CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers 2019 v5 1+v6 0 Introduction To Networks

10/13/2020 CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers 2019 (v5.1+v6.
0) Introduction to Networks
NOTE: If you have the new question on this test,

please comment Question and Multiple-Choice list in
form below this article. We will update answers for
you in the shortest time. Thank you! We truly value
your contribution to the website.
 [NEW Version 7.0 – 2020]  CCNA 1 v7 Final Exam

Answers
CCNA v7.0 Exam Answers

Version 6.0:
CCNA 1 – v7 CCNA 2 – v7
1. What is a characteristic of a fault tolerant network?
CCNA 3 – v7
a network that protects confidential information from
unauthorized access
a network that can expand quickly to support new users Modules 1 – 3: Basic
and applications without impacting the performance of the Network Connectivity and
service delivered to existing users Communications Exam
a network that supports a mechanism for managing Answers
congestion and ensuring reliable delivery of content to all
Modules 4 – 7: Ethernet
users
Concepts Exam Answers
a network that recovers quickly when a failure
occurs and depends on redundancy to limit the impact Modules 8 – 10:
of a failure Communicating Between
Networks Exam Answers
Explain: Modules 11 – 13: IP

Fault tolerant networks limit the impact of a failure Addressing Exam
because the networks are built in a way that allows for Answers
quick recovery when such a failure occurs. These
networks depend on multiple or redundant paths Modules 14 – 15: Network
between the source and destination of a message. Application
A scalable network can expand quickly to support new Communications Exam
users and applications without impacting the Answers
performance of the service being delivered to existing
Modules 16 – 17: Building
users.
and Securing a Small
Quality of service (QoS) is a mechanism for managing
Network Exam Answers
congestion and ensuring reliable delivery of content to all
users. [Skills Exams] Practice 
PT Skills Assessment
https://itexamanswers.net/ccna-1-final-exam-answers-v5-1-v6-0-introduction-to-networks.html 2/117
10/13/2020 CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers 2019 (v5.1+v6.0) Introduction to Networks
(PTSA)
2. Three bank employees are using the corporate
ITNv7 Practice Final
network. The first employee uses a web browser to view
Exam
a company web page in order to read some
announcements. The second employee accesses the CCNA 1 v7 FINAL Exam
corporate database to perform some financial Answers
transactions. The third employee participates in an
important live audio conference with other corporate
managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on
this network, what will be the priorities from highest to
lowest of the different data types?
CCNA v5 + v6.0 Exam
financial transactions, audio conference, web page
audio conference, financial transactions, web page
Answers
audio conference, web page, financial transactions
CCNA 1 CCNA 2 CCNA 3
financial transactions, web page, audio conference
CCNA 4
Explain:
QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue CCNA 1 – Pretest
management strategies that enforce priorities for CCNA 1 – Chapter 1
different categories of application data. Thus, this CCNA 1 – Chapter 2
queuing enables voice data to have priority over CCNA 1 – Chapter 3
transaction data, which has priority over web data. CCNA 1 – Chapter 4
CCNA 1 – Chapter 5
CCNA 1 – Chapter 6
CCNA 1 – Chapter 6 Skills PT
3. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in CCNA 1 – Chapter 7
networking? CCNA 1 – Chapter 8
End users have the freedom to use personal tools to CCNA 1 – Chapter 9
access information and communicate across a business CCNA 1 – Chapter 10
network. CCNA 1 – Chapter 11
Network capabilities are extended without requiring CCNA 1 PT Practice Skills
investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or CCNA 1 – Practice Final
software. CCNA 1 – Final Exam
Technology is integrated into every-day appliances
allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making
them more ‘smart’ or automated.
Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to Share your ❤ Buy me a ☕
connect devices to the network wherever there is an
Donate
electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

Recent Comments
Tunde on CCNA 200-301 Dumps

Explain: Full Questions – Exam Study
Cloud computing extends IT’s capabilities without Guide & Free
requiring investment in new infrastructure, training new CCNA Questions Answers on
personnel, or licensing new software. These services are Modules 13 – 17: Threats and
available on-demand and delivered economically to any Attacks Group Exam (Answers)
device anywhere in the world without compromising CCNA Questions Answers on
security or function. BYOD is about end users having the CCNA 1 Pretest (v5.1 + v6.0)
freedom to use personal tools to access information and Exam Answers 2020 – 100% Full
communicate across a business or campus network. Gintaras on Modules 13 – 17:
Smart home technology is integrated into every-day Threats and Attacks Group Exam
(Answers)
appliances allowing them to interconnect with other
devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated. Fr3ak on CCNA 200-301 Dumps
Full Questions – Exam Study
Powerline networking is a trend for home networking that
Guide & Free
uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the
network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the
cost of installing data cables. [Cert] CCNA 200-301
Exam
4. What is the function of the shell in an OS?

It interacts with the device hardware.
It interfaces between the users and the kernel.
It provides dedicated firewall services.
It provides the intrusion protection services for the
device.
Explain:
Most operating systems contain a shell and a kernel.
The kernel interacts with the hardware and the shell
interfaces between the kernel and the users.
5. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with

encryption to a Cisco switch?
a console connection
an AUX connection
a Telnet connection
an SSH connection
Explain:
A CLI session using Secure Shell (SSH) provides
enhanced security because SSH supports strong
passwords and encryption during the transport of
session data. The other methods support authentication
but not encryption.
6. A network technician is attempting to configure an

interface by entering the following command:
SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0.
The command is rejected by the device. What is the
reason for this?
The command is being entered from the wrong
mode of operation.
The command syntax is wrong.
The subnet mask information is incorrect.
The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before
the switch will accept the IP address.
Explain:
The wrong mode of operation is being used. The CLI
prompt indicates that the mode of operation is global
configuration. IP addresses must be configured from
interface configuration mode, as indicated by the
SanJose(config-if)# prompt.
7. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination

on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the
purpose of using these keystrokes?
to restart the ping process
to interrupt the ping process
to exit to a different configuration mode
to allow the user to complete the command
Explain:
To interrupt an IOS process such as ping or traceroute, a 
user enters the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination. Tab
completes the remainder of parameters or arguments

within a command. To exit from configuration mode to
privileged mode use the Ctrl-Z keystroke. CTRL-R will
redisplay the line just typed, thus making it easier for the
user to press Enter and reissue the ping command.
8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is

configuring access control to switch SW1. If the
administrator uses a console connection to connect to
the switch, which password is needed to access user
EXEC mode?
letmein
secretin
linevtyin
lineconin
Explain:
Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual
interface configured with the line VTY command. The
password configured under this is required to access the
user EXEC mode. The password configured under the
line console 0 command is required to gain entry through
the console port, and the enable and enable secret
passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged
EXEC mode.
9. On which switch interface would an administrator 
configure an IP address so that the switch can be

managed remotely?
FastEthernet0/1
VLAN 1
vty 0
console 0
Explain:
Interface VLAN 1 is a virtual interface on a switch, called
SVI (switch virtual interface). Configuring an IP address
on the default SVI, interface VLAN 1, will allow a switch
to be accessed remotely. The VTY line must also be
configured to allow remote access, but an IP address
cannot be configured on this line.
10. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size

of segments and the rate at which segments are
exchanged between a web client and a web server?
TCP
IP
HTTP
Ethernet
Explain:
TCP is a Layer 4 protocol of the OSI model. TCP has
several responsibilities in the network communication
process. It divides large messages into smaller
segments which are more efficient to send across the
network. It also controls the size and rate of segments
exchanged between clients and servers.
11. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is

defined by an open standard?
A company can monopolize the market.
The protocol can only be run on equipment from a
specific vendor.

An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated

by standards organizations.
It encourages competition and promotes choices.
Explain:
A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a
user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one
brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a
network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An
open standard protocol will in general be implemented
by a wide range of vendors.
12. What are two benefits of using a layered network

model? (Choose two.)
It assists in protocol design.
It speeds up packet delivery.
It prevents designers from creating their own model.
It prevents technology in one layer from affecting
other layers.
It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next
higher layer.
Explain:
Some vendors have developed their own reference
models and protocols. Today, if a device is to
communicate on the Internet, the device must use the
TCP/IP model. The benefits of using a layered model are
as follows:
assists in protocol design
fosters competition between vendors
prevents a technology that functions at one layer from
affecting any other layer
provides a common language for describing network
functionality
helps in visualizing the interaction between each layer
and protocols between each layer

13. Which two OSI model layers have the same
functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose

two.)
data link
network
physical
session
transport
Explain:
The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the
TCP/IP transport layer, and the OSI network layer is
equivalent to the TCP/IP internet layer. The OSI data link
and physical layers together are equivalent to the
TCP/IP network access layer. The OSI session layer
(with the presentation layer) is included within the
TCP/IP application layer.
14. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

bits
data
frame
packet
segment
Explain:
Application data is passed down the protocol stack on its
way to be transmitted across the network media. During
the process, various protocols add information to it at
each level. At each stage of the process, a PDU
(protocol data unit) has a different name to reflect its new
functions. The PDUs are named according to the
protocols of the TCP/IP suite:
Data – The general term for the PDU used at the
application layer.
Segment – transport layer PDU
Packet – network layer PDU
Frame – data link layer PDU
Bits – A physical layer PDU used when physically
transmitting data over the medium

15. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits

across the company backbone for a mission critical
database application. The engineer notices that the
network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth
expected. Which three factors could influence the
differences in throughput? (Choose three.)
the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the
network
the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied
to the data
the type of traffic that is crossing the network
the latency that is created by the number of network
devices that the data is crossing
the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the
backbone
Explain:
Throughput usually does not match the specified
bandwidth of physical links due to multiple factors. These
factors include, the amount of traffic, type of traffic, and
latency created by the network devices the data has to
cross.
16. A network administrator is troubleshooting

connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the
administrator notices that the signals generated by the
server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of
the OSI model is the error categorized?
presentation layer
network layer
physical layer
data link layer
Explain:
The NIC has responsibilities in both Layer 1 and Layer 2.
The NIC encodes the frame as a series of signals that 
are transmitted onto the local media. This is the

responsibility of the physical layer of the OSI model. The
signal could be in the form of electrical, optical, or radio
waves.
17. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a

switch port?
console
rollover
crossover
straight-through
Explain:
A rollover cable is a Cisco proprietary cable used to
connect to a router or switch console port. A straight-
through (also called patch) cable is usually used to
interconnect a host to a switch and a switch to a router.
A crossover cable is used to interconnect similar devices
together, for example, between two switches, two
routers, and two hosts.
18. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of

bits across the company backbone for a mission critical
financial application. The administrator notices that the
network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth
expected. Which three factors could influence the
differences in throughput? (Choose three.)
network
to the data
backbone

Explain:
Throughput usually does not match the specified
bandwidth of physical links due to multiple factors. These
factors include, the amount of traffic, type of traffic, and
latency created by the network devices the data has to
cross.
19. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

cancellation
cladding
immunity to electrical hazards
woven copper braid or metallic foil
Explain:
Cladding and immunization from electrical hazards are
characteristics for fiber-optic cabling. A woven copper
braid or metallic foil is used as a shield for the inner
coaxial cable conductor. Cancellation is a property of
UTP cabling where two wires are located adjacent to one
another so each magnetic field cancels out the adjacent
magnetic field.
20. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable?

(Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and
twisting to protect data.
It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.
Explain:
Fiber-optic cabling supports higher bandwidth than UTP
for longer distances. Fiber is immune to EMI and RFI,
but costs more, requires more skill to install, and
requires more safety precautions. 
21. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It provides the logical addressing required that identifies
the device.
It provides delimitation of data according to the physical
signaling requirements of the medium.
It places information in the frame allowing multiple
Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface
and media.
It defines software processes that provide services to
the physical layer.
Explain:
The Logical Link Control (LLC) defines the software
processes that provide services to the network layer
protocols. The information is placed by LLC in the frame
and identifies which network layer protocol is being used
for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3
protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same
network interface and media.
22. A network team is comparing physical WAN

topologies for connecting remote sites to a headquarters
building. Which topology provides high availability and
connects some, but not all, remote sites?
mesh
partial mesh
hub and spoke
point-to-point
Explain:
Partial mesh topologies provide high availability by
interconnecting multiple remote sites, but do not require
a connection between all remote sites. A mesh topology
requires point-to-point links with every system being
connected to every other system. A point-to-point
topology is where each device is connected to one other
device. A hub and spoke uses a central device in a star
topology that connects to other point-to-point devices.

23. What method is used to manage contention-based

access on a wireless network?
CSMA/CD
priority ordering
CSMA/CA
token passing
Explain:
Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance
(CSMA/CA) is used with wireless networking technology
to mediate media contention. Carrier sense multiple
access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) is used with
wired Ethernet technology to mediate media contention.
Priority ordering and token passing are not used (or not
a method) for media access control.
24. What are the three primary functions provided by

Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)
error correction through a collision detection method
session control using port numbers
data link layer addressing
placement and removal of frames from the media
detection of errors through CRC calculations
delimiting groups of bits into frames
conversion of bits into data signals
Explain:
Through the framing process, delimiters are used to
identify the start and end of the sequence of bits that
make up a frame. Data link layer addressing is added to
enable a frame to be delivered to a destination node. A
cyclic redundancy check (CRC) field is calculated on
every bit and added to the frame. If the CRC value
contained in the arriving frame is the same as the one
the receiving node creates, the frame will be processed.
25. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it

receives a frame with a destination MAC address that
does not match its own MAC address?
It will discard the frame.
It will forward the frame to the next host.
It will remove the frame from the media.
It will strip off the data-link frame to check the
destination IP address.
Explain:
In an Ethernet network, each NIC in the network checks
every arriving frame to see if the destination MAC
address in the frame matches its own MAC address. If
there is no match, the device discards the frame. If there
is a match, the NIC passes the frame up to the next OSI
layer.
26. What are two examples of the cut-through switching

method? (Choose two.)
store-and-forward switching
fast-forward switching
CRC switching
fragment-free switching
QOS switching
Explain:
Store-and forward switching accepts the entire frame
and performs error checking using CRC before
forwarding the frame. Store-and-forward is often required
for QOS analysis. Fast-forward and fragment-free are
both variations of the cut-through switching method
where only part of the frame is received before the
switch begins to forward it.
27. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch?

(Choose two.) 
building a routing table that is based on the first IP

address in the frame header
using the source MAC addresses of frames to build
and maintain a MAC address table
forwarding frames with unknown destination IP
addresses to the default gateway
utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames
via the destination MAC address
examining the destination MAC address to add new
entries to the MAC address table
Explain:
Important actions that a switch performs are as follows:
When a frame comes in, the switch examines the Layer
2 source address to build and maintain the Layer 2 MAC
address table.
It examines the Layer 2 destination address to determine
how to forward the frame. When the destination address
is in the MAC address table, then the frame is sent out a
particular port. When the address is unknown, the frame
is sent to all ports that have devices connected to that
network.
28. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire

frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before
forwarding the frame?
cut-through switching
store-and-forward switching
fragment-free switching
fast-forward switching
Explain:
Fast-forward and fragment-free switching are variations
of cut-through switching, which begins to forward the
frame before the entire frame is received.
29. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to


host B, what will the destination address be in the frame

when it leaves host A?
DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
172.168.10.99
CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
172.168.10.65
BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
Explain:
When a host sends information to a distant network, the
Layer 2 frame header will contain a source and
destination MAC address. The source address will be
the originating host device. The destination address will
be the router interface that connects to the same
network. In the case of host A sending information to
host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and
the destination address is the MAC address assigned to
the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.
30. What addresses are mapped by ARP?

destination MAC address to a destination IPv4
address
destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address
Explain:
ARP, or the Address Resolution Protocol, works by
mapping a destination MAC address to a destination
IPv4 address. The host knows the destination IPv4
address and uses ARP to resolve the corresponding
destination MAC address.
31. What information is added during encapsulation at

OSI Layer 3?
source and destination MAC
source and destination application protocol
source and destination port number
source and destination IP address
Explain:
IP is a Layer 3 protocol. Layer 3 devices can open the
Layer 3 header to inspect the Layer 3 header which
contains IP-related information including the source and
destination IP addresses.
32. What are two services provided by the OSI network

layer? (Choose two.)
performing error detection
routing packets toward the destination
encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer
placement of frames on the media
collision detection
Explain:
The OSI network layer provides several services to allow
communication between devices:
addressing
encapsulation
routing
de-encapsulation
Error detection, placing frames on the media, and 
collision detection are all functions of the data ink layer.
33. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a

small advertising company has chosen to use the
192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As
shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to
the company web server. However, the web server
cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies
that local workstations with IP addresses that are
assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and
the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which
component is incorrectly configured?
subnet mask
DNS address
host IP address
default gateway address
Explain:
When a 255.255.255.224 subnet mask is used, the first
three bits of the last octet are part of the network portion
for an IPv4 address in the subnet. For the
192.168.5.96/27 network, valid host addresses are
192.168.5.97 through 192.168.5.126. The default
gateway address is for the Layer 3 device on the same
network and it must contain an IP address within the 
valid IP address range.
34. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing

process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?
to identify the broadcast address of the destination
network
to identify the host address of the destination host
to identify faulty frames
to identify the network address of the destination
network
Explain:
ANDing allows us to identify the network address from
the IP address and the network mask.
35. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

to store the routing table
to retain contents when power is removed
to store the startup configuration file
to contain the running configuration file
to store the ARP table
Explain:
NVRAM is permanent memory storage, so the startup
configuration file is preserved even if the router loses
power.
36. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering

this configuration the next time a network administrator
connects a console cable to the router and no additional
commands have been entered?
The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.

The administrator will be presented with the R1>
prompt.
Explain:
Until both the password password and the login
commands are entered in console line configuration
mode, no password is required to gain access to enable
mode.
37. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4

address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
192.0.2.199
198.51.100.201
203.0.113.211
209.165.201.223
Explain:
Each section (octet) contains eight binary digits. Each
digit represents a specific value (128, 64, 32, 16, 8, 4, 2,
and 1). Everywhere there is a 1, the specific value is
relevant. Add all relevant values in a particular octet to
obtain the decimal value. For example binary 11001011
equals 203 in decimal.
38. What are three characteristics of multicast 

transmission? (Choose three.)
The source address of a multicast transmission is in the

range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.
Multicast transmission can be used by routers to
exchange routing information.
Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the
range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4
addresses.
Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper
layer addresses.
Explain:
Broadcast messages consist of single packets that are
sent to all hosts on a network segment. These types of
messages are used to request IPv4 addresses, and map
upper layer addresses to lower layer addresses. A
multicast transmission is a single packet sent to a group
of hosts and is used by routing protocols, such as OSPF
and RIPv2, to exchange routes. The address range
224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved for link-local
addresses to reach multicast groups on a local network.
39. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are

reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/14
127.16.0.0/12
172.16.0.0/12
192.31.7.0/24
192.168.0.0/16
Explain:
The private IP address blocks that are used inside
companies are as follows:
10.0.0.0 /8 (any address that starts with 10 in the first
octet)
172.16.0.0 /12 (any address that starts with 172.16 in the
first two octets through 172.31.255.255) 
192.168.0.0 /16 (any address that starts with 192.168 in

the first two octets)
40. What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?

