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NEET MOCK TEST 2-

BIOLOGY
This Paper “NEET Mock Test 2- Biology ” is taken from our Book:

ISBN : 9789386629234

Product Name : Target NEET 2018 (2012-17 Solved Papers + 10 Mock Papers)
Product Description : Table of Contents:
NEET 2017 Solved Paper
NEET 2016 Solved Paper
AIPMT 2015 Retest Solved Paper
AIPMT 2015 Solved Paper
AIPMT 2014 Solved Paper
NEET 2013 Solved Paper
NEET Karnataka 2013 Solved Paper
AIPMT 2012 Solved Paper (Screening + Mains) with Solutions
Practice Mock Tests
Full Test -1 Full Test -2 Full Test - 3 Full Test - 4 Full Test - 5 Full Test - 6 Full Test - 7
Full Test - 8
Full Test - 9
Full Test - 10
Solutions to Mock Tests 1 to 10
2
PART C – BIOLOGY (1) I and II only (2) I and V only
(3) II and III only (4) II and IV only
DIRECTIONS : There are 90 multiple choice questions numbered
95. FAD is electron acceptor in the citric acid cycle during the
91 to 180. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of
oxidation of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
(1) Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
91. Select the correct statement (2) Succinic acid to malic acid
(1) Phosphorus cycle is an example of gaseous nutrient (3) Citric acid to alpha-ketoglutaric acid
cycle
(4) Alpha-ketoglutaric acid to succinic acid
(2) The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted
96. Match the Column I with that of Column II and choose the
(3) By the process of humification, soluble inorganic
nutrients go down into the soil horizon correct combination from the options given
(4) A given organism may not occupy more than one
trophic level simultaneously Column I - Essential Column II -
92. Select the wrong statement elements Deficiency causes
(1) Human insulin is being commercially produced from a A. N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, I. Inhibit cell division
transgenic species of Escherichia coli Zn, and Mo
B. N, K, S and Mo II. Necrosis
(2) Bt toxin genes Cry 1 Ac control the corn borer
C.
(3) Human protein, alpha-1 -antitrypsin is used to treat Ca, Mg, Cu and K III. Delay in flowering
emphysema
D.
(4) The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced alpha N, S and Mo IV. Chlorosis
lactalbumin, enriched milk
93. Consider the following statements with respect to (1) A–IV ; B–III ; C–II; D–I
angiosperms
(2) A–I ; B–II ; C–III; D–IV
(1) The male sex organ in a flower is the stamen
(3) A–IV ; B–I ; C–II; D–III
(2) The anthers following mitosis produce pollen grains
(4) A–II ; B–III ; C–IV; D–I
(3) In an embryosac, the primary endosperm nucleus
(PEN) is diploid 97. DNA replicates semi-conservatively was first shown in
(4) After double fertilization the ovules develop into seeds (1) Vicia faba
and ovaries develop into fruit. (2) E. coli
Of the above statements (3) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(1) (3) and (4) are correct (4) Drosophila
(2) (1) and (2) are correct 98. The precursor of eukaryotic mRNA is
(3) (1) and (3) are correct (1) hnRNA (2) tRNA
(4) (1) and (4) are correct (3) rRNA (4) snRNA
94. Which of the following secondary metabolites belong to 99. The entry of food into the larynx is prevented by
the group drugs? (1) Mitral valve (2) Diaphragm
I. Morphine II. Curcumin III. Codeine IV . Vinblastine (3) Epiglottis (4) Hyoid
V. Abrin

