animals?
a) Starch
b) Glycogen
c) Dextrins
d) Cellulose
Q.5-All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-
a) Glycogen
b) Inulin
c) Starch
d) Cellulose
Q.6- Choose the Aldose sugar out of the following-
a) Sucrose
b) Ribulose
c) Fructose
d) Ribose
Q.7- Choose the keto triose-
a) Glyceraldehyde
b) Erythrose
c) Dihydroxyacetone
d) Arabinose

a) Xylose
b) Lyxose
c) Xylulose
d) Aldose
Q.9- α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-
a) Epimers
b) Keto- Aldose Isomers
c) Anomers
d) Optical isomers
Q.10- All tests are negative for sucrose except-
a) Benedict
b) Seliwanoff
c) Barfoed
d) Osazone
Q.11- Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-
a) 4
b) 12
c) 8
d) 16
Q.12- Galactose and Glucose are-
a) Epimers
b) Isomers
c) Anomers
d)Ketose- Aldose isomers
a) Optical isomers
b) Stereo isomers
c) Anomers
d) Epimers
α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

a) Stereo isomerism
b) Mutarotation
c) Optical isomerism
d) Epimerization
Q.15- The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-
a) Fucose
b) Xylose
c) Lyxose
d) Fructose
Q.16- Dulcitol is a –
a) Sugar acid
b) Amino sugar
c) Deoxysugars
d) Sugar alcohol
Q.17- Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-
a) Arabinose
b) Erythrose
c) Trehalose
d) Ribulose
Q.18- A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-
a) Starch
b) Dextrin
c) Glycogen
d) Cellulose
a) Starch
b) Glucose
c) Fructose
Q.20- The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Chondrosamine
Q,21- Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?
a) Inulin
b)Dextrin
c) Cellulose
d) Glycogen
Q.22- A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-
a) Sucrose
b) Lactose
c) Maltose
d) Trehalose
Q.23-The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-
a) Glucopyranose
b) Glucoside
c) Glucofuranose
d) Glucosamine
Q.24- Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?
a) Benedict
b) Molisch
c) Seliwanoff
d) Osazone
Q.25- Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?
a) C3 H7O2N
b) C13H26O2
c) C6H12O6
d) C20H40O2
Q.26- Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?
a) Ribose
b) Fructose
c) Glucose
d) Glyceraldehyde
Q.27-Which of following is an anomeric pair?
a) D-glucose and L-glucose
b) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose
c) D-glucose and D-fructose
d) α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose
Q.28- Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?
a) Glucuronate
b) Gluconate
c) Glucose
d) Muramic acid
Q.29- From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:
a) The glucose residue is the β anomer.
b) The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.
c) C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
d) The compound is in its furanose form
Q.30- The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:
a) A purine nucleotide.
b) A pyrimidine nucleotide.
c) Adenosine.
d) AMP
Key to answers
1)-a, 2)-b, 3)-a, 4)-b, 5)-b, 6)-d, 7)-c, 8)-b, 9)-c, 10)-b, 11)-d, 12)-a, 13)-d, 14)-b, 15)-a,
16)-d, 17)-c, 18)-d, 19)-d, 20)-c, 21)-a, 22)-c, 23)-a, 24)-c, 25)-c, 26)-b, 27)-b, 28)-c,
29)-c, 30)-c

1- A 64 year-old man who develops acute renal failure while recovering from a severe acute
myocardial infarction (Acute MI), Blood chemistry reveals:
Na+ 140 mEq/L, K+ 4 mEq/L, Cl– 115 mEq/L, CO2 5 mEq/L, pH = 7.12, PaCO2 13 mmHg, and HCO3– 4
mEq/L. Calculate the anion gap and then choose the best answer for acid-base status.
A) His anion gap of 14 indicates he has metabolic alkalosis
B) His anion gap of 20 is conclusive of a respiratory acidosis.
C) His anion gap of 22 strongly suggests a respiratory alkalosis

D) His anion gap of 21 is conclusive of high anion gap metabolic acidosis
E) His anion gap of 25 is conclusive of normal acid base status.
Q.2- A 48-year-old man with bronchiectasis presents to the hospital emergency room with 3 days
of increasing cough, sputum, and dyspnea. About 1 month ago, his arterial blood gas analysis
showed pH 7.38, PaO2 55 mmHg, PaCO2 65 mmHg, and HCO3– 32 mEq/L. His current vital signs are
BP 117/65 mmHg, Pulse 123/min, Temperature 100°F. His current ABG(Blood gas analysis) in the
Emergency Room is pH 7.28, PaCO2 70 mmHg, PaO2 50 mmHg, and HCO3– 23 mEq/L. Which of the
following best characterizes the current acid-base status?
A) Compensated metabolic acidosis
B) Compensated metabolic alkalosis
C) Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
D) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
E) Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Q.3- A hospital patient with AIDS has diarrhea and becomes hypovolemic within a short period of
time. Which of the following laboratory results would best fit this clinical history?
A) pH: 7.15, pCO2: 55 mmHg, HCO3: 40 mEq/L
B) pH: 7.25, pCO2: 36 mmHg, HCO3: 15 mEq/L
C) pH: 7.40, pCO2: 40 mmHg, HCO3: 24 mEq/L
D) pH: 7.50, pCO2: 28 mmHg, HCO3: 24 mEq/L
E) pH: 7.35, pCO2: 40 mmHg, HCO3: 24 mEq/L.
Q.4- A 50-year-old chronic alcoholic is brought to the emergency room in a semiconscious state.
Blood pressure is 100/50 mmHg, heart rate 120 beats/min, respiratory rate 35/min, and his
temperature is 104F (40C).
Blood chemistry reveals : Sodium 150mEq/L (135-145), Potassium 2.5mEq/L (3.5-5.0), Chloride
107mEq/L (95-105),Bicarbonate 10mEq/L (24-26), pH 7.2 (7.35-7.45), PCO2 25mmHg (35-45),
Alcohol 40mmol/L (0), Osmolality 370mOsm/L (280-295), Glucose 50mg/dl (60-110) BUN 40mg/dl
(5-22). What is the acid-base status?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic Alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
E) Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Q.5-All of the following statements are correct about potassium balance, except:
A) Most of potassium is intracellular.
B) Three quarter of the total body potassium is found in skeletal muscle.
C) Intracellular potassium is released into extra-cellular space in response to severe injury.

D) Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment.
E) Aldosterone promotes excretion of potassium and reabsorption of sodium.
Q.6- Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by all except:
A) Cholera
B) Starvation
C) Ethylene glycol poisoning.
D) Lactic acidosis
E) Methanol poisoning.
Q.7- Which of the following is more appropriate for a 17-year-old Female suffering from IDDM with
the following blood chemistry report:
pH: 7.2, PO2 : 108 mm Hg, PCO2 : 12 mmHg and HCO3– : 5 meq/L
A) Metabolic Acidosis with respiratory alkalosis
B) Respiratory Acidosis
C) Metabolic Alkalosis
E) Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory alkalosis
Q.8- A middle-aged person collapsed on the road side and was brought to emergency, Blood
chemistry revealed the following:
pH- 7.51, PCO2– 35 mm Hg, PO2- 62mm Hg and HCO3–-27 meq/L.
Which of the following is the most appropriate acid base imbalance in the above said condition?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory acidosis
C) Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation
D) Respiratory acidosis
E) Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory alkalosis.
Q.9- A 24 –year female reported to the emergency with difficulty in breathing. History revealed that
she had ingested some unknown drug. The blood chemistry revealed the following:
PH-7.1; PCO2– 55 mm Hg; PO2-42 mm Hg and HCO3—17 meq/L
Which of the following is the most appropriate acid base imbalance in the above said condition?
A) Metabolic acidosis with respiratory acidosis
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Respiratory Alkalosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
E) None of the above.
Q.10- Which of the following is incorrect about minimum excretory volume?
A) The exact quantity depends on the concentrating power of the kidney
B) The exact quantity depends on the quantity of the solute load
C) The urinary volume is approximately 500 to 600 ml in 24 hrs
D) It is the minimum volume of urine excreted to eliminate the “waste products” of metabolism.
E) It is the amount of urine excreted per day in normal health.
Q.11- The anion gap is calculated as follows:
A) [K+] + [HCO3– + Cl–]
B) [Na+] + [Cl– + HCO3–]

C) [Na+] – [HCO3– + Cl–]
D) [Na+] + [K+]-[Cl- + HCO3–]
Q.12- ADH release is stimulated by any of the following except:
A) Increased serum osmolality
B) Increased blood volume
C) Decreased Blood pressure
D) Stress
E) Hyponatremia
Q.13- Which of the following is not a cause of pure salt depletion?
A) In mental patients who refuse to drink
B) Excessive sweating
C) Renal failure
D) Mineralocorticoid deficiency
E) Chronic diarrhea
Q.14- Hypokalemia is serum K concentration < 3.5 mEq/L and is caused by:
A) Renal losses
B) GI losses
C) Diuretics
D) Insulin administration
E) All of the above.
Q.15- – Hyponatremia is decrease in serum Na concentration < 136 mEq/L and is caused by :
A) Diuretic use
B) Crush injuries
C) Hemolysis
D) High fever
Q.16- Serum sodium concentration is regulated by:
A) Stimulation of thirst,
B) Secretion of ADH,
C) Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system,
D) Variations in renal handling of filtered sodium
Q.17- Factors that shift Potassium in or out of cells include the following:
A) Blood glucose concentration
B) Blood volume
C) Acid-base status
D) Serum Sodium concentration
Q.18- Which of the following is not a cause of hyperkalemia?
A) Acute renal failure
B) Trauma
C) Metabolic acidosis
E) Intake of bananas.
Q.19- The Henderson-Hassel Balch equation is represented as-
A) pH = pKa + log (A–/HA)
B) pH = pKa + log (HA/A–)
C) pH = pKa – log(A–/HA)
D) pH = pKa – log(HA/A–)
E) pH = pKa + log(H+/HA)
Q.20- All are true for renal handling of acids in metabolic alkalosis except
A) Hydrogen ion secretion is decreased
B) Bicarbonate reabsorption is decreased

C) Urinary acidity is decreased
D) Urinary ammonia is decreased
E) Renal Glutaminase activity is increased.
Key to answers
1)- D, 2)- D, 3)-B, 4)- E, 5)-D, 6)-A, 7)- A, 8)-E, 9)-A, 10)-E, 11)-C, 12)- B, 13)-A,14)-E, 15)- A, 16)- E, 17)-
E, 18)- D, 19)- A, 20)-E.

Posted in Acid Base Balance, Multiple Choice Questions, Multiple choice questions, Water and
Electrolyte balance and Imbalance
Acid base balance and Imbalance, Water and electrolyte balance
and detoxification-Multiple choice questions
Published October 28, 2014 | By Dr. Namrata Chhabra
Q. 1- What is the normal physiological concentration of Hydrogen ion in body fluids?
A) 40 nEq/L
B) 24 mEq/L
C) 400 mEq/L
D) 7.4 nEq/L
E) 100 mEq/L
Q.2- Which of the following is not a source of hydrogen ion in the body?
A) Ingestion of Citrus fruits
B) High protein diet
C) Ingestion of red meat
D) Starvation
E) Chronic alcohol consumption
Q.3- Which of the following is the most important chemical buffer of the plasma?
A) HCO3 –/H2 CO3
B) HPO42―/H2PO4―
C) Organic Phosphate Esters
D) Proteins
E) Hemoglobin
Q.4- A primigravida in labor is breathing rapidly, what you expect out of the following
A) Metabolic Acidosis
C) Respiratory Acidosis
D) Respiratory Alkalosis
E) Any of the above.
Q.5- The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation is represented as-
A) pH = pK + log (A–/HA)
B) pH = pK + log (HA/A–)
C) pH = pK – log(A–/HA)
D) pH = pK – log(HA/A–)
E) pH = pK + log(H+/HA)
Q.6- Buffering effect of a buffering solution is optimum at :
A) pH ranges close to pKa± 2 pH units
B) pH = pKa ±3 pH units
C) pH = pKa ±5 pH units
D) pH = pKa
Q.7- The pH of extracellular fluid must be maintained between:
A) 6 to 7.4
B) 7 to 7.2
C) 7.35 to 7.45
D) 7.5 to 8
E) 8 to 8.5
Q.8- All are true for renal handling of acids in metabolic acidosis except
A) Hydrogen ion secretion is increased
B) Bicarbonate reabsorption is decreased
C) Urinary acidity is increased
D) Urinary ammonia is increased
E) Renal glutaminase activity is increased
Q.9- Which of the following is most appropriate for a female suffering from Insulin dependent
diabetes mellitus with a pH of 7.2, HCO3-17 mmol/L and pCO2-20 mm Hg?
A) High anion gap metabolic Acidosis
C) Respiratory Acidosis
D) Respiratory Alkalosis
E) Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
Q.10-A 50-year-old homeless man was brought to the emergency room in a stuporous state.
Below are his lab results, Bicarbonate 10mEq/L (24-26), pH 7.2 (7.35-7.45), PCO2 25mmHg (35-45),
Alcohol 40mmol/L (0), Osmolality 370mOsm/L (280-295), Glucose 50mg/dl (60-110) BUN 40mg/dl
(5-22). What is the acid-base status?
A) Metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
C) Respiratory acidosis and partial metabolic compensation
E) Metabolic alkalosis
Q.11- A 44-year-old man is brought to the emergency room stuporous and obtunded. Serum
chemistries are: HCO3 = 42 mEq/L; arterial pH = 7.5; PCO2 = 50mmHg. What is the acid-base
status?
A) Metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
C) Respiratory acidosis and partial metabolic compensation
E) Metabolic alkalosis
Q.12-The medical student next to you, realizing that there is an examination question on acid base
balance, begins nervously hyperventilating and then faints. You make him breathe into a paper
bag and he recovers. If you had drawn and analyzed his blood when he fainted you would have
expected to see :
A) Decreased pH, decreased pCO2
B) Decreased pH, elevated pCO2
C) Elevated pH, decreased pCO2
D) Elevated pH, elevated pCO2
E) Normal pH, normal pCO2
Q.13- All except one are examples of entoxification:
A) Conversion of methanol to formaldehyde
B) p- methyl amino benzene to p-dimethyl amino azo benzene
C) Conversion of procarcinogens to Ultimate carcinogens
D) Conversion of Aspirin to Acetic acid and Salicylic acid
E) Conversion of Ethyl alcohol to Acetaldehyde.

