Protalent Legal GK Update PDF

1) Quid pro quo means 7) All innocent promises collateral to the main illegal
a) Receiving money in favour promise contained in a contract will be regarded as

b) Giving money in return a) Valid
c) Something for something b) void
d) Receiving favours all the time c) Illegal
d) voidable
2) Audi alteratem partem means
a) Receiving alternative sources of funds 8) Which one of the following is a contract?
b) Take the other side a) An agreement to do a lawful act by unlawful means
c) Move everybody to ones side to gain unanimity b) An undertaking in writing duly signed to pay the time
d) Hear what the other side has to say barred debt
c) An agreement in restraint of lawful trade
3) A contract of service entered into by a minor is? d) An agreement to pay rupees one thousand only
a) Valid without consideration
b) Voidable at the option of the other party
c) Void 9) An agreement to pay money or money’s worth on
d) None of These the happening or non-happening of a specified
uncertain event, is a
4) What does a contract create? a) wagering agreement
a) Rights b) contingent contract
b) Privileges c) quasi contract
c) Honours d) uncertain agreement
d) Fundamental Rights
10) A person making a proposal is called
5) Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian a) Promisor
constitution? b) vendor
a) Longest written constitution c) contractor
b) Partly rigid and partly flexible d) promise
c) A democratic republic
d) Presidential form of Government 11) An agreement which is enforceable by law at the
option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at
6) All of the following are true with respect to the term the option of the other, is a
“Socialist” as used in the Preamble of the Indian a) valid contract
Constitution, except: b) unenforceable contract
a) It was always a part of the Preamble. c) voidable contract
b) It implies social and economic equality. d) void agreement
c) Social equality in this context means the absence of
discrimination on the grounds only of caste, colour, 12) Illegality renders a contract
creed, sex, religion, or language. a) Illegal
d) Economic equality in this context means that the b) punishable
government will endeavor to make the distribution of c) Void
wealth more equal and provide a decent standard of d) voidable
living for all
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13) “A”, a tradesman, leaves goods at B’s house by 19) Which of the following articles provide for
mistake “B” treats the goods as his own. Which one of "Freedom of speech & expression"?
the following remedies is available to “A”? a) Article 19
a) “A” is to forgo his claim over goods b) Article 26
b) “A” is entitled to the same goods from “B” c) Article 15
c) “B” is entitled to hire charges d) Article 32
d) “B” is bound to pay “A” for them
20) Preservation of the cultural heritage of the country
14) The primary aim of the law of damages is to is expressly provided for in:
a) punish the party who has committed the breach of a) The Preamble
contract b) Article 25
b) enrich the party who sustained the loss c) Directive Principles
c) place the party who sustained the loss in the same d) Fundamental Duties
position as if the contract has been performed
d) give some type of compensation 21) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by:
a) All Members of Parliament
15) An offer is b) Members of Rajya Sabha
a) Only a declaration of intention. c) Members of Lok Sabha
b) Only a proposal. d) None of the above
c) An invitation.
d) A willingness to do or abstain from doing something 22) Any amendment to the Constitution of India can be
with a view to obtaining assent of the addressee. initiated by the:
a) Rajya Sabha
16) The display of articles in a showroom indicating b) President
their prices amounts to c) Lok Sabha
a) offer d) Both (a)&(c)
b) counter offer
c) invitation to an offer 23) Who was the first Vice President of India?
d) mere advertisement a) V.V. Giri
b) Zakir Hussain
17) A contract entered into by a minor is c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
a) valid and binding d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b) voidable at the option of the minor
c) void ab initio 24) Who administers the oath of office to the President
d) voidable at the option of either party of India?
a) Attorney General
18) In which year was the First Lokpal Bill was presented b) Prime Minister
in the Parliament ? c) Chief Justice of India
a) 2011 d) Vice President
b) 1971
c) 1961 25) Bicameralism is essentially a feature of a:
d) 1968 a) Federal system
b) Presidential system
c) Parliamentary system
d) Unitary system 32) Which provision of the Constitution of India deals
with its amendment?
26) The Constitution of India has been declared to be a) Article 360
enacted and adopted by the: b) Article 356
a) Parliament of India c) Article 368
b) Constituent Assembly d) Article 372
c) People of India
d) Governor General of India 33) Pick the wrong statement from the following:
a) Rajya Sabha is dissolved every 3 years
27) Which of the following have been set up under the b) Attorney General is the legal advisor to the Union
mandate of the Constitution? Government
a) Inter-state Council c) Declaration of a bill as a money bill lies in the hands
b) Planning Commission of Speaker of Lok Sabha
c) National Development Council d) The executive of the country is the Union cabinet
d) National Advisory Council
34) Power of 'Judicial Review', as enshrined in the
28) Which of the following has been expressly abolished constitution, rests with the:
by the Constitution of India? a) President
a) Satipratha b) Supreme Court & High Courts
b) Dowry system c) Chief Justice of India
c) Polygamy d) Supreme Court
d) Untouchability
35) In which year was the Rajya Sabha established?
29) Which of the following enjoys legal sanction in a) 1950
India? b) 1947
a) Fundamental Duties c) 1952
b) Directive Principles of State Policy d) 1949
c) Fundamental Rights
d) None of the above 36) How many times has the Preamble to the
Constitution of India been amended?
30) Which of the following provides for the a) 4
impeachment of the President? b) 3
a) Article 62 c) 2
b) Article 64 d) 1
c) Article 63
d) Article 61 37) The minimum age for nomination to Rajya Sabha is:
a) 30
31) What is the tenure of the Attorney General's office? b) 25
a) President's discretion c) 20
b) 4 years d) 18
c) 6 years
d) Same as that of the Lok Sabha 38) The entire diplomacy of the country is carried out in
the name of the:
a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
b) External Affairs Minister d) 48
c) President
d) Prime Minister 45) What does the Ashok Chakra signify?
a) Wheel of Dharma
39) Who was the last Governor General of Independent b) Wheel of Law
India? c) Wheel of Non-violence
a) C. Rajagopalachari d) Wheel of Nationalism
b) Lord Mountbatten
c) Lord Dalhousie 46) Which colour is used for the Ashok Chakra of the
d) Jawaharlal Nehru Indian Flag:
a) White
40) How many members of the Rajya Sabha may be b) Olive Green
nominated by President? c) Brown
a) 1 d) Navy Blue
b) 2
c) none 47) Which institution acted as the provisional
d) 12 Parliament just after Indian Independence?
a) Lok Sabha
41) When was the Indian National Congress b) Council of Ministers
established? c) Constituent Assembly
a) 1947 d) Office of the Prime Minister
b) 1890
c) 1885 48) When did the first Lok Sabha come into existence?
d) 1857 a) 1951
b) 1950
42) When did the Constituent Assembly adopt a c) 1948
national flag? d) 1952
a) January 26, 1948
b) August 15, 1947 49) Who was the first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
c) August 15, 1948 a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
d) July 22, 1947 b) G.V. Malvankar
c) Sarojini Naidu
43) Who elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first d) Abul Kalam Azad
President of India?
a) Constituent Assembly 50) Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
b) Lok Sabha a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
c) Rajya Sabha b) G.V. Malvankar
d) Electoral college c) Sarojini Naidu
d) Abul Kalam Azad
44) How many spokes are in the Ashok Chakra of the
Indian National Flag? 51) Which British Act provided for a bicameral
a) 36 Legislature in British India?
b) 12 a) Government of India Act, 1935
c) 24 b) Government of India Act, 1919
c) Government of India Act, 1909 d) After the Chief Justice of India's consent
d) Morley-Minto Reforms
58) Which Bills can the President neither hold his assent
52) Which Indian President was once the Speaker of Lok from nor send back for reconsideration?
Sabha? a) Defence Bills
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad b) Rights Bills
b) Zakir Hussain c) Reservation Bills
c) Giani Zail Singh d) Monetary Bills
d) N. Sanjiva Reddy
59) In India, who chooses the President?
53) After every_________years, one third members of a) State Legislatures
the Rajya Sabha retire: b) Congress
a) 3 c) Electoral College
b) 4 d) Union Legislature
c) 2
d) 6 60) Whom does the Constitution provide to be the
supreme in the Indian context?
54) Who among the following need not resign a) President
immediately after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha? b) Parliament
a) The Speaker c) Lok Sabha
b) The Law Minister d) People
c) The Defence Minister
d) The Prime Minister 61) Which article of the Constitution provides for a
Special Status to Jammu & Kashmir?
55) Which non-elected member has the right to speak a) Article 370
in both the Houses? b) Article 365
a) The Attorney General c) Article 19
b) The Comptroller and Auditor General d) Article 375
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) The Law Secretary 62) Who is the ultimate authority for the interpretation
of the Constitution?
56) In which session of the Parliament does the a) The President
President address both the Houses? b) The Supreme Court
a) Monsoon Session c) The Parliament
b) Budget Session d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
c) Winter Session
d) None of the above 63) Constitutionally, what is the concept of President
enjoying judicial immunity?
57) When does a Bill presented in any of the houses a) He is above the Law of the Land
become a Law? b) He makes laws for the constitution
a) After the President's consent c) No immunity is provided
b) As soon as it is passed with a majority in either of the d) He shall not be answerable to any court in his
houses discharge of duties in office.
c) After being vetted by the Supreme Court
64) Which constitutional organ has a wider authority b) when there is proof of damages
during Emergency rule? c) when the injury is particular, direct and substantial
a) Judiciary d) none of the above
b) Legislative
c) Media 71) A master is liable for the tort committed by his
d) Executive servant when the servant acts
a) for the benefit of his master
65) Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner? b) in course of his employment
a) The Vice President c) during his duty hours
b) The Prime Minister d) to the detriment of the plaintiff
c) The President
d) The Speaker 72) The term ‘Scienter’ is related to which one of the
following sign-boards?
66) Who decides the allotment of symbols to political a) “Trespassers will be prosecuted”
parties? b) “Beware of dogs”
a) President c) “No parking”
b) Political Party themselves d) “No admission without permission”
c) Parliament
d) Election Commission 73) Who among the following Jurists was offered
various positions in the Indian Judicial system, including
67) The Chief Election Commissioner can only be a seat on the Indian Supreme Court and as Attorney
removed by the process of: General of India, but he declined these positions?
a) Impeachment a) H.M. Seervai
b) Presidential Order b) Nani Palkivala
c) CJI c) M.C. Setalwad
d) Judicial Review d) None of the above
68) An example of intent of decentralisation in 74) “That state in which things were” is called
governance is the formation of a) Vis major
a) State Assembly b) Res judicata
b) Gram Sabha c) Status quo
c) Rajya Sabha d) Res subjudice
d) None of the above
75) The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior
69) Which one of the following is not a wagering Citizens Act came into force in
agreement a) 2008
a) A lottery b) 2007
b) Comman agreement to buy a ticket for a lottery c) 2009
c) ercial transaction, the intention of which is not to d) 2010
deliver the goods but only to pay the difference in price
d) A contract of insurance 76) Name the former law minister of India who wrote
the book “Conscience of a Maverick”
70) In public nuisance, a private right of action lies a) H.R. Bharadwaj
a) when they injury is merely consequential b) Shanti Bhushan
c) Arun Jaitley b) Every time being equal
d) Ram Jethmalani c) Everyone being equal
d) On Equal Footing
77) A Mortgage is of …… property.
a) Movable 84) The Parliament of India consists of –
b) Immovable a) House of People (Lok Sabha), Council of States (Rajya
c) either a or b Sabha) and President of India.
d) None of the above b) House of People (Lok Sabha), and Council of States
(Rajya Sabha).
