Testbank 305

SADCW-6ed Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems
Analysis and Design
TRUE/FALSE
1. An information system often includes the software, the database, and the related manual
processes.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p4
2. Systems analysis is sometimes referred to as “understanding and specification.”
3. Systems design consists of activities to describe the solution to the problem.
4. A systems development project is always a formal activity with a beginning and an end.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p5
5. The SDLC means the Systems Design Life Cycle.
6. Agile refers to the flexibility that programmers have in taking on various assignments.
7. Iterative development is the same as Agile development.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p6, p8
8. In iterative development the system is grown organically.
9. The first core process is to plan the project.
10. In iterative development, an iteration usually lasts about six weeks. .
11. The System Vision Document is usually developed before the project actually begins.

12. The project plan is required to get the project approved.
13. A Work Breakdown Structure is the first step in building a project schedule.
14. During analysis activities the project team build two types of diagrams: Use Case diagram and
Package diagram.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p15-16
15. The purpose of a workflow diagram is to document the internal steps of a use case.
16. The ovals in a workflow diagram represent tasks.
17. The database is designed using information from the class diagram.
18. All the classes in the Design Class Diagram are used to define the database tables.
19. A package diagram is useful to document the various subsystems in a system.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p22-23
20. Usually the final step in a given iteration is to deploy part of the system.
21. One approach to the SDLC can be described using five core processes.
22. An iteration normally only includes three or four of the core processes.
23. Sometimes the activities within Core Process one are completed before the actual project starts.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. An information system consists of
a. software, database, c. software, hardware,
and manual and database
processes
b. software, hardware, d. applications, screens,
and network and database
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p4
2. A person that functions as an architect to plan, capture the vision, and understand the needs for a
new system is often called a ____________________.
a. programmer analyst c. systems analyst
b. software engineer d. software developer
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p5
3. Those activities that enable a person to describe in the detail the system that solves the need is
called __________________.
a. architectural design c. systems analysis
b. systems design d. high-level design
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p5
4. SDLC stands for what?

a. Software Design Life c. Software
Cycle Development Life
Cycle
b. Systems Design Life d. Systems
Cycle Development Life
Cycle
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p6
5. An information system development process that emphasizes flexibility to embrace change is

called _____________________.
a. Iterative project c. Iterative development
planning
b. Adaptive d. Agile development
development projects
6. When a system is partitioned into pieces, each piece is referred to as a _________________.

a. application c. subsystem
b. package d. program
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 911
7. Two important goals or steps within Core Process one are ____ and _____.
a. identify the problem; c. describe the solution;
choose the project obtain project
manager approval
b. identify the solution d. estimate the cost;
objective; identify the iterations
obtain project
approval
8. Determine the major subsystems and assigning them to an iteration is done in which Core
Process?
a. 1 d. 4
b. 2 e. 5
c. 3 f. 6
9. Determining team members and assigning responsibilities is done in which Core Process?
a. 1 d. 4
b. 2 e. 5
c. 3 f. 6
10. Two of the primary elements that are included in a Work Breakdown Structure include:
a. subsystem iteration c. list of tasks and
assignments and assigned resources
estimated effort
b. sequence of tasks and d. list of tasks and
estimated effort estimated effort
11. The primary difference between a work breakdown structure and a work sequence draft is that the
work sequence draft shows ___________________.
a. the additionally c. the day to day
deployment tasks assignments
b. the estimated effort d. the sequence of tasks
of tasks
12. The purpose of a use case is to _______.

a. Identify a sequence c. Identify a useful
of steps to process a objective for the new
user function system
b. Identify a business d. Identify a user and
event that requires describe one user
system action procedure
13. The purpose of a class diagram is to _______.

a. document the c. document all of the
hierarchy of class programming classes
relationships
b. document the d. document the
methods of classes in information
the new system requirements in the
new system
14. The boxes on a class diagram can be thought of as a particular _______.

a. set of relationships c. set of objects
b. set of attributes d. set of procedures
15. The diagram that is most effective in describing the internal steps of a use case is _______.
a. a package diagram c. a use case diagram
b. a workflow diagram d. a class diagram
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p17-18
16. Performing in-depth fact finding to understand details is done as part of which Core Process?
a. 1 d. 4
b. 2 e. 5
c. 3 f. 6
17. In a workflow diagram, the arrows that cross the center line are used to identify what?
a. Relationships c. User key strokes
between objects
b. Actor and use case d. Screens and Reports
relationships
18. Designing the database schema is included in which Core Process?

a. 1 d. 4
b. 2 e. 5
c. 3 f. 6
19. Detailed design is the thought process of how to program each _______.
a. use case c. package
b. screen or report d. subsystem
20. Another name for a workflow diagram is a(n) _______ diagram.

a. use case c. class
b. activity d. work sequence
21. To design the database schema, information from which diagram is the most important?
a. network diagram c. design class diagram
b. package diagram d. class diagram
22. Method signatures are included in which diagram?

a. Activity diagram c. class diagram
b. Package diagram d. Design class diagram
23. A diagram that shows the overall structure of a system as it exists after it is deployed is called
what?
a. Architectural c. System and
configuration subsystem diagram
diagram
b. Architectural class d. Design class diagram
diagram
24. Programming is included in which Core Process?

a. 1 d. 4
b. 2 e. 5
c. 3 f. 6
ANS: E PTS: 1 REF: p23-24
25. Overall functional testing is included in which Core Process?

a. 1 d. 4
b. 2 e. 5
c. 3 f. 6
26. What is the purpose of an iteration recap?

a. To ensure the correct c. To give performance
deliverable was reviews to the
produced programmers
b. To review the project d. To rework the project
processes schedule
27. What is the single activity that usually requires the most time during a project?
a. Programming c. Meeting with users
b. Acceptance testing d. Design the screens
and reports
28. What is usually the end result of an iteration?

a. A piece of working c. A set of
code specifications
b. A project plan d. The final system
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which two answers identify the two middle core processes, i.e. core process 3 and 4? (choose
two)
a. Design the c. Build and test the
components system
b. Plan and monitor the d. Understand the
project details of the problem
ANS: A, D PTS: 1 REF: p6
2. Two of the primary benefits of iterative development include (choose two).

a. early deployment of c. project team can
part of the system adjust the work
schedules
b. easier to get user d. high risk elements
involvement done first
3. What are the three parts of a System Vision Document ? (choose three)
a. Solution description d. Problem description
b. Estimated project e. System capabilities
costs
c. Project timetable or f. Business benefits
schedule
ANS: D, E, F PTS: 1 REF: p10
4. A work sequence draft provides three benefits to a project. Which of the following are included
in those benefits?
a. Assign resources to d. Add missing tasks
tasks
b. Provide task e. Anticipate resource
descriptions needs
c. Measure progress f. Schedule user
involvement
ANS: C, E PTS: 1 REF: p14
5. What are the first two models, e.g. diagrams that affect the entire system, that are built during the
Core Process to discover and understand the details?
a. Workflow diagram d. Class diagram
b. Work sequence e. Package diagram
diagram
c. Use case diagram f. Screen layouts
ANS: C, D PTS: 1 REF: p14
6. The final objective of systems design includes which of the following? (choose two)
a. To define the d. To define methods of
database classes
b. To define the user e. To define class
screens & reports attributes
c. To define the f. To define the
network structure interactions between
classes
ANS: D, F PTS: 1 REF: p20
COMPLETION
1. Another term that is used to define a computer application is _______________.
ANS:
app
App
PTS: 2 REF: p4
2. Those skills, steps, guides, and tools that support and lead up to the actual programming of the
system are referred to as ___________________.
ANS:
SA&D
systems analysis and design
Systems Analysis and Design
PTS: 2 REF: p5
3. A planned undertaking that has a beginning and an end and produces some result is called a
_________________.
ANS: project
PTS: 2 REF: p5
4. What is the term that is used to describe all the activities to build, launch, and maintain an
information system?
ANS:
SDLC
Systems Development Life Cycle
Systems development life cycle
systems development life cycle
PTS: 2 REF: p6
5. A development process where the system is grown piece by piece is called ____________.
ANS: iterative development
PTS: 2 REF: p8
6. The primary output of Core Process one and which is used to get project approval is called
___________________.
ANS:
System Vision Document
system vision document
PTS: 2 REF: p10
7. A document that identifies and lists all of the tasks to be completed within an iteration is called a
___________________.
ANS:
work breakdown structure
Work Breakdown Structure
PTS: 2 REF: p12
8. A diagram that shows the method signatures in each class is called the _______.
ANS:
design class diagram
DCD
PTS: 2 REF: p22
9. What is the name of the diagram that is often used to show the different layers of the system
(view layer, etc.)?
ANS:
Package Diagram
package diagram
PTS: 2 REF: p23
10. What do we call the type of testing that the users perform to ensure that the system meets the
business requirements?
ANS:
User acceptance testing
User Acceptance Testing
Acceptance testing
Acceptance Testing
PTS: 2 REF: p24
ESSAY
1. List the six core processes.
ANS:
1. Identify the problem
2. Plan and monitor the project
3. Discover and understand the problem (analysis)
4. Design the system components
5. Build, text, and integrate system components
6. Complete system test and deploy the system
PTS: 5 DIF: 5 REF: p6
2. List the three components that are included in a System Vision Document.
ANS:
1. Problem description
2. System capabilities
3. Business benefits
PTS: 5 REF: p10
3. List the four steps required to conduct system test or user test.
ANS:
1. Create the test data
2. Conduct the test
3. Document the errors and issues
4. Fix the errors.
PTS: 5 REF: p25

SADCW-6ed Chapter 2: Investigating System Requirements
TRUE/FALSE
1. Systems analysis involves the creation of logical models.
2. The reason an analyst uses many different models is that each relates to a different aspect of the
system.
3. Textual models are used to represent precise aspects of the system that can be best represented by
using formulas.
4. Sometimes a narrative description is the best form to use for recording information.
5. A key reason that modeling is important in system development is the complexity of describing
information systems.
6. Before gathering detailed information, and analyst identifies every type of stakeholder.
7. In the RMO CSMS project, customers are not considered stakeholders because it is not feasible to
interview them or use them in the project activities.
8. Core Process 3 involves defining in great detail what the information system needs to accomplish
in order to provide the organization with the desired benefits.
9. Beginning analysts often underestimate how much there is to learn about the work the users
perform.
10. A fact finding user interview can usually be completed in one comprehensive session.

11. If the analysts understand the major business processes, it is not usually necessary to create a
comprehensive list of all business processes.
12. The first and most important step in preparing for an interview is to determine who should be
involved.
13. Asking about error conditions usually is done in later interviews after the analyst understands and
documents the basic processing requirements.
14. A good way to remember the details of an interview is to use a tape recorder.
15. Reviewing existing documentation is a good idea for analysts because it is a dependable source of
accurate policies and procedures.
16. When observing business processes, it is not necessary to observe all the processes at the same
level of detail.
17. It is a good idea to observe user processes so that the analyst will know exactly how to build the
functions into the new system.
18. The term “I’ll know it when I see it” applies to one valid way to get requirements definition.
19. A decision point within an activity diagram may be shown with an activity symbol.
20. A synchronization bar in an activity diagram allows multiple agents or actors to participate in a
workflow in separate rows.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The term technology architecture refers to
a. the software c. the combination of
resources which information systems
make up the and the hardware
information systems infrastructure
b. the hardware, d. the configuration of
network, and system the old technology
software and new technology
within an
organization
2. Application architecture is used to refer to

a. the organization and c. the architectural
configuration of all structure of the
software solutions subsystems within a
into information software application
systems
b. the application of the d. the relationship
information system to between software
solve business applications and the
problems areas of the
organization that they
support
3. Which of the following items is NOT a part of the application architecture?

a. software c. user-interface
technology
b. programming d. virtual private
languages and networks
development tools
4. Which of the following describes what the system is required to do?

a. Functional c. User requirements
requirements
b. General requirements d. Nonfunctional
requirements
5. _______ requirements are based on the procedures and rules that the organization uses to run its
business.
a. Physical c. Logical
b. Functional d. System
6. _______ requirements are characteristics of the system other than the business procedures it must
support.
a. System c. Nonfunctional
b. Physical d. Implementation
7. The S in the FURPS acronym stands for _______.

a. Screen and reporting c. System requirements
requirements
b. Software d. Security requirements
requirements
8. The P in the FURPS acronym stands for _______.

a. Physical c. People requirements
requirements
b. Performance d. Processing
requirements requirements
9. _______ requirements are most often documented in graphical and textual models.
a. Security c. Technical
b. Nonfunctional d. Functional
10. Diagrams and schematic representations of some aspect of a system are examples of a ______
model.
a. logical c. mathematical
b. graphical d. textual
11. A representation of some aspect of the system being built is a _______.

a. requirement c. model
b. technique d. user interface
12. A series of formulas that describe technical aspects of a system is a(n) model.
a. textual c. graphical
b. descriptive d. mathematical
13. What does the Acronym UML stand for?

a. User Modification c. User Mode Listings
Language
b. Unified Modeling d. Unix Modeling
Language Language
14. The term _______ refers to all the people who have an interest in the successful implementation
of the system.
a. users c. managers
b. clients d. stakeholders
15. Persons who regularly interact with the system as part of their jobs are called _______.
a. user stakeholders c. operational
stakeholders
b. client stakeholders d. executive
stakeholders
16. What type of stakeholders are those that do not use the system on day to day tasks, but use
information, such as reports, from the system.
a. Business stakeholders c. External stakeholders
b. Client stakeholders d. Executive
stakeholders
17. What do we call the person or group who provides funding for the development of the new
system?
a. Oversight committee c. Board of directors
b. Client d. Department head
18. The group that provides direction for the configuration of the new system in the existing
computing environment are called _______.
a. Technical c. System programmers
stakeholders
b. Support staff d. Operational
stakeholders
19. Clients play what role in the development of the new system?
a. Develop the project c. Define business
plan processes
b. Fund the project d. Lead the project team
20. Questionnaires can be useful in information gathering when users _____.
a. are widely distributed c. are not well-informed
geographically
b. need prompting to d. do not have time for
respond to questions interviews
21. Questions that have a simple, definitive answer are called _______ questions.
a. true/false c. open-ended
b. close-ended d. multiple choice
22. Which of the following is normally the most time-consuming and resource-expensive operation?
a. Building prototypes c. Researching vendor
solutions
b. Observing business d. Interview
processes stakeholders
23. Questionnaires can be used to ask questions that _______.

a. determine user c. define system
opinions functions
b. determine the d. detail user procedures
stakeholders
24. During a fact-finding interview, an important guideline is ____.

a. to include as many c. to probe to get
users as possible sufficient details
b. not to waste project d. to include the client
time by including too in important
many analysts decisions
25. The strength of closed-ended questions is that they ____.

a. invite discussion and c. speed up the
elaboration interview process
b. limit answers to a set d. are easier for the
of choices users to answer
26. Which of the following statements is correct about questionnaires?

a. Questionnaires are c. Questionnaires have a
well suited to help limited and specific
you learn about use in information
processes, gathering.
workflows, or
techniques.
b. Stakeholders always d. Questionnaires are
return questionnaires the most frequently
that contain many used method to
open-ended gather user
questions. information.
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p54-55
27. The most important step in preparing for an interview is to _______.

a. determine the correct c. establish an objective
users
b. build a list of d. determine the project
questions team members
28. Asking many detailed, probing questions during an initial interview usually _______.
a. makes the users c. can wait until follow-
uncomfortable up interviews
b. is necessary to d. indicates that the
understand the analyst does not
business process understand the
business
29. ____ is an important part of each interview.

a. Follow-up c. An agenda
b. Review of the d. Finalize processing
requirements models decisions
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p51-52
30. _______ is an important part of the follow-up after an interview.

a. Establishing c. Making copies of
documentation everyone’s notes
guidelines
b. Building models d. Setting the time for
the next meeting
31. Every successful interview requires ____.

a. open-ended questions c. an activity diagram
b. preparation d. finding the exception
conditions
32. As part of the interview process, any unresolved issues should be _______.
a. noted in the analyst’s c. brought to the
meeting notes attention of the
appropriate manager
b. given a tentative d. put on an open-items
resolution list
33. One of the dangers in researching vendor solutions is that users and analysts _______.
a. may discover and c. may discover
desire too many different methods to
unimportant “bells perform business
and whistles” processes
b. may not understand d. may want to buy one
the vendor solution of these solutions
prematurely
34. The term “I’ll know it when I see it” refers to what method of requirements definition.
a. Questionnaires c. Observing business
procedures
b. User interviews d. Collecting active user
comments
35. One way to show multiple, independent alternative paths within an activity diagram is with a
_______.
a. synchronization bar c. decision diamond
b. swimlane d. activity oval
36. Workflows can be documented using _______.

a. swimlanes c. class diagrams
b. use case diagrams d. activity diagrams
37. Looping in an activity diagram is best represented using what?

a. synchronization bars c. activity ovals
b. decision points d. lines with arrowheads
38. One important reason for prioritizing requirements is to _______.

a. assign work within an c. avoid confusing the
iteration users
b. speed up the project d. avoid scope creep
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. The “+” in FURPS+ includes which of the following types of requirements? (choose two)
a. Supportability d. Nonfunctional
requirements requirements
b. Performance e. Design constraints
constraints
c. Reliability constraints f. User interface
requirements
ANS: A, E PTS: 2 REF: p43-44
2. Which are the major business themes that guide analysts in fact finding activities? (chose 3)
a. What are the business d. What are the
processes? objectives of a
business process?
(What should it
accomplish?)
b. Who performs the e. What is produced by
business processes? the business process?
c. How are the business f. What information is
processes performed? needed?
ANS: A, C, F PTS: 2 REF: p50
3. What are the two primary benefits of reviewing the documentation of existing inputs, outputs, and
procedures. (choose 2)
a. Have a repository of d. Help build models of
existing existing procedures
documentation
b. Obtain a preliminary e. Ensure complete
understanding documentation of
procedures
c. Encourages the users f. Serve as visual aids
to prepare for in interview
interviews discussions
ANS: B, F PTS: 2 REF: p55
4. Two benefits of researching vendor solutions include _______ and ______. (Choose two)
a. encouraging the users d. speeding up the
to buy a vendor development project
solution immediately
b. helping analysts e. informing senior
discover state of the management about
art solutions competitors
c. helping users f. reducing the risk of
generate new ideas implementing a new
for business functions system
ANS: B, C PTS: 1 REF: p56-57
5. Which two of the following are activities of Core Process 3? (choose two)
a. Gather detailed d. Define test data
information
b. Plan the project e. Develop user-
iterations interface dialogs
c. Build an iteration f. Develop architectural
schedule structure
ANS: A, E PTS: 2 REF: p40
COMPLETION
1. Core Process 3 is called “Discover and understand details.” Another term that is used to describe
these activities is _______ activities.
ANS:
analysis
Analysis
systems analysis
Systems Analysis
PTS: 2 REF: p40
2. The U in the FURPS acronym stands for _______.
ANS:
usability
Usability
usability requirements
Usability requirements
PTS: 2 REF: p43
3. The R in the FURPS acronym stands for _______.
ANS:
reliability requirements
Reliability requirements
reliability
Reliability
PTS: 2 REF: p43
4. The P in the FURPS acronym stands for _______.

ANS:
performance requirements
performance
Performance
Performance requirements
PTS: 2 REF: p43
5. _______ requirements describe operational characteristics related to users such as work

procedures and online help.
ANS:
Usability
usability
PTS: 2 REF: p43
6. _______ requirements describe the dependability of a system such as service outages and
incorrect processing.
ANS:
Reliability
reliability
PTS: 2 REF: p43
7. _______ requirements describe operational characteristics related to measures of workload such

as throughput and response time.
ANS:
Performance
performance
PTS: 2 REF: p43
8. _______ requirements describe how access to the software application will be controlled and data
will be protected.
ANS:
Security
security
PTS: 2 REF: p43
9. _______ requirements describe constraints such as programming languages, tools, and

communication protocols for distributed portions of the system.
ANS:
Implementation
implementation
PTS: 2 REF: p44
10. _______ requirements describe interactions between systems, e.g. the method of communication
between one system and another system.
ANS:
Interface
interface
PTS: 2 REF: p44
11. _______ requirements describe how a system is configured, monitored, maintained, and updated.
ANS:
Supportability
supportability
PTS: 2 REF: p44
12. Use case diagrams, class diagrams, sequence diagrams are all examples of standard modeling
method?
ANS:
UML
Unified Modeling Language
Unified modeling language
PTS: 2 REF: p46
13. Persons who have an interest in the successful implementation of the new system are called
_______.
ANS: stakeholders
PTS: 2 REF: p46
14. Persons within an organization who have a significant interest in its operation are _______
stakeholders.
ANS: internal
PTS: 2 REF: p46
15. Persons outside an organization’s control who interact with the system or who have an interest in
its operation are called _______ stakeholders.
ANS: external
PTS: 2 REF: p46

16. Questions that have a simple, definitive answer are called ____________________ questions.
ANS: closed-ended
PTS: 2 REF: p50
17. Questions that encourage discussion are called ____________________ questions.
ANS: open-ended
PTS: 2 REF: p50
18. The most important and first step in preparing for an interview with a user is to establish the
____________________ of the interview.
ANS: objective
PTS: 2 REF: p51
19. A _______ is the sequence of processing steps that completely handles one business transaction.
ANS: workflow
PTS: 2 REF: p57
20. An _______ describes the sequential flow of user activities.
ANS:
activity diagram
workflow diagram
PTS: 2 REF: p57
21. One way to show concurrent paths within an activity diagram is with a _______.
ANS: synchronization bar
PTS: 2 REF: p57
22. In order to show all the activities of a single agent or organizational unit together, a activity
diagram contains what construct?
ANS:
swimlane
swimlane heading
Swimlane
Swimlane heading
PTS: 2 REF: p57

ESSAY
1. List the activities of Core Process 3: Discover and Understand Details
ANS:
1. Gather detailed information
2. Define requirements
3. Prioritize requirements
4. Develop user-interface dialogs
5. Evaluate requirements with users
PTS: 5 REF: p40
2. List the elements that are referred to by the FURPS+ acronym.
ANS:
F = Functional requirements
U = Usability requirements
R = Reliability requirements
P = Performance requirements
S = Security requirements
+ = Other constraints including Design constraints, Implementation requirements, interface
requirements, physical requirements, supportability requirements.
PTS: 5 REF: p43-44
3. List the six techniques used to gather detailed requirements information.
ANS:
1. Interview users
2. Distribute questionnaires
3. Review documents
4. Observer users
5. Research vendor solutions
6. Collect active user comments
PTS: 5 REF: p48
4. List five steps in the activity to interview users and other stakeholders.
ANS:
1. Prepare detailed questions
2. Meet with users
3. Discuss answers and procedures
4. Document answers
5. Follow-up on open issues
PTS: 5 REF: p49
5. List the three major question themes that guide analysts in fact finding activities.
ANS:
1. What are the business processes?
2. How are the business processes performed?
3. What information is required?
PTS: 5 REF: p50
SADCW-6ed Chapter 3: Use Cases
TRUE/FALSE
1. The CRUD technique is often used to validate and enhance the list of use cases.
2. During the interviews in the user goal technique, the analyst should not try to influence the users
in discussing their work methods.
3. Before using the user goal technique the analyst must first identify and classify all the types of
system users.
4. One benefit of the event decomposition technique is that it helps to identify use cases at the right
level of detail.
5. The event decomposition technique begins by identifying use cases.
6. The end product of the event decomposition technique is a list of use cases at the right level of
analysis.
7. When describing an external event, there is no need to worry about the person or thing causing
the event.
8. Temporal events always occur on a fixed date or at a fixed time.
9. A state event is a political or governmental activity.

