Multiple Choice Questions from 2k6, 2k7, and 2k8 semester 2

1. Which is the commonest cause of neutrophilia and increased LAP (leukemoid alkaline
phosphate)
a. Rubella
a. Myocardial Infarction
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Hookworm infestation

2. The antidote for poisoning following paracetamol overdose is:

a. Atropine – nerve gas
b. Pralidoxine – nerve gas
c. N-acetyl cysteine
d. Desferioxamine – iron overload

3. Ligases are enzymes that reconnect

Phosphate backgrounds on DNA strand
Blunt ends only
Sticky ends only
H bonds in double helix

4. All of the following statements about haemolytic anaemia are CORRECT except:
Drugs can cause immune haemolytic anaemia via three mechanisms
Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria is a common cause of haemolytic
anaemia
Alpha-methyl Dopa may cause Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia
Haemolytic Anaemia of the Newborn is an example of an alloimmune
Haemolytic anaemia

5. Residual volume is:

The gas remaining in lungs at the end of normal expiration
Approximately 3-5 Litres in an adult
Decreases with age
Can be assessed by Helium dilution

6. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT?

(a) Young children usually suffer from upper airway obstruction due to the
small diameter of their larynx, trachea etc. when compared to adults
(b) Laryngotracheamalacia usually resolves spontaneously after 2 years
(c) The Eustacian tube in children is more oblique than in adults.

7. Management of Plasmodium falciparum is by which combination of drugs?

(a) Chloroquine and Mefloquine
(b) Mefloquine and Primaquine
(c) Chloroquine and Quinine OR Mefloquine and Fansidar
(d) Mefloquine and Quinine
Mefloquine is contraindicated in psychotics and epileptics

8. Cyclospora is associated with what in HIV (AIDS) patients?

 (a) diarrhoea in HIV patients

9. Cerebral malaria is caused by what organism?

(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Plasmodium ovale
(c) Plasmodium malariae
(d) Plasmodium falciparum

Falciparum causes causes blackwater fever (IV haemolysis and consequent

haemoglobinuria), tropical splenomegaly syndrome, high total serum IgM is a
consistent. Vivax infect reticulocytes and malariae infects old RBC. Ovale & vivax
associated with diarrhoea.

10. Eosinophilic meningitis in Jamaica is caused by what organism?

a. Angylostoma Caninum
b. Angiostronylus
c. Angiostrongylus cantonensis

Can also be caused by gnathstoma spinigerum, Taenia solium, toxocariasis,

schistosomiasis, fascioliasis. L3 is infective stage.
In this type protein in CSF elevated, N glucose

11. What gives the embryologic origin of crista terminalis?

a. Left venous valve of sinus venosus
b. Right venous valve of sinus venosus
c. Body of sinus venosus
d. Septum Primum

12. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following EXCEPT?

a. Factor I - fibrinogen
b. Factor II - prothrombin
c. Factor VIII – antihaemophiliac A factor
d. Factor XIII - fibrin stabilizing factor

13. Which ion is bound in higher concentration in intracellular fluid than in the extracellular
fluid?
a. Sodium
b. Bicarbonate
c. Magnesium
d. Chloride

14. Which combination of drugs is used in the trearment of Tuberculosis?

a. Amoxicillin, Pyrizinamide, Isoniazid
b. Isoniazid, Streptomycin, Rifampicin
c. Rifampicin, Amoxicillin, Isoniazid
d. Isoniazid, Clarithromycin, Pyrizinamide

15. What is the Behaviour perspective of psychology?

a. Processes involving neurones in CNS
 b. Unconscious processes
c. Mental and cognitive processes
d. Interactions with other individuals and change in individual actions

16. All of the following are complications of tracheostomy EXCEPT:

a. Hypoglossal nerve palsy
b. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
c. Haemorrhage of Anterior Jugular Vein
d. Haemorrhage of Thyroidae Ima Artery

17. Which of the statements regarding the action potential is correct?

a. The membrane potential moves towards the EK+ during the resting
phase (-94)
b. The membrane potential moves away from ENa+ during the rising phase (-
61)
c. Intracellular Na+ concentration is about the same at peak as at rest
d. There is influx of K+ ions and efflux of Na+ during the depolarisation
phase

18. The most common sequelae of HTLV-1 infection is

a. Asymptomatic carrier state

b. Adult T-Cell Lymphoma
c. Tropical Spastic Paraparesis
d. Infective Dermatitis

19. Which of these is not diagnostic for Sickle Cell Disease?

a. AA mom and SS dad
b. Chronic anaemia with reticulocytosis
c. Acute onset of painful and swollen hands and feet in a six month old boy
d. Cerebrovascular accident in a four year old boy

20. Which of these white blood cells are not capable of mitotic division?
a. Myeloid blast cells
b. Segmented neutrophils
c. Mature lymphocytes
d. Myelocytes

21. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by antigens reacting with:

a. Cell bound IgE
b. Serum IgE
c. Cell bound IgG
d. Serum IgG

22. A food handler with a cut finger poses a risk of causing food borne illness probably by
a. Salmonella
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Staphylococcus aureus
23. Which is not a typical case of Aplastic Anaemia?
a. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria
b. Hepatitis A, B
c. Immune
d. Parvovirus B19, EBV, HIV

24. Asteroid bodies are characteristic of

a. Tuberculosis – Ghon focus
b. Sarcoidosis – non caeseating granuloma, also Schumann and Asteroid
bodies
c. Berylliosis –
d. Leprosy - Rifampicin: 600mg monthly
Clofazimine: 300mg monthly and 50mg daily
Dapsone: 100mg daily

25. Optimal health care services may be facilitated or hindered by which of the following:

a. Accessibility and Affordability

b. Opening hours and number of staff
c. Appropriateness of services
d. Use of technology

26. When does a child perceive death to be irreversible?

a. 2 years
b. 3years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years

27. Which of the following groups has the highest percentage water in body weight?
a. Infants
b. Adolescents
c. Adults 30 – 50 years
d. Adults over 50 years