78) Who was the Chairman of the First Law Commission c) President of India and House of People
of India? d) Only House of People (Lok Sabha) and various
a) M.C. Setalvad officials.
b) Subbarao
c) Nani Palkiwala 85) Finance Commission is a –
d) M.C. Chagla a) Statutory Authority
b) Non-Statutory Authority
79) A husband is obliged to maintain his divorced wife c) Constitutional Authority
a) throughout her life d) Judicial Authority
b) 25 years
c) 10 years 86) Ex-parte decision means a decision given –
d) Till she gets re-married a) After hearing both the parties
b) without proper procedure
80) A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court consists c) After observing proper procedure
of at least d) Without hearing the opponent
a) 3 judges
b) 5 judges 87) A puisne judge of a High Court is a
c) 6 judge a) A judge other than a Chief Justice
d) 7 judges b) The Chief Justice
c) A temporary Judge
81) _____ is an inquiry into the apparent cause of d) A retired judge
death.
a) Mahazar 88) Intra vires means.
b) Inquest report a) Within the powers
c) post mortem report b) Outside the powers
d) none of the above c) Within the scope of fundamental rights
d) Within the powers of a company
82) Where is the National Judicial Academy located?
a) Mumbai 89) What is the meaning of chattel?
b) Bhopal a) Any property
c) Calcutta b) Immovable property
d) Delhi c) Movable property
d) Cattle
83) Give meaning to the given word: Pari Passu
a) Everything being equal
90) In a criminal case, an accused person, who in c) Chief Ministers of all the States and Administrators of
consideration of his non-prosecution, offers to give Union Territories
evidence against other accused, is called – d) Members of the Election Commission
a) Accomplice
b) Hostile witness 96) The parliament of India can not be considered a
c) Approver sovereign body because:
d) Hostile accomplice a) It has to function within the limits of the Constitution.
b) A law passed by the parliament may be declared
91) Which of the following is not included within the unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
meaning of intellectual property? c) Its legislation is limited to the subjects falling under
a) Patents the Central government's list as defined under the
b) Copyrights Constitution.
c) Trade mark d) All of the above
d) Property of an intellectual
97) The Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by
92) R.T.I. stands for – a) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies.
a) Revenue Transactions in India b) Elected members of the Legislative Councils.
b) Research and Technology Institute c) Nomination through the recommendations of the
c) Rural and Transparency infrastructure President and the Prime Minister.
d) Right to Information d) Directly by the people.
93) Fiduciary relationship is relationship based on – 98) The members of the Gram Panchayats are elected
a) Contract through
b) Trust a) Direct voting by the people.
c) Blood relationship b) Chosen by the Gram Sarpanch who is in turn elected
d) Money through direct voting.
c) Directly nominated by the local Member of the
94) Which of the following is not true with respect to Legislative Assembly.
the idea of Secularism as used in India? d) Directly nominated by the local Member of the
a) “Secularism” as an ideal was originally not a part of Legislative Council.
the Constitution and was incorporated only later.
b) It means equal treatment of all religions by the state. 99) The power to decide on an Election petition is
c) Application of a Uniform Civil Code would be a vested in
contravention of the rights of various minority groups in a) Special Jury Courts.
the Country and can not be applied. b) Supreme Court.
d) The people of India have freedom of religion, and the c) Respective High Courts.
state treats all individuals as equal citizens regardless of d) Election Commission of India.
their religion.
100) The upcoming Lok Sabha (the April-May'19
95) Which of the following is not a member of the elections) would be
National Development Council? a) 15th Lok Sabha
a) The Prime Minister of India b) 16th Lok Sabha
b) All Union Ministers, and Ministers of State c) 17th Lok Sabha
d) 18th Lok Sabha
d) independent contractor.
101) Right To Information (RTI) Act came into force
from 107) What are the defences to an action of defamation?
a) April' 2007 a) Justification or truth
b) October' 2005 b) Fair comment
c) March' 2009 c) Privilege, absolute or qualified
d) December' 2011 d) All of the above
102) Special leave petition can be filed before: 108) What are the essentials for the application of rule
a) Supreme Court of strict liability?
b) High Court a) Dangerous thing brought by a person on his land
c) District court b) The Dangerous thing must escape
d) Sessions Court c) Non-natural use of land
d) All of the above
103) What is common between Justice Soumitra Sen,
Justice P D Dinakaran and Justice V Ramaswamy? 109) What is tortuous liability?
a) The parliament initiated impeachment proceedings a) Defender is found not guilty of a crime
against each of these. b) Defendant is found guilty of a tort*
b) They presided over the highest, second highest and c) Defender found guilty of a criminal offence
the third highest number of cases during their d) Defendant found not guilty of a tort
respective tenures.
c) Each of them was removed from office by the office 110) What does strict liability mean?
of the President. a) The burden of proof is higher for a crime of strict
d) Each of them is a former Chief Justice of the Supreme liability
Court of India. b) The penalties are harsher for crimes of strict liability
c) Liability in crimes only
104) What is the legal meaning of the word ''battery''? d) There is no need to prove intention. The mere act is
a) Cells, as used in torch and in tape recorder itself a proof of guilt.
b) Actual or intended striking of another person
c) Battering a person to death 111) Which of these are not void agreements?
d) Assault resulting in, at least, 6 months in medical care a) Agreements which are made under mistake of fact.
b) Agreements by way of wager.
105) Defamation by means of writing, print etc. is c) Agreements to do impossible act.
legally called d) None of the above
a) liable.
b) libel. 112) A contract is invalid when it is:
c) lex scripta. a) Vague
d) liber. b) Object is impossible to carry out.
c) Uncertain.
106) Vicarious liability of the employer shall not arise d) All of the above
when the employee is,
a) servant. 113) A wagering agreement in India is declared by the
b) agent. Contract Act as
c) partner. a) Illegal and void
b) Void but not Illegal b) The powers of the courts to declare null and void an
c) Voidable at the option of the aggrieved party legislative or executive act, which is against the
d) Immoral provisions of the constitution
c) The power of the judiciary to define and interpret
114) Agreements which are in the nature of bets and laws
gambling are called d) The power of the courts to legislative when there is
a) Invalid agreements no statutory provisions.
b) Voidable contracts
c) Contingent contracts 120) A agreed to sell B, ‘a hundred tons of oil’, the
d) Wagering agreements agreement shall be
a) Valid
115) The recommendations of the Finance Commission b) Voidable
are c) Void
a) Generally accepted as a matter or convention d) None of the above
b) Generally rejected by the government.
c) Binding on the President 121) Lex Fori means
d) Not binding on the President a) The Law of the place
b) The law of the court in which the case is tried*
116) Which Chief Justice of Supreme Court has so for c) Law of the place where the contract is made
enjoyed the longest tenure d) None of the above.
a) Justice A. S. Anand
b) Y.V. Chandra Chud 122) Which of the following is not true with respect to
c) R. S. Pathak the Tax Laws in India?
d) P. N. Bhagavathi a) The authority to levy a tax is derived from the
Constitution of India which allocates the power to levy
117) The permanent membership of the Security various taxes between the Centre and the State.
Council can be increased by b) Income Tax is levied by the Central Government
a) The Amendment of the United Nations Charter under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
b) A special resolution of the General Assembly c) Customs and excise duties are levied by the
c) A resolution of Security Council respective State governments.
d) A resolution of the General Assembly on the d) Sales tax is levied under VAT legislation at the state
recommendation of Security Council level.
118) Which one of the following is not an essential 123) Which of the following is not true with respect to
element of crime? the structure and working of the Central Bureau of
a) Mens Rea Investigation in India?
b) Motive a) It was formed and functions as a special wing of the
c) Actus Reus Police force and comes under the jurisdiction of the
d) Injury Government of India.
b) CBI may initiate investigation against senior
119) The power of judicial review means:- government officials without the permission of the
a) The power of the courts to define and interpret government.
constitution
c) In a recent landmark decision, the Supreme Court has c) Both Parliament and State Legislatures
ruled that it must not take any orders from the d) Local self government bodies
politicians that are not given in writing.
d) The CBI does not have a permanent structure for its 128) The meaning of the term “quasi judicial body” is-
personnel – they are pulled from the regular Police a) A body exercising judicial powers
Force on a rotation basis and for limited time periods. b) A bench of the supreme court
c) A bench of the high court
124) Which of the following is not a feature of the d) A court whose tenure has expired
constitution?
a) Parliamentary system of government 129) A sentence of death passed by a sessions court
b) A Federation of states must be confirmed by
c) Fundamental Rights a) The High Court
d) Communism b) The Supreme Court
c) The President of India
125) The use of the term “Sovereign” in the Preamble of d) None of these
the Indian Constitution means all of the following
except: 130) A Money Bill is introduced in which of the
a) India is internally and externally sovereign - externally following forums?
free from the control of any foreign power and a) The Lok Sabha
internally, it has a free government which is directly b) The Rajya Sabha
elected by the people and makes laws that govern the c) The Council of Ministers
people d) None of these
b) Citizens of India also enjoy sovereign power to elect
their representatives in elections held for parliament, 131) Sub judice means which of the following?
state legislature and local bodies as well a) Under consideration of a Court Of Law
c) People have supreme right to make decisions on b) Indefinitely
internal as well as external matters. No external power c) Final Decision
can dictate the government of India d) Adjournment.
d) India continues to owe some of its rights to Britain on
account of being a “Commonwealth” nation 132) A gives a field to B reserving to himself, with B's
assent, the right to take back the field in case both B
126) Which of the following is not a fundamental right and his descendant , die before himself. B dies, without
recognised by the Indian constitution? having any descendants, in A's life-time
a) Right to free profession, practice, and propagation of a) A may take the field back
religion, freedom to manage religious affairs. b) The gift is void and the question of taking it back does
b) Right of citizens to establish and administer not arise
educational institutions of their choice. c) The gift is voidable at the instance of B.
c) Right to constitutional remedy d) The gift is inoperative
d) Right to elementary education
133) In India, the power to increase the number of
127) Matters in the concurrent list can be legislated judges in the Supreme Court lies with—
upon by? a) The President of India
a) Parliament only b) The Chief Justice of India
b) State Legislatures only c) The Union Ministry of Law
d) The Parliament of India
140) ‘Free Legal Aid’ to women, poor and illiterate
134) In the Constitution of India, promotion of persons has become a fundamental right by various
international peace and security is mentioned in the— decisions of the Supreme Court. Refer the Article, in
a) Preamble to the Constitution which ‘Free Legal Aid’ has been embodied in the
b) Directive Principles of State Policy Constitution.
c) Fundamental Duties a) Article 38
d) Ninth Schedule b) Article 39
c) Article 39-A
135) The maximum number of members that the d) Article 40
Legislative Assembly of a State in India can have is—
a) 400 141) Which one of the following High Courts has the
b) 450 jurisdiction over largest number of states in India?
c) 500 a) Calcutta High Court
d) 550 b) Punjab & Haryana High Court
c) Guwahati High Court
136) Who is empowered by the Constitution of India to d) Madras High Court
dissolve the Lok Sabha before expiry of its term?
a) The Prime Minister of India on the advice of the 142) Using the same principles above, can Raghu adopt
Speaker of the Lok Sabha a son with Rupa as she is medically unfit to carry a
b) The President of India baby.
c) The President of India on the advice of the Prime a) Yes, as he does not have a child with Rupa therefore
Minister of India the principal does not apply to this case.
d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha b) Yes, because he is legally entitled to adopt a son.
c) No, because he already has a son.
137) In vicarious liability d) No, because a person is not entitled to adopt a child
a) The liability is based on fault with his second wife.
b) The employee is liable for acts done in the course of
the employment 143) In which case the Supreme Court of India upheld
c) The employer is liable for the employee’s tort Mandal Commission Report?
d) The employer and the employee are joint tort feasors a) Bommai v. Union of India.
b) IndraSawhney v. Union of India.
138) For strict liability under tort, it is necessary that c) Unnikrishnanav.Union of Indian.
a) Dangerous thing should be brought on the land d) Maneka Gandhi v.Union of India.
b) The dangerous thing must escape from the land
c) The unnatural use of the land 144) Which Parliamentary Committee in Indian system
d) All the above of democracy is chaired by a member of Opposition
Party?
