Solutions - AIATS Med 2021 TYM - Test 2 - Code C D - 10 11 2019 - Compressed 1 PDF
Solutions - AIATS Med 2021 TYM - Test 2 - Code C D - 10 11 2019 - Compressed 1 PDF
Solutions - AIATS Med 2021 TYM - Test 2 - Code C D - 10 11 2019 - Compressed 1 PDF
TEST - 2 (Code-C)
Test Date : 10/11/2019
ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (4) 73. (3) 109. (4) 145. (1)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (4) 39. (3) 75. (4) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (1) 40. (1) 76. (3) 112. (2) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (2) 113. (1) 149. (2)
6. (1) 42. (2) 78. (3) 114. (2) 150. (4)
7. (1) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (1)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (2) 116. (1) 152. (3)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (4) 117. (3) 153. (1)
10. (4) 46. (3) 82. (3) 118. (1) 154. (4)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (2) 119. (4) 155. (4)
12. (4) 48. (1) 84. (3) 120. (1) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (2) 85. (1) 121. (2) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (1)
16. (1) 52. (2) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (2) 90. (3) 126. (1) 162. (4)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (2)
20. (2) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (4) 164. (2)
21. (1) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (1) 165. (4)
22. (1) 58. (1) 94. (1) 130. (4) 166. (1)
23. (4) 59. (4) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (4)
24. (4) 60. (3) 96. (1) 132. (2) 168. (3)
25. (4) 61. (4) 97. (4) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (3) 62. (3) 98. (1) 134. (4) 170. (4)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (1) 100. (2) 136. (3) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (2) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (1)
30. (4) 66. (4) 102. (4) 138. (2) 174. (3)
31. (2) 67. (3) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (3)
32. (4) 68. (1) 104. (2) 140. (1) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (4) 105. (1) 141. (1) 177. (3)
34. (4) 70. (1) 106. (4) 142. (2) 178. (1)
35. (2) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (1) 144. (4) 180. (2)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 2 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)
( 202 + 202 )
Displacement =
1/2
( 2 × 202 )
=
1/2
= 20 2 m
3. Answer (4)
Hint: Use vector addition.
= 3iˆ + 4 jˆ
Sol.: P
ac 40
P + Q = 8iˆ + 7 ˆj tan(θ)= = = 4
at 10
Q = 8iˆ + 7 jˆ − P = 8iˆ + 7 jˆ − 3iˆ − 4 jˆ = 5iˆ + 3 jˆ
θ =tan−1(4)
Q= 25 + 9= 34
8. Answer (2)
4. Answer (1)
Hint: Use concept of velocity of approach.
Hint: River-swimmer problem with minimum time
of crossing. Sol.: Velocity along line OP = 10 cos60° = 5 m/s.
d 200 20
Sol.: T=
min = = 20 s =
Time taken = 4s
v m /R 10 5
5. Answer (1) 9. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: Greater the vertical component of Hint: Relative acceleration between free falling
velocity of projection greater would be the time of particles is zero.
flight and the maximum height.
Sol.: Since relative acceleration = 0
6. Answer (1)
∴ relative velocity = 5 + 3 = 8 m/s is constant.
Hint: In uniform circular motion, speed ( v ) is
Separation = relative velocity × time
constant, but velocity (v ) is variable due to
change in its direction. = 8 × 4 = 32 m
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10
tan θ =
20
1
θ =tan−1 , north of west
2
13. Answer (1) ⇒ Angle with y-axis = 135°
Hint: 2-D motion under uniform acceleration. 20. Answer (2)
Sol.: v= u + at Hint: Equation of trajectory of a projectile.
v = ( 3i + 8 j ) + ( 2i + 2 ˆj ) t Sol.:
at t = 3 s
v ( 9iˆ + 14 ˆj ) m/s
=
14. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: As, for freely falling bodies, relative
acceleration is zero, the monkey will get hit by the
bullet.