It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.
It translates private IPv6 addresses into public IPv6
addresses.
It enables companies to use IPv6 unique local
addresses in the network.
It converts regular IPv6 addresses into 64-bit addresses
that can be used on the Internet.
It converts the 48-bit MAC address into a 64-bit host
address that can be used for automatic host addressing.
Explain:
NAT64 is typically used in IPv6 when networks are being
transitioned from IPv4 to IPv6. It allows the IPv6
networks to connect to IPv4 networks (such as the
Internet), and works by translating the IPv6 packets into
IPv4 packets.
41. What is the most compressed representation of the

IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
2001:0:abcd::1
2001:0:0:abcd::1
2001::abcd::1
2001:0000:abcd::1
2001::abcd:0:1
Explain:
The IPv6 address
2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001 in its most
compressed format would be 2001:0:0:abcd::1. The first
two hextets of zeros would each compress to a single
zero. The three consecutive hextets of zeros can be
compressed to a double colon ::. The three leading zeros
in the last hextet can be removed. The double colon :: 
can only be used once in an address.
42. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned

to an IPv6-enabled interface?
FEC0::/10
FDEE::/7
FE80::/10
FF00::/8
Explain:
Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to
FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-
local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10,
but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in
favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique
local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to
FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix
FF00::/8.
43. Which three addresses are valid public addresses?

(Choose three.)
198.133.219.17
192.168.1.245
10.15.250.5
128.107.12.117
192.15.301.240
64.104.78.227
44. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which
two statements about network connectivity are correct?
(Choose two.)
There is connectivity between this device and the

device at 192.168.100.1.
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for
videoconferencing calls.
There are 4 hops between this device and the device
at 192.168.100.1.
The average transmission time between the two hosts is
2 milliseconds.
This host does not have a default gateway configured.
Explain:
The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection
between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It
can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and
the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3
connectivity does not necessarily mean that an
application can run between the hosts.
45. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?

loopback
link-local
multicast
global unicast
Explain:
Link-local IPv6 addresses start with FE80::/10, which is
any address from FE80:: to FEBF::. Link-local addresses
are used extensively in IPv6 and allow directly
connected devices to communicate with each other on
the link they share.
46. How many valid host addresses are available on an

IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?
254
190
192
62 
64
Explain:
When a /26 mask is used, 6 bits are used as host bits.
With 6 bits, 64 addresses are possible, but one address
is for the subnet number and one address is for a
broadcast. This leaves 62 addresses that can be
assigned to network devices.
47. A site administrator has been told that a particular

network at the site must accommodate 126 hosts. Which
subnet mask would be used that contains the required
number of host bits?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
Explain:
The subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 has 8 host bits. The
mask of 255.255.255.128 results in 7 host bits. The
mask of 255.255.255.224 has 5 host bits. Finally,
255.255.255.240 represents 4 host bits.
48. A network administrator wants to have the same

subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The
site has the following networks and numbers of devices:
Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses
What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for
the three subnetworks?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.248
255.255.255.252
Explain: 
If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the
most hosts must be examined for number of hosts.

Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed. The /28
or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate
to use for these networks.
49. How many hosts are addressable on a network that

has a mask of 255.255.255.248?
2
6
8
14
16
254
Explain:
The subnet mask of 255.255.255.248 is the same as /29.
This means the network portion of the address is 29 of
the 32 bits in the address. Only 3 bits remain for host
bits. 2^3 = 8, but one of these addresses has to be used
for the network number and one address must be used
as the broadcast address to reach all of the hosts on this
network. That leaves only 6 usable IP addresses that
can be assigned to hosts in this network. Don’t forget
that the default gateway must be one of these devices if
this network is to communicate with other networks.
50. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96

as a usable host address?
192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.32/28
192.168.1.64/29
Explain:
For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for
host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses.
However, the first and last subnets are the network and 
broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the
range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65

to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the
address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.
51. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has

40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is
not to be wasted?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
Explain:
In order to accommodate 40 devices, 6 host bits are
needed. With 6 bits, 64 addresses are possible, but one
address is for the subnet number and one address is for
a broadcast. This leaves 62 addresses that can be
assigned to network devices. The mask associated with
leaving 6 host bits for addressing is 255.255.255.192.
52. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and

UDP? (Choose two.)
default window size
connectionless communication
port numbering
3-way handshake
ability to to carry digitized voice
use of checksum
Explain:
Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port
numbers to distinguish different data streams and to
forward the right data segments to the right applications.
Error checking the header and data is done by both
protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine
the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is 
connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to
establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to

regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an
acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best
protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.
53. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of

a segment?
to indicate the correct router interface that should be
used to forward a segment
to identify which switch ports should receive or forward
the segment
to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to
encapsulate the data
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the
appropriate application
to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the
proper order
54. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address of
192.168.10.0/24 that has been assigned to a high school
building. The largest network in this building has 100
devices. If 192.168.10.0 is the network number for the
largest network, what would be the network number for
the next largest network, which has 40 devices?
192.168.10.0
192.168.10.128 
192.168.10.192
192.168.10.224
192.168.10.240
Explain:
The first thing to calculate is what IP addresses are used
by the largest LAN. Because the LAN has 100 hosts, 7
bits must be left for host bits. This would be a subnet
mask of 255.255.255.128 for the largest LAN
(192.168.10.0/25). The IP addresses range from
192.168.10.0 through 192.168.10.127. 192.168.10.0 is
the network number (all 0s in the host bits) and
192.168.10.127 is the broadcast for this Ethernet LAN
(all 1s in the host bits). The next available IP address is
the next network number – 192.168.10.128.
55. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet

masking?
Each subnet is the same size.
The size of each subnet may be different, depending
on requirements.
Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create
additional subnets.
Explain:
In variable-length subnet masking, bits are borrowed to
create subnets. Additional bits may be borrowed to
create additional subnets within the original subnets.
This may continue until there are no bits available to
borrow.
56. In what two situations would UDP be the preferred

transport protocol over TCP? (Choose two.)
when applications need to guarantee that a packet
arrives intact, in sequence, and unduplicated
when a faster delivery mechanism is needed
when delivery overhead is not an issue
when applications do not need to guarantee delivery 
of the data
when destination port numbers are dynamic
Explain:
UDP is a stateless protocol, which means that neither
device on either end of the conversation must keep track
of the conversation. As a stateless protocol, UDP is used
as the Layer 4 protocol for applications that need speedy
(best-effort) delivery. An example of such traffic is the
transport of digitized voice or video.
57. What important information is added to the TCP/IP

transport layer header to ensure communication and
connectivity with a remote network device?
timing and synchronization
destination and source port numbers
destination and source physical addresses
destination and source logical network addresses
Explain:
The destination and source port numbers are used to
identify exactly which protocol and process is requesting
or responding to a request.
58. What is the TCP mechanism used in congestion

avoidance?
three-way handshake
socket pair
two-way handshake
sliding window
Explain:
TCP uses windows to attempt to manage the rate of
transmission to the maximum flow that the network and
destination device can support while minimizing loss and
retransmissions. When overwhelmed with data, the
destination can send a request to reduce the of the

window. This congestion avoidance is called sliding

windows.
59. Which scenario describes a function provided by the

transport layer?
A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home.
The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport
layer address used to contact another network device on
the same network.
A student is playing a short web-based movie with
sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the
transport layer header.
A student has two web browser windows open in
order to access two web sites. The transport layer
ensures the correct web page is delivered to the
correct browser window.
A corporate worker is accessing a web server located
on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the
screen so the web page appears properly no matter what
device is being used to view the web site.
Explain:
The source and destination port numbers are used to
identify the correct application and window within that
application.
60. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to

access www.cisco.com to search for certification course
information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a
reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which
information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the
PC to identify which of the three web browsers should
receive the reply?
the destination IP address
the destination port number
the source IP address
the source port number

Explain:
Each web browser client application opens a randomly
generated port number in the range of the registered
ports and uses this number as the source port number in
the datagram that it sends to a server. The server then
uses this port number as the destination port number in
the reply datagram that it sends to the web browser. The
PC that is running the web browser application receives
the datagram and uses the destination port number that
is contained in this datagram to identify the client
application.
61. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence
numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)
to identify missing segments at the destination
to reassemble the segments at the remote location
to specify the order in which the segments travel from
source to destination
to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of
an interface at one time
to determine if the packet changed during transit
62. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation
layer? (Choose two.)
compression
addressing
encryption
session control
authentication
Explain:
The presentation layer deals with common data format.
Encryption, formatting, and compression are some of the
functions of the layer. Addressing occurs in the network
layer, session control occurs in the session layer, and
authentication takes place in the application or session
layer.
63. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose

three.)
UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer
functions.
UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data
at Layer 3.
UDP relies on application layer protocols for error
detection.
UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not
provide sequencing or flow control mechanisms.
UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.
Explain:
UDP is a simple protocol that provides the basic
transport layer functions. It has much lower overhead
than TCP because it is not connection-oriented and does
not offer the sophisticated retransmission, sequencing,
and flow control mechanisms that provide reliability.
64. What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer

networking model?
wireless networking
social networking without the Internet
network printing using a print server
resource sharing without a dedicated server
Explain:
The peer-to-peer (P2P) networking model allows data,
printer, and resource sharing without a dedicated server.
65. A technician can ping the IP address of the web

server of a remote company but cannot successfully
ping the URL address of the same web server. Which
software utility can the technician use to diagnose the
problem? 
tracert
ipconfig
netstat
nslookup
Explain:
Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of
hops that were successfully reached along the path from
source to destination.This list can provide important
verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig
utility is used to display the IP configuration settings on a
Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to identify which
active TCP connections are open and running on a
networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user
to manually query the name servers to resolve a given
host name. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot
name resolution issues and to verify the current status of
the name servers.
66. Which domain name would be an example of a top-

level domain?
www.cisco.com
cisco.com
.com
root.cisco.com
Explain:
Top-level domains represent a country or type of
organization, such as .com or .edu.
67. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the

PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to
the IP address configuration?
The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC
is returned.
The address is returned to the pool for reuse when 
the lease expires.
The configuration is held by the server to be reissued

when the PC is returned.
Explain:
When a DCHP address is issued to a host, it is for a
specific lease time. Once the lease expires, the address
is returned to the DHCP pool.
68. When planning for network growth, where in the

network should packet captures take place to assess
network traffic?
on as many different network segments as possible
only at the edge of the network
between hosts and the default gateway
only on the busiest network segment
Explain:
Because some types of traffic will be only on specific
network segments, packet captures for analysis should
be performed on as many segments as possible.
69. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What

protocol would be used to process the request?
FTP
HTTP
DHCP
ICMP
SNMP
Explain:
The DHCP protocol is used to request, issue, and
manage IP addressing information. CSMA/CD is the
access method used with wired Ethernet. ICMP is used
to test connectivity. SNMP is used with network
management and FTP is used for file transfer.
70. Which example of malicious code would be classified

as a Trojan horse?
malware that was written to look like a video game
malware that requires manual user intervention to
spread between systems
malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and
spreads to other programs when launched
malware that can automatically spread from one system
to another by exploiting a vulnerability in the target
Explain:
A Trojan horse is malicious code that has been written
specifically to look like a legitimate program. This is in
contrast to a virus, which simply attaches itself to an
actual legitimate program. Viruses require manual
intervention from a user to spread from one system to
another, while a worm is able to spread automatically
between systems by exploiting vulnerabilities on those
devices.
71. When applied to a router, which command would help

mitigate brute-force password attacks against the
router?
exec-timeout 30
service password-encryption
banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
Explain:
The login block-for command sets a limit on the
maximum number of failed login attempts allowed within
a defined period of time. If this limit is exceeded, no
further logins are allowed for the specified period of time.
This helps to mitigate brute-force password cracking
since it will significantly increase the amount of time
required to crack a password. The exec-timeout
command specifies how long the session can be idle
before the user is disconnected. The service password-

encryption command encrypts the passwords in the

running configuration. The banner motd command
displays a message to users who are logging in to the
device.
72. A network technician suspects that a particular

network connection between two Cisco switches is
having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the
technician use to see the Layer 1 and Layer 2 details of a
switch port?
show mac-address-table
show ip interface brief
show interfaces
show running-config
Explain:
The show interfaces command can be used on both
routers and switches to see speed, duplex, media type,
MAC address, port type, and other Layer 1/Layer 2-
related information.
73. Where are Cisco IOS debug output messages sent by

default?
Syslog server
console line
memory buffers
vty lines
Explain:
Debug messages, like other IOS log messages, are sent
to the console line by default. Sending these messages
to the terminal lines requires the terminal monitor
command.
74. Match the description with the associated IOS mode.

(not all options are used.) 
Question
Answer
user EXEC mode

limited number of basic monitoring commands
the first entrance intro the CLI of an IOS device
privileged EXEC mode
accessed by entering the enable command
identified by a prompt ending with the # character
global configuration mode
changes made affect the operation of the device as a whole
accessed by entering the configure terminal command
75. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their
destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the
router. (Not all options are used.)
FastEthernet0/0 -> packets with destination of

172.17.6.15
172.17.14.8
172.17.12.10
172.17.10.5
Serial0/0/0 -> packets with destination of 172.17.8.20
76. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing
connectivity to a remote device with the IP address
10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?
Connectivity to the remote device was successful.

A router along the path did not have a route to the
destination.
A ping packet is being blocked by a security device
along the path.
The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from
the remote device.
Explain:
In the output of the ping command, an exclamation mark
(!) indicates a response was successfully received, a
period (.) indicates that the connection timed out while
waiting for a reply, and the letter “U” indicates that a
router along the path did not have a route to the
destination and sent an ICMP destination unreachable
message back to the source.

77. A user is unable to reach the web site when typing

http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach
the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161. What is the
issue?
default gateway
DHCP
TCP/IP protocol stack
DNS
Explain:
Domain Name Service (DNS) is used to translate a web
address to an IP address. The address of the DNS
server is provided via DHCP to host computers.
78. A company is expanding its business to other

countries. All branch offices must remain connected to
corporate headquarters at all times. Which network
technology is required to support this requirement?
LAN
MAN
WAN
WLAN
Explain:
A local-area network (LAN) normally connects end users
and network resources over a limited geographic area
using Ethernet technology. A wireless LAN (WLAN)
serves the same purpose as a LAN but uses wireless
technologies. A metropolitan-area network (MAN) spans
a larger geographic area such as a city, and a wide-area
network (WAN) connects networks together over a large
geographic area. WANs can span cities, countries, or the
globe.
79. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that

provides high speed digital transmission over regular 
phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?
DSL
dial-up
satellite
cell modem
cable modem
80. How does quality of service help a network support a
wide range of applications and services?
by limiting the impact of a network failure
by allowing quick recovery from network failures
by providing mechanisms to manage congested
network traffic
by providing the ability for the network to grow to
accommodate new users
Explain:
Quality of service (QoS), is a vital component of the
architecture of a network. With QoS, network
administrators can provide applications with predictable
and measurable service guarantees through
mechanisms that manage congested network traffic.
81. What source IP address does a router use by default

when the traceroute command is issued?
the highest configured IP address on the router
the lowest configured IP address on the router
a loopback IP address
the IP address of the outbound interface
Explain:
When sending an echo request message, a router will
use the IP address of the exit interface as the source IP
address. This default behavior can be changed by using
an extended ping and specifying a specific source IP
address.
82. After making configuration changes on a Cisco

switch, a network administrator issues a copy running- 
config startup-config command. What is the result of

issuing this command?
The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is
restarted.
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly
configured file.
The configuration changes will be removed and the
original configuration will be restored.
Explain:
With the copy running-config startup-config command,
the content of the current operating configuration
replaces the startup configuration file stored in NVRAM.
The configuration file saved in NVRAM will be loaded
when the device is restarted.
83. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is

configuring access control to switch SW1. If the
administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on
the switch, which password is needed to access
privileged EXEC mode?
letmein
secretin
lineconin
linevtyin
Explain:
EXEC mode.
84. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on

which it is typically identified. (Not all options are used.)
Question
Answer
physical topology diagram

location of a desktop PC in a classroom
path of cables that connect rooms to wiring closets
logical topology diagram
IP address of a server

Explain:
A logical topology diagram typically depicts the IP
addressing scheme and groupings of devices and ports.
A physical topology diagram shows how those devices
are connected to each other and the network, focusing
on the physical locations of intermediary devices,
configured ports, and cabling.
85. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with

encryption to a Cisco network device?
a console connection
an AUX connection
a Telnet connection
an SSH connection
Explain:
A CLI session using Secure Shell (SSH) provides
enhanced security because SSH supports strong
passwords and encryption during the transport of
session data. The other methods support authentication
but not encryption.
86. What function does pressing the Tab key have when
entering a command in IOS?
It aborts the current command and returns to
configuration mode.
It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC
mode.
It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
It completes the remainder of a partially typed word
in a command.
Explain:
Pressing the Tab key after a command has been partially
typed will cause the IOS to complete the rest of the
command. 
87. What layer is responsible for routing messages

through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?
internet
transport
network access
session
Explain:
The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application,
transport, internet, and network access. Of these four
layers, it is the internet layer that is responsible for
routing messages. The session layer is not part of the
TCP/IP model but is rather part of the OSI model.
88. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP

encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the
network?
Data is sent from the internet layer to the network
access layer.
Packets are sent from the network access layer to the
transport layer.
Segments are sent from the transport layer to the
internet layer.
Frames are sent from the network access layer to the
internet layer.
Explain:
When the data is traveling from the PC to the network,
the transport layer sends segments to the internet layer.
The internet layer sends packets to the network access
layer, which creates frames and then converts the
frames to bits. The bits are released to the network
media.
89. What unique address is embedded in an Ethernet NIC

and used for communication on an Ethernet network? 
host address
IP address
MAC address
network address
k layer
Explain:
The MAC address is a 48-bit address that is burned into
every Ethernet NIC. Each MAC address is unique
throughout the world.
90. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of

crosstalk in copper cables?
requiring proper grounding connections
twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk
interference
avoiding sharp bends during installation
Explain:
In copper cables, crosstalk is a disturbance caused by
the electric or magnetic fields of a signal on one wire
interfering with the signal in an adjacent wire. Twisting
opposing circuit wire pairs together can effectively cancel
the crosstalk. The other options are effective measures
to counter the negative effects of EMI and RFI, but not
crosstalk.
91. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the

data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet
network?
An IP address is added.
The logical address is added.
The physical address is added.
The process port number is added.

Explain:
The Ethernet frame includes the source and destination
physical address. The trailer includes a CRC value in the
Frame Check Sequence field to allow the receiving
device to determine if the frame has been changed (has
errors) during the transmission.
92. What are two characteristics of Ethernet MAC

addresses? (Choose two.)
They are globally unique.
They are routable on the Internet.
They are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.
MAC addresses use a flexible hierarchical structure.
MAC addresses must be unique for both Ethernet and
serial interfaces on a device.
Explain:
An Ethernet MAC address is a 48-bit binary value
expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits. MAC addresses
must be globally unique by design. MAC addresses are
in flat structure and thus they are not routable on the
Internet. Serial interfaces do not use MAC addresses.
93. If a device receives an Ethernet frame of 60 bytes,

what will it do?
drop the frame
process the frame as it is
send an error message to the sending device
add random data bytes to make it 64 bytes long and
then forward it
Explain:
Ethernet standards define the minimum frame size as 64
bytes. A frame less than 64 bytes is considered a
“collision fragment” or “runt frame” and is automatically
discarded by receiving devices. 
94. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a

frame out of every port except the port that the frame
was received on? (Choose two.)
The frame has the broadcast address as the
destination address.
The destination address is unknown to the switch.
The source address in the frame header is the
broadcast address.
The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
The destination address in the frame is a known unicast
address.
Explain:
A switch will flood a frame out of every port, except the
one that the frame was received from, under two
circumstances. Either the frame has the broadcast
address as the destination address, or the destination
address is unknown to the switch.
95. Which switching method has the lowest level of

latency?
cut-through
store-and-forward
fragment-free
fast-forward
Explain:
Fast-forward switching begins to forward a frame after
reading the destination MAC address, resulting in the
lowest latency. Fragment-free reads the first 64 bytes
before forwarding. Store-and-forward has the highest
latency because it reads the entire frame before
beginning to forward it. Both fragment-free and fast-
forward are types of cut-through switching.
96. Which two commands can be used on a Windows 

host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)
netstat -s
route print
show ip route
netstat -r
tracert
Explain:
On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r
commands can be used to display the host routing table.
Both commands generate the same output. On a router,
the show ip route command is used to display the routing
table. The netstat –scommand is used to display per-
protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to
display the path that a packet travels to its destination.
97. Which two functions are primary functions of a

router? (Choose two.)
packet forwarding
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
path selection
flow control
98. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?
10111010
11010101
11001010
11011010
Explain:
When converted, CA in hex is equivalent to 11011010 in
binary. One way to do the conversion is one nibble at a
time, C = 1100 and A = 1010. Combine the two nibbles
gives 11001010.
99. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-

enabled interfaces?

link-local
unique local
site local
global unicast
Explain:
All IPv6 enabled interfaces must at minimum have a link-
local address. Other IPv6 addresses can be assigned to
the interface as required.
100. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6

addressing to end devices without using a server that
keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?
stateful DHCPv6
SLAAC
static IPv6 addressing
stateless DHCPv6
Explain:
Using stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC), a
PC can solicit a router and receive the prefix length of
the network. From this information the PC can then
create its own IPv6 global unicast address.
101. What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?