28. Sickle cell anaemia is due to a mutation in DNA. This leads to the replacement of _____
for _____ at position 6 on the beta chain.
a. Leucine to Glutamate
b. Lysine to Glutamate – Lysine replaces glutamate in Hb SC
c. Valine to Glutamate
d. Glutamate to Valine

29. What could be used to avoid the use of an allogeneic blood transfusion

a. Erythropoietin
b. DDAVP
c. Fragmin = LMW heparin
d.Thrombopoietin

30. All of the following statements about HSV are true EXCEPT:
a. HSV-1 establishes latency in the trigeminal ganglia
 b. HSV-2 establishes latency in the lumbosacral ganglion
c. Specimen of choice is vesicular fluid
d. Hypertension is a predisposing factor of HSV infection – the converse is
true

31. Where is Histoplasmosis found commonly (visitors to this region)

a. California Southern
b. St. Ann, Jamaica
c. Disneyland. Florida

32. What is the main composition of bacterial call wall?

a. Lipopolysaccharides
b. Lipoprotein – not found in gm +ve
c. Mucopeptide = peptidoglycan
d. Fatty acids

33. The hypersensitivity reaction seen as Hives/ Urticaria is

a. Immune complex mediated reaction
b. IgE mediated reaction
c. Cytotoxic T cell mediated reaction

34. Toxoplasma gondii can be diagnosed using

a.Eggs in stools
b.Oocysts in stools
c.IgG
d.IgM

35. Solubility in biological fluids is a toxic influential factor related to

a. Exposure to the toxic agent
b. The toxic agent
c. Environment
d. Reinfusion

36. RNA primase produce an RNA primer because of

a. Induced negative supercoils
b. RNA polymerase requires RNA primer for synthesis
c. Separation of strands
d. DNA polymerase requires RNA primer for synthesis

37. Which of the following travels in the Posterior Interventricular groove with the Posterior
Interventricular artery?
a. Middle Cardiac Veins
b. Great Cardiac Vein
c. Small Cardiac Vein
d. Anterior Cardiac Vein

38. Which of the following travels with the Anterior Interventricular Artery?
a. Middle Cardiac Veins
b. Great Cardiac Vein
c. Small Cardiac Vein
 d. Anterior Cardiac Vein

39. What is the origin of the visceral pericardium?

a. Myoepicardial mantle
b. Septum traversum - fibrous
c. Somatopleural mesoderm - parietal
d. Epicardial mesoderm

40. Which of the following is affected greatest by Hypoxia?

a. Fast pain fibres – A delta
b. Autonomic preganglionic fibres (B fibres)
c. Autonomic post ganglionic fibres
d. Slow pain fibres

41. Which of the following is affected greatest by a crush injury?

a. Fast pain fibres
b. Autonomic preganglionic fibres – B fibres
c. Autonomic post ganglionic fibres – C fibres
d. Slow pain fibres – C unmyelinated

42. Which of the following is not involved in amina acid metabolism?

a. Trivalent cation
b. Pyroxidal phosphate
c. Catalase

43. Which group of lymph nodes does the cephalic vein drain into?

a. Posterior axillary lymph nodes

b. Central axillary lymph nodes
c. Infraclavicular lymph nodes
d. Epitrochlear lymph nodes

44. In which one of the following is Saltatory conduction still normal?

a. Guillain Barre
b. Myasthenia Gravis
c. Multiple Sclerosis
d. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

45. Thrombocytopaenia is related to all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

a. Hypersplenism
b. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
c. Heparin Therapy
d. Von Willebrand disease

46. Which prostaglandin is released from mast cells during an allergic response?
a. PGD2
b. PGF2 - vasoconstriction
c. PGI2 - vasodilator
d. PGF2α – bronchoconstriction. PGE2 causes vasodillatation
47. Which usually occurs with multiple myeloma?
a. Recurrent infections
b. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
c. Spinal cord compression
d. Peripheral neuropathy

48. Where is the anterior border of the oblique sinus found? (not sure of question)
a. Oesophagus
b. Left atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Fibrous pericardium

49. What is the surface marking of the parietal pleura?

a. Midclavicular line 6th rib (At 2nd rib they meet at angle of lui; At 4th rib left
deviates laterally; at 6th both sides move laterally
to reach MCL 8th rib)
b. Midaxillary line 8th rib (10th rib both sides reach MAL)
c. At the 12th rib parietal pleura is just lateral to erector spinae muscle

50. Which of the following does NOT drain directly into the right atrium

a. Superior Vena Cava

b. Inferior Vena Cava
c. Right Superior Pulmonary Vein
d. Coronary Sinus

51. An increase in 2, 3 DPG concentration in Red Blood Cells does not occur in
a. Anaemia
b. Acclimatisation to increased altitude
c. Chronic blood loss
d. Decreased pH

52. Which of the following does NOT have enzymatic conferred modification for resistance?
a. Cephalosporin
b. Tetracycline
c. Penicillin
d. Aminoglycosides

53. An immediate hypersensitivity reaction is caused by:

a. IgE in serum
b. Cell bound IgE
c. IgG in serum
d. Cell bound IgG

54. Which of the following is not an arthropod borne disease?

a. Dengue – by Ades egypti
b. St. loius encephalitis - Ciliata pipiens
c. Yellow fever – Ades egypti
d. Adenouines infection
55. All of the following is an important source of carbon for gluconeogenesis except
a. glycerol
a. alanine
b. lactate
c. palmitate ( neither can aetoacetic acid + acetylCoA)

56. A 7 month old child presents with fever and painful swelling of the dorsum of both feet.
What is the most likely pathogenesis?

a. thrombosis of the tibial artery

b. avascular necrosis of the bones of the feet
c. bone marrow infarction – seen in painful crisis
d. salmonella osteomyelitis (salmonella can cause osteomyelitis in SCD)

57. Which of the following about vitamin B (12) is correct?

a. its absorption is dependent on I.F.
b. its deficiency causes hypochromic (area of pallor > 1/3 size of RBC) microcytic
anaemia.
c.–
d.–

58. Drug used to prevent asthma attack.

a. mast cell stabilizer eg. Cromoglycate/chromolyn
b.–

59. The mean haematological parameters below will be lower in a healthy 20 year old male
than in a healthy newborn except
a. Hb concentration
b. MCV
c.Absolute neutrophilic count
d.Platelet conc.