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100. Covered smut of barley is caused by (1) A-Diplotene (2) A-Diplotene
(1) Ustilago hordei B-Formation B-Dissolution
(2) Tilletia caries C-Pachytene C-Pachytene
(3) Ustilago nuda D-Anaphase-I D-Anaphase-II
(4) Colletotrichum falcatum
(3) A-Diplotene (4) A-Pachytene
101. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
B-Dissolution B-Dissolution
(1) Anabaena - Cyanobacteria
C-Diakinesis C-Diplotene
(2) Amoeba - Protozoa
(3) Gonyaulax - Dinoflagellates D-Anaphase-I D-Diakinesis
(4) Albugo - Chrysophytes 108. Match the following w.r.t. shape of chromosome at anaphase
102. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents of mitosis
(1) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed Column - I Column - II
(2) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored A. Acrocentric I. I-shaped
after pollination B. Sub-metacentric II. J-shaped
(3) an opening in the mega gametophyte through which C. Telocentric III. V-shaped
the pollen tube approaches the egg D. Metacentric IV. L-shaped
(4) the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop (1) A–II ; B–I ; C–III; D–IV
103. Iodine is obtained from (2) A–I ; B–II ; C–III; D–IV
(1) Laminaria (2) Chlorella (3) A–II ; B–III ; C–IV; D–I
(3) Polysiphonia (4) Porphyra (4) A–II ; B–IV ; C–I; D–III
104. Secondary body cavity with segmented mesodermal lining 109. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option.
is called (i) According to most accepted model of ascent of sap,
(1) haemocoel (2) neurocoel water column is (i) in xylem.
(3) true coelom (4) pseudocoelom (ii) Loss of water in liquid phase from leaf tips is known as
105. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in (ii) .
(1) house lizard (2) flying fish (iii) Water is absorbed along with mineral solutes by the
(3) pigeon (4) tadpole of frog (iii) purely by diffusion.
106. Mark the correct statement for monosaccharides. (1) (i) Pulled, (ii) Guttation, (iii) Root hair
(1) Monosaccharides with 5 carbon atoms are smallest (2) (ii) Transpiration, (iii) Root nodules, (i) Root hair
carbohydrates
(3) (i) Pushed, (ii) Transpiration, (iii) Pulled
(2) Pentose sugar ribose is rarely found in animal cells
(4) (ii) Guttation, (iii) Root cap, (i) pushed
(3) All hexoses are aldoses except fructose
110. Cyanide blocks respiratory pathway between
(4) The most important sugar occurring in animals is
(1) Complex III and IV
cellulose
107. Fill in the blanks and select the correct option w.r.t. Meiosis. (2) Complex II and III
I. The beginning of A is recognized by the B of the (3) Complex I and II
synaptonemal complex. (4) Complex IV and O2
II. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes is 111. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. protein synthesis.
completed by the end of C . (1) m RNA – Codons
III. D begins with simultaneous splitting of the (2) r RNA – Catalytic role during translation
centromere of each chromosome. (3) UTR – Only at 3' end
(4) t RNA – Transfers amino acids

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112. Interferons are glycoproteins which are ______ and are 118. Key evolutionary advances of the flatworms are bilateral
considered to be a part of ______ symmetry and
(1) Anti-fungal, second line of defence (1) a one-way digestive tract
(2) Anti-viral, physiological barriers (2) a body cavity
(3) Anti-viral, non specific immunity (3) Internal organs
(4) Anti-viral, specific immunity (4) Intracellular digestion
113. In plant breeding programme, which of the following process 119. Type of venation in cucumber and banana is respectively
is crucial to the success of the breeding objective and (1) reticulate and furcate
requires careful scientific evaluation of the progeny? (2) reticulate and parallel
(1) Cross hybridisation (3) parallel and reticulate
(2) Testing release and commercialisation of new cultivars (4) furcate and parallel
(3) Collection of plants 120. A. The vascular bundles are absent in veins
(4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants B. The veins vary in thickness in the reticulate venation
114. Ganga Action Plan was initiated by
of the dicot leaves
(1) Ministry of Environment and Forests
C. Spongy parenchyma is located on adaxial surface of
(2) South Asia Co-operative Environment Programme
monocot leaf
(3) United Nations Environment Programme
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(4) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
115. Consider the following four statements (A–D) related to (1) A & C are correct
organic farming and select the correct option stating true (2) B & C are incorrect
(T) and false (F). The statements are (3) Only C is incorrect
A. Uses chemical fertilizers containing organic (4) Only B is correct
compounds only 121. Choose the wrong statement regarding urine formation
B. Produces food crops rich in organic compounds but (1) Filtration is non-selective process performed by
poor in minerals glomerulus
C. No need to use chemical fertilizers and pesticides (2) The glomerular capillary blood pressure causes
D. Use biofertilizers that enrich the nutrient quality in the filtration of blood through three layers
soil. (3) GFR in a healthy individual is approximately
A B C D 125 ml/min
(1) F F F T (4) The ascending limb of the Henle's loop is permeable
(2) T F T F to water but allows transport of electrolytes actively
(3) F F T T or passively
(4) F T T T
122. The skeletal muscle fibre is a 'syncytium', which means it is
116. The mode of nutrition present in Euglena is referred to as
(1) Osmotrophy (2) Mixotrophy (1) multinucleated
(3) Phototrophy (4) Chemotrophy (2) made up of many proteins
117. Which one of the following feature/event in pteridophytes (3) long and slender
is a precursor to the seed habit that considered an important (4) swollen in the middle with tapered ends
step in evolution? 123. The projecting ridge in ampulla of semi-circular canals in
(1) Steler system ear is called
(2) Oogamous reproduction (1) Succus entericus (2) Maccula
(3) Development of cone (3) Otolith (4) Crista ampullaris
(4) Heterospory

