* NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY *

PHARMACY *

NAME: DATE: SCORE: _____/200

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for the following questions. Shade the letter of the correct answer for the corresponding question in the provided answer sheet.
I.

1. During treatment, the nurse monitors the patient closely for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, which
may occur if the patient receives too much calcium. Which of these findings suggests hypercalcemia?
a. Restlessness
b. Oliguria
c. Anorexia
d. Diarrhea

2. If calcium replacement therapy causes hypercalcemia, how should the nurse intervene?
a. Increase the patient's fluid intake.
b. increase the patient's sodium intake.
c. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest.
d. Limit the patient's consumption of acid-ash drinks such as cranberry juice.

A. To prevent kidney damage

3. In the patent receiving gastric suctioning, the nurse should be alert for signs and symptoms of which other
electrolyte imbalance that may accompany hypochloremia?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypocakemia
c. Hyperkalemra
d. Hyperphosphatemra

A. Sodium is primarily binding with chloride

4. The nurse should assess a patient with chronic alcoholism for hypomagnesemia. What is magnesium's
primary function in the body?
a. It aids in the digestive process
b. It enhances neuromuscular integration
c. It regulates pituitary hormone secretion
d. It is used by the liver in gluconeogenesis

B. Page 35

5. Besides chronic alcoholism, which other condition can place the patient at risk for hypomagnesemia?
a. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
b. Malabsorption syndrome
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Bladder cancer

6. A patient with cardiovascular disease is admitted to the unit with a history of chronic hypophosphatemia.
Which statement accurately characterizes phosphorus?
a. It's the primary intracellular anion.
b. It's the primary extracellular anion,
c. It's the primary intracellular cation.
d. It's the primary extracellular cation.

Page 40
7. A patient with chronic hypophosphatemia is most likely to exhibit which of these signs and symptoms?
a. Dehydration and tics
b. Diarrhea, nausea, and dyspepsia
c. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia
d. Memory loss and muscle and bone pain

D. Symptoms:
Anorexia
Memory loss
Muscle and bone pain
Fractures

8. A patient with an irregular heartbeat seeks care in the emergency department. Electrolyte levels indicate
hyperphosphatemia. Which treatment is most likely to to prescribed for this imbalance?
a. Gastric lavage
b. Calcium channel blocking agent
c. Aluminum, magnesium, or calcium antacid
d. Immediate IV infusion of a hypertonic solution

C. They will act as Phosphate binders

9. Which organ clears phosphorus from the body?

a. Small intestines
b. Gallbladder
c. Kidneys
d. Liver

C. A decrease in urine output can seriously affect renal clearance of excess serum phosphorus.

10. A patient with hypertension receives a potassium-wasting diuretic. Because the patient does not comply
with the prescribed high-potassium diet, hypokalemia occurs. What is the normal range for serum
potassium?
a. 1.4 to 2.2 mEq/liter
b. 2.5 to 3.4 mEq/liter
c. 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/liter
d. 5.2 to 6.4 mEq/L

11. To correct the patient's hypokalemia, the doctor prescribes a potassium supplement. Which potassium
supplement is preferred for treating hypokalemia?
a. Potassium bicarbonate
b. Potassium gluconate
c. Potassium phosphate
d. Potassium chloride

D. Easiest for the body to absorb P. 44

12. The nurse teaches the patient to take the potassium supplement as prescribed because too much of it may
cause hyperkalemia. Which other condition may cause hyperkalemia?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Addison's disease
c. Hyperlipoproteinemia
d. Glycogen storage disease

B. In Addison’s disease, aldosterone is decreased causing sodium retention and potassium excretion. Page
43.

13. A patient with hyperkalemia must receive sodium polysterene sulfonate retention enema. The nurse should
instruct the patient to retain the enema for how long?
a. At least 5-10 minutes
b. At least 15-20 minutes
c. At least 30-60 minutes
d. At least 2-3 hours

C. Kayexalate is a cation exchange resin

14. When diarrhea persists, a patient should call the doctor because hyponatremia and dehydration may occur.
If left untreated, severe hyponatremia may cause which of these complications?
a. Permanent neurologic damage
b. Respiratory distress
c. Hypokalemia
d. Tetany

A. Due to intracellular dehydration

15. Acids and bases enter and leave the body by several routes. Which of the following routes is the most
important?
a. Ventilation
b. Transport
c. Respiration
d. Feedback mechanism