10. Another name for a state event is an internal event.
11. When a customer buys an item of merchandise using his store credit account, a separate event is
required to pay the store.
12. During analysis the analyst should be sure to identify system control events such as the user
logging in or out.
13. CRUD stands for create, reply, update, delete.
14. The CRUD technique is most useful as a cross-check along with other techniques.
15. When using the CRUD technique, data ownership by foreign systems is an important
consideration.
16. One way to determine whether an occurrence is an event or part of the interaction before or after
an event is by asking if any long pauses or intervals occur.
17. A state event is an event that occurs when something happens outside the system that triggers the
need for processing.
18. Real-time systems require the system to react immediately to things that are going on in the
environment.
19. The focus on external events is inappropriate when working with end users because discussing
events tends to confuse the issues.
20. The analyst begins identifying state events by asking about the specific deadlines that the system
must accommodate.
21. One technique used to help decide which events apply to controls is to assume that technology is
perfect.
22. An actor is a person that plays a particular role within a business process.
23. Each use case is used by only one actor.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p78=79
24. In a use case diagram, and actor must always be a person.
25. Another name for the “includes” relationship is the “uses” relationship.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. One technique to identify use cases is to ask users what they want to achieve with a particular
business procedure. This technique is called the ______ technique.
a. business procedure c. workflow
b. event decomposition d. user goal
2. The even decomposition technique begins by identifying all of the _______.

a. operational users c. business events
b. system users d. internal events
3. Something that occurs at a specific time and place and should be remember by the system is
called a(n) _______.
a. use case c. user goal
b. elementary business d. event
process
4. The user goal technique normally begins by identifying, listing, and classifying _______ .
a. the system users c. the business
processes
b. the business events d. the system
stakeholders
5. The source of using the concept of events to define functional requirements was first emphasized
with _______ systems.
a. business c. real-time
b. operating d. batch
6. The type of event that occurs outside of the system is called a(n) _______.
a. outside event c. business event
b. external event d. temporal event
7. An event that occurs by reaching a point in time is called a _______ event.

a. internal c. timed
b. external d. temporal
8. An occurrence at a specific time and place, which can be described and is worth remember, is
a. business process c. requirement
b. event d. business transaction
9. A(n) _______ event occurs when something happens inside the system that triggers the need for
processing.
a. logical c. external
b. state d. temporal
10. Which of the following is an example of a state event?

a. A customer places an c. Management checks
order order status
b. It is time to send a d. Inventory reorder
late notice point is reached
11. Which of the following is an example of a temporal event?

a. Month end billing is c. Customer updates
started address
b. User logs into the d. Inventory reorder
system occurs
12. State events are also sometimes called _______ events.

a. external c. system
b. trigger d. internal
13. The way to determine whether an occurrence is an event or part of the interaction before or after
the event is to ask the following question: _______?
a. Is the user finished c. Is all the data input?
with the task?
b. Is the system at rest? d. Is all the printing
completed?
14. “Customer decides to buy a shirt” is an example of what?

a. An external event c. A temporal event
b. Activity prior to an d. Activity after an
event event.
15. Checks or safety procedures are put in place to protect the integrity of the system is referred to as
_______.
a. perfect technology c. system controls
assumption
b. risk control d. technology protection
assumption
16. The _______ indicates that events should be included during analysis only if the system would be
required to respond under ideal conditions.
a. perfect technology c. perfect processing
assumption control
b. ideal technology d. ideal processing
assumptions control
17. In using the event decomposition technique, which of the following is NOT a type of event that is
considered?
a. Event initiated by an c. Event initiated by a
external agent system change
b. Event initiated by a d. Event initiated by a
point in time user login
18. An important step in using the CRUD technique is to _______.
a. identify the system c. identify the business
controls events
b. identify the external d. identify the data
agents entities
19. The system’s reaction to an event is called a(n) _______ .

a. system process c. activity
b. use case d. system requirement
20. A one sentence description of a use case is called a(n) _______.

a. brief use case c. intermediate use case
description description
b. short use case d. use case description
description
21. The boundary between the automated portion of the system and the users of the system is called
the _______.
a. software boundary c. system boundary
b. application boundary d. automation boundary
22. In UML notation, the guillemets character is used to show what kind of notation?
a. classes c. relationships
b. subordinates d. stereotypes
23. The UML notation for the “includes” relationship is a(n) _______.
a. a solid arrow c. a straight line
b. a dashed arrow d. a dashed line
24. In UML notation the includes relationship connects two use cases. The use case that is
“included” use case is the one which _______ .
a. is connected to the c. cannot be determined
tail of an arrow
b. is connected to the d. is not connected to an
head of an arrow actor
25. The technique used to identify use cases based on external, temporal, and state events is the
_______.
a. user goals technique c. event decomposition
technique
b. list of nouns d. CRUD technique
technique
26. The level of analysis to use when identifying user goals is the _______.
a. external event level c. temporal event level
b. elementary business d. elementary activity
process level level
Acceptance criteria are usually associated with __________.

Selected Answer: d.
use cases
Answers: a.
elementary business events
b.
system controls
c.
user stories
d.
use cases
User stories are different than use cases in what way?

Selected Answer: c.
Different focus
Answers: a.
Differ in identified functions required
b.
Different users identify them
c.
Different focus
d.
Differ in the amount of detail captured
“As a student, I want to register for a class in order to fulfill education requirements” is an
example of a(n) _________________.
Selected Answer: c.
use case
Answers: a.
user story
b.
elementary business process
c.
use case
d.
external event
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Two primary techniques to identify use cases are _______ and _______. (Choose two)
a. user goal technique d. event decomposition
technique
b. CRUD technique e. business function
technique
c. system response f. user procedure
technique technique
COMPLETION
1. An activity that the system performs in response to a user request is called a(n) _______.
ANS: use case
PTS: 2 REF: p69
2. A technique that is best used to validate the list of existing use cases is called the _______
technique.
ANS: CRUD
PTS: 2 REF: p69
3. A(n) _______ is a task that is performed by one person in response to a business event, adds
value, and leaves the system in a stable condition.
ANS:
elementary business process
EBP
PTS: 2 REF: p70

4. A(n) _______ is something that occurs at a specific time and place and can be precisely
measured.
ANS: event
PTS: 2 REF: p71
5. An external agent or person that interacts with the system by supplying data is called a(n)
_______.
ANS: actor
PTS: 2 REF: p72
6. An event that occurs simply by reaching a point in time is called a(n) _______ event.
ANS: temporal
PTS: 2 REF: p73
7. The _______ states that events should be included during analysis only if the system would be
required to respond under perfect technology conditions.
ANS: perfect technology assumption
PTS: 2 REF: p76
8. Checks and safety procedures that are put in place to protect the integrity of the system are called
_______ .
ANS: system controls
PTS: 2 REF: p75
9. An acronym for updating, deleting, reporting and creating of data is called _______.
ANS: CRUD
PTS: 2 REF: p77
10. A UML model that is used to show use cases and their relationships to actors is called a(n)
_______.
ANS: use case diagram
PTS: 2 REF: p78
11. The _______ is the dividing line between the computerized portion of the system and the users
who operate the system.
ANS: automation boundary

PTS: 2 REF: p81
12. The _______ technique is a technique to identify use cases by determining specific goals or
objectives must be completed by a user.
ANS:
user goal
user goal technique
PTS: 2 REF: p69
13. The _______ technique is a technique to identify use cases by determining the external business
events to which the system must respond.
ANS:
event decomposition
event decomposition technique
PTS: 2 REF: p70
14. An event that occurs outside the system is called a(n) _______.
ANS: external event
PTS: 2 REF: p72
15. An event that occurs when something inside the system triggers the need for processing, but
usually as a consequence of external activity is called a _______ event.
ANS:
state
state event
PTS: 2 REF: p73-74
ESSAY
1. List the steps for using the event decomposition technique.
ANS:
1. Identify external events
2. Name a use case for each external event
3. Identify temporal events
4. Name a use case for each temporal event
5. Identify state events
6 Name a use case for each state event
7. Remove and perfect technology assumption events
PTS: 5 REF: p76

2. List the four steps for using the CRUD technique.
ANS:
1. Identify all the data entities
2. For each data entity ensure that there are use cases to CRUD
3. Add any new required use cases
4. For integrated applications, do not add use cases that are covered in other applications
PTS: 5 REF: p78
3. List the steps required to develop a Use Case Diagram.
ANS:
1. Identify all the stakeholders who need to see a use case diagram.
2. Determine what is important for each stakeholder.
3. Organize the use cases for each communication need. Draw the use case diagrams.
4. Carefully name each diagram as it pertains to each stakeholder and user.
PTS: 5 REF: p83
4. List three types of events and provide descriptions for each.
ANS:
An external event is an event that occurs outside the system and is usually initiated by an external
agent or actor. A second type of event is the temporal, which occurs as a result of reaching a point
in time. A third type of even is a state event. This event occurs when something happens inside
the system that triggers the need for processing.
PTS: 5 REF: p72-75
5. Describe two techniques for identifying use cases. Which is the most comprehensive approach?
ANS:
Two techniques for identifying use cases are the user goal technique and the event decomposition
technique. The user goal technique involves identifying all actors or users of the system and
asking, “What are their goals in using the system?” Goals are identified at the elementary
business process (EBP) level of analysis. The event decomposition technique involves asking,
“What events does the system need to respond to?” External events, temporal events, and state
events are identified. The use case is what the system does to react to or respond to each event.
The event table is used to catalog information about each event and the resulting use case. The
event decomposition technique is the most comprehensive technique. Both techniques involve the
idea of an elementary business process (EBS) being a system process in response to a business
event. A third technique discussed in chapter 7 is the CRUD technique, where the analyst
identifies for each domain class the create, read or report, update, and delete use cases required.
In practice, multiple approaches should be used to cross check each other to assure all use cases
are identified.
PTS: 5 REF: p69-74

SADCW-6ed Chapter 4: Domain Modeling
TRUE/FALSE
1. Two techniques to identify things in the problem domain are the noun technique and the verb
technique.
2. When identifying things in the problem domain, an analyst should focus primarily on tangible
things about which information is required.
3. When using the brainstorming technique it is often helpful to think about each use case and
talking to users.
4. The noun technique can be thought of as a variation of the brainstorming technique.
5. When using the noun technique, the analyst begins by listing all the nouns that the users mention.
6. The cardinality of a class is a measure of the number of objects in the class.
7. The ERD crows feet cardinality constraint indicates a mandatory many relationship.
8. In UML a zero to many multiplicity constraint is shown with a “O” and crows feet on the line.
9. A class of objects is equivalent to a set of objects.
10. A superclass only exists as part of a generalization/specialization.
11. An abstract class is used to describe a “thing” that is abstract, i.e. not tangible.
12. A composite object only exist as part of a whole-part relationship.
13. In generalization/specialization the objects in a subclass are always also contained in the parent
class.
14. A semantic net illustrates individual objects within a class diagram.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The specific area of the user’s business need that is within the scope of the new system is called
the _______.
a. use cases c. functional
requirements
b. user specifications d. problem domain
2. One technique to find the “things” that need to be included in the new system begins by starting
with a user and the use cases and then try to identify the necessary informational “things.” This
technique is called the _______.
a. domain analysis c. brainstorming
technique technique
b. check list technique d. noun technique
3. One technique for finding “things” that need to be in the new system is done by the analyst starts
making lists of “things.” He may do this from information and even without talking to the users
extensively. This technique is called the _______.
a. domain analysis c. brainstorming
technique technique
b. check list technique d. noun technique
4. When making a list of nouns to determine what are the important “things” for the new system,
there are three question that should be asked about each noun. Which of the following is one of
those questions?
a. Is it a tangible item?
b. Is it an abstract item?
c. Who needs information about this item?
d. Should it be researched further?
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p94-95
5. A piece of information about a particular object is called a(n) _______.

a. identifier c. field
b. attribute d. data value
6. An example of an attribute of an object might be _______.

a. an inventory item c. a social security
number
b. items on a purchase d. a calendar
order
7. An attribute whose value uniquely identifies an object is called a(n) _______.

a. unique attribute c. locking attribute
b. secure attribute d. key attribute
8. A(n) _______ is a naturally occurring association among specific things.

a. relationship c. attribute
b. cardinality d. composition
9. The number of associations that occur among specific things in an entity relationship diagram is
called ____.
a. a relationship c. a binary relationship

b. an attribution d. cardinality
10. A synonym for cardinality (used with UML class diagrams) is ____.
a. relationship c. unary relationship
b. multiplicity d. inheritance
11. ____ is used to describe the relationship between two things of the same type, such as one person
being married to another person.
a. Binary association c. Cardinality
b. Unary association d. N-ary association
12. A synonym for cardinality (used with UML class diagrams) is _______.
a. relationship c. inheritance
b. multiplicity d. n-ary relationship
13. An attribute that contains a collection of related attributes is called a(n) _______.
a. class attribute c. compound attribute
b. key attribute d. association attribute
14. A measure of the number of links between one object and another object in a relationship is
called the _______.
a. linkups c. associations
b. aggregations d. cardinality
15. In the traditional approach to system development, the system stores information about ____.
a. objects c. attributes
b. data stores d. data entities
16. The crows feet notation on an ERD is a type of _______ constraint.

a. cardinality c. many-to-many
b. multiplicity d. relationship
17. A relationship that has a cardinality constraint of one or more is a(n) _______ relationship.
a. mandatory c. unary
b. optional d. binary
18.
The above cardinality constraint on the Order data entity indicates that there can be _____ .
a. zero or many orders
b. one or many orders
c. many orders
d. cannot be determined without the other side of
the relationship
Descriptive properties of things in the problem domain are often documented as what?
Selected Answer: c.
objects
Answers: a.
data entities
b.
attributes
c.
objects
d.
relationships
19.
The association shown on the above image is a(n) ________ association.
a. unary c. n-ary
b. binary d. undefined
20. The domain model class diagram is used to _______ .

a. show the software classes in the problem
domain layer of the system
b. show the things involved in the user’s work
that are important
c. show the data entities for the new system
d. show the relationships among the data entities
21. A relationship between a “sports team” and the players, coaches, and sponsor would be described
as what kind of relationship?
a. Aggregation c. Generalization/Specia
lization
b. Composition d. Binary
22. Which of the following relationships would NOT be an appropriate way to describe a relationship
between an employee and his/her manager?
a. Unary relationship
b. Binary relationship
c. Generalization/Specialization relationship
d. Association relationship
23. As association class is frequently required for what kind of relationship?

a. zero to one c. many to many
b. one to many d. zero to many
The symbol that is used to initiate concurrent paths in a state machine diagram is what?
Selected Answer: d.
multiple states
Answers: a.
concurrency bar
b.
synchronization bar
c.
concurrent paths
d.
multiple states
24. In UML the constraint denoted by “0..*” indicates what?

a. an optional c. only a many
relationship maximum
relationship
b. a mandatory d. never only one
relationship allowed
25. Which of the following is NOT true about a UML class.

a. It is a classification of c. It is similar to a data
objects. entity.
b. It is a set of objects. d. It has multiplicity.
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p 98, p101
26. _____ is based on the idea that people classify things in terms of similarities and differences.
a. Aggregation c. Multiplicity
b. Composition d. Generalization/Specia
lization
27. A concept that allows subclasses to share the characteristics of their superclasses is called ____.
a. aggregation c. multiplicity
b. composition d. inheritance
28. A class that represents a many-to-many association between two other classes is called a(n) ____
class.
a. problem domain c. aggregated
b. superclass d. association
29. If we modeled a “sale” and the “sale items” with a whole-part relationship, it would best be
described as a _______ relationship.
a. aggregate c. inherited
b. composite d. abstract
30. In a generalization/specialization relationship, it would not make sense for a class at the bottom of
the hierarchy to be a(n) ______ class.
a. composite c. concrete
b. association d. abstract
31. Inheritance describes a condition between classes where _______ .

a. some classes are always abstract
b. subclasses inherit the names from
superclasses
c. classes are part of other classes
d. classes share some attributes
32.
This notation indicates what type of association?
a. Aggregation c. Association
b. Composition d. Generalization/Specia
lization
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. When analyzing the list of nouns to determine whether to include a particular noun as an
important “thing,” which of the following questions should be asked about the noun? (choose
two)
a. If assumptions change will it be important?
b. Is it tangible?
c. Is it unique?
d. Is it an attribute of some other thing?
e. Are there multiple instances of it?
f. Is it identifiable?
2. When analyzing the list of nouns to determine whether to exclude a particular noun as an
important “thing,” which of the following questions should be asked about the noun? (choose
two)
a. Is it in the domain?
b. Is it a synonym of an existing thing?
c. Is it a tangible item?
d. Is it identifiable?
e. Is it a persistent item?
f. Is it an output from the system?
ANS: B, F PTS: 2 REF: p94-95
COMPLETION
1. The specific area of the user’s business need that is within the scope of the new system is called
the _______.
ANS: problem domain
PTS: 2 REF: p92
2. A technique to identify problem domain objects in which developers and users work together in
an open group setting is called the _______ .
ANS:
brainstorming technique
brainstorming
PTS: 2 REF: p93
3. The technique for finding problem domain objects by finding and listing all the nouns in a dialog
or description is called the _______.
ANS:
noun technique
noun
PTS: 2 REF: p94
4. A descriptive piece of information about a thing or object is called a(n) _______.
ANS: attribute
PTS: 2 REF: p95
5. An attribute for an object which can be used to uniquely identify that object is called a(n)
_______.
ANS:
key
identifier
PTS: 2 REF: p96
6. A term in UML that describes a naturally occurring relationship between specific things is called
a(n) _______.
ANS: association
PTS: 2 REF: p96
7. In UML notation for object-oriented approach the term _______ is used instead of cardinality.
ANS: multiplicity
PTS: 2 REF: p97
8. _______ is used to describe the actual range of linkups allowed in an association (the minimum
and maximum values).
ANS:
Multiplicity constraints
Cardinality constraints
PTS: 2 REF: p97
9. The diagram consisting of data entities and their relationships is called a(n) _______ .
ANS:
entity relationship diagram
entity-relationship diagram
ERD
PTS: 2 REF: p98
10. When words are concatenated together to form a single word and the first letter of each is
capitalized it is called _______ notation.
ANS:
camelback
camelback notation
camelcase
camelcase notation
PTS: 2 REF: p101
11. An association that is also treated as a class is called a(n) _______.
ANS: association class
PTS: 2 REF: p102
12. A UML class that never has any objects within the class is called a(n) _______.
ANS:
abstract class
abstract
PTS: 2 REF: p106
13. A UML class that is allowed to have a set of actual objects within it is called a(n) _______.
ANS:
concrete class
concrete
PTS: 2 REF: p106
14. In a relationship where there are superclasses and subclasses, the relationship is called a(n)
_______ relationship.
ANS:
generalization/specialization
generalization specialization
generalization-specialization
PTS: 2 REF: p104
15. The idea that the attributes of a superclass are also attributes of a subclass is called ______.
ANS: inheritance
PTS: 2 REF: p104
16. The general relationship between classes in which one class is a part or component of another
class is called a(n) _______ relationship.
ANS:
whole-part
whole part
whole/part
PTS: 2 REF: p106
17. A type of relationship where between classes where the objects in one class are a part of the
objects in another class BUT they can also exist as separate objects alone.
ANS:
aggregation
aggregate relationship
aggregate
PTS: 2 REF: p106
18. A type of relationship where between classes where the objects in one class are a part of the
objects in another class AND they can only exist as part of the totality.
ANS:
composition
composite relationship
composite
PTS: 2 REF: p107
19. A drawing which shows individual objects and their links with other objects, and which is used to
help understand the problem domain classes is called a(n) _______ .
ANS: semantic net
PTS: 2 REF: p99-100
ESSAY
1. List the steps to follow when using the brainstorming technique for finding things.
ANS:
1. Identify a user and a set of use cases
2. Brainstorm with the user to identify necessary things
3. Use the identified things to ask addition questions about things
4. Expand to all other users and use cases
5. Merge the results and eliminate duplicates
PTS: 5 REF: p94
2. Describe the difference between the noun technique and the brainstorming technique to find
problem domain objects.
ANS:
The brainstorming technique is more top-down where the analyst is thinking and categorizing
objects from the beginning. The noun technique is more bottom-up where the analyst makes lists
and later analyzes to refine and merge the nouns.
PTS: 5 REF: p93-94
3. Using the noun technique for finding “things” for the new system, what are the three questions
you should ask about each noun you have identified? Explain what each question entails.
ANS:
1. Should it should be included - Is it unique? Is it within the scope? Are there multiple instances
of it?
2. Should it be excluded -- Is it a synonym for an existing noun? Is it only an input? Is it only an
output?
3. Should it be research further -- Is it an attribute? Will it become important in the future?
PTS: 5 REF: p94-95
SADCW-6ed Chapter 5: Extending the Requirements Models

TRUE/FALSE
1. An actor is always outside of the automation boundary.
2. Two difference scenarios of a use case would normally be described in a single fully developed
use case description.
3. A good way to describe a use case scenario is with a state chart.
4. Activity diagrams are not helpful when the flow of activities is too complex.
5. An activity diagram and the flow of activities in a fully developed use case description serve the
same purpose.
6. Since an activity diagram is not object-oriented (e.g. no objects), it is not a standard model of the
object-oriented Unified Modeling Language (UML).
7. In a system sequence diagram the order of the messages is determined by numbering the
messages.
8. In a system sequence diagram a box refers to a class of objects.
9. A true/false condition on a sequence diagram indicates whether the message can be processed or
not.
10. A loop frame and an asterisk mean the same thing in a sequence diagram.
11. On a sequence diagram, a message represents a service request.