139) Which one of the following elements is not a) Estimates Committee.
relevant for liability in defamation? b) Joint Parliamentary Committee.
a) The words must be defamatory c) Public Accounts Committee.
b) The words must be referred to plaintiff d) Finance Committee.
c) The words must be published
d) The words must be necessarily in writing
145) Which of the following cases is known as the d) Void ab intio
'National Anthem Case'?
a) K. A. Abbas v. UOI 152) In August 2018, President gave his assent to which
b) Bijoe Immanuel v. State of Kerela new legislation that will prevent offenders from
c) S. P. Mittal v. UOI avoiding legal process and fleeing the country?
d) Golaknath v. UOI a) Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill, 2018
b) Fugitive Financial Offenders Bill, 2018
146) Dispute between states in India comes to the c) Tax Evaders Offenders Bill, 2018
Supreme Court under____ d) Financial Offenders Recovery Bill, 2018
a) Appellate Jurisdiction
b) Original Jurisdiction 153) The Parliament of India has passed which
c) Advisory Jurisdiction Constitutional Amendment Bill to grant constitutional
d) None of the above status to the National Commission for Backward Classes
(NCBC)?
147) By which amendment Act schedule-IX was inserted a) 121st Constitutional Amendment Bill
in Indian Constitution? b) 122nd Constitutional Amendment Bill
a) 44th Amendment Act c) 123rd Constitutional Amendment Bill
b) 25th Amendment Act d) 124th Constitutional Amendment Bill
c) 42nd Amendment Act
d) 1st Amendment Act 154) Which state government obtained extension under
Section 3 Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958
148) Agreements which are in the nature of bets and (AFSPA) for another 6 months declaring the entire state
gambling are called as ‘Disturbed Area’, on 31st August 2018?
a) Invalid agreements a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Voidable contracts b) Assam
c) Contingent contracts c) Sikkim
d) Wagering agreements d) Nagaland
149) Environmental Protection Act came into force in: 155) Which state cabinet approved amendments to the
a) 1986 Indian Penal Code (IPC) and the Code of Criminal
b) 1987 Procedure (CrPC) to make disrespect of religious texts
c) 1988 punishable with life imprisonment, on 21st
d) 1991 August2018?
a) Haryana
150) Goa comes under the jurisdiction of: b) Punjab
a) Karnataka High Court c) Maharashtra
b) Guwahati High Court d) Goa
c) Bombay High Court
d) Madras High Court 156) Which one of the following statements is not true
of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence
151) An agreement to share benefits of public office is: Act, 2005?
a) Valid a) This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman
b) Voidable subjected to domestic violence
c) Void
b) Only women can make a complaint under this d) Voidable contract
legislation
c) Relief may be sought only against the husband or a 162) Name the name of the new constitutional panel
male live in partner with whom the woman has lived in formed by government to replace the existing National
a domestic relationship. Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)?
d) The Act includes not just wives but also women in a) OCEC
marriage – like relationships. b) NOSEC
c) NSEBC
157) Name the article of the Lisbon Treaty I under which d) NSCSB
Britain will have to officially notify of its decision to
leave the European Union? 163) The main object of Fundamental Rights is to
a) Article 48 ensure
b) Article 49 a) Independent of Judiciary
c) Article 50 b) Individual rights absolutely
d) Article 51 c) Individual rights subject to reasonable restrictions.
d) A socialistic pattern of society.
158) Which of the following is not true about a criminal
proceeding? 164) No one can be convicted twice for the same
a) The court may ask to pay a fine offence. This Doctrine is called:
b) The court may order the transfer of the ownership of a) Estoppel
the property. b) Double jeopardy
c) There is prosecution c) Burden of proof
d) The court may discharge an accused. d) Corpus delicti
159) Who among the following enunciated the 165) High Courts has been constituted in all these States
‘Doctrine of Rule of Law’? in January 2013 except
a) Ronald Dworkin a) Mizoram
b) Salmond b) Meghalaya
c) A.V. Dicey c) Manipur
d) John Austin d) Tripura
160) Which among the following maxims literally means 166) The phrase ‘due process of law’ means
that ‘Welfare of the people is the paramount law’? a) procedure established by law
a) Scienti violent non fit injuria b) by police action
b) Saluspopuli suprema lax c) by interference of the prosecution
c) Sacramentapuberumsuntsarvansa d) law takes its own course
d) Ubi jus ibi remedium
167) Principles laid down in a judgment is
161) "A" agrees to pay Rs. 5000 to ‘B’ if it rains, and ‘B’ a) Res-judicata
promises to pay a like amount to ‘A’ if it does not rain, b) law
this agreement is called c) obiter dicta
a) Quasi contract d) ratio decidendi
b) Contingent contract
c) Wagering agreement 168) Plea bargaining was introduced in India by
a) The Amendment Act of 1980 c) R.D. Shetty v. International Airport Authority of India
b) The Criminal Law Amendment Act 2005 d) Central Inland Water Corporation v. S.C. Sinha
c) The 90th Constitutional Amendment Act
d) Act 25 of 2005 175) Who is the current Attorney general of India?
a) Soli Sorabjee
169) A person who treats good as his own, when they b) G. E. Vahanavati
are not, is liable for c) Ashok Desai
a) trespass d) K. K. Venugopal
b) conversion
c) detinue 176) Parliament can legislate on state matter in national
d) none of the above interest under:
a) Article 393,Constitution of India
170) The Srikrishna Committee examined which issue? b) Article 249,Constitution of India
a) Taxation reform c) Article 324,Constitution of India
b) Defence spending d) Article 248,Constitution of India
c) Naxalite conflict
d) Telangana 177) What provision of Indian Constitution guarantees
protection against retrospective application of criminal
171) Which of the following cases deals with Double law?
Taxation Avoidance Agreements? a) Article 20 (2)
a) Unilever Indian Pvt. Ltd. V. UOI. b) Article 20(1)
b) Vodafone International Holdings BV v. UOI. c) Article 31-C
c) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading SA. d) Article 62
d) Reckett Coleman India v. UOI.
178) Pick the odd one out with respect to Article 19 (2)
172) Committee on progressive development of of Indian Constitution
International Law and its codification is also known as: a) Public Interest
a) Committee of Seventeen b) Security of State
b) Forum for realizing International Law c) Public Order
c) G-20 Associates d) Defamation
d) Association for International Law Reforms
179) Supreme Court has formulated the test of
173) Vide which resolution of UN General Assembly was ___________ for the purpose of interpreting ‘other
International Law Commission established? authorities’ under Article 12, Constitution of India.
a) Resolution 178 a) Sovereign authorities
b) Resolution 174 (11) b) Instrumentality of State
c) Resolution 33 (4) c) Ejusdem Generis
d) Resolution 96 (8) d) Direct Action of State
174) Supreme Court of India laid down the indicators 180) Which of the following is not state for the purpose
for interpreting ‘other authorities’ under Article 12 of of Article 12, Constitution of India?
the Indian Constitution in: a) Board of Control for Cricket in India
a) Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib b) Cinema Hall Organizers
b) Shankari Prasad v. State of Rajasthan c) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
d) None of these d) 19th August, 1976
181) Which of the following statements is not true 186) Which amongst the following is not a Fundamental
about Intellectual Property? Right in India?
Patents are included in Intellectual Property Rights. a) Right to freedom of speech and expression
Intellectual Property Law is the law of evidence b) Right to Equality
pertaining to patents and determine the validity. c) Right to Privacy
All copyrights are registered for a certain period of time. d) None of these.
a) II only
b) II and III 187) Injury caused by negligent throw of a ball shall
c) I and II come within the ambit of:
d) I, II and III a) Malfeasance
b) Misfeasance
182) Standing committee to recommend amendment to c) Nonfeasance
Section 66-A of Information Technology Act, 2000 was d) Differs from case to case
headed by:
a) P. Karunakaran 188) Theory of naturalism for understanding
b) Nandini Satpathy International Law was propounded by:
c) R. Deka a) Grotius
d) Dr. Ajay Kumar b) Austin
c) Froster
183) Assertion ( a ): Rule of non- intervention is a part d) Socrates
of customary international law.
Reasoning (R): Every sovereign state has a right to its 189) Are International Customs a source of
territorial integrity and political independence. International Law?
a) A and R are both correct and R is the correct reason a) Yes, subject to the evidence of general practice.
for A. b) Yes, subject to its acceptances by the ICJ
b) A and R are both correct but R is not the correct c) Yes, subject to the consent of nations in conflict.
reason for A. d) No.
c) A is correct but R is incorrect.
d) None of the above. 190) What is Dualism?
a) Two-tier system of justice administration under
184) Constituent Assembly of India met for the first International Law
time on b) Theory recognizing International Law and Municipal
a) 8th October,1944 Law as distinct
b) 9th December, 1946 c) Theory recognizing the international identity of a
c) 16th September, 1947 state as different from its sovereign authority
d) 22nd January, 1947 d) Operations of ‘peacekeeping’ and ‘peacemaking’ as
exhibited by the United Nations
185) The historic day on which the basic structure
doctrine for Indian Constitution was adopted is: 191) Universal Declaration of Human Rights is contained
a) 24th April, 1973 in:
b) 16th March, 1972 a) Article 68, U.N. Charter
c) 22nd June, 1982 b) Article 47, Statute of ICJ
c) Rule 47, U.N. Rules on Prohibition of Slavery
d) Regulation 14, U.N.I.C.E.F. Regulations 198) Pick the odd one out with respect to amendments
to Indian Constitution:
192) International Law is a: a) Article 47
a) Soft law b) Article 4
b) Law without jurisdiction c) Article 239-A
c) Law without sanctions d) Article 169
d) All of the above.
199) Which of the following cannot be a copyrighted
193) Can Fundamental Rights be waived off? work?
a) Yes, as per Article 32 of the Indian Constitution a) A music video made by school children
b) Yes, as per the decision of Supreme Court in R.D. b) Newly developed architecture technique
Shetty v. State of Rajasthan c) New interpretation of a religious text
c) No, as per the decision of Supreme Court in d) All of the above.
Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner Income Tax
d) No, as per Article 32 of the Indian Constitution 200) The principles of higher transparency and
simplified procedures were laid down for company law
194) The Supreme Court in E.P. Royappa v. State of by:
Tamil Nadu propounded for: a) Justice Triveni Committee Report
a) Expanding the horizons of right to equality b) M.D. Singh Committee Report
b) Establishment of Universal Adult Franchise c) J.J. Irani Committee Report
c) Establishment of Lok Adalats to trickle down justice d) D.R. Antulay Committee Report
d) None of these
201) What is meant by jure gestionis?