60. Which of the following enzymes is a regulatory enzyme that controls the rate of fatty acyl
group entry and thus the rate of fatty acid oxidation?
a. carnitine acyltransferase II
b. acyl-CoA synthase
c. acetyl-CoA dehydrogenase
d. carnitine acyltransferase I (inhibited by malonyl CoA)

61. Where does lymph drainage occur?

a. bone
b. skeletal muscles
c. cartilage
d. cns

62. The cofactor necessary for the activity of the nitrogenase system is
a. Ferredoxin
b. Mo-Fe protein
c. FAD
d. NADH

63. Which of the following is the true about ductus arteriosus.

a. blood flows thru it from the pulmonary artery to the aorta.

b. blood flows thru it from the aorta to pulmonary artery
c.Joins the umbilical artery and internal iliac artery
d It becomes the ligamentum arteriosus slightly before birth

64. A water carriage system is used where:

a. –
b. there is a septic tank or put (pit) for collection.

65. Which of the following chemicals if present in sufficient quantities of drinking water will
cause the symptoms of pain, anaemia, and paralysis especially in the arms?
a. Fluoride
b. Arsenic – small sore on hands & feet, possibly developing Ca
c. Mercury – inflame of mouth, gums, swelling of salivary glands, &
loosening of hands and feet.
d. Lead
Nitrates cause metHb – baby
Selenium – staing of teeth tears

66. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Read-Sternberg cell?

a. binucleation
b. prominent eosinophilic nucleoli
c. scanty cytoplasm
d. perinucleolar halo

67. The extrinsic incubation period of a pathogen take place in

a. definitive host
b. intermediate host
c. final host
d. man

68. Schistosomiasis is transmitted by

a. cestodes - tapeworms
b.nematodes – round worms eg. Ancyclostoma duodenalae
c. tapeworms
d.trematodes – flukes, etc

69. Where does the laryngotracheal groove originate?

a. midgut
b. foregut – from 6th pharyngeal arch
c. somatoderm
d. 1st laryngeal arch

70. Which of the following is true of the sympathetic nervous system?

a. The preganglionic fibres leave from the dorsal root of the spinal cord
 b. The preganglionic fibres leave from the ventral root of spinal
cord
Pre sympathetic fibres are shorter than post

?71. A feature of IgM and not of IgG is the ability to

a. agglutinate red cells in saline
b. cause HDN
c. show optimal activity at 37*C ( IgM binds to RBCs bet at 4 deg)
d. be identified using antiglobulin ( Coomb’s) test.

72. A 62 yr old man who has been donating blood for 8 yrs presents to the hospital to donate
blood with a blood pressure 170/95mmHg. Your advice would be
a. defer the donation because of the patient’s age
b. allow to give 250mL of blood
c. allow to give autologous blood
d. allow to give full amount of blood

N.B. SBP should <180, and DBP <100. Age limit 17 - 60 yrs if not regular donor. Puse
should be between 50 – 100 bpm. Wt > 50kg. Blood for 1 unit = 450ml.

73. The parasite in the Anopheles mosquito develops by a

a. propagative cycle = increase in #
b. cyclopropagative cycle = change in form & increase in #
c. intrinsic cycle
d. cyclodevelopmental = change in form

74. Pharmacology of CLYRIDAMOLE (or dypyridamole):

a. NOT absorbed well orally
b. destroys fibrin
c. eliminated unchanged
d. highly bound to protein

75. During thermal inversion

a. a layer of cooler air acts as a blanket trap holding warmer air with
pollutants at ground level
b. warmer air rises to atmosphere carrying pollutants with it
c. a layer of warm air acts as a blanket which traps cold air and its
pollutants at ground level.
d. cold air rises to atmosphere carrying pollutants with it

76. A 54 yr old Caucasian man has B12 deficiency. The 2nd part of the Schillings test was
done and 15% B12 was excreted in urine. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. pernicious anaemia
b. folic acid deficiency
c. terminal ileum disease
d. vitamin B12 deficiency

77. If a person with hemolytic anemia presents with brown-coloured urine, what is causing
the colour?
a. hemosiderrin
 b. unconjugated bilirubin
c. Hb
d. conjugated bilirubin

78. The mean haemoglobin of a young adult male is:

a. 5.5x10^12L RBC count
b.–
c.–
d–

79. The superior Vena Cava is:

a. formed by the joining of the left brachiocephalic vein and left subclavian vein
b. formed at the lower border of the thyroid cartilage.
c. formed at the lower border of the left 1st costal cartilage.
d. formed at the lower border of the right first costal cartilage by the L &R
braciocephalic veins

80. Where are thymomas located?

a. Posterior mediastinum
b.
c.–
d.–
Most arise in ant. & sup. mediastinum, neck, thyroid pulm hilus or elsewhere.

81. The defective enzyme of Alkaptouria is?

a. –
b. –

Due to def. of homogentisate oxidase. Causes urine to darken on standing.

In phenylketonuria phenylalanine hydroxylase is deficient. Causes mental retardation.

82. Which carbon skeleton is NOT likely to be used in gluconeogenesis?

a. Alanine
b. Lactate
c. Palmitate
d. Glycerol

83. Hyperkalaemic familial disorders are likely to be disorders involving:

a. Decreased Ach atthe NMJ.
b. An immune attack of nCHRs
c. Problem with Sodium pumps. ( insulin + salbutamol can terminate an
attack)

84. Which statement best describes nerve action potential?

a. The potential approaches that of K+ during rising phase.
b. The potential approaches that of Na+ during rising phase.
c. The concentration of Na+ is greatly increased @ the peak of depolarization
 d. There is rapid influx of Na+ and K+ during depolarization.