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124. Function of the somatostatin is to (1) (a) and (c) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(1) stimulate pituitary synthesis and release (3) (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only
gonadotropins 130. Match the protein with its function and choose the right
(2) inhibit the release of gonadotropins from pituitary option.
(3) stimulate pituitary and promotes the secretion of Protein Function
growth hormone (A) Collagen (i) Glucose transport
(B) Trypsin (ii) Hormone
(4) inhibit the release of growth hormone from the pituitary
(C) Insulin (iii) Intercellular ground
125. Which of the following statements regarding cyclic flow of
electrons during light reactions is false? substance
(1) This process takes place in the stromal lamella (D) GLUT-4 (iv) Enzyme
(2) ATP synthesis takes place (1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) NADPH + H+ is synthesized (2) A-(iv), B- (i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) Takes place only when light of wavelength beyond (3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
680 nm is available for excitation (4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
126. The term ‘keel’ is used for special type of 131. Select the matched ones.
(1) sepals (2) petals (i) Guttation - water loss in its liquid phase
(3) stamens (4) carpels (ii) Adhesion - mutual attraction between water molecules
127. In dicotyledonous roots, the initiation of lateral roots takes (iii) Imbibition - absorption of water by dry wood
place in
(iv) Hypotonic solution - cells shrink
(1) endodermal cells (2) cortical cells
(3) epidermal cells (4) pericycle cells. (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
128. Read the following statements and choose the correct (2) (ii) and (iv) only
option. (3) (i) and (iii) only
A. Blood cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
collagen or elastin. 132. Find out the correct option w.r.t. the human dentition.
B. Neuroglial cells protect and support the nephrons. (1) Ameloblasts – Secrete the major portion of tooth, i.e.,
C. Osteocytes are present in spaces called lacunae. enamel
D. Striated muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel (2) Odontoblast – ectodermal in origin
fashion. (3) Enamel – soft living tissue of the body
E. Biceps are involuntary and striated. (4) Crown – Forms the hard chewing surface of the teeth,
(1) C and D alone are wrong helps in mastication of food
(2) B and D alone are wrong
133. The ejection of stomach contents through the mouth is
(3) A and C alone are wrong
controlled by neural centres present in
(4) A, B and E alone are wrong
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
129. Select the matched ones.
(3) Pons (4) Medulla
(a) Amyloplasts - store proteins
134. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle is mostly due
(b) Mitochondrion - ‘powerhouse’ of the cell
to genetic disorder of
(c) Stroma - chlorophyll pigment
(1) Tetany (2) Gouty arthritis
(d) Axoneme - 9 + 2 array
(3) Myasthenia gravis (4) Muscular dystrophy