C. Regulation of CO2 regulates carbonic acid

16. Blood pH is used to evaluate acid-base status. What does the symbol pH actually indicate?
a. Phosphorus-to-hydrogen concentration
b. Hydrogen ion concentration
c. Bicarbonate concentration
d. Pulmonary quotient

B. Literally means “power of hydrogen”

17. When obtaining a drug history from a patient suspected of having metabolic acidosis, the nurse should ask
about the intake of drugs known to cause an acid-base imbalance. Which of these drugs may produce
metabolic acidosis?
a. Calcium channel blockers
b. Potassium supplements
c. Antihistamines
d. Salicylates

D. Common causes of acidosis are salicylates, ethylene glycol and methyl alcohol

18. Although ammonium chloride may be used to treat metabolic alkalosis, it should not be administered to a
patient who has signs of what disorders?
a. Hepatic or renal disease
b. GI or dermatologic disease
c. Cardiac or respiratory disease
d. Neurologic or endocrine disease

A. Ammonia is a toxin primarily excreted by the kidneys, detoxified by the liver

19. A patient with Guillain-Barre syndrome developes respiratory acidosis because of reduced alveolar
ventilation. Which arterial blood gas values confirm respiratory acidosis?
a. pH of 5.0 and PaCO2 of 30 mmHg
b. pH of 7.40 and PaCO2 of 35 mmHg
c. pH of 7.35 and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg
d. pH of 7.25 and PaCO2 of 50 mmHg
D.

20. Which condition could predispose a patient to the development of respiratory alkalosis?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Extreme anxiety
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Digitalis toxicity

B. Anxiety may cause hyperventilation

21. An elderly woman is hospitalized for the treatment of gastroenteritis complicated by dehydration
and hyponatremia. The nurse expects a late symptom of hyponatremia exhibited by the client like
a. Muscle twitches
b. Restlessness
c. Thirst
 d. Weakness

Rationale: D. Late manifestations of hyponatremia involve skeletal muscle weakness leading to ineffective
respiratory movement. Muscle twitches is an early sign of hypernatremia. (Saunders Comprehensive Review
© 2005, p. 89)

22. A client in the acute care facility is irritable but shows within normal vital signs with potassium
level of 6.5mEq/L. The nurse caring the client would alert herself for possible
a. Decrease in cardiac output
b. Cardiac dysrhythmias
c. Reduction in arterial oxygen
d. Pulmonary edema

Rationale: B. Major concerns in a client with hyperkalemia are cardiac dysrhythmias, heart block, and cardiac
arrest. (NSNA© 2007, p. 325)

23. A 26-year-old patient with GI bleeding requires fluid resuscitation and 4 units of packed RBC’s.
Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor following the transfusion of packed RBC’s?
a. Potassium
b. Magnesium
c. Calcium
d. Phosphate
Rationale: C. The patient may suffer calcium deficiency resulting from calcium binding with citrate, which is
used to prepare the packed RBC’s. Usually the patient’s calcium level is checked after the administration of
multiple units of blood. (Ask a Colleague, © 2005, p. 37)

24. The nurse would anticipate the occurrence of respiratory acidosis as a result of which of the
following?
a. High altitudes
b. Aldosteronism
c. Severe scoliosis
d. Salicylate toxicity

Rationale: C. Scoliosis prevents the thoracic cage from expanding and, therefore, decreases tidal volumes.
Respiratory acidosis occurs in severe cases of scoliosis. High altitudes, aldosteronism, and salicylate toxicity
produces respiratory alkalosis. (Springhouse: Emergency Nursing, p.155)

25. Mrs. D., age 27, is admitted to the ED after a house fire. She has second and third-degree burns
over approximately 30% of her body surface area (BSA). During the initial stage of the burn injury,
which fluid and electrolyte imbalances are most likely to occur?
a. Intracellular-to-intravascular fluid shift and potassium deficit
b. Interstitial-to-extracellular fluid shift and sodium deficit
c. Plasma-to-interstitial fluid shift and potassium excess
d. Interstitial-to-plasma fluid shift and sodium excess

Rationale: C. Plasma-to-interstitial fluid shift usually occurs during the initial stage of a burn injury; this causes
leakage through the capillaries, resulting in edema. Because of cellular trauma, potassium is released into the
extracellular space, causing hyperkalemia. (Saunders Comprehensive Review © 2006, p. 545)

