ME8793 Process Planning Cost Estimation 5

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ME8793 L T P C 3 0 03

PROCESS PLANNING AND COST ESTIMATION

OBJECTIVES
 To introduce the process planning concepts to make cost estimation for
various products after process planning

UNIT I INTRODUCTION TO PROCESS PLANNING 9

Introduction- methods of process planning-Drawing interpretation-Material


evaluation – steps in process selection-.Production equipment and tooling
selection

UNIT II PROCESS PLANNING ACTIVITIES 9

Process parameters calculation for various production processes-Selection jigs


and fixtures election of quality assurance methods - Set of documents for
process planning-Economics of process planning- case studies

UNIT III INTRODUCTION TO COST ESTIMATION 9

Importance of costing and estimation –methods of costing-elements of cost


estimation –Types of estimates – Estimating procedure- Estimation labor
cost, material cost- allocation of over head charges- Calculation of
depreciation cost

UNIT IV PRODUCTION COST ESTIMATION 9

Estimation of Different Types of Jobs - Estimation of Forging Shop, Estimation


of Welding Shop, Estimation of Foundry Shop

UNIT V MACHINING TIME CALCULATION 9

Estimation of Machining Time - Importance of Machine Time Calculation-


Calculation of Machining Time for Different Lathe Operations ,Drilling and
Boring - Machining Time Calculation for Milling, Shaping and Planning -
Machining Time Calculation for Grinding.

TOTAL : 45 PERIODS
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. To convert “the product design into a product”, a manufacturing


plan is called as
A. Production Planning B. Process Planning
C. Manufacturing Planning D. All the above

2. The systematic determination of the engineering process and


systems to manufacturing a product is called as
A. Operation Planning B. Process Planning
C. Operational Research D. (A) & (B)

3. The process of determining the portable cost of the product


before the start of its manufacture is called as
A. Documentation B. Quality Assurance
C. Cost Estimation D. Process Planning

4. The operational Sheets is also called as


A. Route Sheet B. Instruction Sheet
C. Traveller D. All the above

5. The Manual Process planning approaches are


A. Work Book ApproachB. Traditional Approach
C. (A) & (B) D. Generative Approach

6. CAPP Approaches are categorizes as


A. Retrieval B. Variant
C. Generative D. All the above

7. With the use of computers in the process planning one can reduce
the routine clerical work of the manufacturing engineers is called as
A. CAPP B. Work Book
C. Generative D. Designing

8. The process plan created based on the decision logics and pre
coded algorithms is called as
A. CAPP B. Work Book
C. Generative D. Designing

9. Advantages of manual process planning


A. Suitable for small companies
B. Highly Flexible
C. Low Investment
D. all the above
10. Commercially available generative CAPP systems are
A. APPASB. CMPP
C. EXCAP & X PLAND. All the above
11. The first step in preparing the process plan for any component /
product is
A. Process PlanningB. Production Planning
C. Drawing InterpretationD. All the above
12. The main property requirements while selecting the
material in process planning
A. Mechanical B. Physical
C. Service Environment D. All the above
13. The important factors of process selection
A. Material FromB. Component size and Weight
C. Economic ConsiderationsD. All the above
14. The important factors to be considered during the selection of
production euipments
A. Component sizeB. Cost
C. Physical size of the machineD. (A) & (C)
15. The technical factors considered for machine selection
A. Batch SizeB. Availability
C. Physical Size of the work PieceD. Capacity
16. The “term tooling” in the manufacturing generally refers to
A. Machine accuracyB. Surface Finishing
C. Cutting tools & AccessoriesD. Cutting Force
17. How to calculate the Machine power required for each operation
A. Cutting Force * Cutting Speed
B. Cutting Force / Cutting Speed
C. Cutting Force + Cutting Speed
D. Cutting Force - Cutting Speed
18. Two important capability factors to be considered for tool
selection are:
A. Dimensional and geometric accuracy requiredB. Surface finish
specifications
C. Cutting Force & Cutting Speed
D. (A) & (B)
19. The machine Selection involves the following four stages in
sequential order. i) Operational analysis ii) first-cut selection iii)
Capability Analysis iv) Power or Force Analysis.