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135. Which of the pair is not a correct match? 142. Choose odd w.r.t. collenchyma.
(1) Iris – Accommodation (1) Found in hypodermis of dicot stem
(2) Retina – Screen to form image (2) Living mechanical tissue
(3) Scotopic vision – Rods (3) Absent in monocots
(4) Ciliary body – Form aqueous humour
(4) Thickening of wall is due to deposition of cellulose
136. Cortisol is
and lignin
A. Anti-inflammatory hormone
143. How many given below meristems are examples of lateral
B. Stress hormone
meristems?
C. Immunosuppressive hormone
D. Hyperglycaemic hormone Cylindrical meristems, Apical meristem, Fasciular meristem,
(1) Only A, B and C are correct Axillary meristem, Interfascicular cambium, Intercalary
(2) A, B, C and D are correct meristem and Cork cambium.
(3) Only A is correct (1) Three (2) Four
(4) Only A and B are correct (3) Five (4) Six
137. During biofortification, breeding for improved nutritional 144. One hormone hastens the maturity period in juvenile
quality is undertaken with objective of improving all, except conifers, a second hormone controls xylem differentiation
(1) Micronutrient content while the third increases the tolerance of plants to various
(2) Protein quality stresses and they are respectively
(3) Vitamin quality (1) Auxin, Gibberellin and Cytokinin
(4) Oil quality (2) Gibberellin, Auxin and Cytokinin
138. Technique used to transfer ssDNA from gel to nitrocellulose
membrane is called as (3) Gibberellin, Auxin and Ethylene
(1) Northern blotting (4) Gibberellin, Auxin and ABA
(2) Western blotting 145. The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year between
(3) Southern blotting (1) Late December and early February
(4) Gel electrophoresis (2) Late February and early April
139. Micro-injection is a method used to
(3) Late April and early June
(1) produce sticky ends of DNA
(2) provide protection against pathogen (4) Late August and early October
(3) purify the DNA 146. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option
(4) inject recombinant DNA into the nucleus of an animal Column I Column II
cell
A. Ascomycetes I. Ustilago
140. The sticky ends of a fragmented DNA molecule are made of
(1) calcium salts (2) endonuclease enzyme B. Phycomycetes II. Saccharomyces
(3) unpaired bases (4) methyl groups C. Basidiomycetes III. Trichoderma
141. Which of the following is required to perform polymerase D. Deuteromycetes IV. Albugo
chain reaction?
(1) A–II ; B–I ; C–IV; D–III
(1) Primers, dNTPs and DNA polymerase
(2) DNA, CaCl2 and nuclease (2) A–IV ; B–III ; C–II; D–I
(3) Mg+2, DNA (3) A–II ; B–IV ; C–I; D–III
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) A–III ; B–IV ; C–I; D–II

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147. Which of the following are heterosporous pteridophytes? B. plant grown from II. Micropropagation
I. Lycopodium II. Selaginella hybrid protoplast
C. producing a large III. Somaclone
III. Equisetum IV. Salvinia
number of plants
(1) I and Il only (2) II and III only through tissue culture
(3) II and IV only (4) II and IV only D. capacity to generate IV. Somatic hybrid
148. If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at a whole plant from
high frequency, it is referred as an explant
(1) DNA polymorphism E. Plants genetically V. Biofortification
(2) Expressed sequence tag identical to the
original plant
(3) Sequence annotation
(1) A – V; B – IV; C – II; D – I; E–III
(4) Linkage (2) A – I; B – III; C – V; D – IV; E–II
149. To generate pressure gradients to facilitate expiration and (3) A – V; B – II; C – I; D – IV; E–III
inspiration, the human body uses the intercostal muscles (4) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – IV; E–II
and 153. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct
(1) alveolar sacs answer.
(2) bronchi Column I Column II
(3) primary, secondary and tertiary bronchioles A. Sponges I. Incomplete digestive
(4) diaphragm system
150. Identify the correct statement regarding cardiac activity B. Coelenterates II. Cellular level of
(1) Normal activities of the human heart is regulated organization
intrinsically hence it is neurogenic C. Annelids III. Radial symmetry
(2) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can D. Platyhelminthes IV. Pseudocoelomate
moderate the cardiac function through the CNS E. I Aschelminthes V. Metamerism
(3) Parasympathetic neural signals increase the rate of (1) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E–V
heart beat (2) A – V; B – III; C – IV; D – I; E–II
(4) Adrenal medullary hormones can increase cardiac (3) A – II; B – III; C – V; D – I; E–IV
output (4) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E–V
151. Find the wrongly matched pair 154. Choose the wrong statement
(1) Endemism - species confined to one (1) In grasshopper, besides autosomes males have only
region and not foun d
one X-chromosome, whereas females have a pair of X-
anywhere else
chromosomes
(2) in situ conservation - IVF D
(3) Alien species to India - Clarias gariepinus (2) In XY type of sex determination, both males and females
(4) Lungs of the planet - Amazon Rain Forest have same number of chromosomes
152. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct (3) In Drosophila, males have one X and one Y
option. chromosome, whereas females have a pair of X-
Column I Column II chromosome besides autosomes
A. breeding crops with I. Totipotency (4) In birds, females have one Z and one W chromosomes,
higher levels of whereas males have a pair of Z chromosomes besides
nutrients autosomes

