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1. Cheque bouncing cases charged U/s. 138 of d) Documents and circulars from University of
Negotiable Instruments Act is trialed by Delhi

a) Bank Tribunal 6. Section 67 of Motor Vehicle Act 1988 provides

b) Consumer Forum
a) Possession of driving licence while driving
c) Magistrate Court
d) Sessions Court b) Possession of Insurance certificate and PUC
certificate in the vehicle
2. Under Section 59 to 60 of Indian Evidence Act c) Revoking driving licence if drunk driving is
the ‘oral statement’ means detected
d) State government’s power to control the
a) All statements made before the Court by the road transport
witness
b) All statements made before the police by the 7. The term ‘Tort’ is a
accused
c) All statements of facts which a witness heard a) Latin Word
b) French Word
to say
d) All of the above c) English word
d) Italian word
3. Under the Evidence Act, ‘Court’ includes
8. In Tort, what is ‘vicarious liability’?
a) All Judges
b) All Magistrates a) A person is generally liable for his own
wrongful act
c) All Arbitrators
d) (a) and (b) b) A person is liable for the wrongful act done
by other person
4. Admissibility of contents of electronic records c) A person is liable for the wrongful act in his
may be proved in accordance with the provisions absence
d) None of the above
a) Under Section 61 of Indian Evidence Act
b) Under Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act 9. Under Section 2 (1) (f) of Consumer Protection
c) Under Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act Act 1986, ‘defect’ is meant by any fault,
d) None of the above imperfection or shortcomings in
………………………in relation to the goods
5. Which is not a public record as per the provisions
of Indian Evidence Act a) Quality and Quantity
b) Potency
a) Documents forming the acts or records of c) Purity or standard
the sovereign authority d) All of the above
b) Documents forming the acts or records of
official bodies, tribunals 10. Which of the following falls under the
c) Documents and correspondence from categories of Act of God
advocate and Notary office a) Storm and cyclone
b) Extra ordinary rainfall or flood

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c) Lightning and thunder c) 2002

d) All of the above d) 2004

11. Income Tax Act was enacted in 17. Which is the correct statement :

a) 1951 a) There can be a will without a codicil

b) 1961 b) There can be a codicil without a will
c) 1971 c) Every will has a codicil
d) None of the above d) A codicil proceeds a will

12. ‘Income’ is defined under Section 24 of the 18. As per Section 63 of Indian Succession Act, a
Income Tax Act, as Will should be attested by

a) Profits and gains a) By two witnesses

b) Dividend b) By two or more witnesses
c) Voluntary contribution received by a Trust c) Only one witness who is not a relative of
for charitable Purpose testator
d) All of the above d) None of the above

13. Provisions of Section 80 of CPC are binding on 19. ‘Iddat’ under Mohammadan law refers to

a) The High Court a) A gift made on the occasion of marriage

b) The Court of civil judge b) The right of the husband to divorce his wife
c) The district judge c) Attaining of puberty
d) All of the above d) None of the above

14. Temporary Injunction can be granted 20. Under the Christian Marriage Act the marriage
Registrar for any district is appointed by
a) Suo moto
b) Ex parte a) State government
c) Hearing both parties b) The Central government
d) None of the above c) The Clergyman of the Church
d) High Court judges
15. Right to Appeal is a
21. Which one is not a fundamental right?
a) Natural Right
b) Inherent right a) Right to Freedom of Assembly
c) Statutory right b) Right to Property
d) Delegated right c) Right to equality
d) Right to freedom of speech and Expression
16. The last amendment to the Indian Succession
Act was made in 22. In Maneka Gandhi case it was observed that

a) 2000 a) Confiscation of Passport was correct

b) 2001

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b) Right to go abroad is not within the b) Olga Tellis V/s Bombay Municipal
meaning of Article 21 Corporation
c) Right to go abroad is within the ambit of c) PV. Narasimharao V/s. Union of India
Article 19 (1) (A) but the confiscation of d) Ratlam Municipal Council V/s. Vardichand
Passport is not accordance to the law
d) None of the above 28. What is meant by Homicide ?

23. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the a) Suicide by human being not at home
right of free movement b) Suicide at home
c) Killing of a human being by another human
a) In the interest of general public being
b) In the interest of political leaders d) Killing of human being by animal
c) In the interest of women safety
d) All of the above 29. Adulteration of food or drink is a punishable
offence
24. Which of the following can claim Article 19 of
a) Under Section 274-276 of IPC
Constitution
b) Under Section 277-278 of IPC
a) A company c) Under Section 272-273 of IPC
b) A corporation d) None of the above
c) Only citizens
d) Citizens and aliens 30. Maximum punishment for waging a war against
the Government of India under IPC is
25. Clause (3) of Article 20 (i) of the Indian
Constitution says that no accused person shall be a) Rigorous imprisonment up to 5 years
compelled to be b) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years
c) Rigorous imprisonment for life term
a) An accused d) Death sentence
b) A witness
c) A witness against himself 31. Offences relating to elections are
d) Hostile witness a) Contained in the IPC as originally enacted
26. Indra Sawhney V/s Union of India is popularly b) Are introduced in the IPC by a subsequent
known as amendment
c) Are not covered by IPC
a) Judges Transfer Case d) None of the above
b) Illegal Detention case
c) Mandal Commission case 32. Rupa Bajaj V/s. KPS Gill, is a famous case which
the Supreme Court decided on
d) Constitutional case

27. Due to the outcome of this case slum dwellers a) Wrongful restraint
were benefitted b) Wrongful confinement
c) Outrage the modesty of a woman
a) N K Chanda V/s. State of Haryana d) Maintenance to the divorced women

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33. Which of the following is not of civil nature c) Section 7

d) Section 8
a) Right to take out procession
b) Right to Worship in a temple 39. The Patent Act became a law in
c) Right to Caste and Religion
a) 1970
d) All of the above
b) 1975
34. In a suit where the doctrine of res judicata c) 1996
applies d) 1966

a) The suit is liable to be dismissed 40. A Public Interest litigation can be filed under
b) The suit is liable to be stayed
c) Both (a) and (b) a) Article 226 of Constitution and Article 32
Constitution
d) None of the above
b) U/s. 133 of Criminal Procedure Code
35. Under Section 16, CPC, a suit relating to c) (a) and (b)
immovable property can be filed in a Court d) None of the above
whose local jurisdiction is
41. Supreme Court in SP Gupta V/s. Union of India
a) Where the property is situated AIR 1982, SC 149, decided
b) Where the defendant voluntarily resides or
carries on business a) Free Legal Aid
c) Both (a) and (b) b) Bonded labours
c) Judges Transfer
d) None of the above
d) Illegal detention
36. Pleading means
42. Supreme Court in a PIL known as Kamal Nath
a) Plaint and written statement case evolved,
b) Plaint only
c) Written statement a) Basic Future and Basic structure doctrine
d) Oral statement by the pleader b) Public Trust doctrine
c) Separation of power doctrine
37. On failure to file a written statement, under d) Public Interest doctrine
order VIII rule 10 of CPC the Court may
43. Vishakha v/s. State of Rajasthan case is related
a) pass any other order to
b) Order for striking off the decree
c) May pronounce the judgement at once a) Sexual harassment at workplace
d) Any of the above b) Protection of civil rights
c) Uniform civil code
38. Which Section of Specific Relief Act prohibits d) None of the above
filing a case against the Government
44. Court’s power to award compensation is
a) Section 5 provided in Specific Relief Act
b) Section 6

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a) Under Section 20 b) Preliminary

b) Under Section 21 c) Only Preliminary not final
c) (a) and (b) d) Either preliminary or final
d) None of the above
50. Foreign Judgment is defined in CPC
45. Proving of hand writing is provided in Indian
Evidence Act a) Under Section 2(6) of CPC
b) Under Section 2(7) of CPC
a) By the opinion of Experts c) Under Section 2(8) of CPC
b) By the evidence of a person who is d) None of the above
acquainted with the handwriting
c) After police verification 51. Section 2 (1) (ZB) of the Trade Mark Act 1999,
d) (a) and (b) defines the meaning of