12. An Opt frame and an Alt frame do essentially the same thing.
13. An Opt frame and a true/false condition on a message serve essentially the same purpose.
14. Activity diagrams are not helpful in developing system sequence diagrams (SSDs).
15. In the object-oriented approach to systems development, the flow of information is achieved by
sending messages either to and from actors or back and forth between internal objects.
16. In an interaction diagram, messages are sent and received by individual objects, not by classes.
17. In a sequence diagram, a message is considered to be an action that is invoked on the destination
object.
18. Activity diagrams cannot be used to describe processes that involve automated system activities.
19. In an activity diagram, a separate use case may used as part of the workflow.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Another way to think of a actor using a use case is as a(n) _______.

a. external entity c. system
b. person d. role
2. A unique set of internal activities within a use case which represents a unique path through the
use case is called a(n) _______.
a. workflow c. scenario
b. sequence of activities d. critical path
3. In a fully developed use case description the postcondition data describes what conditions?
a. The status condition c. The condition of the
of the use case. actor.
b. The existence of d. The data that is
domain model output by the system.
objects.
4. In a fully developed use case description the exception conditions represent what?
a. What conditions might cause the system to
crash.
b. What conditions prevent the system from
successfully completing the use case.
c. What conditions will confuse the actor.
d. Where the system might have “bugs” and
produce erroneous results.
5. In a fully developed use case description, the flow of activities is most similar to what?
a. An activity diagram c. A state chart diagram
b. A class diagram d. A system sequence
diagram
6. Numbering exception conditions, which often uses hierarchical numbering, in a fully developed
use case description is helpful to _______.
a. tie exception conditions to other diagrams or
descriptions
b. show which exception conditions are
subordinate to other exceptions
c. provide an identifier for each exception
condition
d. tie the exception condition to a processing
step
7. In a fully developed use case description normally the preconditions describe what?
a. What objects must exist prior to the use case
executes.
b. What data the actor must have before the use
case executes.
c. Who the actors are that invoke the use case.
d. What business conditions must occur before
the use case is invoked.
8.
Which is correct?
a. A c. C
b. B d. D
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p105, 107, 126
9. Which of the following is the best model to use to document the inputs and the outputs to a
system?
a. State chart diagram c. Activity diagram
b. Fully developed use d. System sequence
case description diagram
10. A vehicle object is denoted with the following label.

a. vehicle c. Vehicle
b. Vehicle d. :Vehicle
11. In UML terminology in a sequence diagram, a message refers to a(n) _______.

a. input data c. event
b. communication d. action
between actors
12. In a sequence diagram a horizontal dashed line represents what?

a. A return message c. A lifeline
b. An input message d. An event
13. In a sequence diagram the syntax of a message is given by the following:

[A] B := C (D) The letter B represents what?
a. message name c. true/false condition
b. return value d. parameter list
14. In a sequence diagram the message-name is usually given in what format?

a. verb-noun c. action-object
b. noun-verb d. object-action
15. If the True/False condition on a message evaluates to false in a sequence diagram, which of the
following is correct?
a. The message is false. c. The message is not
processed.
b. The message has no d. The message is not
return value. sent.
Which model is most useful in developing a State Machine Diagram

Selected Answer: a.
System Sequence Diagram
Answers: a.
System Sequence Diagram
b.
Use Case Diagram
c.
Activity Diagram
d.
Class Diagram
16. Which of the following documents information about classes that are part of the problem domain
of the user?
a. Activity diagram c. Use case diagram

b. State machine d. System sequence
diagram diagram
17. For real-world objects the state of an object is the same as its _______ .
a. lifeline c. attribute values
b. status condition d. persistence
18. In a transition label in a state machine the syntax is A(B)[C]/D. The D stands for what?
a. transition name c. action expression
b. true/false condition d. input parameters
19. The guard-condition on a transition indicates what?

a. Whether the c. Whether the object is
transition fires. in the correct state.
b. Whether the action- d. Whether the trigger
expression executes. message is received.
20. An action-expression occurs when?

a. Before the object leaves the origin state.
b. After the object enters the destination state.
c. Before the object enters the destination state.
d. Before the transition fires.
21. On a systems sequence diagram, ____ indicate(s) a true/false condition.

a. () c. {}
b. [] d. *
22. In a state machine diagram, a state is represented by a(n) ____.

a. oval c. square
b. black dot d. arrow
23. To document ____, draw a composite state with the lower portion divided into multiple
compartments for each concurrent path of behavior.
a. simple nested states c. concurrent behavior
of different objects
b. concurrent behavior d. simple paths
of a single object
24. Which of the following is NOT an element in a transition label?

a. trigger c. guard condition
b. transition name d. action expression
25. A message event causes what to happen?

a. An activity to finish. c. A guard condition to
be evaluated.
b. A message to fire. d. A transition to fire.
26. Which of the following is NOT a step in the development of a state machine diagram?
a. List all the status conditions for an object.
b. Identify state exiting transitions.
c. Expand the name of each state to identify
concurrent activities.
d. Sequence the state-transition fragments.
27. A state machine diagram is used to document the states and transitions of a(n) ________.
a. Business process c. Message
b. Use case d. Object
28. The ____ are the primary models from which other models draw information.
a. statechart diagram and the problem domain
class diagram.
b. system sequence diagram and the activity
diagram
c. use case diagram and the problem domain
class diagram
d. use case description and the use case diagram
29. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of object-oriented modeling with several models is
that _____.
a. developing new models allows the analyst to
discard unnecessary diagrams.
b. developing new models ensures a consistency
in the requirements.
c. developing new models helps correct
previously drawn diagrams
d. developing new models helps gain deeper
understanding of user requirements.
CRUD stands for _______________.

Selected Answer: c.
Create, Read, Update, Delete
Answers: a.
Create, Report, Upload, Destroy
b.
Create, Retract, Unload, Define
c.
Create, Read, Update, Delete
d.
Create, Refine, Update, Define
Which of the following is NOT a valid construct as part of an activity diagram?

Selected Answer: a.
Use case oval
Answers: a.
Use case oval
b.
Activity oval
c.
Relationship line
d.
Actor name
On an SSD, a named rectangular box represents what?

Selected Answer: b.
An object
Answers: a.
A swim lane
b.
An object
c.
A note to explain something
d.
A class
Activity diagrams are useful in the development of ______________.

Selected Answer: c.
System Sequence Diagrams
Answers: a.
Class Diagrams
b.
State Machine Diagrams
c.
System Sequence Diagrams
d.
Use Case Descriptions
On an SSD, a dashed arrow usually represents what?

Selected Answer: d.
Return value(s)
Answers: a.
External message
b.
Optional message
c.
Object lifeline
d.
Return value(s)
On an Activity Diagram the arrows represent what?

Selected Answer: a.
Relationship navigation
Answers: a.
Relationship navigation
b.
Transitions between states
c.
None of the other selections
d.
Flow of activities
A good way to ensure that all the use cases have been identified is through _______________.
Selected Answer: b.
the integration of UML models and comparing the results
Answers: a.
the brainstorming technique
b.
the integration of UML models and comparing the results
c.
the noun technique
d.
the CRUD technique
On an activity diagram, which of the following is NOT a valid use of a synchronization bar?
Selected Answer: b.
To initiate a loop
Answers: a.
To initiate concurrent paths
b.
To initiate a loop
c.
To initiate alternative paths
d.
To initiate concurrent paths by separate actors
What is the primary purpose of the CRUD technique?

Selected Answer: b.
To validate the set of defined use cases
Answers: a.
To identify areas of erroneous definition (CRUD).
b.
To validate the set of defined use cases
c.
To validate the set of classes
d.
To validate the interests of the stakeholders
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Two types of interaction diagrams are: (Choose two)

a. Activity diagrams d. Class diagrams
b. Sequence diagrams e. Communication
diagrams
c. State chart diagrams f. Package diagrams
ANS: B, E PTS: 2 REF: p126
2. Two methods to show a repeating message are: (Choose two)

a. Dashed arrow d. Opt frame
b. Brackets [ ] e. Loop frame
c. Asterisk * f. Alt frame
3. Two methods to show a return value are: (Choose two)

a. value := d. := value
b. [ value ] e. Solid arrow with
value
c. ( value ) f. Dashed arrow with
value
ANS: A, F PTS: 2 REF: p127-129
COMPLETION
1. A textual model that describes the processing details of a use case is called a(n) ________.
ANS: use case description
PTS: 2 REF: p121
2. Use cases may have different “paths” or sequence of steps through the use case. These different
paths are called _______ .
ANS:
scenarios
scenario
instance
instances
use case instance
use case instances
PTS: 2 REF: p121
3. A certain set of values or statuses that must exist before a use case begins is called a(n) _______.
ANS:
precondition
pre-condition
PTS: 2 REF: p122
4. A certain set of values or statuses that must exist after a use case completes its processing is
ANS:
postcondition
post-condition
PTS: 2 REF: p122
5. The diagram model that is useful to document the flow of activities on a fully developed use case
description is called a(n) _______ diagram.
ANS: activity
PTS: 2 REF: p125
6. A diagram that shows the messages between an actor and the system is called a(n) _______.
ANS:
system sequence diagram
system-sequence diagram
PTS: 2 REF: p126
7. Vertical dashed lines on a system sequence diagram are used to depict a(n) what?
ANS:
lifeline
object lifeline
PTS: 2 REF: p127
8. An arrow on a system sequence diagram is used to depict a(n) what?
ANS: message
PTS: 2 REF: p127
9. A box in a system sequence diagram refers to a(n) what?
ANS: object
PTS: 2 REF: p127
10. On a sequence diagram when multiple messages are included within a repeating loop a(n)
_______ is used to document it.
ANS: loop frame
PTS: 2 REF: p129
11. On a sequence diagram a short notation that indicates a repeating message is a(n) _______.
ANS:
asterisk
*
PTS: 2 REF: p129

[A] B := C (D) The letter D represents what?
ANS:
parameter-list
parameter list
parameters
input parameters
PTS: 2 REF: p129

[A] B := C (D) The letter B represents what?
ANS:
return-value
return-values
return value
return values
PTS: 2 REF: p129
14. To show if-then-else condition on a sequence diagram use a(n) ______.
ANS:
alt frame
alt-frame
PTS: 2 REF: p129
15. A condition during an object’s life when it satisfies some criterion is called a(n) _______.
ANS: state
PTS: 2 REF: p132
16. The movement of an object from one state to another is done through the process of a(n)
_______.
ANS: transition
PTS: 2 REF: p134
17. A UML diagram that shows the life of an object in states and transitions is called a(n) _______.
ANS:
state machine diagram
state-machine diagram
state machine
state-machine
PTS: 2 REF: p134
18. When an object moves from one state to another the ending state is called a(n) _______ .
ANS:
destination state
destination
PTS: 2 REF: p134
19. The beginning state of an object when its states are diagrammed is called a(n) _______.
ANS:
pseudostate
pseudo-state
PTS: 2 REF: p134

20. In a state-machine diagram when an object is in multiple states at the same time it is called
_______.
ANS:
concurrency
concurrent state
concurrent states
PTS: 2 REF: p135
21. In a state-machine diagram when one state is high-level in that it contains other states of an
object, it is called a(n) ______.
ANS: composite state
PTS: 2 REF: p135
ESSAY
1. Briefly describe the purpose of a system sequence diagram.
ANS:
A system sequence diagram (SSD) is used to describe the flow of information into and out of the
automated system. Thus, an SSD documents the inputs and the outputs and identifies the
interaction between actors and the system.
PTS: 5 REF: p126
2. List three types of frame notation in sequence diagrams.
ANS:
Loop frame
Opt frame
Alt frame
PTS: 5 REF: p130, 128
SADCW-6ed Chapter 6: Essentials of Design and the Design Activities
TRUE/FALSE
1. The objective of the design phase is to define, organize, and structure the components of the final
solution system that will serve as a blue print for construction.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p156, p160
2. Designing the application architecture involves specifying in detail how some system activities
will actually be carried out.
3. The key question to answer with the design of the user interface activity is, “Have we specified in
detail how all users will interact with the system?”
4. Architectural design includes the design of specific program details.
5. It is usually important to distinguish when developers are doing architectural design and when
they are doing detailed design.
6. In user interface design the detailed screen layouts should be done after the communication
protocols and devices have been decided.
7. During analysis, analysts build models to represent the real world and to understand the desired
business processes with the information used in those processes.
8. It is just as important to have heavy user involvement during analysis as it is during design.
9. Cowboy coding is one of the newer techniques programming, often used with Agile techniques.
10. The majority of new systems today must be integrated into existing networks without disrupting
existing applications.
11. Basically, design involves decomposition -- breaking a complex problem into smaller, more
understandable components.
12. The output of the design activities is a set of diagrams and documents that describe the solution
system.
13. A big part of designing the environment is identifying and defining all the types of computing
devices that will be required.
14. One of the disadvantages of three-layer architecture is that is usually requires multiple computers.
15. One of the benefits of three-layer architecture is its flexibility.
16. The most serious problem with Web based deployment of applications is security.
17. Since most newer Web applications use dynamic pages, content delivery networks are going out
of use.
18. When building systems for Web deployment it is often necessary to build two separate user
interface systems.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which one of the six core process can be considered as a “bridge” process.
a. Identify the problem and obtain approval.
b. Discover and understand the details.
c. Design system components.
d. Build, test and integrate system components.
2. Environment design consists of the following:

a. specify the network and hardware linking the
system together.
b. describe the computer programs.
c. Design the buildings and facilities such as air
conditioning and environmental components.
d. Describe the interfaces that the user and other
systems use.
3. Which is not one of the elements that is normally considered in systems design?
a. Application software c. Security and controls
b. System interface d. Object class methods
4. Which statement is NOT a correct term for the broad design of the overall system?
a. Architectural design c. General design
b. Conceptual design d. Object-oriented
design
5. The first step in doing software application design is to _______.

a. define the operating environment.
b. identify the approach -- structured or object-
oriented.
c. define the programming language to be used.
d. identify the various subsystems and their
relationship to each other.
6. Low-level design that includes the design of the program modules and algorithm logic is referred
to as ____ design.
a. detail c. functional
b. module d. component
7. Which of the following is NOT considered a design model?

a. Package diagram c. User interface screen
layouts
b. Sequence diagram d. Activity diagram
8. Which of the following is NOT considered an analysis model?

a. Class diagram c. User interface screen
layouts
b. State machine d. Activity diagram
diagram
9. The key design question, “Have we specified in detail how the users will interact with the system
to carry out all the use cases?” is associated with which design activity?
a. Design user c. Design application
interfaces software
b. Design system d. Design use cases
interfaces
10. Which of the following terms describes computer software that implements communication
protocols on the network and helps different systems communicate?
a. Nodes and locations c. Distributed
diagram architecture
b. Virtual environment d. Middleware
11. The first step in defining a solution in the development of a new software system is to define
what?
a. The application c. The programming
architecture language
b. The computing d. The details of the
environment business problem
12. Which if the following is NOT considered part of designing the application architecture and
software?
a. Multilayer design c. Detailed design
b. Subsystem definition d. Program security
design
13. Which of the following really is both an analysis (discovery) and a design process (solution).
a. Environment design c. Database design
b. System interface d. User interface design
design
14. Identifying Extensible Markup Language (XML) tags is often used in what design activity?
a. Web page design c. System interface
design
b. User interface design d. Application software
design
15. Which of the following is NOT a form of system interface?

a. Turn-around c. Function call
document
b. File transfer d. Transaction
interchange
16. The domain model is always used as an input to which design activity?
a. Report layout design c. Database design
b. Security and controls d. User interface design
design
17. Which of the following is NOT an important consideration in database design?

a. Performance issues c. Partitioning issues
b. Encryption issues d. Data presentation
issues
18. Which design activity that pervades all other design activities?
a. Environment design c. Security and controls
design
b. Database design d. Interface design
19. Limiting user access to the system is considered what type of design?
a. User interface design c. System interface
design
b. Security and controls d. Application software
design design
20. What is the difference between a “client” computer and a “server” computer?
a. Location on the c. The services that
network each performs
b. Computing power d. The connectivity to
that each has the Internet
21. What is the difference between a browser based system and a desktop application system?
a. Desktop system never uses a network and
browser base always does.
b. Browser system always uses the Internet and
desktop does not.
c. User interface is different between a desktop
and browser based.
d. Browser based is always three-layer and
desktop is not.
22. Which is NOT one of the primary advantages of deploying a system via a Web implementation.
a. Easy to program with HTML
b. Wide availability of the Web
c. Low-cost connectivity
d. Standard development and deployment
practices
23. Which is NOT one of the problematic areas of Web based applications?
a. Security of applications
b. Complexity of Internet servers and Web
development
c. Configuration to handle high peak loads
d. Rapid change of Web standards and
functionality
24. Load balancing refers to what?

a. Spreading the service requests across multiple
hours in the day.
b. Balancing the amount of work fairly between
project team members.
c. Configuring the network to provide multiple
access paths to the servers.
d. Distributing service requests across multiple
application servers.
25. The hosting alternative that is most like a utility is what?

a. Virtual server c. Cloud computing
b. Managed services d. Colocation
26. Managed services refers to what?

a. Hosting company provides all the server
equipment.
b. Hosting service that provides backup and
recovery services.
c. Hosting company manages the cloud.
d. Hosting service with maintenance of the
server and system software.
27. Which is NOT a characteristic of a VPN?

a. It uses the Internet.
b. Only certain computers can access it.
c. It uses HTTPS for security
d. It always uses encryption
28. Which is a characteristic of a peer-to-peer connection.

a. Connected computers must have the same
operating system.
b. Connected computers do not use a server.
c. Connected computers require special
software.
d. Connected computers must have over 99%
availability.
29. Many Service level agreements now provide _____ availability

a. 100% c. 98%
b. 99% d. varies by provider
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which of the following are NOT critical issues in considering a hosting alternative. (choose two)
a. Reliability d. Staff
b. Cost e. Growth
c. Security f. Computing
equipment
COMPLETION
1. What kind of model is used to show how the application is deployed across networks and
computers.
ANS:
network diagram
Network diagram
network model
PTS: 2 REF: p156
2. The process of design which is the broad design of the overall system structure is called _______.
ANS:
architectural design
general design
conceptual design
PTS: 2 REF: p158
3. Low-level design that includes the design of the specific program details is called ______.
ANS:
detail design
detailed design
PTS: 2 REF: p158
4. When designing the ____________________, the first steps are to identify the general form and
structure of the user dialog based on the major inputs and outputs.
ANS: user interface
PTS: 2 REF: 9158
5. A computer network in which the cabling and hardware are confined to a single location is called
what _____?
ANS:
local area network (LAN)
LAN
local area network
PTS: 2 REF: p168
6. What term do we use to describe a computer network architecture with central computers and
users’ computers.
ANS:
client-server architecture
client server architecture
PTS: 2 REF: p168
7. What de we call the predominant language used for constructing web pages?
ANS:
Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)
Hypertext Markup Language
HTML
Hyper-text markup language
PTS: 2 REF: p168
8. What is the term that defines the foundation protocol of the Internet and is used to provide
reliable deliver of messages between computers.
ANS:
TCP/IP
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
PTS: 2 REF: p168

9. What is the term used to describe the user interface in a three-layer architecture?
ANS:
View layer
view layer
PTS: 2 REF: p168
10. What is the term used to describe the programs that implement the rules and processing of the
software solution?
ANS:
business logic layer
domain layer
PTS: 2 REF: p169
11. What do we call the combination of Hypertext Transfer Protocol and Transport Layer Security?
ANS:
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure
HTTPS
PTS: 2 REF: p173
12. An advanced version of Secure Sockets Layer protocol which is used to transmit information over
the Internet securely is called ______.
ANS:
Transport Layer Security (TLS)
Transport Layer Security
TLS
PTS: 2 REF: p173
13. What is the term used to define a set of server computers that are used to deliver static content
such as videos, but that are not part of the primary application servers?
ANS:
Content delivery network (CDN)
Content delivery network
CDN
PTS: 2 REF: p174
14. The process of providing physical servers at a secure location and selling those services is called
_______.
ANS: hosting
PTS: 2 REF: p174

15. A service which provides a secure physical location for servers but where the computers are
usually owned by the client businesses is called _______ .
ANS: colocation
PTS: 2 REF: p175
16. What do we call a method to partition the services of a physical Web server so it appears as
multiple, independent Internet servers?
ANS: Virtual server
PTS: 2 REF: p175
17. What is the term used to describe a virtual environment for servers in which the resources include
computing, storage, and Internet access and appear to have unlimited availability.
ANS:
cloud computing
Cloud computing
PTS: 2 REF: p176
18. The part of a contract between a business and a hosting company that guarantees a specific level
of availability is called the _______.
ANS:
service level agreement (SLA)
service level agreement
Service level agreement
SLA
PTS: 2 REF: p176
19. What is the term used to describe a closed network with security and closed access but which is
built on top of a public network like the Internet?
ANS:
Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Virtual private network
VPN
PTS: 2 REF: p177
20. What kind of a connection is it when independent computers communicate but without the need
for a centralized server?
ANS:
peer-to-peer connection
peer to peer connection
peer-to-peer
peer to peer
PTS: 2 REF: p178
ESSAY
1. List the six primary areas that must be designed as part of systems design.
ANS:
1. Design the environment
2. Design the application software
3. Design the database
4. Design the user interface
5. Design the system interface
6. Design security and controls
PTS: 5 REF: p156
2. List six of the eight primary design models that are used for systems design (used in this text).
ANS:
1. Package diagrams
2. Nodes and locations diagrams
3. Design class diagrams
4. Sequence diagrams
5. Database schema
6. User-interface screens and reports
7. System security and controls
8. Communication diagrams
PTS: 5 REF: p161
3. List and describe the six primary analysis models (used in this text).
ANS:
1. Class diagrams -- the classes in the problem domain
2. Use case diagrams -- an overview of the use cases and agents for the system
3. System sequence diagrams -- defines the messages between the agent and the system for a use
case
4. Use case descriptions -- detailed information about a use case including pre-conditions, post-
conditions, flow of logic, exception conditions, etc.
5. State machine diagrams -- description of the various status conditions of an object and how it
transitions from state to state.
6. Activity diagrams -- Workflow diagram showing the steps in a business process and the
interaction between actors and the system.
PTS: 5 REF: p161
4. List the six activities of Design system components.

ANS:
1. Design the environment
2. Design the application architecture and software
3. Design user interfaces
4. Design system interfaces
5. Design the database
6. Design system security and controls
PTS: 5 REF: p161
5. List and describe the components in three-layer architecture.
ANS:
1. View layer -- the user interface. It includes the screen and presentation programming.
2. Domain layer (business logic layer) -- the programs that process the business rules.
3. Data layer -- the programs and DBMS that accesses the database.
PTS: 5 REF: p170
6. Describe the three potential problems of implementing an application through the Web.
ANS:
1. Security —Web servers are a well-defined target for security breaches because Web standards
are open and widely known. Wide-scale interconnection of networks and the use of Internet and
Web standards make servers accessible to a global pool of hackers.
2. Throughput —When high loads occur, throughput and response time can suffer significantly.
3. Changing standards —Web standards change rapidly.
PTS: 5 REF: p172
7. When considering a hosting alternative, there are five areas that must be considered. Describe
each.
ANS:
1. Reliability —The hardware environment must be completely reliable because customers and
other outside parties usually have a very low tolerance for systems that aren’t available.
2. Security —The systems? —hardware and software? —must be secure.
3. Physical facilities —To ensure reliability and security, special rooms or even special buildings
are often required. In addition, Internet connectivity frequently requires multiple access routes to
the Internet backbone. Electrical power must be secure, which often means having backup
generators on-site.
4. Staff —To ensure reliability and security, a well-qualified technical staff needs to be on-site
24/7.
5. Growth —External systems often grow dramatically as a business expands, increasing the
number of servers needed to respond to the traffic.
PTS: 5 REF: p175

SADCW-6ed Chapter 7: Designing the User and System Interfaces
TRUE/FALSE
1. Ease of learning and ease of use are often in conflict.
2. User interface design is frequently added to the system after the business rules and business logic
has been designed.
3. To implement the dialog metaphor requires voice communication and voice recognition
capabilities on the computer.
4. A good example of an error message might be, “The account information is missing critical data.
Please re-enter.”
5. Users need to feel that they can explore options and take actions that can be canceled without
difficulty.
6. A persons ability to remember things is not an important consideration for user-interface design.
7. Dialog and user-interface design is best done in a top-down approach.
8. Designing a consistent-appearing and consistent-functioning interface is one of the least

important design goals.
9. Adequate feedback from a system to user data entry helps reduce errors.
10. Menus should only include options that are activities from the list of use cases.
11. Menu design and dialog design should be done separately.