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155. Secretion of pancreatic juice is stimulated by 161. Match list I with list II and choose the correct answer
(1) gastrin (2) secretin List I List II
(3) enterogasteron (4) enterokinase A. Hypothalamus I. Sperm lysins
156. Choose the correct statement B. Acrosome II. Estrogen
(1) Non myelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal and C. Graafian follicle III. Relaxin
cranial nerves. D. Leydig cells IV. GnRH
(2) Retina has multipolar neurons. E. Parturition V. Testosterone
(3) Electrical synapses are commonly present in humans.
(1) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III, E – V
(4) Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is
(2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III, E – V
faster than across a chemical synapse.
(3) A – II, B – I, C – V, D – IV, E – III
157. Which of the following hormones have antagonistic
(4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – V, E – III
(opposing) effects?
162. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Thyroxine and calcitonin
(1) Osmoconformers are able to maintain osmotic
(2) Insulin and glucagon
(3) Growth hormone and epinephrine concentration of their cells by either physiological or
(4) ACTH and glucocorticoids behavioural means.
158. Number of chromosomes in an angiospermic plant is 14, (2) Most vertebrates, except the birds and mammals are
then the number of chromosomes in synergid cells will be unable to thermoregulate.
(1) 14 (2) 7 (3) Success of mammals is mainly due to their ability to
(3) 28 (4) 21 thermoregulate and live comfortably whether they are
159. Match the items in column I with those in column II and in Antarctica or in Sahara desert.
chose the correct answer. (4) None of these
Column I Column II
A. Small opening of ovule I. Funicle 163. Archaebacteria that flourish in temperature above 100°C
B. Stalk of ovule II. Integuments have special _______ molecules that do not coagulate at
C. Protective envelopes III. Chalaza high temperatures and remain functional.
of ovule (1) carbohydrate (2) ester
D. Junction part of ovule IV Hilum (3) protein (4) fat
164. The age structure of a population influences population
and stalk
growth because
E. Basal part of the ovule V. Micropyle
(1) younger females have more offsprings than do older
(1) A – V; B – I; C – II; D – IV; E–III
females
(2) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV; E–V
(2) different age groups have different reproductive
(3) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV; E–V
capabilities
(4) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – II; E–III (3) more is the number of immature individuals, slower is
160. During embryonic development endoskeleton and muscle the growth of population
develop from which germinal layer?
(4) a shorter generation time results in slower population
(1) Ectoderm (2) Endoderm
growth
(3) Mesoderm (4) Blastopore

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165. The following figure given below is a diagrammatic 169. Read the statements regarding echinoderms and choose
representation of organismic response to abiotic the correct option
factors. What do (1), (2) and (3) represent respectively? (a) All are marine with organ system level of organisation
(b) Adults are bilaterally symmetrical
(C) (c) They are dioecious
(B) (d) Fertilisation is internal and indirect development is
Internal level

observed
(e) Triploblastic and acoelomate animals
(A)
(1) (a) and (c) are correct
(2) (e) alone is correct
(3) (a), (c) and (e) are correct
(4) (a) and (e) are correct
External level
170. The number of cells in mature female and male gametophyte
(1) (A) Conformers (B) Regulators (C) Partial regulators in angiosperms is ______ and ______ respectively.
(1) 8, 1 (2) 7, 4
(2) (A) Regulators (B) Partial regulators (C)Conformers
(3) 7, 3 (4) 8, 2
(3) (A) Partial regulators (B) Regulators (C) Conformers 171. Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental
(4) (A) Partial regulators (B) Conformers (C) Regulators sequence in flowering plants.
166. The hormone releasing IUD is A. Sperms B. Heart-shaped embryo
(1) LNG 20 C. Syngamy D. Microspore mother cell
(2) Lippes loop E. Sporic meiosis F Globular embryo
(3) CuT (1) E, D, A, C, F, B (2) D, E, A, C, F, B
(3) D, E, A, C, B, F (4) E, D, A, C, B, F
(4) Multiload 375
172. The most common mode of entry of pollen tube into ovule is
167. Read the statements regarding a stable community and (1) Chalazogamy (2) Xenogamy
choose the correct option (3) Porogamy (4) Basigamy
(a) must be resistant to occasional disturbances 173. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(b) should show much variation in productivity from year (1) AIH – Semen collected from donor is artificially
to year introduced into vagina or uterus of female.
(c) must be resistant to invasions by alien species (2) IVF – Fertilisation takes place outside female's body in
a dish in a laboratory.
(1) (a) and (b) are correct
(3) ZIFT – Embryo upto 8 blastomeres is transferred into
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct fallopian tube
(3) (a) only is correct (4) GIFT – Ovum collected from donor is transferred into
(4) (a) and (c) are correct another female
168. The cytokine barrier among these is 174. During parturition
(1) Polymorphonuclear neutrophil (1) There is increase in estrogen to progesterone ratio
(2) Monocyte (2) Prostaglandin level falls
(3) Relaxin promotes contraction of uterine muscles
(3) NK cell
(4) Cervical mucus plug strengthens by progesterone
(4) Interferon activity