85. Which of the following substrates is the major source of energy for resting muscle?
a. Fructose
b. Unesterified fatty acid
c. Glycerol
d. Lactate.

86. The neurons of the somatic, autonomic and enteric nervous system are derived from:
a. Outgrowth from the CNS
b. Modified mesoderm cells
c. Cells of the neural crest
d. Notochordal tissue.

87. Which of the following is a valid example of pharmacological resistance to

cytotoxic drugs?
a. Decreased drug uptake.
b. Drug efflux
c. Increased rate of catabolism
d. Change in intracellular target

88. What can cause an influenza pandemic?

a. Antigenic shift
b. Attach to respiratory mucosa
c. Antigen drift
d. Transported in air in water droplets.

89. In the treatment of inhalation asthma which of the following drugs has a long duration,
and is B2 agonist of quick onset?
a. Salbutamol
b. Formotorol
c. Salmeterol.
d. Fluticasone

90. Which of the following statements about respiration is true?

a. Congenital lung abscess occurs commonly in children
b. ARDS is caused by lack of surfactant
c. Bronchiolitis is common in adults
d. Asthma is more likely to cause wheezing in children than in adults.

91. Choose the correct answer about pneumonia.

a. Bacterial pneumonia is a common cause of interstitial pneumonia (No. This is viral)
b. Pneumocystis Carini Pneumoniae is common in AIDS.
c. Pneumonia is common in adults. (No. This is common in extremes of age).
d. Viral infections cause bronchopneumonia.

92. Housing Quality Index can best be described as the # of:

a. houses in poor but salvageable condition.
b. -
One person per room, electricity, kitchen
93. Which of the following is the LEAST potentially hazardous food?
a. Has a pH of 3 and a water activity of 0.45
b. Has a pH of 6.5 and a water activity of 0.9
c. Has a pH of 4.5 and a water activity of 0.75
d. Has a pH of 2.9 and a water activity of 0.65

94. Which of the following statements about dengue infection is correct?

a. The incubation period exceeds 3 weeks. No. This is 5 – 8 days)
b. Acute dengue infection in adults is accompanied by a maculopapular rash
c. Infection due to one serotype will not produce immunity to another serotype
d. Only one serotype is associated with epidemics in the Caribbean.

Classic dengue – saddle back fever, frontal headace, maculopapular rash,

dengue shock – tachy, low bp, cold clammy hands
haemorrhagic – peteechiae, purpura, etc

95. With advance in age, what happens to the residual volume (RV) and functional
residual volume (FRC)?
a. RV and FRC remain within the normal range
b. RV increases and FRC decreases
c. RV and FRC decrease
d. RV decreases and FRC increases

96. The upper limit of the laryngeal inlet is:

a. the vestibular fold
b. the vocal fold
c. the laryngeal sinus
d. the aryepiglottic fold/ C3
The lower limit is C6

97. What is not a likely association with MAHA (microangiopatic haemolytic anaemia)?
a) Malignant hypertension
b) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
c) Prosthetic heart valve
d) Bleomycin (mitomycin & cisplatin) treatment

98. The oxygen-haemoglobin curve:

a) when shifted to the right favours oxygen uptake
b) when shifted to the left favours oxygen delivery
c) is shifted to the right when P50 increases
d) is shifted to the left during exercise

99. Which of the following is a mast cell stabilizer and is used mainly in the prophylactic
treatment of asthmatic attacks?
a) Fluticasone - Steroid
b) Aminophylline – C AMP inhibitor
c) Budesonide - Steroids
d) Ketotifen
100. Ancylostoma duodenale is a:
a. Trematode- Flat worms
b. Nematode - roundworms ( hookworm)
c. Cestode – Tapeworms (Taenia)
d. Protozoan

101. The anopheles mosquito may be identified because:

a. the larvae lie at an angle to the water’s surface
b. the larvae lie parallel to the water’s surface
c. the proboscis and body are not at an angle to each other
d. ?

102. A 25 year old female presented with post-partum bleeding. This could be due to a
deficiency in:
a. Factor X
b. Factor XI
c. Factor XII
d. Factor XIII

103. An 18 year old male student complains of a sore throat, fever, and weakness for one
week. He also has enlarged neck nodes and leukocytosis. The diagnosis of
Infectious Mononucleosis is confirmed by:
a. activated B lymphocytes in peripheral blood
b. decreased T helper cells
c. anaemia and a positive Direct Coomb’s Test – ( Autoimmune haemolytic aneamia)
d. serum IgM antibodies for Epstein-Barr virus

104. A 17 year old female comes to investigate chronic anaemia with no abnormal
bleeding and a normal diet. Her 15 year old brother also has mild anaemia.
Hb 10.5g/dl, MCV 65fl. Which of the following explains this?
a. Increased TIBC
b. Fast band in Hb electrophoresis
c. Increased serum ferritin
d. HbA2 level of 4%

105. Pathogenic waste in hospitals should be:

a. colour coded for easier identification
b. put together with other waste and disposed of
c. disposed of under direct supervision
d. disposed of before other garbage waste

106. To control the spread of chicken pox in a day care facility:

a. immunize all children
b. isolate affected children
c. prepare food carefully
d. ?

107. To prevent morbidity and mortality due to influenza:

a. give prophylactic Amantadine
b. immunize annually against influenza A and B
 c. treat all cases with Zanamivir
d. ?

108. In which of the following is tracheostomy not indicated?

a. surgery to the base of the tongue
b. foreign body in the trachea – extraction bronchoscopy should be used
c. inflamed thyroid gland
d. gunshot to the supra-glottic region

109. Which of the following causes a single epitheloid lesion in the lung?
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Aspergillioma
d. Penicillosis

110. Which of the following is true of Jamaican non-Hodgkins lymphomas?

a. they are usually HTLV-1 related
b. Hodgkins is seen more often
c. ?
d. ?

