MAJOR EXAMINATION

SUBJECT– SCIENCE
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –VII Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 14- 02- 20 20
I. The question paper is divided into three sections :

SECTION A : Physics 25 MARKS

3 questions of 2 mark each, 3 questions of 3 marks each, 1 questions of 5 marks each 1 Practical/
Activity/knowledge based questions of 5 marks.

SECTION B : Chemistry 25 MARKS

1 questions of 2 mark each, 3 questions of 3 marks each, 2 questions of 5 marks each and 2 Practical/
Activity/knowledge based questions of 2 marks each.

SECTION C : Biology 30 MARKS

2 questions of 2 mark each, 4 questions of 3 marks each, 2 questions of 5 marks each and 2 Practical/
Activity/knowledge based questions of 2 marks each.
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. You may attempt any section at a time.
IV. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
V. Use only pencil to draw the diagram.

SECTION –A
1. Name five artificial satellites. [2 Marks]

2. What are uses of plane, concave and convex mirror? [2 Marks]

3. Convert 37ºC in ºF [2 Marks]

4. A building uses 20 lights of 100 W each, 15 fans of 60 W each and 2 table lamps of 100 W each for 5
hours a day. How many units of electricity are used (a) in one day (b) in the month of April? What would
be the cost of electricity for the month of April, if one unit costs Rs.4.0? [3 Marks]

5. What is the tornado ? [3 Marks]

6. Differentiate between conductor and insulator of heat. Give two examples of each. [3 Marks]

7. Explain the following terms : [5 Marks]

(i) electrical circuit
(ii) circuit symbols
(iii) primary and secondary cells
(iv) volt
(v) watt.
8. Draw any two ray diagram in which virtual image are formed by mirrors. [5 Marks]

SECTION –B
9. Draw a flow chart of wool production. [2 Marks]

10. Answer in short: [3 Marks]

(a) Sorter’s disease is caused by which bacteria?
(b) Cutting of hairs is physical change or chemical change?
(c) Name one chemical used to disinfect water.
(d) What is the boiling point of water?
(e) When is World Water Day celebrated?
(f) Which gas is released when Calcium Carbonate is heated?

11. Define (any three) [3 Marks]

(a) Shearing (b) Spinning (c) Evaporation (d) Precipitation
(e) Synthetic Fibres

12. What are the three sources of water? Discuss in short about them. [3 Marks]

13. (a) What is sewage? [1+1+3=5 Marks]

(b) Explain the function of skimmer in WWTP.
(c) Draw a well-labelled flow chart representing various steps in Wastewater Treatment Plant.

14. (a) What is rusting ? Write any two ways of preventing rusting. [3 + 2 = 5 Marks]
(b) Write any two difference between physical & chemical change.

15. In a reaction, a gas is released. How will you test if the gas is CO2 ? [2 Marks]

16. When a candle burns, both physical and chemical changes take place. What are these changes?
[2 Marks]

SECTION –C
17. Why forests are called ‘green lungs’. [2 Marks]

18. Write down the correct flow of circulation of blood. [2 Marks]

19. Differentiate between pollination and fertilization. [3 Marks]

OR

Differentiate between asexual and sexual reproduction.

20. Draw a well labelled diagram of a flower. [3 Marks]

OR
Draw a well labelled diagram of Urinary system.

21. Differentiate between food chain and food web. [3 Marks]

MT_VII 2
22. Define the following:- [3 Marks]
(i) Budding
(ii) Fragmentation
(iii) Regeneration
(iv) Heart beat
(v) Pulse rate
(vi) Aerobic respiration

23. Differentiate between arteries and veins. [5 Marks]

24. State true or false:- [5 Marks]

(i) Wind, water and animals help in seed dispersal.
(ii) The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to stigma is called fertilization.
(iii) Herbs and shrubs form the canopy in a forest.
(iv) All mammals including human beings excrete uric acid.
(v) Absorption and assimilation are similar processes.

25. Shobha and her family live in kerala. Yam is a very commonly found vegetable in Kerala. Shobha’s
mother removes the skin of this tuber, dices it and then boils it in tamarind water. [2 Marks]
(a) Why did shobha’s mother boil Yam in tamarind water?
(b) What chemical does Yam contain?

26. Pappu’s grandpa felt a mild chest pain and was taken to a renowned cardiologist who immediately took
ECG and set up a team to take proper care of grandpa. He got out of danger. [2 Marks]
(a) What might be the problems due to which grandpa suffered from chest pain?
(b) Why is the colour of blood red?

MT_VII 3
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– MATHEMATICS
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –VII Time : 3 Hours

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 19- 02- 20 20

(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D.
(iii) Section A contains 6 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each.
Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each.
Section D contains 8 questions of 4 marks each.
(iv) Use of calculators is not permitted.

SECTION –A [6 × 1 = 6 Marks]
1. The other name of tetrahedron is ?