195) After which landmark judgment of the Supreme a) Commercial acts of a nation
Court was Article 15 (4) added to Indian Constitution? b) Actions pursuant to a good faith gesture by a nation
a) R.K. Shukla v. V.P. Shrivastava c) Actions of a nation based on public policy and welfare
b) Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner Income Tax d) Illegal acts of a nation
c) Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra
d) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan 202) Forum Prorogatum means:
a) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of
196) Constitutional validity of death penalty was Justice by virtue of a statute
discussed by the court in: b) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of
a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Punjab Justice by a special legislation passed by the parliament
b) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab of the state
c) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab c) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of
d) Mithu v. State of Punjab Justice after institution of proceedings with the consent
of party
197) In Mithu v. State of Punjab, Section ____ of Indian d) Conferring jurisdiction to the International Court of
Penal Code was declared unconstitutional Justice by a special resolution passed at the United
a) 302 Nations annual meeting
b) 306
c) 303 203) X and Y were a couple who were governed by
d) 309 Hindu Law. Owing to differences between them, they
decided to get divorced. They entered into a contract 208) Report of Mandal Commission was challenged
laying down the conditions that both parties must before the Supreme Court of India in:
adhere to. One of the terms of the contract was that a) State of Maharashtra v. Abdul Latif Shaikh
their children would not be entitled to claim the b) Ashok Sancheti v. Liela Roy
ancestral property of X, the husband. c) Ashok Kumar Aggarwal v. Union of India
a) The contract will be void since the children are not a d) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
party to the contract.
b) The contract will be void since its terms are opposed 209) Which case established that Fundamental Rights
to the personal laws of the parties. can also be enjoyed by companies formed by citizens of
c) The contract will be valid India?
d) The contract will be void since woman cannot enter a) Bennett Colemon & Co. v. Union of India
into a contract with her husband. b) R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
c) Bharat Heavy Industries Ltd. v. State of Gujarat
204) Who is the natural guardian of an adopted minor d) State of Madhya Pradesh v. Gaurav Patha
son as per Hindu Law?
a) Adoptive father 210) In which case the Supreme Court of India
b) As designated by law acknowledged the freedom of press?
c) Adoptive mother a) Francis Mullin Ltd. v. Union of India
d) Real father b) Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. v. Union of India
c) Romesh Thapar v. Union of India
205) Appellate Civil Jurisdiction is conferred in the d) Trisha Singhania v. Union of India
Supreme Court by:
a) Article 145, Constitution of India 211) Who is the chairperson of Competition
b) Rule 33, Supreme Court Rules Commission of India?
c) Article 133, Constitution of India a) Devendra Kumar Sikri
d) Article 300-A, Constitution of India b) Vinay Mehta
c) Ramesh Sharma
206) Which of the following is not an objective for d) None of these
establishment of United Nations?
a) Maintenance of international peace and security 212) Which of the following is not a part of the basic
b) Promotion of equality and fraternity amongst nations structure of Indian Constitution?
c) International cooperation to resolve problems of a) Article 31
global concern b) Article 21
d) Promotion of trade and commerce amongst member c) Article 136
nations d) Article 32
207) The principles on which United Nations is based 213) Parliamentary privileges are extended to state
are contained in: legislatures by the virtue of:
a) Article 7, Montreal Convention a) S. 11, Legislatures’ Act
b) Article 2, U.N. Charter b) A. 194, Constitution of India
c) Article 43, Constitution of Federation of States c) Both (a) and (b).
d) None of these. d) Neither (a) nor (b).
214) Doctrine of ‘Pith and Substance’ means:
a) Every law should be seen in its substance and severed 220) What is meant by Escheat Succession in Hindu
from other laws. Law?
b) Substance of a law is not severed from other laws. a) Succession by perceiving a fraud
c) Substance of a law is the determining factor for b) Succession before lawful division of property
legislative competence. c) Succession to the Government
d) None of these d) Succession to the illegitimate child of a deceased
215) Anticipatory bail is granted under Section ____ of 221) Pick the odd one out:
Code of Criminal Procedure. a) Restitution of property
a) 438 b) Expulsion of trespasser
b) 434 c) Re-entry of land
c) 437 d) Abatement of nuisance
d) 442
222) Pick the odd one out with regard to U.S.
216) Number of judges in Supreme Court of India is: Constitution:
a) 27 a) Press
b) 31 b) Religion
c) 9 c) Double Jeopardy
d) 17 d) Petition
217) What is meant by the de facto recognition of a 223) Sitting of Cyber Appellate Tribunal is at:
state in International Law? a) Mumbai
a) State is existent legally and recognized by U.N. b) Chennai
b) State is recognized factually by other states. c) New Delhi
c) There is no fact to suggest that the state does not d) Dehradun
exist and hence it is recognized.
d) None of these. 224) Ministry of Home Affairs in India is held by:
a) Sushma Swaraj
218) Volenti Non Fit Injuria is a defence under: b) Rajnath Singh
a) Hindu Law of Inheritance c) Narendra Modi
b) Law of Torts d) Varun Gandhi
c) Law of Piracy and Hijacking
d) Law of Crimes 225) When is the National Law Day celebrated?
a) 26 January
219) Doctrine of blowing Hot and Cold means: b) 26 December
a) A person cannot be both angry and happy at the c) 26 November
same time. d) 26 October
b) A person cannot both claim a benefit and exit the
attached liability at the same time. 226) A contract is discharged by:
c) A person can be both hot and cool exhibiting features a) Impossibility of performance
of dualism. b) Breach of contract
d) A person cannot cause a loss to another for his own c) Waiver of performance
benefit. d) All of the above
227) Mithun asked Ramesh for lending his horse for a d) Offences of Currency Counterfeiting
consideration of 700 INR per day. Ramesh responded
with a telegram stating that the consideration should be 233) Ab extra: ________. :: Ab initio: From the
800 INR. The contract is: beginning
a) Valid but unenforceable a) From the beginning
b) Voidable b) From outside
c) Valid and enforceable c) From another territory
d) None of these. d) From another person
228) Which of the following events nullifies a 234) Ratio in jure aequitas integra means:
communication? a) Reason in law is perfect equity
a) Revocation before communication is received by the b) Rationale of a judgment shall be integrated
promisee. c) No rationale shall be valid in law if not integrated
b) Revocation before communication is transmitted to d) A person cannot question the reason if it is
the promisee. integrated
c) Revocation before the acceptance is received by the
promisor. 235) Res Integra means
d) Revocation before the acceptance is transmitted to a) A matter untouched
the promisor b) Integrated matter
c) Reasons of a judgment shall be integrated
229) Pick the odd one out: d) None of these.
a) Piracy
b) Hijacking 236) Ubi jus ibi remedium est means:
c) Genocide a) Where there is a remedy, there is a right.
d) Slaughter b) Where there is a wrongful act, there must be a
remedy.
230) Supreme Court of India is established under: c) Where there is no wrongful act, remedy may exist.
a) Article 145, Constitution of India d) Where there is a right, there is a remedy.
b) Article 124, Constitution of India
c) Rule 27, Supreme Court Rules 237) Voluntas in delictis non exitus spectator means:
d) Indian High Courts Act a) In offences the intent and not the outcome is looked
at
231) Jurisdiction of a High Court u/s 9 of Arbitration and b) In offences the intent and not the reason is looked at
Conciliation Act is: c) In offences the intent and not the motive is looked at
a) Original d) In offences the intent and not the physical action is
b) Appellate looked at
c) Ordinary Original
d) Extraordinary Appellate 238) Which of the following is not covered within the
purview of RTI Act, 2005?
232) What was Justice Mudgal Committee concerned a) Judicial Actions
with? b) Administrative Actions
a) Spot fixing probe in IPL c) Quasi-judicial Actions
b) Contracts of players in ISL d) None of these
c) Offences Against the State
239) Exemption from taxes in respect of religious affairs 245) National Legal Services Act, 1987 is in pursuance of
is ensured by: :
a) Article 27, Constitution of India a) Article 48, Indian Constitution
b) S. 42, Income Tax Act b) Article 34, Indian Constitution
c) Both (a) and (b) c) Article 47, Indian Constitution
d) Neither (a) nor (b) d) Article 39-A, Indian Constitution
240) Punishment for the offence of culpable homicide 246) What provision of Indian Constitution defines
not amounting to murder is contained in: State?
a) S. 302, Indian Penal Code a) Article 12
b) S. 304 (2), Indian Penal Code b) Part I
c) S. 187, Indian Penal Code c) Article 368
d) S. 299, Indian Penal Code d) 8th Schedule
241) Assertion A: A person of unsound mind has no 247) The term of a patent under patents act is:
capacity to marry. a) 20 years from the date of application
Reasoning (R): A person with unsound mind is subject b) 20 years from the date of grant of license
to recurrent attacks of insanity. c) 15 years from the date of grant of license
a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation d) 20 years from the date of application minus period of
of A. pre-grant opposition
b) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct
explanation of A. 248) What is a debenture?
c) A is false and R is not the correct explanation of A. a) Debt security convertible to preference share.
d) None of the above b) Security acknowledging debt.
c) Debt security convertible to an equity share.
242) Tribunals are established under: d) None of these.
a) S. 32, Tribunals of India Act
b) Article 323-A, Constitution of India 249) Which of the following is the famous case for
c) Article 50, Constitution of India decriminalisation of Adultery?
d) Both b) and c). a) Independent Thought vs Union of India
b) Joseph Shine vs Union of India
243) Piracy is recognized as a universal crime by: c) Shanti Bhushan vs Supreme Court of India
a) Montreal Convention, 1971 d) Shayra Bano vs Union of India
b) Treaty of Shipments and Merchants, 1988
c) U.N. Convention on the Law of the Sea 250) Institution of Supreme Court of India was created
d) Article 14, U.N. Charter by:
a) Regulating Act, 1773
244) What provision of Indian Constitution prohibits b) Indian Councils Act, 1814
forced labour? c) Judicial Plan, 1772
a) Article 24 d) Judicial Plan, 1774
b) Article 23
c) Article 17 251) Sitting of TRAI is at:
d) Article 27 a) New Delhi
b) Bangalore
c) Hyderabad
d) Gurgaon 258) What is Doctrine of Severability?
a) No law before the passing of Indian Constitution can
252) Family Courts Act was enacted in: be held to be constitutionally invalid.
a) 1987 b) Every law can be held unconstitutional by the
b) 1984 Supreme Court.
c) 1942 c) A law is invalid only to the extent of inconsistency
d) 1993 with the Constitution of India.
d) Laws of severe punishments are not subject to Indian
253) Principle of utility as the tool to frame laws was Constitution.
given by:
a) Austin 259) Cognizable offence is defined under:
b) Karl N. Llewyn a) S. 3 (1), Code of Civil Procedure
c) Karl Marx b) S. 2 (c), Code of Criminal Procedure
d) Jeremy Bentham c) S. 2 (e), Code of Criminal Procedure
d) S. 2 (l), Code of Criminal Procedure
254) What is meant by right to consular access?
a) Right to contact the local embassy. 260) Salus populi est suprema lex means:
b) Right to access records of other sovereign with a) Population makes the supreme law.
consent. b) Democracy has the superiority.
c) Bona fide access of sovereign records based on good c) Protection of people is the supreme law.
conscience. d) Protection of law shall be supreme for the people.
d) Right to conduct research and development for
access to databases in territory. 261) What is restitution of conjugal rights in a marital
relationship?
255) Pick the odd one out: a) Restoration of custody of child with the mother
a) Citizenship b) Restoration of custody of male child with the father
b) Domicile c) Restoration of co-inhabitance of the spouse
c) Tenancy d) Restoration of the property rights accrued before
d) Nationality marriage
256) Forceful Narco-analysis of an accused in a trial is: 262) Every right is accompanied by
a) Invalid as per the ruling of Supreme Court of India in a) Penalty
Selvi v. State of Karnataka b) Duty
b) Invalid as per Article 20 (3) of the Indian Constitution c) Remedy for its breach
c) Both a) and b). d) Imprisonment for its breach
d) Neither a) nor b).
263) Which of the following is not a reasonable
257) Which of the following is not ‘law’ for the purpose restriction of fundamental right to trade and
of Article 13, Indian Constitution? profession?
a) Draft Notification I Imposing ban on publication of obscene books.
b) Regulations formed under an Act II Prohibiting slaughter of all kinds of animals.
c) Rules of a government body III Imposing ban on trade of old vintage cars.
d) Constitution of India a) II and III.
b) II only. 270) Does right to life include Right of an individual to
c) I and II. die?
d) I, II and III. a) No, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in
Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab.
264) Who is the Minister of Law and Justice in India? b) Yes, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in
a) Ravishankar Prasad Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab.
b) Radha Mohan Singh c) Yes, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in
c) Manohar Parrikar Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab.
d) P.L. Punia d) No, as per the judgment of Supreme Court of India in
Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab.