12. An initial grouping of cases by actor and subsystem is a good starting point for menu design.
13. Each dialog may only have one window form.
14. Storyboarding should result in a detailed dialog design.
15. The design of a desktop system and a Web based system have similar performance issues that
must be considered.
16. EDI stands for electronic database integration.
17. XML is a technique to identify possible security breaches in the system.
18. Highly automated input devices such as scanners can capture many system inputs.
19. XML is a definition language that allows users add new constructs to the language.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the principles of user-centered design?

a. Focus early on the users and their work.
b. Evaluate design to ensure usability.
c. Business requirements drive development.
d. Use iterative development.
2. A metaphor of human-computer interaction (HCI) in which the user interacts directly with objects
on the display screen, is referred to as ____.
a. desktop metaphor c. document metaphor
b. direct manipulation d. dialog metaphor
metaphor
3. An approach where the visual display is organized into regions and includes an arrangement of
common tool icons is called a ____.
4. A metaphor of human-computer interaction (HCI) in which interacting with the computer, is

much like carrying on a conversation is called ____.
5. Software (such as typical tax preparation software) which in essence interviews the user is
following which user interface metaphor?
a. Collaboration c. Interview metaphor
metaphor
b. Document metaphor d. Dialog metaphor
6. The study of human interaction with machines in general is called ____.

a. human factors c. human-computer
engineering interaction
b. user-centered design d. usability
7. A metaphor of human-computer interaction, in which interaction with the computer involves

browsing and entering data on electronic documents, is referred to as a ____ metaphor.
a. desktop c. document
b. direct manipulation d. dialog
8. A key principle of human-computer interaction (HCI) that states that all controls should be
noticeable and provide an indication that the control is responding to the user's action, is called
____.
a. informative feedback c. consistency
b. affordance d. visibility
9. A key principle of human-computer interaction (HCI), that states that the appearance of any
control should suggest its functionality, is called ____.
a. informative feedback c. consistency
b. affordance d. visibility
10. Since it is not always clear that Web page objects are clickable, or when a control has recognized
the click, designers should be careful to apply the principle of ____.
a. affordance c. shortcuts
b. consistency d. visibility
11. Each dialog within the system should be organized with a clear sequence–a beginning, middle,
and end. This describes which of the eight golden rules for designing interactive interfaces?
a. Offer informative feedback
b. Permit easy reversal of actions
c. Support internal locus of control
d. Design dialogs to yield closure.
12. Operating systems deliberately include an electronic “click” sound for keyboard and mouse
activities. This describes which of the eight golden rules for designing interactive interfaces?
a. Offer informative feedback
b. Offer simple error handling
c. Support internal locus of control
d. Strive for consistency
13. “When subsequent processing is delayed by more than a second or two, users may repeatedly
press controls or reenter information, resulting in processing errors and user frustration” is an
example of what?
a. Lack of error c. Lack of closure
handling
b. Lack of feedback d. Lack of consistency
14. Designers should be sure to include cancel buttons on all dialog boxes which allow the user to
back up. This is an example of what?
a. Easy reversal of actions
b. Reduce short term memory load
c. Good error handling
d. Dialog that yields closure
15. Users should not be required to keep track of information that they have previously entered. This
is an example of what?
a. Easy reversal of c. Good error handling
actions
b. Reduce short term d. Dialogs that yields
memory load closure
16. A good design heuristic for menu design is to limit the menu choices to _____ choices.
a. four to nine c. three to seven
b. never more than d. five to ten
seven
17. One way to ensure consistency across the web pages of a web site is to implement the pages using
_______.
a. Device specific pages
b. Menu items that are grouped appropriately
c. Cascading style sheets
d. Browser specific coding
18. What does XML stand for?

a. Extended Module c. Extensible Markup
Links Language
b. External Machine d. Extensible Modern
Language Language
19. Which of the following is NOT an input device used to reduce input errors?
a. Magnetic card strip c. Touch screen
reader
b. Electronic keyboard d. Bar code reader
20. The primary objective of using automated input devices is to _______.

a. produce error-free c. increase throughput
data
b. reduce costs d. eliminate human
input
21. Which of the following is NOT an example of a technique to reduce input errors?
a. Design input codes with special meanings
b. Avoid human involvement
c. User electronic data capture devices
d. Capture data close to the source
22. Reports that are not predefined by a programmer, but are designed as needed, are called ____
reports.
a. one-time c. business
b. quick and dirty d. ad hoc
23. A report that contains only information about nonstandard or out-of-bound conditions is a(n)
____ report.
a. runtime c. exception
b. error d. executive
24. A report that is used primarily for strategic decision making is called a(n) ____ report.
a. executive c. exception
b. key item d. summary
25. An external output that includes a portion that is returned to the system as an input is a(n) ____.
a. output-input c. return document
document
b. turn-around d. tear off and return
document document
26. A report that is printed to be used by persons outside of the organization is called a(n) ____.
a. outside report c. external output
b. non-sensitive output d. company report
27. The ability to link a summary field to the supporting detail, and to dynamically view that detail on
a screen, is called ____.
a. exploding report c. dynamic reporting
b. windowing a field d. drill down
28. The major advantage of screen output versus printed output is that screen output ____.
a. can be updated c. has more information
dynamically
b. is more user friendly d. is more secure
29. Electronic reports can provide a(n) ____ on the report to activate a lower-level report, which
provides more detailed information.
a. cursor link c. mouseover
b. activation key d. hot spot hyperlink
30. One effective way to present large volumes of data is to summarize it and present it ____.
a. in tabular form c. with control totals
b. in graphical chart or d. on a computer screen
diagram
31. Two of the most common graphical charting techniques are ____.
a. vertical charts and horizontal charts
b. line charts and series charts
c. bar charts and pie charts
d. printed charts and screen charts
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which of the following are techniques used by developers to evaluate the effectiveness and
usability of user interface designs. (Choose two)
a. Focus early on users and how they work
b. Statistically analyze test and use data
c. Use iterative techniques
d. Involve users in design meetings
e. Use formal modeling techniques
f. Conduct focus groups
2. When the layout and the formats is being designed for the screens for desktop systems (non Web
systems), there are several critical issues. Which of the following are considered to be important
considerations? (choose two)
a. Performance and load speed
b. LAN Connectivity
c. Consistency across screens
d. Input validation
e. Screen size
f. Fonts and colors
ANS: C, F PTS: 1 REF: p202
3. When the user interface is being designed for Web based systems, there are several important
considerations. Which of the following are included in those particularly important issues?
(Choose two)
a. Web Connectivity
b. Performance and load speed
c. Pictures, Video and Sound
d. Programming language
e. Server speeds and capabilities
f. HTML standards
ANS: B, C PTS: 1 REF: p205
4. When designing the user interface for handheld devices there are several important issues critical
for only those devices. Which of the following are considered to be important issues? (Choose
two)
a. Battery power consumption
b. Memory limitations
c. Custom apps versus Web apps
d. Speed and throughput
e. Screen size
f. 3G or 4G network
ANS: D, E PTS: 1 REF: p207
COMPLETION
1. The _______ describe the inputs and outputs that require no or minimal human intervention.
ANS:
system interfaces
system interface
PTS: 2 REF: p189
2. The _______ are inputs and outputs that directly involve a system user.
ANS:
user interfaces
user interface
PTS: 2 REF: p189
3. The ____________________ is everything the end user comes into contact with while using the
system–physically, perceptually, and conceptually.
ANS: user interface
PTS: 2 REF: p189
4. What is the term used for design techniques that embody the view that the user interface is the
entire system.
ANS:
user-centered design
user centered design
User-centered design
PTS: 2 REF: p189
5. The degree to which a system is easy to learn and to use is called _______.
ANS:
usability
useability
PTS: 2 REF: p190
6. When the appearance of a specific control suggests its function, that is called _______.
ANS: affordance
PTS: 2 REF: p193
7. When a control provides immediate feedback to a user, such as when a button shows it has been
clicked, that is called _______.
ANS: visibility
PTS: 2 REF: p193
8. A technique to create a sequence of sketches of the display screen during a dialog is called _____.
ANS:
storyboarding
storyboard
PTS: 2 REF: p200
9. A type of text box input control that only contains a set of predefined data values is called a
______.
ANS: list box
PTS: 2 REF: p202
10. A type of text box that contains a set of predefined values but also allows the user to enter new
values is called a ______.
ANS: combo box
PTS: 2 REF: p203
11. A type of input control where the user can select only one item from a group of items.
ANS: radio button

PTS: 2 REF: p203
12. A type of input control that allows the user to select multiple items within a group of items is
called _______.
ANS:
check boxes
check box
PTS: 2 REF: p203
13. What is the term used to describe a Web page encoding standard that enables the page look-and-
feel to dynamically change?
ANS:
Cascading style sheets
Cascading style sheets (CSS)
CSS
PTS: 2 REF: p204
14. Software that adapts the user interface to the special needs of persons with disabilities, such as the
visual or hearing impaired, is called _______.
ANS:
assistive technologies
assistive technology
PTS: 2 REF: p207
15. What is the term used to describe the character sequences such as <name> that serve as the
endpoints for a defined group of textual characters?
ANS:
XML tags
XML
PTS: 2 REF: p209
16. A user-interface output design technique that allows a user to select a summary field and view the
supporting details is called _______.
ANS:
drill down
drill-down
PTS: 2 REF: p216
ESSAY
1. List and briefly describe at least four of the eight important User-Interface Design Concepts for
the overall design of the user interface.
ANS:
1. Affordance and Visibility -- This means that controls should be visible and their shape should
be similar to the function they perform (affordance). They should also provide visible feedback
as things occur. For example a small diskette means “save” and it changes color after a document
has been saved.
2. Consistency - User interface screens or pages should have the same look and feel across all
screens/pages. The location of similar function buttons or icons should be consistent across the
entire application.
3. Shortcuts -- Power users soon like to be able to work rapidly by having shortcuts. One
powerful way is to allow users to set up their own shortcut keys.
4. Feedback -- Icons and buttons should give and indication when they are working and when
they have completed a task.
5. Dialogs that yield closure -- Let the user know when something is complete. Give a message
such as “credit card accepted” or “transaction complete.”
6. Error handling -- Provide clear error messages and if possible some hint or instruction on how
to fix the error for input types of errors.
7. Easy reversal of actions -- All users make mistakes and need to be able to “back up.” Note:
some Apple functions to automatic save, so that without an “undo” function it is hard to revert
back.
8. Reducing Short-Term Memory load -- A user should never have to write something down to
remember it from page to page. Carry information over when necessary and make it visible for
the users.
PTS: 5 REF: p193-197
2. 2. When designing user interface pages there are four special considerations for Web Browser
User Interfaces. Briefly discuss each of these special considerations.
ANS:
1. Consistency -- Although it is true of all user interface screens, it is especially important for
Web pages. The difficulty lies in that different browsers will display the same page differently.
Tools such as CSS files can assist in formatting pages consistently.
2. Performance considerations -- Since all pages must be transmitted across the Internet, the
bandwidth and amount of information sent can cause degradation and poor response time for the
user. Designers must balance between powerful, user friendly pages, and keeping the amount of
data sent to a minimum.
3. Pictures, video, sound -- Two issues here. These files tend to be very large so that there can be
considerable delay. To view or listen to pictures, video and sound often requires special plugins
for the browsers. Different browsers, i.e. PC versus Apple versus Unix often will have different
methods to display.
4. Users with disabilities -- Since Web based systems are meant for the general public, this
includes many people with disabilities. Additional consideration should be given to accommodate
the needs of these people and provide assistive technology capabilities when possible.
PTS: 5 REF: p205-207
3. Briefly describe each of the four metaphors for designing the Human-Computer Interface.
ANS:
1. Direct manipulation metaphor - Manipulating objects on a display that look like physical
objects (pictures) or that represent them (icons)
2. Desktop metaphor - Organizing visual display into distinct regions, with a large empty
workspace in the middle and a collection of tool icons around the perimeter
3. Document metaphor - Visually representing the data in files as paper pages or forms. These
pages can be linked together by references (hyperlinks)
4. Dialog metaphor - The user and computer accomplishing a task by engaging in a conversation
or dialog by using text, voice, or tools, such as labeled buttons
PTS: 5 REF: p191
SADCW-6ed Chapter 8: Approaches to System Development
TRUE/FALSE
1. A project cannot have both predictive and adaptive elements.
2. A project that has high technical risk should use the predictive approach.
3. All adaptive approaches include iterations.
4. In incremental development, an increment is always completed in each iteration.
5. The SDLC development approach taught in the textbook is a variation of the spiral model.
6. The modified waterfall approach requires overlapping phases.
7. The predictive waterfall SDLC explicitly includes a support phase, but the adaptive SDLCs do
not.
8. A model is a representation of an important aspect of the real world.

9. A tool is a software support that helps create models or other components required in the project.
10. Anytime people need to either record or communicate information, it is useful to create a model.
11. Structured programming and top-down programming are identical concepts.
12. The data flow diagram is used with the structured analysis system development technique.
13. Many systems being developed today combine traditional and object-oriented technology.
14. Adopting an Agile approach for a project is relatively easy.
15. In Agile Development, contracts include options for the customer to cancel if the project is not
progressing, as measured by the incremental deliverables.
16. Agile Modeling emphasizes creating only models that are necessary.
17. In Agile Modeling, change is seen as the exception, not the norm.
18. Agile Modeling principles suggest that CASE tools should be used whenever possible.
19. An Agile Modeling practice used in incremental modeling is to create several models in parallel.
20. Maintaining simplicity in Agile Modeling eliminates the need for validating the models with
code.
21. Object-oriented development includes a focus on both objects and processes.

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. An approach to the SDLC that plans the project in advance and then progresses according to the
plan is called what?
a. A predictive c. An Agile approach
approach
b. An adaptive approach d. A project
management
approach
2. The _____ approach is an SDLC approach that assumes the output of each phase are frozen
before moving on to the next phase.
a. iterative c. waterfall model
b. spiral model d. prototyping
3. An adaptive approach to a development project is best used when _______.

a. the system has low technical risk
b. the requirements are simple and the system is
small
c. the requirements are well understood
d. the requirements are uncertain
4. An approach to the SDLC where the phases overlap is often referred to as the _______ approach.
a. modified waterfall c. modified predictive
b. waterfall d. spiral
5. The term ____ refers to an approach that completes parts of a system in one or more iterations
and puts them into operation for users.
a. incremental c. bottom-up
development development
b. adaptive development d. predictive
development
6. The term “____” means that work activities are done once, then again, and yet again.
a. agile modeling c. waterfall approach
b. iteration d. incremental
development
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the major activities of the support phase?
a. Training the users c. Enhancing the system
b. Maintaining the d. Supporting the users
system
8. The objective of the ____ is to keep the system running productively during the years following
its initial installation.
a. version release c. maintenance phase
b. support phase d. deployment phase
9. A(n) _____ provides guidelines to follow for completing every activity in systems development,
including specific models, tools, and techniques.
a. predictive approach
b. object-oriented analysis
c. system development methodology
d. systems development life cycle
10. The term “_______” is used to separate out some aspect of the real world that is important to
understand when we build a model.
a. brainstorm c. analysis
b. synthesis d. abstraction
11. A(n) “_______” is a guideline to help an analyst complete a specific task and often includes step-
by-step instructions to do something such as how to create a model.
a. tool c. methodology
b. technique d. SDLC
12. The acronym SADT stands for what?

a. Software and Decoding Tools
b. Systems Analysis and Development Tools
c. Systems Analysis and Design Tools
d. Structure Analysis and Design Technique
13. A hierarchical program structure consisting of a boss or control module which calls submodules
is called what?
a. traditional program c. ordered program
structure structure
b. top-down d. bottom-up
programming programming
14. One main principle of structured design is that program modules should be designed so that they
are ____.
a. highly cohesive c. tightly structured
b. tightly coupled d. highly engineered
15. An important way to measure the quality of a module in structured programming is by assessing
its _____.
a. structured design c. internal constructs
b. top-down approach d. cohesion and
coupling
16. The key graphical model of the systems requirements used with structured analysis is the ____.
a. flowchart c. activity diagram
b. data flow diagram d. structure chart
17. A(n) ____ program is one that has one beginning and one ending.
a. iterative c. object-oriented
b. incremental d. structured
18. A(n) ____ is a representation of an important aspect of the real world.

a. methodology c. technique
b. tool d. model
19. A graphical diagram whish shows the hierarchical organization of modules is called a(n)
_______.
a. Entity relationship c. structure chart
diagram (ERD)
b. top-down chart d. data flow diagram
20. _____ consists of writing statements in a programming language to define what each type of
object does.
a. OOP c. OOD
b. OOA d. OOS
21. A(n) _______ is used to show the interacting messages between objects that collaborate.
a. activity diagram c. sequence diagram
b. class diagram d. data flow diagram
22. Reuse is one of the primary benefits of using what type of development methodology?
a. Object-oriented c. Top-down
b. Structured d. Iterative
23. ____ is a philosophy and set of guidelines for developing software in an unknown, rapidly
changing environment.
a. Object-oriented c. Pair programming
development
b. Refactoring d. Agile development
24. Which of the following is a basic value of agile software development?

a. Following a plan over responding to change
b. Working software over comprehensive
documentation
c. Processes and tools over individuals and
interactions
d. Contract negotiation over customer
collaboration
25. What is the primary goal in Agile Modeling?

a. building model templates for future projects
b. building multiple models
c. focusing on representation with good models
d. developing software
26. Which of the following is NOT an Agile Modeling principle?

a. Minimize your modeling activity
b. Know your models and how to use them
c. Focus on content rather than representation
d. Maintain core models to verify past decisions
27. An example of a project phase in a predictive project is ____.

a. gathering information about the user's needs
b. performing a project cost/benefit analysis
c. planning the project
d. drawing the system interface
28. A(n) _____ approach to the SDLC is used when the exact requirements of a system or needs of
users are not well understood.
a. predictive c. incremental
b. persistent d. adaptive
29. In Agile modeling what are the two important reasons for building models?
a. To understand what you are building and to
communicate the solution
b. To document a solution and to instruct other
developers
c. To communicate with the user and to obtain
feedback
d. To write good code and to design good
databases
COMPLETION
1. The term “____________________” refers to related system development activities, which are
grouped into categories of project planning, analysis, design, implementation, and support.
ANS:
phase
Phase
PTS: 2 REF: p228
2. A method of executing the systems development life cycle (SDLC) which assumes rigid planning
and final decision making at each step, is called the ____________________ approach.
ANS:
waterfall
waterfall model
PTS: 2 REF: p229
3. One of the earliest adaptive SDLC approaches that cycles over and over again through
development activities is called the _______.
ANS:
spiral model
spiral model approach
spiral approach
spiral
PTS: 2 REF: p230
4. A development approach in which the complete system structure is built but with minimum
functionality is called the _______.
ANS: walking skeleton
PTS: 2 REF: p232
5. The availability of support staff to assist users with technical or processing problems is called the
_______.
ANS: help desk
PTS: 2 REF: p233
6. Using a(n) ____________________ approach to the SDLC assumes requirements and needs for
the planned system are uncertain
ANS: adaptive
PTS: 2 REF: p228, 230
7. The “_______” refers to software development using structured analysis and structured design
models.
ANS:
structured approach
traditional approach
PTS: 2 REF: p236
8. SADT stands for what?
ANS: Structured Analysis and Design Technique
PTS: 2 REF: p237
9. Name the programming approach where each module has one start point and one end point and
uses only sequence, decision, and iteration.
ANS:
Structured programming
structured programming
PTS: 2 REF: p237
10. The primary structured analysis model that shows inputs, processes, storage, and outputs is called
the ______.
ANS:
data flow diagram
data flow diagram (DFD)
DFD
data-flow diagram
PTS: 2 REF: p239
11. A thing in an information system that responds to messages by executing functions or methods is
ANS: object
PTS: 2 REF: p241
12. What is the term used to describe system development based on the view that a system is a set of
interacting objects that work together?
ANS:
object-oriented approach
object oriented approach
object-oriented development
object-oriented programming
PTS: 2 REF: p241
13. What is the term used to describe an adaptive type of project that is both chaotic and controlled or
ordered?
ANS:
chaordic
Chaordic
PTS: 2 REF: p244
14. What is the term used to describe a guiding philosophy in which only the models that are
necessary, with a valid need and the right level of detail, are created.
ANS:
Agile modeling
agile modeling
Agile
Agile Modeling (AM)
PTS: 2 REF: p245
15. An SDLC approach that completes portions of the system in small increments across iterations
and integrates it into the whole is called _____.
ANS: incremental development
PTS: 2 REF: p232
16. A set of tools that work together to provide a comprehensive development and programming
environment is called a(n) _____.
ANS:
integrated development environment
integrated development environment (IDE)
IDE
PTS: 2 REF: p235
17. In the structured approach the concept of dividing a complex program into a hierarchy of program
modules is called _____.
ANS:
top-down programming
top down programming
PTS: 2 REF: p237
ESSAY
1. List and briefly describe the three major activities that occur during the support phase.
ANS:
1. Maintaining the system - Fixing errors and problems
2. Enhancing the system - Adding new capabilities to the existing system
3. Supporting the users - Providing technical help to the users, often with a help desk.
PTS: 5 REF: p232
2. Explain the difference between “An approach to the SDLC” and “An approach to software
construction.”
ANS:
An approach to the SDLC has to do with whether the project methodology is predictive or
adaptive and what specific project methodology is used.
An approach to software construction has to do with structured development or object-oriented

development and the analysis and design models that are used.
PTS: 5 REF: p227-228, p236-237
3. List the three constructs that are used for structured programming.
ANS:
1. Sequence
2. Decision
3. Iteration
PTS: 5 REF: p237
4. List at least 5 principles of Agile Modeling.
ANS:
Develop software as your primary goal
Enable the next effort as your secondary goal.
Minimize your modeling activity—few and simple.
Embrace change, and change incrementally.
Model with a purpose.
Build multiple models.
Build high-quality models and get feedback rapidly.
Focus on content rather than representation.
Learn from each other with open communication.
Know your models and how to use them.
Adapt to specific project needs.
PTS: 5 REF: p245
SADCW-6ed Chapter 09: Project Planning and Project Management
TRUE/FALSE
1. A good project manager focuses his energy on the success of the project team and allows the
oversight committee to monitor and report project status.
2. A major reason that software development projects to fail is due to poor project management.
3. In 2009 almost over two-thirds of all software development projects had serious problems with
delivering satisfactory results on time.
4. Ceremony refers to the official kick-off meeting to start a project.
5. Since the Agile philosophy embraces change, project scope management is not important for
Agile projects.