2. What is Range ?

3. What is the probability of selecting M from the word MORE ?

3 2 3 2
4. Subtract 2x + x – 4x – 1 from 5x + 5x + 9

5. If the arithmetic mean of 5, 7, 9, x is 9. Then find the value of x.

6. At what rate will Rs. 6250 amounts to Rs. 7000 in 4 years ?

SECTION –B [6 × 2 = 12 Marks]
5 3
 1  1
7. Obtain the value of 23     26   
2 2

8. Solve and find the value of x :

x b x b

ab ab

9. What should be subtracted from 2a + 8b + 10 to get –3a + 7b + 16 ?

10. State the number of lines of symmetry for the following figures :
(i) A Parallelogram
(ii) A regular hexagon

11. Anu wants to fence the garden in front of her house on three sides with length 20m, 12m and 12m. Find
the cost of fencing at the rate of Rs. 150 per metre.

12. Two numbers are in ratio 4 : 11 and their sum is 135. Find the numbers.
 SECTION –C [10 × 3 = 30 Marks]

13. When 50 is added to the 50% of a number, then the number becomes itself. Then what will be the
number ?

14. What single discount will be equal to two successive discount of 20% and 10% ?

15. An article is marked at Rs. 500. During off season a discount is given and it is sold for Rs. 450. Find
discount percent allowed.

16. Mala purchased a table for Rs. 1260 and due to some scratches on its top, she had to sell it for Rs.
1197. Find her loss percent.

17. A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years. What is the rate of interest ?

18. Find the median of the values 37, 31, 42, 43, 46, 25, 39, 45, 32.

19. A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 black balls and 4 white balls. A ball is drawn random from the bag. What is
the probability that the ball drawn is :
(i) White (ii) Red (iii) Black
2
20. If the area and length of a rectangular plot are 440 m and 22m respectively, then find its breadth ?

21. A polyhedron has 30 edges and 20 vertices. How many faces does the polyhedron have ?

22. Observe the Bar Graph Given below and answer the following :
Library Visits

Monday

Tuesday
Days of the week

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday

Saturday

0 100 200 300 400

Number of visitors
Number of visitors
(i) On which day did the library receive the most visitors?
(ii) Approximately how many visitors came to the library that day?
(iii) Approximately how many visitors came to the library on Monday?

MT_VII 2
 SECTION –D [8 × 4 = 32 Marks]

23. If the observations 20, 22, 23, 25, (x + 1), (x + 3), 36, 38, 39 and 41 have median 30, then the value of x.

st nd
24. The performance of a student in 1 Term and 2 Term is given. Draw a double bar graph choosing
appropriate scale and answer the following
Subject English Hindi Maths Science S. Science
st
1 Term (M.M. 100) 67 72 88 81 73
nd
2 Term (M.M. 100) 70 65 95 85 75
(i) In which subject, has the child improved his performance the most ?
(ii) In which subject is the improvement the least ?
(iii) Has the performance gone down in any subject ?

25. The following table shows the weights of the students of a class. Find the mean weight.
Weight (in kg) 25 27 28 30 32 33
No. of students 5 4 5 6 3 2

26. Find the area of the given quadrilateral ABCD, whose diagonal AC = 19.5 cm and the offsets on it are
5.4 cm and 10.6 cm.

27. Find the area of a ring shaped region enclosed between two concentric circles of radii 20 cm and 15 cm.

28. A retailer buys a radio for Rs. 225. His overhead expenses are Rs. 15 sells the radio for Rs. 300. Find
the profit percent of the retailer.

29. Of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are males of whom 20% are literate. If of all the inhabitants,
25% are literate, then what percent of the females of the town are literate ?

30. A farmer borrowed Rs. 2500 and Rs. 4500 from a bank for buying seeds and fixing a tubewell
respectively at simple interest with the same rate. He paid after 3 years 3 months Rs 520 more interest
on the sum borrowed for tubewell. Find the rate of interest per annum.

MT_VII 3
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– ENGLISH
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –VII Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 11- 0 2- 20 20
I. The question paper is divided into three sections :
SECTION A : Reading 15 MARKS
SECTION B : Writing 15 MARKS
SECTION C : Grammar 20 MARKS
SECTION D : Literature 30 MARKS
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. You may attempt any section at a time.
IV. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

SECTION A : READING [15 MARKS]

1. Read the passage given below. [7 Marks]
After the emperor had left, a crowd of people came to see me. I was a novelty in that island because
these people had never seen someone of my size before. Some of the tiny people aimed arrows at me.
One arrow nearly shot into my eye. These people were handed over to me to punish as I pleased.
To give them a fright. I Pretended I was going to eat one of them, and I put the others in my pocket.
When I took out my penknife, they were terrified but I cut the cords of each of these tiny people and put
them on the ground. People went to tell the Emperor who in return of my kindness to his people decided
that I would not be killed.
On the Emperor's orders, six cows and forty sheep were to be milked every day to provide me with milk.
My clothes were to be made by three hundred tailors and I was to have six hundred attendants to look
after me. I was to be taught the local language by six teachers.

1.1 On the basis of your reading of answer the following questions:-

(i) Why did a crowd of people come to see the author?
(ii) Where did the arrow shoot the speakers?
(iii) How did the author frighten the people who were shooting arrows at h
(iv) How did the speaker terrify the little people?
(v) What did the Emperor decide?
(vi) Write the word from the passage which means 'very small'
(vii) Write the word from the passage which means ‘give'.