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1 x2
( )
Sol.:
=y x tan θ − g 1 + tan2 θ
2 u2
θ 45°⇒ tan ( θ=
= ) 1
y = 10 m
x = 20 m
⇒u=
20 m/s Time of flight= T=
2h
g
21. Answer (1)
2h
d 2r = = u
x uT
Hint: a = 2 g
dt
dr
( )
g
Sol.: =
v = 10tiˆ + 3 ˆj m/s ⇒u=x
dt 2h
28. Answer (3)
dv
= ( )
a = 10iˆ m/s2
dt Hint: Speed at top most point ucos(θ)
1 1 1
22. Answer (1) m ( u cos ( θ ) )
2
Sol.: = mu 2
Hint: v B /=
vB − vE 4 2 2
E
1
Sol.: v B=
/E 10iˆ − 20 jˆ cos ( θ ) =
2
θ = 60°
vB /E = (10 )2 + ( 20 )2 = 10 5 m/s
29. Answer (1)
23. Answer (4)
Hint: OA,OB, OC,OD,OE and OF all are unit
Hint & Sol.: A particle under action of constant
vectors.
force follows either a rectilinear path or a
parabolic path. Sol.: OA + OB + OC + OD + OE + OF
= (OA + OD ) + (OB + OE ) + OC
24. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: The angle is 90° for uniform circular
motion only. For circular motions with increasing = 0 + 0 + OC
and decreasing speeds, the angle is acute and
= OC = 1 m
obtuse respectively.
30. Answer (4)
25. Answer (4)
Hint: a = v2/R
dr dv
=
Hint: v = ;a v2
dt dt Sol.: ∆a =2
R
Sol.: r cos ( 3t ) iˆ + sin ( 3t ) ˆj
=
31. Answer (2)
dr Hint: Horizontal component of velocity remains
v = 3 sin ( 3t ) tˆ + 3 cos ( 3t ) jˆ
= =
constant in projectile motion, i.e. u cos θ v cos α
dt
Sol.: 30cos60° = vcos45°
dv
a= =−9 cos ( 3t ) iˆ − 9 sin ( 3t ) ˆj =
−9r
dt v = 15 2 m/s
32. Answer (4)
∴ acceleration is antiparallel r
1
26. Answer (3) r u cos ( θ ) t iˆ + u sin ( θ ) t − gt 2 jˆ
Hint:=
Hint & Sol.: From triangle law of vector addition, 2
=
Sol.: u cos θ 20
= cos ( 30 ) 10 3 m/s
a+b = c
1 2
27. Answer (2) =r 10 3 x (10 ) iˆ + 10 × 10 − × (10 )(10 ) ˆj
Hint: Horizontal projection of projectile 2
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x
Hint: y= x tan θ 1 −
R
x
Sol.: y= x tan θ 1 −
R
New vector will be along (negative z)
dy 2 x tan ( θ )
m= = tan ( θ ) − = −3kˆ
dx R
38. Answer (2)
dm 2 tan ( θ ) dx 2u tan ( θ )
=
0− =
− x u 2 sin ( 2θ )
dt R dt R Hint: Horizontal Range (R) =
g
dm
∴ =
a negative constant
dt
Sol.: 20 =
( 20 )2 sin ( 2θ )
34. Answer (4) (10 )
Hint: Relative motion in 2-D =200 ( 400 ) sin ( 2θ )
Sol.: Resolving: 1
sin ( 2θ ) =
2
2θ= 30°
θ= 15° (with the horizontal)
⇒ 75° (with the vertical)
39. Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Both particles have zero initial
vertical velocity and therefore, would reach the
ground simultaneously.
Both particles will collide ⇒ minimum
separation = 0 40. Answer (1)
Hint: Equation of trajectory of a projectile
35. Answer (2)
Hint: Rain-man problem. =y x tan θ −
gx 2
2u 2
(
1 + tan2 θ )
Sol.:
Sol.: Comparing with equation of trajectory
b = tan(θ)
θ = tan–1(b)
41. Answer (2)
Hint: B || nB if n > 0
Sol.: 8 B has magnitude 8 times the magnitude
10=
2
62 + v girl
2
of B and has same direction as that of B .