Q.14- In physiological jaundice of new-born, due to less availability of substrate and immature
enzyme system, there is an impaired formation of soluble, non toxic form of bilirubin which is :
A) Bilirubin Sulphate
B) Bilirubin Phosphate
C) Bilirubin diglucuronate
D) Bilirubin Acetate
E) Methylated Bilirubin
15) In phenylketonuria (a congenital disorder of phenylalanine metabolism that occurs due to

deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase), there is impaired conversion of phenylalanine to
tyrosine. The excess phenylalanine is detoxified and excreted in urine. Which of the following
conjugating agents is used for detoxification of phenylalanine?
A) Glutathione
B) Glutamine
C) S-Adenosyl Methionine
D) Active Sulfate (PAPS)
E) D- Glucuronic acid
16) Which of the following is not a cause of secondary dehydration?
A) Excessive sweating
B) Comatose patient
C) Vomiting
D) Diarrhea
E) Congestive heart failure
17) The urinary concentration of sodium chloride (NaCl) ranges between:
A) 2-6 G/litre
B) 4-8 G/litre
C) 5-10 G/litre
D) 6-16 G/litre
E) None of the above
18) The minimum excretory volume to eliminate waste products from the body in dehydration is :
A) 100-200ml
B) 200-400 ml
C) 500-600 ml
D) 1500 ml
E) 600-800 ml
19) Aldosterone acts by promoting:
A) Excretion of Potassium
B) Reabsorption of potassium
C) Reabsorption of sodium
D) Excretion of sodium
E) Reabsorption of sodium and excretion of Potassium
20) Which of the following is not a cause of hypokalemia?
A) Renal tubular acidosis
B) Cushing syndrome
C) GI losses
D) Crush injuries
E) Insulin administration
Key to answers
1)- A, 2)- A, 3)-A, 4)-D, 5)-A, 6)-A, 7)-C, 8)-B, 9)-A, 10)- B, 11)-E, 12)-C, 13)-D, 14)-C, 15)-B, 16)-B, 17)-
D, 18)-C, 19)-E, 20)-D.
Normal Acid-Base Homeostasis and Role of Lungs
Systemic arterial pH is maintained between 7.35 and 7.45 by extracellular and intracellular chemical
buffering together with respiratory and renal regulatory mechanisms. The control of arterial CO 2 tension
(paCO2) by the central nervous system and respiratory systems; and the control of the plasma
bicarbonate by the kidneys stabilize the arterial pH by excretion or retention of acid or alkali.
The metabolic (bicarbonate) and respiratory components (carbonic acid) that regulate systemic pH are
described by the Henderson-Hassel Balch equation:
pH = 6.1 + log (HCO–3/ H2 CO3)
H2 CO3 = PCO2 (mm Hg) X 0.03
Under most circumstances, CO2 production and excretion are matched, and the usual steady-state
paCO2 is maintained at 40 mm Hg. Under excretion of CO2produces hypercapnia, and over excretion
causes hypocapnia. Nevertheless, production and excretion are again matched at a new steady-state
paCO2. Therefore, the PaCO2 is regulated primarily by neural respiratory factors and is not subject to
regulation by the rate of CO2 production. Hypercapnia is usually the result of hypoventilation rather than
of increased CO2 production. Increases or decreases in paCO2 represent derangements of neural
respiratory control or are due to compensatory changes in response to a primary alteration in the plasma
[HCO3–].
In conditions of low plasma [HCO3–] due to acidity in the medium (high H+ concentration), medullary
chemo receptors are stimulated with the resultant hyperventilation and elimination of H 2CO3(CO2), the
ratio of HCO–3/ H2 CO3 is restored back to normal , pH is also restored back to normal.
Reverse occurs in conditions of high plasma bicarbonate concentration (low H +), the medullary chemo
receptors are depressed with the resultant hypoventilation and retention of CO2 (H2CO3). The ratio is
restored, bringing pH also back to normal.
Effect of pCO2
↑pCO2 → ↑Ventilation →Eliminates CO2 → Reduces [H+] and ↑pH
↓pCO2 → ↓Ventilation → ↑CO2 → ↑ [H+] & ↓ pH
Doubling the ventilation → ↑pH
¼ of normal ventilation → ↓ pH
Effect of [H+]
– ↑ [H+] → ↑Alveolar Ventilation →↓CO2
– ↓pH (from 7.4-7.0) → ↑Alveolar Ventilation by 4 times normal.
– ↑pH → ↓Alveolar Ventilation
Respiratory Mechanism has effectiveness between 50-75% and is 1-2 times as great as the buffering
power of all other chemical buffers in ECF. The lungs should be healthy for these compensatory changes.
Role of Kidney in maintaining acid base homeostasis
Acids are added daily to the body fluids. These acids first are buffered by the HCO 3 –/H2 CO3 system as
follows:
H2 SO4 + 2NaHCO3 «Na2 SO4 + 2H2 CO3 «2H2O +2 CO2
The net result is buffering of a strong acid (H2 SO4) by 2 molecules of HCO3 – and production of a weak
acid (H2 CO3), which minimizes the change in pH. The lungs excrete the CO 2 produced, and the kidneys
replace the consumed HCO3 –, to prevent progressive HCO3 – loss and metabolic acidosis, (principally by
H+secretion in the collecting duct).
To maintain normal pH, the kidneys must perform 2 physiological functions.
The first is to reabsorb all the filtered HCO3 – (any loss of HCO3 – is equal to the addition of an equimolar
amount of H+), a function principally of the proximal tubule.
The second is to excrete the daily H+ load (loss of H+ is equal to addition of an equimolar amount of
HCO3 –), a function of the collecting duct.
HCO3 – re-absorption
With a serum HCO3 – concentration of 24 mEq/L, the daily glomerular ultra filtrate of 180 L, in a healthy
subject, contains 4300 mEq of HCO3 –, all of which has to be reabsorbed. Approximately 90% of the
filtered HCO3 – is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule, and the remainder is reabsorbed in the thick
ascending limb and the medullary collecting duct (figure-1).
The 3Na+ -2K+ «ATPase (sodium-potassium «adenosine triphosphatase) provides the energy for this
process, which maintains a low intracellular Na+concentration and a relative negative intracellular
potential. The low Na+ concentration indirectly provides energy for the apical Na+/H+ exchanger, which
transports H+ into the tubular lumen. H+ in the tubular lumen combines with filtered HCO3 – in the following
reaction:
HCO3 – + H+ « H2 CO3 « H2 O + CO2
Carbonic Anhydrase (CA IV isoform) present in the brush border of the first 2 segments of the proximal
tubule accelerates the dissociation of H2 CO3 into H2O + CO2, which shifts the reaction shown above to
the right and keeps the luminal concentration of H+ low. CO2 diffuses into the proximal tubular cell
perhaps via the aquaporin-1 water channel, where carbonic anhydrase (CA II isoform) combines CO 2 and
water to form HCO3 – and H+. The HCO3 – formed intracellularly returns to the pericellular space and then
to the circulation via the basolateral Na+/3HCO3 – co transporter.
In essence, the filtered HCO3 – is converted to CO2 in the lumen, which diffuses into the proximal tubular
cell and is then converted back to HCO3 – to be returned to the systemic circulation, thus reclaiming the
filtered HCO3 –
Figure-1- Re-absorption of HCO3–
Acid excretion
Excretion of the daily acid load (50-100 mEq of H+) occurs principally through H+ secretion by the apical
H+ «ATPase in A-type intercalated cells of the collecting duct.
HCO3 – formed intracellularly is returned to the systemic circulation via the basolateral Cl –/HCO3 –
exchanger, and H+ enters the tubular lumen via 1 of 2 apical proton pumps, H+ «ATPase or H+ -
K+ «ATPase. The secretion of H+ in these segments is influenced by Na+ reabsorption in the adjacent
principal cells of the collecting duct. Hydrogen ions secreted by the kidneys can be excreted as free ions
but, at the lowest achievable urine pH of 5.0 (equal to free H+ concentration of 10 µEq/L), would require
excretion of 5000-10,000 L of urine a day. Urine pH cannot be lowered much below 5.0 because the
gradient against which H+«ATPase has to pump protons (intracellular pH 7.5 to luminal pH 5) becomes
too steep. Maximally acidified urine, even with a volume of 3 L, would thus contain a mere 30 µEq of free
H+. Instead, more than 99.9% of the H+ load is excreted buffered by the weak bases NH3 or phosphate.
Titratable acidity
The amount of secreted H+ that is buffered by filtered weak acids is called titratable acidity. Phosphate as
HPO4 2- is the main buffer in this system(figure-2) but other urine buffers include uric acid and creatinine.
H2 PO4 «H+ + HPO4 2-
The amount of phosphate filtered is limited and relatively fixed, and only a fraction of the secreted H + can
be buffered by HPO4 2-.
Figure-2- showing the buffering of secreted H+ by HPO4–
Ammonia mechanism
A more important urine-buffering system for secreted H+ than phosphate, ammonia (NH3) buffering occurs
via the following reaction:
NH3 + H+ «NH4 +
Ammonia is produced in the proximal tubule from the amino acid glutamine, and this reaction is enhanced
by an acid load and by hypokalemia. Ammonia is converted to ammonium (NH 4 +) by intracellular H+ and
is secreted into the proximal tubular lumen by the apical Na+/H+ (NH4 +) antiporter. It can be secreted as
such also and can later combine with H+ in the lumen to form NH4+.
NH4 + is trapped in the lumen and excreted as the Cl salt, and every H + ion buffered is an HCO3 – gained
to the systemic circulation (figure-3)
The kidneys can adjust the amount of NH3 synthesized to meet demand, making this a powerful system
to buffer secreted H+ in the urine.
Figure –3- showing ammonia mechanism. Glutamine is first converted to glutamate and then to alpha
keto glutarate
Renal glutaminase activity is increased in conditions of acidosis, to excrete out the excess acid load
whereas it is decreased in conditions of alkalosis to conserve acids (H+) to maintain the acid base
balance of the body.

Posted in Acid Base Balance, Theory Notes
Acid base balance- Lecture-1
Published February 17, 2014 | By Dr. Namrata Chhabra
An acid is a substance that can donate hydrogen ions (H+), and a base is a substance that can accept
H+ ions, regardless of the substance’s charge.
H2 CO3 (acid) « H+ + HCO3 – (base)
Strong acids are those that are completely ionized in body fluids, and weak acids are those that are
incompletely ionized in body fluids.
HCl « H+ + Cl–
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is considered a strong acid because it is present only in a completely ionized form
in the body, whereas H2 CO3 is a weak acid because it is ionized incompletely, and, at equilibrium, all 3
reactants are present in body fluids.
H2 CO3 (acid) « H+ + HCO3 – (base)
In body fluids, the concentration of hydrogen ions ([H+]) is maintained within very narrow limits, with the
normal physiologic concentration being 40nEq/L. The concentration of HCO 3– (24mEq/L) is 600,000 times
that of [H+]. The tight regulation of [H+] at this low concentration is crucial for normal cellular activities.
Significance of pH
1) Specific tautomeric forms exist at physiologic pH. This helps in proper hydrogen bonding between the
complementary base pairs in the structure of DNA.
2) The solubility and biologic activity of a protein depends upon its 3D structure and that depends upon
net charge on protein for the maintenance of hydrogen and ionic interactions. The net charge depends
upon the pH of the medium.
3) The movement of ions across the membrane depends upon their net charge as determined by the pH.
4) Ionic state of the nucleic acids, lipids and mucopolysaccharides is also determined by the physiological
pH
5) All enzymes function best within an optimum pH range.
6) Nerve conduction and muscle contractions are also pH dependent
7) All metabolic processes are pH dependent.
8) Oxygen and CO2 transport, release or gaseous exchange is pH dependent.
Maintenance of pH is important for proper physiological functioning of cells and tissues. Any changes in
pH can alter enzyme activity, cellular uptake, incorporation and use of minerals and metabolites, uptake
and release of oxygen, and the formation of biological structural components.
Normal plasma pH = 7.40 (±0.05). The pH range that is compatible with life is from 6.8 to 7.8. The body
can comfortably tolerate a shift in pH of about 0.04. Most cells of the body have a pH = 7.0, but RBC’s
boast a pH of 7.2. The pH of the body affects its acid-base balance and the pH of blood has the greatest
effect.
Sources for pH disturbances
1) Organic acids- The most common sources for pH disturbances are the body’s production of organic
acids (acetic, acetoacetate, propionic, butyric, lactic, etc.), which are the major sources of hydrogen ion.
2) Carbonic acid is the chief acid (volatile acid) produced in the body by the metabolic processes in the
body. Approximately 300 litres of CO2 are produced and eliminated daily in the body of an adult.
3) Sulphuric acid- it is produced during the oxidation of sulphur-containing amino acids and vitamins.
4) Phosphoric acid- is produced from the metabolism of dietary phosphoproteins, phospholipids, nucleic
acids and hydrolysis of phosphoesters.
Mechanism of maintenance of Physiological pH
Under normal conditions, acids and, to a lesser extent, bases are being added constantly to the
extracellular fluid compartment but still a physiologic [H+] of 40 nEq/L is maintained and the following 3
processes must take place:
 Buffering by extracellular and intracellular buffers

 Alveolar ventilation, which controls PaCO2
 Renal H+ excretion, which controls plasma [HCO3 –]
Buffers
Buffers are weak acids or bases that are able to minimize changes in pH by taking up or releasing H +.
Phosphate is an example of an effective buffer, as in the following reaction:
HPO4 2- + (H+) « H2 PO4 –