2. Read the passage given below. [8 Marks]

A myth has been built around the pelican, one of the oldest surviving birds. It is a commonly held
belief that the mother feeds her chicks on her own blood. So people have regarded the pelican as most
affectionate and dutiful bird. The large bill of the bird makes it very easy to recognise it. It has a short
tail, short legs, long wings and a large bag under its bill. Because of its webbed toes, the pelican finds
walking on the land difficult. However, it is a delight to watch these birds in flight. The pelican has
figured among the largest of birds. It has a wing span of upto 2.75 metres, and weighs between 4.5 and
11 kg. It lives in places with a moderate climate. It migrates to India, Africa and Iran in winter because its
wings do not give sufficient protection against the cold. The brown pelican is the smallest of the
pelicans. It dives its head long into water from quite a height to get at its prey. The other six species of
pelicans have a white plumage. Pelicans are very sociable birds. They travel, rest, nest and even fish
together. The young pelicans take wing when they are about two months old. The nests of pelicans are
far from the source of any food. Therefore, the adults have to fly great distances to get food.

MT_VII 1
2.1 Below you can find a summary of the above passage. Fill in each blank with one word/phrase to
complete it.
Pelican is one of the oldest (a) ……………birds. It is believed that its young ones are
fed by the mother’s (b) . …………..Perhaps due to this, pelican is regarded as the (c) ……….and dutiful
bird. It has long (d)…………… , webbed feet and a very short tail. Pelican finds it difficult to walk on land
because of its (e)……………… . It lives in places where the climate is (f)………….. . In all, there are
seven species of pelicans.

2.2 Find words from the above passage that mean the same as
(i) enough
(ii) friendly

SECTION B : WRITING [15 MARKS]

3. Write an application to your Principal requesting him to grant leave. Also mention
reason/reasons. You are Kamal/Kamala. [8 Marks]

4. Write a story from the given outline. [7 Marks]

Outline: An elephant …… always passed by a tailor's shop ……. tailor angry. One day …… pricked
with a needle …….elephant filled his trunk with dirty water…….. threw it all around in the shop
……spoiled the clothes.
OR
Write a paragraph on the topic “The last time I cried.”

SECTION C : GRAMMAR [20 MARKS]

5. Fill in the correct form of the verb – All tenses [5 Marks]

(i) I ……………………….. (prepared/was preparing) well for the exam, yet I failed.
(ii) The teacher ……………………… (asks/asked) an interesting question in the class yesterday.
(iii) I looked around but I ……………………. (didn't find/don't find) anyone.
(iv) She threw a glass at me, but …………………… (missed/had missed)
(v) If you don’t hurry, you …………………. (will miss/missed) the train.

6. Change the following sentences from the Active Voice to the Passive voice. [5 Marks]
(i) The boy feeds his dogs twice a day.
(ii) The naughty kids broke several windows.
(iii) Susheela was selling her paintings.
(iv) The villagers had built a house.
(v) They will build a school.

7. Underline Adjective Phrase in the sentences given below: [5 Marks]

1. He wore a robe of red velvet and a crown of gold.
2.The dearest wish of my mother is to own a Mercedes car.
3.He belongs to the tribe of Africa.
4.He comes from a village in the remote part of the Himalayas.
5. The hut on the top of the mountain range is mine.

8. Punctuate the following sentences and rewrite them. [5 Marks]

1. here i am master i am ready to go wherever you want me to go he said
2. rita meena and seema were seen playing badminton in the morning
3. geeta’s father mr arun kumar is a police officer
4. we left for agra yesterday
5. what a remarkable victory

MT_VII 2
 SECTION D : LITERATURE [30 MARKS]
9. Read the extract given below and answer the following questions. [4 Marks]
Meadows have surprises
You can find them if you look;
Walk softly through the velvet grass,
And listen by the brook.
You may see a butterfly ‘ Rest upon a buttercup
And unfold its drinking straws
To sip the nectar up.
(i) What surprises do the meadows have to offer you?
(ii) Why is it a great pleasure to walk through the meadows?
(iii) What does the poet call ‘buttercup’as? Why?
(iv) What must have been called as the ‘drinking straws’ by the poet?

10. Write the meaning of the following words: [5 Marks]

(i) gaunt (ii) peek (iii) accomplice (iv) equipment
(v) cope (vi) twiddling (vii) remnant (viii) ravages
(ix) topsy-turvy (x) degenerated into

11. Answer the following questions in about 30-40 words. [10 Marks]
(i) Describe Plan A and its consequences.
(ii) Why does Maya think Mr. Nath was a crook? Who does she say the Sunday visitor is?
(iii) What happens to the volunteer who swallows four drops of the new invention? What was the name
of the invention?
(iv) How does an electric fan manage to throw so much air when switched on?
(v) What special treatment did the chain receive?

12. Answer the following questions in about 50-60 words: [6 Marks]

(i) What are the three main ways in which fire can be controlled or put out?
(ii) Does Nishad agree with Maya about Mr. Nath? How does he feel about him?