v girl = 8 m/s
∴ Magnitude of 8B = 8 × 5 = 40 unit
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42. Answer (2) zero and ball would appear to fall vertically
Hint & Sol.: In uniform circular motion, the downwards.
magnitude of acceleration (centripetal 44. Answer (1)
acceleration) is constant but its direction is Hint & Sol.: x = 3t, y = 4t + 4
variable. Thus statement (a) is wrong. For a
x
moving body, distance can never be zero but t=
displacement can be zero. 3
43. Answer (2) 4x
=
y +4
Hint: Relative motion in 2-D. 3
Sol.: As the ball is dropped, the horizontal 45. Answer (3)
velocity of ball and plane will be same. Thus Hint & Sol.: If θ1 + θ2 = 90°, the range of
relative velocity in horizontal direction would be projectiles is same.
[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3) [Ne]3s23p1 = Al
Hint: Anions are larger than cations, in case of [Ar]4s2 = Ca
isoelectronic species Order of (IE)1
Sol.: Size decreases with increase in effective Mg > Ca > Al > Na
nuclear charge.
51. Answer (3)
The correct order of ionic radii is
Hint: Transition metals have incomplete
So, P3– > S2– > Cl– > K+ d-subshell either in neutral atom or in their ions.
47. Answer (4) Sol.: (n – 1)d5ns2 is a typical transition element
Hint: F has lower negative electron gain enthalpy while ns1 is an s-block (group 1) element
than Cl. (n – 1)d10ns2np5 and ns2np5 are p-block (group
17) elements.
Sol.: ∆egH (kJ mol–1)
52. Answer (2)
F –328
Hint: AB2 type molecules with no lone pair of
Cl –349 electrons on central atom are linear.
S –200 Sol.: H2O, SO2 are bent, SO3 is trigonal planar.
O –141 Be in BeF2 is sp hybridised with no lone pair,
48. Answer (1) hence, linear.
53. Answer (3)
Hint: Al3+ has 10 electrons
1
Sol.: Both Al3+ ion and O2– ion have 10 electrons =
Hint: Bond order (Nb − Na )
2
each, hence, these are isoelectronic.
Where Nb = Number of electrons in bonding
49. Answer (2)
orbitals and Na = Number of electrons in
Hint: Fully filled and half filled subshells are antibonding orbitals.
found to be extraordinarily stable.
Sol.: NO+ and CO both have 14 electrons each
Sol.: Be ...... 2s2 fully filled hence will have the same bond order i.e. 3.
N ...... 2p3 half filled 54. Answer (2)
Hint: H atom bonded with F, O and N generally
Above electronic configurations are associated
gets involved in H-bonding.
with extra stability. Hence, their electron gain
enthalpies are positive. 55. Answer (2)
50. Answer (3) Hint: Hybridisation depends upon the value of n.
n = number of bond pair + number of lone pair.
Hint: Ionisation energy increases with increase in
effective nuclear charge Sol.: NH3; n = 3bp + 1 lp = 4 ∴ sp3 hybridisation
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Hint: HClO4 :
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Hint:
Hint:
3
P is sp hybridized and it acquires tetrahedral
shape.
Both are sp3 hybridized.
87. Answer (2)
Hint: NO2+ has linear geometry. 90. Answer (3)
Sol.: Molecule/ion Bond angle Hint: A metal ion having pseudo inert gas like
NO2+ configuration i.e. having complete d subshell is
180°
found to have greater covalent character.
NO2 134°
Sol.: AgCl has the highest degree of covalent
NO2− 115° character.
[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (3) Monocotyledonae. Both belong to the division
Hint: Metabolic reactions that occur in vitro are Angiospermae.
living reactions. 95. Answer (2)
Sol.: Metabolism is defining feature of all living Hint: ICBN - International Code of Botanical
organisms because non living objects do not Nomenclature
show metabolism. Sol.: The set of rules and recommendations
92. Answer (3) dealing with the formal names of plants is given
in ICBN. Plant cells have cellulosic cell wall.
Hint: First word in the biological name of an
96. Answer (1)
organism is generic name.
Hint: Linnaeus proposed ‘two kingdom system’ of
Sol.: Author citation is written after the specific classification.
epithet of the organism.