46. Section 26 of Indian Evidence Act provides a) Licence

b) Trade Mark
a) No confession made by a person in police c) Registration
custody is admissible d) Cancellation
b) Confession made by a person in police
custody is admissible 52. Outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable
c) Confession made in the immediate under IPC
presence of a magistrate is admissible a) Section 376 (a)
d) (a) and (c) b) Section 376 (b)
c) Section 354
47. The term ‘Evidence’ means and includes d) Section 498
a) Oral evidence 53. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the
b) Documentary evidence crime of
c) Electronic records produced for the
inspection of the Court a) House breaking
d) All of the above b) Dishonest misappropriation of property
c) Forgery
48. Which is the authority that determines the d) Forgery with cheating
language of the Court other than High Court
within a given State, under Section 271 of Cr.PC 54. Criminal intimidation is explained in IPC under

a) State government a) Section 503 to 506

b) Central government b) Section 509 to 516
c) Supreme Court of India c) Section 319 to 329
d) (a) and (b) d) None of the above

55. The case Krishna Gopal V/s State of MP relates

49. A decree can be
to
a) Final

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a) Water pollution a) Insurance certificate

b) Air and water pollution b) Medical examination
c) Noise and air pollution c) Medical Certificate
d) Water and noise pollution d) (b) and (c)

56. What is the punishment for advocates if the 61. Section 23 of Workmen Compensation Act
established finding of the Bar Council is 1923 says that the Commissioner shall have the
misappropriation power of

a) Impose a fine a) A Court

b) Name of the advocate will be struck off b) A Tribunal
from the Rolls c) A quasi judicial form
c) Suspension from practice d) All of the above
d) All of the above
62. The objective of the Industrial Dispute Act 1947
57. On being aggrieved by the order of State Bar is
Council, one can appeal to
a) Industrial peace and economic justice
a) High Court b) To create harmonious relation between
b) Supreme Court employer and employee
c) Bar Council of India c) To prevent illegal strike or lockout etc.,
d) Indian Law Commission d) All of the above

58. Which Section of Advocates Act provides 63. Section 2 (q) of Industrial Dispute Act 1947
punishment for misconduct of advocates provides the definition of

a) Section 29 a) Lock Out

b) Section 35 b) Lay Off
c) Section 37 c) Strike
d) All of the above d) Hartal

59. Section 24 of Advocate Act deals with

64. The Land Acquisition Act came into force from
a) Qualification of advocates who should be a) 1st March 1955
enrolled in the bar b) 1st March 1986
b) Qualification to become the Advocate c) 1st March 1994
General d) 1st March 1894
c) Qualification to become the Solicitor
General of India 65. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the ‘arable
d) (b) and (c) land’ means

60. Under the Workmen’s Compensation Act, a) Useful for residential purpose
which is helpful decide the extent of injury for b) Useful for commercial purpose
compensation c) Useful for cultivation

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d) Useful for industrial purpose c) Section 2 (c) of Cr. Pc

d) Section 20 of IPC
66. The provision of establishing Public Service
Commission is made under 72. Under Section 21 of Cr.PC Special Executive
Magistrate may be appointed by
a) Article 310
b) Article 315 a) Central Government
c) Article 320 b) High Court
d) Article 325 c) Supreme Court
d) State Government
67. Right to Personal liberty includes
73. Police may carry out personal search on an
a) Right against custodial violence arrested person,
b) Right of under trials to separate them from
convicted a) U/s 49 Cr.PC
c) Right against Public hanging b) U/s. 50 Cr.PC
d) All of the above c) U/s. 51 Cr.PC
d) U/s. 52 Cr.PC
68. The Supreme Commander of the Defence Force
of India is 74. The Special Court is

a) President a) Not subordinate to High Court

b) Prime Minister b) Superior to High Court
c) The Defence Minister c) Supplement to High Court
d) Chief Marshal d) Equal to Supreme Court

69. Retirement age of Supreme Court Judges is 75. The powers under Section 159 of Cr.PC can be
exercised by a Magistrate
a) 62 years
b) 60 years a) When the police decides not to investigate
c) 58 years the case
d) 65 years b) When the investigation is still going on
c) Both (a) and (b)
70. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of d) None of the above
a) Concurrent list 76. Statement recorded during investigation U/s.
b) State list 161 can be used in trial
c) Union list
d) None of the above a) For contradicting the witness
b) For corroborating the witness
71. Bailable and Non-Bailable offence has been c) Incorporating in the charge sheet
defined in d) Discharging the accused
a) Section 2 ( a) of Cr.PC
b) Section 2 (b) of Cr. Pc