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175. Match the columns and select correct option. 178. Unwinding of DNA creates tension which is released by
Column - I Column - II enzyme
A. Down's syndrome I. Holandric trait (1) Pyrophosphatase (2) Primase
B. Porcupine skin II. Autosomal recessive (3) Helicase (4) Topoisomerase
C. Alkaptonuria III. X-linked trait 179. Consider the following statements regarding transformation
D. Haemophilia IV. Trisomy experiment
(1) A– IV ; B – I; C– II; D – III A. DNAase inhibits transformation
(2) A– III ; B – IV; C– II; D – I B. It proved that DNA is the genetic material in virus
(3) A– III ; B – II; C– IV; D – I C. Avery, MacLeod and MacCarty used protease,
(4) A– I ; B – II; C– III; D – IV RNAase and DNAse enzymes
176. Choose the odd option w.r.t. sickle cell anaemia. D. It was performed on Streptococcus pneumoniae by
(1) It is a result of transversion F. Griffith
(2) Heterozygous (HbA HbS) are carrier of the disease (1) B & D (2) Only A
(3) It is due to point mutation (3) A, C & D (4) A, B & C
(4) GTG in the coding strand is replaced by GAG 180. Match the columns and choose the correct combination
177. Normal visioned male marries a carrier female for colour Column - I Column - II
blindness then A. Non sense codon I. UUU
(1) All sons will be colour blind, daughters will be normal. B. Ambiguous codon II. UGG
(2) 50% daughters are colour blind carriers. C. Codon for tryptophan III. GUG
(3) Both the sons and daughters will be colour blind. D. Phenylalanine codon IV. UAG
(4) A male offspring has 50% chance of active disease. (1) A– II ; B – III; C– IV; D – I
(2) A– II ; B – III; C– I; D – IV
(3) A– IV ; B – III; C– II; D – I
(4) A– IV ; B – III; C– I; D – II
11