A. ii-iv-iii-i B. ii-iv-i-iii C. iv-i-iii-ii D. iv-i-ii-iii

20. Expand the terms MPS.

A. Master Production Schedule B. Material and Production Schedule

C. Manufacturing and Production Schedule D. Master Process Schedule


21. The cutting Speed also known as
A. Surface cutting speed B. surface speed
C. (A) & (B) D. None of the above

22. The unit for cutting speed


A. mpm B. rpm
C. rpsD. spm

23.The cutting speed for shaping, planning and slotting operations


A. S= (LN S)/ (1000C)B. S= ( 𝜋 DN)/ (1000)
C. S= (C NS)/ (1000L) D. S= ( 𝜋 DL)/ (1000)

24. Calculate the cutting speed for a shaping operation, if the


shaper is capable of 20strokes per minute over a stroke length of
1.5 meter, with a cutting time ratio of 3:2
A. 25 mpm B. 40 mpm
C. 50 mps D. 50 mpm

25. Feed rate is usually expressed in


A. mm/revB. mm/min
C. (A) & (B) D. None of the above

26. The purpose of jigs are


A. To locate the work pieceB. To clamp the work piece
C. To guide the tool. D. All the above

27. Drill jigs are used for


A. Drilling B. Chamfering
C. Counter sinking D. All the above

28. The statement who told “quality is fitness for use”


A. juran B. crospy
C. ISO D. Demming

29. Break even analysis is also known as


A. Cost- profit analysis B. volume- profit analysis
C. profit analysis D. Cost- volume- profit analysis

30. It is concerned with finding the point at which revenues and


cost are exactly equal. This point is also known as
A. Beak even pointB. No profit No loss point
C. None of the aboveD. (A) & (B)
31. profit-volume ratio is
A. contribution and profit B. contribution and loss
C. contribution and salesD. All the above
32. Break –even chart is graphical representation of the
relationship between
A. volume and revenue B. cost and volume
C. volume and profit D. Cost and revenue

33. The important process parameters to be calculated for each


operation during process planning
A. Cutting speed B. Feed rate
C. Depth of cut D. All the above

34. The relative speed between the tool and the work piece
A. Cutting speed B. Feed rate
C. Depth of cut D. All the above

35. The thickness of the layer of metal removed in one cut or pass,
measured in a direction perpendicular to the machined surface.
A. Cutting speed B. Feed rate
C. Depth of cut D. All the above

36. The speed at which the cutting tool penetrate the work piece
A. Cutting speed B. Feed rate
C. Depth of cut D. All the above

37. The work holding device which Locate and hold the work piece
for a specific operation is called as.
A. Fixture B. jig
C. (A) & (B) D. None of the above

38. The work holding device which only holds the work piece for a
specific operation is called as.
A. Fixture B. jig
C. (A) & (B) D. None of the above

39. The Basic elements of jigs and fixtures are


A. Clamping elements B. Locating elements
C. Tool guiding and setting elements D. All the above

40. Find the odd man out


A. Tapping fixture B. Plate Fixtures
C. Angle plate Fixtures D. Vice – jaw Fixtures

41. For a taper turning operation (D=60 mm, d=40 mm, spindle speed
=500rpm, Length of taper =25 mm) find the cutting speed.
A. 7.854 m/min B. A. 785.4 m/min
C. 78.54 m/minD. A. 7.847 m/min
42. The spindle speed required to turn a 60mm diameter SS
Shaft using a HSS Tool is 185.68 rpm. If a carbide tool is used
instead of HSS Tool then the spindle speed is 663.15rpm. find
the resulting percentage increase in the spindle speed .
A. 35.15% B. 3.57%
C. 35.75% D. 357.15%

43. The important process parameters to be calculated for each


operation during process planning
A. Cutting speed B. Feed rate
C. Depth of cut D. All the above

44. The relative speed between the tool and the work piece
A. Cutting speed B. Feed rate
C. Depth of cut D. All the above

45. The thickness of the layer of metal removed in one cut or pass,
measured in a direction perpendicular to the machined surface.
A. Cutting speed B. Feed rate
C. Depth of cut D. All the above

46. The speed at which the cutting tool penetrate the work piece
A. Cutting speed B. Feed rate
C. Depth of cut D. All the above

47. The work holding device which Locate and hold the work piece
for a specific operation is called as.
A. Fixture B. jig
C. (A) & (B)D. None of the above

48. The work holding device which only holds the work piece for a
specific operation is called as.
A. Fixture B. jig
C. (A) & (B) D. None of the above