13. Read the extract given below and answer the following questions. [5 Marks]
Cricket grew out of many stick-and-ball games played in England 500years ago, under a variety of
different rules. The word ‘bat’ is an old English word that simply means stick or club. By the seventeenth
century, cricket had evolved enough to be recognisable as a distinct game. Another curious
characteristic of cricket is that the length of the pitch is specified-22yards-but the size or shape of the
ground is not. Grounds can be oval like the Adelaide Oval or nearly circular, like Chepauk in Chennai. .
The first written ‘Law of Cricket’ were drawn up in 1744. The stumps must be 22 inches high and the bail
across them 6 inches. The ball must be between 5 and 6 ounces, and the two sets of stumps 22 yards
apart”. The weight of the ball was limited to between 5 ½ to 5 ¾ , and the width of the bat to 4 inches.
IN 1774, the first leg-before law was published. The origins of Indian cricket are to be found Bombay
and the Indian community to start playing the game was the small community of Zoroastrians, the
Parsis. The Parsis founded the first Indian cricket club, the Oriental Cricket Club, in Bombay in 1848.
Modern cricket is dominated by Tests and One-day internationals, played between national teams. C.K.
Nayudu, an outstanding Indian batsman of his time. Palwankar Baloo, the greatest slow bowler of his
time. Sir Donald Bradman, the best ever batsman in the history of cricket. India entered the world of
Test cricket in 1932, a decade and a half before it became an independent nation.
(i) In which place was cricket born?
(ii) What do you mean by term ‘bat’?
(iii) Where is the Chepauk cricket ground situated?
(iv) The length of a cricket pitch is ________.
(v) The first written ‘Laws of Cricket’ were drawn up in _______.

MT_VII 3
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
fo"k; – fgUnh
l= % 2019-20
vf/kdre vad : 80 d{kk –VII le; : 3 ?k.Vs
lkekU; funsZ'k 10-02-2020

(i) lHkh iz'u djuk vfuok;Z gSA

(ii) bl iz'u i= esa pkj [k.M fn;s x;s gS
[k.M ^d* & vifBr x|ka'k
[k.M ^[k* & O;kdj.k
[k.M ^x* & ikB~;iqLrd
[k.M ^?k* & jpuk
[k.M ^d* (vifBr x|ka'k)
1. fuEufyf[kr x|ka”k dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr iz”uksa ds mÙkj fyf[k, & [5 Marks]
fo”o eas tad QwM vkerkSj ij fpIl] dSMh tSls vYikgkj dks dgk tkrk gSA cxZj] fiTtk tSls rys&Hkqus QkLV
QwM dks Hkh tad QwM dh laKk nh tkrh gS mlh izdkj fQ”k] fpIl vkfn Hkkstuksa dks Hkh tad QwM ekuk tkrk
gSA mPp oxZ ds fy, tad QwM dh lwph dkQh yach gksrh gS] rks e/;e oxZ dbZ [kk| inkFkksZ dks blls ckgj
j[krs gSA tad QwM ls fiNys nl o’kksZ esa eksVkis ls xzLr jksfx;ksa dh la[;k dkQh c<+h gSA tad QwM esa
vR;f/kd dkcksZgkbMªsV] olk vkSj “kdZjk gksrh gS] blesa vf/kdrj rydj cuk, tkus okys O;atu % tSls & cxZj]
fiTtk] isVht vkfn “kkfey gksrs gSA tad QwM “kCn T;knk dSyksjh vkSj de iks’kd rRoksa okys [kk| inkFkksZ dh
vksj yksaxks dk /;ku vkd`’V djrk gSA tad QwM dk iz;ksx gkfudkjd ugha gS] c”krsZ [kku-iku esa larqfyr
vkgkj dh dksbZ deh u gksA
(i) tad QwM esa fdl izdkj ds O;atu “kkfey gksrs gS\
(ii) ^tad QwM^ “kCn fdl vkSj yksxksa dk /;ku vkd`’V djrk gS\
(iii) tad QwM ls dSl s jksfx;ksa dh la[;k esa o`f} gqbZ gS\
(iv) tad QwM esa fdldh ek=k vf/kd gksrh gS\
(v) tad QwM dk foykse “kCn fyf[k,A

[k.M ^[k* (O;kdj.k)

2. fuEufyf[kr x|ka”k dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr iz”uksa ds mÙkj fyf[k, & [15 Marks]
(i) Loj laf/k fdls dgrs gS \ blds izdkjksa ds uke mnkgj.k lfgr fyf[k,A
(ii) deZ/kkj; vkSj }a} lekl dks mnkgj.k lfgr fyf[k,A
(iii) fo”ks’k.k dh ifjHkk’kk fyf[k,A la[;kokpd vkSj xq.kokpd fo”ks’k.k dks le>kb,A
(iv) lekl fdls dgrs gS \ cgqczhfg o f}xq ds nks&nks mnkgj.k fyf[k,A
(v) fyf[kr Hkk’kk D;k gS \ blds nks mnkgj.k fyf[k,A