It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.
It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the
subnet.
It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the
subnet.
It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the
network.
Explain:
The address ::1 is an IPv6 loopback address. Using the
command ping ::1 tests the internal IP stack to ensure
that it is configured and functioning correctly. It does not
test reachability to any external device, nor does it 
confirm that IPv6 addresses are properly configured on

the host.
102. How many usable IP addresses are available on the

192.168.1.0/27 network?
256
254
62
30
16
32
Explain:
A /27 mask is the same as 255.255.255.224. This leaves
5 host bits. With 5 host bits, 32 IP addresses are
possible, but one address represents the subnet number
and one address represents the broadcast address.
Thus, 30 addresses can then be used to assign to
network devices.
103. What is the process of dividing a data stream into

smaller pieces before transmission?
segmentation
encapsulation
encoding
flow control
Explain:
Data streams would cause significant network
congestion if they were transmitted as a single large
stream of bits. To increase efficiency, data streams are
segmented into smaller more manageable pieces which
are then transmitted over the network.
104. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a

web server, which property of the IPv4 configuration 
identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4

address?
DNS server address
subnet mask
default gateway
DHCP server address
Explain:
There are several components that need to be entered
when configuring IPv4 for an end device:
IPv4 address – uniquely identifies an end device on the
network
Subnet mask – determines the network address portion
and host portion for an IPv4 address
Default gateway – the IP address of the router interface
used for communicating with hosts in another network
DNS server address – the IP address of the Domain
Name System (DNS) server
DHCP server address (if DHCP is used) is not
configured manually on end devices. It will be provided
by a DHCP server when an end device requests an IP
address.
105. Which two roles can a computer assume in a peer-

to-peer network where a file is being shared between two
computers? (Choose two.)
client
master
server
slave
transient
Explain:
In a peer-to-peer (P2P) network, two or more computers
are connected and can share resources without the use
of a dedicated server. The computer that has the file acts
as a server for the device (the client) that requests the
file.

106. Which two protocols operate at the highest layer of

the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)
DNS
Ethernet
IP
POP
TCP
UDP
Explain:
The application layer is the top layer of the TCP/IP
protocol stack. Application layer protocols include HTTP,
DNS, HTML, TFTP, POP, IMAP, FTP, and SMTP.
107. What is one difference between the client-server and

peer-to-peer network models?
Only in the client-server model can file transfers occur.
Every device in a peer-to-peer network can function
as a client or a server.
A peer-to-peer network transfers data faster than a
transfer using a client-server network.
A data transfer that uses a device serving in a client role
requires that a dedicated server be present.
Explain:
Data transfer speeds depend on a number of factors
including the amount of traffic, the quality of service
imposed, and the network media. Transfer speeds are
not dependent on the network model type. File transfers
can occur using the client-server model or the peer-to-
peer model. A data transfer between a device acting in
the client role and a device acting in the server role can
occur in both peer-to-peer and client-server networks.
108. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?

to request an HTML page from a web server 
to send error information from a web server to a web

client
to upload content to a web server from a web client
to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP
port 110
Explain:
There are three common HTTP message types:
GET – used by clients to request data from the web
server
POST – used by clients to upload data to a web server
PUT – used by clients to upload data to a web server
109. Which networking model is being used when an

author uploads one chapter document to a file server of a
book publisher?
peer-to-peer
master-slave
client/server
point-to-point
Explain:
In the client/server network model, a network device
assumes the role of server in order to provide a
particular service such as file transfer and storage. In the
client/server network model, a dedicated server does not
have to be used, but if one is present, the network model
being used is the client/server model. In contrast, a peer-
to-peer network does not have a dedicated server.
110. What network service resolves the URL entered on a

PC to the IP address of the destination server?
DNS
DHCP
FTP
SNMP

Explain:
When a client attempts to connect to a website, the
destination URL must be resolved to an IP address. To
do this the client queries a Domain Name System (DNS)
server.
111. A network engineer is analyzing reports from a

recently performed network baseline. Which situation
would depict a possible latency issue?
a change in the bandwidth according to the show
interfaces output
a next-hop timeout from a traceroute
an increase in host-to-host ping response times
a change in the amount of RAM according to the show
version output
Explain:
While analyzing historical reports an administrator can
compare host-to-host timers from the ping command and
depict possible latency issues.
112. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets

coming into a network are legitimate responses to
requests initiated from internal hosts?
stateful packet inspection
URL filtering
application filtering
packet filtering
Explain:
Stateful packet inspection on a firewall checks that
incoming packets are actually legitimate responses to
requests originating from hosts inside the network.
Packet filtering can be used to permit or deny access to
resources based on IP or MAC address. Application
filtering can permit or deny access based on port 
number. URL filtering is used to permit or deny access

based on URL or on keywords.
113. What is one indication that a Windows computer did

not receive an IPv4 address from a DHCP server?
The computer cannot ping 127.0.0.1.
Windows displays a DHCP timeout message.
The computer receives an IP address that starts
with 169.254
The computer cannot ping other devices on the same
network with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 range.
Explain:
When a Windows PC cannot communicate with an IPv4
DHCP server, the computer automatically assigns an IP
address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range. Any other device
on the same network that receives an address in the
same range is reachable.
114. Which command can an administrator issue on a

Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?
terminal monitor
logging console
logging buffered
logging synchronous
Explain:
command.
115. Fill in the blank.

During data communications, a host may need to send a
single message to a specific group of destination hosts

simultaneously. This message is in the form of a Multicast

message.
116. A medium-sized business is researching available
options for connecting to the Internet. The company is
looking for a high speed option with dedicated,
symmetric access. Which connection type should the
company choose?
DSL
dialup
satellite
leased line
cable modem
117. What is the purpose of having a converged network?
to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
to make sure that all types of data packets will be
treated equally
to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data
network infrastructure devices
to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the
communication infrastructure
Explain:
With the development of technology, companies can now
consolidate disparate networks onto one platform called
a converged network. In a converged network, voice,
video, and data travel over the same network, thus
eliminating the need to create and maintain separate
networks. This also reduces the costs associated with
providing and maintaining the communication network
infrastructure.
118. What characteristic of a network enables it to

quickly grow to support new users and applications
without impacting the performance of the service being
delivered to existing users?
reliability
scalability
quality of service 
accessibility
Explain:
Networks must be able to quickly grow to support new
users and services, without impacting existing users and
services. This ability to grow is known as scalability.
119. After several configuration changes are made to a

router, the copy running-configuration startup-
configuration command is issued. Where will the
changes be stored?
flash
ROM
NVRAM
RAM
the configuration register
a TFTP server
120. Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration
mode, an administrator is attempting to create a
message-of-the-day banner by using the command
banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be
prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner
does not appear correctly. What is the problem?
The banner message is too long.

The delimiting character appears in the banner
message.
The symbol “!” signals the end of a banner message.
Message-of-the-day banners will only appear when a
user logs in through the console port.
121. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose
three.)
It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch 
ports.
It is not associated with any physical interface on a

switch.
It is a special interface that allows connectivity by
different types of media.
It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any
location.
It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.
It is associated with VLAN1 by default.
Explain:
Switches have one or more switch virtual interfaces
(SVIs). SVIs are created in software since there is no
physical hardware associated with them. Virtual
interfaces provide a means to remotely manage a switch
over a network that is using IP. Each switch comes with
one SVI appearing in the default configuration “out-of-
the-box.” The default SVI interface is VLAN1.
122. A technician configures a switch with these

commands:SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdownWhat is the technician
configuring?
Telnet access
SVI
password encryption
physical switchport access
Explain:
For a switch to have an IP address, a switch virtual
interface must be configured. This allows the switch to
be managed remotely over the network.
123. In computer communication, what is the purpose of

message encoding?
to convert information to the appropriate form for
transmission 
to interpret information
to break large messages into smaller frames

to negotiate correct timing for successful communication
Explain:
Before a message is sent across a network it must first
be encoded. Encoding is the process of converting the
data message into another format suitable for
transmission across the physical medium. Each bit of the
message is encoded into a pattern of sounds, light
waves, or electrical impulses depending on the network
media over which the bits are transmitted. The
destination host receives and decodes the signals in
order to interpret the message.
124. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?