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77. Power of taking cognizance of offence by a 82. Within the purview of Water Act, the meaning
Magistrate of First class or second class is of Stream is defined as
provided
a) Includes a river but not a water course
a) Under Section 173 0f Criminal Procedure b) Includes a water course but not a river
Code c) Includes river and water course , but not
b) Under Section 190 of Criminal Procedure subterranean waters
Code d) Includes a river, a water course and
c) Under Section 190 of Indian Penal Code subterranean river
d) None of the above
83. The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from
78. Additions or alteration of charges is provided in a) French administration
Cr. PC b) British Administration
a) U/s. 214 c) Swedish Administration
b) U/s. 215 d) German Administration
c) U/s. 216 84. Under Section 3 of the Commission of Inquiry
d) U/s.210 Act 1952, an Inquiry Commission is appointed by
79. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance a) Central government or State government
Act, the person who is taken in adoption b) Union Public Service Commission
a) Must be a Hindu only c) State Public commission
b) A Hindu or Jew d) Supreme Court of India
c) May be Hindu or Christian
d) None of the above 85. Information Technology Act was enacted in

80. Polygamy was permitted for Hindus before the a) 1988

year b) 1996
c) 2000
a) 1956 d) 2004
b) 1954
c) 1955 86. Government of India passed Information
d) 1978 Technology Act in 2000 with objective

81. Mohan gets married to his sister’s daughter a) To provide legal sanction to all transaction
Kriti for e-commerce
b) To facilitate electronic filing of all
a) The marriage is valid if the custom allows it documents to the government
b) The marriage is void c) To amend Indian Penal Code, Indian
c) The marriage is valid only if the Court Evidence Act, to punish the cyber crimes
approves it d) All of the above
d) The marriage is valid only the Panchayat
permits

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87. The Minimum number of persons required to d) Surety

incorporate a Public Company is
93. Which is not a right of an unpaid seller against
a) 5 the goods
b) 10
a) Lien
c) 7
d) 2 b) Stoppage in transit
c) Right of resale
88. A Private company can commence business as d) To ascertain price
soon as it receives
94. Sections 36 to 42 of Specific Relief Act provides
a) Certification of incorporation
b) Letter of intent a) Injunctions
b) Court’s discretion on specific performance
c) Occupation certificate
d) None of the above c) Cancellation of instruments
d) None of the above
89. Which of the following is not an essential of a
Contract of Guarantee 95. Section 154 under IT Act is

a) Concurrence of three parties a) For filing return of Income

b) Surety’s distinct promise to be answerable b) For filing return with late fee
c) Liabilities to be legally enforceable c) Rectification of mistakes
d) Existence of only one contract d) Appeal against the order passed by the ITO

90. The term ‘Agent’ is defined in Indian Contract

Act under Section 96. Which of the following is not included in the
Capital Asset under Section 2 (14) of Income Tax
a) 180 of the Act Act,
b) 181 of the Act
c) 182 of the Act a) Any stock in Trade
d) 183 of the Act b) Special Bearer Bonds 1991 issued by Central
Government
91. What is the maximum number of partners in c) (a) and ( b)
Banking business d) None of the above

a) Eight
97. The language which is to be used in the arbitral
b) Ten proceedings is decided by
c) Twelve
d) Sixteen a) The Tribunal
b) Parties to decide by mutual understanding
92. A person who gives the guarantee is called c) The petitioner
a) Bailee d) The Defendant
b) Creditor 98. The Arbitral proceeding shall stand terminated
c) Debtor

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a) On making of the final award

b) By an order of the arbitral tribunal
c) When the parties to the dispute agrees to
terminate proceedings
d) All of the above

99. Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a

a) Order of district collector

b) Order of Income Tax Commissioner
c) Decree of a Civil Court
d) (a) and (b)

100. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996,

Section 18-27 states

a) The Conducting of Arbitral Proceedings

b) Receipt and Written Communications
c) Extent of judicial intervention
d) Awarding final decision

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