3. ¼d½ fuEufyf[kr ”kCnksa ds foykse ”kCn fyf[k, & [3 Marks]

(i) vuqt (ii) m’.k (iii) xzkeh.k (iv) u”o+j
(v) uhjl (ii) isze
¼[k½ uhps fy[ks ”kCnksa ds nks&nks i;kZ;okph fyf[k, & [2 Marks]
(i) ve`r (ii) vkdk”k (iii) xaxk (iv) ioZr
 ¼x½ uhps fy[ks eqgkojksa ds vFkZ fyf[k, & [2 Marks]
(i) vkLrhu dk lk¡i (ii) ukS nks X;kjg gksuk
(iii) dku ij t¡w u jsaxuk (iv) ?kh ds fn, tykuk

4. uhps fy[ks ”kCnksa dk lekl dk foxzg dhft, & [3 Marks]

(i) egkiq:’k
(ii) tyeXu
(iii) xkS”kkyk
(iv) vkthou
(v) dtZeqDr
(vi) prqHkZqt

5. uhps fy[ks ”kCnksa dks ”kq) djds fyf[k, & [2 Marks]

(i) ujkt (ii) fdjf’k (iii) R;kSgkj (iv) iqT;

[k.M ^x* (ikB~;iqLrd)

6. uhps fy[ks iz”uksa ds mÙkj la{ksi esa fyf[k, & ¼dksbZ vkB½ [16 Marks]
(i) uhydaB dks ckgj NksM+uk ysf[kdk dh foo”krk dc cu tkrh Fkh \
(ii) ehjk dks lkou euHkkou D;ksa yxus yxk \
(iii) dq¡oj flag dh f”k{kk&nh{kk dh O;oLFkk dgk¡ dh xbZ Fkh \
(iv) /kujkt ds fy, iqjkuh fLVd Hkh dherh Fkh] D;ksa \
(v) xk¡/khth vkJe esa cSyxkM+h vkSj ?kksM+k xkMh D;ksa j[kuk pkgrs Fks \
(vi) dfo lekt esa cnyko ykus ds fy, foIyo dk lgkjk D;ksa ysuk pkgrk gS \
(vii) calhokjs dks dkSu txk jgk gS vkSj D;ksa \
(viii) [kkuiku ds ekeys esa LFkkuh;rk dk D;k vFkZ gS \
(ix) frudk iM+us ls dfo dks D;k lh[k feyh \
(x) /kjrh gesa D;k izsj.kk nsrh gS \

7. uhps fy[ks iz”uksa ds mÙkj foLrkj ls fyf[k, & [18 Marks]

(i) dfo jghe us r:oj vkSj ljksoj ds dk;kZsa ls lTtuksa ds dkeksa dh rqyuk dh gS \
(ii) *dapk* dgkuh esa fdl&fdlds fy, lans”k fNik gS \
(iii) [kku&[kku ds cnyko ds D;k&D;k Qk;ns gS \ fQj ys[kd bl cnyko dks ysdj D;ksa fpafrr gS \
(iv) ysf[kdk dks uhydaB dh dkSu&dkSu&lh ps’Vk,¡ cgqr Hkkrh Fkh \
(v) lkaiznkf;d ln~Hkko eas dq¡oj flag dh xgjh vkLFkk Fkh &
ikB ds vk/kkj ij dFku dh iqf’V dhft,A
(vi) lk{kkRdkj i<+dj vkids eu esa /kujkt fiYyS dh dSlh Nfo mHkjrh gS \ o.kZu dhft,A

8. fuEu ”kCnksa ds vFkZ fyf[k, & [3 Marks]

(i) vgfe;r
(ii) vuqekfur
(iii) lfØ;
(iv) j[kokjs
(v) equkflc
(vi) nq%lk/;

MT_VII 2
 [k.M ^?k* (jpuk)
9. fuEu esa ls fdlh ,d fo’k; ij fuca/k fyf[k, & [6 Marks]
gekjk ns”k Hkkjr
vFkok
jk’Vªh; m|ku&fpfM+;k?kj dh lSj
10. vkids fo|ky; esa ihus ds ikuh dh O;oLFkk vPNh ugha gS] bl laca/k eas iz/kkukpk;Z dks izkFkZuk&i= fyf[k,A
[5 Marks]
vFkok
vkids NksVs HkkbZ us vFkd ifjJe ls ijh{kk esa lQyrk ikbZ gSA vius HkkbZ dks lQyrk ds fy, c/kkbZ-i=
fyf[k,A

MT_VII 3
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– SOCIAL SCIENCE
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –VII Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 17- 02 - 2020
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 35 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D.
(iii) Section A contains 20 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B contains 8 questions of 3 marks each.
Section C contains 6 questions of 5 marks each.
Section D contains 1 question of 6 marks (Map work).