Hints and Solutions


PART C – BIOLOGY (iii) Root hair
91. (2) Phosphorus cycle is an example of sedimentary cycle. 110. (4) Cyanide inhibits terminal electron transfer to O2
Pyramid of biomass of aquatic ecosystem is inverted. complex IV
If decomposition leads to the formation of colloidal 111. (3) UTRs are found at both 3’ and 5’ ends.
organic matter (humus), the process is called 112. (3) Interferons are released as cytokine barriers under non-
humification. Simple food chains are very rare in nature. specific immunity.
This is because each organism may obtain food from 113. (4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants require
more than one trophic level. scientific evaluation of the progeny.
92. (2) The proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac and cry II 114. (1) Ganga Action plan was initiated by ministry of
Ab control the cotton bollworms, that of cry I Ab Environment and forests.
controls corn borer. 115. (3)
93. (4) The anthers following meiosis produces pollen grains. 116. (2) Mixotrophy is the mode of nutrition which includes
In an embryosac, the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) both phototrophy and heterotrophy.
is triploid. 117. (4) Gymnosperms and angiosperms are seed producing
plants.
94. (4) Curcumin and vinblastine are secondary metabolites
118. (3) Internal organs are formed for the first time in
that belong to drugs. Morphine and codeine belong
platyhelminthes. They have blind sac type of body
to alkaloids and abrin belongs to toxins.
plan with two way digestion.
95. (2) FAD is an electron acceptor in TCA cycle during
119. (2)
oxidation of succinic acid to malic acid. 120. (4) The vascular bundles are present in veins.
96. (3) 121. (5) The ascending limb of Henle's loop is non-permeable
97. (2) Experimental evidences of DNA replication is carried to water.
in E.coli. 122. (1) Multinucleated animal cells are known as syncytium.
98. (1) The RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of 123. (4) Crista ampullaris possess hair cells.
mRNA,the heterogenous nuclear RNA (hnRNA). 124. (4) Somatostatin from the hypothalamus inhibits the
99. (3) Epiglottis is a cartilaginous flap of glottis. release of growth hormone from the pituitary.
100. (1) 125. (3) NADPH + H+ never formed in cyclic reaction.
101. (4) Albugo is the parasitic fungi which is found on
126. (2) A keel is a structure of the papilionaceous type of
mustard. It is the member of phycomycetes that are
flower, made up of two petals loosely united along
found in aquatic habitats and on decaying wood in
their edges.
moist and damp places.
127. (4) Initiation of lateral roots during secondary growth takes
102. (4) The fertile region of microsporophyll bears a number
place in the pericycle.
of microsporangia or pollen sacs arranged in sori. The
128. (4) Collagen and elastin are structural proteins present in
pollen chamber represents microsporangium in which
white collagen fibres and yellow elastic fibres
pollen grains develop.
respectively, which are connective tissue fibres.
103. (1) Iodine is extracted from brown algae, laminaria which
Collagen fibres are present in white fibrous connective
is also known as Kelps.
tissue. Yellow elastic fibres are present in yellow elastic
104. (3) The body cavity which is lined by mesoderm is called
connective tissue.
coelom. Animals possessing coelom are called
Neuroglia cells are specialized cells found in the brain
coelomates, e.g., annelids, molluscs, arthropods,
and spinal cord supporting the neurons and their fibres.
echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.
The muscles of biceps are voluntary and striated.
105. (3) In class Aves, endoskeleton is almost completely
129. (4) Amyloplasts store carbohydrates (starch), e.g., potato
ossified. Bones are spongy or pneumatic. Long bones
whereas proteins are stored by aleuroplasts.
are hollow with air cavities.
chlorophyll pigments are presents in the thylakoid.
106. (3) Monosaccharides are simple sugars that have 3-7
130. (1)
carbon atoms. Pentose sugar ribose is found in RNA.
131. (3) Cohesion is the mutual attraction between water
Most important sugar occuring in animals is glucose.
molecules whereas adhesion is the attraction of water
107. (2) A = Diplotene
molecules to polar surfaces (such as the surface of
B = Dissolution
tracheary elements). Cell swell in hypotonic solutions
C = Pachytene
and shrink in hypertonic ones.
D = Anaphase-II
132. (1) Ameloblasts secrete enamel and enamel forms the hard
108. (4) A–II ; B–IV ; C–I; D–III
chewing surface which is present only in the crown
109. (1) (i) Pulled
part.
(ii) Guttation
12
133. (4) Ejection of stomach contents, i.e., food, through the grasshoppers etc. Here, the females have two sex
mouth is known as vomiting. This process is controlled chromosome XX, while the males have only one sex
by the neural centre present in ‘medulla’. chromosome X. There is no second sex chromosome.
134. (4) Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder in which Females show homogamety and produce all X
there is continuous weakness and breakdown of containing eggs while males show heterogamety and
skeletal muscles. produce both X containing sperms and sperms without
135. (1) Ciliary body muscle, lens and suspensory ligament sex chromosomes.
are associated with accommodation. 155. (2) Pancreatic juice is secreted from aciner cells of exocrine
136. (2) Cortisol is a gluco-corticoid, steroid, anti-inflammatory, part of pancreas. Its secretion is stimulated by secretin
immunosuppressive, stress hormone produced by and cholecystokinin (CCK) hormones. Secretin
adrenal gland. increases the amount of bicarbonates (fluid) in
137. (3) During biofortification vitamin content is the objective pancreatic juice.
undertaken for improvement. 156. (4) Myelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal and cranial
138. (3) Southern blotting nerves. Retina has bipolar neurons with one axon and