26. A nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing hyperventilation. Which of the following
observation will the nurse finds consistent with her diagnosis of hyperventilation?
a. Increased mental acuity
b. Tracheal deviation
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Carpopedal spasms
Rationale: D. Patients with hyperventilation exhibit carpopedal spasms, anxiety, jaw pain, tachypnea, diffuse
chest pain, confusion, diaphoresis, and headache. They exhibit respiratory alkalosis, not acidosis.
(Springhouse: Emergency Nursing, p.182)

27. A patient was diagnosed of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse
would anticipate which of the following electrolyte imbalance?
a. Potassium
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium
Rationale: B. SIADH results in hyponatremia due to fluid volume excess causing an alteration in sodium.
(Saunders Comprehensive Review © 2006, p. 632)

28. Steroid is prescribed for a client after an organ transplant. The nurse expects the client to manifest which
electrolyte imbalance?
a. hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia
b. hypokalemia and hyperphosphatemia
c. hyperglycemia and hypercalcemia
d. hypernatremia and hypoglycemia

Rationale: B. Steroid causes elevated blood glucose and sodium and a decrease in potassium and calcium.
Phosphate is expected to increase once calcium is depleted since these two electrolytes are inversely
proportional with each other. (Saunders © 2005, p. 92, 634)

29. A client is admitted to the unit with potassium level of 2.4 mEq/L. The nurse expects the ECG tracing to
show the following changes, except
a. Tall T wave
b. ST segment depression
c. Prominent U wave
d. Inverted T wave
Rationale: D. ECG tracing of hypokalemia are ST segment depression, shallow, flat, or inverted T wave and
prominent U wave. (Saunders © 2005, p. 91)

30. What assessment parameter indicates an effective fluid resuscitation in a client with severe dehydration?
a. Urine output of 30 ml/2 hr
b. Pulse of 95
c. Specific gravity of 1.040
d. Falling CVP readings

II

1. Which of the following definitions best describes D. Episodic, dull, or steady midabdominal
diverticulosis? pain
A. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine
B. A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine
4. Medical management of the client with acute
C. The partial impairment of the forward flow of
episodes of diverticulitis should include which of
intestinal contents
the following treatments?
D. An abnormal protrusion of an organ through the
structure that usually holds it.
A. Reduced fluid intake
B. Increased fiber in diet
2. Which of the following types of diets is C. Administration of antispasmodics
implicated in the development of diverticulosis? D. Exercises to increase intra-abdominal
pressure
A. Low-fiber diet
B. High-fiber diet
C. High-protein diet
5. Crohn’s disease can be described as a chronic
D. Low-carbohydrate diet
relapsing disease. Which of the following areas in
the GI system may be involved with this disease?
3. Which of the following symptoms indicated
diverticulosis? A. The entire length of the large colon
B. Only the sigmoid area
A. No symptoms exist C. The entire large colon through the layers
B. Change in bowel habits of mucosa and submucosa
C. Anorexia with low-grade fever D. The small intestine and colon; affecting
the entire thickness of the bowel
 11. Which of the following interventions should
be included in the medical management of
6. Which area of the alimentary canal is the most Crohn’s disease?
common location for Crohn’s disease?
A. Increasing oral intake of fiber
A. Rectum B. Administering laxatives
B. Descending colon C. Using long-term steroid therapy
C. Sigmoid colon D. Increasing physical activity
D. Terminal ileum
12. Which of the following conditions is most
likely to directly cause peritonitis?

7. Which of the following factors is believed to be A. Cholelithiasis

linked to Crohn’s disease? B. Gastritis
C. Perforated ulcer
A. Constipation D. Incarcerated hernia
B. Diet
C. Hereditary
D. Lack of exercise 13. Which of the following symptoms would a
client in the early stages of peritonitis exhibit?

A. Abdominal distention
8. Fistulas are most common with which of the B. Abdominal pain and rigidity
following bowel disorders? C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Right upper quadrant pain
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Diverticulitis
C. Diverticulosis
D. Ulcerative colitis 14. Which of the following laboratory results
would be expected in a client with peritonitis?

A. Partial thromboplastin time above 100

9. Which of the following areas is the most seconds
common site of fistulas in client’s with Crohn’s B. Hemoglobin level below 10 mg/Dl
disease? C. Potassium level above 5.5 mEq/L
D. White blood cell count of 20,000.
A. Anorectal
B. Ileum
C. Rectovaginal
D. Transverse colon 15. An enema is prescribed for a client with
suspected appendicitis. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?