265) The Concept of Judicial activism gained popularity
in India in the ? 271) “Intelligible Differentia” as per Indian Constitution
a) 1960s means:
b) 1970s a) Constitution of India is intelligent enough to
c) 1980s understand the difference amongst different
d) 1990s intellectuals.
b) Right to Equality can be violated if the action is
266) Pick the odd one out with respect to nationality overall intelligent.
under International Law c) The grounds for making classes amongst people shall
a) Deprivation be reasonable.
b) Renunciation d) No person shall be differentiated or discriminated
c) Extradition with for his poor intelligence.
d) Release
272) Article 16 (2), Indian Constitution does not include
267) What is statelessness in International Law? ______ as a ground for discrimination.
a) A person deprived of his/her nationality a) Domicile
b) States unrecognized in the international community b) Residence
c) States unrecognized by United Nations c) Gender
d) States whose recognition has been revoked by United d) Caste
Nations owing to bad conduct
273) Article 22 (2) of Constitution of India does not
268) In India, Extradition is wholly governed by: apply to:
a) Extradition Act, 1962 a) People detained under preventive detention laws
b) International Treaty on Extraditions b) Alien enemies
c) Both (a) and (b). c) Both (a) and (b).
d) Neither (a) nor (b). d) Neither (a) nor (b).
269) Public Interest Litigation emerged in the case of: 274) In a conflict between Article 15 and Article 29 of
a) Ratlam Cotton Mills v. Union of India Constitution of India:
b) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India a) Article 29 prevails
c) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti v. State of West b) Provisions are harmoniously construed
Bengal c) Article 15 prevails
d) Maithli Devi v. State of Bombay d) None of these.
275) What is a ‘bailable offence’?
a) Offence in which arrest cannot be made by the police 281) What is pledge?
b) Offence in which bail is a matter of right for the a) Oath taken before a magistrate before testimony.
accused b) Bailment of goods as security for repayment of
c) Offence in which bail cannot be granted to the money.
accused c) Transfer of ownership as security for repayment of
d) Offence in which only magistrate can grant bail money.
d) Consumption of goods on failure to repay money.
276) Arrange the following judicial posts in the
ascending order of their seniority: 282) If X murders Y in U.S.D., a country where murder is
A District Judge no offence, and an extradition treaty exists between the
B Chief Judicial Magistrate two countries, X can be prosecuted in India for:
C Metropolitan Magistrate a) Murder
a) ABC b) Man Slaughtering
b) CAB c) Laws of Extradition
c) CBA d) X cannot be prosecuted
d) ACB
283) Under what provision of Universal Declaration on
277) Qui non improbat, approbat means: Human Rights is ‘right to asylum’ recognized?
a) He who disapproves need to bring evidence. a) Schedule V
b) He who does not disapprove, approves. b) Article 14
c) He who approves, does not disapprove. c) Article 77
d) He who approves, shall bring evidence d) Article 21
278) What is meant by ‘dividend’? 284) Passive euthanasia has been held to be valid in the
a) Profit issued to a preference shareholder by the case of
company a) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
b) Divided liability of a shareholder in a company b) Arup Bhaiyyan v. State of Assam
c) Profit issued to an equity shareholder by the c) Aruna Ramchandran Shanbag v. Union of India
company d) Saurabh Mandal v. Union of India
d) Difference between total liability of the company and
the liability of a shareholder 285) In which case Supreme Court of India incorporated
‘due process of law’ in Constitution of India?
279) Pick the odd one out: a) E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
a) Alien Enemy b) Shantanu Moitra v. Central Board of Film Certification
b) Bankrupt c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
c) Registered Company d) Rudra Sen Chaudhary v. State of Andhra Pradesh
d) Unborn child
286) Untouchability is prohibited under the Indian
280) Member states of United Nations are: Constitution by:
a) 197 a) Article 17
b) 245 b) Article 20
d) 193 c) Article 84
d) 202 d) Article 77
b) Bangalore
287) Article 18, Indian Constitution intends to: c) Lucknow
a) Put untouchability to end d) Mumbai
b) Stop retrospective application of criminal law
c) Abolition of titles 294) When was Article 21A was inserted in the Part III of
d) End of discrimination in matters of public Indian Constitution?
employment a) 2000
b) 2002
288) What is meant by discharge of an offence? c) 2003
a) Acquitting the accused for lack of evidence d) 2005
b) Acquitting the accused for non-filing of charge sheet
c) Acquitting the accused for misapplication of law 295) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is
d) Acquitting the accused for serving the full term while established under:
trial was going on a) Article 37, Constitution of India
b) Article 338, Constitution of India
289) Liberty: Privacy :: Life: _______. c) Article 157, Constitution of India
a) Health d) Article 48, Constitution of India
b) Money
c) Housing 296) The present governor of Reserve Bank of India is:
d) Farming a) Shaktikanta Das
b) Y.V. Reddy
290) Freedom of Press: United States :: Right to Efficient c) Raghuram Rajan
Governance: d) D. Subbarao
a) England
b) South Africa 297) Is cheque a negotiable instrument?
c) Ireland a) Yes, under S. 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act
d) Australia b) Yes, under S. 13 of Negotiable Instruments Act *
c) Yes, under S. 2 (h) of Cheques Act
291) Section 377, Indian Penal Code was alleged to be d) No
violative of:
a) Article 21, Constitution of India 298) The Supreme Court Of India recognized
b) S. 4, LGBT Bill 2012 ‘transgenders’ as ‘third gender with all rights’ in the
c) Article 39, Constitution of India case of:
d) S. 11, LGBT Bill 2012 a) National Legal Services Authority v. Uol
b) Young Lawyer’s Association v. Union of India
292) Punishment for the offence of rape is contained in: c) Trasgenders’ Group v. Union of India
a) Section 376, Indian Penal Code d) Naz Foundation v. Union of India
b) Section 375, Indian Penal Code
c) Section 378, Indian Penal Code 299) Labour Courts are established under:
d) Section 377, Indian Penal Code a) Consumer Protection Act, 1986
b) Workmen Compensation Act, 1975
293) Pick the odd one out with regard to Reserve Bank c) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
of India: d) Jurisdiction to Labour Courts has been provided in all
a) Bhopal of these acts
305) Given below are the two statements. One is
300) Pick the odd one out with respect to jurisdictional Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Choose the
immunities under International Law: correct alternative from the following.
a) Consent Assertion (A) : A breach of contract gives rise to a right
b) Criminal Liability of the injured party to recover the damages Reason (R):
c) Tortuous Liability The purpose of payment of damages is to restore the
d) Contracts of employment position of both the parties in the same status in which
they would have been, had they not entered into the
301) In which case the Supreme Court of India held that contract.
all prostitutes & sex workers also have a right to live a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
with human dignity under Article 21 of A.
a) Budhadev karmaskar v. State of W.B. b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
b) Lalita Sheth v. State of Odisha explanation of A.
c) Gyan Sudha Mishra v. Union of India c) A is true but R is false.
d) Markendey Katju v. Union of India d) A is false but R is true.
302) Which of the following case is concerned with 306) Given below are the two statements. One is
Child trafficking, child labour, forceful detention, and Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Choose the
other serious violations and abuse of children in correct alternative from the following.
circuses? Assertion (A) : Every contract must be supported with
a) Bachpan Badhao Andolan vs Union of India a consideration.
b) Bachpan Bachao Andolan vs Union of India Reason (R) : Every contract without a consideration is
c) Bachapn Khilao Andolan vs Union of India void.
d) Khelo India vs Union of India a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A.
303) In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
issued detailed directions for the protection of Good explanation of A.
Samaritans? c) A is true but R is false.
a) Save Bird vs Union of India d) A is false but R is true.
b) Bird Life vs. Union of India
c) Protect Life vs. Union of India 307) The Motion which cannot be moved in RajyaSabha
d) Save Life vs. Union of India is
a) No-Confidence Motion
304) In which case, the Constitution Bench of Supreme b) Censure Motion
Court by 4:1 Majority upheld the collegium system and c) Adjournment Motion
struck down the NJAC ( National Judicial Appointment d) None of the above
Commission) as unconstitutional?
a) Supreme Court Advocate on Record Association v. 308) Rule laid down in Rylands V. Fletcher is related to
Union of India a) Absolute liability
b) Young Lawyer’s Association v. Union of India b) Strict liability
c) Young India Advocate on Record Association vs. c) Act of God
Union of India d) Scienter action rule
d) Supreme Court Judges Association v. Union of India
309) The Law of Torts is
a) Right in rem 316) Public nuisance is
b) Right in personam a) Criminal Wrong
c) Right in re propria b) Civil Wrong
d) None of the above c) Either a or b
310) Which Indian Act contains the definition of Torts?
a) Indian Contract Act 317) Which of the following writ can be issued against
b) The Limitation Act judicial or quasi-judicial body?
c) The Negotiable Instrument Act a) Mandmus
d) Not defined anywhere. b) Habeas Corpus
c) Certiorari
311) The maxim resondeat superior is related to d) Quo Warranto
a) Vicarious liability
b) VNFI 318) In which of the following circumstances, the
c) Strict liability Speaker of the LokSabha can cast his votes?
d) Absolute liability a) He can't do so
b) He can cast vote in case of a Tie
312) Z is bathing. A pours boiling water into the bath. c) In case of Money bills
The Act of A is d) In case of ordinary bill
a) Assault
b) Battery 319) Which state government obtained extension under
c) False imprisonment Section 3 Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958
d) All of the above (AFSPA) for another 6 months declaring the entire state
as ‘Disturbed Area’, on 31st August 2018?
313) "x" steals a ring from "y". "z" takes it dishonestly a) Arunachal Pradesh
from "X". Z committed the offence of b) Assam
a) No offence c) Sikkim
b) Theft d) Nagaland
c) Criminal Misappropriation
d) Criminal breach of trust 320) Which state cabinet approved amendments to the
Indian Penal Code (IPC) and the Code of Criminal
314) Who was the first secretary general of United Procedure (CrPC) to make disrespect of religious texts
Nation? punishable with life imprisonment, on 21st August
a) Trygve Lie 2018?
b) U. Thant a) Haryana
c) Ban ki Moon b) Punjab
d) Waldheim c) Maharashtra
d) Goa
315) The rule of absolute liability is
a) Without any exception 321) One of the fundamental duties of citizens is to
b) Act of God is a defense respect National Flag and National Anthem. The
c) VNFI is a defense Constitution also confers freedom of religion as a
d) Both b & c fundamental right. While Fundamental rights are
enforceable, fundamental duties are not.
X, a citizen of India belonging to a particular religious 325) Which of the following is not true about a criminal
sect, is serving in the police force. He refuses to salute proceeding?
the National Flag and sing National Anthem on the a) The court may ask to pay a fine
ground that as per his religious injunctions, he cannot b) The court may order the transfer of the ownership of
glorify anybody other than the God. The disciplinary the property.
proceedings are initiated against him. c) There is prosecution
a) X will succeed as his right to religious freedom is a d) the court may discharge an accused.
fundamental right, which should be upheld.
b) X will not succeed as he is not just an ordinary 326) Who among the following enunciated the
citizens but a member of the police force and is duty ‘Doctrine of Rule of Law’?
demands that he salutes the flag a) Ronald Dworkin
c) X will not succeed as the fundamental duty compels b) Salmond
him to salute the flag c) A.V. Dicey
d) Fundamental duties are not enforceable, hence X will d) John Austin
succeed
327) Which among the following maxims literally means
322) Which one of the following statements is not true that ‘Welfare of the people is the paramount law’?
of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence a) Scienti violent non fit injuria
Act, 2005? b) Saluspopuli suprema lax
a) This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman c) sacramentapuberumsuntsarvansa
subjected to domestic violence d) ubi jus ibi remedium
b) Only women can make a complaint under this
legislation 328) "A" agrees to pay Rs. 5000 to ‘B’ if it rains, and ‘B’
c) Relief may be sought only against the husband or a promises to pay a like amount to ‘A’ if it does not rain,
male live in partner with whom the woman has lived in this agreement is called-
a domestic relationship. a) Quasi contract
d) The Act includes not just wives but also women in b) contingent contract
marriage – like relationships. c) wagering agreement
d) voidable contract
323) As per the Hindu Marriage Act, A Child marriage is
a) Void 329) An agreement to share the benefits of a public
b) Valid office is
c) Voidable at the option of Child party to the marriage a) Illegal
d) None of the above b) Valid
c) Void
324) Seven persons assembled on the platform of a
d) Voidable
Railway Station and started fighting with each other.