6. The final decision of project scope in an Agile project rests with the users.
7. With Agile Time Management scheduling is only done on a micro level and not a macro level.
8. With Agile Cost Management it is important to control the costs, even more important than
estimating the costs to get project approval.
9. Agile project managers do not try to answer the question “How much will the project cost?”
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p p261, p9
10. In Agile projects the easiest portions of the system are built in the first few iterations.
11. Projects are seldom initiated to solve immediate business problems.
12. It is usually impossible to make an accurate estimate of the time required to complete a
development project.
13. One important step in estimating the time required for a project is to try to identify all of the
functional requirements of a the new system.
14. One of the responsibilities of the project manager in getting a project approved is to try to predict
the value of business benefits.
15. In adaptive, iterative projects there are usually two types of schedules created.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following statements best defines what a project is?

a. A planned activity consisting of defined tasks
by a team of people.
b. A sequence of steps with a scheduled
completion.
c. A set of procedures that must be completed in
a timely fashion.
d. A planned undertaking with a start and stop
and that produces a result.
2. Which of the following best describes the reason why projects fail?
a. Technological problems
b. System is too complex
c. Wrong development methodology
d. Undefined project management practices
3. According to the CHAOS report for 2009 what is the percent of projects that can be considered
completely successful?
a. 44% c. 24%
b. 32% d. 60%
4. The organization and direction of other people to achieve a planned result within a predetermined
schedule and budget is called what?
a. Project delivery c. Project human
management resource management
b. Project integration d. Project management
management
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the external responsibilities of a project manager?
a. Report project status c. Work with the client
b. Assess project risks d. Identify resource
needs
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the internal responsibilities of a project manager?
a. Develop the project schedule
b. Develop specifications
c. Assign work to team members
d. Monitor project milestones
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the PMBOK knowledge areas?

a. Integration c. Risk Management
Management
b. Documentation d. Procurement
Management Management
8. Which of the following principles of project management identifies all stakeholders?

a. Risk Management c. Human Resource
Management
b. Communications d. Time Management
Management
9. What technique is used to control the scope in an Agile project?

a. Not important to worry about scope.
b. Freeze the requirements in an early iteration.
c. Keep a prioritized list of required functions.
d. Let the client and the users worry about the
scope.
10. Project Quality Management is different for Agile projects because they place heavy emphasis in
what additional area?
a. The quality of the testing process.
b. The quality of the project processes.
c. The quality of the deliverables.
d. The quality of the team members.
11. Which of the following is also called a steering committee?

a. Executive committee c. Project approval
committee
b. Strategic planning d. Oversight committee
committee
12. Which of the following is NOT a standard reason for initiating a system development project.
a. To respond to an opportunity
b. To reduce staffing requirements
c. To resolve a problem
d. To respond to an external directive
13. A ____ combines three components: the problem description, the business benefits, and the
system capabilities.
a. Project charter c. System vision
document
b. Proof-of-concept d. System scope
analysis document
14. Which of the following is NOT a common question asked by the client before giving project
approval?
a. How much will it cost?
b. How long will it take?
c. Who is the project manager?
d. What are the benefits?
15. Usually the highest cost for the development and deployment of a new system is _____.
a. License fees for new c. Computer and
software network equipment
b. Salaries of the d. Data center costs
development team
16. The time from the deployment of a new system until the break-even point is reached is sometimes
called the ______.
a. investment period c. return on investment
b. net present value d. payback period
17. The net present value for a year is calculated by _______.

a. combining benefits and costs for a defined
number of years
b. applying the discount rate to the combination
of benefits and costs
c. determining when the benefits offset the costs
d. applying the discount factor to the
combination of benefits and costs
18. Which is NOT one of the primary areas for risk and feasibility analysis?
a. Organizational risks c. Schedule risks
b. Deployment risks d. Resource risks
19. The fear of using a computer (computer phobia) is a type of _______ risk.
a. Technological risk c. Organizational risk
b. Resource (people) d. Deployment risk
risk
20. Missing milestones on a project may be an indication of project that has high _______ risk.
a. Schedule c. Deployment
b. Resource d. Technological
21. Which of the following is NOT one of the activities of the second core process to plan and
monitor the project.
a. Establish the work c. Evaluate work
environment processes
b. Build work schedules d. Estimate the project
length
22. Which is NOT an activity associated with establishing the project environment?
a. Record and communicate project information.
b. Establish the working environment.
c. Establish team processes and procedures.
d. Identify staffing requirements.
23. The creation of a work breakdown structure is helpful in the development of what?
a. Software testing plan.
b. Project iteration schedule.
c. Detailed work schedule.
d. Detailed effort estimates of work tasks.
24. Estimating the effort required and identifying task dependencies is usually part of the work to
create what?
a. The project iteration c. The project time
schedule estimate
b. The detailed work d. The critical path
schedule
25. When the project team asks “Are our working relationships with the user effective?” it is doing
what?
a. An end of iteration c. A performance
review review
b. An end of project d. A work breakdown
review structure
26. Which of the following is NOT one of the activities associated with staffing the project team?
a. Conducting team-building exercises.
b. Developing a resource plan.
c. Organizing work groups.
d. Setting up programming rules and guidelines.
27. Which is NOT a criterion that is used to determine how to define tasks for a work breakdown
structure.
a. How to know when the task is complete.
b. How to estimate the effort required.
c. A logical way to determine its predecessor.
d. It should take one to five days.
28. Given a project schedule with all tasks connected with one-way arrows and task durations. The
critical path is _____.
a. the longest path through the network
b. the shortest path through the network
c. neither the longest nor shortest path through
the network
d. it cannot be determined
29. The present value of $200,000 development costs in year 0 assuming a 10% discount rate is:
a. $180,000 c. $200,000
b. $190,000 d. $210,000
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which two of the following are activities belonging to the first core process?
a. Schedule the work
b. Perform risk and feasibility analysis
c. Choose the project manager
d. Establish the project environment
e. Evaluate the work processes
f. Quantify project approval factors
2. Which two of the following activities belong to the second core process of planning and
monitoring the project?
a. Establish the project environment
b. Estimate the project cost
c. Analyze project risk and feasibility
d. Determine project scope
e. Estimate the project length
f. Staff and allocate resources
ANS: A, F PTS: 2 REF: p271
3. Which two of the following questions (decision points) are important when monitoring project
progress?
a. Is the task on target?
b. Is the task too large?
c. Is the task clearly defined?
d. Is the variance significant?
e. Is the corrective action sufficient?
f. Is the status complete?
COMPLETION
1. The term “____________________” refers to the organization and direction of other people to
achieve a planned result within a predetermined schedule and budget.
ANS: project management
PTS: 2 REF: p256
2. The person or group that funds the project is called the _____ .
ANS: client
PTS: 2 REF: p257
3. The person or group that work directly with the system are called _______ .
ANS:
user
users
PTS: 2 REF: p257
4. The _______ consists of clients and key manager who review the progress and direct the project.
ANS: oversight committee
PTS: 2 REF: p257
5. The level of formality of a project is often referred to as _______ .
ANS: ceremony
PTS: 2 REF: p257

6. A project management guide and standard of fundamental project management principles is
referred to as the _______.
ANS:
PMBOK
Project Management Body of Knowledge
PTS: 2 REF: p259
7. A document to help define the scope of the new system is called a _____.
ANS:
system vision document
System vision document
System Vision Document
PTS: 2 REF: p263
8. The benefits that accrue to an organization, usually measured in dollars, from the deployment of a
new system are called ______.
ANS: business benefits
PTS: 2 REF: p263
9. The required functions and capabilities of the new system that are developed in order to get
approval for the development project are called the _______.
ANS: system capabilities
PTS: 2 REF: p263
10. The dollar value of benefits reduced by the dollar value of costs combined together and expressed
in current dollars is called the ______.
ANS:
net present value
NPV
Net Present Value
PTS: 2 REF: p268
11. What is the name given to the process of comparing costs and benefits to see whether investing in
a new system will be beneficial?
ANS:
cost/benefit analysis
cost benefit analysis
cost-benefit analysis
Cost/benefit analysis
Cost Benefit Analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
PTS: 2 REF: p267
12. The point in time at which dollar benefits offset the dollar costs is called the _______ .
ANS:
break-even point
break even point
PTS: 2 REF: p268
13. What is the term that describes the time period after which the dollar benefits have offset the
dollar costs?
ANS:
payback period
pay back period
pay-back period
Payback period
Pay Back Period
Pay-back Period
PTS: 2 REF: p267
14. An increased level of customer satisfaction is an example of a(n) _______ benefit.
ANS: intangible
PTS: 2 REF: p269
15. The hierarchical list of activities of a project that is used to create work schedule is called the
_____.
ANS:
work breakdown structure
WBS
work breakdown structure (WBS)
PTS: 2 REF: p278
16. A bar chart that portrays the schedule by the length of horizontal bars is called a _______.
ANS: Gantt chart
PTS: 2 REF: p279
17. The sequence of tasks in a schedule that cannot be delayed without delaying the project is called
the _______ .
ANS: critical path
PTS: 2 REF: p279
18. The meeting held at the end of an iteration to determine what was successful and what can be
improved is called what?
ANS:
Retrospective
retrospective
A retrospective
PTS: 2 REF: p281
ESSAY
1. List several (at least four) reasons why projects fail as determined by the CHAOS report.
ANS:
1. Undefined project management practices
2. Poor IT management and poor IT procedures
3. Inadequate executive support
4. Inexperienced project managers
5. Unclear business objectives
6. Inadequate user involvement
PTS: 5 REF: p256
2. List several (at least four) of the internal responsibilities of a project manager.
ANS:
1. Develop the project schedule
2. Recruit and train team members
3. Assign work to teams and team members
4. Assess project risks
5. Monitor and control project deliverables and milestones
PTS: 5 REF: p25
3. List the three major external responsibilities of a project manager.
ANS:
1. Report the projects progress and status
2. Work with the client and other stakeholders
3. Identify resource needs and obtain resources
PTS: 5 REF: p257
4. List the nine areas of the Project Management Body of Knowledge.

ANS:
Project Scope Management
Project Time Management
Project Cost Management
Project Quality Management
Project Human Resource Management
Project Communication Management
Project Risk Management
Project Procurement Management
Project Integration Management
PTS: 5 REF: p259
5. List the four activities of the first core process: Identify the problem and obtain approval.
ANS:
1. Identify the problem
2. Quantify project approval factors
3. Perform risk and feasibility analysis
4. Review with the client and obtain approval
PTS: 5 REF: p262
6. List the three primary reasons for initiating a software development project.
ANS:
1. To respond to an opportunity
2. To resolve a problem
3. To respond to an external directive
PTS: 5 REF: p262
7. List three primary criteria to obtain approval for a project. These criteria are often three key
questions asked by the client before giving approval.
ANS:
1. How long will it take? (What is the estimated time)
2. How much will it cost? (What is the estimated cost)
3. What will it do for us? (What are the estimated benefits.)
PTS: 5 REF: p265
8. List four primary areas that are considered in risk and feasibility analysis.
ANS:
1. Organizational risk and feasibility
2. Technological risk and feasibility
3. Resource risk and feasibility (usually people resources)
4. Schedule risks and feasibility
PTS: 5 REF: p269

9. List the five activities of the second core process: Plan and monitor the project.
ANS:
1. Establish the work environment.
2. Schedule the work.
3. Staff and allocate resources.
4. Evaluate work processes.
5. Monitor progress and make corrections.
PTS: 5 REF: p271
10. List the three steps required to develop a detailed schedule of the work to be done within an
iteration.
ANS:
1. Develop a work breakdown structure.
2. Estimate effort and identify dependencies
3. Create the schedule with a Gantt chart.
PTS: 5 REF: p277
SADCW-6ed Chapter 10: Object-Oriented Design Principles
TRUE/FALSE
1. “Just in time” systems design is a popular technique used in adaptive approaches to projects.
2. In object-oriented design, the design models are extensions of the analysis models.
3. One tenet of Agile philosophy is that while analysis models may be useful, it generally is not
necessary to develop design models.
4. The objective of object-oriented analysis is to identify the objects that must work together to
carry out each use case.
5. Software systems can generally be divided into three types of systems: single-user systems,
enterprise-level systems, and Web-based systems.

6. The primary difference between Web based systems and non-Internet systems is in how the view
layer interacts with the domain and data access layers.
7. The objective of object-oriented detailed design is to identify and specify all the objects that must
work together to carry out each use case.
8. The most important model in object-oriented detailed design is a class diagram.
9. One big difference between an Internet based system and a Client/Server system is that an
Internet system maintains state information.
10. The interface for a component in a component diagram is denoted by a ball or a port.
11. Two layer architectures are interesting in theory, but are seldom if ever used.
12. The primary difference between a design class symbol and a problem domain class symbol is the
addition of method signatures.
13. Detailed Object-oriented design (OOD) is done on a use case-by-use case basis.
14. Developers do not typically add more classes to design class diagrams than were originally
defined in the domain model.
15. It is usually a bad idea to try to include user-interface classes to a CRC design.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is NOT part of a multilayer object-oriented design (OOD)?

a. Database access c. User input form
b. Problem domain d. Functional module
object
2. Which analysis model serves as an input model to a design class diagram?

a. Use case diagram c. Domain model class
diagram
b. Activity diagram d. System sequence
diagram (SSD)
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the categories of difference between networked based
systems and Internet based systems.
a. State configuration c. Server configuration
b. Client configuration d. Connectivity
configuration
4. Ports and sockets are used to show the interface in what kind of UML diagram?
a. Deployment diagram c. Package diagram
b. Network diagram d. Component diagram
5. Which of the following diagrams is used for architectural design?

a. Interaction diagrams c. Sate machine
diagrams
b. Package diagrams d. Component diagrams
6. The original method used to process input data in a Web based system was by using computer
programs in ______.
a. the Java programming language
b. the .NET programming suite
c. the C++ language for the CGI
d. the Javascript programming language
7. MVC stands for _______.

a. modules-variables- c. model-view-
constants connection
b. module-variables- d. model-view-
connections controller
8. A set of public methods of a system that can be used by the outside world is referred to as
______.
a. MVC c. CRC
b. API d. DCD
9. Which diagram is directly used to write programming code for object-oriented systems?
a. Sequence diagram c. Package diagram
b. Design class diagram d. State-machine
diagram
10. Which two models are the primary models in object-oriented detailed design?
a. Design class diagram and component diagram
b. Package diagram and CRC cards
c. Sequence diagram and state machine diagram
d. Sequence diagram and design class diagram
11. In Unified Modeling Language (UML) notation, a stereotype is indicated by ____.

a. parentheses c. guillemets
b. brackets d. underline
12. An input window class is an example of a(n) ____ design class type.
a. boundary c. entity
b. control d. persistent
13. A(n) ____ class acts as a switchboard between the view layer and the domain layer.
a. boundary c. entity
b. control d. persistent
14. Which of the following is included in the top compartment of a design class?
a. Attributes c. Type-expression
b. Parameter list d. Stereotype name
15. In design class notation, the ____ of an attribute is enclosed in curly braces {}.
a. visibility c. initial-value
b. type-expression d. property
16. Which of the following is valid Unified Modeling Language (UML) notation for a method
signature?
a. visibility name:type-expression {parameter
list}
b. name:class-name (parameter list):type-
expression
c. visibility name(parameter list):type-
expression
d. visibility class-name:name:type-expression
{parameter list}
17. Which of the following is correct UML notation for an attribute in a design class?
a. visibility name:type-expression = initial-
value{property}
b. visibility class-name:type-expression
{property}
c. visibility name:initial-value(property)
d. visibility name:type-expression initial-value
(property)
18. Given two classes, customer and order, which class would probably have navigational visibility
to which class?
a. Cannot determine based on the information
provided
b. Bidirectional -- each has visibility to the other
c. Order to Customer
d. Customer to Order
19. If you are doing detailed design for the use case Create New Order, which class should receive
the first input?
a. OrderTransaction c. OrderHandler
b. Order d. Customer
20. CRC stands for what?

a. Collaboration c. class relationship
responsibility card collaboration
b. Class responsibility d. collaboration
collaboration relationship class
21. UML provides a technique to extend the standard UML notation to include new symbols. This
technique is called ________.
a. extending c. prototyping
b. stereotyping d. externalizing
22. Which of the following is usually NOT included in a first-cut design class diagram?
a. Initial value c. Method signatures
information for
attributes
b. Attribute types d. Navigation visibility
arrows
23. Which of the following is a general guideline for designing navigation visibility?
a. A superior/subordinate relationship is usually
navigated from the superior to the subordinate
class
b. A superior/subordinate relationship is usually
navigated from the subordinate to the superior
class
c. Relationships in which objects in one class
cannot exist without objects of another class
are usually navigated from the more
dependent class to the more independent class
d. Navigation arrows should not be modified
during the design process
24. After completing a use-case design using CRC cards, the next step is to _______.
a. add required utility c. program the use case
classes
b. select another use d. update the design
case class diagram
25. In a design class diagram, navigation visibility is identified by ____.

a. a solid arrow between the classes, pointing to
the visible class
b. a solid arrow between the classes, initiating
from the visible class
c. a dashed arrow between the classes, pointing
to the visible class
d. a solid line between the classes
26. Which of the following is true of class-level methods?

a. They depend on the existence of a particular
object.
b. They cannot access data across all objects.
c. They are executed by the class instead of a
specific object of the class.
d. There can only be one class method per class.
27. Which of the following is the best coupling choice for an input window, domain, and database
object in a system?
a. The input window is coupled to both the
domain and database objects.
b. The input window is coupled to the domain
and the domain is coupled to the database.
c. The input window and the domain are both
coupled to the database object.
d. All objects are coupled to each other.
28. High coupling ____ in a system.

a. is easier to maintain
b. reduces ripple effects in a system when
changes occur
c. adds complexity
d. decreases visibility between classes
29. ____ is a qualitative measure of the consistency of functions within a single class.
a. Cohesion c. Coupling
b. Encapsulation d. Visibility
30. A class that is responsible for accessing both the Internet and a database has ____ cohesion.
a. very low c. medium
b. low d. high
31. A class named SaleItem which has methods to calculate its own price is said to have good
______.
a. API c. coupling
b. cohesion d. object responsibility
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which of the following are two primary methods used to design and implement enterprise-level
systems. (choose two)
a. Client-server d. Desktop systems
networked systems
b. Client-server stand e. Mobile app systems
alone systems
c. Internet systems f. Open-source systems
ANS: A, C PTS: 2 REF: p299
2. Which of the following are information items on CRC cards. (Choose two)
a. Object names d. Stereotypes
b. Method signatures e. Interactions
c. Attributes f. Responsibilities
ANS: C, F PTS: 2 REF: p315
COMPLETION
1. The creation of a programming object based on the template provided by the class definition is
called _______.
ANS:
instantiation
Instantiation
instantiating an object
PTS: 2 REF: p296
2. When a system has shared resources among multiple people or groups it is called a(n) _______.
ANS:
enterprise-level system
enterprise level system
PTS: 2 REF: p299
3. What is the name of the diagram that is an implementation diagram which shows the overall
system architecture and the logical components within it?
ANS: Component diagram
PTS: 2 REF: p300
4. When a system is built with public methods that other systems can use to access its functionality,
that is called the system’s _______.
ANS:
application program interface (API)
application program interface
API
PTS: 2 REF: p300
5. CGI stands for _______.
ANS: common gateway interface
PTS: 2 REF: p303
6. The main purpose of a(n) ____________________ diagram is to document and describe the
programming classes that will be built for the new system.
ANS: design class
PTS: 2 REF: p305
7. A(n) ____________________ class is a class that is used to retrieve data from a database.
ANS: data access
PTS: 2 REF: p309
8. A(n) _______ class is one where its objects exist after the system is turned off.
ANS:
persistent
persistence
PTS: 2 REF: p309
9. What is the term used to define the characteristic of an object attribute that describes whether it
can be directly accessed by another object -- denoted by + or - ?
ANS: visibility
PTS: 2 REF: p310
10. What do we call the notation that shows all the information required to call or invoke a method?
ANS: method signature
PTS: 2 REF: p310
11. What is the term to denote a method that is invoked on a class instead of on an object?
ANS:
class-level method
class level method
PTS: 2 REF: p310
12. The term used to identify an attribute that contains the same value for all objects of this type in
the system is _______.
ANS:
class-level attribute
class level attribute
PTS: 2 REF: p311
13. A class that can never have objects of its type created is called a(n) _______.
ANS: abstract class
PTS: 2 REF: p311
14. A class that can be instantiated with objects of its type being created is called a(n) ______.
ANS: concrete class
PTS: 2 REF: p311
15. The term “_______” is a design principle in which one object has reference to another object and
can thus interact with it.
ANS:
navigation visibility
navigational visibility
PTS: 2 REF: p312
16. A brainstorming technique for designing interactions in use cases by assigning responsibilities
and collaborations for classes is called _______ .
ANS:
CRC cards
class responsibility collaboration cards
PTS: 2 REF: p314
17. The term “_______” is a measure of the focus or unity of purpose within a single class.
ANS:
cohesion
Cohesion
PTS: 2 REF: p318
18. What is the term that is used to describe a design principle in which parts of a system that are
unlikely to change are segregated from those that will?
ANS:
Protection from variations
protection from variations
protection-from-variations
PTS: 2 REF: p319
19. What term is used to describe a design principle in which an intermediate class is placed between
two classes to decouple them but still link them?
ANS:
indirection
Indirection
PTS: 2 REF: p319
20. A design principle in which objects are responsible for carrying out system processing is called
______.
ANS:
object responsibility
object-responsibility
PTS: 2 REF: p319-320
ESSAY
1. List five important UML design models, and describe their use.
ANS:
1. Component diagram -- to show the overall structure of the solution with identification and
relationships between the major components, such as servers, of the solution.
2. Deployment diagram -- to show the equipment used to deploy the solution, and which
components reside on which equipment
3. Design class diagram -- to describe all the programming classes, their attributes and methods.
4. Interaction diagrams (sequence diagrams or communication diagrams) -- to show the detail
design of a use case by identifying all the internal messages required
5. Design state machine diagram -- to describe the states of an object and thus define the valid
states and transitions of an object
6. Package diagrams -- to show which sets of classes associate together in subsystems or other
closely related groups of classes
PTS: 5 REF: p297
2. Describe the object-oriented detailed design steps.
ANS:
Step 1. Develop a first cut design class diagram.
Step 2. (optional) Develop a set of CRC cards for each use case.
Step 3. Develop detailed sequence diagrams for each use case. Do this with a first cut sequence
diagram which focuses on the problem domain classes. Add multilayers.
Step 4. Update the design class diagram with methods and navigation information
Step 5. Partition the solution with package diagrams as appropriate
PTS: 5 REF: p308
3. Describe the three major differences between a client/server system and an Internet based system.
ANS:
State -- client/server is stateful but Internet is stateless
Client configuration -- client/server has designed screens and forms under the control of the client
program. Internet uses a browser to present screens and forms.
Server configuration -- Application server directly connects to the client. Application serves its
functions and data through a Web server.
PTS: 5 REF: p300
4. Describe the process to do use case realization with CRC cards.
ANS:
1. Select a single use case. Create a use case controller card.
2. Identify the primary problem domain class that has responsibility for this use case.
3. Identify all the other problem domain classes that are needed to carry out functions to complete
this use case. Define the individual responsibilities of each class. Also define which classes
collaborate (e.g. use) other classes to provide functions or information.
PTS: 5 REF: p315
SADCW-6ed Chapter 11: Use Case Realizations
TRUE/FALSE
1. Adding a use case controller to a sequence diagram is an example of applying a design pattern.
2. The controller object is usually part of view layer.
3. The starting point for the detailed design of a use case is always the SSD.
4. The activation lifeline is depicted by a vertical dashed line under an object.
5. The first-cut sequence diagram contains view layer and business layer.