49. The Basic elements of jigs and fixtures are


A. Clamping elements B. Locating elements
C. Tool guiding and setting elements D. All the above

50. Find the odd man out


A. Tapping fixture B. Plate Fixtures
C. Angle plate Fixtures D. Vice – jaw Fixtures
51. is the speed at which the metal is removed by the tool from
the work piece.
a) feed
b) cutting speed
c) depth of cut
d) none of the mentioned

52. Which of the following represents the formula for cutting speed? cs =cutting
speed, D= diameter of work, N= rpm.
a) cs = (3.14*D*N)
b) cs = (D*N)
c) cs = (3.14*D)/N
d) none of the mentioned

53. Which of the following represent the unit of cutting speed?


a) meter*minute
b) meter*meter*minute
c) meter / minute
d) none of the mentioned

54. is the distance the tool advances for each revolution of the work.
a) feed
b) depth of cut
c) metal removal rate
d) none of the mentioned

55. Which of the following is the unit of the feed?


a) mm / minute
b) mm / revolution
c) mm * minute
d) none of the mentioned

56. The depth of cut is the distance measured from the machined surface
to the surface of the work piece, which is uncut.
a) parallel
b) perpendicular
c) at 45 degree
d) none of the mentioned

57. Which of the following represents the formula for the depth of cut?
d1=diameter of work surface before machining and d2=diameter of the
machined surface
a) d1+d2
b) d1-d2
c) (d1+d2)/2
d) (d1-d2)/2
58. Which of the following represents the formula for metal removal rate?
a=cutting speed, b=depth of cut, c=feed, d=revolution
a) (a*b*d)/c
b) (a*b)/(c*d)
c) (a*b*c)/d
d) none of the mentioned

59. Which of the following represents the unit of metal removal rate?
a) mm/revolution
b) mm*mm/revolution
c) mm*mm*mm/revolution
d) none of the mentioned

60. Which of the following represents the unit for machining time?
a) mm / minute
b) minute / revolution
c) minute
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

61. Which of the following represents the formula for the machining time?
s=feed of the job per revolution, l=length of the job, n=rpm.
a) l / (s*n)
b) (s*n) / l
c) (l*s) / n
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer

62. For general purposes, ratio of the depth of cut to the feed varies from
a) 10:1
b) 1:10
c) 100:1
d) 1:100

63. Table top drilling machine can be categorized as


a) general purpose drilling machine
b) specific purpose drilling machine
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

64. Which type of feed can be given in table top drilling machine?
a) manual
b) power
c) both manual and power feed
d) none of the mentioned
65. Power produced by table top drilling machine is comparatively low.
a) true
b) false

66. In table top drilling machine, feed can be operated by


a) gear mechanism
b) lever
c) spindle
d) none of the mentioned

67. Generally, table top drilling machine can produce diameters up to


a) 1 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 100 mm
d) none of the mentioned

68. Table top drilling machine can be mounted on the table.


a) true
b) false
View Answer

69. Table top drilling machine is generally in terms of height.


a) small
b) big
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

70. In table top drilling machine, belt-pulley system operates


a) lever
b) spindle
c) both lever and spindle
d) none of the mentioned

71. Drill is mounted on lever in table top drilling machine.


a) true
b) false
View Answer

72. Which of the following is not true for table top drill machine?
a) it is used in only small jobs
b) it is used for mass production
c) odd shape jobs are not machined
d) none of the mentioned

73. Multi spindle drilling machine is used for lot production.


a) true
b) false
74. Multi spindle drilling machine can be categorized as
a) general purpose drilling machine
b) special purpose drilling machine
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

75. Multi spindle drilling machines can have spindles up to 10 to 12.


a) true
b) false

76. Which of the following is true for multi spindle drill machine?
a) it can’t make number of holes at different location and of different size
b) it is able to make number of holes at different location and of
different size
c) it can’t make number of holes at different location , but can make holes of
different size
d) it can make number of holes at different location , but can not make holes of
different size
View Answer

77. Multi spindle drill machines can produce holes of different


a) shapes
b) depth
c) both shapes and depth
d) none of the mentioned

78. In multi spindle drill, for each type of job separate jig should be used.
a) true
b) false
View Answer

79. Which of the following is the part of multi spindle drill machine?
a) motor
b) central gear
c) planetary gear
d) all of the mentioned

80. In multi spindle drill,the circular angular rotation, position and location of
the spindle can’t be changed.
a) true
b) false

81. In multi spindle drill, the drills are used at


a) same height
b) different height
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned
82. The movement of entire head is little difficult and not economical in
this machine.
a) true
b) false