Upon addition of an H+ to extracellular fluids, the monohydrogen phosphate binds H+ to form dihydrogen
phosphate, minimizing the change in pH. Similarly, when [H+] is decreased, the reaction is shifted to the
left. Thus, buffers work as a first-line of defense to blunt the changes in pH that would otherwise result
from the constant daily addition of acids and bases to body fluids. With the constant pouring in of H+, the
concentration of the monohydrogen phosphate will ultimately diminish and the pH will start falling.
The major Buffer system of the body
(1) HCO3 –/H2 CO3 buffering system HCO3¯/CO2 (bicarbonate/carbon dioxide)
(2) HPO42―/H2PO4― (phosphate),
(3) Organic Phosphate Esters, and
(4) Proteins.
Proteins with side chains that contain more carboxyl terminal groups than amino terminal groups promote
an acidic environment. Proteins with side chains that contain more amino terminal groups than carboxyl
terminal groups promote an alkaline environment. Protein with side chains containing equal numbers of
amino and carboxyl side groups are neutral, not affecting the pH.
Details of Buffers
(1) HCO3 –/H2 CO3 buffering system
In the ECF bicarbonate buffer is the most important buffer. Its function is illustrated by the following
reactions:
H2 O + CO2 «H2 CO3 « H+ + HCO3 –
When an acid load (H+) is added to the body fluids, it results in consumption of HCO3 – by the added H+.
Carbonic acid thus formed, in turn, forms water and CO2. CO2 concentration is maintained within a narrow
range via the respiratory drive, which eliminates accumulating CO 2. The kidneys regenerate the HCO3 –
consumed during this reaction.
Put simply, whereas simple buffers rapidly become ineffective as the association of the hydrogen ion and
the weak anion of the weak acid reaches equilibrium, the bicarbonate system keeps working because the
carbonic acid is removed as CO2. The limit to the effectiveness of the bicarbonate system is the initial
concentration of bicarbonate. The acid base status of the patient is assessed by the bicarbonate
concentration in the plasma. The association of hydrogen ion with bicarbonate occurs rapidly but the
dissociation of H2CO3 to CO2 and H2O is slow. This process is accelerated by the enzyme Carbonic
anhydrase, which is present in the erythrocytes and in the kidney whenever this reaction is needed.
Buffering at the expense of bicarbonate effectively removes hydrogen ions from ECF. CO 2 is removed
from the lungs and water assimilates in the ECF without producing any change in p H. The ECF contains
a large amount of bicarbonate to the extent of 24 mmol/L, when the H+ concentration increases the
bicarbonate concentration comes down since it is used up during the process of buffering.
This reaction continues to move to the left as long as CO 2 is constantly eliminated or until HCO3 – is
significantly depleted, making less HCO3 – available to bind H+. Since HCO3 – and PaCO2 can be
managed independently (kidneys and lungs, respectively) that makes this a very effective buffering
system. One of the major factors that make this system very effective is the ability to control PaCO 2 by
changes in ventilation. As can be noted from this reaction, increased carbon dioxide (CO 2) concentration
drives the reaction to the right, whereas a decrease in CO 2 concentration drives it to the left.
Assessing acid base status
An indication of the acid base status of the patient can be determined by measuring the components of
the bicarbonate system.
The Henderson-Hassel Balch equation describes the relationship between blood pH and the components
of the H2 CO3 buffering system.
pH = 6.1 + log (HCO–3/ H2 CO3)
Bicarbonate (HCO3–) is in equilibrium with the metabolic components.
 Bicarbonate production in the kidney

 Acid production from endogenous or exogenous sources
Carbonic acid (H2 CO3) is in equilibrium with the respiratory component, as shown by the below equation:
H2 CO3 = PCO2 (mm Hg) X 0.03
Note that changes in pH or [H+] are a result of relative changes in the ratio of PaCO 2 to [HCO3 –] rather
than to absolute change in either one. In other words, if both PaCO 2 and [HCO3 –] change in the same
direction, the ratio stays the same and the pH or [H+] remains relatively stable. To diminish the alteration
in pH that occurs when either HCO3 – or PaCO2 changes, the body, within certain limits, changes the
other variable in the same direction.
2) Phosphate buffer system (Na2HPO4/NaH2PO4)
The phosphate buffer system is directly linked up with kidney.
Upon addition of acid, the H+ is neutralized by the Na2 HPO4 component forming NaH2PO4 that is
eliminated through the kidney without any change in pH.
Na2 HPO4 + HCl–>> NaH2PO4 + NaCl
Similarly upon addition of OH–, the acid component reacts to form, Na2 HPO4 that can be eliminated as
well through the kidney without any change in pH
NaH2PO4 + Na OH—>> Na2 HPO4 + H2O
In other words Phosphate buffer system works in conjunction with the kidney.
Chemically it is a very good buffer, as pKa is close to Physiological pH, but physiologically due to its less
concentration (1.0 mmol/L as compared to bicarbonate 26-28 mmol/L) it is less efficient.
3) Role of Haemoglobin as a buffer
The buffering capacity of Hb is due to the presence of “Imidazole” nitrogen group of Histidine.
Oxygenated Hb is a stronger acid than deoxygenated Hb. Acidity of the medium favors delivery of oxygen
to the tissues. Alkalinity of the medium favors oxygenation of Hb. Sequence of events that occur in lungs
and tissues is as follows;
 In the lungs
The formation of oxy hemoglobin from deoxy hemoglobin, must release H+, which will react with HCO3– to
form H2CO3. Due to the low CO2 tension in the lungs H2CO3, dissociates to form CO2 and H2O . CO2 is
then eliminated in the expired air (Figure-1).
Figure-1- Role of Hb as a buffer in the lungs.
 In the tissues
Oxy Hb dissociates to give O2 to the tissues and the deoxy Hb (Reduced Hb) is formed. At the same time
CO2 produced as a result of metabolism, is hydrated to for H2CO3, which ionizes to form H+ and HCO3-.
Deoxy Hb acts as anion and accepts H+ to form acid reduced Hb (Figure-2)
Figure-2- Role of Hb as a buffer at the tissue level.
4) Protein buffer system
Buffering capacity of plasma proteins is much less than Hb. In acidic medium protein acts a base and
NH2 group takes up H+ forming NH3+, protein becomes positively charged.
Reverse occurs in the alkaline medium. Acidic COOH to give H+ that neutralizes the OH– forming H2O.
Overall protein becomes negatively charged in the alkaline medium.

Posted in Acid Base Balance, Theory Notes
Acid Base Imbalance- Quick revision
Primary Defect Causes Effect Compensatory Response
Disorder on pH and
Ratio of
Bicarbonat
e: Carbonic
acid
Metabolic Gain (A) High anion gap (Acid pH – Respiratory Mechanism-
Acidosis in H+ or los gain) decreased, Respiratory Alkalosis(Hyperventilat
s of HCO3- ion)
HCO3- 1) Ketoacidosis Ratio-
decreased Pa CO2 Decreased
Decreased  Diabetes
 Chronic alcoholism Renal mechanisms
 Under nutrition 1) Increased excretion of H+ ions
 Fasting
2) Decreased excretion of K+ ions
2) Lactic Acidosis in the distal tubules
 Shock 3) Decreased bicarbonate

 Primary hypoxia due to lung excretion
disorders 4)Increased ammonia formation
 Seizures
5) Increased acid phosphate
3) Renal Failure excretion
4) Toxins Metabolized to
acids
 Alcohol
 Methanol (formate)
 Ethylene glycol (oxalate)
 Salicylates
B) Normal Anion Gap-

Acidosis(Bicarbonate loss-
Hyperchloremic acidosis)
1) GI HCO3 – loss
 Colostomy
 Diarrhea
 Enteric fistulas
 Ileostomy
2)Urologic procedures
3) Renal HCO3 – loss
 Tubulointerstitial renal
disease
 Renal tubular acidosis
4) Ingestions
 Acetazolamide
 CaCl2
 Mg sulfate (MgSO4)
Metabolic Gain in Chloride-responsive pH Respiratory Mechanism-

Alkalosis HCO3-or alkalosis increased,
loss of H+  Loss of gastric secretions – Respiratory
HCO3- Ratio Acidosis(Hypoventilation)
Vomiting, NG suction
Increased increased
 Loss of colonic secretions PaCO2 Increased.
 Thiazides and loop diuretics
(after discontinuation) Renal Mechanism
 Cystic fibrosis( Due to loss 1) Decreased excretion of H+ ions
of chloride in the sweat)
 Ingestion of large doses of 2) Increased excretion of K+ ions
nonabsorbable antacids in the distal tubules
Chloride-resistant alkalosis 3) Increased bicarbonate excretion
 Primary hyperaldosteronism 4) Decreased ammonia formation

 Cushing syndrome 5) Decreased acid Phosphate
 Exogenous excretion
mineralocorticoids or
glucocorticoids
 Reno vascular hypertension
 Renin- or deoxy
corticosterone-secreting
tumors
 Current use of thiazides and
loop diuretics
 Hypomagnesaemia(Through
Hypokalemia)
 Milk Alkali Syndrome
Respirator CO2 A) Central pH- Metabolic Alkalosis

y Acidosis Retention  Drugs- Sedatives, Alcohol, decreased,
HCO3-Increased.
General Anesthetic agents
PaCO2 Ratio-
 Infections decreased Renal mechanisms 1) Increased
Increased  Injuries- head trauma excretion
 Diseases- Intracranial of H+ ions
tumor
 Syndromes of sleep- 2) Decreased bicarbonate
disordered breathing, excretion
including the primary
alveolar and obesity- 3) Increased ammonia formation
hypoventilation syndromes.
4) Increased acid phosphate
B)Airway obstruction excretion
 Severe asthma,
 Anaphylaxis
 Inhalational burn
 Toxic injury
 Laryngeal obstruction
 End-stage obstructive lung
disease.
C) Parenchymatous damage
/Inflammation
 Emphysema
 Bronchitis
 Adult Respiratory distress
syndrome
 Pleurisy
 Barotrauma
D) Neuromuscular
 Poliomyelitis
 Kyphoscoliosis
 Myasthenia gravis
 Muscular dystrophies
E) Misc.
 Certain congenital heart

diseases
 Mechanical ventilation
 Rebreathing from a closed
space
Respirator CO2 A) Central nervous system pH – Metabolic Acidosis

y Washout  Pain Increased,
Alkalosis HCO3-Decreased
 Hyperventilation syndrome Ratio-
PaCO2  Anxiety Increased Renal Mechanism
Decreased  Psychosis 1)Decreased excretion of H+ ions
 Fever
 Cerebrovascular accident 2)Increased bicarbonate excretion
 Meningitis 3)Decreased ammonia formation
 Encephalitis
4)Decreased phosphate excretion
 Tumor
 Trauma
 Hypoxia
o High altitude
o Severe anemia
o Right-to-left shunts
 Drugs
o Progesterone
o Methylxanthines
o Salicylates
o Catecholamines
o Nicotine
 Endocrine
o Pregnancy
o Hyperthyroidism
 Pulmonary
o Pneumothorax/hemothor
ax
o Pneumonia
o Pulmonary edema
o Pulmonary embolism
o Aspiration
o Interstitial lung disease
o Asthma
o Emphysema
o Chronic bronchitis
 Miscellaneous
o Sepsis
o Hepatic failure
o Mechanical ventilation
o Heat exhaustion
o Recovery phase of
metabolic acidosis
o Congestive heart failure
A person was admitted in a coma. Analysis of the arterial blood gave the following values:
PCO2 16 mm Hg, HCO3– 5 mmol/l and pH 7.1. What is the underlying acid-base disorder?
a) Metabolic Acidosis
b) Metabolic Alkalosis
c) Respiratory Acidosis
d) Respiratory Alkalosis
Q.2- In a man undergoing surgery, it was necessary to aspirate the contents of the upper
gastrointestinal tract. After surgery, the following values were obtained from an arterial
blood sample: pH 7.55, PCO2 52 mm Hg and HCO3– 40 mmol/l. What is the underlying
disorder?
Q.3- A young woman is found comatose, having taken an unknown number of sleeping
pills an unknown time before. An arterial blood sample yields the following values: pH –
6.90, HCO3– 13 meq/liter, PaCO2 68 mmHg. This patient’s acid-base status is most
accurately described as
a) Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
b) uncompensated respiratory acidosis
c) simultaneous respiratory and metabolic acidosis
d) respiratory acidosis with partial renal compensation
Q.4- A student is nervous for a big exam and is breathing rapidly, what do you expect out
of the following
Q.5- A 45- year-old female with renal failure, missed her dialysis and was feeling sick,
what could be the reason ?
Q.6- An 80-year-old man had a bad cold. After two weeks he said, “It went in to my chest, I
am feeling tightness in my chest, I am coughing, suffocated and unable to breathe!” What
could be the possible reason?
Q.7- A post operative surgical patient had a naso gastric tube in for three days. The nurse
caring for the patient stated that there was much drainage from the tube that is why she
felt so sick. What could be the reason?
Q.8- The p H of the body fluids is stabilized by buffer systems. Which of the following
compounds is the most effective buffer system at physiological pH ?
a) Bicarbonate buffer
b) Phosphate buffer
c) Protein buffer
d) All of the above
Q.9- Which of the following laboratory results below indicates compensated metabolic
alkalosis?
a) Low p CO2, normal bicarbonate and, high pH
b) Low p CO2, low bicarbonate, low pH
c) High p CO2, normal bicarbonate and, low p H
d) High pCO2, high bicarbonate and High pH
Q.10- The greatest buffering capacity at physiological p H would be provided by a protein

rich in which of the following amino acids?
a) Lysine
b) Histidine
c) Aspartic acid
d) Leucine
Q.11- Which of the following is most appropriate for a female suffering from Insulin
dependent diabetes mellitus with a pH of 7.2, HCO3-17 mmol/L and pCO2-20 mm HG
Q.12- Causes of metabolic alkalosis include all the following except.
a) Mineralocorticoid deficiency.
b) Hypokalemia
c) Thiazide diuretic therapy.
d) Recurrent vomiting.
Q.13- Renal Glutaminase activity is increased in-

a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Respiratory Acidosis
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
Q.14- Causes of lactic acidosis include all except-
a) Acute Myocardial infarction
b) Hypoxia
c) Circulatory failure
d) Infections
Q.15- Which out of the following conditions will not cause respiratory alkalosis?
a) Fever
b) Anxiety
c) Laryngeal obstruction
d) Salicylate toxicity
Q.16- All are true about metabolic alkalosis except one-
a) Associated with hyperkalemia
b) Associated with decreased ionic calcium concentration
c) Can be caused due to Primary hyperaldosteronism
d) Can be caused due to Renin secreting tumor
Q.17- Choose the incorrect statement out of the following
a) Deoxy hemoglobin is a weak base
b) Oxyhemoglobin is a relatively strong acid
c) The buffering capacity of hemoglobin is lesser than plasma protein
d) The buffering capacity of Hemoglobin is due to histidine residues.
Q.18- Carbonic anhydrase is present at all places except-
a) Gastric parietal cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Renal tubular cells
d) Plasma
Q.19- All are true for renal handling of acids in metabolic acidosis except
a) Hydrogen ion secretion is increased

b) Bicarbonate reabsorption is decreased
c) Urinary acidity is increased
d) Urinary ammonia is increased.
Q.20- Choose the incorrect statement about anion gap out of the following
a) In lactic acidosis anion gap is increased
b) Anion gap is decreased in Hypercalcemia
c) Anion gap is decreased in Lithium toxicity
d) Anion gap is decreased in ketoacidosis.
Q.21- Excessive citrate in transfused blood can cause which of the following
abnormalities?
a) Metabolic alkalosis
b) Metabolic acidosis
c) Respiratory alkalosis
d) Respiratory acidosis
Answers- 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-a, 6-c, 7-b, 8-a, 9-d, 10-b, 11-a, 12-a, 13-c, 14-d, 15-c, 16-a, 17-c,
18-d, 19-b, 20-d, 21-a.