SECTION –A

1. Who was the founder of Awadh state?

(A) Saadat Khan (B) Murshid Khan (C) Ahmad shah (D) Asaf Jah

2. Who organised themselves into a number of bands called jathas.

(A) Jats (B) Rajputs (C) Sikhs (D) Mansabdars

3. Under whose patronage, kathak grew into a major art form :

(A) Mursid Ali Shah (B) Anantavarman (C) Wajid Ali Shah (D) None of these

4. Who among the following is not an advocate of virashaivism?

(A) Basavanna (B) Allama Prabhu (C) Suraeravali (D) Akkamahadevi

5. What mentions that garha Katanga had 70,000 village?

(A) Buranjis (B) Akbarnama (C) Tilalilakum (D) Chaurasi

6. In which year did Vasco da Gama reached Calicut

(A) 1450 (B) 1498 (C) 1558 (D) 1398

7. What did Sawar indicated, during Mughal period?

(A) military responsibility (B) rank
(C) salary (D) all of the above

8. When do we celebrate World Water Day

(A) 15 March (B) 28 March (C) 22 March (D) 16 June

9. What do you mean by the word Tsunami

(A) harbour wave (B) cyclonic waves
(C) fast moving waves (D) all of these

10. Which of the following is a major activity in Ladakh

(A) mining (B) agriculture (C) tourism (D) all of the above
11. Name the coldest inhabited place on earth
(A) Antarctica (B) Drass (C) DR Congo (D) Russia

12. Drakensberg Mountains are to the west of:

(A) prairies (B) velds (C) pampas (D) tundra

13. When was swachh Bharat Mission was launched in India?

(A) 2 October 2016 (B) 26 January 2015
(C) 2 October 2014 (D) 15 August 2015

14. Generally the warm ocean currents originate near

(A) equator (B) poles
(C) temperate zone (D) Tropic of Capricorn

15. In which year, government gave the rights for fishing in Tawa reservoir to private contractors;
(A) 1945 (B) 1994 (C) 1980 (D) 1999

16. TMS belongs to which Indian state?

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra (D) Assam

17. What do we call a person who sells goods abroad

(A) importer (B) exporter (C) goods exchanger (D) none of these

18. What kind of news report is ideal for readers

(A) newspaper (B) balance report (C) magazines (D) news articles

19. Who keeps an account of the yarn given to weavers?

(A) traders (B) merchants (C) exporter (D) none of these

20. Which of the following is not a demerit of advertisement?

(A) advertisement is expensive (B) it appeals to personal emotions
(C) it is bad for mental health (D) branding misguide people

SECTION –B

21. What are the important architectural features of the temples of Bengal?

22. Who was Vasco da Gama ?

23. Write any three points regarding Tawa Matyasa Sangh?

24. Explain how a chain of market is formed? What purpose does it serve?

25. What are the crops grown by people of the Amazon basin ?

26. In what ways does the media play an important role in a democracy ?

27. When is the rainy season in velds?

28. What are the demerits of advertisement?

MT_VII 2
 SECTION –C
29. How was Chola bronze statue made?

30. Explain the work of Weavers?

31. Give details about Sur Empire ?

OR
Write a short note on Hampi

32. Write any 5 policies of Akbar?

33. Define: (Any 5)

(a) Population density (b) Stereotype
(c) Extremists (d) Bromeliads
(e) Mass Media (f) Transhumance
(g) Manipravalam

34. Fill ups :

(a) _______ refers to the powers that government has to disallow media from publishing for showing
certain stories.
(b) In some places, _______ have been introduced to make the journey faster.
(c) _______ was the real power during the later half of Jahangir's rule
(d) Ramanuja was influenced by the _______ .
(e) Ajmer is associated with the Sufi saint _______ .

SECTION –D
35. Mark any five tribes on the given map, also write the area associated with these tribes :
1. Gakkhars
2. Kolis
3. Balochis
4. Ahoms
5. Gonds
6. Cheros
7. Khokhars

MT_VII 3
MT_VII 4
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– COMPUTER
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 50 Class –VII Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 15-02-2020
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into three sections A, B and C.
(iii) Section A contains 20 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B contains 5 questions of 2 marks each.
Section C contains 5 questions of 4 marks each.

Section A

1. The game you play on computer is an example of –

(A) Hardware (B) Software (C) Book (D) Firmware

2. …………. is an example of software.

(A) Keyboard (B) Paint (C) Mouse (D) UPS

3. A computer is a ……….
(A) Machine (B) Software (C) Antivirus (D) None

4. A person who creates a computer virus is a ………

(A) Doctor (B) Programmer (C) Teacher (D) None

5. Which of the following is an antivirus software?

(A) Windows (B) Norton (C) Ms-word (D) None

6. You should not use a CD or a pen drive which is ……….

(A) Infected (B) Educational (C) New (D) None

7. Microsoft office publisher is used to create……….

(A) Calendars (B) Banners (C) Brochures (D) All

8. Formatting the publications means to …………..

(A) Change font and colour (B) Edit picture
(C) Delete text (D) None

9. Ms publisher is a part of …………..

(A) Window (B) Ms-office (C) Hardware (D) Virus

10. Web pages on the web can be ………….. by anyone.

(A) Read (B) Deleted (C) Modified (D) Edit

Fill in the blanks

11. …………….. is the method by which you can access files, software and information from a remote
computer using ……..

12. Ms publisher 2007 provides pre–designed ……….. to create banners, greeting cards, calendars and
business card.
13. Educational institutes now–a–day provide ………. education.