83. In shaper, the tool head consists of


a) tool post
b) tool slide
c) clamper box
d) all of the mentioned

84. The main parts of shaper are


a) base and body
b) ram and tool head
c) crossrail and body
d) all of the mentioned

85. The body of the shaper comprises of


a) pillar
b) column
c) frame
d) all of the mentioned

86. The base of the shaper is a heavy cast iron casting.


a) true
b) false

87. Which of the following part of shaper supports the entire load of the
machine?
a) base
b) crossrail
c) frame
d) none of the mentioned

88. The base of the shaper is not able to withstand the vibration.
a) true
b) false

89. Drive mechanism consists of


a) main drives
b) the gear box
c) quick return mechanism
d) all of the mentioned
90. Quick return mechanism is responsible for ram movement.
a) true
b) false

91. Quick return mechanismprovides guideways for


a) ram
b) crossrail
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

92. Saddle slides along the ram.


a) true
b) false
View Answer

93. Milling machine is a machine tool that removes the metal as the work is fed
against a rotating singlepoint cutter.
a) true
b) false

94. In milling machine, cutter rotates at high speed and removes metal at very
high speed.
a) true
b) false

95. Milling machine can hold cutters at a time.


a) only one
b) only two
c) only three
d) none of the mentioned

96. Which of the following machine is superior to other machines as regards


accuracy and better surface finish?
a) lathe
b) drill
c) shaper
d) milling

97. Milling machines find wide application in production work.


a) true
b) false

98. Which type of machining can be done by milling machine?


a) cutting keyways
b) slots and grooves
c) gears
d) all of the mentioned
99. Which of the following motion does a milling machine has?
a) vertical motion
b) crosswise motion
c) longitudinal motion
d) all of the mentioned

100. For milling, the work is fixed on a table which controls the feed against the
cutter.
a) true
b) false

101. Generally in workshop, column and knee type milling machine is used.
a) true
b) false

102. Milling machine is designed for manufacturing a variety of tool room work.
a) true
b) false

103. The various milling process may be classified in categories.


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) none of the mentioned

104. Upmilling and downmilling are the subtype of milling process.


a) peripheral milling
b) face milling
c) both peripheral milling and face milling
d) none of the mentione

105. Which of the following milling is known as conventional milling?


a) upmilling
b) downmilling
c) both upmilling and downmilling
d) none of the mentioned

106. Which of the following process is also known as climb milling?


a) upmilling
b) downmilling
c) both upmilling and downmilling
d) none of the mentioned
107. The thickness of the chip in upmilling is at the beginning of the
cut.
a) minimum
b) maximum
c) zero
d) none of the mentioned

108. The thickness of the chip in upmilling is in when the cut


terminates.
a) minimum
b) maximum
c) zero
d) none of the mentioned

109. The upmilling operation is not safe.


a) true
b) false

110. Machine vibration isn’t there in upmilling process.


a) true
b) false

111. The cutting force is directed and this tends to lift the work from the
fixture in upmilling.
a) upward
b) downward
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

112. In upmilling, the surface milled appears to be slightly wavy.


a) true
b) false

113. The cutting action can be done from both sides of the table to finish the
job. This is the advantage of process.
a) upmilling
b) downmilling
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

114. Smooth cut can be obtained in downmilling process.


a) true
b) false
115. More depth of cut can be used in milling process.
a) upmilling
b) downmilling
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

116. In downmilling, clamping difficulty is not high.


a) true
b) false

117. Difficulty is experienced in pouring coolant just on the cutting edge from
where the chip begins. This is the disadvantage of process.
a) upmilling
b) downmilling
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

118. The work is pulled by cutter teeth and hence the job may get spoiled or
breakaway. This is the disadvantage of process.
a) upmilling
b) downmilling
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

119. As the cutter progress, the chip accumulate at the cutting zone, spoils the
work surfaces. This is the disadvantage of process.
a) upmilling
b) downmilling
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

120. Cutter teeth wears out soon as in the beginning itself the teeth comes in
contact with the hard surface of the workpiece. This is the disadvantage of
process.
a) upmilling
b) downmilling
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

121. The burr on the surface cleans during the cutting operation. This is the
advantage of process.
a) upmilling
b) downmilling
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned
122. Downmilling is the process of removing metal by a cutter which is rotated
direction of the travel of the workpiece.
a) in the same
b) against the
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