Posted in Acid Base Balance, Multiple Choice Questions
Subjective Questions – Acid Base Balance and Imbalance
Published March 18, 2012 | By Dr. Namrata Chhabra
Q.1- Explain clearly how hyperventilation and hypoventilation affect blood p H ? Give suitable
examples in support of your answer.
Q.2- Explain the role of hemoglobin as a buffer in the maintenance of acid base balance in the
body.
Q.3-The maintenance of intracellular pH within narrow limits is essential for life processes.
Briefly discuss why this is so and describe the mechanism by which the human body maintains
a relatively constant pH despite continuous acid production from cellular metabolism.
Q.4- Name 3 physiological buffer systems, and explain the mode of action of any one of them.
Q.5-A person was brought to the hospital after ingesting a large amount of ammonium
chloride. His arterial blood pH was found to be 7.29. Calculate the ratio of [HC0 3] to [dissolved
CO2] in the blood.
Dissolved CO2 + H20  H2CO3  H+ + HCO3– (pKa = 6.1) How might changes in the pulmonary
ventilation help to minimize the fall in pH?
Q.6- Discuss the role of kidneys in the maintenance of acid base balance of the body. Support
your answer with flow charts showing the details of the mechanisms.
Q.7- What is anion gap? State all the conditions of variations of anion gap in the body?
Q.8- Calculate the anion gap for a patient who has reported to emergency in a state of shock
with following blood reports
p H- 7.2
Pco2- 45 mm Hg
HCO3—12 meq/L
Serum Na + 135 meq/L
Cl – – -85 meq/L
1- Choose the incorrect statement out of the following for human immune deficiency virus
a) The reverse transcriptase enzyme is characteristic feature of retroviruses
b) p10 is a protease that cleaves gag precursor
c) p32 is an Integrase
d) gag encodes for the lipid bilayer of the virus.
Q.2- The specific binding of HIV to the CD 4 surface molecules of the host cell membrane
is brought about by-
a) gp 120
b) gp 41
c) p32
d) p55
Q.3- All of the following except one are CD 4 + cells.
a) Monocytes
b) T –helper cells
c) T-Cytotoxic cells
d) Macrophages
Q.4- Which immune marker is present during the window period of HIV infection?
a) p24 antigen
b) Antibodies to gp 120
c) Antibodies to gp 41
d) p17 antigens
Q.5. Which out of the following is a preferred mode of transmission of HIV infection from
mother to child?
a) During pregnancy through placenta
b) During delivery through mixing of blood

c) Through breast milk during lactation
d) All of the above.
Q.6-Which out of the following are the high risk subjects for acquiring HIV infection?
a) Professional sex workers
b) Drug addicts
c) Persons getting repeated blood transfusions
d) All of the above
Q.7- The pol gene does not encode for which of the following enzymes?
a) Protease
b) Integrase
c) Reverse Transcriptase
d) RNA polymerase
Q.8-Which of the following best describes the role of Reverse transcriptase?
a) For the synthesis of RNA from genomic RNA
b) For the synthesis of DNA from genomic DNA
c) For the synthesis of DNA from genomic RNA
d) For the synthesis of mRNA from Host DNA.
Q.9- Choose the odd one out –
a) gag
b) tat
c) nif
d) rev
Q.10-Which statement best describes the basis for failure to produce a vaccine against HIV
a) HIV is a highly mutable virus
b) HIV Integrase its genome in to the host DNA, hence protected from immune system
c) HIV is not killed only by humoral response, cellular immunity is also required
Q.11-A gynaecologist while doing a caesarean section for an HIV positive female got
accidentally pricked by a needle. After 2 weeks of acquiring the infection the serum
sample was sent for analysis, which of the following markers might have been positive for
confirmation of diagnosis?
a) p24
b) viral RNA
c) Free virus
Q.12-An HIV positive male presented to the emergency with fever, pneumonia and oral
thrush. The attending physician described that all the presenting symptoms are due to
underlying collapsed immune system. What is the possible cause for immune
incompetence?
a) T-c cells remain inactive cell mediated immunity is compromised
b) NK cells are depleted; cancer and virally infected cells are not removed
c)T-helper cells are depleted, all components of immune system are paralyzed
Q.13- At present the reasonable approach to initiate antiretroviral therapy to any one is–
a)All symptomatic patients
b) Pregnant women
c) CD 4 count below 350U/L
d) Any of the above.
Q.14- Viral nucleic acids can be detected by which of the following techniques?
a) ELISA
b) Western Blotting
c) PCR
d) viral isolation
Q.15- Which of the following is not a rapid test for the diagnosis of HIV infection?
a) Dot Blot Assay
b) Particle agglutination test
c) Western Blotting
d) HIV spot and comb test
Q.16- Western Blotting is considered a gold standard for the confirmation of HIV infection.
Which statement best describes the basis?
a) It is a rapid and sensitive test
b) It can detect antigen and antibodies simultaneously
c) Antibodies against gag and env are simultaneously detected
d) None of the above.
Q.17-The best treatment for HIV infection is

a) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
b) Protease Inhibitors
c) Integrase inhibitors
d) Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
Q.18- Which structural component of HIV is required for cell –cell fusion ?
a) p 24
b) gp 41
c) gp 120
d) p32
Answers-
1)-d
2)- a
3)- c
4)- a
5)- d
6)- d
7)- d
8)- c
9)- a
10)-d
11)- d
12)- d
13)- d
14)- c
15)-c
16)-c
17)-d
Enzymes of which type are responsible for converting Pro carcinogens to Ultimate carcinogens ?
a) Cytochrome P 450 enzyme system
b) Hydrolase
c) Transferases
d) Acetylases
e) Poly amine oxidases
Q.2- Which of the following is the most commonly mutated oncogene in cancer ?
a) p53
b) abl
c) ras
d) myc
e) BRCA
Q.3- A 23-year-old woman is seen for a lump in her breast that she palpated on self beast
examination. History reveals that her mother and her aunt both had breast and ovarian cancer.
Given this presentation, you suspect the patient may have a mutation in which of the following
genes involved in DNA repair ?
a) BRCA-1
b) ras
c) bcl-2
d) p 53
e) Rb
Q.4- A 47 -year- old man , with no known family history of cancer, develops changes in his bowel
habits, including occasional blood in his stools. A colonoscopy and biopsy confirms the
diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of colon. Furthermore, the tumor is found to have mutation in the
ras protein. Which of the following best describes the protein ?
a) A non receptor tyrosine kinase
b) A nuclear transcription factor
c) A receptor kinase
d) A GTP binding protein
e) A polypeptide growth factor
Q.5- A 56-year-old woman is recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She undergoes a lumpectomy
and a lymph node dissection, which shows that there are tumor cells that have migrated to the
lymph nodes. He oncologist recommends the chemotherapy including an agent that inhibits the
provision of folic acid which is required for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. Which of the
following agents should be the drug of first choice ?
a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Busulfan
c) Methotrexate
d) Etoposide
e) Vinblastin
Q.6- A 53-year-old man presents to the physician complaining of unwellness and easy fatigue.
The doctor orders a routine set of tests, which demonstrates a white blood cell count of 85,000/ml.
(Normal 3,000- 10,000/ml). Molecular studies suggest that he has chronic myelogenous leukemia.
A chromosomal translocation is responsible for this disease. Which of the following
translocations is associated with this disorder ?
a) t( 8;14)
b) t (14;18)
c) t (11;14)
d) t (9;22)
e) t (15;17)
Q.7- A 78-year-old male was brought to emergency with difficulty in passing urine and weight
loss. The attending urologist suspected carcinoma prostate. Which of the following molecular
marker would help in the confirmation of diagnosis ?
a) Carcino embryonic antigen (CEA)
b) Alpha feto protein(AFP)
c) Tissue specific antigen
d) Alkaline phosphatase
e) Acid phosphatase
Q.8- A 23-year-old man was diagnosed with metastatic liver disease. The grain storage facility
outside his house was contaminated with aflatoxin B. In addition which of the following might act
as a co carcinogen in the development of patient’s cancer ?
a) Human T cell lymphotrophic virus (HTLV-1)
b) Hepatitis B virus
c) Asbestos
d) Epstein Barr virus
e) Aniline dyes
Q.9- An 82-year-old woman presented to her primary care physician with a 10-year history of
episodic confusion and somnolence. The episodes occurred about twice a year, typically in the
morning, just after waking. They lasted minutes and were relieved when she ate her breakfast or
had juice. Her admission laboratory value of glucose level was 36 mg/dl and plasma insulin was
highly raised. What is the possible diagnosis for this patient ?
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Hypopituitarism
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Von Gierke’s disease
e) Insulinoma.
Q.10- A 54-year-old postmenopausal woman, presented to internist for care of hot flashes that
had returned 2 years after menopause. The symptoms occurred mostly after meals, when she
drank wine, or when she went for running. There was history of hypertension and frequent
diarrhea also. The 24 hour urine levels of 5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid), a breakdown
product of serotonin was found to be highly elevated. What is the probable diagnosis for this
patient ?
a) Pheochromocytoma
b) Carcinoid tumor
c) Hartnup disease
d) Hyperpituitarism
e) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid gland
Key to answers
1) -a, 2)- c, 3)- a, 4)- d, 5)-c, 6)-d 7)-e, 8)-b,9)- e,10)-b

Posted in Cancers, Multiple Choice Questions
Advertisement
- Which of the following is not a disaccharide?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Sucrose
Q.2- What is the molecular formula of Glucose?
a) CH3OH
b) C12H22O11
c) C6H1206
d) C6H12O5
Q.3-Sucrose is composed of which two sugars?
Q.4- In which of the following forms Glucose is stored in plants?
a) Starch
b) Dextrins
c) Glycogen
d) Cellulose
Q.5-Which out of the following is a Carbohydrate with no nutritional value?
a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose
Q.6- Choose a sugar out of the following that is non reactive to Seliwanoff reagent?
a) Sucrose
b) Fructose
c) Inulin
d) Ribose
Q.7- Choose a keto triose-
a) Glyceraldehyde
b) Dihydroxyacetone
c) Erythrose
d) Arabinose
a) Xylose
b) Xylulose
c) Lyxose
d) Aldose
Q.9- d -Glucose and l- Glucose are-
a)Stereo isomers
b)Anomers
d) Optical isomers
Q.10- All the following tests are positive for Lactose except-
a) Benedict
b) Barfoed
c) Molisch
d) Osazone
Q.11- Glucose can have — isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-
a) 4
b) 2
c) 12
d) 16
Q.12- Fructose and Ribulose are-
a) Epimers
b) Anomers
c) Ketoses
d) Ketose- Aldose isomers
a) Optical isomers
b) Anomers
c) Stereo isomers
d) Epimers
α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5 ο → +19 ο β- D glucose
a) Stereoisomerism
b) Optical isomerism
c) Mutarotation
d) Epimerization
Q.15- The carbohydrate of honey is
a) Fucose
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Fructose
Q.16- Mannonic acid is a-
a) Sugar acid
b) Deoxy sugar
c) Amino sugar
d) Sugar alcohol
Q.17- Which of the following is not a monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms?
a) Arabinose
b) Trehalose
c) Xylulose
d) Ribulose
Q.18- Which of the following gives a brown color on reaction with iodine?
a) Starch
b) Glycogen
c) Dextrin
d) Cellulose
a) Starch
b) Fructose
c) Glucose
Q.20- Which out of the following is a structural homopolysaccharide?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Chitin
c) Inulin
d) Starch
Key to Answers
1) -a, 2)-c, 3)-b, 4)-a, 5) -d, 6)- d, 7)- b, 8)-c, 9)-d, 10)- b,11) -d, 12)-c, 13)-d, 14)- c,15)-d, 16)-a,17)-b,
18)- b, 19)- d, 20)- b.

Chemistry of Carbohydrates- Multiple choice questions-
Revision- Set-1
Q.1- Which of the following is a non reducing disaccharide?
a) Galactose
b) Maltose
c) Trehalose
d) Sucrose
Q.2- Which of the following is a true statement about glucose?
a) It cannot be utilized by red blood cells
b) It has 4 asymmetric carbon atoms
c) It is stored as starch in animals
d) It is oxidized to form glycerol
Q.3-Sucrose is composed of which of the following two sugars?
Q.4- Which of the following is not a homopolysaccharide?
a) Starch
b) Heparin
c) Glycogen
d) Cellulose
Q.5-Which out of the following is a fructosan?
a) Glycogen
b) Agar
c) Inulin
d) Cellulose
Q.6- Choose a sugar abundantly present in honey-
a) Maltose
b) Fructose
c) Ribulose
d) Lactose
Q.7- Choose an Aldo pentose-
a) Glyceraldehyde
b) Dihydroxyacetone
c) Erythrose
d) Arabinose
Q.8- Which of the following is a keto tetrose?
a) Xylose
b) Erythrulose
c) Fructose
d) Sedoheptulose
Q.9- α –D-Glucose and β-D- Glucose are-
a) Stereo isomers
b) Anomers
d) Optical isomers
Q.10- All tests are positive for Lactose except-
a) Benedict
b) Barfoed
c) Molisch
d) Osazone
Q.11- Which out of the following is a carbohydrate with 6 carbon atoms and a keto group as the
functional group?
a) Glyceraldehyde
b) Dihydroxy acetone
c) Fructose
d) Galactose
Q.12- Mucic acid and Gluconic acids are
a) Glycosides
b) Sugar acids
c) Amino sugar acids
d) Sugar alcohols
Q.13- Sorbitol and Mannitol are-
a) Optical isomers
b) Anomers
c) Stereo isomers
d) Epimers
Q.14- Which of the following tests is not based on the reaction of carbohydrates with strong
acids?
a)Molisch
b) Benedict’s
c) Bial’s
d) Seliwanoff’s
Q.15- Which out of the following does not form osazone crystals?
a)Galactose
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Sucrose
Q.16- N- Acetyl Neuraminic acid is a-
a) Sugar acid
b) Amino sugar acid
c) Amino sugar
d) Sugar alcohol
Q.17- Which of the following gives a negative reaction with Barfoed’s test
a) Glucose
b) Maltose
c) Erythrose
d) Fructose
Q.18- A polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages between glucose residues is
a) Inulin
b) Amylose
c) Agar
d) Cellulose
Q.19- Which of the following sugars is laevorotatory predominantly?
a) Starch
b) Fructose
c) Sucrose
d) Glucose
Q.20- Which of the following Mucopolysaccharides is non sulfated and most abundant in tissues?
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Keratan sulphate
c) Heparin
d) Dermatan sulphate
Key to answers
1)-c, 2)-b, 3)-b, 4)-b, 5)- c, 6)-b, 7)-d, 8)-b, 9)-b, 10)-b, 11)-c,12)-b, 13)-d, 14)-b, 15)-d, 16)-b, 17)-b, 18)-
d,19)b, 20)-a .