Sol.: Kingdom Plantae and Kingdom Animalia
93. Answer (3) were the two kingdoms proposed by Linnaeus.
Hint: Herbaria and botanical gardens are 97. Answer (4)
concerned with plants only. Hint: Some members in Protista and Monera are
Sol.: Museum is a place used for storing, autotrophs.
preservation and exhibition of both plants and Sol.: All the members of Fungi and Animalia are
animals. Catalogue includes the alphabetical heterotrophic.
arrangement of species of a particular place 98. Answer (1)
describing their feature.
Hint: Three-domain system divides the kingdom
94. Answer (1) Monera into two domains.
Hint: Wheat and mango, both are angiosperms. Sol.: Three domains are Bacteria, Archaea and
Sol.: Mango belongs to the class Dicotyledonae Eukarya. All the eukaryotes are grouped in
and wheat belongs to the class Eukarya.
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Sol.: Alternaria is the member of Deuteromycetes appendix (a finger-like tubular projection) which
and Phytophthora is the member of arises from the caecum, is vestigial in human
phycomycetes. beings. Caecum opens into the colon.
135. Answer (3) 143. Answer (4)
Hint: The fungus which is used extensively in Hint: Disorder that is preceded by nausea.
biochemical and genetic work belongs to Sol.: Vomiting is the ejection of stomach contents
Ascomycetes through mouth.
Sol.: Neurospora is used extensively in Indigestion is caused due to inadequate enzyme
biochemical and genetic work. They produce secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, overeating and
asexual spores exogenously and ascospores spicy food.
endogenously.
144. Answer (4)
136. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify the characteristic feature of
Hint: These are involved in grinding of food. kwashiorkor disease.
Sol.: Premolars and last molar are a part of Sol.: Marasmus is produced by a simultaneous
permanent dentition. deficiency of proteins and calories. It is found in
137. Answer (2) infants less than one year of age. In Marasmus,
Hint: Product of mastication that passes from oral both growth rate and body weight decline
cavity to stomach. considerably.
Sol.: In stomach, food mixes with acidic gastric 145. Answer (1)
juice by the churning movements producing Hint: Structure that has a cystic duct.
chyme. Sol.: Gall bladder stores bile composed of bile
138. Answer (2) pigments, bile salts, cholesterol and
phospholipids but no enzymes.
Hint: 70% starch is hydrolysed in small intestine
146 Answer (4)
Sol.: Salivary amylase converts starch into
maltose. Hint: Ileum is the last part of the small intestine.
Sol.: Ileo-caecal valve prevents the backward
flow of the faecal matter. The faecal matter is
temporarily stored in the rectum till defecation.
139. Answer (4)
Sphincter of Boyden controls opening of common
Hint: Enzyme which acts on nucleic acid bile duct into hepatopancreatic duct.
Sol.: The enzymes in succus entericus are a part 147. Answer (2)
of intestinal juice. It includes dipeptidases,
Hint: Enzyme secreted by accessory digestive
maltase, lactase, sucrase, nucleotidase,
gland.
nucleosidase and intestinal lipases.
Sol.: Carbohydrates in the chyme are hydrolysed
140. Answer (1)
by pancreatic amylase into disaccharides.
Hint: Layer which is located outer to mucosa
148. Answer (2)
Sol.: The submucosal layer is formed of loose
Hint: Lymph turns white upon absorption of lipids.
connective tissue containing nerves, blood and
lymph vessels. In duodenum, Brunner’s glands Sol.: B-Lacteals, A-Villi,
are present in sub mucosal layer. C-Artery, D-Vein
141. Answer (1) 149. Answer (2)
Hint: Digested food gets absorbed in small Hint: Largest gland of the body.
intestine. Sol.: Hepatic lobule is the structural and
Sol.: Bio-macromolecules (protein, nucleic acids, functional unit of liver. Glisson’s capsule is a
polysaccharides and lipids) have to be broken mammalian feature.
down and converted into simple substances in 150. Answer (4)
the digestive system.