123. The thickness of the chip is when the tooth begins its cut in
downmilling.
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) can’t say anything

124. The thickness of the chip is when the cut terminates in


downmilling.
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) zero
d) can’t say anything

125. For downmilling, machines are used.


a) light
b) moderate
c) rigid
d) none of the mentioned

126. In downmilling, the machine must have fixed on it a backlash error


eliminator.
a) true
b) false

127. In downmilling, more springing actions are there in cutter.


a) true
b) false

128. Narrow slots can be milled in milling process.


a) upmilling
b) downmilling
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned
129. Downmilling is easily used on flexible, thin and flat jobs.
a) true
b) false

130. In forging process, metals are shaped by


a) impact
b) cohesion
c) tense
d) none of the mentioned

131. Which method is considered as one of the oldest methods of giving


required shapes to the metals ?
a) casting
b) forging
c) forming
d) none of the mentioned

132. Smithy forging can also be termed as open die forging.


a) true
b) false

133. Which of the following is the example of impact pressure forging ?


a) striking a blow
b) shaping by press
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

134. Cold forging is also known as simply forging.


a) true
b) false

135. Which type of forging is done by deforming the metal at room


temperature?
a) cold forging
b) simply forging
c) hot forging
d) all of the mentioned

136. Hot forging is also known as simply forging.


a) true
b) false

137. The upset type of forging makes increment in the diameter of the
workpiece.
a) true
b) false
138. Which type of forging is done by blacksmith?
a) hand forging
b) machine forging
c) both hand forging and machine forging
d) none of the mentioned

139. For which purpose, hand forging is used?


a) maintenance work
b) production of small articles tools
c) repair work
d) all of the mentioned

140. In which forging process, parts are heated in open hearth?


a) machine forging
b) hand forging
c) both hand forging and machine forging
d) none of the mentioned

141. In which forging process, parts are heated in closed hearth?


a) machine forging
b) hand forging
c) hand forging and machine forging both
d) none of the mentioned

142. Press forgings are churlish in surface.


a) true
b) false

143. Roll forging is done with the help of


a) cylindrical rolls
b) semi-cylindrical roll
c) both cylindrical and semi cylindrical rolls
d) none of the mentioned

144. Cast iron is forgeable.


a) true
b) false

145. is the speed at which the metal is removed by the tool from the
work piece.
a) feed
b) cutting speed
c) depth of cut
d) none of the mentioned
146. Which of the following represents the formula for cutting speed? cs
=cutting speed, D= diameter of work, N= rpm.
a) cs = (3.14*D*N)
b) cs = (D*N)
c) cs = (3.14*D)/N

147. Which of the following represent the unit of cutting speed?


a) meter*minute
b) meter*meter*minute
c) meter / minute
d) none of the mentioned

148. is the distance the tool advances for each revolution of the work.
a) feed
b) depth of cut
c) metal removal rate
d) none of the mentioned

149. Which of the following is the unit of the feed?


a) mm / minute
b) mm / revolution
c) mm * minute
d) none of the mentioned

150. The depth of cut is the distance measured from the machined
surface to the surface of the work piece, which is uncut.
a) parallel
b) perpendicular
c) at 45 degree
d) none of the mentioned

151. Which of the following represents the formula for the depth of cut?
d1=diameter of work surface before machining and d2=diameter of the
machined surface
a) d1+d2
b) d1-d2
c) (d1+d2)/2
d) (d1-d2)/2

152. Which of the following represents the formula for metal removal rate?
a=cutting speed, b=depth of cut, c=feed, d=revolution
a) (a*b*d)/c
b) (a*b)/(c*d)
c) (a*b*c)/d
d) none of the mentioned
153. Which of the following represents the unit of metal removal rate?
a) mm/revolution
b) mm*mm/revolution
c) mm*mm*mm/revolution
d) none of the mentioned

154. Which of the following represents the unit for machining time?
a) mm / minute
b) minute / revolution
c) minute
d) none of the mentioned

155. Which of the following represents the formula for the machining time?
s=feed of the job per revolution, l=length of the job, n=rpm.
a) l / (s*n)
b) (s*n) / l
c) (l*s) / n
d) none of the mentioned

156. For general purposes, ratio of the depth of cut to the feed varies
from
a) 10:1
b) 1:10
c) 100:1
d) 1:100

157. Amount of time during which the transformer will be used for welding
under normal loading condition is known as?
a) Hold time
b) Off time
c) Weld time
d) Duty cycle