Multiple Choice Questions- Chemistry of Carbohydrates
Published December 24, 2011 | By Dr. Namrata Chhabra
Q.1-Which of the following is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?
a) Galactose
b) Lactose
c) Maltose
d) Sucrose
Q.2- What is the molecular formula for Glucose?
a) CH3OH
b) C6H1206
c) C12H22O11
d) C6H12O5
Q.3- Maltose is composed of which two sugars?
b) Glucose and Galactose
c) Glucose and Fructose
Q.4- In which form is Glucose stored in animals?
a) Starch
b) Glycogen
c) Dextrins
d) Cellulose
Q.5-All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a) Glycogen
b) Inulin
c) Starch
d) Cellulose
Q.6- Choose the Aldose sugar out of the following-
a) Sucrose
b) Ribulose
c) Fructose
d) Ribose
Q.7- Choose the keto triose-
a) Glyceraldehyde
b) Erythrose
c) Dihydroxyacetone
d) Arabinose
a) Xylose
b) Lyxose
c) Xylulose
d) Aldose
Q.9- α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-
a) Epimers
b) Keto- Aldose Isomers
c) Anomers
d) Optical isomers
Q.10- All tests are negative for sucrose except-
a) Benedict
b) Seliwanoff
c) Barfoed
d) Osazone
Q.11- Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-
a) 4
b) 12
c) 8
d) 16
Q.12- Galactose and Glucose are-
a) Epimers
b) Isomers
c) Anomers
d)Ketose- Aldose isomers
a) Optical isomers
b) Stereo isomers
c) Anomers
d) Epimers
α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose
a) Stereo isomerism
b) Mutarotation
c) Optical isomerism
d) Epimerization
Q.15- The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-
a) Fucose
b) Xylose
c) Lyxose
d) Fructose
Q.16- Dulcitol is a –
a) Sugar acid
b) Amino sugar
c) Deoxysugars
d) Sugar alcohol
Q.17- Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-
a) Arabinose
b) Erythrose
c) Trehalose
d) Ribulose
Q.18- A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-
a) Starch
b) Dextrin
c) Glycogen
d) Cellulose
a) Starch
b) Glucose
c) Fructose
Q.20- The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-
a) Hyaluronic acid
b) Cellulose
c) Chitin
d) Chondrosamine
Q,21- Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?
a) Inulin
b)Dextrin
c) Cellulose
d) Glycogen
Q.22- A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-
a) Sucrose
b) Lactose
c) Maltose
d) Trehalose
Q.23-The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-
a) Glucopyranose
b) Glucoside
c) Glucofuranose
d) Glucosamine
Q.24- Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?
a) Benedict
b) Molisch
c) Seliwanoff
d) Osazone
Q.25- Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?
a) C3 H7O2N
b) C13H26O2
c) C6H12O6
d) C20H40O2
Q.26- Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?
a) Ribose
b) Fructose
c) Glucose
d) Glyceraldehyde
Q.27-Which of following is an anomeric pair?
a) D-glucose and L-glucose
b) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose
c) D-glucose and D-fructose
d) α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose
Q.28- Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?
a) Glucuronate
b) Gluconate
c) Glucose
d) Muramic acid
Q.29- From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:
a) The glucose residue is the β anomer.
b) The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.
c) C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
d) The compound is in its furanose form
Q.30- The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:
a) A purine nucleotide.
b) A pyrimidine nucleotide.
c) Adenosine.
d) AMP
Key to answers
1)-a, 2)-b, 3)-a, 4)-b, 5)-b, 6)-d, 7)-c, 8)-b, 9)-c, 10)-b, 11)-d, 12)-a, 13)-d, 14)-b, 15)-a,
16)-d, 17)-c, 18)-d, 19)-d, 20)-c, 21)-a, 22)-c, 23)-a, 24)-c, 25)-c, 26)-b, 27)-b, 28)-c,
29)-c, 30)-c
- Which out of the following alcohols is used for waxes
a) Cholesterol
b) Glycerol
c) Cetyl Alcohol
d) Sphingol
Q.2- Choose the Dienoic fatty acid out of the following-
a) Oleic acid
b) Linoleic acid
c) Linolenic acid
d) Stearic acid
Q.3- Which of the following lipids is abundantly present in the white matter of brain?
a) Galactocerebroside
b) Glucocerebroside
c) Triglycerides
d) Gangliosides
Q.4- Which out of the following is not a Glycerophospholipid?
a) Cardiolipin
b) Plasmalogen
c) Lecithin
d) Sphingomyelin
Q.5- Which out of the following enzymes is defective in Gaucher’s disease?
a) β- Glucocerebrosidase
b) Hexosaminidase A
c) Sphingomyelinase
d) β- Galactocerebosidase
Q.6- Choose the Glycerophospholipid that acts as a precursor for second messenger-
a) Phosphatidyl choline
b) Phosphatidyl Inositol
c) Phosphatidyl Serine
d) Phosphatidyl Ethanolamine
Q.7- Cholesterol is transported from extra hepatic tissues to liver by which of the following
lipoproteins?
a) Chylomicrons
b) VLDL
c) LDL
d) HDL
8) All are non-essential fatty acids except-
a)Palmitic acid
b) Linolenic
c) Oleic acid
d) Stearic acid
9) Which out of the following fatty acids is a precursor of prostaglandins?
a) Linoleic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
c) Eicosapentaenoic acid
d) Linolenic acid
10) Which of the following is an animal sterol?
a)Ergo sterol,
b) Stigma sterol,
c) Sitosterol
d) Cholesterol
11) Which out of the following is a fatty acid with 16 carbon atoms and one double bond?
a) Palmitoleic acid
b) Stearic acid
c) Erucic acid
d) Elaidic acid
12) Which out of the following is an ώ 6 fatty acid?
a) α Linolenic acid
b) Elaidic acid
c) Oleic acid
d) Arachidonic acid
13) A polar derivative of cholesterol is
a) Bile salt
b) Oestrogen
c) Vitamin D
d) Progesterone
14) Which type of lipid is a receptor for cholera toxin in the intestine?
a) GM2 Ganglioside
b) GM1Ganglioside
c) Sphingomyelin
d) Galactocerebroside
15) Acetyl number is a measure of-
a) Degree of unsaturation of a fat
b) Degree of rancidity of a fat
c) Measure of volatile fatty acids in a fat
d) Measure of number of –OH groups in a fat
16) All are conditions of hypercholesterolemia except-
a) Anemia,
b) Diabetes Mellitus,
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Nephrotic syndrome
17) Which out of the following is an inter mediate both for the synthesis of phospholipids and
Triacylglycerols?
a) Diacyl glycerol
b) Cholesterol
c) Choline
d) Inositol
18) Which fatty acid would have the least melting point out of the following-?
a) Stearic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
c) Timnodonic acid
d) Palmitic acid
19) A 3 year child was brought with hepatosplenomegaly and mental retardation. Biopsy reveals
accumulation of sphingomyelin. What is the nature of the disease?
a)Gaucher’s
b) Niemann Pick’s
c) Krabbe’s
d Tay Sach’s
20) Which of the following is not a source of glycerol?
a) Diet
b) Adipolysis
c) Glycolysis
d) Glycogenolysis
Answer Key
1)- c, 2)-b, 3)-a, 4)-d, 5)-a, 6)-b, 7)-d, 8)-b, 9)-b,10)-d,11)-a,12)-d,13)-a,14)-b,15)-d,16)-a, 17)-a, 18)-c,
19)-b, 20)-d.

Posted in Multiple Choice Questions
Lipid Chemistry Revision- Multiple choice questions (Set-2)
Q.1- Which out of the following lipid is a charged lipid?
a) Phospholipid
b) Cholesterol
b) Triacyl glycerol
d) Glucocerebroside
Q.2- Choose the ω9 fatty acid out of the following-
a) Oleic acid
b) Linoleic acid
c) Linolenic acid
d) Stearic acid
Q.3- Choose the incorrect statement about fatty acids out of the following-
a) The melting point of fatty acids decreases with the increasing degree of unsaturation
b) The membrane lipids contain mostly unsaturated fatty acids
c) Lipids in tissues that are subject to cooling are more unsaturated
d) Naturally occurring unsaturated long-chain fatty acids are nearly all of the Trans configuration.
Q.4- Which out of the following is a Glycerophospholipid?
a) Cardiolipin
b) Galactosyl ceramide
c) GM2
d) Sphingomyelin
Q.5- Which out of the following enzymes is defective in Niemann Pick’s disease?
b) Hexosaminidase A
c) Sphingomyelinase
Q.6- Choose a lipid that acts as a precursor for Glycerophospholipids
a) Cholesterol
b) Sphingosine
c) N-Acetyl Neuraminic acid
d) Phosphatidic acid
Q.7- Dietary triacylglycerols are transported from liver to extra hepatic tissues by which of the
following lipoproteins?
a) Chylomicrons
b) VLDL
c) LDL
d) HDL
Q.8) All except one are fatty acids with 18 carbon atoms –
a)Oleic acid
b) Linolenic
c) Palmitic acid
d) Stearic acid
Q.9) For which out of the following compounds cholesterol serves as a precursor?
a) Bile pigments
b) Bile salts
c) Vitamin K
d) Triacyl glycerol
Q.10) Glycerol is required for the formation of all of the following compounds except-
a) Glucose
b) Triacyl glycerol
c) Phospholipids
d) Glycolipids
Q.11) Which out of the following is a fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms and one double bond in the
trans configuration?
a) Palmitoleic acid
b) Oleic acid
c) Erucic acid
d) Elaidic acid
Q. 12) Which out of the following is a hydroxy fatty acid?
b) Linoleic acid
c) Palmitic acid
d) Cerebronic acid
Q. 13)Which of the following enzymes is present in the snake venom ?
a) Phospholipase A1
b) PhospholipaseA2
c) Phospholipase B
d) Phospholipase D
Q. 14) Which type of lipid is negatively charged at physiological pH?
a) GM2 Ganglioside
b) Glucocerebroside
c) Sphingomyelin
Q. 15) The Iodine number of Linolenic acid is-
a) 1
b) 6
c) 4
d) 3
Q. 16) Which of the following is not a derived lipid?
a) Arachidonic acid
b) Diacyl glycerol
c) HDL
d) Vitamin D
Q. 17) Which out of the following is not an essential fatty acid
a) Arachidic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
c) Linoleic acid
d) Linolenic acid
Q. 18) – The number of mgms of KOH required to neutralize the free and combined fatty acids in
one gram of a given fat is called-
a) Acid number
b) Polenske number
c) Saponification number
d) Iodine number
Q. 19) – Choose out of the following, a fatty acid with 20 carbon atoms and four double bonds-
a) Timnodonic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
c) Clupanodonic acid
d) Nervonic acid
Q. 20) Glycerol is not present in-
a) Cerebrosides
b) Platelet activating factor
c) Lecithin
d) Plasmalogen
Answer key
1)-a, 2)-a, 3)-d, 4)-a, 5)- b, 6)- d, 7)- b, 8)- c, 9)- b, 10)- d, 11)- d, 12)- d, 13)- b, 14)- a, 15)- b, 16)- c,
17)- a, 18)- c, 19)- b, 20)-a.

Posted in Chemistry of Lipids and Eicosanoids, Multiple Choice Questions
Lipid Chemistry Revision (Multiple choice questions)- Set-1
Q.1- Which out of the following is a storage form of lipid?
a) Phospholipid
b) Glycolipid
c) Triacyl glycerol
d) Sulfolipid
Q.2- Choose the monounsaturated fatty acid out of the following-
a) Oleic acid
b) Linoleic acid
c) Linolenic acid
d) Stearic acid
Q.3- Choose the correct statement about fatty acids out of the following-
a) The melting point of fatty acids increases with the increasing degree of unsaturation
b) The membrane lipids contain mostly unsaturated fatty acids
c) Lipids in tissues that are subject to cooling are more saturated
d) Naturally occurring unsaturated long-chain fatty acids are nearly all of the Trans configuration.
Q.4- Which out of the following is a Sphingophospholipid?
a) Cardiolipin
b) Plasmalogen
c) Lecithin
d) Sphingomyelin
Q.5- Which out of the following enzymes is defective in Gaucher’s disease?
b) Hexosaminidase A
c) Sphingomyelinase
Q.6- Choose the Glycerophospholipid that acts as a lipotropic agent-
a) Phosphatidyl choline
b) Phosphatidyl Inositol
c) Phosphatidyl Serine
d)Cardiolipin
Q.7- Dietary triacylglycerols are transported from intestine to hepatic and extra hepatic tissues by
which of the following lipoproteins?
a) Chylomicrons
b) VLDL
c) LDL
d) HDL
Q.8) All are non -essential fatty acids except-
a)Oleic acid
b) Linolenic
c) Palmitic acid
d) Stearic acid
Q.9) For which out of the following compounds cholesterol does not serve as a precursor?
a) Bile pigments
b) Bile salts
c) Vitamin D
d) Sex hormones
Q.10) Glycerol is required for the formation of all of the following compounds except-
a) Glucose
b) Triacyl glycerol
c) Phospholipids
d) Glycolipids
Q.11) Which out of the following is a fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms and one double bond in the
cis configuration?
a) Palmitoleic acid
b) Oleic acid
c) Erucic acid
d) Elaidic acid
Q. 12) Which out of the following is an ώ 6 fatty acid?
b) Linoleic acid
c) Palmitic acid
d) Cerebronic acid
Q. 13) The normal level of serum Total cholesterol is———–?
a) 150-220 mg/dl
b) 100-200 mg/dl
c) 1.5-2.5g/dl
d) 20-40 mg/dl
Q. 14) Which type of lipid is left undegraded in Niemann Pick’s disease?
a) GM2 Ganglioside
b) GM1Ganglioside
c) Sphingomyelin
Q. 15) The Iodine number of cholesterol is-
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
Q. 16) What are the components of a Galactocerebroside?
a) Sphingosine+ fatty acid+ Galactose
b) Glycerol +Fatty acids +Phosphoric acid+ Galactose
c) Glycerol +Fatty acids +Phosphoric acid +Nitrogenous base+ Galactose
d) Sphingosine+ fatty acids +Phosphoric acid+ Galactose
Q. 17) Which phospholipid out of the following is a component of inner mitochondrial membrane?
a) Cardiolipin
b) Lecithin
c) Plasmalogen
d) Cephalin
Q. 18)- The significance of estimating L: S ratio of amniotic fluid in a pregnant female lies in
evaluating-
a) Fetal heart rate
b) Fetal lung maturity
c) Fetal head size
d) Expected date of delivery
Q. 19) – Choose out of the following, a fatty acid with 20 carbon atoms and four double bonds-
a) Timnodonic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
d) Nervonic acid
Q. 20) Glycerol is present in-
a) Cerebrosides
b) Gangliosides
c) Sphingomyelin
d) Plasmalogen
Key to Answers
1)- c, 2)-a,3)-b,4)-d,5)-a,6)-a,7)-a,8)-b,9)-a,10)-d,11)-b,12)-b,13)-b,14)-c,15)-b,16)-a,17)-a,18)-b,19)-
b,20)-d