Hint: Assimilation occurs after digestion and
142. Answer (2) absorption.
Hint: Identify a part of large intestine. Sol.: Although absorption in human digestive
Sol.: Caecum is a small blind sac which hosts system occurs chiefly in small intestine, some
some symbiotic micro-organisms. Vermiform amount of absorption also occurs in the stomach.
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Test – 2 (Code-D)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021
TEST - 2 (Code-D)
Test Date : 10/11/2019
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (2) 109. (3) 145. (2)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (3) 110. (1) 146. (4)
3. (2) 39. (1) 75. (4) 111. (4) 147. (2)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (3) 112. (2) 148. (3)
5. (2) 41. (1) 77. (4) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (1) 114. (2) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (4) 79. (2) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (3) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (4) 45. (1) 81. (2) 117. (4) 153. (2)
10. (3) 46. (3) 82. (2) 118. (1) 154. (4)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (3) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (4) 48. (3) 84. (2) 120. (4) 156. (1)
13. (3) 49. (2) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (1)
14. (4) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (2) 51. (1) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (4)
16. (4) 52. (3) 88. (1) 124. (4) 160. (4)
17. (1) 53. (2) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (4)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (3) 126. (2) 162. (4)
19. (2) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (1)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (1) 164. (3)
21. (4) 57. (3) 93. (1) 129. (4) 165. (1)
22. (4) 58. (3) 94. (2) 130. (1) 166. (4)
23. (4) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (1) 60. (3) 96. (4) 132. (1) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (4) 97. (1) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (2) 62. (4) 98. (4) 134. (3) 170. (4)
27. (3) 63. (3) 99. (3) 135. (3) 171. (1)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (1) 136. (2) 172. (4)
29. (4) 65. (3) 101. (2) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (1) 102. (2) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (3) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (1)
32. (1) 68. (1) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (1)
33. (1) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (3) 177. (4)
34. (4) 70. (4) 106. (1) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (2) 107. (4) 143. (1) 179. (2)
36. (4) 72. (1) 108. (1) 144. (4) 180. (3)
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=y x tan θ −
gx 2
2u 2
(
1 + tan2 θ ) 10=
2
62 + v girl
2
Sol.: 20 =
( 20 )2 sin ( 2θ ) Both particles will collide ⇒ minimum
(10 ) separation = 0
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36. Answer (4) dv
Sol.: Speed is constant ∴ =
0
Hint: v2 = u2 + 2ats dt
Sol.: v2 = 2 ats dv
Velocity is variable∴ ≠0
dt
v2 = 2 × 2 × 4
d 2v
= 4 m/s Acceleration vector is also variable ∴ ≠0
dt 2
37. Answer (1)
41. Answer (1)
Hint: Relative acceleration between free falling
particles is zero. Hint & Sol.: Greater the vertical component of
velocity of projection greater would be the time of
Sol.: Since relative acceleration = 0 flight and the maximum height.
∴ relative velocity = 5 + 3 = 8 m/s is constant. 42. Answer (1)
Separation = relative velocity × time Hint: River-swimmer problem with minimum time
of crossing.
= 8 × 4 = 32 m
d 200
38. Answer (2) Sol.: T=
min = = 20 s
v m /R 10
Hint: Use concept of velocity of approach.
43. Answer (4)
Sol.: Velocity along line OP = 10 cos60° = 5 m/s. Hint: Use vector addition.
20 = 3iˆ + 4 jˆ
Sol.: P
= = 4s
Time taken
5
P + Q = 8iˆ + 7 ˆj
39. Answer (1)
Hint: Velocity in circular motion is tangential. Q = 8iˆ + 7 jˆ − P = 8iˆ + 7 jˆ − 3iˆ − 4 jˆ = 5iˆ + 3 jˆ
Thus, angle between acceleration and tangential
direction would be angle between acceleration Q= 25 + 9= 34
and velocity. 44. Answer (2)
2 2 Hint: Uniformly accelerated motion in two
v 20 400
Sol.: a=
c = = = 40 m/s2 dimensions.