158. Amount of voltage required to generate the arc under no load condition is
called?
a) Open circuit voltage
b) Closed circuit voltage
c) Short circuit voltage
d) Arc voltage
159. Amount of current required to generate the arc under no load condition is
called?
a) Open circuit current
b) Closed circuit current
c) Short circuit current
d) Arc current

160. If the open circuit voltage is 60 volt and the short circuit current is 20
amperes. Then determine the voltage required for welding if the current
required during welding is 10 amperes?
a) 30 V
b) 60 V
c) 20 V
d) 40 V

161. How does the arc voltage V depends upon the length of arc L?
a) V = f(L)
b) V = 1/f(L)
c) V = f(L2)
d) V = f(√L)

162. What is the function of flux in submerged arc welding?


a) To completely cover the welded zone
b) To prevent oxidation of joint
c) To prevent spattering of molten metal
d) To prevent sticking of molten metal

163. In which of the following gas welding process a non-consumable electrode


is used?
a) Submerged arc welding
b) Tungsten inert gas welding
c) Stud welding
d) Gas metal arc welding

164. What is the only difference between Plasma arc welding and TIG welding?
a) Flux is not used
b) Construction of torch is different
c) Gas is not used
d) Tungsten electrode is not used

165. In plasma arc welding the gas is?


a) Ionized
b) Heated
c) Magnetized
d) Vaporized
166. If the heat transfer efficiency is 0.5 and the melting efficiency is 0.6, then
the overall efficiency will be?
a) 0.83
b) 0.03
c) 0.30
d) 0.12

167. The deflection of the arc in arc blow is by?


a) Electric field
b) Magnetic field
c) Combination of both
d) Hydrostatic field

168. If the total efficiency is 0.35 in arc welding. Then what is the welding
speed in mm/sec if the cross-sectional area is 5mm2, welding power is 2 kW
and the heat required in melting the metal is 100 J/mm3.
a) 1.4
b) 14
c) 1400
d) 140

169. Which of the following gas welding process uses constant voltage?
a) Submerged arc welding
b) Tungsten inert gas welding
c) Stud welding
d) Gas metal arc welding

170. Which of the following inert gas is used with DC power supply only?
a) Argon
b) Helium
c) CO2
d) Nitrogen

171. In order to prevent oxidation and retain molten metal in stud welding
which of the following is used?
a) Ceramic rings
b) Metal rings
c) Non-metal rings
d) Flux

172. Jigs and Fixtures are used for

(A) Mass production

(B) Identical parts production

(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

(D) None of the above


173- The use of jigs and fixtures

(A) Facilitates deployment of less skilled labour for production

(B) Eliminates pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying out


etc.

(C) reduced manual handling operations

(D) All of the above

174- The following is(are) the function(s) of a jig

(A) Holding

(B) Locating

(C) Guiding

(D) All of the above

175-A fixture does not

(A) Holds the workpiece

(B) Locate the workpiece

(C) Guide the tool

(D) All of the above

176- Jigs are not used in

(A) Drilling

(B) Reaming

(C) Tapping

(D) Milling
177- Fixtures are used in

(A) Milling

(B) Shaping

(C) Turning

(D) All of the above

178- Principle of states that “In order to achieve the maximum


accuracy in location the locating points should, therefore, be placed as
far apart from one another as it is possible”.

(A) Six point location

(B) Least points

(C) Extreme positions

(D) Mutually perpendicular planes

179- The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture


against the cutting forces

(A) Locating device

(B) Clamping device

(C) Guiding device

(D) Indexing device

180- The following is a quick acting clamp

(A) Hinged clamp

(B) Cam operated clamp

(C) Bridge clamp

(D) Edge clamp


181- The following material is commonly used for making locating and
clamping devices

(A) High carbon steel

(B) Low carbon steel

(C) High speed steel

(D) Die steel

182- The following type of jig is used for machining in more than one
plane

(A) Template jig

(B) Plate type jig

C) Open type jig

(D) Box type jig

183- The following type of jig suits best for drilling of holes in hollow
cylindrical components, with relatively smaller outside and inside
diameters, such as bushes

(A) Solid type jig

(B) Pot type jig

(C) Box type jig

(D) Open type jig

184- The following type of jig is used to drill a series of equidistant hole
along a circle

(A) Index jig

(B) Plate type jig

(C) Open type jig

(D) Pot type jig


185- This type of jig is employed on multi-spindle machines

(A) Index jig

(B) Universal jig

(C) Open type jig

(D) Multi-station jig

186- The following jig can be used for several different work pieces and
operations