111. The Anopheles mosquito:

a. lays its eggs on rafts
b. larva lies parallel to the water
c. larva lies at an angle to the water
d. proboscis is at an angle to the water
Aedes egypti – can fly 1 block
Anophleese – variable
Ciliata pipiens – 2 blocks

112. The ductus arteriosus:

a. transports blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta – closes functionally
at 15/18 hrs and structurally at 2 - 3 wks.
b. transports blodd from the aorta to the pulmonary artery
c. becomes the ligamentum arteriosus just before birth
d. is between the iliac and umbilical vein

113. The parietal pleura develops from:

a. endoderm
b. somatopleuric mesoderm
c. splanchnopleuric mesoderm
d. ectoderm

114. Acetate is brought out of the mitochondrial matrix by:

a. citrate
b. acetyl CoA
c. ?
d. ?

Oxaloacetate would be best option if present.

115. Reduced excitability in both nerve and muscle is LEAST likely in:
a. hypocalcemia
b. hypochlorinemia
c. hyponatremia
d. hypokalemia

116. The membrane potential for an ion is:

a. the charge needed to equalize concentrations of that ion inside and outside of
the cell
b. the permeability of the ion across the membrane
c. ?
d. ?

117. Which of the following will result from a lesion to the superior cervical ganglion?
a. Mydriasis
b. Ptosis
c. Vasodilation – could happen in facial vessels
d. Constipation

118. All of the following are functions of the normal adult spleen EXCEPT:
a. removal of abnormal red blood cell inclusions
b. red blood cell storage
c. red blood cell production
d. removal of abnormal red blood cell

119. Erythropoiesis takes place:

a. in flat bones in adults
b. in the yolk sac for all of embryonic life ( BM starts producing RBCs at 6mths IUL)
c. in the liver an spleen in adults
d. ?

120. A 62 year old man who has sustained extensive flame burns presents to the hospital with
a likely diagnosis of:
a. ARDS
b. pneumothorax
c. fat embolism
d. thromboembolism

121. The best way to prevent the spread of Staph. aureus in the hospital is:
a. to isolate patients
b. ensure that all medical personnel wear gloves
c. to target personnel found to have spread the disease
d. ?

122. A nursing home should have:

a. corridors no less than 5 feet wide
b. doors that can open on to the corridor
c. lockers on wheels for easy access by patrons
d. bathtub access from one side and one end
123. All of the following are characteristics of asthma except:
a. chronic inflammation of airways
b. Cushprungs spirals
c. Charcot-Layden crystals
d. Curshmann’s spirals

124. Triage is:

a. classification of casualties based on extent of injury
b. done only on the disaster site
c. classification of casualties based on how much help they can be given
d. ?

125. Typhoid fever is transmitted by the housefly by:

a. mechanical transmission
b.biological transmission
c. ?
d. ?

126. A 20 year old who is in the army presents to give blood. Three months earlier he was
wounded and received blood. You would:
a. allow him to give blood
b. test for Hepatitis C
c.defer for 3 months
d. ?

127. The breathing pattern in children is:

a. abdominal mostly
b. thoracoabdominal
c. like an adult female
d. thoracic mostly

128. The sinus venosus:

a. is on the arterial end of the endothelial heart tube
b. gives rise to the coronary sinus (R)
c. gives rise to the superior vena cava
d. opens into the truncus arteriosus

129. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in Myasthenia Gravis?

a. cyclosporine
b. pyridostigmine
c. streptomycin
d. succinyl choline/ decamethonium

Hexamethniun & d-tubocurarine blocks n receptors at the post- synaptic mem at the
autonomic ganglion & neuromuscular junction respectively.

130. Which of the following drugs causes increased urinary frequency?

a. neostigmine
b. atropine
 c. prazosin
d. acetylcholine

131. Increased urinary frequency may be treated with:

a. prazosin
b. atropine
c. succinyl choline
d. acetyl choline

132. The tissues of starved animals would contain which lipid?

a. glycolipids
b. triglycerides
c. cholesterol
d. phospholipids

133. The great cardiac vein drains into:

a. right atrium
b. left atrium
c. coronary sinus
d. middle cardiac vein

134. Which of the following concerning CLL is correct?

a. chemotherapy can cure the disease

b. if anaemia present the Direct Coombs Test should be done
c. treatment prevents Richters transformation
d. thrombocytopenia < 100 * 109 /L usually is an indication of (for) chemotherapy

plt. < 100, & absolute lymphocytosis by Rye’s classification indicates stage IV
disease

135. All of the following are associated with chronic phase CML except:

a. basophilic
b. massive splenomegaly
c. severe anaemia
d. thrombocytosis

136. A 2-day old child presents with normal Hb and normal platelets but increases WBC of
46 * 109 /L. The child is Rh 0 negative and the mother is Rh A positive. All of the
following would be expected:
a. increased LDH
b. sphenocytosis
c. Positive Direct Coombs test
d. Direct hyperbilirubinemia

137. Interruption of the cervical sympathetic trunk results in:

a. meiosis – contraction of the sphincter muscles
b. vasoconstriction
c. exophthalmosis
 d. ptosis

138. Lumbar sympathectomy may result in all of the following EXCEPT:

a. pooling of blood in the legs
b. ?
c. coldness in the feet
d. anhydrosis of the feet

139. The upper limit of the laryngeal inlet is the:

a. vestibular fold
b. vocal fold
c. laryngeal sinus
d. aryepiglottic fold

140. 60 year old man, non-tender swelling in cheek, epistaxis, and ptosis:
a. sinusitis
b. maxillary carcinoma
c. nasal polyps – u get epistaxis
d. ?