R 10 10
2h 2 × 20
dv Sol.: Time of flight=
(T) = = 2s
=
at = 10 m/s2 given g g
dt
1 2
Horizontal Displacement = at
2
1
= × 10 × 4 = 20 m
2
( 202 + 202 )
Displacement =
1/2
( 2 × 202 )
=
1/2
= 20 2 m
45. Answer (1)
Hint: v x = u x ,v y = −gt
a 40
tan(θ)= c= = 4
at 10 Sol.: At any time t, the horizontal and vertical
components of velocity can be written as
θ =tan−1(4) vx = 10 m/s and vy = –gt = –10t
40. Answer (1) if velocity is directed at angle 45° with the
horizontal, then
Hint: In uniform circular motion, speed ( v ) is
vx = vy
constant, but velocity (v ) is variable due to
change in its direction. 10 = 10t ⇒t=1s
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[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3) 52. Answer (3)
Hint: A metal ion having pseudo inert gas like
configuration i.e. having complete d subshell is Hint: In , there is no π bond.
found to have greater covalent character.
Sol.: AgCl has the highest degree of covalent
character.
47. Answer (4) Sol.: has 2π bonds
O = C = O has 2π bonds
Hint:
N≡N has 2π bonds
Both are sp3 hybridized. 53. Answer (2)
48. Answer (3) Hint: C – N bond in CN– ion is polar.
While N – N bond in N2 is non polar.
Hint: has 2 l.p. on central atom. 54. Answer (3)
Hint: Bond type Bond length (pm)
Sol.: Xe in XeF6 has 1 lone pair C–H 107
S in SO3 has 0 lone pair C–C 154
C–N 143
P in PO34− has 0 lone pair
55. Answer (4)
49. Answer (2)
Hint: In H – C ≡ N there are 2σ and 2π bonds.
Hint: NO2+ has linear geometry.
Sol.: Molecule/ion Bond angle Sol.: In, 4σ, 1π bonds
NO2+ 180°
NO2 134°
In, 4σ, 2π bonds
NO2− 115°
50. Answer (2)
In, O = N – N = O 3σ, 2π bonds
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10 − 4
Sol.: =
Sol.: Bond order of N2 molecule = 3
2
2−2
Sol.: B.O. in =
He2 = 0
2 Sol.:
65. Answer (3)
Hint: Dipole moment of molecule is zero. Hint: Bond order in SO24− ion
number of σ bonds + π bonds
=
number of σ bonds
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[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (3) 96. Answer (4)
Hint: The fungus which is used extensively in Hint: In wheat, rust is caused by Puccinia and
biochemical and genetic work belongs to smut is caused by Ustilago.
Ascomycetes Sol.: Both Puccinia and Ustilago are the
Sol.: Neurospora is used extensively in members of Basidiomycetes.
biochemical and genetic work. They produce 97. Answer (1)
asexual spores exogenously and ascospores Sol.: Venus flytrap is partially heterotrophic plant.
endogenously.
98. Answer (4)
92. Answer (4)
Hint: Zoospores are formed in the members of
Hint: Early blight of potato is caused by Phycomycetes.
Alternaria and late blight of potato is caused by Sol.: In Phycomycetes, the mycelia are aseptate
Phytophthora. and coenocytic. Their spores are produced
Sol.: Alternaria is the member of Deuteromycetes endogenously. They also reproduce sexually.
and Phytophthora is the member of 99. Answer (3)
phycomycetes.
Hint: Chlamydospores are formed under
93. Answer (1) unfavourable conditions.
Hint: Deuteromycetes are commonly known as Sol.: Chlamydospores are thick walled resting
imperfect fungi. resistant spores.
Sol.: Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma 100. Answer (1)
are the members of Deuteromycetes. Hint: Spores of slime moulds are extremely
94. Answer (2) resistant and survive for many years.
Hint: Agaricus is a member of Basidiomycetes. Sol.: During unfavourable conditions entire
plasmodium forms sporocarp which contains a
Sol.: In Agarcius, the dikaryotic structure stalk having a sporangium at its tip. In sporangia
ultimately gives rise to basidium in which spores are produced. Spores have cell wall
karyogamy and meiosis take place.