They are sent to a select group of hosts.
They must be acknowledged.
They are sent to a single destination.
They are sent to all hosts on a network.
Explain:
Multicast is a one-to-many type of communication.
Multicast messages are addressed to a specific multicast
group.
125. A large corporation has modified its network to

allow users to access network resources from their
personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking
trend does this describe?
bring your own device
video conferencing
online collaboration
cloud computing
126. True or False.
A dedicated server is not needed when implementing a
peer-to-peer network.

true
false
127. Which term refers to a network that provides secure
access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers
and collaborators?
Internet
intranet
extranet
extendednet
Explain:
The term Internet refers to the worldwide collection of
connected networks. Intranet refers to a private
connection of LANs and WANS that belong to an
organization and is designed to be accessible to the
members of the organization, employees, or others with
authorization. Extranets provide secure and safe access
to suppliers, customers, and collaborators. Extendednet
is not a type of network.
128. What subnet mask is required to support 512

subnets on networks 172.28.0.0/16?
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240
255.255.255.128
255.255.252.0
129. A DHCP server is used to IP addresses dynamically
to the hosts on a network. The address pool is
configured with 10.29.244.0/25. There are 19 printers on
this network that need to use reserve static IP addresses
from the pool. How many IP address in the pool are left
to be assign to other hosts?
210
60
109
107
146
Version 5: 
130. What is a function of the data link layer?

provides the formatting of data
provides for the exchange of data over a common
local media
provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
provides delivery of data between two applications
131. Which communication tool allows real-time
collaboration?
wiki
e-mail
weblog
instant messaging
132. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote
network. Which three functions are performed by
intermediary network devices during this conversation?
(Choose three.)
regenerating data signals
acting as a client or a server
providing a channel over which messages travel
applying security settings to control the flow of data
notifying other devices when errors occur
serving as the source or destination of the messages
133. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this
router load the IOS?
flash memory
NVRAM?

RAM
ROM
a TFTP server?
134. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be
successful?
PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.

PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.
Port numbers ranging from 0 to 1023 are considered to be
Well Known ports.
ISOC, IANA, EIA, and IEEE represent standards
organizations which help to promote and maintain an open
Internet.
137. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to
configure the switch but receives the error message that
is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?
The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

The administrator is already in global configuration
mode.
The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC
mode before issuing the command.
The administrator must connect via the console port to
access global configuration mode. 
138. A company is expanding its business to other

countries. All branch offices must remain connected to
corporate headquarters at all times. Which network
technology is required to support this requirement?
LAN
MAN
WAN
WLAN
Explain:
A local-area network (LAN) normally connects end users
and network resources over a limited geographic area
using Ethernet technology. A wireless LAN (WLAN)
serves the same purpose as a LAN but uses wireless
technologies. A metropolitan-area network (MAN) spans
a larger geographic area such as a city, and a wide-area
network (WAN) connects networks together over a large
geographic area. WANs can span cities, countries, or the
globe.
139. A network administrator is upgrading a small

business network to give high priority to real-time
applications traffic. What two types of network services
is the network administrator trying to accommodate?
(Choose two.)
SNMP
instant messaging
voice
FTP
video
140. Match the situation with the appropriate use of
network media.
Copper Cables
horizontal cabling structure
desktop PCs in an enterprise office
Fiber Optic
backbone cabling in an enterprise
long-haul networks
Wireless
guest access in a coffee shop
waiting rooms in a hospital
Explain:
Copper Cables – horizontal cabling structure and
desktop PCs in offices in an enterprise
Fiber optic – backbone cabling in an enterprise and long-
haul networks
Wireless – coffee shops and waiting rooms in a hospital
141. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the

internal TCP/IP operation of a host?
0.0.0.0
0.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
192.168.1.1
255.255.255.255 
142. What three application layer protocols are part of the

TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)
ARP
DHCP
DNS
FTP
NAT
PPP
143. Which two protocols function at the internet layer?
(Choose two)
ARP
BOOTP
ICMP
IP
PPP
144. Which publicly available resources describe
protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet
but do not give implementation details?
Request for Comments
IRTF research papers
protocol models
IEEE standards
145. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the
PC is moved to a different network?
IP address
default gateway address
MAC address
logical address
146. What is the protocol that is used to discover a
physical address from a known logical address and what
message type does it use?
ARP, multicast
DNS, unicast
DNS, broadcast
ARP, broadcast
PING, multicast
PING, broadcast

147. What will happen if the default gateway address is

incorrectly configured on a host?
The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the
local network.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct
address of the default gateway.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other
networks.
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be
successful.
148. What is an important function of the physical layer
of the OSI model?
It accepts frames from the physical media.
It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
It defines the media access method performed by the
hardware interface.
It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio
wave signals.
149. Which two statements describe the characteristics
of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)
Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone
cabling.
Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from
multiple sending devices.
Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les
and laser technology for multimode cables.
150. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
logical address
physical address
data
error detection
151. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from
PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC
addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table
that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses

just the PC0 MAC address
PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
152. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2
switch?
A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch
does not.
An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of
a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in
Layer 2 switches.
A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead
of a MAC address table.
A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are
associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2
switch does not.
153. What is the purpose of the routing process?
to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across
a network
to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to
destination networks
to convert a URL name into an IP address
to provide secure Internet file transfer
to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses
154. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4
address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share
one public IP address?
ARP
DNS 
NAT
SMB
DHCP
HTTP
155. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address
configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of
the default gateway address?
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that

connects the company to the Internet.
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that
connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to
other devices on the same LAN.
It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in
the cloud.
156. Which of the following are primary functions of a
router? (Choose two.)
packet switching
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
path selection
flow control
157. Which two statements correctly describe a router
memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)
ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic
software. 
FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of

the IOS.
ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.
NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores other system files.
158. In which default order will a router search for startup
configuration information?
NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
flash, ROM, setup mode
159. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP
transmission is not delivered to the destination?
A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-
sent.
The entire transmission is re-sent.
The transmission continues without the missing
portion.
160. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose
three.)
10.172.168.1
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10
172.20.4.4
192.168.5.254
224.6.6.6
161. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet
:10CD:?
4
8
16
32
162. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-
routing command on a router?
to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
to enable the router as an IPv6 router 
to permit only unicast packets on the router
to prevent the router from joining the all-routers

multicast group
163. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated
as a host source address?
FEC0::/10?
FDFF::/7?
FEBF::/10?
FF00::/8
164. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
to inform routers about network topology changes
to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address
resolution
165. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a
user workstation with the IP address and default subnet
masks that are shown. Although the user can access all
local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet
sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon
the exhibit, what could account for this failure?
The DNS server addresses are incorrect. 
The default gateway address in incorrect.

The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the
workstation.
The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS
servers.
166. A network administrator needs to monitor network
traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which
features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied
to these devices?
random static addresses to improve security
addresses from different subnets for redundancy
predictable static IP addresses for easier
identification
dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate
addresses
167. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme
should be changed?
Site 1
Site 2
Site 3
Site 4
168. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries
when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)
/62
/64
/66 
/68
/70
169. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease
an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the
client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK
170. What is the purpose of the network security
accounting function?
to require users to prove who they are
to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user
to provide challenge and response questions
171. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator
enters these commands into the R1 router:
R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?
When the router prompts for an address or remote host
name, what IP address should the administrator enter at
the prompt?
192.168.9.254
192.168.10.1
192.168.10.2
192.168.11.252
192.168.11.254 
172. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type.

(Not all options are used.)
173. What two preconfigured settings that affect security

are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)
broadcast SSID
MAC filtering enabled
WEP encryption enabled
PSK authentication required
default administrator password
174. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic
encryption keys each time a client associates with an
AP?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA
TFTP is a best-effort, connectionless application layer
protocol that is used to transfer files.
176. Which two components are necessary for a wireless 
client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)
media
wireless NIC
custom adapter
crossover cable
wireless bridge
wireless client software
177. Consider the following range of addresses:
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
…
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60

178. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router
bootup process. (Not all options are used.)
179. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote

(Choose three.)
180. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an 
ISP?
when a cellular telephone provides the service

when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable
TV network
when a satellite dish is used
when a regular telephone line is used
181. On a school network, students are surfing the web,
searching the library database, and attending an audio
conference with their sister school in Japan. If network
traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be
classified from highest priority to lowest priority?
audio conference, database, HTTP
database, HTTP, audio conference
audio conference, HTTP, database
database, audio conference, HTTP
182. During normal operation, from which location do
most Cisco routers run the IOS?
RAM
flash
NVRAM
disk drive
183. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is
used to interrupt an IOS process?
Ctrl-Shift-X
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z
Ctrl-C
184. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to
change the name of a brand new switch, using the
hostname command as shown. What prompt will display
after the command is issued??
HR Switch(config)#?
Switch(config)#?
HRSwitch(config)#?
HR(config)#?
Switch#

185. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What

is the technician testing?
the TCP/IP stack on a network host
connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
connectivity between two PCs on the same network
physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
186. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?
187. Which device should be used for enabling a host to

communicate with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
router
host
188. A network technician is measuring the transfer of
bits across the company backbone for a mission critical
application. The technician notices that the network
throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected.
Which three factors could influence the differences in
throughput? (Choose three.)
network
to the data 

backbone
189. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable?
(Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and
twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling
190. What are two features of a physical, star network
topology? (Choose two.)
It is straightforward to troubleshoot.
End devices are connected together by a bus.
It is easy to add and remove end devices.
All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
Each end system is connected to its respective
neighbor.
191. A frame is transmitted from one networking device
to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS
field in the frame?
to determine the physical address of the sending device
to verify the network layer protocol information
to compare the interface media type between the
sending and receiving ends
to check the frame for possible transmission errors
to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC
address of the receiving device
192. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination
MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC
table?
It initiates an ARP request.
It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be
delivered. 
It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the

port at which the frame was received.
193. Which parameter does the router use to choose the
path to the destination when there are multiple routes
available?
the lower metric value that is associated with the
destination network
the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination
network
the higher metric value that is associated with the
destination network
the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination
network
194. Which two statements describe the functions or
characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)
stores routing tables
allows software to be updated without replacing
pluggable chips on the motherboard
maintains instructions for POST diagnostics
holds ARP cache
stores bootstrap program
195. Which statement describes a characteristic of the
Cisco router management ports?
A console port is used for remote management of the
router.
A console port is not used for packet forwarding.
Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management
ports.
Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide
information about the status of the management ports.
196. What happens when part of an Internet radio
The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-
sent.
portion.