139. (4) Micro-injection method is the direct or vectorless one dendrite. Electrical synapses are rarely present in
method of gene transfer, in which foreign DNA is human. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is
directly injected into the nucleus of animal cell or plant high permeable to K+ ions as compare to Na+ ions. As
cell by using micro needles or micro pipettes. It is used a result, it contains low concentration of Na+.
in oocytes, eggs and embryo. 157. (2) Insulin lowers blood sugar levels, while Glucagon
140. (3) The single-stranded free ends that project from each raises blood sugar levels.
fragment of DNA duplex are unpaired bases and are 158. (2) Synergid cell is haploid (n). If angiosperm plant is 2n =
known as "sticky ends". Sticky ends can join with 14, then n = 7.
similar complementary ends of DNA fragment from 159. (1)
some other sources. 160. (3) The germ layer mesoderm forms in the embryos of animals
141. (4) Polymerase chain reaction is a technique used to more complex than cnidarians, making them triploblastic.
replicate a fragment of DNA so as to produce many Mesoderm forms during gastrulation when some of the
copies of a particular DNA sequence. A single PCR cells migrating inward to the endoderm form an additional
amplification cycle involves three basic steps: layer between the endoderm and the ectoderm. This key
denaturation, annealing and extension innovation evolved hundreds of millions of years ago
(polymerisation). and led to the evolution of nearly all large, complex animals.
142. (4) Thickening of wall is due to deposition of cellulose, The formation of a mesoderm led to the formation of a
hemicellulose and pectin. coelom. Organs formed inside a coelom (body cavity)
143. (2) Cylindrical meristem, fascicular meristem, can freely move, grow, and develop independently of the
interfascicular combium, cork combium. body wall while fluid cushions and protects them from
144. (4) shocks.
145. (4) The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year 161. (4) Hypothalamus – GnRH
between late August and early October. Acrosome – Sperm lysins
146. (3) Graafian follicle – Estrogen
147. (2) Salvinia an d Selaginella are heterosporous Leydig cells – Testosterone
pteridophytes. Parturition – Relaxin
162. (1) Osmoconformers are the organisms that change the
148. (1)
osmotic concentration of their body with the change
149. (4) Diaphragm is present below lung and separates in ambient conditions. Their body fluids are in osmotic
thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity. Its up and down balance with the environment. For many marine
movement helps in expiration and inspiration during invertebrates, the osmolarity and ionic concentrations
breathing. of their body fluids are similar to those of the sea-
150. (4) Hormones of adrenal medulla include noradrenaline water in which they live.
and adrenaline. Nor-adrenaline regulates blood 163. (3)
pressure and cardiac output under normal conditions. 164. (2) Different age groups have different reproduction
151. (2) IVF is in vitro fertilization which is a method of assisted capabilities. Pre-reproductive individuals are the young
reproduction for infertile couples. individuals which will enter the reproductive age after
some time. They are the potential source of increase in
152. (1) population. Reproductive individuals are the ones
153. (3) which are actually adding new members to the
154. (3) XX-XO type of sex determination is found in population. Post-reproductive individuals are older
roundworms and some insects like tree bugs, individuals which no longer take part in reproduction.
13
165. (3) (1) - Partial regulators 167. (5)
(2) - Regulators 168. (4) Cytokine barrier is interferon. Virus infected cells
(3) - Conformers secrete proteins called interferons which protect non-
Conformers : infected cells from further viral infection.
Majority of the animals (up to 99%) and nearly all plants, 169. (1) The adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but
cannot maintain a constant internal environment. Their larvae are bilaterally symmetrical. They are triploblastic
body temperature and osmotic concentration changes and coelomate animals. Fertilization is usually external
according to the surrounding conditions . Such animal and indirect development is observed.
and plants are called conformers. 170. (3) 171. (2)
Regulators : 172. (3) It is mode of fertilization of seed plant, that involves
Some animals maintain their homeostasis by passage of pollen tube into ovule by the micropyle.
physiological or behavioural means. All birds and 173. (1) AIH is artificial insemination by husband.
mammals (homeothermic or warm blooded) and a few 174. (1) The level of progestrone and estrogen is essential
lower vertebrates and invertebrates can maintain during pregnancy. Progesterone is essential for the
constant body temperature and constant osmotic establishment and maintenance of foetus and estrogen
concentration regardless of th e surroundin g promotes parturition by inducing labor and delivery.
conditions. Such organisms are called regulators. 175. (1) A– IV ; B – I; C– II; D – III
Partial regulators : 176. (4) GAG is replaced by GTG.
If the stressful conditions are localized, the animals 177. (2)
can ‘escape in place’ and migrate to nearby region, 178. (4) Topoisomerse releases the tension in the DNA during
having better environmental conditions. If the replication.
unfavourable conditions are for a shorter duration then 179. (3) F.Griffith performed transformation experiment on
the animals can ‘escape in time’ and avoid those Streptococcus pneumoniae. Avery, Macleod and Mac
conditions suspending their activities. Such organisms Carty used protease, RNAse and DNAse. DNAase
are partial regulators. inhibits transformation.
166. (1) LNG - 20 and progestasert are the hormone producing 180. (3) A– IV ; B – III; C– II; D – I
intra uterine Devices (IUDs).

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