The passengers present at the Railway Station got
annoyed and felt disturbed. These persons are guilty of 330) Who among the following is the Chairman of
NHRC?
a) Assault a) Justice H L Dattu
b) Affray b) Justice T S Thakur
c) Rioting c) Justice Altmas Kabir
d) Unlawful assembly d) Justice KG Balakrishnan
331) The manager of waqf is known as- c) Both a & b
a) Sajjadanashin d) None of the above
b) Khadim
c) Mutawalli 337) Right to speedy trial is guaranteed under
d) Mujawar a) Criminal Procedure Code
b) Article 21 of the Constitution of India
332) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ agree to commit theft in ‘Z’s house but c) Article 22 of the Constitution of India
no theft is actually committed, they are guilty of d) in Special laws
a) No offence
b) Abetment by conspiracy 338) The Doctrine Non est factum means…
c) Abetment by instigation a) Document executed in ignorance
d) Criminal conspiracy b) Document executed under fraud
c) Document executed under Coercion
333) Which part of the Constitution of India talks about d) Foreign Documents
the Fundamental Rights?
a) Part II 339) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) can be filed by
b) Part III a) Aggrieved party
c) Part IV b) Any citizen
d) Part IVA c) Pleader only
d) Advocates only
334) The phrase ‘due process of law’ means
a) procedure established by law 340) Under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008,
b) by police action liability of the partner is
c) by interference of the prosecution a) joint and several
d) law takes its own course b) limited to his agreed contribution
c) vicarious
335) Assertion A: A person, who is usually of unsound d) None of the above
mind, but occasionally of sound mind, may make a
contract when he is of sound mind. 341) In the year 2002 the Competition Act was enacted
Reasoning (R): A person, who is capable of replacing
understanding the contract and of forming a rational a) Prevention of Food Adulteration Act
judgment as to its effect upon his interests, is b) Copyright Act
competent to enter into a contract. c) Debt Recovery Act
a) Both A and R are true. d) MRTP Act, 1969
b) Both A and R are false.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct reasoning 342) Parties may refer their disputes to an independent
for A. third party, instead of regular courts, under the
d) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct provisions of
reasoning for A. a) Arbitration and Conciliation Act
b) Legal Services Authorities Act
336) Mistake of law c) Constitution of India
a) Does not render a contract voidable if it is mistake of d) Code of Criminal Procedure
any Indian Law
b) Mistake as to a foreign law will be void
343) A Hindu wife can marry immediately after divorce a) Prof. Wheare
a Muslim wife can b) Austin
a) marry after 3 months c) A.H. Birch
b) marry after 3 years d) Dicey
c) marry only after the iddat period
d) never marry 7) Is ‘Intention’ relevant in the Law of Torts?
a) Intention is relevant
344) The “Universal Declaration of Human Rights” was b) Intention is relevant only in some tort cases
adopted by the UN in c) Intention is irrelevant
a) 1955 d) None of these
b) 1956
c) 1945 351) Who among the following was the constitutional
d) 1948 advisor to the constituent assembly?
a) Pandit JawahrLal Nehru
345) A borrows money from B and gives some land as b) Sir B.N.Rau
security for repayment of debt. The arrangement is c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
called d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
a) Pledge
b) Hypothecation 352) As per the scheme approved by Supreme Court on
c) Hire Purchase 5th September 2018, what is the minimum
d) Mortgage compensation granted to the survivors of rape and
sexual assault?
346) The retirement age of Chairperson of National a) Rs 4 lakh
human Rights Commission is b) Rs 1 lakh
a) 70 c) Rs 2 lakh
b) 65 d) Rs 3 lakh
c) 60
d) 55 353) HIV AIDS (prevention and control) Act 2017 has
been implemented from September 10, 2018. This Act
347) Goa comes under the jurisdiction of punishes propagation of hatred against the protected
a) Karnataka High Court person with a minimum jail term of 3 months to a
b) Mumbai High Court maximum of 2 years and can be fined up to ______
c) Madras High court rupees?
d) None of the above a) Rs 2 lakh
b) Rs 1 lakh
348) The Concept of single citizenship has been c) Rs 3 lakh
borrowed from? d) Rs 5 lakh
a) Australia
b) Canada 354) Unlawful assembly is an offence against
c) UK a) the state
d) Japan b) public tranquility
c) public justice
349) Who among the following considered Indian d) property
Constitution as "quasi-federal" in nature?
355) An adjournment motion should be supported by b) By complying with the conditions of offer
not less than ……… members of the house? c) By tendering himself to comply the conditions of
a) 100 offer
b) 50 d) None of the above
c) 12
d) 25 362) Practising untouchability is _____
a) Violation of a constitutional right
356) If a no-confidence motion is passed in the Lok b) A criminal offence
Sabha then c) Both ( a ) & ( b )
a) Parliament is dissolved d) Violation of a legal right only
b) Ministry resigns
c) Prime Minister resigns 363) What is the meaning of ‘lex loci’?
d) Cabinet is re-formed a) Law of land
b) Sovereignty is essential for enacting laws
357) Ordinance made by the Government has to be c) Law of the land is supreme
passed by the Assembly within d) Crown has supreme authority
a) 6 months
b) 6 weeks 364) In the IPC, nothing is an offence when it is done by
c) 12 weeks a child below_____
d) 12 months a) 12 years of age
b) Above Seven but below 12 years of age
358) The provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, c) Below 14 years of age
1986 covers d) None of the above
a) Goods only
b) Services only 365) The maxim ‘ignorantia’ juris non excusat’
c) Both a and b means_____
d) None of the above a) Ignorance of law is no excuse
b) Ignorance of fact is no excuse
359) An agreement enforceable by law at the instance c) Ignorance of law is an excuse
of one party and not of other party is called_____ d) Ignorance of fact is excuse
a) A valid contract
b) An illegal contract 366) Quo-warranto means
c) A void contract a) without authority occupying a post
d) A voidable contract b) By what authority a person exercises a claim to a
public post
360) Competency to contract relates to ____ c) a warrant challenging a convict
a) Age of parties d) petition challenging the authority of a minister.
b) Soundness of mind of the parties
c) Both age and soundness of mind 367) The Lokayukta and Upalokayukta Act was first
d) Intelligence of the parties passed in
a) Maharashtra
361) A general offer open for world at large can be b) West Bengal
accepted____ c) Karnataka
a) By sending a communication of acceptance d) Odisha
c) Section 503
368) Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right? d) Section 377
a) Right to Equality
b) Right to Liberty 374) The first court was introduced in India on 1st
c) Right against Exploitation August, 1672 in
d) Right to Property a) Chennai
b) Delhi
369) Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok c) Bombay
Sabha in the case of d) Calcutta
a) Money Bills
b) Non – money bills 375) The Narco – analysis technique involves the
c) Setting up of new All – India Services intravenous administration of
d) Amendment of the Constitution a) Sodium Pentothal
b) Potassium Pentothal
370) The President’s Rule is imposed on a State in India, c) Magnesium Pentothal
when d) None of the above
a) The State Cabinet of Ministers resigns
b) The Governor of the State dies 376) Fiduciary relationship is relationship based on -
c) The elections are announced a) Contract
d) There is a Constitutional breakdown b) trust
c) blood relationship
371) What was the exact constitutional position of the d) Money
Indian Republic when the Constitution was brought into
force with effect from 26th January, 1950? 377) Contempt of court means
a) A Democratic Republic a) both civil contempt and criminal contempt
b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic b) only criminal contempt
c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic c) only civil contempt
d) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic d) none of the above
372) Which body had filed the petition in the Supreme 378) The doctrine (Rule) of Basic Structure was
Court seeking to ensure entry of women devotees propounded by the Supreme Court in
between the age group of 10 and 50 at the Sabarimala a) Sajan Singh Case
Temple? b) Golak Nath case
a) Nair Service Society c) Keshavanand Bharti case
b) Kerala Young Women Lawyers Association d) A.K. Gopalan case
c) Progressive Young Lawyers Association
d) Indian Young Lawyers Association 379) Public Prosecutor is
a) Counsel of the State in the case where government is
373) Which section of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) which a party
gave a husband the right to prosecute his wife’s b) Counsel of the State in a Criminal trial
lover(adulterer) was struck down by the Supreme Court c) Counsel of the State in a Civil trial
in September 2018? d) Counsel of the State in both Criminal and Civil trial
a) Section 124 A
b) Section 497 380) The meaning of the term ‘in limine’ is
a) on the threshold Reason (R) : The Chief Election Commissioner of India is
b) in place of appointed by the President
c) in default a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
d) in open court of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
381) Ante-mortem injuries means explanation of A
a) injuries on the body of a dead man c) A is true but R is false
b) injuries inflicted on a man after his death d) A is false but R is true.
c) injuries inflicted on a man prior to his death
d) none of these 386) Two statements labeled as Assertion ( a ) and
Reason (R) are given. In the context of the two
382) A contracts to pay to B Rs.1,000 if B’s house is statements, which of the following is correct?
burnt, is a Assertion ( a ) : Article 76 of the constitution of India
a) voidable contract makes provision for the appointment of the Attorney
b) wagering contract General.
c) contingent contract Reason (R) : The Attorney General has a privilege to
d) None address the Houses of Parliament.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
383) Audi aultrem paltrem means of A.
a) No one should be condemned unheard b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
b) When the thing speaks for itself explanation of A.
c) It is a principle of extradition law c) A is true but R is false.
d) None of the above d) A is false but R is true.
384) Two statements labeled as Assertion ( a ) and 387) The maximum number of members that the
Reason (R) are given. In the context of the two Legislative Assembly of a State in India can have is—
statements, which of the following is correct? a) 400
Assertion ( a ) : Fundamental Rights are absolute in b) 450
nature. c) 500
Reason (R) : Fundamental Rights are valid with certain d) 550
restrictions which have been provided by the
Constitution itself. 388) Who is empowered by the Constitution of India to
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation dissolve the Lok Sabha before expiry of its term?
of A. a) The Prime Minister of India on the advice of the
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Speaker of the Lok Sabha
explanation of A. b) The President of India
c) A is true but R is false. c) The President of India on the advice of the Prime
d) A is false but R is true. Minister of India
d) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
385) Two statements labeled as Assertion ( a ) and
Reason (R) are given. In the context of the two 389) In vicarious liability
statements, which of the following is correct? a) The liability is based on fault
Assertion ( a ) : Election Commission is a constitutional b) The employee is liable for acts done in the course of
body. the employment
c) The employer is liable for the employee’s tort b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
d) The employer and the employee are joint tort feasors explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
390) Article 23 of the Constitution does not prohibit d) Both A and R are false.
a) system of ‘begar’
b) traffic in human beings 395) The questions given below consist of two
c) forced labour statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In
d) compulsory service for public purpose the context of the two statements, which of the
following is correct?
391) Which one of the following elements is not Assertion(A): Consideration is a pre-requisite for a valid
relevant for liability in defamation? contract.
a) The words must be defamatory Reason (R): Inadequate consideration renders a
b) The words must be referred to plaintiff contract invalid.
c) The words must be published a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
d) The words must be necessarily in writing of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
392) ‘Free Legal Aid’ to women, poor and illiterate explanation of A.
persons has become a fundamental right by various c) A is true but R is false.
decisions of the Supreme Court. Refer the Article, in d) Both A and R are false.
which ‘Free Legal Aid’ has been embodied in the
Constitution. 396) The questions given below consist of two
a) Article 38 statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In
b) Article 39 the context of the two statements, which of the
c) Article 39-A following is correct?
d) Article 40 Assertion(A): A contract to enforce the sale of a public
office is enforceable in a court of law.