Posted in Chemistry of Lipids and Eicosanoids, Multiple Choice Questions
Chemistry of lipids and Eicosanoids-Multiple Choice Questions-
(Solved)
Published January 22, 2012 | By Dr. Namrata Chhabra
Q.1- Endogenously synthesized triacylglycerols are transported from liver to extra hepatic tissues
by which of the following lipoproteins?
a) Chylomicrons
b) VLDL
c) LDL
d) HDL
Q.2- All of the following have 18 carbon atoms except –
a) Linoleic acid
b) Palmitic acid
c) Linolenic acid
d) Stearic acid
Q.3- Sphingosine is not present in-
a) Cerebrosides
b) Gangliosides
c) sphigomyelin
d) Plasmalogen
Q.4- Triacylglycerols are-
a) Energy rich compounds
b) Nonpolar in nature
c) Can be stored in unlimited amounts
d) All of the above
Q.5- All are essential fatty acids except-
a)Linoleic,
b) Linolenic
c) Arachidonic acid
d) Stearic acid
Q.6- The deficiency of Lung surfactant, Dipalmitoyllecithin (DPL) causes, Respiratory Distress
Syndrome. DPL is a –
a) Cerebroside
b) Ganglioside
c) Phospholipid
d) Lipoprotein
Q.7- Choose the correct statement
a) The melting point of a fatty acid increases with the increasing degree of unsaturation in the
hydrophobic chain
b) Most of the naturally fatty acids have trans double bonds
c) Arachidonic acid is a relatively nonessential fatty acid
d) The membrane lipids are rich in saturated fatty acids.
Q.8- Which out of the following fatty acids is a precursor of series -1 Eicosanoids?
a) Linoleic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
c) Eicosapentaenoic acid
d) Linolenic acid
Q.9- What is the cause of hyper acidity on long-term usage of Aspirin?
a) Inhibition of cyclo oxygenase
b) Increased synthesis of PGs
c) Inhibition of Phospholipase A2
d) All of the above
Q.10- Which nitrogenous base out of the following is present in lecithin —?
a) Choline
b) Adenine
c) Ethanolamine
d) Any of the above
Q.11- Cholesterol is a precursor of all except-
a)Bile salts,
b)Bilirubin
c) Steroids
d) vitamin D
Q.12- Glycerol is used for the synthesis of all except-
a) Glucose.,
b) Phospholipids,
c) Glycolipids,
d) Triacylglycerol
Q.13- Which out of the following is a fatty acid with 16 carbon atoms and one double bond?
a) Palmitoleic acid
b) Oleic acid
c) Erucic acid
d) Elaidic acid
Q.14-Which out of the following is an ώ 3 fatty acid?
b) Linoleic acid
c) Palmitic acid
d) Arachidonic acid
Q.15- Fats on keeping fora long time under go spontaneous hydrolysis, what is this process
called?
a) Saponification
b) Hydrolytic Rancidity
c) Decomposition
d) All of the above
Q.16- Which out of the following enzymes is deficient in Gaucher’s disease?
a) Beta Glucosidase
b) Beta Galactosidase
c) Hexosaminidase A
d) Neuraminidase
Q.17- Prostcyclins are synthesized in- ———?
a) Platelets
b) Endothelial cells
c) Gastric mucosa
d) Basophils
Q.18- Cyclo-oxygenase is inhibited by all except——–?
a) Aspirin
b) Indomethacin
c) Brufen
d) Zileuton
Q.19- The normal level of serum Total cholesterol is———–?
a) 150-220 mg/dl
b) 100-200 mg/dl
c) 1.5-2.5g/dl
d) 20-40 mg/dl
Q.20- Choose out of the followings, a fatty acid with 20 carbon atoms and five double bonds-
a) Timnodonic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
d) Nervonic acid
Q.21- Which type of lipid is a receptor for cholera toxin in the intestine?
a) GM2 Ganglioside
b) GM1 Ganglioside
c) Sphingomyelin
Q.22- The significance of estimating L: S ratio of amniotic fluid in a pregnant female lies in
evaluating-
a) Fetal heart rate
b) Fetal lung maturity
c) Fetal head size
d) Expected date of delivery
Q.23- Iodine number is a measure of-
a) Degree of unsaturation of a fat
b) Degree of rancidity of a fat
c) Measure of volatile fatty acids in a fat
d) Measure of number of –OH groups in a fat
Q.24-Which phospholipid out of the following is antigenic in nature -?
a) Cardiolipin
b) Lecithin
c) Plasmalogen
d) Cephalin
Q.25- Which out of the followings is not a derived lipid?
a) Ketone body
b) PGE2
c) Diacylglycerol,
d) Galactosyl ceramide
Q.26- What are the components of a ceramide?
a) Sphingosine+ fatty acid
b) Glycerol+Fatty acids+Phosphoric acid
c) Glycerol+Fatty acids+Phosphoric acid+Nitrogenous base
d) Sphingosine+ fatty acids+Phosphoric acid
Q.27- Choose the incorrect statement-
a) The chemical name of Arachidonic acid is Eicosa penta enoic acid
b) Cyclo-oxygenase and peroxidase are the components of PG-H synthase complex
c) Oleic acid is represented by 18;1,∆9
d) NSAIDs act by inhibiting Phospholipase A2 enzyme.
Answers-
1-(b)- VLDL
2-(b)- Palmitic acid
3-(d)- Plasmalogen
4-(d) All of the above
5-(d) Stearic acid
6-(c) Phospholipid
7-(c) Arachidonic acid
8-(a) Linoleic acid
9-(a)- Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase enzyme
10-(a) Choline
11-(b) Bilirubin
12-(c) Glycolipids
13-(a) –Palmitoleic acid
14-(a)-α– Linolenic acid
15-(b)-Hydrolytic Rancidity
16-(a) Beta Glucosidase
17-(b)-Endothelial cells
18-(d)-Zileuton
19-(a) 150-220 mg/dL
20-(a) Timnodonic acid
21-(b) GM1- Ganglioside
22-(b) Fetal lung maturity
23-(a)- Degree of unsaturation
24-(a)- Cardiolipin
25-(a)- Galactosyl Ceramide
26-(a)- Sphingosine+Fatty acid
27-(d) NSAIDs act by inhibiting Phospholipase A2 enzyme
Which statement best describes Xanthine ?
a) It is a direct precursor of Guanine
b) It covalently binds to Allopurinol
c) It is oxidized to form Uric acid
d) It is oxidized to form Hypoxanthine
e) It is a substrate rather than a product of the enzyme Xanthine oxidase
2- Methylated heterocyclic bases of plants include all except-
a) Caffeine
b) Theophylline
c) Theobromine
d) Thymine
e) Dimethyl Xanthine
3- Which out of the following is not an anticancer drug ?
a) 5-fluorouracil
b) 5-iodouracil,
c) 3-deoxyuridine,
d) 6-thioguanine
e) Pseudouridine
4- Feedback inhibition of pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis can occur by which of the following ?
a) Increased activity of Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
b) Increased activity of Aspartate transcarbamoylase
c) CTP allosteric effects
d) UMP competitive inhibition
e) TTP allosteric effects
5- Which base derivative can serve as a precursor for the synthesis of two of the other pyrimidine
base derivatives ?
a) Cytidine triphosphate
b) Uridine mono phosphate
c) Adenosine mono phosphate
d) deoxy thymidine mono phosphate
e) deoxy Adenosine mono phosphate
6- Purine nucleotide biosynthesis can be inhibited by which of the following ?
a) Guanosine triphosphate
b) Uridine mono phosphate
c) Adenosine mono phosphate
d)Adenosine tri phosphate
e) Inosine diphosphate
7- Which of the following contributes nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings ?
a) Aspartate
b) Carbamoyl phosphate
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Glutamate
e) Tetrahydrofolate
8- Which out of the following conditions is associated with hypouricemia ?
a) Lesch Nyhan syndrome
b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
c) Over activity of PRPP synthetase

d) Over activity of amido transferase
e) Von Gierke’s disease
9- In patients with Lesch Nyhan Syndrome, purine nucleotides are overproduced and over
excreted. The hypoxanthine analogue Allopurinol, which effectively treats gout , has no effect on
the severe neurological symptoms of Lesch- Nyhan patients because it does not-
a) Decrease de novo purine synthesis
b) Decrease de novo pyrimidine bio synthesis
c) Decrease urate synthesis
d) Increase PRPP levels (Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate)
e) Inhibit xanthine oxidase
10- A 4- year old presents to a pediatric clinic with megaloblastic anemia and failure to thrive.
Blood biochemistry reveals “Orotic aciduria”. Enzyme measurement of the white blood cells
reveals a deficiency of pyrimidine biosynthesis enzyme Orotate Phospho ribose transferase and
abnormally high activity of the enzyme Aspartate transcarbamoylase. Which of the following
treatment will reverse all symptoms ?
a) Blood transfusion
b) Dietary supplementation of PRPP
c) Oral thymidine
d) Oral Uridine
e) Plasmaphresis
11)- Which of the following is a required substrate for purine biosynthesis ?
a) 5- methyl thymidine
b) Ara -C
c) Ribose phosphate
d) PRPP
e) 5-Fluoro uracil
12)- Which of the following is an analogue of hypoxanthine ?
a) Ara C
b) Allopurinol
c) Ribose phosphate
d) PRPP
e)5-FU
13)-A Pentose with a 5′ phosphate group, a 2′ OH group and 1′ pyrimidine group describes which
of the following structures ?
a) Cytosine
b) Thymidine
c) Thymidylate
d) Cytidylate
e) Guanosine
14) Which is the rate limiting step of pyrimidine synthesis that exhibits allosteric inhibition by
cytidine triphosphate-
a) Aspartate transcarbamoylase
b) Hypoxanthine Guanine phosphoribosyl Transferase
c) Thymidylate synthase
d) Xanthine oxidase
e) PRPP synthetase
15)- The conversion of Inosine mono phosphate-
a) To Adenosine mono phosphate (AMP) is inhibited by Guanosine mono phosphate(GMP)
b) To AMP requires uridine mono phosphate (UMP)
c) To GMP requires GMP kinase
d) To GMP requires Glutamine
e) To Guanosine di phosphate (GDP) requires ribonucleotide reductase
16)- A 56-year -old diabetic with end stage renal disease receives a kidney transplant from his son.
His nephrologist is concerned for the possibility of transplant rejection and puts the patient on
mycophenolic acid, that inhibits which of the following enzyme in the synthesis of nucleotides ?
a) PRPP synthetase
b) IMP dehydrogenase
c) Adenylo succinate synthetase
d) Ribonucleotide reductase
e) Adenylosuccinase
17- A physician evaluates a 32-year-old patient for fatigue. The patient is found to have an
elevated white blood cell count and an enlarged spleen. A referral to an oncologist results in a
diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia. Treatment with hydroxyurea, a ribonucleotide
reductase inhibitor is begun. The normal functioning of this enzyme is to do which of the
followings ?
a) Converts xanthine to uric acid
b) Converts ribonucleotides to deoxy ribonucleotides
c) Degrades guanine to xanthine
d) Degrades AMP to IMP
e) Converts PRPP to phosphoribosylamine