10. Which of the following symptoms is A. Prepare 750 ml of irrigating solution

associated with ulcerative colitis? warmed to 100*F
B. Question the physician about the order
A. Dumping syndrome C. Provide privacy and explain the procedure
B. Rectal bleeding to the client
C. Soft stools D. Assist the client to left lateral Sim’s
D. Fistulas position
16. The nurse is monitoring a client for the early treatment approaches to help the client meet his
signs of dumping syndrome. Which symptom nutritional needs?
indicates this occurrence?
A. Initiate continuous enteral feedings
A. Abdominal cramping and pain B. Encourage a high protein, high-calorie diet
B. Bradycardia and indigestion C. Implement total parenteral nutrition
C. Sweating and pallor D. Provide six small meals a day.
D. Double vision and chest pain

21. The nurse would teach patients that antacids

are effective in treatment of hyperacidity
17. The nurse is reviewing the record of a client because they:
with Crohn’s disease. Which of the following
stool characteristics would the nurse expect to A. Neutralize gastric acid
note documented on the client’s record? B. Decrease stomach motility
C. Decrease gastric Ph
A. Chronic constipation D. Decrease duodenal pH
B. Diarrhea
C. Constipation alternating with diarrhea
D. Stool constantly oozing from the rectum 22. The nurse would monitor for which of the
following adverse reactions to aluminum-
containing antacids such as aluminum hydroxide
(Amphojel)?
18. The nurse is doing an admission assessment
on a client with a history of duodenal ulcer. To A. Diarrhea
determine whether the problem is currently B. Constipation
active, the nurse would assess the client for C. GI upset
which of the following most frequent D. Fluid retention
symptom(s) of duodenal ulcer?

A. Pain that is relieved by food intake

B. Pain that radiated down the right arm 23. Histamine2-receptor antagonists:
C. N/V
D. Weight loss A. Compete with histamine for binding sites
on the parietal cells
B. Irreversibly bind to H+/K+ATPase
C. Cause a decrease in stomach Ph
19. A client with ulcerative colitis has an order to D. Decrease signs and symptoms of allergies
begin salicylate medication to reduce related to histamine release
inflammation. The nurse instructs the client to
take the medication:
24. Sucralfate (Carafate) achieves a therapeutic
A. 30 minutes before meals effect by:
B. On an empty stomach
C. After meals A. Neutralizing gastric acid
D. On arising B. Enhancing gastric absorption
C. Forming a protective barrier around
gastric mucosa
D. Inhibiting gastric acid secretion
20. A client who has ulcerative colitis has
persistent diarrhea. He is thin and has lost 12
pounds since the exacerbation of his ulcerative 25. You’re developing the plan of care for a patient
colitis. The nurse should anticipate that the experiencing dumping syndrome after a Billroth II
physician will order which of the following procedure. Which dietary instructions do you include?
 A. Omit fluids with meals. D. It relieves dilation of the brochus.
B. Increase carbohydrate intake.
C. Decrease protein intake. 2. Because of his condition during asthmatic attack, you
would ask the patient to assume which position:
D. Decrease fat intake. A. lateral B. orthopneic
B. dorsal recumbent D. supine