141. Which of the following is not a cause of stridor?

a. foreign body in the trachea
b. bilateral vocal cord palsy
c. choanal atresia
d. vocal cord nodules

142. What is the maximum breathing rate of infants?

a. 60/min
b. 50/min
c. 40/min
d. 30/min

143. Which of the following blood products is correctly matched with its use?
a. Fresh Frozen Plasma - TTP
b. Leukocyte Reduced…? – Haemolytic Leukemoid Reaction
c. Plasma Concentrate – Von Willebrand Disease
d. Stored Plasma – Factor V Deficiency

144. Ketosis is, in part, due to:

a. increased acetyl CoA production
b. decreased acetyl CoA production
c. increased breakdown of fatty acids
d. keto… of … pyruvate in the liver

145. A mild haemophiliac is undergoing a dental extract. He refused allogenous

transfusion. Which treatment is not suitable?
a) DDAVP
b) Erythropoietin
c) Ferrous sulphate
d) ?
146. A 30 year old man was on a construction site and fell. Cervical and lumbar spinal
injury are suspected. Which of the following is appropriate?
a. ask him to lift up his head
b. ask him if he can move his fingers, move his head against resistance
c. ask him if he can move his legs, and get him to sit up
d. if he can answer, ask him to move his toes and fingers

147. Which of the following applies to / is correct about aminotransferases?

a. ?
b. transfer 1 amino gp from glutamate or aspartate to alpha-ketoglut + OAA
c. ?
d. ?

148. All of the following are due to increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
EXCEPT:
a. constipation
b. decreased peristalsis
c. relaxation of the ? sphincter
d. vasoconstriction

Multiple Choice Question from 2k6, 2k7, and 2k8 semester 3

149. Which of the following is the intrinsic conducting system present in the interventricular
septum?
a. Sinoatrial node
b. Purkinje fibres
c. The bundle of His and its branches
d. The atrioventricular node

150. Increasing the preload in cardiac muscle will

a. reduce ventricular end diastolic pressure
b. increase ventricular wall tension
c. decrease peak tension in the ventricular muscle
d. decrease the time for the ventricular muscle to reach peak tension

151. Stimulation of the high pressure baroreceptors is associated with

a. increased cardiac contractility
b. increased heart rate
c. increased discharge rate of vagal efferent neurons
d. decreased systolic blood pressure

152. An ECG shows an RR interval of 0.8s. What is the heart rate?

a. 72 beats per minute
b. 75 beats per minute
c. 100 beats per minute
d. 120 beats per minute

153. Starling’s Law of the heart

a. does not operate in the failing heart
 b. explains the increase in heart rate during exercise
c. explains the increase in cardiac output when venous return increases
d. explains the increase in cardiac output when sympathetic input to the heart is
stimulated

154. A decrease in cardiac output is associated with

a. high environmental pressure
b. pregnancy
c. sitting or standing from a lying position
d. anxiety and excitement

155. Which of the following is not associated with an increase in heart rate ?
a. decreased activity in baroreceptors in the arteries, left ventricle and pulmonary
circulation
b. increased activity of atrial stretch receptors
c. Bainbridge reflex
d. Increased intracranial pressure

156. Which of the following has the greatest blood flow per 100ml of tissue?
a. Brain 750-1000ml
b. heart muscle
c. liver
d. kidney 1200ml

157. Which of the following slows conduction through the atrioventricular node and has its
primary action on L-type Calcium channels?
a. Adenosine
b. Esmolol
c. Lidocaine
d. Verapamil

T type Ca channels are in the node

Beta receptors 1, 2, 3, incre. cAMP. Alpha & m 1, 3, 5 incr cAMP and DAG. Alpha 2, M 2
& 4 decr cAMP.
Beta 3 receptors are on adipose tissue.

158. Which of the following would be used to treat digoxin overdose?

a. Lidocaine
b. Magnesium
c. Digoxin antibodies
d. Potassium (Slow K)

159. Which of the following would you use to increase urine output in a hypertensive patient
with benign prostate hyperplasia?
a. Prazosin
b. Propranolol
c. Bendofluazide
d. Metoprolol

160. All of the following are associated with right heart failure except
 a. ascites
b. swelling of the lower extremities
c. pulmonary oedema
d. jugular venous distension

161. Which of the following is associated with angiotensin?

a. peripheral vasodilation
b. aldosterone secretion
c. Sodium and water loss
d. Regression in size of cardiac myocytes

162. The commonest form of abdominal infection is

a. Primary peritonitis
b. Secondary peritonitis
c. Intra-abdominal abscess
d. Pancreatic necrosis

163. Which is a cause of bacterial dysentery?

a. Shigella sonnei
b. Clostridium dificile
c. Entamoeba hystolytica
d. Trichuris trichura
Parasite worm Trichuris tricura causes dysentery.

164. Which of the following is a complication of duodenal ulcers?

a. Reflux oesophagitis
b. Gallstones
c. Vitamin B 12 deficiency
d. Bleeding

In a pyloric stenosis, you get a hyperchloremic alkalosis.

165. All of the following are associated with jaundice except

a. Haemolysis
b. Giberts syndrome
c. Drugs
d. Duodenal ulcer disease

166. All of the following are chronic sequelae of Hepatitis B EXCEPT

a. Chronic pancreatitis
b. Cirrhosis
c. Chronic carrier
d. Hepatocellular carcinoma

167. All of the following are associated with a lower GI bleed except
a. Diverticular disease
b. Angiodysplasia
c. Ischaemic colitis
d. Norwalk virus infection
168. In which form is physiologically active thyroxine found?
a. bound to albumin
b. bound to globulin
c. bound to prealbumin
d. Unbound

169. The supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus controls the secretion of

a. Antidiuretic hormone
b. Growth hormone -
c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
d. Follicle Stimulating hormone

Paraventricular n. secretes oxytocin

170. Glucagon causes glycogenolysis by stimulating the synthesis of

a. cAMP
b. ATP
c. 5’ AMP
d. Glucose-6-phosphate

cAMP works through protein kinase, which is necessary for glucagonto work.
All peptide hormones work via cAMP 2nd messenger sys except insulin.

171. Which of the following plays a major role in diabetic nephropathy?

a. Amyloid deposition
b. Immune complex deposition
c. Microangoipathy
d. Sorbitol accumulation in cells

Nerve, lens, kidney, & blood vessels do not require insulin for glucose uptake.