6. Design class diagrams and interaction diagrams should be developed independent of each other.
7. The first-cut DCD includes method signatures.
8. The perfect memory assumption means that there is always adequate memory to execute the
program.
9. The perfect technology assumption means not to worry about issues such as user security.
10. The perfect solution assumption means that we do not worry about exception conditions.
11. A loop or repeating message or messages in a sequence diagram is depicted by a rectangle box.
12. Separation of responsibilities is a design principle which dictates that reading a database should
not be done in a problem domain class.
13. The best technique for accessing the database when multiple objects are needed is just to let the
data access object instantiate objects.
14. There are two preferred methods to accessing the database. One is to have newly instantiated
object call the data access object. The other is to let the controller access the data access object.
15. Since updating a design class diagram is done after the use case realization is complete, visibility
information is no longer necessary.
16. Dependency relationships cannot exist between classes within packages.
17. The code “if (someObject == null)” is part of the factory pattern.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. System designers frequently create a class called a ____ that can serve as a collection point for
incoming messages.
a. switchboard c. use case controller
b. message controller d. message collector
2. What is the least cohesive approach in creating use case controllers in a system?
a. Define a single controller for all use cases.
b. Define several controllers, each with a
specific set of responsibilities
c. Create a single controller for a single
subsystem
d. Create one controller per use case
3. The realization of a use case–determining what objects collaborate by sending messages to each
other to carry out the use case–is done through the development of a(n) ____ diagram.
a. system sequence c. interaction
b. package d. design class
4. Which is the correct notation for a message label on a sequence diagram?

a. * [true/false]RetVal := name (param)
b. [true/false]RetVal == name (param)
c. [true/false]seq# RetVal := name (param)
d. * [true/false] seq# Retval := name (param)
5. Which of the following is NOT a valid technique to return data from an input message?
a. A return object name c. A return value on an
input message
b. A return message d. A return condition
name
6. When a message is sent from an originating object to a destination object it means that ______.
a. data is being passed from the origin object to
the destination object
b. a transition is occurring between the objects
c. a method is being invoked on the originating
object
d. a method is being invoked on the destination
object
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p334-335, p342
7. What is the first step in constructing a first-cut sequence diagram from the elements of the system
sequence diagram (SSD)?
a. Determine which messages must be sent
b. Create a use case controller
c. Replace the :System object with all the
objects that must collaborate
d. Select an input message from the use case
8. Developing a(n) ____ diagram is a multistep process of determining which objects work together
and how they work together.
a. design class c. state machine
b. interaction d. package
9. When denoting a specific object in a sequence diagram, a ____ serves as the divider between the
object name and the specific object identifier.
a. double colon c. dash
b. colon d. dot
10. When a use case controller receives the initial request for an inquiry when the data access layer is
added, it first ____.
a. begins the process to initialize the necessary
objects in memory
b. sends a message to the database to see if it is
available
c. sends a message to the appropriate data access
object to retrieve the data
d. sends a return message to the view layer
11. In a sequence when one assumes that the objects are already available to receive messages, that is
considered to be the _______.
a. perfect technology c. perfect solution

assumption assumption
b. perfect memory d. perfect design
assumption assumption
12. The perfect technology assumption implies that _______.
a. the equipment will work without any
problems
b. the users understand the technology
c. issues related to technology are ignored
d. issues related to scalability (high volumes) are
ignored
13. User interface objects in a sequence diagram often are labeled with the stereotype ____.
a. entity c. control
b. view or boundary d. persistent
14. Which of the following is an example of an interaction diagram?

a. Design class diagram c. Package diagram
b. Data access diagram d. Communication
diagram
15. The primary models used for OO detailed design are ____ diagrams.
a. design class and c. package and

statechart deployment
b. package and d. design class and
statechart interaction
16. Which design model provides information for a design class diagram?
a. Deployment diagram c. Statechart diagram
b. Interaction diagram d. Package diagram
17. Which of the following symbols is used in a communication diagram, but not in a sequence
diagram?
a. Message arrow c. Activation lifeline
b. Object d. Link
18. Communication diagrams indicates the order of the messages with ____.
a. sequence numbers c. arrows
b. activation lifelines d. links
19. ____ methods must be included in a design class diagram.
a. Constructor c. Getter
b. Use case specific d. Setter
20. The final step in the object-oriented design (OOD) process consists of developing the ____.
a. attributes of the c. interaction diagrams
design classes
b. method names of the d. package diagrams
design classes
21. ____ diagrams partition a design class diagram into related functions.
a. Statechart c. Interaction
b. Sequence d. Package
22. The following notation “anOrd:Order” can be interpreted as follows:

a. Order is a class. anOrd is the identifier of an
object in the class
b. Order is an object. anOrd is the identifier for
that order
c. Order is a class. anOrd is an object in that
class
d. Order is an object. anOrd is the reference to
that object
23. Which of the following is NOT a component of the design pattern template?
a. Problem that requires a solution
b. Example of the pattern
c. Description of when the pattern does not
apply
d. Consequences of the pattern
24. Domain layer classes should ____.

a. prepare persistent classes for storage to the
database
b. start up and shut down the system
c. edit and validate input data
d. establish and maintain connections to the
database
25. Data access layer classes should ____.
a. process all business rules with appropriate
logic
b. accept input data
c. display data fields
d. contain Structure Query Language (SQL)
statements
26. View layer classes should do all of the following EXCEPT _______.
a. capture clicks and data entry
b. start and shut down the system
c. create problem domain classes
d. display forms
27. A different implementation of a function is required in an existing system. The best way to
integrate this function into the system is ______
a. to write the code in a new class
b. to write the code in an existing class
c. with the factory pattern
d. with the adapter pattern
28. The customer relationship system needs to instantiate a new customer object. How should this be
done?
a. Let the factory object do it.
b. Let the view layer object do it.
c. Let the controller object do it.
d. Let another business object do it.
29. Given the following code, identify the pattern.

Class MyBuilder
{ static MyBuilder builder = null;
{ if builder == null {builder = new MyBuilder( );
return builder;
}
a. Factory Pattern c. Factory Method
Pattern
b. Singleton Pattern d. Adapter Pattern
COMPLETION
1. Use case ____________________ is the process of detail design for a particular use case by
elaborating the messages that are necessary to execute the use case.
ANS: realization
PTS: 2 REF: p328
2. Standard design techniques and templates that are recognized as good practice are called
_________________.
ANS: design patterns
PTS: 2 REF: p330
3. The _________________ pattern is a based on a class that helps to decouple the view layer from
the business logic layer by receiving all input messages.
ANS:
controller
use case controller
control
PTS: 2 REF: p330
4. A type of interaction diagram that emphasizes the order of the messages between objects for a
specific use case is called a(n) ________ diagram.
ANS: sequence
PTS: 2 REF: p332
5. A type of interaction diagram that emphasizes the objects that send and receive messages for a
specific use case is called a(n) _______ diagram.
ANS: communication
PTS: 2 REF: p332
6. A representation of a period during which a method of an object is alive and executing is called
its _______.
ANS:
activation lifeline
activation life line
PTS: 2 REF: p335
7. The ___________________ sequence diagram only contains problem domain objects.
ANS:
first cut
first-cut
PTS: 2 REF: p336-337
8. The ________________ DCD usually contains no method signatures, but does contain navigation
visibility.
ANS:
first cut
first-cut
PTS: 2 REF: p337
9. A labeled arrow between lifelines on a sequence diagram is called a(n) _______________.
ANS: message
PTS: 2 REF: p333
10. ______________________________ is a design principle in which analysts divide or segregate

classes into several highly cohesive classes.
ANS: separation of responsibilities
PTS: 2 REF: p345
11. Problem domain classes that must be remember between program execution are called ______
classes.
ANS: persistent
PTS: 2 REF: p345
12. In a communication diagram, a(n) ____________________ is used to show that two items share a
message.
ANS: link
PTS: 2 REF: p349-350
13. A type of interaction diagram that does not have activation lifelines is called a ____________
diagram.
ANS: communication
PTS: 2 REF: p349-350
14. A dashed arrow represents a(n) _______ relationship in a package diagram.
ANS: dependency
PTS: 2 REF: p353
15. _________________________ are relationships among elements that indicate which elements
affect other elements in a system.
ANS: Dependency relationships
PTS: 2 REF: p354
16. A type of diagram that is used to define groups of classes as a subsystem is called a
_______________ diagram.
ANS: package
PTS: 2 REF: p353
17. The _____________ layer contains the user interface classes.
ANS: view
PTS: 2 REF: p348
18. The _____________ pattern can be used to connect two disparate systems.
ANS: adapter
PTS: 2 REF: p356-357
19. The _______________ pattern is used to instantiate objects as a service.
ANS: factory
PTS: 2 REF: p358-359
20. A pattern that ensures that it only instantiates itself one time is called the _____________ pattern.
ANS: singleton
PTS: 2 REF: p357
ESSAY
1. List and briefly describe the five parts included in the description of a design pattern.
ANS:
1. Pattern name -- a title or name used to recognize the design pattern.
2. Problem -- a description of what the problem is that requires a solution. Justification for the
need for this particular design pattern.
3. Solution -- a description of how to implement this design pattern.
4. Example -- a specific example showing a diagrammatic or programming solution. Specific so
that it is obvious how this design pattern is applied.
5. Benefits or consequences -- How this design pattern solves the stated problem. What are the
specifics of the solution with regard to the identified problem.
PTS: 5 REF: p330-331
2. Describe the three basic guideline steps for creating the messages in the first cut sequence
diagram.
ANS:
1. Take each input message and determine all other internal messages.
2. Identify all the classes required to support all of the internal messages for one input message.
3. Flesh out all internal messages with iteration, true/false conditions, return values, and passed
parameters.
PTS: 5 REF: p344
3. What considerations should be taken into account when choosing the type of interaction diagram
for a system design model?
ANS:
Many designers use communication diagrams to sketch out a solution. If the use case is small and
not too complex, a simple communication diagram may suffice. Drawing a communication
diagram is an effective way to get a quick overview of the objects that work together. However,
for more complex situations, a sequence diagram may be required to visualize the flow and
sequence of the messages. It is not unusual to find a mix within the same set of specifications:
some use cases described by communication diagrams and others shown with sequence diagrams.
PTS: 5 REF: p349
4. How has the differences between programming languages and database languages driven the
trend to a multilayer design?
ANS:
One of the problems with object-oriented programs that use databases is a slight mismatch
between programming languages and database Structured Query Language (SQL) statements. In
a database, tables are linked through the use of foreign keys and data is obtained through a
relational join. However, in OO programming languages, references are made to objects in
memory to obtain data. Therefore, the design, programming, and maintenance in a system is
easier if separate classes are defined to access the database and get the data in a form that is
conducive to processing in the computer. Rather than mix the business logic with the data access
logic, it is better to define separate classes and let each focus on its primary responsibility.
PTS: 5 REF: p345-348
FSADCW-6ed Chapter 12: Databases, Controls, and Security
TRUE/FALSE
1. A relation describes the structure, content, and access controls of a physical data store or
database.
2. A relational database management system stores data in tables.
3. Every table in a relational database must have a foreign key.
4. A foreign key is a field or set of fields stored in one table that also exists as a primary key in
another table.
5. Invented keys in a relational database are dangerous and require careful scrutiny.
6. Relationships in a relational database are usually represented by embedding a foreign key in each
participating table.
7. Classes that participate in a classification hierarchy can be represented within a relational

database as a set of tables with the primary key of the general class table replicated in the other
tables.
8. Classes that participate in a classification relationship can only be represented within a relational
database as a single table containing all the attributes in each class.
9. A relational database table is in third normal form (3NF) if it is in second normal form (2NF) and
if every non-key field is functionally dependent on the primary key.
10. A relational database table is in third normal form (3NF) if it is in second normal form (2NF) and
if no non-key field is functionally dependent on any other non-key field.
11. Problem domain modeling and database normalization are incompatible techniques for relational
database design.
12. One-to-many and many-to-many relationships are both represented by foreign keys in a relational
database.
13. Referential integrity is a consistent relational database state in which every foreign key value also
exists as a primary key value.
14. The primary purpose of integrity controls is to track external activity.
15. Completeness control is an integrity control that identifies when a value in a field is too large or
too small.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A(n) ____ describes the structure, content, and access controls of a physical data store or
database.
a. relation c. schema
b. DBMS d. attribute
2. Which of the following is NOT a component or function of a typical database management

system (DBMS)?
a. Low-level process c. Application program
management interface
b. End-user query d. Administrative
processor interface
3. In a relational database, a row can be referred to as a(n) ____.

a. field c. attribute
b. tuple d. relation
4. Data elements in a relational database are organized into ____.

a. attributes c. tables
b. objects d. tuples
5. A(n) ____ is a field or set of fields used to uniquely identify each row.
a. primary key c. object identifier
b. foreign key d. attribute
6. ____ are a critical element of relational database design because they are the bases for
representing relationships among tables.
a. Keys c. Fields
b. Attributes d. Tables
7. One column of a table in a relational database is called a(n) ____.

a. attribute c. tuple
b. relation d. element
8. A(n) ____ is a field or set of fields stored in one table that also exists as a primary key in another
table.
a. primary key c. object identifier
b. foreign key d. column
9. Each class on an class diagram is represented by a(n) ____ in a relational database.

a. attribute c. table
b. row d. column
10. All ____ in a table are guaranteed to be unique if the table's primary key is guaranteed to be
unique.
a. columns c. rows
b. foreign keys d. values
11. An separate relation must be created to store the attributes of a ____ relationship among two other
classes.
a. one-to-one c. many-to-many
b. one-to-many d. not any (not
necessary)
12. ____ is a consistent relational database state in which every foreign key value also exists as a
primary key value.
a. First normal form c. Function dependency
(1NF)
b. Database d. Referential integrity
synchronization
13. Referential integrity is normally enforced by the ____.

a. application c. operating system
programmer
b. database management d. user
system
14. A relational database table is in ____ normal form if it has no repeating fields or groups of fields,
and hence all rows have the same columns.
a. first c. third
b. second d. fourth
15. ____ is a one-to-one correspondence between two field values.
a. First normal form c. Referential integrity

b. Second normal form d. Functional
dependency
16. A relational database table is in ____ normal form if every non-key field is functionally
dependent on the primary key.
a. first c. third
b. second d. fourth
17. A relational database table is in ____ normal form if no non-key field is functionally dependent
on any other non-key field.
a. first c. third
b. second d. fourth
18. What can be said about the following relational database table (key is underlined): (Choose the
most correct answer.)
CourseSectionID, StudentID, Grade, StudentName
a. Not in any valid normal form
b. In First Normal Form
c. In First and Second Normal Form
d. In First, Second, and Third Normal Form
19. What can be said about the following relational database table (key is underlined): (Choose the
most correct answer)
StudentID, Name, Major, CreditsCompleted, GPA, AcademicStanding
a. Not in any valid normal form
b. In First Normal Form
c. In First and Second Normal Form
d. In First, Second and Third Normal Form
20. A ____ database server architecture is the simplest to build and operate if sufficient network
capacity is already available for database access.
a. single c. partitioned
b. replicated d. cloud-based
21. A ____ database server architecture runs the greatest risk of service disruption in the event of a
server failure.
22. A ____ database server architecture stores different parts of a database on different servers.
23. Database synchronization should be implemented when using a(n) ____ database server
architecture.
24. A significant disadvantage of a single server database architecture is that it ____.

a. must be located on the same local area
network (LAN) as all database users
b. requires partitioning the schema among user
groups
c. can result in an overloaded network
d. is relatively expensive
25. A ____ database server architecture is only feasible when a database schema can be cleanly
divided among client access user groups.
a. single c. replicated
b. partitioned d. cloud-based
26. Which is NOT an objective of integrity controls?

a. Allow only valid business transactions
b. Ensure that transactions are recorded
completely
c. Protect the assets of the organization
d. Ensure a stable functioning operating
environment
27. An integrity control that verifies the data in one field against the data in other fields is called a
____ control.
a. completeness c. value
b. field combination d. data validation
28. What is a control that checks the value of a field to ensure that it is within the correct range?
a. Answer control c. Value limit control
b. Completeness control d. High-low control
29. What is the name of the control mechanism that is used to ensure that all necessary information
for a transaction has been entered?
a. Secure control c. Comprehensive
control
b. Total control d. Completeness control
30. What is the name of a general control technique used to ensure that entered data is correct?
a. Data validation c. Data acceptance
control control
b. Data access control d. Data completeness
control
31. Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects the risk of fraud?
a. Separation of duties c. Asset reconciliation
b. Monitoring d. Authorization of
users
32. Three types of users that are considered in the design of a security system are ____.
a. manager user, technical user, and clerical user
b. technical user, authorized user, and privileged
user
c. unauthorized user, registered user, and
privileged user
d. supervisor user, administration user, and
operational user
33. Which user is known to the system and is authorized to access all or certain parts of it?
a. Authorized user c. Valid user
b. Registered user d. Authenticated user
34. A user who has special security and access to a system, such as the right to assign passwords, is
called a ____.
a. supervisor user c. privileged user
b. database d. technical user
administrator
35. Which of the following can be classified as privileged users?

a. System programmers, application
programmers, and system administrators
b. Technical users and security personnel
c. System operators and clerks
d. Administrators and accountants
36. When the data is encrypted with the public key in asymmetric encryption , it is decrypted with
a(n) ____ key.
a. asymmetric c. public
b. private d. symmetric
37. A ____ is an institution's name and public key, which is encrypted and certified by a third party.
a. private key c. certifying authority
b. digital certificate d. digital key
38. Using digital signatures is primarily a technique to ____.

a. verifying who sent a document
b. allow for remote signatures on official
documents
c. electronically send a signature
d. digitize (scan) a signed document
COMPLETION
1. A(n) ____________________ describes the structure, content, and access controls of a physical
data store or database.
ANS: schema
PTS: 2 REF: p373
2. A(n) _______ is the database component that actually stores the raw bytes of data.
ANS: physical data store
PTS: 2 REF: p373
3. In a database a two-dimensional data structure consisting of columns and rows is called a(n)
_______.
ANS:
table
relation
PTS: 2 REF: p374
4. A(n) ____________________ is a field or set of fields stored in one table that also exist as a
primary key in another table.
ANS: foreign key
PTS: 2 REF: p375
5. _________________________ is a consistent relational database state in which every foreign key

value also exists as a primary key value.
ANS:
Referential integrity
referential integrity
PTS: 2 REF: p382
6. Non-key (“bad”) redundancy can be systematically identified and eliminated from a relational
database by ____________________ of the database.
ANS:
normalization
normalizing
PTS: 2 REF: p383
7. A relational database table is in ____________________ normal form if it has no repeating fields

or groups of fields, i.e. if it has the same number of columns for every row.
ANS:
first
1NF
1st
PTS: 2 REF: p383-384
8. A data type that is supported directly by computer hardware or a programming language is called
a(n) _______ data type.
ANS: primitive
PTS: 2 REF: p386
9. A data type that is defined by extending or combining other data types is called a(n) ______ data
type.
ANS: complex
PTS: 2 REF: p386
10. _______ database server architecture is poorly suited to applications that must be available on a
seven-day, 24-hour basis.
ANS: Single
PTS: 2 REF: p389
11. When it is necessary to update one database copy with changes made to the other database, it is
called _________.
ANS:
database synchronization
synchronization
PTS: 2 REF: p389
12. A(n) ______ control is a control that rejects invalid inputs, prevent unauthorized outputs, and
protects data and programs against tampering.
ANS: integrity
PTS: 2 REF: p392

13. A control that checks the value of a field to ensure that it is within the correct range is a(n)
_______ control.
ANS:
value limit
value-limit
PTS: 2 REF: p393
14. A(n) ______ control restricts which persons or programs can add, modify or view information.
ANS: access
PTS: 2 REF: p394
15. A technique where all updates to a database are recorded with who, when, and how information is
called ________.
ANS:
transaction logging
logging
PTS: 2 REF: p394
16. A model of fraud that states that opportunity, motivation, and rationalization must all exist for
fraud to occur is called the ________.
ANS: fraud triangle
PTS: 2 REF: p396
17. A control that protects the assets of an organization against all threats, primarily external threats
is called ______ control.
ANS: security
PTS: 2 REF: p396
18. ____________________ is the process of identifying a user to verify that he or she can have
access to the system.
ANS: authentication
PTS: 2 REF: p397
19. _______ is the process of allowing or restricting a specific user’s access to specific resources.
ANS: authorization
PTS: 2 REF: p398

20. A(n) ____________________ is the list of users who have rights to access the system and data.
ANS: access control list
PTS: 2 REF: p398
21. In ____________________ encryption, the same key encrypts and decrypts the data.
ANS: symmetric
PTS: 2 REF: p399
22. The encoding of a message with a private key is called ____________________.
ANS:
digital signing
digital signature
PTS: 2 REF: p400
23. A security measure that automatically deletes sensitive data from a portable device when an
unauthorized access is attempted is a called a(n) _______.
ANS: remote wipe
PTS: 2 REF: p400
ESSAY
1. List and briefly describe the four components of a database management system.
ANS:
1. Application Program Interface -- allows programming language interface to write scripts and
logic to produce results based on complex logic.
2. End-user query processor -- this provides the SQL statements to query and update the database.
3. Administrative interface -- provides the functionality to create the schema and change the
database configuration parameters.
4. Database access and control logic -- this is the actual DB engine which updates the database
and retrieves results.
PTS: 5 REF: p373-374
2. What danger(s) is/are inherent in using keys invented by external agents as primary keys in a
relational database?
ANS:
Referential integrity depends on primary key uniqueness. By using key values assigned by
external entities, an organization risks the possibility that referential integrity may be broken at
some time in the future (e.g., duplicate shipment tracking numbers from competing shipping
companies).
PTS: 5 REF: p377
3. List and briefly describe the four types of database server architecture described in the textbook.
ANS:
1. Single database server architecture —One or more databases are hosted by a single DBMS
running on a single server.
2. Replicated database server architecture —Complete database copies are hosted by cooperating
DBMSs running on multiple servers. The servers are usually distributed across geographic
locations.
3. Partitioned database server architecture —Multiple distributed database servers are used and
the database schema is partitioned, with some content on only one server and some content
copied on all servers.
4. Cloud-based database server architecture —This architecture isn’t really a separate
architecture. Rather, it is a specific implementation of one or more of the other architectures by
using the services of a cloud computing provider.
PTS: 5 REF: p389
4. Explain how a digital certificate works.
ANS:
An entity who wants a certificate with its name and public key goes to a certifying authority and
buys a certificate. The certifying authority encrypts the data with its own private key and gives
the data back to the original entity. When someone asks the entity for its public key, it sends the
certificate. The customer receives the certificate and opens it with the certifying authority’s public
key.
PTS: 5 REF: p401
SADCW-6ed Chapter 13: Making the System Operational
TRUE/FALSE
1. Testing and construction should be done independently of each other.
2. Acceptance testing is an informal activity in most development projects.
3. Due to design principles for object-oriented systems, such as cohesion and coupling, integration
testing is usually a straightforward process with little complexity.
4. Frequently customer payments for new systems are tied to specific acceptance tests.
5. In complex data conversions programs must be constructed and tested in the same manner as
operational software.
6. The purpose of system documentation is to help the end users understand the details of how the
system works.
7. How to start up the system and how to shut it down are examples of system documentation.
8. Describing program functions required to implement specific business procedures is an example

of user documentation.
9. Top-down and bottom-up development order cannot be applied to object-oriented designs

(OODs).
10. The primary advantage of direct deployment, as compared to other installation methods, is
minimal risk to business operations.
11. Parallel deployment is generally best when the consequences of a system failure are severe.
12. There is no one single method for performing phased deployment.
13. Partial parallel deployment and operation always entails the risk that significant errors or
problems will go undetected.
14. Older production versions should not be overlapped with test versions of future production
releases.
15. Beta versions do not need to be stored after the production version is released.
16. In some deployment situations, it may be possible to begin operation of the new system without
converting data from the old system.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is NOT a condition describing a test case?

a. And ending state or response
b. One or more events to which the software
must respond
c. A set of input data
d. A starting state
2. The goal of _______ is to identify and fix as many errors as possible before units are combined
into larger software units.
a. user testing c. integration testing
b. unit testing d. stress testing
3. Which is NOT a responsibility of a test driver?

a. Receives output c. Links to the unit to
values test
b. Issues a call to the d. Set input parameter
unit to test values
4. ____ testing tests the behavior of a group of modules or methods.

a. Driver c. System
b. Integration d. Unit
5. ____ testing examines the behavior of an entire subsystem or independent subsystem with respect
to technical and user requirements.
a. Driver c. System
b. Integration d. Unit
6. A(n) ____ test is a test performed to determine whether the system fulfills user requirements.
a. acceptance c. system
b. integration d. performance
7. An error condition consisting of an error in the passing of parameters -- a method passes or

returns an unexpected value such as a negative price -- is usually found in what kind of testing?
a. Unit testing c. System testing
b. Integration testing d. Acceptance testing
8. A build and smoke test is often performed how frequently?

a. Several times a week c. At least monthly
b. Weekly d. Before going live
9. The primary purpose and benefit of a build and smoke test is to _______ .
a. test major additions c. test programmer
to the software expertise
b. test equipment d. test integration
malfunctions problems
10. A stress test is also called a _____ test.