14. To learn in an environment where the teachers and students are not needed at the same place is called
………

15. You can ………… an image from internet.

State True or False:

16. You can insert picture in publication using clip art or from a file.

17. Cell referencing means how a cell address behaves in the formula when it is copies from one cell to the
other.

18. The two type of cell referencing are relative and absolute.

19. Detecting the problem in a computer system when it is not working properly is called troubleshooting.

20. A byte is a collection of 8 Nibble.

Section B

21. How is Internet used in the field of education?

22. What do you mean by downloading and chatting, write some example of chat software.

23. What is the use of Microsoft office publisher.

24. What is the use of search engine? Write the some name of search engine.

25. What precautions should you take to protect your computer from a virus?

Section C

26. What is computer virus? How do you get a computer virus?

27. Explain the advantage of graphs / charts and also explain the component of a chart with diagram.

28. What is the use of Anti-virus and explain type of computer virus.

29. What is difference between Hardware and Software explain with examples.

30. Write short note on:

(A) Trojans (B) Storage device (C) Worms (D) Window explorer

MT_VII 2
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
fo"k; – laLÑr
l= % 2019-20
vf/kdre vad : 80 d{kk –VIIth le; : 3 ?k.Vs
lkekU; funZs'k 12- 0 2- 202 0

(i) lHkh iz'u djuk vfuok;Z gS-

(ii) bl iz'u i= esa pkj [k.M fn;s x;s gS
[k.M ^d* & ifBr&vocks/kue~
[k.M ^[k* & ikB~;iqLrd
[k.M ^x* & vuqÁ;qDr O;kdj.k
[k.M ^?k* & jpukRed dk;Ze~
[k.M ^d*
1. v/kksfyf[krkuka x|ka”k ifBRok Á”ukuke~ mŸkjkf.k fy[kr& [5 Marks]
MsfoM+% vke~A dFka u\ /otL; mifj fLFkr% ds”kjo.kZ% R;kxL;a mRlkgL; p lwpd%A
e/;s fLFkr% ”osro.kZ% lkfÙodrk;k% ”kqfprk;k% p |ksrd%A
v/k% fLFkr% gfjro.kZ% olqU/kjk;k% lq’kek;k% moZjrk;k'p |ksrd%A
rsftUnj% ”kqps! /otL; e/;s ,da uhyo.kZ pØa orZr\s
”kqfp% & vkez vke~ ! bnze v”kksd pØa dF;rsA ,rr~ Áxrs U;k;L; p ÁoZrde~!
lkjukFks v”kksd LrEHk% vfLrA rLekr~ ,oa ,rr~ x`ghre~A
(i) ,dinsu mÙkjr&
¼d½ /otL; e/;s dhn`”ka pØa orZrs\
¼[k½ /otL; mifj fLFkr ds”kjo.kZ% dL; lwpd%\
(ii) iw.kZ okD;su mÙkjr&
¼d½ ”osr o.kZ% dL; lwpd%\
(iii) ¼d½ ^mÙlkgL;^ ins dk foHkfDr% iz;qDrk\ ¼mRlkgL; ”kCn dh foHkfDr crkvks½&
¼[k½ ^lkjukFks^ ins dk foHkfDr% iz;qDrk\ ¼lkjukFks ”kCn dh foHkfDr crkvks½

2. v/kksfyf[krkuka ”kCnkuka vFkZe~ fy[kr~& [5 Marks]

(i) /k`fr% (ii) ds;wjk% (iii) fpUr;fr (iv) lsrq%
(v) fuf/k% (vi) [kxksyfoKkue~ (vii) “kq.Msu (viii) fuehY;
(ix) fo”ocU/kqRoe~ (x) O;lus

3. ;Fkk;ksX; la;ksT; fy[kr & [5 Marks]

(i) dkSfVY;su vH;qn;k; izsj;fUrA
(ii) fpfdRlk “kkL=s Kku foKku iks’kde~A
(iii) “kwU;L; vkfo’dkjrkZ vFkZ”kkL=a jfpre~A
(iv) laLd`re~ pjd lqJqr;ks% ;ksxnkue~A
(v) lwDr;% vk;ZHkV~V%
4. e×tw"kkr% foijhrkFkZd ¼foykse½ “kCn fyf[kr& [5 Marks]
(i) ”k=qrk;k% y?kqpsrlke~
(ii) ekuok% nq%f[ku%
(iii) mnkjpfjrkuke~ fe=rk;k
(iv) lqf[ku% nkuok%
(v) vigk; xzghRok

[k.M ^[k*
5. js[kkafdr inkfu vk/k`R; iz”ufuekZ.ka dq:r & [5 Marks]
(i) laLd`rs Kku foKku;ks% fuf/k% lqjf{krks ·fLrA
(ii) deZdjk% lsrks% fuekZ.ke~ dqoZfUrA
(iii) fo|k fofgu% uj% i”kq% vfLrA
(iv) dk’BdwV% p×pok xtL; u;us LQksVf;’;frA
(v) fo|k/kua loZiz/kkua /kuefLrA