393) Calcutta High Court has circuit Bench at which of Reason (R): A contractual agreement with a valid
the following place? consideration is unenforceable under law.
a) Port Blair a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
b) Darjeeling of A
c) Cuttack b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
d) Bhubaneshwar explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
394) The questions given below consist of two d) Both A and R are false.
statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In
the context of the two statements, which of the 397) The questions given below consist of two
following is correct? statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In
Assertion(A) : Tort is a civil wrong repressible by an the context of the two statements, which of the
action for unliquidated damages only. following is correct?
Reason (R) : Law does not provide compensation in the Assertion(A): An instigation or aid in commission of an
nature of liquidated damages. offence is also punishable under the Indian Penal Code.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation Reason (R): Any such aid or instigation is called
of A ‘Abetment’.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation Reasoning(R): Art. 21 mandates that no one shall be
of A deprived of his life or personal liberty under any
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct circumstances
explanation of A. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
c) A is true but R is false. of A
d) Both A and R are false. b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
398) The questions given below consist of two c) A is true but R is false.
statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In d) Both A and R are false
the context of the two statements, which of the
following is correct? 401) A master is liable for the tort committed by his
Assertion(A): The President is the nominal head of the servant when the servant acts
State. a) for the benefit of his master
Reason (R): He is required to take almost all the b) in course of his employment
decisions on the advice of council of ministers. c) during his duty hours
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation d) to the detriment of the plaintiff
of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 402) The term ‘Scienter’ is related to which one of the
explanation of A. following sign-boards?
c) A is true but R is false. a) “Trespassers will be prosecuted”
d) Both A and R are false. b) “Beware of dogs”
c) “No parking”
399) The questions given below consist of two d) “No admission without permission”
statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In
the context of the two statements, which of the 403) A particular village is suffering due to pollution
following is correct? caused by one of the industries located at its outskirts.
Assertion(A): All robberies are thefts but all thefts are The water in the village lake has become unfit for
not robberies. drinking and foul smell is constantly emitting from the
Reason (R): All culpable homicides are murders but all chimneys of the industry. The villagers want to petition
murders are not culpable homicides. the Supreme Court. They can do so for the violation of
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation which of the following rights?
of A a) Right to life
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct b) Right to development
explanation of A. c) Right to protect villages
c) A is true but R is false. d) Right against exploitation
d) Both A and R are false.
404) Which of the following term means ‘under
400) The questions given below consist of two consideration of a court of law’?
statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In a) Sine qua non
the context of the two statements, which of the b) Res judicata
following is correct? c) double jeopardy
Assertion(A): Death Penalty is illegal in India. d) Sub judice
405) The concepts of ‘protectorate state’ and ‘buffer 410) In a criminal case, an accused person, who in
state’ are found in consideration of his non-prosecution, offers to give
a) International law evidence against other accused, is called -
b) Constitution, Concurrent List a) Accomplice
c) Interstate Water Dispute Act, b) Hostile witness
d) any federal constitution c) approver
d) Hostile accomplice
406) ‘Sustainable development’ is a concept of
a) environmental law 411) Which Fundamental Right cannot be suspended
b) property law even during an emergency under Article 352 of the
c) land law Constitution?
d) tax law 1. Right to Life and personal liberty
2. Right to freedom of speech and expression
407) A by shooting at a fowl with intent to kill it, kills B 3. Protection in respect of conviction for offences
who is behind a bush, while A does not know that he 4. Right to Religion
was there. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) A is guilty of murder a) 1 and 3
b) A is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to b) 1, 2 and 4
murder. c) 2, 3 and 4
c) A is not guilty of culpable homicide as he did not d) All of these
intend to kill B or cause death by doing an act that he
knew was likely to cause death 412) After the general elections a new Lok Sabha is
d) A is guilty of killing the fowl under the wildlife constituted. In its first session, the Speaker is elected.
protection act and also for committing an offence Who presides over this first session?
affecting the human body, killing B a) Ex – Speaker
b) Ex – Prime Minister
408) In public nuisance, a private right of action lies c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
a) when they injury is merely consequential d) Oldest member of the House
b) when there is proof of damages
c) when the injury is particular, direct and substantial 413) Consider the following statements about the
d) none of the above Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018:
A. The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018 applies only
409) The Fugitive Economic offenders Bill, 2018 was to private entities.
passed by the Parliament, in July 2018. It seeks to B. The Bill places restrictions and conditions on cross
confiscate properties and assets of economic offenders border data flows.
that evade prosecution by remaining outside the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
jurisdiction of Indian courts. The minimum amount for a) A only
consideration would be b) B only
a) 50 crores c) Both A and B
b) 200 crores d) Neither A nor B
c) 300 crores
d) 100 crores 414) Which one of the following is not a direct Tax?
a) Income tax
b) Estate duty
c) Wealth tax a) throughout her life
d) GST b) 25 years
c) 10 years
415) Which of the following is not a feature of the d) Till she gets re-married
constitution?
a) Directive Principles of State Policy 421) Which one of the following is a contract?
b) Fundamental Duties a) An agreement to do a lawful act by unlawful means
c) Secular State b) An undertaking in writing duly signed to pay the time
d) Dual Citizenship barred debt
c) An agreement in restraint of lawful trade
416) Which of the following is not a fundamental right d) An agreement to pay rupees one thousand only
recognised by the Indian constitution? without consideration
a) Right to equality before law, prohibition of
discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, 422) An agreement to pay money or money’s worth on
gender or place of birth. the happening or non-happening of a specified
b) Right to freedom of expression including publishing uncertain event, is a
one's views. a) wagering agreement
c) Right to protection in respect to conviction in b) contingent contract
offences and protection against arrest and detention in c) quasi contract
certain cases. d) uncertain agreement
d) Right against exploitation prohibiting all forms of
forced labour, child labour and traffic in human beings 423) An agreement which is enforceable by law at the
option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at
417) Name the former law minister of India who wrote the option of the other, is a
the book “Conscience of a Maverick” a) valid contract
a) H.R. Bharadwaj b) unenforceable contract
b) Shanti Bhushan c) voidable contract
c) Arun Jaitley d) void agreement
d) Ram Jethmalani
424) Illegality renders a contract
418) A Mortgage is of …… property. a) illegal
a) Movable b) punishable
b) Immovable c) void
c) either a or b d) voidable
425) “A”, a tradesman, leaves goods at B’s house by
419) Who was the Chairman of the First Law mistake “B” treats the goods as his own. Which one of
Commission of India? the following remedies is available to “A”?
a) M.C. Setalvad a) A” is to forgo his claim over goods
b) Subbarao b) “A” is entitled to the same goods from “B”
c) Nani Palkiwala c) “B” is entitled to hire charges
d) M.C. Chagla d) “B” is bound to pay “A” for them
420) A husband is obliged to maintain his divorced wife 426) The primary aim of the law of damages is to
a) punish the party who has committed the breach of a) Section 5
contract b) Section 7
b) enrich the party who sustained the loss c) Section 13
c) place the party who sustained the loss in the same d) Section 17
position as if the contract has been performed
d) give some type of compensation 432) The Supreme Court held in which of the following
cases that preamble is not the part of the Constitution
427) An offer is of India__
a) only a declaration of intention. a) Berubari case
b) Only a proposal. b) A. K. Gopalan case
c) An invitation. c) Balaji Case
d) A willingness to do or abstain from doing something d) Minerva Mills case
with a view to obtaining assent of the addressee.
433) The protection and improvement of environment
428) The display of articles in a showroom indicating including forests and wild life of the country is___
their prices amounts to a) Directive Principle of State Policy
a) offer b) Fundamental National Policy
b) counter offer c) Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
c) invitation to an offer d) Both Directive Principles of State Policy and
d) mere advertisement Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
429) A contract entered into by a minor is 434) An agreement made by bilateral mistake is __
a) valid and binding a) Void
b) voidable at the option of the minor b) Voidable
c) void ab initio c) Illegal
d) voidable at the option of either party d) Immoral
430) Which one of the following is not a wagering 435) Which of the following statements are true?
agreement a) Minor’s contract can be ratified on attaining majority
a) A lottery b) Minor’s contract cannot be ratified on attaining
b) An agreement to buy a ticket for a lottery majority
c) Commercial transaction, the intention of which is not c) Minor’s contract can be ratified jointly by both the
to deliver the goods but only to pay the difference in parties to the contract
price d) Minor is liable under minor’s contract
d) A contract of insurance
436) Which of the following ingredients are essential to
431) RBI Governor Urjit Patel resigned from his post make master liable for the acts of the servant?
with immediate effect on 10 December 2018. Relations 1. Tort was committed by the servant
between the RBI and the Union Government have 2. Tort was committed in the course of employment
reportedly soured since October 2018 after the Finance 3. Express authority was given by master
Ministry started consultations under the never-before- 4. Master has knowledge of all constituent offers of
used Section ______ of the RBI Act, which empowers tort.
the government to direct the central bank to undertake Codes:
certain policy measures in public interest. a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4 b) Bhopal
c) 3, 4, c) Calcutta
d) 1, 2 d) Delhi
437) When was demonetization first implemented in 443) In public nuisance, a private right of action lies
India? a) when they injury is merely consequential
a) 2016 b) when there is proof of damages
b) 1946 c) when the injury is particular, direct and substantial
c) 1978 d) none of the above
d) 1972
444) A master is liable for the tort committed by his
438) Which high court ordered a ban on sale of online servant when the servant acts
medicines by e-pharmacists across India, on 12th a) for the benefit of his master
December 2018? b) in course of his employment
a) Madras High Court c) during his duty hours
b) Delhi High Court d) to the detriment of the plaintiff
c) Bombay High Court
d) Allahabad High Court 445) ‘Alibi’ in legal terms, is a (an):
a) Defence
439) Which state has become the first state in India to b) Offence
enact a law banning sexual exploitation of women by c) Evidence
those in positions of authority, having a fiduciary d) Tort
relationship or a public servant?
a) Maharashtra 446) The Doctrine of Master-Servant liability relies on
b) Telangana the maxim:
c) Haryana a) Respondent Superior
d) Jammu and Kashmir b) Respondent Inferior
c) Plaintiff Superior
440) A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court d) Plaintiff Inferior
consists of at least
a) 3 judges 447) Affirmative action connotes:
b) 5 judges I. Measures taken by state to help the socially
c) 6 judges disadvantaged groups.
d) 7 judges II. Positive discrimination.
III. Strict quotas for the socially and educationally
441) _____ is an inquiry into the apparent cause of backward class in school/college admissions and jobs.
death. Which of the above mentioned is true?
a) Mahazar a) I and II only
b) Inquest report b) II only
c) post mortem report c) I, II and III
d) none of the above d) II and III only
442) Where is the National Judicial Academy located? 448) Identify the correct statement:
a) Mumbai
a) Federalism implies a system of government which
embodies a division of powers between a central and a 453) In the questions given below are two statements
number of regional authorities labeled as Assertion ( A ) and Reason (R). in the context
b) Federalism implies a system if government which of the two statements, which one of the following is
embodies a division of powers between Legislature, correct?
Executive and Judiciary. Assertion ( A ): A void contract is not necessarily illegal.
c) Federalism implies a system of Government which Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.
embodies Parliamentary supremacy. a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
d) None of these explanation of A
b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the
449) The National Commission for Women is a correct explanation of A
a) Constitutional body c) A is true but R is false
b) Statutory body d) A is false but R is true
c) Independent body
d) None of the above 454) In the questions given below are two statements
labeled as Assertion ( A ) and Reason (R). in the context
450) Seven persons assembled on the platform of a of the two statements, which one of the following is
Railway Station and started fighting with each other. correct?
The passengers present at the Railway Station got Assertion ( A ): In the event of violation of any legal
annoyed and felt disturbed. These persons are guilty of right (tort), the aggrieved party is entitled to recover
a) Assault unliquidated damages.
b) Affray Reason (R): The object of awarding damages to the
c) Rioting aggrieved party is to put him in the same position in
d) Unlawful assembly which he would have been if the wrong would not have
been committed. Damages, are therefore, assessed on
451) In the Constitution of India, promotion of that basis.
international peace and security is mentioned in the— a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
a) Preamble to the Constitution explanation of A
b) Directive Principles of State Policy b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the
c) Fundamental Duties correct explanation of A
d) Ninth Schedule c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
452) Which of the following statement about National
Green Tribunal is / are correct? 455) In the questions given below are two statements
A. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary labeled as Assertion ( A ) and Reason (R). in the context
expertise to handle environmental disputes involving of the two statements, which one of the following is
multidisciplinary issues. correct?