3. As a result of fractured ribs, the client may develop:

26. A patient with Crohn’s disease is admitted after 4 days A. Scoliosis C. Pneumothorax
of diarrhea. Which of the following urine specific gravity B. Emphysema D. Obstructive lung disease
values do you expect to find in this patient?
4. A client is admitted in an acute care facility with
A. 1.005 pneumonia is receiving supplemental oxygen, 2 LMP via
nasal cannula. The client’s history includes chronic
B. 1.011
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and cononary
C. 1.020 artery disease . Because of these history findings, the
D. 1.030 nurse closely monitors the oxygen and the client’s
respiratory status. Which complication may arise if the
27. Matt is a 49 y.o. with a hiatal hernia that you are about client receives high oxygen concentration?
to counsel. Health care counseling for Matt should include
A. Apnea
which of the following instructions?
B. Anginal pain
C. Respiratory alkalosis
A. Restrict intake of high-carbohydrate foods. D. Metabolic acidosis
B. Increase fluid intake with meals.
C. Increase fat intake. 5. The term “ blue bloaters” refers to which of the
D. Eat three regular meals a day. following conditions?
A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
28. Jerod is experiencing an acute episode of ulcerative B. Asthma
C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
colitis. Which is priority for this patient? D. Emphysema
A. Replace lost fluid . 6. The term “ Pink-puffers” refers to which of the
B. Monitor for increased serum glucose level from following conditions?
steroid therapy. A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
C. Restrict the dietary intake of foods high in B. Asthma
C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
potassium.
D. Emphysema
D. Note any change in the color and consistency of
stools. 7. Which of the following types of asthma involves an
acute asthma attack brought on by upper respiratory
infection?
A. Emotional C. Intrinsic
29. Eleanor, a 62 y.o. woman with diverticulosis is your B. Extrinsic D. Mediated
patient. Which interventions would you expect to include
8. After 2 weeks, John has had a lobectomy for cancer of
in her care? the left lobe of the lungs.
He is 2 hours post-operative when you started caring for him.
A. Low-fiber diet and fluid restrictions. Which of the following positions would be indicated for
B. Total parenteral nutrition and bed rest. John?
C. High-fiber diet and administration of psyllium.
D. Administration of analgesics and antacids. A. Turn to unoperative side
B. Flat on his back
. C. Semi-fowlers position with head turning to
30. Regina is a 46 y.o. woman with ulcerative colitis. You
other side.
expect her stools to look like: D. Turn to operative side.

A. Watery and frothy. 9. The nurse observes that Alma’s chest expansion is less on the
B. Bloody and with mucous. right side than on the Left after a fractured ribs. The
C. Firm and well-formed. incomplete expansion on her right side of the chest is due to:
D. Alternating constipation and diarrhea.
A. Increased intrapleural pressure.
B. Damage of the lungs.
1. Which of this explains why epinephrine is given to
C. Fear of pain.
patient having asthma?
D. Decreased intrapleural pressure
A. It increases patients output thereby relieving the
patient difficulty of breathing.
10. Situation wherein atelectasis may occur in this condition
B. It dilates the bronchus thereby enable the
are the following, EXCEPT:
patient to breath easily.
A. Pleural effusion C. Hyperventilation
C. It loosens mucous secretions of the patient.
 B. Pneumothorax D. Hypoventilation D. Use the neck and upper chest muscles to
improve chest wall expansion.
11. Sarah, 25 years old, employee, was brought to the
emergency room because of severe allergic reaction. She 17. A client is in the emergency department with a
complained of difficulty of breathing. Oxygen pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound.The client
inhalation, 3Liters,was ordered stat. Intravenous solution complains of shortnessof breath and exhibits tracheal
started. Which of the following physiologic needs has and mediasternal shifts to the left. For what procedure
the highest priority for Sarah? should the nurse prepare?
A. Intubation with an endotracheal tube.
A. Fluid C. Nutrition B. Insertion of a closed chest drainage tube.
B. Oxygen D Low temperature C. Paracentesis.
D. MRI of the chest.
12. Which of the following is the MOST important
precautionary measures in administering oxygen 18. The client is admitted to the health care facility for
inhalation to be observed that will benefit the client in treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
particular and hospital as general? Which nursing diagnosis is most important for the
client?
A. “Crack” the oxygen tank before it is wheeled
/brought to client’s room. A. Activity intolerance related to fatigue.
B. Lubricate the tip of the catheter with mineral oil that B. Anxiety related to actual threat to health status.
is water-soluble. C.Risks for infection related to retained secretions.
C. Hang a “No smoking” sign on the oxygen tank D. Impaired gas exchange related to airflow
and a similar warning at the door. obstruction.
D. Setting up a bottle of sterile water to humidify the
oxygen before it is administered to client 19. A 19-year old client comes to the emergency department
with an acute asthma. His
respiratory rate is 44 breaths/min, and he appears
13. While assessing the client who has just a test tube in acute respiratory distress. Which of the
placed, the nurse notes fluctuations (tidaling) in the following actions should be taken first?
water sealed chamber. The nurse knows that this
indicates: A. Take a full medical history.
B. Give a bronchodilator by nebulizer
A. Expected fluid movement with respiration. C. Apply a cardiac monitor to the client.
B. An air leak. D. Provide emotional support to the client.
C. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema.
D. Appropriate suction level. 20. A 24-year old client comes into the clinic complaining of
right-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports
14. A client with a spontaneous pneumothorax has had a that it started suddenly. The assessment should include
chest tube for 3 days. On morning rounds, the physician which of the following nursing intervention?
clamped the chest tube to determine the client’s
readiness to have the chest tube discontinued. Two hours A. Auscultation of breath sounds.
after having the chest tube clamped, the client begun B. Chest X-ray.
difficulty breathing. What action should the nurse take C. Echocardiogram
first? D. Electrocardiogram