197. What types of addresses make up the majority of

addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?
private addresses
public addresses
multicast addresses
experimental addresses
198. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value
that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com??
11
12
13
14
199. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64
with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company
wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10
hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks
would achieve that? (Choose two.)
192.168.1.16/28
192.168.1.64/27
192.168.1.128/27
192.168.1.96/28
192.168.1.192/28
200. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best
fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?
/23
/24
/25 
/26
201. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming

media?
Transmission Control Protocol
Real-Time Transport Protocol
Secure File Transfer Protocol
Video over Internet Protocol
202. Why would a network administrator use the tracert
utility?
to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
to check information about a DNS name in the DNS
server
to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a
network
to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS
server address for a PC
203. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the
asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?
The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot

the system.
The asterisk designates which file system is the
default file system.
An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
An asterisk designates that the file system has at least
one file that uses that file system.
204. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new
dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection
with the AP?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA
205. Fill in the blank. 
Point-to-point communications where both devices can
transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are

known as full-duplex
206. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email
protocol. (Not all options are used.)
207. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote

(Choose three.)
208. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be
an extranet for the company network that is shown?
area A
area B
area C
area D
209. Three office workers are using the corporate
network. The first employee uses a web browser to view
a company web page in order to read some
announcements. The second employee accesses the
corporate database to perform some financial
transactions. The third employee participates in an
important live audio conference with other office workers
in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network,
what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the
different data types?
audio conference, financial transactions, web page
financial transactions, web page, audio conference
audio conference, web page, financial transactions
financial transactions, audio conference, web page
Explain:
QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue
management strategies that enforce priorities for
different categories of application data. Thus, this
queuing enables voice data to have priority over
transaction data, which has priority over web data.

210. During normal operation, from which location do

most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?
RAM
flash
NVRAM
disk drive
211. A network administrator is making changes to the
configuration of a router. After making the changes and
verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy
running-config startup-config command. What will
happen after this command executes?
The configuration will be copied to flash.
The configuration will load when the router is
restarted.
The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
The changes will be lost when the router restarts.
212. What information does the loopback test provide?
The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.
The device has end-to-end connectivity.
DHCP is working correctly.
The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
The device has the correct IP address on the network.
213. What happens when a switch receives a frame and
the calculated CRC value is different than the value that
is in the FCS field?
The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field
and forwards the frame.
The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
The switch drops the frame.
The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port
through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the
error.
214. Which destination address is used in an ARP
request frame?
0.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
FFFF.FFFF.FFFF 
127.0.0.1
01-00-5E-00-AA-23
215. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
the automatic configuration of an interface for
10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
the automatic configuration of an interface for a
straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable
connection
the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over
a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly
if an active connection is detected
216. What are the two main components of Cisco
Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)
adjacency tables
MAC-address tables
routing tables
ARP tables
forwarding information base (FIB)
217. Which statement describes the sequence of
processes executed by a router when it receives a packet
from a host to be delivered to a host on another
network?
It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the
destination host.
It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the
appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to
forward it toward the destination host
It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the
destination host.
It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination
host.
218. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces
that were configured with correct IP addresses and
subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command
output not display any information about the directly
connected networks??
The directly connected networks have to be created

manually to be displayed in the routing table.
The routing table will only display information about
these networks when the router receives a packet.
The no shutdown command was not issued on
these interfaces.
The gateway of last resort was not configured.
219. What happens when part of an Internet television
The part of the television transmission that was lost is
re-sent.
portion.
220. Which three statements characterize the transport
layer protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application
layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable
transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable
transfer of data.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide
reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a
connectionless protocol.
221. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client 
process during a session with a server?
Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that

in which they were sent are not placed in order.
A session must be established before datagrams can be
exchanged.
A three-way handshake takes place before the
transmission of data begins.
Application servers have to use port numbers above
1024 in order to be UDP capable.
222. Which two components are configured via software
in order for a PC to participate in a network
environment? (Choose two.)
MAC address
IP address
kernel
shell
subnet mask
223. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the
preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on
large networks? (Choose two.)
It eliminates most address configuration errors.
It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices
that require a permanent address.
It guarantees that every device that needs an address
will get one.
It provides an address only to devices that are
authorized to be connected to the network.
It reduces the burden on network support staff.
224. What is the subnet address for the address
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
2001:DB8:BC15::0
2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0
225. What is the purpose of the network security
authentication function?
to require users to prove who they are
to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user
to provide challenge and response questions 
226. Which type of wireless security makes use of

dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates
with an AP?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA
227. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT.
Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity

instructions and then fill in the blank.
The Server0 message isb ”winner”
228. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically
stay the same during its transmission?
Packet Length
Destination Address
Flag
Time-to-Live
229. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity

instructions and then answer the question. Which IPv6
address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?
2001:db8:abc:1::1
2001:db8:abc:5::1
2001:db8:abc:5::2
2001:db8:abc:10::15
230. What must be configured to enable Cisco Express
Forwarding (CEF) on most Cisco devices that perform
Layer 3 switching?
Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.
Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.
CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is
necessary.
Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses
to populate the forwarding information base (FIB).
231. What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in
Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?
to populate the forwarding information base (FIB)
to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses
to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision
making
to update the forwarding information base (FIB)
232. Which statement describes a characteristic of the
network layer in the OSI model?
It manages the data transport between the processes 
running on each host.
In the encapsulation process, it adds source and

destination port numbers to the IP header.
When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP
header is checked by the network layer to determine where
the packet has to be routed.
Its protocols specify the packet structure and
processing used to carry the data from one host to
another.
233. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the
company network administrator. A friend of the user at a
different company gets the same IP address on another
PC. How can two PCs use the same IP address and still
reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search
the web?
Both users must be using the same Internet Service
Provider.
ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a
user IP address into an address that can be used on
the Internet.
ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP
address into a public IP address that can be used on the
Internet.
Both users must be on the same network.
234. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer
protocol?
to ensure the fastest possible download speed
because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
because transmission errors can be tolerated easily
because HTTP requires reliable delivery
235. What is the valid most compressed format possible
of the IPv6 address
2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?
2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234
2001:DB8:0:AB::1234
2001:DB8::AB00::1234
2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234
236. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine
that a packet has expired?
TTL field 
CRC field
Hop Limit field
Time Exceeded field
237. Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets
unless they are responses to internal requests?
port filtering
stateful packet inspection
URL filtering
application filtering
238. A network technician is investigating network
connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address
10.1.1.5. Which command issued on the PC will return to
the technician the complete path to the remote host?
trace 10.1.1.5
traceroute 10.1.1.5
tracert 10.1.1.5
ping 10.1.1.5
To prevent faulty network devices from carrying
dangerous voltage levels, equipment must be grounded
correctly
240. What is a possible hazard that can be caused by
network cables in a fire?
The cable insulation could be flammable.
Users could be exposed to excessive voltage.
Network cables could be exposed to water.
The network cable could explode.
241. What device is commonly used to verify a UTP
cable?
a multimeter
an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer
a cable tester
an ohmmeter
242. What needs to be checked when testing a UTP
network cable?
capacitance
wire map
inductance 
flexibility
243. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from
PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC
addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table
that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?
just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses

PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
244. Which function is provided by TCP?
data encapsulation
detection of missing packets
communication session control
path determination for data packets
245. What does a router use to determine where to send
data it receives from the network?
an ARP table
a routing table
the destination PC physical address
a switching table
246. Which router interface should be used for direct
remote access to the router via a modem?
an inband router interface
a console port
a serial WAN interface
an AUX port
247. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all
forms of management access. As part of each different

type of access, the technician is trying to type the

command login. Which configuration mode should be
entered to do this task?
user executive mode
global configuration mode
any line configuration mode
privileged EXEC mode
248. Which three statements characterize the transport
layer protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application
layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable
transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable
transfer of data.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide
reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a
connectionless protocol.
249. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server
has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a
host. What acknowledgement number will the host return
for the TCP segment that has been received?
2
21
250
306
2921
250. Which statement is true about an interface that is
configured with the IPv6 address command? 
IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.
A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured

on the interface.
A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured
on the interface.
Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface
are replaced with an IPv6 address.
251. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a
message to everyone on the router A network. What is
the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?
172.16.16.255
172.16.20.255
172.16.19.255
172.16.23.255
172.16.255.255
252. A network administrator is variably subnetting a
given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of
network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most
efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets
capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can
support 6 hosts?
10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/29
10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/28
10.1.1.128/28 
10.1.1.140/28
10.1.1.158/26
10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.144/26
10.1.1.160/26
10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.140/26
10.1.1.158/28
253. How many additional bits should be borrowed from
a /26 subnet mask in order to create subnets for WAN
links that need only 2 useable addresses?
2
3
4
5
6
254. A network administrator requires access to manage
routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the
description to the access method. (Not all options are
used.)
255. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured

the access to the console and the vty lines of a router.
Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?
Unauthorized individuals can connect to the router via