B. The Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid Assertion ( A ): A person claims compensation for his
down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. non – gratuitous act.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Reason (R): A person who enjoys benefit from lawful,
a) A only non – gratuitous act of another must compensate him
b) B only even though there is no contract
c) Both A and B. a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
d) Neither A nor B. explanation of A
b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the d) None of the above
correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false 461) Sometimes, an accused seeks pardon from the
d) A is false but R is true court and offers to give evidence against all others
involved in a crime. He is called
456) The Lok Sabha has passed the _______ a) Approver
constitutional amendment bill to provide reservations b) Witness
to the economically weaker sections. The central c) Clone
government is planning to introduce a ten per cent d) Escapee
reservation for those belonging to economically weaker
sections of society. 462) A document issued by Court, calling upon the
a) 122nd person to whom it is directed to attend before the
b) 123rd judge
c) 124th a) Bench
d) 125th b) Supra
c) Summons
457) Withdrawal from the European Union involves a d) Bailiff
legal and political process.Member states have the right
to withdraw from the Union under which bill pertaining 463) In Ram Vs. Shyam, Ram cannot be a -
to formal process of leaving the EU? a) Plaintiff
a) Article 50 of the Lisbon Treaty b) Appellants
b) Article 10 of the European Union Treaty c) Defendant
c) Article 20 of Maastricht Treaty d) Prosecutor
d) Article 50 of Nice Treaty
464) Cr. P.C. stands for -
458) According to the new proposed Muslim Women a) Criminal Proceedings Code
(Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill which was passed b) Criminal Proceedings Court
in Lok Sabha, uttering triple talaq will be c) Crime Prevention Code
a) Non- cognizable and bailable offence d) Criminal Procedure Code
b) Cognizable and bailable offence
c) Cognizable and non – bailable offence 465) A agreed to sell B, ‘a hundred tons of oil’, the
d) Non -cognizable and non – bailable offence agreement shall be
a) Valid
459) In which year was the RBI Act passed? b) Voidable
a) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1945 c) Void
b) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 d) None of the above
c) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1935
d) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1944 466) President Ram Nath Kovind has given assent to the
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018, that provides
460) Crime is an act or omission which is perceived as death penalty for convicts accused of raping girls below
harmful to society at large. This is proved by the age of _____ years?
a) One party to criminal suit being state a) 10
b) Severe punishment b) 11
c) Because trial is by court c) 12
d) 13 a) ‘Exit – Poll’ is a term used to denote a post-election
survey of voters regarding the candidate in whose favor
467) Which state cabinet approved amendments to the they had exercised their franchise.
Indian Penal Code (IPC) and the Code of Criminal b) ‘Exit – Poll’ and Opinion-Poll are one and the same
Procedure (CrPC) to make disrespect of religious texts c) ‘Exit – Poll’ is a device through which results of voting
punishable with life imprisonment, on 21st August can be most exactly predicted
2018? d) ‘Exit – Poll’ is an administrative device made by the
a) Haryana Chief Election Commissioned to prevent impersonation.
b) Punjab
c) Maharashtra 473) What is a caveat?
d) Tamil Nadu a) A warning
b) An injunction
468) Culpable homicide means causing death c) Certiorari
a) with the intention of causing death d) Writ
b) with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is
likely to cause death 474) For a valid contract, which of the following
c) with the knowledge that by such act death is likely to conditions must be satisfied
be caused I. Intention to create legal relations
d) all the above II. Consensus ad idem
III. Legality of object
469) What is the legal meaning of the word ‘Battery’? IV. Must be set out in writing
a) Cells, as used in torch, tape recorder etc a) All
b) Battering a person to death b) I, II & IV
c) Actual or intended striking of another person c) I, II & III
d) Assault resulting in, at least, 6 months hospitalization d) III & IV
470) Private nuisance consists of: 475) What is the age below which employment of
a) Unreasonable interference in the use and enjoyment children has been made a cognizable offence for
of land resulting in some damage employers and provides for penalty for parents?
b) Unreasonable meddling with the affairs of others a) 12years
c) Unreasonable interference in the rights of the b) 13years
neighbour. c) 14years
d) none of the above is correct. d) 15years
471) A master is liable for the Tort committed by his 476) Which of the following ingredients are essential to
servant when the servant acts make master liable for the acts of the servant?
a) For the benefit of his master 1. Tort was committed by the servant.
b) In course of his employment 2. Tort was committed in the course of employment.
c) During his duty hours 3. Express authority was given by master.
d) To the detriment of the plaintiff. 4. Master has knowledge of all constituent offers of
tort.
472) Which one of the following statements regarding Codes:
‘Exit Poll’ is correct? a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 3, 4 d) Discharge
d) 1, 2
482) No one can be compelled to sing the National
477) Which of the following is an essential constituent Anthem Since
of negligence? 1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of speech
a) Defendant was under a legal duty to exercise due and expression.
care 2. It will be violative of the right to freedom of
b) This duty was owed by plaintiff conscience and practice & propagation of religion.
c) Defendant committed breach of such duty 3. There is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing the
d) That the breach of such duty was the direct and National Anthem.
proximate cause of the damage alleged. a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
478) Assertion( A ) : Tort is a civil wrong redressible by c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
an action for unliquidated damages only. d) None is correct
Reason (R) : Law does not provide compensation in the
nature of liquidated damages. 483) A hostile witness is one who is
Codes: a) An unfavourable witness
a) Both ( A ) and (R) are true and (R) is correct b) Desirous of telling the truth
explanation of ( A ) c) Not desirous of telling the truth
b) Both ( A ) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct d) An overpowered witness
explanation of ( A )
c) ( A ) is true but (R) is false 484) In the year 2002 the Competition Act was enacted
d) ( A ) is false but (R) is true. replacing
a) Trade Marks Act
479) India and Britain recently signed an ‘extradition b) Copy Right Act
treaty’. Extradition means ______ c) Contract Act
a) Exports without double taxation d) MRTP Act
b) Order of Indian courts will apply to Indians living in
the UK 485) A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed
c) India and the UK will deport criminals on reciprocal from office only on grounds of
basis to each other a) Gross inefficiency
d) None of the above b) Delivering wrong judgments
c) Senility
480) What is a ‘moot’? d) Proven misbehaviour or incapacity
a) A basic point of law
b) A basic fact of case 486) Beyond what distance from the coast, is the sea
c) Mock court for practice by students in general known as “High Sea”?
d) Another name for magistrate’s court a) 20 nautical miles
b) 300 nautical miles
481) The temporary release of a convicted prisoner c) 200 nautical miles.
from jail for a fixed period is called ___ d) 12 nautical miles
a) Bail
b) Parole
c) Acquittal
ANSWER
1) C 41) C 81) B
2) D 42) D 82) B
3) C 43) A 83) D
4) A 44) C 84) A
5) D 45) A 85) C
6) A 46) D 86) D
7) C 47) C 87) A
8) B 48) D 88) A
9) A 49) A 89) C
10) A 50) B 90) C
11) C 51) A 91) D
12) C 52) D 92) D
13) D 53) C 93) B
14) C 54) D 94) C
15) D 55) A 95) D
16) C 56) B 96) D
17) C 57) A 97) A
18) D 58) D 98) A
19) A 59) C 99) C
20) C 60) D 100) C
21) D 61) A 101) B
22) D 62) B 102) A
23) C 63) A 103) A
24) C 64) D 104) B
25) A 65) C 105) B
26) C 66) D 106) D
27) A 67) A 107) D
28) D 68) B 108) D
29) C 69) D 109) B
30) D 70) C 110) D
31) A 71) B 111) D
32) C 72) B 112) D
33) A 73) A 113) B
34) D 74) C 114) D
35) C 75) A 115) A
36) D 76) D 116) B
37) A 77) B 117) A
38) C 78) A 118) B
39) A 79) D 119) B
40) D 80) B 120) C
121) B 165) A 209) B
122) C 166) A 210) C
123) B 167) D 211) A
124) D 168) B 212) A
125) D 169) B 213) B
126) B 170) D 214) C
127) C 171) B 215) A
128) A 172) A 216) A
129) A 173) B 217) B
130) A 174) A 218) B
131) A 175) D 219) B
132) A 176) B 220) C
133) D 177) B 221) A
134) B 178) A 222) C
135) C 179) B 223) C
136) C 180) A 224) B
137) C 181) A 225) C
138) D 182) A 226) D
139) D 183) A 227) D
140) C 184) B 228) D
141) C 185) A 229) D
142) C 186) D 230) B
143) B 187) B 231) C
144) C 188) A 232) A
145) B 189) A 233) B
146) B 190) B 234) A
147) D 191) A 235) A
148) D 192) D 236) D
149) A 193) C 237) D
150) C 194) A 238) D
151) C 195) D 239) A
152) A 196) B 240) B
153) C 197) C 241) B
154) B 198) A 242) B
155) B 199) B 243) C
156) C 200) C 244) B
157) C 201) A 245) D
158) B 202) C 246) A
159) C 203) B 247) A
160) B 204) A 248) B
161) C 205) C 249) B
162) C 206) D 250) A
163) C 207) B 251) A
164) B 208) D 252) B
253) D 297) B
254) A 298) B
255) D 299) C
256) C 300) B
257) A 301) A
258) C 302) B
259) B 303) D
260) C 304) A
261) C 305) A
262) C 306) A
263) B 307) A
264) A 308) B
265) D 309) A
266) C 310) B
267) A 311) A
268) C 312) B
269) B 313) B
270) D 314) A
271) C 315) A
272) A 316) A
273) C 317) C
274) A
319) B
275) B
276) C
277) B
278) C
279) C
280) D
281) B
282) D
283) B
284) C
285) C
286) A 318) B
287) C
288) A
289) A
290) B
291) A 320) B
292) A
293) D
294) B
295) B
296) A
328) C
321) A
329) C
330) A
331) C 335) C
336) C
337) B
338) A
339) B
340) B
341) D
342) A
343) C
332) D
344) D
322) C
345) A
323) B
346) A
324) B
347) A
325) B
348) C
349) A
350) B
351) B
326) C
333) B
334) A
327) B
352) A
353) B
354) B
355) B
356) B
357) A
358) C
359) D
360) C
361) B
362) C
363) A 368) D 372) D
364) D 369) C 373) B
365) A 370) D
366) B 371) B
374) C
375) A
376) B
367) A
377) A
384) D
390) D
391) D
385) B
392) C
378) C
379) A 386) B
380) A
381) C
387) C
388) C
382) C 389) C
393) A
394) C
383) A
402) B
400) D
395) B
396) D
397) B 403) A
398) A
401) B
404) D
399) C
405) A
406) A
408) C
410) C
407) C
411) A
412) D
413) B
414) D
415) D
409) D 416) B
417) D
418) B
419) A
420) D
421) B
422) A
427) D
432) A
423) C
428) C
429) C
433) D
424) C 430) D
434) A
435) B
425) D
436) D
426) C
431) B
437) B
445) A
441) B
438) B
439) D
446) A
442) B
447) C
443) C
440) B
444) B
450) B
448) A
451) B
449) B
452) A
453) B
454) A
466) C
457) A
455) A
467) B
458) C
456) C
459) B
460) A 468) D
461) A 469) C
462) C 470) A
463) D 471) B
464) D 472) A
465) C 473) A
474) C 476) D
475) C 477) B
478) C
479) C
480) C
481) B
482) C
483) A
484) D
485) D
486) A

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1) Quid pro quo means 7) All innocent promises collateral to the main illegal

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