A. Notify the physician. 21. A client is admitted in the emergency room with acute
B. Unclamped the chest tube. asthma attack . The physician prescribed epinephrine 25
C. Assess the client for subcutaneous mg SC. How soon should the epinephrine take effect?
emphysema.
D. Place the client on 2L nasal cannula oxygen. A Rapidly C. In 1 hour
B. In 3 minutes D. In 2 hours
15. While assessing a client who has a chest tube, the nurse
notes that the tube is kinked 22. A high level of oxygen exerts which of the following
between the bedrails. The nurse knows that this effects on the lungs of patient with emphysema?
increased the client for: A. improve oxygen uptake.
B. increases carbon dioxide level
A. Tension pneumothorax. C. stabilizes carbon dioxide levels
B. Air leak. D. reduces the amount of functional alveolar
C. Hemorrhage. surface area.
D. Cardiac tamponade.
23. Which of the following interventions should be done
16. What breathing technique would be helpful to teach the before a chest tube is removed?
client with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease A. Disconnect drainage system from the tube.
(COPD)? B. Obtain a Chest X-ray to document for
the reexpansion.
A. Inhale deeply through the mouth. C. Obtain an arterial blood gas to document
B. Exhale through pursed-lips. oxygen status.
C. Exhale approximately 1/3 as long as D. Sedate the client and the physician will slip the
inhaling. tube out without warning the client.
 C. Ask the spouse to leave the room to let the
24. A 7- year old client is brought to the emergency client get some sleep.
department. He is tachypneic and afebrile and has a D. Administer pain medication
respiratory rate of 36 breaths/min and a non-productive
cough.He recently had a cold. From his history, the Situation: In the practice of Community
client have which of the following conditions? Health Nursing it is essential to be aware of
programs being implemented by the department
A. Acute asthma C. Bronchial pneumonia of health and the legal bases for such
B. TB D. Emphysema programs and health services. The following
questions apply.
25. Nursing for the client experiencing epistaxis includes 1. Community health nursing primarily aims
which intervention? to:
A. Instructing the client to apply warm compress to A. Improve the capability of individual,
the nasal area. families and communities to cope with their
B. Instructing the client to pinch the soft outer health needs
portion of the nose against the midline septum B. Increase the productivity of the people
for 5-10 minutes continuously while leaning C. Contribute to national development by
meeting millennium development goals
forward.
D. Augment the work provided by the health
C. Instructing the client to lie down and squeeze the care professionals in the promotion of health
nostrils together. and prevention of illness
D. Preparing the client for emergency
cricothyroidectomy. Situation: – In community health work, you
arm yourself with Community Health Nursing
Concepts and Principles. This serves as basis
26. When documenting the assessment finding of Mr. Bien for safe and quality care for individual,
families, population/vulnerable groups and
with emphysema who has an increase in the
communities. Consider these situations.
anteroposterior diameter of the chest, which term would 2. As a community health nurse covering a
the nurse use? cluster of Barangays, your population
A. Barrel chest C.Flail chest coverage include the following:
1. Families in their homes
B. Funnel chest D. Pigeon chest 3. workers in factories
2. School population
27. The nurse identifies which set of blood gas values as 4. patients in hospital
consistent with the diagnosis of respiratory acidosis in a A. 1, 2, and 3 C. 1,
client? 2, 3, 4
B. All except 3 D.
A. pH -7.0 ; pCO2- 42 C. pH- 7.46; pCO2- 38 All except 2