172. Secretion of insulin in a diabetic on insulin is best assessed by the measurement of

a. cortisol
b. C-peptide
c. Glycosylated haemoglobin – Hb1 Ac should be > 7%
d. Proinsulin

173. Which is true of scabies?

a. the onset of itching is within a few days of infection – 2wks
b. it is caused by Sarcoptes scabii var canis – No. sarcoptes scabii var hominis
c. it usually affects the scalp
d. a 6% sulphur preparation is used for treatment. Ivermectin or permethrin.
Sulphur Rx bet 1 – 8.

174. The five year survival rate

a. incurs lead time bias

b. is the number of cases surviving 5 years after biological onset
c. is not used in cancer prognosis
d. is used for infectious disease monitoring
175. Which aspect of screening is affected by the prevalence of a disease in a population?

a. Positive predictive value ?

b. Negative predictive value
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity

176. Screening is an example of

a. primary prevention
b. primordial prevention
c. secondary prevention
d. tertiary prevention

177. The measles virus in measles is a

a. Necessary cause
b. Sufficient cause
c. Important cause
d. Viral cause

178. Which is false about the liver?

a. Hepatocytes radiate out from the efferent vein

b. Bile made by the hepatocytes drains into the sinusoids – No! Bile drains into
cannaliculi, then portal tracts.
c. A lobule is an efferent vein surrounded by hepatocytes with portal tracts at the periphery

179. Eosinophil bodies are

a. collections of eosinophils in the sinusoids
b. degenerate hepatocytes = drop out cells = acidophil bodies in yellow fever, &
hepatitis.

180. You are reviewing notes you wrote on a patient, and discover that you wrote that her left
calf was swollen, when in fact her right calf was swollen. To correct the mistake you
a. Tear out the entire page and rewrite it
b. Use ‘white-out’ to correct the error
c. Tell the Senior Resident about the mistake and then change it
d. Cross it out, correct it and sign beside the correction, and put the date

181. Which combination shows no therapeutic improvement over monotherapy?

a. Sulphonylurea + Biguanide (metformin + fenformin decr. Gluconeogenesis &
peripheral utilization of glucose)
b. Insulin + Thiazolidenedione (roseglitazones, pioglitazon)
c. Sulphonylurea + Glucosidase inhibitor
d. Sulphonylurea + insulin

Metformin is a biguanide. Do not use sulphonylurea and meglitenide

182. Which antilipaemic agent is paired correctly with its effects?

 a. Cholestyramine – antioxidant effect (prevents the oxidation of LDL). No. Bile salt
sequestrants. These all begin with chol
b. Niacin – inhibits cholesterol synthesis
c. Ezetimibe – prevents absorption of dietary cholesterol
d. Privastatin – prevents absorption of bile salts

HMGCoA red inhibitors – statins. Inhibit HMGCo reductase.

183. Vagotomy is associated with

a. protein deficiency
b. pernicious anaemia
c. Fe deficiency anaemia
d. Delayed gastric emptying

184. The maximal absorption of fats takes place in the

a. ileum
b. jejunum
c. duodenum
d. colon

185. An 8 year old boy presents with dome shaped lesions with umbilication on his limbs. He
is otherwise healthy. He likely has an infection of
a. Tinea manum
b. Mulloscum contagiosum
c. Pityriasis rosea
d. Malassezia furfur

186. Pancreatitis is associated with

a. Autodigestion of the duodenal mucosa
b. Phospholipase A, elastin and proteases
c. Increased activation of pepsinogens

187. Which is paired correctly?

a. Colangiocarcinoma –
b. Hepatocellular carcinoma – HBV
c. Liver cell carcinoma - thorotrast

188. Cyclic AMP is a second messenger to each hormone except

a. Glucagon
b. Catecholamines
c. Luteinizing hormone – a glycopeptide. Does not work by 2nd messengers. TSH,
FSH and LH are also glycoproteins.
d. Vasopressin

189. All of the following are a source of bilirubin except

a. Haemoglobin Haem
b. Cytocrhome P450
c. Platelet
d. Catalases
190. Symptoms of acute viral hepatitis include all of the following except
a. Anorexia
b. Rectal bleeding
c. Right upper quadrant abdominal pain
d. Myalgia

191. From which specimen collection would you be able to isolate salmonella typhi?
a. Stool
b. Urine
c. Pus
d. Blood

192. Which of the following organisms is most likely to cause Primary Peritonitis in a child
with nephritic syndrome?
a. E. Coli
b. Strep. Pnaemonia
c. Bacteriodes fragilis – rare cause
d. M. Tuberculosis

193. Hyperglycemia is likely to occur in treatment of hypertension with

a. Frusemide
b. Atenolol
c. Prazosin
d. Bendrofluazide – cause Ca efflux. Decrease insulin secretion. Has
antidiuretic effect.

Diazoxide does not have antidiuretic effect.

194. A cardiologist is carrying out a study to determine the survival time of people with a
specific condition. He looked up the case report for the past 3 years whether dead or
alive. The most suitable study design:
a. Randomized controlled clinical trial
b. Retrospective cohort study
c. Case-control study
d. Ecological study

195. Pulmonary vascularity is increased in all of the following except?

a. PDA
b. VSD
c. ASD
d. PS

196. The normal rhythm of contraction of heart is controlled by

a. SA Node
b. AV Node
c. Bundle of His
d. Ventricular muscle

197. A male of 70kg has a systolic blood pressure of 120 and diastolic pressure of 90mmHg.
Calculate the Mean Arterial pressure and Pulse pressure
 MAP = 1/3 (SBP – DBP) + DBP
= 100 mmHg

PP = SBP – DBP = 30 mmHg

198. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of sexuality?

a. Sexual intercourse and other forms of sexual activity
b. Includes sexual feelings, opinions and intercourse
c. Includes all feelings, thoughts, behaviours and relationships related to
being male and female
d. It is relationships between hetero, homo and bisexuals

199. Which of the following hormones are not produced by anterior pituitary
a.Adrenocorticotrophin
b.ADH
c.Prolactin
d.TSH

200. A group of people were selected in a survey between the ages of 21-34 years. The
researchers when from house to house to question the people. If the persons were not
at home they omitted them from the schedule. What type of error did they commit?
a. Random error
b. Systematic error
c. Lack of reliability
d. Confounding

201. The definition of hypertension has improved significantly over the last 40 years. The
reason for this is:
a. The increased prevalence of hypertension worldwide
b. The improved efficacy of anti-hypertensive drugs
c. The recognition of adverse prognosis with lower blood pressures
d. The better side effect profile of anti-hypertensive drugs

202. Which statement about HMGCoA reductase is incorrect

a. Used to treat Type IIA & TypeIIB hyperlipaedics
b. Used when genetic defect in LDL receptor
c. Causes cateract formation
d. Prevents mevolonic acid converted to cholesterol

203. What is the major cause of bacterial dysentery?

a. E. histolytica
b. Trichuric tricura?
c. Shigella
d.