6. v/kksfyf[krkuka iz”ukuka mÙkjkf.k ,dinsu fy[kr& [5 Marks]

(i) o`{kL; v/k% d% vkxr%\
(ii) dk’BdwV% pVdka dL;k% lehie~ vu;r~\
(iii) ds iq:’ka u foHkw’k;fUr\
(iv) d% i”kq%\
(v) dk% vH;qn;k; izsj;fUr\
(vi) lM+.kdL; d`rs loksZÙke HkI’kk dk\
(vii) lsrks% fuekZ.kk; deZdjk% izLrjkf.k dqr% vku;fUr\
(viii) O;k?kz dq= xtZfUr\
(ix) v”kksd pØs dfr vjk lfUr\
(x) dk% vH;qn;k; izsj;fUr\

7. lekukFkZd inkfu esy;r~ & [5 Marks]

(i) vk”p;sZ.k iBuL;
(ii) mYyklsu le;%
(iii) ifjokjL; izlUur;k
(iv) v/;;uL; foLe;su
(v) dky% dqVqEcL;

8. js[kkafdr inkfu la”kks/; fy[kr~ & [5 Marks]

(i) Nk=k% ØhMk {ks=s dUnqdkr~ ØhMfUrA
(ii) rs ckfydk% e/kqja xk;fUrA
(iii) vga iqLrdky;su iqLrdkfu vku;kfeA
(iv) Roa fda uke\
(v) xq:a ue%A

2
9. dks’ddsH;% leqfprinkfu fpRok fjDr LFkkukfu iwj;r & [5 Marks]
(i) vga izkr% _______ lg Hkze.kk; xPNkfe ¼fi=k/firq%½
(ii) ckyk vki.kkr~ _______ Qykfu vku;fr ¼Hkzkrq%/Hkzk=s½
(iii) deZdjk% lsrks% fuekZ.kL; _______ HkofUr ¼drkZje~/dÙkkZj%½
(iv) ee~ _______ rq ,rs’kka iz”ukuke~ mÙkjkf.k vnnkr~ ¼firk/firj%½
(v) ro _______ dq= thfodksiktZua dq:r%\ ¼Hkzkrj%/HkzkrjkS½

[k.M ^x*
10. pj~ /kkrq yM+~ ydkjs ¼vrhrdky½ fy[krA & [3 Marks]
vFkok
n`”k~ /kkrq yksV~ ydkjs ¼vuqKk/vkns”k½ fy[kr &

11. fir` ¼firk½ “kCn :ikf.k izFkek;S iapeh foHkfDr i;ZUre~ fy[kr & [5 Marks]
¼izFkek foHkfDr ls iapeh foHkfDr rd fy[kks½

12. la[;k okpd-“kCnk% laLd`r Hkk’kk;ka fy[kr& [4 Marks]

(i) 12 (ii) 17 (iii) 20 (iv) 8
(v) 28 (vi) 41 (vii) 50 (viii) 90

13. vM+dkuka LFkkus laLd`r inS% le; fy[kr [5 Marks]

(i) vga lk;a dkys 4 : 30 oknus _______ ØhMkfeA
(ii) 5 : 00 oknus _______ ØhM+kM+.kkr~ xzge~ vkxPNkfeA
(iii) 7 : 15 oknus _______ Hkkstua djksfeA
(iv) 9 : 45 oknus _______ i;ZUre~ v/;;ua djksfeA
(v) 10 : 00 oknus _______ “k;ua djksfeA

14. mPpkj.k LFkkua fy[kr& [6 Marks]

o.kkZ mÙifr LFkkukfe
(i) r~] Fk~] n~] /k~] u ___________
(ii) ,] ,s ___________
(iii) V~] B~] M~] <~] .k~ ___________
(iv) p~] N~] t~] >~] ×k~ ___________
(v) v] vk ___________
(vi) o ___________

3
 [k.M ^?k*
15. v/kksfyf[krkuka “yksdkuka vuqokna vFkZe~ ok dq:r & [5 Marks]
ds;wjk% u foHkw’k;fUr iq:’ka gkjk u pUVªksTtoyk
u LUkkua u foysiua u dqlqea ukyMd`rk ew/kZtk%
ok.;sdk leyM~+djksfr iq:’ka ;k laLd`rk /kk;Zrs
{kh;Urs vf[ky Hkw’k.kkfu lrra okXHkw’k.kZ Hkw’k.ke~AA
vFkok
u pkSjgk;Ze u p jktgk;Ze~
u Hkzkr` HkkT;a u p HkkjdkfjA
O;;s d`rs o/kZr ,o fuR;a
fo|k/kua loZ /ku iz/kkue~AA

16. Lo ikB~; iqLrdkr~ ,d “yksda·fi fy[kr [2 Marks]

;% vfLeu~ iz”ui=s u vkLrke~
¼viuh ikB~; iqLrd dk ,d “yksd fy[ks tks bl iz”u i= esa ugha gks½

17. ^^leok;ks fg nqtZ;%^^ dFkk;k% lkja fgUnh Hkk’kk;ka fy[kr& [5 Marks]