B. pH- 7.35-; pCO2- 44 D. pH- 7.32; pCO2- 48 3. You direct all your efforts toward optimum
health of the whole population in the
communities you serve. To ensure this you are
28. Which of the following nursing interventions would
EXPECTED to
most help the client with chronic respiratory acidosis? 1. Receive the entry salary equivalent to
Salary Grade 10 or according to your position
A. Enforce strict bedrest except to get up to the classification
commode. 2. Provide health services to individuals in
B. Restrict fluids to 1000 cc per day. the communities you serve
C. If ordered, encourage client to use oxygen. 3. Provide health services to families in the
D. Teach and encourage the client to use pursed-lip communities you serve
4. Provide health services to population
breathing. especially vulnerable groups within the
communities you serve
29. If Andot is having respiratory acidosis and asks for food
and drink, which of the following will you NOT give A. 1 and 3 are correct C. 2 and 4
him? are correct
B. 2, 3, 4 are correct D. 1 and 4
are correct
A. Ice cream C. Soft drinks
B. Warm congee D. Hot milk and crackers
Situation: Public health in the country has
suffered a lot from the exodus if a large
48. A postoperative client with emphysema is number of Filipino nurses and serving and
receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula migrating to other countries. Access to
when he/she complains of feeling dyspneic. The timely and quality health services especially
spouse asks the nurse to increase the oxygen by the poorer and poorest families has been
intake to help him/her breathe easier. Which difficult to achieve. The following questions
response by the nurse is appropriate? apply.
4. To encourage more health workers to stay
A. Switch the oxygen to a 100% non-rebreather mask in government service, Republic Act 7305 or
Magna Carta of Public Health workers was
B. Explain to the spouse that high passed into law last 1991. “Public health
concentration of oxygen may depress workers” include all persons working in
breathing. government health facilities such as the:
1. Physicians 2. Eating diet low in fats and sugar
2. Nurses 3. Maintaining specific daily serving of food
3. Midwives groups
4. Cooks and assistant cooks in the hospital 4. Avoiding poor eating habits
5. Cashier and clerical staff 5. Drink at least 6-8 glasses of water.
6. Janitor staff

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 C. 1, 2 and A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2, 3, 4, and

3 only 5
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3,4 B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3
and 5
12. Diabetes has become a major health
problem. The nurses can help to reduce the
5. Health education is the one of the most incidence of diabetes by:
significant functions of a nurse especially A. Extensive screening of diabetes patients
in the prevention and control of communicable B. Helping implement Republic Act 8191-
diseases. All EXCEPT ONE of the following Natioanal Diabetes Act
statements are TRUE description of health C. Establishing the support group for
education: diabetes patients
A. Health education is an independent effort D. Increasing the community awareness of
of all health personnel diabetes prevention
B. Health education is integrated in the
planning, and implementation of all health 13. This is a learning process whereby
programs and services knowledge, attitudes and practice of people
C. Health education considers the health are changed to improve the health status of
status of the people individuals, families or communities
D. Health education is a learning process A. Motivating C. Disease prevention
whereby knowledge, attitudes and practices of B. Counseling D. Health education
people are modified to help improve the life
and social conditions of individuals, 14. PRIMARY HEALTH CARE embraces all of the
families and groups towards development following concepts, EXCEPT:
A. People’s participation is essential
6. As a Public health nurse, if you monitor B. Community organizing as the core of PHC
and evaluate the performance of midwives, you C. Use of appropriate technology
are performing the role of: D. It is an approach to provide the basic
A. Manager C. needs of the community
Preceptor
B. Health provider D. Situation – In the practice of Community
Supervisor Health Nursing, the nurse utilizes
specialized knowledge and skills and
collaboration with other governmental and
7. The community health nurse leads a class non-governmental agencies. The concept of
on breastfeeding with a group of prenatal Primary Health Care and Health Promotion are
parents. The nurse allows the participants to crucial in community health development.
ask questions, make comments, and reason out 15. Which DOES NOT describe primary health
loud as feedback is given. Which of the care?
following teaching techniques is the nurse A. It stresses the use of appropriate
using? technology
a. lecture b. role B. It emphasizes partnership between health
playing care providers and the people
c. demonstration d. discussion C. It aims to provide free health service to
the people
D. It is a total approach to community
8. In-patient and diagnostic care including development
surgery belongs to what level of health care?
A. Secondary level 16.Primary health care advocates for the use
B. Tertiary level of appropriate technology in the delivery of
C. Primary level health services. This is demonstrated by any
D. Specialized level of the following EXCEPT:
A. Teaching mothers how to prepare low-cost,
9. BHS and RHU health services belong to? easily digestible and highly nutritious
A. Primary Level protein powders to feed children with
B. Secondary Level malnutrition
C. Tertiary Level B. Use of komiks in information and
D. Specialized level educational campaign against dengue
C. Use of Bayabas / Guava for washing wounds
and for diarrhea
10. In your community home visits, you have D. Use of portable x-ray machines in far-
scheduled several cases. Who is your First flung communities
priority?
A. Family planning defaulters C. 17. Accessibility of health service implies
G4P3 3 day Post Partum that:
B. PTB case on D.O.T.S. D. A. Health care providers maximize the service
G3P2 36 weeks AOG of traditional healers whom the people
commonly approach for health problems
11. The Filipino Food Guide Pyramid strongly B. The people and the government can afford
emphasizes the need for: the health services being provided
1. Ensuring variety of foods everyday
C. Health service providers are within 5 B. Those under post case treatment
kilometers from most of the catchment C. Those scheduled for surgery
population D. Those undergoing treatment
D. Health services are available in health
facilities on a round the clock basis Situation- Documentation and data collection
are tasks for any community health nurse. The
18. The focus of activities in specific CH Nurse should never get tired of obtaining
protection is a level of prevention information which is necessary for any
classified is: nursing action / intervention. The following
questions apply.
A. Secondary intervention
B. Intervention prevention 24. The community health nurse collects data
C. Tertiary prevention about 100% of the population in a barangay.
D. Primary prevention The nurse is conducting a:
A. community assembly
19.A 60 year old post CVA patient is taking B. Census taking
TPA for his disease, the nurse understands C. Community survey
that this is an example of what level of D. Epidemiologic survey
prevention?
25. In documentation the community health
A. primary nurse must be aware that erasure in the
B. secondary client’s record must be avoided because the:
C. tertiary
D. none of the above A. writing would be blurred and difficult to
read
20.A female client undergoes yearly B. record is a statistical document
mammography. This is a type of what level of C. record will look messy
prevention? D. record is a legal document