18- A child is noted to have recurrent respiratory infections that necessitate hospitalization. His
lab tests demonstrate a decrease in T cells, B cells , natural killer cells and decreased antibodies.
He is found to have severe combined immuno deficiency . The enzyme that is defective in this
disorder is important in which of the following processes ?
a) Conversion of ribonucleotides to deoxy ribonucleotides
b) Formation of AMP
c) Synthesis of UMP
d) Conversion of dUMP to dTMP
e) Conversion of adenosine to inosine
19- A 7-year-old boy suffers from mental retardation and self-mutilation and has an increased
levels of serum uric acid. These symptoms are characteristic of Lesch Nyhan syndrome, which is
due to defective-
a) Salvage pathway for pyrimidine biosynthesis
b) Denovo synthesis of pyrimidines
c) Xanthine oxidase
d) HGPRT (Hypoxanthine Guanine Phospho Ribosyl Transferase)
e) Formyl transferase
20- A 58-year-old man is awoken by a throbbing ach in his great toe. He had a similar attack earlier
also, after indulging in a rich meal. On examination, he is noted to have an angry inflammed great
toe and several nodules on the antihelix of his ear. Inhibition of which of the following enzymes
might prevent the occurrence of such symptoms ?
a) Amido transferase
b) PRPP synthetase
c) Xanthine oxidase
d) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
e) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase-II
Key to answers- 1)- c, 2)-d, 3)-c, 4)-c, 5)- b, 6)- c, 7)-a, 8)- b, 9)- a, 10)- a, 11)-d, 12)- b, 13)- d, 14)- a,
15)- d, 16)- b, 17)- b, 18)- e, 19)- d, 20)- c.
The alpha helix rises per turn a distance of –
a) 0.54 nm
b) 1.5 nm
c) 3 nm
d) 1.83 nm
Q.2- An antibiotic peptide out of the following-
a) Bleomycin
b) Penicillin
c) Microcystine
d) Creatine
Q.3- Which protein out of the given has a length: width ratio >10?
a) Hemoglobin
b) Myoglobin
c) Fibrinogen
d) Albumin
Q.4- Which of the following amino acids is abundantly found in collagen?
a) Glycine
b) Serine
c) Alanine
d) Tryptophan
Q.5- Choose the incorrect statement about peptide bond out of the following?
a) Partial double bond character
b) Stable
c) Trans in configuration
d) Charged and polar
Q.6- Which out of the following is a confirmatory test for Tryptophan?
a) Sakaguchi test
b) Ninhydrin test
c) Hopkin Cole test
d) Millon’s test
Q.7- Pulses contain incomplete protein since they lack-
a) Lysine
b) Tryptophan
c) Phenyl alanine
d) Methionine
Q.8- All of the following are interactions that stabilize the tertiary structure of a protein except-
a) Vander Waal’s
b) Hydrogen
c) Peptide
d) Ionic
Q.9- Which out of the following is NOT a non standard amino acid?
a) Hydroxy Proline
b) Beta Alanine
c) Ornithine
d) Arginine
Q.10- Choose the right set of amino acids in the structure of Glutathione-
a) Glutamine- Glycine-Cysteine
b) Cysteine-Glycine- Glutamic Acid
c) Glutamic acid- Glycine- Cysteine
d) Glutamic acid- Cysteine- Glycine
Q.11- Which out of the following is not a conjugated protein?
a) Albumin
b) Low density lipoprotein
c) Glycoprotein
d) Visual purple
Q.12- Which out of the following features is not observed at isoelectric pH of a protein?
a) Maximum solubility
b) Minimum Electrophoretic migration
c) Maximum precipitation
d) Maximum Viscosity
Q.13- Which out of the following is a set of hydrophobic amino acids?
a) Aspartic acid- Valine- Isoleucine
b) Arginine- Lysine- Methionine
c) Hydroxy proline- Histidine- Glutamine
d) Valine- Methionine- Isoleucine
Q.14- Choose the incorrect statement out of the following-
a) Only L amino acids are found in the biological system
b) Glycine is optical inactive
c) Tyrosine is a modified amino acid
d) Seleno cysteine is 21 st amino acid
Q.15- Which out of the following amino acids is a precursor of niacin (Vitamin)?
a) Tyrosine
b) Threonine
c) Tryptophan
d) Phenyl alanine
Q.16- Which of the following peptides is cyclic in nature?
a) Glutathione
b) Gramicidin-S
c) Met encephalin
d) Leuencephalin
Q.17- Which out of the following amino acids is a precursor of a mediator of allergies and
inflammation?
a) Histidine
b) Tyrosine
c) Phenyl Alanine
d) Tryptophan
Q.18-The most potent vasoconstrictor peptide out of the following is-
a) Vasopressin
b) Angiotensin II
c) Bradykinin
d) Angiotensinogen
Q.19- Which of the following amino acids is detected by Sakaguchi test?
a) Tyrosine
b) Tryptophan
c) Alpha amino acids
d) Arginine
Q.20- Which out of the following protein does not possess a quaternary structure?
a) Myoglobin
b) Lactate dehydrogenase
c) Immunoglobulin M
d) Creatine Phospho Kinase
Key to Answers
1)- a, 2)-b, 3)-c, 4)-a, 5)-d, 6)-c, 7)-d, 8)-c, 9)-d, 10)-d,11)-a, 12)-a,13)-d,14)-c,15)-a, 16)-b,17)-a,18)-
b,19)-d, 20)-a.

Posted in Chemistry of Proteins, Multiple Choice Questions
Multiple Choice Questions- Amino acid and protein chemistry
Published April 12, 2012 | By Dr. Namrata Chhabra
1) – A mutation has changed an isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which statement
best describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior-
a) On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature
b) In side the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
c) Any where inside or outside
d) Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain
2) – Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of-
a) Hemoglobin
b) Myoglobin
c) Insulin
d) Collagen
3) – Some proteins contain additional amino acids that arise by modification of an amino acid
already present in a peptide, examples include-
a) 4 -hydroxy proline
b) 5- hydroxy Lysine
c) Gamma Amino Butyric Acid
d) All of the above
4) – Choose the incorrect statement out of the following-
a) Only L amino acids are found in the biological system
b) Glycine is optical inactive
c) Tyrosine is a modified amino acid
d) Seleno cysteine is 21 st amino acid
5) – Choose a nano peptide out of the following-
a) Oxytocin
b) Vasopressin
c) Bradykinin
6) – Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the physiological p H ?
a) Valine
b) Leucine
c) Isoleucine
d) None of the above
7) – Which out of the following amino acids is a precursor for a mediator of allergies and
inflammation?
a) Histidine
b) Tyrosine
c) Phenyl Alanine
d) Tryptophan
8) – Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in diet for
her child, which out of the following proteins should be recommended?
a) Pulses
b) Wheat
c) Soy Protein
d) Milk
9) – All of the below mentioned amino acids can participate in hydrogen bonding except one –
a) Serine
b) Cysteine
c) Threonine
d) Valine
10) – All of the following amino acids are both glucogenic as well as ketogenic except –
a) Isoleucine
b) Leucine
c) Tyrosine
d) Phenyl alanine
11) – Which out of the following amino acid is a precursor of niacin (Vitamin)?
a) Tyrosine
b) Threonine
c) Tryptophan
d) Phenylalanine
12) – The greatest buffering capacity at physiological p H would be provided by a protein rich in
which of the following amino acids?
a) Serine
b) Cysteine
c) Alanine
d) Histidine
13) – Which of the following peptides is cyclic in nature-?
a) Glutathione
b) Gramicidin
c) Met encephalin
d) Leuencephalin
14) – Which out of the following is not a fibrous protein?
a) Carbonic anhydrase
b) Collagen
c) Fibrinogen
d) Keratin
15) -Which of the following amino acid is a limiting amino acid in pulses?
a) Leucine
b) Lysine
c) Methionine
d) Glutamine
16)- Which out of the following is not a haemo protein ?
a) Catalase
b) Myeloperoxidase
c) Glutathione peroxidase
d) Aconitase
17) – All the below mentioned proteins are metalloproteins except-
a) Carbonic anhydrase
b) Xanthine oxidase
c) Lactate dehydrogenase
d) Superoxide dismutase
18) – Which out of the following is a peptide antibiotic?
a) Erythromycin
b) Gramicidin
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Tetracycline
19) – Choose the Anticancer peptide out of the following-
a) Bleomycin
b) Methotrexate
c) Cytosine Arabinoside
d) Dideoxy Inosine
20) – Which of the following amino acids is most compatible with an α- helical structure?
a) Tryptophan
b) Alanine
c) Leucine
d) Proline
21) – The highest concentration of cystine can be found in-
a) Melanin
b) Keratin
c) Collagen
d) Myosin
22) – In scurvy, which amino acid that is normally part of collagen is not synthesized?
a) Hydroxy Tryptophan
b) Hydroxy Tyrosine
c) Hydroxy Alanine
d) Hydroxy Proline
23) – A child with tall stature, loose joints, and detached retinas is found to have a mutation in
collagen. Which of the following amino acids is the recurring amino acid most likely to be altered
in mutations that distort collagen molecules?
a) Glycine
b) Tyrosine
c) Tryptophan
d) Tyrosine
24) – Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at
physiological p H of 7.4?
a) Isoleucine
b) Arginine
c) Aspartic acid
d) Threonine
25) – Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?
a) Optically inactive
b) Hydrophilic, basic and charged
c) Hydrophobic
d) Hydrophilic, acidic and charged
26) – Which of the following amino acids in myoglobin, a globular protein, is highly likely to be
localized within the interior of the molecule?
a) Arginine
b) Valine
c) Aspartic acid
d) Lysine
27) – Which of the amino acids below is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid?
a) Cystine
b) Tyrosine
c) Glutamine
d) Serine
28) – Choose the correct category for milk protein casein out of the following-
a) Nucleoprotein
b) Phospho protein
c) Lipoprotein
d) Glycoprotein
Answers-
1- a
2- d
3- d
4- c
5- d
6- d
7- a
8- d
9- d
10- b
11- c
12- d
13- b
14- a
15- c
16- d
17- c
18- b
19- a
20- b
21- b
22- d
23- a
24- a
25- a
26- b
27- c
28- b
. All except one are appetite stimulating hormones-
a) Leptin
b) Ghrelin
c) Peptide YY
d) Glucagon
2. Brown adipose tissue (BAT), plays an important role in energy metabolism in many mammals.
The false statement about BAT,out of the followings is –
a) Storage of energy in the form of lipids
b) Expenditure of stored energy as heat
c) Increased Metabolic activity of BAT by leptin
d) BAT dissipates the hydrogen ion gradient in the oxidative respiration chain
3) Body Mass Index(BMI) gives a measure of relative weight adjusted for height. The healthy range
for BMI is between-
a) 15- 19.5
b) 19.5- 25.0
c) 25- 29.9
d) Equal to 30 or > 30.
4) Which statement is false about ‘Upper abdominal obesity’?
a) Increased abdominal circumference (> 102 cm in men and 88 cm in women
b) High waist–hip ratios (> 1.0 in women and > 0.85 in men)
c) Risk of diabetes mellitus, stroke, coronary artery disease, and early death
d) Visceral fat within the abdominal cavity is more hazardous to health than subcutaneous fat around the
abdomen.
5) Choose the true statement about ‘lower abdominal obesity’
a) Also called, ‘Apple shaped obesity’
b) Waist to hip ratio (< 1.0 for women and <0.8 for men)
c) Relatively common in females
d) Associated with increased risk for coronary heart disease stroke and diabetes mellitus.
6) Although the adipocyte has generally been regarded as a storage depot for fat, it is also an
endocrine cell that releases numerous molecules in a regulated fashion. Which of the followings
is not an adipose derived chemical ?
a)Leptin
b) Ghrelin
c) Resistin
d) Adiponectin
7) The major role of leptin in body-weight regulation is-
a) to signal satiety to the hypothalamus
b) to reduce dietary intake and fat storage
c) modulation of energy expenditure and carbohydrate metabolism
8) Which of the followings is not a secondary cause of obesity ?
a) Cushing syndrome
b) Insulinoma
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Diabetes mellitus
9) Which of the following adipose derived hormones promotes insulin sensitivity in peripheral
tissues ?
a) Adiponectin
b) Resistin
c) Amylin
d) Leptin
10) Which of the followings statement is true about metabolic syndrome ?
a) Associated with lower body obesity
b) Associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus
c) Associated with metabolic diseases
d) Associated with increased risk for diabetes mellitus and cardiovascular diseases
11) Orlistat is the only FDA approved drug for treatment of obesity, the mechanism of action
involves-
a) Increasing BMR
b) Inhibition of appetite centre
c) Promotes satiety
d) Inhibition of gastric and pancreatic lipases
12)- Dieting is the most commonly practiced approach to weight control. One can estimate the
effect of calorie restriction on the reduction in adipose tissue. Since one pound of adipose tissue
corresponds to ———— kilo calories.
a) 1000
b) 2000
c) 3000
d) 3500
13) Bariatric surgery is an increasingly prevalent treatment option for patients with obesity.
Choose the incorrect statement about it-
a) Most popular is the roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB)
b) The operation can be done laparoscopically
c) Can be the treatment of choice for any grade of obesity
d) results in substantial amounts of weight loss—close to 50% of initial body weight
Key to answers- 1)- d, 2)- a, 3)-b, 4)- b, 5)-c , 6)-b, 7)- d, 8)- d, 9)- a, 10)-d, 11)-d, 12)-d, 13)-c