(A) Template jig

(B) Multi-station jig

(C) Index jig

(D) Universal jig

187- The following is(are) the advantage(s) of cast jigs or fixtures

(A) No heat treatments are required for the cast jigs and fixtures

(B) It prevents the occurrence of tool chatter in milling

(C) if cast jigs or fixture drops down, they don’t get misaligned or de-shaped,
although it may break

(D) All of the above

188- The jigs and fixtures can be constructed through

(A) Casting

(B) Fabrication

(C) Welding

(D) All of the above

188. With the use of Jigs and fixture total cost of production
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Jigs are not used in any production process
189. With the use of Jigs and fixture rate of production will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains same
d) Jigs are not used in any production process

189. Jigs and fixture increases the accuracy of the parts.


a) True
b) False

190. Jigs And fixture are used to provide interchangeability.


a) True
b) False

191. With the use of Jigs and fixture quality control expenses will
a) Reduce
b) Increases
c) Jigs and fixture are not used in any production process
d) None of the mentioned

192. With the use of Jigs and fixture


a) Labour cost decreases
b) Labour cost increases
c) Labour cost decreases
d) None of the mentioned

193. Which of the following is not correct about fixture?


a) It is used to hold the work
b) It is used to position the work the work
c) It assures high accuracy of parts
d) It is used to guide the cutting tool

194. Which of the following is not correct about jig?


a) It is used to hold the work
b) It is used to position the work the work
c) It is used to guide the cutting tool
d) None of the mentioned

195. In which of the following operation jigs are preferred over fixture?
a) Drilling
b) Turning
c) Milling
d) Grinding
196. Number of degree of freedom of a workpiece in space is equal to
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16

197. The basic difference between MRP and MRP-II is:


a) inventory
b) bom
c) finance
d) capacity planning

198. Inventory record file gives the following information


a) lot size
b) machine details
c) customer name
d) none of the mentioned

199. Bill of material structure is used to


a) calculate net requirements
b) calculate due dates
c) calculate man power requirements
d) all of the mentioned

200. Just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes on


a) man power
b) manufacturing
c) profit
d) inventory

201. Forecasting is used for


a) dependent demand items
b) independent demand items
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

202. CRP takes material requirements from MRP and converts to


a) standard hours of man power
b) standard hours of machine
c) standard hours of load
d) all of the mentioned

203. Capacity planning is concerned with


a) how many machines required
b) how much labour required
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
204. MRP-II system is called a closed loop system because it considers
a) inventory
b) finance
c) man power
d) none of the mentioned

205. P.M.T.S( Predetermined Motion Time System) include


a) M.T.M (Method Time Measurement)
b) W.F.S (Work Factor Systems)
c) B.M.T.S (Basic Motion Time Study)
d) All of the mentioned

206. M.T.M is used to


a) improve existing methods
b) establish time standards
c) develop effective methods in advance of the beginning of production
d) all of the mentioned

207. For a small scale industry, the fixed cost per month is Rs. 5000. The
variable cost per product is Rs. 20 and sales price is Rs. 30 per piece. The
break even production per month will be
a) 300
b) 40
c) 500
d) 1000

208. Two alternatives can produce a product. First has a fixed cost of Rs. 2000
and a variable cost of Rs. 20 per piece. The second method has a fixed cost of
Rs. 1500 and a variable cost of Rs.30. The break even quantity between the
two alternatives is
a) 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100

209. Which of the following data is not required to prepare an estimate?


a) Amplitude
b) Drawings
c) Specifications
d) Rates

210. Estimating is the technique of calculating the various quantities and is


needed for controlling the expenditure during the execution of the work.
a) True
b) False
211. The process of working out the cost per unit of each item is known as

a) Work
b) Sheet
c) Data
d) Analysis

212. While fixing rate per unit of an item, the quantity of materials and labour
needed for one unit of an item are strictly per
a) Special Data Book
b) Standard Data Book
c) Special Data Record
d) Specific Data Record

213. In the case of works which require some special types of equipment, an
amount of percent of the estimated cost is given.
a) 1-2
b) 5-9
c) 12-18
d) 16-20

214. Which of the following is not a method used for preparing approximate
estimates?
a) Cubical contents method
b) Unit base method
c) Plinth area method
d) Cylindrical base method