A. primary 26. When death occurs, which of the following

B. secondary professionals can sign the death certificate?
C. tertiary
D. none of the above A. Public Health Nurse
B. Municipal Health officer
21. Ana’s functions include activities for C. Any health professional
secondary prevention. In a family, the D. Rural health nurse
health profile reveals diabetes in the father
of the family. A classic demonstration of 27. According to the World Health
secondary prevention would be: Organization (WHO), one of the leading causes
a. teaching the diabetic patient about of mortality in the Philippines is which of
foot care the following?
b. assisting the diabetic patient in A. Leukemia C. Malignant
his daily insulin injections Neoplasm
c. helping the patient obtain a B. Heart Disease D.
glucometer for accurate monitoring of blood Lower respiratory tract infections
sugar
d. informing the client how to maintain 28. Even the conduct of epidemiologic
HbA1C value at 5.5 or less investigation requires collaboration and
teamwork and purpose of which is to:
Situation: With the increasing documented A. Delineate the etiology of epidemics
cases of CANCER the best alternative to B. Encourage cooperation and support of the
treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The community
following conditions apply. C. Identify geographical location of cases in
the community
22. Which among the following is the primary D. Identify who are at risk of contracting
focus of prevention of cancer? the disease
A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer
B. Diagnosis and treatment Situation: Health education and Health
C. Treatment at early stage Promotion is an important part of nursing
D. Early detection responsibility in the community. Immunization
is a form of health promotion that aims at
22. In the prevention and control of cancer, preventingthe common childhood illnesses.
which of the following activities is the most
important function of the community health 29. In correcting misconception and myths
nurse? about certain diseases and their management,
A. Conduct community assemblies. the health worker should first:
B. Referral to cancer specialist those A. Identify the myths and misconceptions
clients with symptoms of cancer. prevailing in the community
C. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as B. Identify the source of these myths and
parameters in our process of detection, misconceptions
control and treatment modalities. C. Explain how and why these myths came about
D. Teach woman about proper/correct D. Select the appropriate IEC strategies to
nutrition. correct them.

23. Who among the following are recipients of

the secondary level of care for cancer cases 30. Pentavalent Vaccine of the National
except? Immunization Program contains the following:
A. Those under early case detection 1. Diphteria toxoid
2. Pertussis vaccine
3. Tetanus toxoid
4. Inactivated Polio vaccine
5. Hib vaccine
6. Hepa B vaccine

A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 1,2,3,5,6
C. 1,2,3,4,6
D. 1,2,4,5,6