Telnet without entering a password.
Because the IOS includes the login command on the
vty lines by default, access to the device via Telnet will
require authentication.
Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by
anyone.
Because the login command was omitted, the password
cisco command is not applied to the vty lines.
256. An administrator issued the service password-
encryption command to apply encryption to the
passwords configured for enable password, vty, and
console lines. What will be the consequences if the
administrator later issues the no service password-
encryption command?
It will remove encryption from all passwords.
It will reverse only the vty and console password
encryptions.
It will not reverse any encryption.
It will reverse only the enable password encryption.
257. After making configuration changes, a network
administrator issues a copy running-config startup-
config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of
issuing this command?
The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is
restarted.
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly
configured file.
The configuration changes will be removed and the
original configuration will be restored.
258. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local

destination device and it has the IP address but not the
MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP
broadcast.
An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet
LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host
and its multicast MAC address.
When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it
refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping
of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
If no device responds to the ARP request, then the
originating node will broadcast the data packet to all
devices on the network segment.
If a device receiving an ARP request has the
destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP
reply.
259. A network administrator is enabling services on a
newly installed server. Which two statements describe
how services are used on a server? (Choose two.)
Data sent with a service that uses TCP is received in the
order the data was sent.
A port is considered to be open when it has an
active server application that is assigned to it.
An individual server can have two services that are
assigned to the same port number.
An individual server cannot have multiple services
running at the same time.
Server security can be improved by closing ports
that are associated with unused services.
260. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001
00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in
dotted decimal format?
234.17.10.9
234.16.12.10
236.17.12.6
236.17.12.10
261. A particular telnet site does not appear to be
responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command
could the technician use to show any cached DNS
entries for this web page? 
ipconfig /all
arp -a
ipconfig /displaydns
nslookup
Network devices come in two physical configurations.
Devices that have expansion slots that provide the
flexibility to add new modules have a Modular
configuration.
263. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TIL value
that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?
11
12
13
14
264. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?
When a device that is configured to use DHCP
boots, the client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER
message to identify any available DHCP servers on the
network.
A client must wait for lease expiration before it sends
another DHCPREOUEST message.
The DHCPDISCOVER message contains the IP
address and sub net masK to be assigned, the IP address
of the DNS server, and the IP address of the default
gateway.
If the client receives several DHCPOFFER messages 
from different servers, it sends a unicast DHCPREOUEST
message to the server from which it chooses to obtain the

IP information.
265. Which type of wireless security is easily
compromised?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA
266. A network administrator notices that the throughput
on the network appears lower than expected when
compared to the end-to-end network bandwidth. Which
three factors can explain this difference? (Choose three.)
the amount of traffic
the type of data encapsulation in use
the type of traffic
the number and type of network devices that the
data is crossing
the bandwidth of the connection to the ISP
the reliability of the network backbone
267. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through
DHCP. What message is sent by the server to the client
know it is able to use the provided IP information?
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK
268. A network administrator is configuring access
control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses console
line to connect to the switch, which password is needed
to access user EXEC mode?
letmein
secretin
lineconin
linevtyin
Explain:
EXEC mode.
269. How many bits would need to be borrowed if a

network admin were given the IP addressing scheme of
172.16.0.0/16 and needed no more than 16 subnet with
equal number of hosts?
10
12
2
4
8
270. Question:
It will give 4 options about ping, the correct one is:

The PC2 will be able to ping 192.168.1.1
271. Which statement best describes the operation of the
File Transfer Protocol?
An FTP client uses a source port number of 21 and a
randomly generated destination port number during the
establishment of control traffic with an FTP Server.
An FTP client uses a source port number of 20 and a
establishment of data traffic with an FTP Server.
An FTP server uses a source port number of 20 and
a randomly generated destination port number during
the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.
An FTP server uses a source port number of 21 and a
establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.
272. A client is establishing a TCP session with a server.
How is the acknowledgment number in the response
segment to the client determined?
The acknowledgment number field is modified by
adding 1 to the randomly chosen initial sequence
number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 11 to signify an
acknowledgment packet and synchronization packet back
to the client.
The acknowledgment number field uses a random
source port number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 1 to signify an

acknowledgment packet back to the client.
273. Why does layer 3 device perform the ANDing

process on a destination IP and subnet Mask?
to identify host address and destination host;
to identify network address of destination host;
to identify faulty frames;
to identify broadcast address of destination network;
274. There was also a question about if you activated
service password encryption in the past and you prompt
“no service password encryption” what password are
modified ?
no password at all;
password of the lines are in clear;
login password;
?
275. What type of communication rule would best
describe CSMA/CD?
message encapsulation
flow control
message encoding
access method
276. What is the primary reason to subnet IPv6 prefixes?
to conserve IPv6 addresses
to avoid wasting IPv6 addresses
to conserve IPv6 prefixes
to create a hierarchical Layer 3 network design
277. Which statement describes data throughput?
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media
under perfect conditions.
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the
media over a given period of time.
It indicates the capacity of a particular medium to carry
data.
It is the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP.
278. Fill in the blank. Use a number.
IPv4 multicast addresses are directly mapped to IEEE 802
(Ethernet) MAC addresses using the last ___4___ of the 28
available bits in the IPv4 multicast group address.

279. How could a faulty network device create a source

of hazard for a user? (Choose two.)
It could stop functioning.
It could apply dangerous voltage to other pieces of
equipment.
It could explode.
It could produce an unsafe electromagnetic field.
It could apply dangerous voltage to itself.
280. What are three important considerations when
planning the structure of an IP addressing scheme?
(Choose three.)
preventing duplication of addresses
providing and controlling access
documenting the network
monitoring security and performance
conserving addresses
implementing new services
281. What is the metric value that is used to reach the
10.1.1.0 network in the following routing table entry? D
10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05,
Serial0/0/0
24
90
05
2170112
282. Which two services or protocols use the preferred
UDP protocol for fast transmission and low overhead?
(Choose two)
VoIP
DNS
HTTP
FTP
POP3
New Questions (v6.0):

283. What action does a DHCPv4 client take if it receives
more than one DHCPOFFER from multiple DHCP
servers? 
It sends a DHCPREQUEST that identifies which

lease offer the client is accepting.
It sends a DHCPNAK and begins the DHCP process
over again.
It discards both offers and sends a new
DHCPDISCOVER.
It accepts both DHCPOFFER messages and sends a
DHCPACK.
284. To what legacy address class does the address
10.0.0.0 belong?
Class B
Class D
Class A
Class C
Class E
285. How many IPv4 addresses are available to be
assigned to hosts on a network that has a mask of
255.255.255.248?
16
14
8
254
6
2
286. What type of communication medium is used with a
wireless LAN connection?
radio waves
fiber
microwave
UTP
287. Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on
the prefix contained in RA messages?
EUI-64
static
SLAAC
stateful DHCPv6
288. What is a characteristic of DNS?
DNS servers can cache recent queries to reduce 
DNS query traffic.
DNS servers are programmed to drop requests for

name translations that are not within their zone.
All DNS servers must maintain mappings for the entire
DNS structure.
DNS relies on a hub-and-spoke topology with
centralized servers.
289. What is the prefix for the host address
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
2001:DB8:BC15
2001:DB8:BC15:A
2001:DB8:BC15:A:1
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12
290. What information is maintained in the CEF
adjacency table?
Layer 2 next hops
MAC address to IPv4 address mappings
IP address to interface mappings
the IP addresses of all neighboring routers
291. Which command can an administrator issue on a
Cisco router to send debug messages to the vty lines?
terminal monitor
logging console
logging buffered
logging synchronous
Explain:
command.
292. What is an example of a top-level domain?

root.cisco.com
http://www.cisco.com
.com
cisco.com

Explain:
Top-level domains represent a country or type of
organization, such as .com or .edu.
293. Which protocol requires the establishment of a

session between sender and receiver hosts prior to
transmitting data?
UDP
TCP
IP
ICMP
294. Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the
TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)
TCP
IP
UDP
POP
DNS
Ethernet
295. What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to
send?
It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to
synchronize the conversation.
It just sends the datagrams.
It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.
It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.
296. What is a characteristic of multicast messages?
They are sent to all hosts on a network.
They must be acknowledged.
They are sent to a select group of hosts.
They are sent to a single destination.
297. Which protocol or service uses UDP for a client-to-
server communication and TCP for server-to-server
communication?
FTP
HTTP 
DNS
SMTP
298. In what networking model would eDonkey, eMule,
BitTorrent, Bitcoin, and LionShare be used?
master-slave
client-based
peer-to-peer
point-to-point
299. A network technician is attempting to configure an
interface by entering the following command:
SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 .
The command is rejected by the device. What is the
reason for this?
The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before
the switch will accept the IP address.
The subnet mask information is incorrect.
The command syntax is wrong.
The command is being entered from the wrong
mode of operation.
Related Articles
Join the discussion
{} 
222 COMMENTS
Dlq  2 months ago 

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers 2019 v5 1+v6 0 Introduction To Networks

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers 2019 v5 1+v6 0 Introduction To Networks

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers 2019 v5 1+v6 0 Introduction To Networks

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

10/13/2020 CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers 2019 (v5.1+v6.

NOTE: If you have the new question on this test,

 [NEW Version 7.0 – 2020]  CCNA 1 v7 Final Exam

CCNA v7.0 Exam Answers

Explain: Modules 11 – 13: IP

Tunde on CCNA 200-301 Dumps

4. What is the function of the shell in an OS?

5. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with

6. A network technician is attempting to configure an

7. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination

completes the remainder of parameters or arguments

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is

9. On which switch interface would an administrator 

configure an IP address so that the switch can be

10. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size

11. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is

An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated

12. What are two benefits of using a layered network

functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose

14. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

15. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits

16. A network administrator is troubleshooting

are transmitted onto the local media. This is the

17. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a

18. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of

19. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

20. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable?

21. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

22. A network team is comparing physical WAN

23. What method is used to manage contention-based

24. What are the three primary functions provided by

25. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it

26. What are two examples of the cut-through switching

27. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch?

building a routing table that is based on the first IP

28. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire

29. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to

host B, what will the destination address be in the frame

30. What addresses are mapped by ARP?

31. What information is added during encapsulation at

32. What are two services provided by the OSI network

33. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a

34. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing

35. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

36. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering

The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.

37. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4

38. What are three characteristics of multicast 

The source address of a multicast transmission is in the

39. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are

192.168.0.0 /16 (any address that starts with 192.168 in

40. What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?

41. What is the most compressed representation of the

42. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned

43. Which three addresses are valid public addresses?

There is connectivity between this device and the

45. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?

46. How many valid host addresses are available on an

47. A site administrator has been told that a particular