215. In the plinth area method, the cost of construction is computed by the
multiplication of
a) Plinth length and rate
b) Plinth breadth and rate
c) Plinth area and plinth area rate
d) Plinth volume and plinth length rate

216. As per IS 3861-1966, which of the following areas should not be included
while calculating the plinth area of a building?
a) Porches of non-cantilever type
b) Area of barsati at terrace level
c) Area of walls at floor level
d) Area of lofts

217. For the preparation of approximate estimates, cubical contents method is


more accurate than the unit base method and plinth area method.
a) True
b) False
218. In the cubical contents method, the cost of a structure is computed by the
multiplication of total cubic contents and
a) Area of building
b) Volume of building
c) Local cubic rate
d) Length of building

219. Scope of automation in foundry process is


a) Low
b) High
c) Minimum
d) Maximum

220. Which of the following is an advantage of the Green sand molding process
used in a foundry?
a) Appropriate for long production run
b) Very low cost process
c) Sand is reusable
d) All of the mentioned

221. The castings in formed in foundry produced are accurate in dimensions.


a) True
b) False

222. The energy consumption is a drawback of the foundry.


a) High
b) Optimum
c) Intensive
d) Low

223. Majority parts in transportation vehicles are made by the foundry


processes.
a) True
b) False

224. defects in castings cannot be identified easily.


a) Internal
b) External
c) Chemical
d) Metallic

225. Castings are usually designed for distribution of loads.


a) Equal
b) Unequal
c) Maximum
d) Minimum
226. The directional properties are imparted to the castings made in
foundries.
a) Single
b) Double
c) Spherical
d) Multiple

227. In the foundry, the metal joining process is employed.


a) True
b) False

228. Foundry process is used to make intricate parts.


a) True
b) False
`

229. Which of the following are the cutting parameters used in drill?
a) cutting speed
b) feed
c) depth of cut
d) all of the mentioned

230. Which of the following is considered as the peripheral speed of the drill?
a) cutting speed
b) feed
c) depth of cut
d) none of the mentioned

231. Cutting speed generally express in


a) meter
b) meter/minute
c) meter*minute
d) none of the mentioned

232. Formula for cutting speed is


d=diameter of drill in mm, n=rpm of drill.
a) (d*n)/1000
b) (3.14*d*n)/1000
c) 3.14*d*n
d) none of the mentioned

233. The of a drill is the distance the drill moves into the work at each
revolution of the spindle.
a) depth of cut
b) feed
c) cutting speed
d) none of the mentioned
234. The feed may be expressed in
a) mm/revolution
b) mm*revolution
c) mm
d) none of the mentioned

235. is equal to half the diameter of the drill used.


a) feed
b) depth of cut
c) machining time
d) none of the mentioned

236. Depth of cut can be expressed in


a) mm
b) mm/revolution
c) mm/minute
d) none of the mentioned

237. The formula for depth of cut is


d=diameter of the drill.
a) d/4
b) d/2
c) d
d) 2d

238. If s2=feed per revolution, s1=feed per minute, n=rpm.


Which of the following is mathematically right?
a) s1=s2*n
b) s2=s1*n
c) s1*s2=n
d) none of the mentioned

239. Machining time is expressed in


a) mm/minute
b) minute*minute
c) minute
d) none of the mentioned

240. If l=length of travel of the drill in mm, n=rpm of the drill, s= feed per
revolution of the drill in mm. Then machining time can be given as
a) (l*n)/s
b) (l*s)/n
c) l/(n*s)
d) none of the mentioned
241. Metal removal rate can be given as
a) (mm*mm*mm)/min
b) (mm*mm*m)/revolution
c) mm/revolution
d) mm/minute

242. Shaping can be performed more effectively by milling machine.


a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

243. surfacing can be performed more effectively by milling machine.


a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

244. Form cutting can be performed more effectively by milling


machine.
a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) can’t say anything

245. Slab milling can be performed more effectively by milling


machine.
a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

246. Drilling can be performed more effectively by milling machine.


a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

247. Boring can be performed more effectively by milling machine.


a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

248. Dovetailing can be performed more effectively by milling machine.


a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned
249. Straddle milling can be performed more effectively by milling
machine.
a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

250. Angular milling can be performed more effectively by milling


machine.
a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

251. Cutting T-slots can be performed more effectively by milling


machine.
a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

252. Slotting can be performed more effectively by milling machine.


a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) both horizontal and vertical
d) none of the mentioned

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