a. throughput c. volume
b. performance d. equipment
11. Complex modifications to database structure for a new system may require ____ the data after the
changes.
a. testing c. reloading
b. deleting d. indexing
12. Often the deployment of a new system will require training. What groups typically may require
training?
a. Executive users and operational users
b. Clerical staff and middle managers
c. End users and system operators
d. Management users and operational users
13. Under input, process, output (IPO) development order, programs or modules that ____ are
developed first.
a. produce output c. obtain external input
b. process input d. send system
interfaces
14. Which of the following is NOT a typically used development order for program modules?
a. Left-to-right c. Top-down
b. Bottom-up d. Input, process, output
15. Which of the following is a major advantage of input, process, output development order?
a. The development c. Not as much testing
process is rapid is required
b. Testing is more d. User interface is
straightforward easier to develop
16. Which of the following is an advantage of top-down program development order as compared to
bottom-up program development order?
a. There is always a working and testable
version.
b. All programming staff are immediately put to
work.
c. Stub modules or methods don’t need to be
written.
d. There are multiple iterations.
17. Which of the following is a disadvantage of top-down program development order as compared
to bottom-up program development order?
a. There is always a working and testable
version of the program.
b. Programming staff are not immediately put to
work.
c. Stub modules or methods don't need to be
written.
d. Development proceeds downward.
18. Drivers are used extensively in ____ development, because called methods and child modules are
developed and unit-tested before their parents are developed.
a. top-down c. object-oriented
b. input, process, output d. bottom-up
19. The acronym SCCS is an abbreviation of ____.

a. source code c. source code control
controlling system system
b. source code capture d. standard coding
system control system
20. Under which of the following circumstances might a direct deployment be a good choice?
a. System downtime cannot be tolerated.
b. The new system is not replacing an older
system.
c. The system contains mission-critical
applications.
d. The system is large and complex, with
relatively independent subsystems.
21. The primary advantage of ____ deployment is its simplicity.

a. direct c. phased
b. parallel d. networked
22. In a ____ deployment, the system is installed and brought into operation in a series of steps.
a. phased c. parallel
b. direct d. stepwise
23. The primary disadvantage of ____ deployment is increased complexity.

a. direct c. parallel
b. phased d. networked
24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of parallel deployment?

a. The need to acquire extra space for computer
equipment and personnel
b. Substantial downtime
c. The old system is turned off and not available
d. Loss of mission-critical systems
25. A(n) ____ version is a system that is incomplete but ready for some level of rigorous testing.
a. production c. alpha
b. maintenance d. beta
26. A(n) ____ version is a system that is stable enough to be tested by end users.
27. A(n) ____ version is a system version created for long-term release to users.
28. A minor production release, called a(n) ____ version, provides bug fixes and small changes to
existing features.
29. A ____ system is a copy of the production system that is modified to test a maintenance change.
a. temporary c. test
b. secondary d. replicated
30. A maintenance change typically skims or skips the ____ activities of the system development life
cycle (SDLC).
a. analysis c. planning
b. design d. testing
31. Most organizations use a(n) ____ form to propose and document a maintenance change.
a. user request c. maintenance report
b. change request d. team request
32. Another common name for a production version is a(n) ______.

a. installed version c. live version
b. deployed version d. release version
33. Which is NOT a reason that a full parallel deployment and operation may not be practical?
a. Incompatibility between inputs for the old and
new
b. Insufficient capacity for both systems on the
same equipment
c. Insufficient training for the new system while
using old system
d. Insufficient staffing levels for both systems
COMPLETION
1. A(n) ____________________ is a formal description of a starting state, one or more events to

which the software must respond, and the expected response or ending state.
ANS: test case
PTS: 2 REF: p412
2. A(n) ____________________ is a method developed for unit testing, that simulates the calling
behavior of a method that hasn't yet been developed.
ANS: driver
PTS: 2 REF: p413
3. A method or class developed for unit testing that simulates the execution of the method or class
that has not been written yet is called a(n) _____.
ANS: stub
PTS: 2 REF: p414
4. A focused test to test a specific method, class, or subsystem to see if it meets the user
requirements is called a(n) _______ test.
ANS:
usability
usability test
PTS: 2 REF: p416
5. An type of integration test that tests an entire subsystem or an entire system is called a(n)
_______ test.
ANS:
system
system test
PTS: 2 REF: p416
6. A type of integration test that determines whether a system or subsystem can meet time-based
throughput criteria is called a(n) _______ .
ANS:
performance test
stress test
performance
stress
PTS: 2 REF: p416
7. ____________________ is the desired or maximum allowable time limit for software response to
a query or update.
ANS:
Response time
Response
PTS: 2 REF: p416
8. ____________________ is the desired or minimum number of queries and transactions that must
be processed per minute or hour.
ANS: Throughput
PTS: 2 REF: p416
9. A type of system test performed to determine if the entire system fulfills the user requirements is
called a(n) ________.
ANS:
user acceptance test
acceptance test
acceptance
PTS: 2 REF: p417
10. ____________________ documentation includes descriptions of how to interact with and

maintain the system, as used by end users and system operators.
ANS:
User
End user
PTS: 2 REF: p420
11. A(n) ____________ development order is one that implements input modules first, business logic
modules next, and output modules last.
ANS:
input, process, output
input, process, output (IPO)
IPO
input-process-output
input process output
input-process-output (IPO)
PTS: 2 REF: p424

12. Stubs are needed for ____________________ development.
ANS:
top-down
top down
PTS: 2 REF: p425
13. ____________________ tests are valuable because they provide rapid feedback regarding
significant problems.
ANS:
Build and smoke
Build-and-smoke
PTS: 2 REF: p416
14. A(n) _______ is an automated tool for tracking source code files and controlling changes to those
files.
ANS:
source code control system
SCCS
PTS: 2 REF: p427
15. ________ deployment is most useful when a system is large, complex, and composed of
relatively independent subsystems.
ANS: Phased
PTS: 2 REF: p431
16. End users test ___________ versions by using them to do real work.
ANS: beta
PTS: 2 REF: p432
17. The ________ system is the version of the system used day to day.
ANS: production
PTS: 2 REF: p434
ESSAY
1. List and briefly describe the four activities of Core Process 5: Build, text, and integrate system
components, i.e. Implementation activities.
ANS:
1. Program the software -- This is the actually programming done in some programming
language.
2. Unit test the software -- Unit testing is that testing that tests each class and its methods in a
limited or narrow context. It is usually done by the programmer or programming team.
3. Identify and build test cases -- In order to test the system at a broader level, such as integration
or system test, test cases need to be created. These test cases will simulate a real-world
environment with both good and bad data.
4. Integrate and test components -- This is the highest level testing associated with this core
process. The various components (sets of classes) are combined together and tested to ensure that
they can function together.
PTS: 5 REF: p411 and on
2. List and briefly describe the six activities of Core Process 6: Complete system tests and deploy
the solution, i.e. Deployment activities.
ANS:
1. Perform system and stress tests -- System tests are tests that involve all parts of the system in
multiple cycles including period based testing (i.e. month-end). Stress testing includes high
volumes of transactions and other testing that tests the throughput of the system.
2. Perform user acceptance tests -- User acceptance tests are an extension of system tests. They
test the entire system across time periods, but use data that is either live data or simulated live
data. Users will also test the system for usability, easy of use, and correctness of all answers.
3. Convert existing data -- Things like Customer records will need to be transported from the old
system to the new system. This can be a complex and time consuming activity.
4. Build materials and conduct training -- This activity can range from almost non-existent to
comprehensive and extensive depending on the complexity of the new system and its variance
from the previous system.
5. Configure and set up the environment -- This is primarily a technical activity to establish a
reliable, solid, optimized production environment.
6. Deploy the solution -- Actually “turning on” the new system and using it for productive
business use.
3. List and briefly describe the six activities of Core Process 6: Complete system tests and deploy
the solution.
ANS:
1. Perform system and stress tests -- System tests are designed to test the entire system across all
functions and time periods. Stress tests evaluate performance and throughput
2. Perform user acceptance tests -- User tests validate that the system actually solves the business
problem. Accuracy is also tested.
3. Convert existing data -- Old data may need to be included in the new system. There are three
primary methods to convert data.
4. Build training materials and do training -- Both user and technical training may be required
5. Configure and set up production environment -- The production environment needs to be
configured. The new system may need to conform to an existing configuration.
6. Deploy the solution -- Install and turn on the new system.
4. List and briefly describe three ways to deploy a new system.
ANS:
1. Direct deployment -- The old system is turned off (if there is one), and the new system is
turned on. This is the most simple, and the highest risk approach.
2. Parallel deployment -- Both systems are run in parallel, either partially or completely. This is
the safest, but also the most expensive.
3. Phased deployment -- The new system is turned on a piece at a time. This is also a safer
approach than direct, but it also can be complex to coordinate the different phases as they cut
over.
PTS: 5 REF: p429-431
SADCW-6ed Chapter 14: Current Trends in System Development
TRUE/FALSE
1. In the UP life cycle, some working software is tested and reviewed with system users at the end
of each iteration.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p446, 448
2. The elaboration phase of the UP is usually completed in one iteration.
3. The UP should not be tailored to the needs of a specific organization or system project.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p446, 450
4. Most iterations in the UP involve work in all disciplines.
5. The Unified Process (UP) life cycle has four phases: inception, elaboration, construction, and
conversion.
6. In XP, each programmer is responsible for her or her own code.
7. XP recommends that system code be written before test code.

8. The Scrum master sets the project schedule and assigns tasks.
9. Once a Scrum team has agreed on a goal and has selected items from the backlog list, the scope
of the sprint is frozen.
10. The purpose of a Scrum daily meeting is to find solutions for any issues that have arisen since the
last meeting.
11. In a Scrum project users can change the items being worked on whenever necessary. .
12. Blog hosting and photograph hosting are examples of software as a service.
13. The future of open-source software looks bleak because of an unworkable revenue model to
generate sufficient funds.
14. Large open-source software projects are usually staffed by a staff of experienced developers who
work together in one or two primary locations.
15. For many people —both at work or at home —the Web browser is the computer program they
use the most.
16. Software development has turned into a cottage industry for much of the world’s new
applications.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following methodologies use an adaptive approach to systems development?

a. Unified Process c. Scrum
b. Extreme d. All of them
Programming
2. UP disciplines are involved in each iteration, which is typically planned to span ____.
a. one week c. four weeks
b. two weeks d. eight weeks
3. The UP ____ discipline involves setting up the guidelines to manage releases and versions.
a. project management c. deployment
b. configuration and d. environment
change management
4. The UP life cycle model includes all of the following:

a. phases, activities, and artifacts
b. phases, disciplines, and iterations
c. activities, iterations, and processes
d. analysis, design, and implementation phases
5. Which of the following is completed in the inception phase of the UP?

a. Prepare the deployment
b. Resolve high risks
c. Design and implement the core architecture
and functions
d. Produce rough estimates of cost and schedule
6. Which of the following is completed in the transition phase of the UP?

a. Complete beta test c. Implement the core
functions
b. Resolve high risks d. Make the plans to
deploy
7. The basis of an XP plan is a set of ____ that users develop.

a. use cases c. classes
b. stories d. diagrams
8. In XP development, a(n) ____ can guide members toward a vision and help them understand the
system.
a. sprint c. object framework
b. system metaphor d. metamodel
9. The first XP development activity is creating ____.
a. a system metaphor c. a set of acceptance
tests
b. a development plan d. user stories
for releases
10. Which of the following is NOT an XP practice?

a. Simple designs c. Small releases
b. Anyone can change d. No required coding
the code standards
11. The first release-level activity in an XP development approach is ____.

a. performing c. planning a series of
acceptance testing iterations
b. creating acceptance d. dividing the code
tests units among teams
12. Scrum focuses primarily on the ____ level.

a. team c. manager
b. software d. process
13. In Scrum, the ____ maintains the product backlog list.

a. product owner c. Scrum team
b. Scrum master d. project manager
14. A Scrum sprint is a firm ____ time box, with a specific goal or deliverable.
a. 7 day c. 30 day
b. 14 day d. 60 day
15. Which of the following is NOT a question that is asked in a Scrum meeting?
a. What have you done since last meeting?
b. What will you do by the next meeting?
c. What obstacles are hindering you?
d. Are you meeting your scheduled deliverables?
16. Which of the following characteristics applies to a free-standing Internet application?

a. It requires a Web c. It requires Internet
browser. connectivity.
b. It only requires a d. It can execute
local computer. without Internet
connectivity.
17. An example of a free-standing Internet application is _____.

a. Google docs c. Microsoft Word
b. Yahoo email d. iTunes
18. The most challenging and difficult problem of providing Internet connectivity to a home or
computing device continues to be the ______.
a. bandwidth c. last mile connection
requirements
b. denial of service d. diversity of
attacks computing devices
19. Companies that host and deliver static content from locations around the world that are closer to
the end users are called ______ .
a. network services c. colocation hosting
companies companies
b. content delivery d. on demand software
networks networks
20. The two biggest uses of the Internet today are ______.
a. Web searching and c. Gaming and
social networking pornography
b. Social networking d. Web searching and
and pornography gaming
21. Another name for software as a service is ______.

a. networked c. networking software
applications
b. on demand d. on demand software
applications
22. MySQL, Wordpress, Aptana, and Apache are all examples of _____ .
a. open-source software c. browser-based
software
b. Internet applications d. proprietary software
23. A Web site, such as a store or business, that includes capabilities, such as a Mapquest map
location and a Google search capability can be called _____.
a. a Web mini-app c. open-source software
b. an RIA d. a mashup
24. Which of the following is NOT an RIA development tool?

a. Adobe Flash c. HTML 2.0
b. Microsoft Silverlight d. Javascript and Ajax
25. The key element that is required to develop and provide RIAs is ______.
a. powerful computing c. fast Internet
on the local computer connection to provide
quick responses
b. powerful servers to d. content delivery
provide quick networks to provide
turnaround extended multimedia
delivery
26. Adding the capability to post a Tweet from your blog is an example of what?
a. A mashup c. A toolbar
b. A plug-in d. A widget
COMPLETION
1. A(n) ________ is a set of functionally related activities that combine to enable the develop
process in a UP project.
ANS:
Discipline
UP discipline
PTS: 2 REF: p448
2. _______ is the technique of revising, reorganizing, and rebuilding part of a system so that it is of
higher quality.
ANS: Refactoring
PTS: 2 REF: p452

3. _______ is an XP practice in which two programmers work together on designing, coding, and
testing.
ANS:
Pair programming
Pair-programming
PTS: 2 REF: p452
4. In XP, a system is delivered to users in multiple stages called _________.
ANS:
releases
small releases
PTS: 2 REF: p453
5. The basic idea behind the ____________________ development methodology is to respond to a

current situation as rapidly and positively as possible.
ANS: Scrum
PTS: 2 REF: p456
6. A(n) ____________ is a prioritized list of user requirements used to choose work to be done
during a Scrum project.
ANS: product backlog
PTS: 2 REF: p456
7. In Scrum, a(n) ________ is the client stakeholder for whom a system is being built.
ANS: product owner
PTS: 2 REF: p456
8. The _________ is a small group of developers who work together on a Scrum project.
ANS: Scrum team
PTS: 2 REF: p456
9. A Scrum _______ is a time-controlled mini-project that implements a specific portion of a

system.
ANS: sprint
PTS: 2 REF: p456

10. Every day during the sprint, the Scrum master holds a daily ____________________ which is a
meeting of all members of the team.
ANS:
scrum
scrum meeting
PTS: 2 REF: p455
11. A computer application that is built to execute on a local computer without requiring a
client/server connection is called a _______.
ANS:
device-top application
device top application
desk-top application
desk top application
PTS: 2 REF: p458
12. A client/server application that executes locally within the control of a browser is called a
______.
ANS:
browser-based application
browser based application
PTS: 2 REF: p459
13. The primary data routes between large, strategically interconnected networks and major routers
on the Internet is called the ______.
ANS:
Internet backbone
backbone
PTS: 2 REF: p459
14. The final leg that delivers Internet connectivity from the Internet to the customer is called the
______ .
ANS:
last mile
last-mile
PTS: 2 REF: p459
15. A software delivery model similar to a utility in which the application and its associated data are
accessed over the Internet without locally installed programs is called _____.
ANS:
software as a service
software-as-a-service
software as a service (SAAS)
SAAS
PTS: 2 REF: p461
16. ________ is a method of developing, delivering, and licensing software that makes the
application source code freely available.
ANS:
Open-source software
Open source software
Open source
PTS: 2 REF: p462
17. ______ is a loosely defined, nonstandard term that is used to refer to Web sites that permit user-
generated content and user interaction, such as social networking.
ANS:
Web 2.0
Web-2.0
Web two point zero
PTS: 2 REF: p466
18. A software component that adds specific capabilities to a larger software application is called a(n)
______.
ANS:
plug-in
plug in
plug-ins
PTS: 2 REF: p467
19. A type of plug-in software, often found on Web applications, that focuses on enhancing the user
interface by adding more capabilities is referred to as a(n) ______.
ANS:
widget
gadget
PTS: 2 REF: p467
20. A type of add-on to an application that allows the look and feel, such as colors and layouts, to be
changed is called a(n) ______ .
ANS: theme
PTS: 2 REF: p467
21. A(n) ______ is a type of application add-on, usually comprised of iconic menu items, that
accesses the capabilities of the application.
ANS:
toolbar
tool bar
tool-bar
PTS: 2 REF: p468
22. A software application that provides a complete set of functions but must be executed within the
confines of another Web application is called a(n) ______.
ANS:
Web mini-app
Web mini app
mini-app
Web mini-application
PTS: 2 REF: p469
23. A type of Web site that combines the functionality of several other Web sites through the use of
predefined APIs is called a(n) ______.
ANS: mashup
PTS: 2 REF: p469
24. ________ is a type of Web site that provides active user interaction as well as delivering rich
multimedia.
ANS:
Rich Internet application
Rich Internet application (RIA)
RIA
Rich-Internet application
PTS: 2 REF: p471
25. _____ is the new HTML specification that standardizes RIA specifications for built-in browser
delivery.
ANS:
HTML 5
HTML5
HTML-5
PTS: 2 REF: p474

ESSAY
1. Describe the four core values of XP.
ANS:
The four core values of XP-communication, simplicity, feedback, and courage-drive its practices
and project activities. One of the major causes of project failure has been a lack of open
communication with the right players at the right time and at the right level. Effective
communication involves not only documentation but also open verbal discussion. Even though
developers have always advocated keeping solutions simple, they do not always follow their own
advice. XP includes techniques to reinforce this principle and make it a standard way of
developing systems. As with simplicity, getting frequent, meaningful feedback is recognized as a
best practice of software development. XP integrates feedback into every aspect of development,
including functionality, requirements, designs, and code. Finally, developers always need courage
to face the harsh choice of doing things right or throwing away bad code and starting over. But all
too frequently they have not had the courage to stand up to a too-tight schedule, resulting in bad
mistakes. XP practices are designed to make it easier to give developers the courage to “do it
right”.
PTS: 5 REF: p451
2. List and briefly describe at least four of the six criteria required (by OSI) for open source
software to be licensed as such.
ANS:
1. Source code -- must be open for distribution
2. Freely redistributable -- recipients may also distribute it further
3. Derived works -- the source code can be modified and redistributed
4. Distribution of license -- the open-source license should apply to all derived works
5. No discrimination -- the license cannot restrict how can receive the software
6. No related restrictions -- the license cannot restrict other software that is part of the open-
source software
PTS: 5 REF: p463
3. Web applications have evolved through three major changes over the last twenty years. Briefly
describe each of these three evolutionary changes.
ANS:
1. Static Web pages -- these were not really applications. These Web pages were static pages
based on HTML and CSS files. They included text, static images, and hyperlinks.
2. Dynamic Web pages and applications -- these include applications that provide dynamic pages
depending on the user and his/her actions. These types of Web pages accepted user input and
responded appropriately with dynamic pages.
3. Rich Internet Applications -- these applications simulate true desktop functions with complete
interactive activity and responses between the user and the application. It usually includes both
program logic on the browser and rapid interaction between the local computer and the server.
PTS: 5 REF: p466

Online Chapter A: The Role of the Systems Analyst
TRUE/FALSE
1. Systems analysis means understanding and specifying in detail what the information system
should accomplish.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p c
2. The systems analyst's work is described as problem solving for an organization.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 4
3. Technology alone increases productivity and profits.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 3
4. The primary activity of a system developer is programming.
5. When deciding which information system solution to recommend the analyst should recommend
the one with the fewest risks and the most benefits.
6. The difference between the system boundary and the automation boundary is that the system
boundary is contained within the automation boundary.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 7-8
7. The components of an information system are the computer hardware, the computer software and
the data.
8. Since business problems tend to be similar, systems analysts seldom focus on a specific business
industry.
9. Interpersonal people skills are the analysts more important skills.
10. Due to outsourcing programming to off-shore companies in India, China, an the old Soviet Block,
careers in information systems is not expected to be a growth industry in the future.
11. Today the nature and types of jobs for information system graduates is more varied than ever
before.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 13-14
12. Systems analysis and design focuses on understanding the business problem and outlining the
approach to solve it.
13. The primary skill required of a good systems analyst is to be able to program effectively and
efficiently.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The process of understanding and specifying in detail what the information system should
accomplish is called systems ____.
a. design c. analysis
b. specification d. administration
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 3
2. Systems ____ means specifying in detail how the many components of the information system
should be physically implemented.
a. design c. analysis
b. specification d. administration
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 3
3. The term “____” refers to a business professional who uses analysis and design techniques to
solve business problems using information technology.
a. database manager c. systems analyst
b. computer d. business analyst
programmer
4. The text identifies three primary areas of skills that are required of a systems analyst. Which of
the following is NOT one of the three?
a. People skills c. Business skills
b. Technical skills d. Writing skills
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 3
5. The most important role of a systems analyst in business is ____.

a. technical understanding of information
systems
b. problem solving
c. knowing what data needs to be stored and
used
d. special programming skills
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 3
6. A(n) ____ includes hardware, software, inputs, outputs, data, people, and procedures.
a. system c. subsystem
b. information system d. functional
decomposition
7. ____ refers to the division of a system into processes or subsystems.
a. System design c. Programming

b. Data management d. Functional
Decomposition
8. An automation boundary is best described as the separation between the ____.
a. system and its environment

b. automated part of a system and the manual
part of a system
c. manual part of a system and its environment
d. automated part of a system and its
environment
9. Support systems that allow employees to communicate with each other and with customers and
suppliers are called ____.
a. transaction processing systems (TPS)

b. decision support/knowledge based systems
(DSS/KBS)
c. office support systems (OSS)
d. collaboration support systems (CSS)
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 8-9
10. Which of the following is the analyst’s approach to problem solving?
a. Verify that the benefits of solving the problem

outweigh the costs, then research and
understand the problem.
b. Develop a set of possible solutions, then
verify that the benefits of solving the problem
outweigh the costs.
c. Verify that the benefits of solving the problem
outweigh the costs, then define the
requirements for solving the problem.
d. Define the details of the chosen solution, then
implement it.
11. A knowledge management system
a. indexes all the knowledge contained within an

organization.
b. supports the storage of and access to
documents within an organization.
c. is another term for a library system.
d. requires a very large amount of online storage
space.
12. A system that is subject to many external laws and regulations is a(n) _______.
a. collaboration support system

b. manufacturing management system
c. human resource management system
d. business knowledge system
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 8-9
13. The two systems that are externally oriented, i.e. they focus on entities outside of the organization
a. collaboration support and knowledge

management systems
b. manufacturing and supply chain management
systems
c. accounting/financial and human resource
management systems
d. customer relationship and supply chain
management systems
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Chap A p 8-9
14. A business intelligence system supports _______.
a. strategic planning and executive decision

making
b. just in time inventory decisions
c. customer service requirements
d. business process activities
15. Such things as how to do project planning, or how to do cost/benefit analysis, or how to conduct
an interview is called _______.
a. techniques c. methodologies
b. strategies d. a knowledge base
16. Understanding the way an organization performs its procedures is what kind of skill area?
a. Technical skills c. Organizational skills
b. Business skills d. People skills
17. Highly integrated systems that support company-wide operations and data, often combining
aspects of many other systems is a(n) ____.
a. decision support/knowledge based system