101. Answer (2)
95. Answer (2) Hint: Paramoecium is a ciliated protozoan.
Hint: The given figure is of Aspergillus. Sol.: Trypanosoma is a flagellated protozoan.
Sol.: Aspergillus belong to the class Marine forms of amoeboid protozoans have silica
Ascomycetes (sac-fungi). It produces conidia shells on their surface. Plasmodium causes
exogenously. malaria.
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Sol.: The trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary transported into lacteals in villi. Lacteals
bronchi and initial bronchioles are supported by ultimately release the absorbed substances into
incomplete cartilaginous rings. the blood stream.
152. Answer (2) 160. Answer (4)
Hint: Spinal cord is dorsal in humans. Hint: Structure that has maximum surface area.
Sol.: The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by Sol.: In small intestine, the cells forming the villi
the vertebral column, ventrally by the sternum, produce numerous microscopic projections called
laterally by the ribs and on the lower side by microvilli which give a brush border appearance.
dome-shaped diaphragm. These modifications increase the surface area
153. Answer (2) enormously.
Hint: Largest class in the animal kingdom. 161. Answer (4)
Sol.: Lower invertebrates like sponges, Hint: Structure related to tonsils.
coelenterates, flatworms, etc, exchange O2 with Sol.: Lymphoid tissue of pharynx is called tonsil.
CO2 by simple diffusion over their entire body Tonsils are arranged in a ring like-manner called -
surface. Waldeyer’s ring.
154. Answer (4) 162. Answer (4)
Hint: Residual volume remains same in lungs Hint: Cells which are wine glass shaped in
even after a forceful exhalation. structure.
Sol.: Expiratory capacity is a sum of tidal volume Sol.: Parietal cells secrete HCl and goblet cells
and expiratory reserve volume. secrete mucus.
EC = TV + ERV 163. Answer (1)
= 500 + 1000 Hint: Structure into which the buccal cavity
= 1500 ml. opens.
155. Answer (3) Sol.: A cartilaginous flap called epiglottis prevents
Hint: Wheezing occurs due to constriction of the entry of food into the glottis i.e. opening of the
bronchioles. wind pipe, during swallowing.
Sol.: Asthma occurs due to allergic reaction to 164. Answer (3)
foreign substances that affect the respiratory Hint: Dentition that has well-developed roots.
tract. Sol.: When a set of temporary milk teeth are
156. Answer (1) replaced by a set of permanent teeth, the type of
Hint: Source and target organ of this hormone is dentition is called diphyodont.
stomach. 165. Answer (1)
Sol.: Secretin promotes release of bicarbonates Hint: Frenulum means a small fold.
in the pancreatic juice. It increases secretion of Sol.: Tongue is a voluntary muscular and
bile and decreases gastric secretion and motility. glandular structure which occupies the floor of the
Somatostatin suppresses the release of mouth. It is attached to the floor of the mouth by a
hormones from digestive tract. fold called the lingual frenulum.
157. Answer (1) 166. Answer (4)
Hint: Action of amylase Hint: Assimilation occurs after digestion and
Sol.: Salivary amylase acts optimally at pH 6.8. absorption.
158. Answer (4) Sol.: Although absorption in human digestive
system occurs chiefly in small intestine, some
Hint: Present in beverages like wine.
amount of absorption also occurs in the stomach.
Sol.: Absorption of water, simple sugars and
167. Answer (2)
alcohol takes place in stomach. No significant
digestive activity occurs in the large intestine. Hint: Largest gland of the body.
159. Answer (4) Sol.: Hepatic lobule is the structural and
functional unit of liver. Glisson’s capsule is a
Hint: Identify water insoluble substances.
mammalian feature.
Sol.: Fatty acids and glycerol are first
168. Answer (2)
incorporated into small droplets called micelles
which move into the intestinal mucosa. They are Hint: Lymph turns white upon absorption of lipids.
rearranged into very small protein coated fat Sol.: B-Lacteals, A-Villi,
globules called the chylomicrons which are C-Artery, D-Vein
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