Posted in Diet and Nutrition, Multiple Choice Questions
Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)- Measurement, factors affecting BMR
and clinical significance
Published October 14, 2013 | By Dr. Namrata Chhabra
The amount of energy required by an individual varies directly with the degree of activity and
environmental conditions, but the rate of energy consumption in an individual by its overall cellular
metabolism is more or less constant under some basal conditions i.e. standard conditions. This cellular
metabolism under basal conditions is Basal metabolic rate. The rate of energy consumption under such
basal conditions per unit time (one hour) per square meter of surface area is known as “Basal metabolic
rate”. A constant ratio of carbohydrates, lipids and proteins are metabolized under such basal conditions.
To simplify BMR
 The energy required by an individual during physical, emotional and digestive rest.
 It is the minimum energy required to sustain vital functions like working of heart, brain, circulation,
respiration, ion transport and maintenance of cellular integrity
Basal Conditions
1) Person should be awake but at complete physical and mental rest
2) Person should be without food for 12-18 hours- Post absorptive state. This is to avoid the effect of
digestion and absorption, the SDA of food stuffs and to prevent any chances of starvation.
3) He should be in recumbent or reclining position in bed.
4) There should be normal conditions of environment- temperature, pressure and humidity. The
temperature should be between 200– 250 C. Under above conditions, energy expended by the individual
is to maintain respiration, circulations, muscle tone, functions of viscera like kidney, heart, liver and brain
and for the maintenance of body temperature.
Energy Expenditure in basal metabolism– Usually 50- 70% of the daily expenditure in sedentary
individuals, BMR can be responsible for burning 70% of the total calories but the figure varies due to
different factors. The factors that affect BMR are as follows-
Factors affecting BMR
1) Age- BMR decreases with advancing age. In children it is high due to more surface area.
2) Sex-Males have more muscle mass and lower body weight. Thus they have high BMR. Females have
lower muscle mass more body fat thus have lower BMR.
3) Hereditary factors– Some people are born with faster metabolism and some with slower metabolism
4) Body Surface area- Surface area depends on weight and height. Greater the surface area, higher is
the BMR and vice versa. Tall, thin people have a higher BMR than short persons. Since much of the
basal metabolism is for the maintenance of body temperature and the heat loss is proportional to body
surface area. Thus BMR is proportional to surface area.
5) Environmental conditions- Temperature outside body also affects BMR. Exposure to cold causes an
increase in BMR so as to create the extra need for heat for the maintenance of body temperature. A short
exposure to heat has little or no effect on BMR but upon prolonged exposure to high temperature there is
compensatory heat loss, this results in increase in BMR. In colder regions of the world, BMR is higher and
in tropical regions the BMR is lower.
6) Body Temperature-For every 0.5 degree rise in body temperature there is 7% increase in BMR. With
the rise in temperature, there is increase in the rate of chemical reactions causing increased BMR.
7) Exercise- Physical exercise not only influences body weight by burning calories. It also helps to raise
BMR by building extra lean tissues. Lean tissue is metabolically more demanding than fat tissue. The
increase in BMR due to exercise is also due to increased cardiac output.
8) Drugs- Caffeine, Benzedine, alcohol, epinephrine and nicotine increase BMR. Reverse is seen with
certain anesthetics.
9) Pregnancy- The BMR of pregnant mother rises after 6 months of gestation. BMR of mother is a sum
total of her own BMR as in the non pregnant state and of that of fetal metabolism.
10) Racial variations- BMR varies with different racial groups. Higher values of > 33 % above normal
have been reported in Eskimos.
11) Barometric pressure- Moderate decrease in pressure causes no effect on BMR, but a fall of
pressure to half an atmosphere as occurs in mountain climbing increases BMR.
12) State of nutrition- BMR is lowered in states of starvation, malnutrition and wasting diseases.
13) Hormones-Thyroid hormone increases BMR. In thyrotoxicosis BMR rises 50-100% above normal,
while in Myxoedema, BMR falls 35-45% below normal. Adrenaline, catecholamines, growth hormone, all
of them increase BMR, Male sex hormone increases BMR to 10% or more. Anterior pituitary through its
effect on TSH also affects BMR.
Short term factors affecting BMR
Illnesses such as fever, high level of stress hormones in the body and either an increase or decrease in
environmental temperature result in an increase in BMR. Fasting, starvation or malnutrition all result in a
lowering of BMR.
Measurement of BMR
BMR can be determined by the following methods-
1) Open Circuit system- In this system both O2 consumption and CO2 output are measured. Although it
is very accurate but due to high degree of skills involved, it is less commonly used.
2) Closed circuit method-In clinical practice, the BMR is estimated by measuring O2 consumption of the
patient for 2-6 minutes period under basal conditions. The O2 consumption is measured under closed
circuit system. The apparatus commonly used is Benedict’s Roth metabolism apparatus. The test is
usually run for 6 minutes and the volume of O2 consumed in that period is measured and corrected to
standard conditions of temperature and pressure.
Calculation
The average O2 consumption for 6 minutes is multiplied by 10 to convert into hourly basis and then
multiplied by 4.825oC. The heat production is represented by each litre of O 2 consumed. This gives the
heat production in C/hour. Since the BMR is expressed as C/Sq.met/Hour, the energy output per hour
has to be divided by the surface area of the individual.
Calculation of surface area of an individual
The surface area of an individual adult is about 1.8 square meter.
1) Du- Bois Surface area formula- A simple formula for calculating the surface area is as follows
BSA = (W 0.425 x H 0.725) x 0.007184
where the weight is in kilograms and the height is in centimeters and body surface area is in square
meters.
2) By using normograms– Most conveniently the surface area is calculated from the normograms if the
height and weight are known. Height is measured in feet/cm ; weight is measured in pounds/kg and
surface area is calculated in square meters.
3) Harris–Benedict equations
BMR calculation for men (metric)

BMR = 66.47 + (13.75 x weight in kg ) + ( 5.003 x height in cm ) – ( 6.755 x age in years )
BMR calculation for women (metric)

BMR = 655.1 + (9.563 x weight in kg ) + ( 1.850 x height in cm ) – ( 4.676 x age in years )
4) Read’s formula
BMR = 0.75 (PR +0.74 x PP)
PR is pulse rate
PP is pulse pressure.
The result is expressed as percentage of the normal and is corrected within a range of ± 10%
Normal range of BMR
A healthy adult male has a BMR of about 40C/sq.m/hour and adult female has about 37 C/Sq.m/hour
Example of calculation of BMR
1) The normal BMR for an individual of the patient’s age and sex is obtained from the standard tables.
2) The patient’s actual rate is expressed as + or – % of the normal.
3) In a male aged 35 years with height-170 cm , weight- 70 kg and O2 consumption 1.2 liters in a 6
minutes time, the BMR can be calculated as follows-
O2 consumption/hour = 1.2 x10 = 12 liters
 or 12 x 4.825 = 58 Kcal/hour
Surface area from normogram = 1.8 sq.m.
Therefore BMR= 58/1.8 = 32 C/Sq.m/hour
The normal BMR for this patient by reference to standard table is 39.5 C/Sq.m/hour.
Hence the patient is having surface area of
= – 18.98 % below normal.
Significance of BMR
1) Diagnostic Aid
It is used for the diagnosis of various pathological conditions specially assessing the thyroid functions.
The pathological variations in BMR are as follows-
a) Fever- Infections and febrile diseases elevate BMR, usually in proportion to increase in body
temperature.
b) Diseases- BMR is increased in-
 Leukemias
 Polycythemia
 Some types of anemia
 Cardiac failure
 Hypertension
 Dyspnea
 Perforation of ear drum(False increase)
 Hyperthyroidism
 Cushing syndrome
 Acromegaly
BMR is deceased in-
 Addison’s disease
 Hypothyroidism
2) Calculation of Caloric requirement- It is essential in the calculation of caloric requirement of an

individual for prescribing a diet of adequate calorific value and planning nutrition.
3) To know the effect of food and drugs- BMR is calculated to know the effect of special food stuffs and
drugs.
1- Glycogen phosphorylase, which mobilizes glycogen for energy, requires which of the following
as a cofactor?
a)Pyridoxal phosphate
b)Tetra hydro folate
c)Adenosyl Cobalamine
d) Coenzyme A
(a)
Q.2-Choose the incorrect statement about Active Site of an enzyme-
a) The active site is a three-dimensional cleft
b) The active site takes up a large part of the total volume of an enzyme
c) Substrates are bound to enzymes by multiple weak attractions
d) The specificity of binding depends on the precisely defined arrangement of atoms in an active site.
(b)
Q.3- Any of the following processes except one are involved at the active site of an enzyme to
accelerate the rate of reaction-
a) Catalysis by Bond Strain
b) Catalysis by Proximity and Orientation
c) Non covalent catalysis
d) Acid base catalysis
(c)
Q.4-A given substrate may be acted upon by a number of different enzymes, each of which uses
the same substrate(s) and produces the same product(s). The individual members of a set of
enzymes sharing such characteristics are known as-
a)Group specific enzymes
b)Isoenzymes
c)Substrate specific enzymes
d)Allosteric enzymes
(b)
Q.5-A recently diagnosed hypertensive patient has been prescribed an ACE inhibitor(Angiotensin
converting enzyme inhibitor) which is known to act by lowering V max,what is the possible
mechanism of inhibition of this drug?
a) Competitive
b)Non Competitive
c) Uncompetitive
d)None of the above.
(a)
Q.6-Which statement out of the following is incorrect about the effect of increasing temperature
on enzyme activity-
a)Raising the temperature increases the kinetic energy of molecules
b) Aten degree Centigrade rise in temperature will increase the activity of most enzymes by 50 to 100%.
c)Most animal enzymes rapidly become denatured at temperatures above 40oC
d)Storage of enzymes at 5°C or below is generally not suitable.
(d)
Q.7-A54-year –old male was rushed to emergency when he collapsed in the middle of a business
meeting. Examination revealed excessive sweating and high blood pressure.ECG chest was
conclusive of Acute Myocardial infarction. Which biochemical investigation out of the following
would be of no help in the confirmation of diagnosis?
a) Cardiac Troponins
b)Serum myoglobin
c)Lactate dehydrogenase
d)Creatine Phospho kinase-MB(CPK-MB)
(c)
Q.8-A coal mine worker was brought in an unconscious state to emergency room after a blast in
the mine. His blood Carboxy hemoglobin level was high and he was diagnosed with CO
poisoning. CO is a known inhibitor of electron transport chain. Which complex of electron
transport chain is inhibited by CO?
a) Complex I
b) Complex II
c) Complex III
d) Complex IV
(d)
Q.9-A 42-year-old obese female presented to the emergency center with complaints of worsening
nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.Her pain was located in the mid epigastric area and right
upper quadrant. Blood biochemistry revealed high serum amylase level.What is the probable
diagnosis for this patient?
a)Viral hepatitis
b) Acute Pancreatitis
c) Renal colic
d) Acute gastritis
(b)
Q.10-A 60 year old chronic alcoholic was brought to the hospital with complaints of protuberant
abdomen (ascites) and edema feet. He also had history of hemorrhages. Blood biochemistry
revealed – High serum transaminases, low Serum total proteins, Albumin and a prolonged
prothrombin time. Urine analysis was normal. What could be the possible diagnosis?
a)Renal failure
b)Protein malnutrition
c) Cirrhosis of liver
d) Heart failure
(c)
Q.11-A 2 -week –old child was brought to the emergency. The parents were fearful that the child
had been given some poison as they noted black discoloration on the diaper. A diagnosis of
Alkaptonuria was made and the child was given Vitamin C as a supplement. Alkaptonuria occurs
due to reduced activity of Homogentisic acid oxidase enzyme. What is the role played by vitamin C in this
defect?
a)Acts as an oxidant
b)Acts as a coenzyme
c)Acts as an inducer
d) Acts as a positive allosteric modifier
(b)
Q.12-A 67- year-old army officer in good health previously presented with sudden pain in the great
toe. Serum uric acid level was high, and a diagnosis of gouty arthritis was made He was advised
bed rest,pain killers and Allopurinol. What is the mechanism of action of Allopurinol in lowering
serum uric acid levels?
a) Suicidal inhibition
b) Non competitive inhibition
c)Allosteric inhibition
d) Feed back inhibition
(a)
Q.13-One out of the following enzymes has absolute specificity for its substrate; choose the
correct option-
a) Urease
b) Carboxy peptidase
c) Pancreatic lipase
d) Lipoprotein lipase
(a)
Q.14-Which out of the following is a substrate-specific enzyme?
a) Hexokinase
b) Thiokinase
c) Lactase
d) Decarboxylase
(c)
Q.15-Which out of the following is not a substrate-specific enzyme?
a) Glucokinase
b) Fructokinase
c) Hexokinase
d) Phosphofructokinase
(c)
Q.16-Group I Co enzymes participate in which of the following reactions-
a) Oxidation-reduction
b)Transamination
c) Phosphorylation
d) All of the above
(a)
Q.17-Which out of the following co enzymes takes part in hydrogen transfer reactions in the
electron transport chain-
a) Tetrahydrofolate
b) Methyl Cobalamine
c)Co enzyme Q
d) Biotin
(c)
Q.18.The conversion of Pyruvate to oxaloacetate involves the participation of—- as a coenzyme –
a) NAD+
b) NADPH
c) Biotin
d) All of the above
(c)
Q.19- The drug Fluorouracil is recommended for the treatment of cancers. It undergoes a series of
changes and then binds to Thymidylate synthase enzyme resulting in its inhibition and blockage
of cell division. This mode of inhibition is most probably due to-
a) Allosteric inhibition
b) Competitive inhibition
c) Noncompetitive Inhibition
d) Suicidal inhibition
(d)
Q.20-The activities of many enzymes, membrane transporters and other proteins can be quickly
activated or inactivated by phosphorylation of specific amino acid residues. This regulation is
called-
a) Allosteric modification
b) Covalent modification
c) Induction
d) Repression
(b)
Posted in Enzymes, Multiple Choice Questions

Bio Mcqs

Uploaded by

Bio Mcqs

Uploaded by

.1- Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

Q.2- What is the molecular formula of Glucose?

Q.3-Sucrose is composed of which two sugars?

a) Glucose and Glucose

b) Glucose and Fructose

c) Glucose and Galactose

d) Fructose and Galactose

Q.4- In which of the following forms Glucose is stored in plants?

Q.5-Which out of the following is a Carbohydrate with no nutritional value?

Q.7- Choose a keto triose-

Q.8- A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

Q.9- d -Glucose and l- Glucose are-

c) Keto- Aldose Isomers

Q.12- Fructose and Ribulose are-

d) Ketose- Aldose isomers

Q.14- What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5 ο → +19 ο β- D glucose

Q.15- The carbohydrate of honey is

Q.16- Mannonic acid is a-

Q.17- Which of the following is not a monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms?

Q.19-Invert sugar is-

d) Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

Q.20- Which out of the following is a structural homopolysaccharide?

Please help "Biochemistry for Medics" by CLICKING ON THE ADVERTISEMENTS above!

Q.1- Which of the following is a non reducing disaccharide?

Q.2- Which of the following is a true statement about glucose?

a) It cannot be utilized by red blood cells

b) It has 4 asymmetric carbon atoms

c) It is stored as starch in animals

d) It is oxidized to form glycerol

Q.3-Sucrose is composed of which of the following two sugars?

a) Glucose and Glucose

b) Glucose and Fructose

c) Glucose and Galactose

d) Fructose and Galactose

Q.4- Which of the following is not a homopolysaccharide?

Q.5-Which out of the following is a fructosan?

Q.6- Choose a sugar abundantly present in honey-

Q.7- Choose an Aldo pentose-

Q.8- Which of the following is a keto tetrose?

Q.9- α –D-Glucose and β-D- Glucose are-

c) Keto- Aldose Isomers

Q.10- All tests are positive for Lactose except-

Q.12- Mucic acid and Gluconic acids are

c) Amino sugar acids

Q.13- Sorbitol and Mannitol are-

Q.16- N- Acetyl Neuraminic acid is a-

b) Amino sugar acid

Q.18- A polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages between glucose residues is

Q.19- Which of the following sugars is laevorotatory predominantly?

Please help "Biochemistry for Medics" by CLICKING ON THE ADVERTISEMENTS above!

Q.1-Which of the following is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?

Q.2- What is the molecular formula for Glucose?

Q.3- Maltose is composed of which two sugars?

a) Glucose and Glucose

b) Glucose and Galactose

c) Glucose and Fructose

d) Fructose and Galactose

Q.4- In which form is Glucose stored in animals?

Q.5-All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

Q.6- Choose the Aldose sugar out of the following-

Q.7- Choose the keto triose-

Q.8- A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-

Q.9- α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-

b) Keto- Aldose Isomers

Q.10- All tests are negative for sucrose except-

Q.12- Galactose and Glucose are-

d)Ketose- Aldose isomers

Q.14- What does the following equation represent?

α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose

Q.15- The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-

Q.17- Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

Q.18- A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-

Q.19-Invert sugar is-

d) Hydrolytic product of Sucrose

Q.20- The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-