(DDS/KBS)
b. management information system (MIS)
c. communication support system
d. enterprise resource planning application
18. A process in which an organization commits to using an integrated set of software packages for
key information systems is called ____.
a. business process re-engineering

b. applications architecture planning
c. strategic planning
d. enterprise resource planning (ERP)
19. After investing resources in thoroughly understanding the business problem, the analyst decides
that the costs of solving the problem will likely outweigh the benefits. The analyst should ____.
a. move to the design activities
b. invest more in the project to increase the
benefits
c. resolve feasibility issues
d. suggest that the project be discontinued
20. One common element of all types of business information systems is that they all _______.
a. use client/server c. interact with
architecture customers
b. interact with d. use database
investors technology
21. Which of the following is NOT a defined area of knowledge that is required of systems analysts?
a. Problem solving c. Business knowledge
knowledge
b. Technical knowledge d. People knowledge
22. A type of information system that allows geographically distributed personnel to work together
on projects and tasks is called a(n) ________.
a. human resource management system (HRM)
b. knowledge management system (KMS)
c. collaboration support system (CSS)
d. business intelligence system
COMPLETION
1. A collection of interrelated components that collect, process, store, and provide as output the
information needed to complete a business task is called a(n) ________.
ANS:
information system
information system (IS)
PTS: 2 REF: Chap A p 6
2. A(n) ____________________ is a collection of interrelated components that function together to

achieve some outcome.
A
ANS: system
3. An approach to dividing a system into components based on subsystems is referred to as

____________.
ANS: functional decomposition
4. Every system has a _______ between itself and the environment.

ANS:
system boundary
boundary
5. The ______________ describes the separation between the automated part of a system and the
manual part of a system.
ANS: automation boundary
6. Those skills which have to do with computers, programming, networks, and databases are called
___________________ skills.
ANS: technical
PTS: 2 REF: Chap A p 10-11
7. A centrally managed collection of data that is accessible to many users and systems at the same
time is called a(n) __________________.
ANS: database
8. A specific software application that assists developers in creating models or other components
required for a project is called a(n) _____.
ANS: tool
9. Since a systems developer often works on systems that contain confidential corporate
information, it is important that he or she have a high commitment to ________ and ethics.
ANS: integrity
10. The process of understanding and specifying what the information system should accomplish is
called _______.
ANS:
systems analysis
system analysis

11. The process of specifying how the components of the new system should be implemented is
called ________.
ANS:
systems design
system design
12. A business professional who uses analysis and design techniques to solve business problems
using technology is called a(n) ________.
ANS:
systems analyst
system analyst
13. A system that is part of a larger system is called a(n) ____.
ANS: subsystem
ESSAY
1. List the steps taken in the analyst's general approach to problem solving.
ANS:
1. Research and understand the problem
2. Verify that the benefits of solving the problem outweigh the costs
3. Define the requirements for solving the problem
4. Develop a set of possible solutions (alternatives)
5. Decide which solution is best and make a recommendation
6. Define the details of the chosen solution
7. Implement the solution
8. Monitor to make sure that you obtain the desired results
2. What are the three required areas of skills of the system analyst?
ANS:
System analysts need a great variety of special skills. They need to understand how to build
information systems (technical skills) and must understand the business they are working for
(business skills). They also need to understand people and the way they work (people skills).
Online Chapter B: The Traditional Approach to Requirements

TRUE/FALSE
1. The traditional approach to system development views a system as a collection of interacting

objects.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Chap B p 21
2. Traditional computer processes are much like procedural computer programs in that they contain
instructions that execute in sequence.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Chap B p 21
3. The object-oriented approach to systems development views a system as a collection of

processes, some performed by people and some performed by the computer.
4. The term “diagram 0” is used synonymously with context diagram.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Chap B p 26-27
5. System boundaries are not shown clearly on context diagrams.
6. Diagram 0 summarizes an entire system or subsystem in greater detail than a context diagram.
7. Context diagrams do not usually show data stores.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The traditional approach to information systems development describes activities as ____.

a. processes carried out by people or computers
b. objects that interact with people and each
other
c. objects that send and respond to messages
d. activities that require computational support
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Chap B p 21
2. A(n) ____ is a person or organization outside the system boundary that supplies data inputs or
accepts data outputs.
a. data flow c. external agent
b. data store d. customer
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Chap B p 22
3. Which of the following refers to a modeling technique that breaks the system into a hierarchical
set of increasingly more detailed models?
a. Data store c. Data flow
b. Level of abstraction d. Context diagram
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Chap B p 24
4. A(n) ____ is a data flow diagram (DFD) that summarizes all processing activity within the
system in a single process symbol.
a. Event partition c. Diagram 0
diagram
b. level of abstraction d. context diagram
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Chap B p 26
5. A(n) ____ represents the system response to one event.

a. DFD fragment c. diagram 0
b. context diagram d. event-partitioned
system model
6. A data flow diagram (DFD) that models system requirements using a single process for each
event in a system or subsystem is called a(n) ____.
a. context diagram c. event-partitioned
system model
b. DFD fragment d. diagram 1.0
7. The term diagram 0 is another name for a(n) ____.

a. context diagram c. event-partitioned
system model
b. DFD fragment d. lowest level diagram
8. If the data flow diagram (DFD) is a ____, then it assumes that the system will be implemented
with perfect technology.
a. context diagram c. physical model
b. logical model d. prototype model
9. A(n) ____ can be a physical system model, a logical system model, or a blend of the two.
a. process definition c. entity-relationship
diagram
b. data flow diagram d. context diagram
10. Which of the following data flow diagram (DFD) symbols usually corresponds to a data entity on
an entity-relationship diagram (ERD)?
a. Data store c. Data link
b. Data flow d. Process
11. Which of the following data flow diagram (DFD) symbols represents the communication between
an external agent and a process while the process is executing?
a. Process c. Real-time link
b. Data link d. Data store
12. An analyst can avoid information overload by adhering to the rule of ____.
a. functional c. process dependency
decomposition
b. interface d. balancing
minimization
13. ____ is the equivalence of data content between data flows entering and leaving a process and
data flows entering and leaving a process decomposition data flow diagram (DFD).
a. Balancing c. Complexity
minimization
b. Interface d. Abstraction
minimization
14. Minimization of interfaces is directly related to the rule of ____.

a. miracle c. balancing
b. black hole d. 7± 2
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Chap B p 35
15. On a DFD a(n) ____ represents a file or part of a database that stores information about a data
entity.
a. process c. data store
b. data flow d. data link
16. Which of the following is NOT a technique to document program logic for a process.
a. Structured English c. Decision Tree
b. Decision Matrix d. Decision Table
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Chap B p 38-40
17. Analysts sometimes can spot black holes and miracles simply by examining the _________.
a. context diagram c. data flow diagram
b. entity relationship d. structured English
diagram
18. Which of the following is a table that describes the relationship between processes and the
locations in which they are performed?
a. Location diagram c. Activity-location
matrix
b. Black hole d. Activity-data matrix
19. Which of the following is a diagram or map that identifies all of the processing locations of a
system?
a. Location diagram c. Activity-data matrix
b. Activity-location d. CRUD table
matrix
20. A ____ is a textual description of a data flow’s content and internal structure.
a. data store rule c. data flow rule
b. data flow definition d. process definition
21. In small development projects, a(n) ____ may be a small loose-leaf notebook or word processing
file.
a. data store c. activity-data matrix
b. data dictionary d. decision table
22. A symbol on a data flow diagram (DFD) that represents an algorithm or procedure by which data
inputs are transformed into data outputs is called a(n) ____.
a. process c. activity
b. transaction d. data flow
COMPLETION
1. A diagram that represents system requirements as processes, external agents, data flows, and data
stores is called a(n) ______.
ANS:
data flow diagram
data flow diagram (DFD)
DFD
PTS: 2 REF: Chap B p 22
2. A symbol on a data flow diagram (DFD) that represents an algorithm or procedure by which data
inputs are transformed into data outputs is called a(n) __________.
ANS: process
3. A place where data are held pending future access by one or more processes in a DFD is called
a(n) ________.
ANS: data store
4. A(n) ________ is a data flow diagram (DFD) that summarizes all processing activity within the
system in a single process symbol.
ANS: context diagram
5. A DFD _______ represents the system response to one event within a single process symbol.
ANS:
fragment
6. A data flow diagram (DFD) that models system requirements using a single process for each
event in a system or subsystem is called a(n) ____.
ANS:
event-partitioned system model
diagram 0
PTS: 2 REF: Chap B p 27-28
7. An assumption about DFDs that includes things such as instant processing, infinite storage, and
zero errors is called ______.
ANS: perfect internal technology
8. If too much information is presented at once, people experience a phenomenon called _______ .
ANS: information overload

9. The rule of 7 ± 2 is also known as _________.
ANS: Miller’s number
10. _________ is a principle of model design that seeks simplicity by limiting the number of
connections among model components.
ANS: minimization of interfaces
11. The term “__________” is used to describe the equivalence of data content between data flows
entering and leaving a process and data flows entering and leaving a process decomposition data
flow diagram (DFD).
ANS: balancing
12. A process or data store with data input that is never used to produce a data output is referred to as
a(n) ______.
ANS: black hole
13. A(n) _______ is a process or data store with a data element that is created out of nothing.
ANS: miracle
14. ___________ is a method of writing process specifications that combines structure programming
techniques with narrative English.
ANS: Structured English
15. ___________ can summarize decision logic more concisely than structured English.
ANS:
decision tables
decision trees
decision tables and decision trees

16. A(n) ________ is a graphical description of process logic that uses lines organized like branches
of a tree.
ANS: decision tree
17. A(n) _______ is a tabular representation of processing logic containing decision variables,
decision variable values, and actions or formulas.
ANS: decision table
18. A(n) ________ is a table that describes stored data entities, the locations from which they are
accessed, and the nature of the accesses.
ANS: activity-data matrix
ESSAY
1. List the five symbols used on a data flow diagram (DFD) and briefly explain what each symbol
represents.
ANS:
A process (rectangle with rounded corners) represents transformation of data input(s) into data
output(s).
A data flow (straight arrow) represents movement of data among processes, data stores, and
external agents.
An external agent (square) represents a person, organization, or system outside the system
boundary that supplies or receives data.
A data store (rectangle with one end open) represents data stored for later retrieval.
A real-time link (arrow with a double bend) represents exchange of data between a process and an
external agent while the process is executing.
2. What are the first four steps involved in the construction of a decision table?
ANS:
1. Identify each decision variable and its allowable values.
2. Compute the number of decision variable combinations as the product of the number of values
of each decision table.
3. Construct a table with one more column than the number of decision variable combinations
computed in step 2.
4. Assign the decision variable with the fewest values to the first row of the table. Put the decision
variable name in the first column. Divide the remaining columns into sets of columns for each
decision variable value.
PTS: 5 REF: Chap B p 40-41
3. Explain the difference between traditional and object-oriented approaches to system

development.
ANS:
The traditional and the object-oriented approaches to system development differ in how a
system’s response to an event is modeled and implemented. The traditional approach views a
system as a collection of processes, some performed by people and some performed by
computers. In contrast, the object-oriented approach views a system as a collection of interacting
objects. Objects are capable of behaviors that allow them to interact with each other and with
people using the system.
Online Chapter C: Project Management Techniques
TRUE/FALSE
1. Payback period is usually calculated for the same time period as the discount rate is applied.
ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 57
2. The first step in NPV calculations is to determine the discount rate.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 55
3. A PERT/CPM is another name for a type of Gantt Chart.
4. A milestone task always has a duration of zero days.
ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 69
5. In Microsoft Project calculating and assigning the duration time to a summary task is usually
fairly complex.
6. In Microsoft Project a Tracking Gantt chart is useful to keep track of the resources on a project.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The present value of $200,000 development costs in year 0 assuming a 10% discount rate is:
a. $180,000 c. $200,000
b. $190,000 d. $210,000
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 55-56
2. The objective of ____ is to determine a specific value based on a predetermined discount rate.
a. project evaluation and review technique
(PERT)
b. return on investment (ROI)
c. cost/benefit analysis
d. net present value (NPV)
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 55-56
3. Which of the following equations represents the present value (PV) of a discounted future amount
(FA) at a discount rate (i) for multiple periods (n)?
a. c.
b. d.
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 55
4. The discount factor for 2 time periods at 10% discount rate is ______.
a. .9090 c. .8264
b. .8899 d. .7513
5. Which of the following is also referred to as the breakeven point?

a. Net present value c. Return on Investment
(NPV) (ROI)
b. Payback period d. cost/benefit
equalization
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 57
6. Given that the NPV at the end of year 3 was -$185,000 and it was +$265,00 at the end of year 4,
what is the payback period?
a. Not enough c. Three years and 41
information to days
calculate.
b. 150 days d. Three years and 150
days.
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 57
7. To determine a percentage return on an initial investment, which of the following techniques

should be used?
a. None of these will c. Net present value
work
b. Payback calculations d. Return on investment
8. The most common way to determine the discount rate for NPV calculations is by _____.
a. using company policy
b. using the federally published discount rates
c. using the results of ROI calculations
d. calculating current loan interest rates
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 55
9. A(n) _____ chart is a chart for scheduling a project based on individual tasks or activities and
their dependencies.
a. WBS c. PMBOK
b. PERT d. Project
10.
Given the above figure, what is the Net Present Value (NPV) for Year 2?
a. $55,800 c. $60,850
b. $59,340 d. $61,620
11.
Given the above figure, what is the Cumulative NPV after Year 2?
a. $76, 760 c. $5,380
b. $15,140 d. -$44,200
12.
Given the above figure, when is the Breakeven point?
a. 637 days c. 458 days

b. 538 days d. 272 days
13.
Given the above figure, what is the 2 year ROI without discount?
a. 129% c. 207%
b. 182% d. 238%
14.
Given the above PERT/CPM chart, how many days does it take for the project to end?
a. 15 days c. 12 days
b. 13 days d. 9 days
15.
Given the above figure, what is the early start time of task number 6?
a. 6 days c. 8 days
b. 7 days d. 9 days
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 60-61
16.
Given the above figure, what is the late start time for task number 5?
a. 6 days c. 8 days
b. 7 days d. 9 days
17.
Given the above figure what tasks are included in the critical path?
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 c. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7
b. 1, 2, 3, 6, 7 d. 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 60-61
18. Which of the following equations is correct for calculating early start time?
a.
b.
c.
d.
19. Which of the following equations is correct for calculating late start times with concurrent tasks?
a.
b.
c.
d.
20. In a PERT/CPM chart when several tasks are in sequence to form a path segment but are not on
the critical path the total slack time is _____?
a. the same for each one c. equal to the greatest
slack time
b. the sum of the d. equal to the smallest
individual slack times slack time
21. In a PERT/CPM chart the lag time represents _____.

a. a dead time between tasks
b. the difference between the early start time and
the late start time
c. the delay between the projected completion
and actual completion of a task
d. the time required to coordinate tasks on
separate paths
22. Which of the following is NOT a type of dependency between tasks on a PERT/CPM chart?
a. Resource mandatory c. External mandatory
b. Project mandatory d. Discretionary
23. In Microsoft Project if task B need to begin two days after task A started, you would use a task
dependency of _______.
a. FS + 2 days c. FS - 2 days
b. SS + 2 days d. SS - 2 days
24. The method used in Microsoft Project for making summary tasks is by _______ the detailed
tasks.
a. leveling c. promoting
b. subtasking d. demoting
25. A split screen in Microsoft Project is an effective way to ______ .

a. view multiple projects at the same time
b. view both summary information and detailed
task information
c. view the Gantt chart and the Resource sheet at
the same time
d. view the planning chart view and the tracking
chart view at the same time
26. Given a project schedule with all tasks connected via one way arrows and with task durations.
The critical path is ______.
a. the longest path through the network

b. the shortest path through the network
c. neither the longest nor the shortest path
through the network
d. it cannot be determined
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: Chap C p 68-69
27. A project manager has purchased some training classes for JAVA programming for new members
of his team. This would be considered to be part of which PM management area?
a. Time management c. Human resource
management
b. Communication d. Procurement
management management
28. Setting up a change control log to keep track of new system requirements is part of what PMBOK
area?
a. Cost Management c. Time Management
b. Quality Management d. Scope Management
29. The three techniques used for Scope Management are Defining the scope, _______ , and
Controlling the scope.
a. Reducing the scope c. Monitoring the scope
b. Approving the scope d. Verifying the scope
30. To ensure that the project schedule accurately accommodates the necessary work is part of the
objective of which PMBOK management area?
a. Schedule c. Quality management
management
b. Time management d. Resource
management
31. Which is NOT one of the characteristics of a quality software system?

a. Fit for intended c. Secure
purpose
b. Robust d. Easy to install
32. Good Project Communication Management requires techniques in three important areas: (1)
gathering information (2) disseminating information and (3) ________ .
a. managing internal c. managing the
communications database of
information
b. managing stakeholder d. managing the project
information documentation
33. For a particular project the new system requires the installation of new servers. Managing this
activity fits best in which project management area?
a. Quality management c. Cost management
b. Time management d. Procurement
management
COMPLETION
1. The annual percentage rate that an amount of money is discounted to bring to a present value is
called the _____.
ANS: discount rate
PTS: 2 REF: Chap C p 55
2. The accumulation of yearly discounts based on a discount rate is called the ______.
ANS: discount factor
3. The earliest time that a task can start on a project schedule is called its _____.
ANS: early start time
4. The latest time that a task can start on a project schedule without negative impacts to the overall
schedule is called the ______.
ANS: late start time
5. The _____ is the point at which the increased cash flow exactly pays off the costs of development
and operation.
ANS:
breakeven point
payback period
6. The amount of time a task or sequence of tasks can be delayed without impacting the project is
called the _____.
ANS: slack time

7. In Microsoft Project the process (either manual or automated) which resolves resource conflicts is
called ______.
ANS:
leveling
level
resource leveling
8. In Microsoft Project a PERT/CPM chart view is called a _____ diagram.
ANS:
network
Network
9. In Microsoft Project a task that indicates the completion of a deliverable or some other
completion item is called a _____ task.
ANS: milestone
ESSAY
1. List the nine PMBOK knowledge areas.
ANS:
Project scope management
Project time management
Project cost management
Project quality management
Project human resources management
Project communications management
Project risk management
Project procurement management
Project integration management
2. List and briefly explain six characteristics of a quality system.
ANS:
--Easy to use -- it is intuitive for the users and has techniques to support both novices and power
users.
--Fit for intended purpose -- it must completely solve the business need for which it was built
--Robust -- does not easily crash or break; handles bad input data
--Reliable -- it gives consistent and correct answers
--Secure -- is not easily ‘hacked’ or compromised
--Maintainable -- built so that programmers can understand structure and code and easily make
modifications
3. Briefly identify and explain the three primary objectives of Project Scope Management.
ANS:
--Define the functions for the new system -- to identify and determine all the functions that are
required
--Verify the functions -- prioritize the identified functions to determine which can be included
--Control the set of functions -- control the scope to avoid scope creep
4. Briefly identify and explain the three objectives of Project Time Management.
ANS:
--Build an accurate project schedule -- make sure the schedule is complete and includes all work
that must be done
--Schedule resources -- make sure that resources are not over allocated, but are scheduled
effectively
--Measure completed work -- keep track of work as it progresses so that the project can be
controlled accurately
5. Briefly identify and explain the four objectives of Project Cost Management.
ANS:
--Accurately estimate project costs -- Using work estimates, time estimates, and resource
estimates make an estimate of total project costs
--Predict cash flows -- based on project resources, estimate the timing of cash flows
--Control project costs -- only allow valid project costs to be accepted
--Capture and record project costs -- keep accurate records of all expenditures
6. List and briefly explain at least four of the six objectives of Human Resource Management.
ANS:
--Staff the project with the right resources -- both the timing and the skill mix of project members
must be determined and controlled
--Provide training -- team members should be trained and have development opportunities as part
of the project
--Organize the teams -- team members must be organized into work units; even self-organizing
teams must organize
--Build effectiveness -- work teams should work on how to improve relationships and working
associations and efficiency
--Provide leadership -- team members work better if they have a vision of the project and its
potential
--Provide an effective work environment -- team members are more effective if their are no
obstacles and if they have all the tools and resources required
7. List and briefly describe the four objectives of Project Communication Management.
ANS:
--Gather information -- make sure all necessary information is collected. Set up methods to do so
in a timely manner
--Disseminate information -- ensure that accurate information is made available frequently to all
stakeholders
--Keep team members informed -- often one serious problem is that team members do not know
what is going on within the rest of the team. Establish methods to keep all informed
--Keep a central repository -- ensure that collected information is stored in an easily accessible,
safe, and secure location and format
PTS: 5 REF: Chap C p 74-75
8. List and briefly describe the objectives of Project Procurement Management.
ANS:
--Plan the procurement -- decide and make plans on how items will be purchased - how to find
them, how to evaluate them, how to buy them, how to ensure they are delivered
--Ensure solicitation is correct and complete -- using RFPs (Request for proposal) or other
mechanisms make sure adequate research is done before a commit to purchase
--Evaluate alternatives -- make sure the evaluation process is fair, complete, with bias, accurate
--Ensure adequate contracts -- work with legal staff to ensure that the contracts are
comprehensive and cover all contingencies
--Monitor deliverables -- make sure deliverables are received on time, and that they are as
specified, and that they function correctly
PTS: 5 REF: Chap C p 75-76

Testbank 305

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Testbank 305

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Testbank 305

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

What are the core processes in systems development?

What are the core processes in systems development?

What are the main activities involved in systems analysis?

What are the main activities involved in systems analysis?

SADCW-6ed Chapter 01: From Beginning to End: An Overview of Systems

Analysis and Design

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p4

2. Systems analysis is sometimes referred to as “understanding and specification.”

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p5

3. Systems design consists of activities to describe the solution to the problem.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p5

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p5

5. The SDLC means the Systems Design Life Cycle.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p6

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p6

7. Iterative development is the same as Agile development.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p6, p8

8. In iterative development the system is grown organically.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p8

9. The first core process is to plan the project.

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p8

10. In iterative development, an iteration usually lasts about six weeks. .

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p8

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p10

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p11

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p12

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p15-16

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p17

16. The ovals in a workflow diagram represent tasks.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p17

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p22

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p22

19. A package diagram is useful to document the various subsystems in a system.

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p22-23

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p25

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p6

ANS: F PTS: 1 REF: p8

ANS: T PTS: 1 REF: p9-10

4. SDLC stands for what?

5. An information system development process that emphasizes flexibility to embrace change is

6. When a system is partitioned into pieces, each piece is referred to as a _________________.

12. The purpose of a use case is to _______.

13. The purpose of a class diagram is to _______.

14. The boxes on a class diagram can be thought of as a particular _______.

18. Designing the database schema is included in which Core Process?

20. Another name for a workflow diagram is a(n) _______ diagram.

22. Method signatures are included in which diagram?

24. Programming is included in which Core Process?

25. Overall functional testing is included in which Core Process?

26. What is the purpose of an iteration recap?

28. What is usually the end result of an iteration?

2. Two of the primary benefits of iterative development include (choose two).

1. Another term that is used to define a computer application is _______________.

ANS: iterative development

PTS: 2 REF: p10

PTS: 2 REF: p12

PTS: 2 REF: p22

PTS: 2 REF: p23