204. Patient presents with umbilication of papules on face and arms (spontaneous ?)
Likely diagnosis?
a. Molluscum contagiosum
b. Herpes zoster
205. What is the most likely retrospective cohort bias?
a. loss to follow up

206. Infant mortality rate is:

a. number of deaths in infants under one / number of deliveries
b. number of deaths in infants under one / number of live births
c. number of deaths in infants under one / number of live births * 1000 (in a
year)
d. number of deaths in infants under one / number of deliveries * 10 000

207. What is the most common pancreatic neoplasm?

a. Acinar cell carcinoma
b. Ductal adenocarcinoma
c. Endocrine Cell carcinoma
d. Cystadenoma – least common

208. Diastolic heart failure is characterized by:

a. Decrease ….
b. Decrease cardiac output
c. Decrease…
d. Absence of pulmonary edema

209. The role of epidemiology in the identification of risk factors associated with
disease is most influenced by:
a. Measurement of disease
b. Statistical methods for analysis
c. Comparison of groups with characteristics of interest
d. Measurement of precise exposure/risk factors

210. Which drug has the largest half-life:

a. Quinidine
b. Amiodarone – 103 dys
c. Atenolol
d. Digoxin

211. A child abuser is most likely to be:

a. A spiteful person
b. Abused by a child

212. Complete heart block of impulses from atria to ventricle is called:

a. 1st degree heart block – prolongation bet PR interval. Delay in transm from Av
node to vent. N = 0.12 – 0.2s
b. Sick sinus syndrome
c. 2nd degree heart block – prolonged PR interval until there is no QRS complex
d. 3rd degree heart block

213. P wave of ECG represents:

a. Atrial depolarization
b. Ventricular depolarization
c. Sinoatrial automaticity
 d. Ventricular repolarization

214. Which is increased during sleep versus when awake:

a. Insulin
b. ADH
c. Cortisol
d. Adrenaline

215. Which is best for preventing pregnancy and STDs when used consistently?
a. Male condom and spermicide
b. Female condom
c. Combination of estrogens/pills

216. What is normal range of ECG?

a. 3-6
b. 1.5 – 4
c. 6–8

217. Which describes an important ethical concept:

a. Autonomy: doctor does what he wants if he thinks its best for patient
b. Beneficience: doctor does what’s best for patient to protect his reputation
c. Non-malevolence: doctor does…
d. Justice: doctor does what’s best for all patients inspite of race, sex, creed,
race

218. Man presents with tense blisters that erupt and heal spontaneously, with no mucous
membrane involvement. Most likely diagnosis:
a. Pemphigous vulgaris -
b. Pemphigous foliaceous – flaccid. Cannot see blister. Nicholchi’s sign
c. Bullous pemphygoid

219. Man has erythema and itching of scalp, ala of nose, beard region and axilla. The most
likely cause:
a. Atopic dermatitis
b. Contact dermatitis
c. Seborrhoic dermatitis

220. Which is associated with Koebnon’s Phenomenon?

a. Lichen planus. also psoriasis
b. Pityriasis rosea

221. What is correct about peritoneum

a. Lesser omentum is derived from ventral mesogastrium and contain hepatic
vessels only
b. Greater omentum is derived from dorsal mesogastrium and is a four layered
sheet which hangs like an apron over intestinal loops
c. It covers abdominal and pelvic region sometimes enclosing an organ
completely, and sometimes only on one surface
222. What does not occur during swallowing?

a. Passavants’ ridge formed from contraction of superior constrictor

b. Tongue pushed against hard palate by action of masticatory muscles
c. Cricopharyngeal part of inferior constrictor relaxes
d. Tensing and elevation of soft palate by tensor and levator palatini respectively

Geno & mylo hyoid muscles closes the epiglottis over the laryngeal inlet by raising the
hyoid bone, which causes the epiglottis to flip backwards.

223. Which does not reduce mortality in CCF?

a. Propanolol – this is a beta blocker, which slows the heart.
b. Digoxin
c. Diuretic

224. Woman treated with thiazide, digoxin and beta1-blocker. What effect would adding
procainamide to the regimen have?
Procainamide is also a Na blocker.

225. All statements about esomeprazole are wrong except:

a. Best drug treatment for Zollinger Ellison Syndrome

b. Converted to active metabolite in stomach (which is sulfonamide)
c. Bind reversibly to H2 receptors
d. Has short half life

226. Woman presents with recurrent renal calculi and generalized decrease bone density.
Most likely diagnosis:
a. Parathyroid hyperplasia
b. Parathyroid carcinoma
c. Parathyroid adenoma

227. Which drug can assist in voiding of urine in a hypertensive patient with prostactic
hyperplasia?
a. Prazosin
b. Propanolol
c. Bendrofluazide
d. Metaprolol

228. Which of the following is affected by prevalence of a disease in a population being

screened:
a. Positive predictive value
b. Negative predictive value
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity

229. Which of the following is clinically relevant or physiological important for positive
inotropic effect
a. Digoxin
b. Enalopril
 c. Adrenaline
d. Captopril

230. Jaundice may occur in al except:

a. Drugs
b. Hemolysis
c. Gilbert’s disease
d. Peptic ulcer disease

231. 5 year survival time is:

a. Used in cancer treatment
b. Is associated with lead time bias

232. Patient with an umbilicated papule located on….is suffering from:

a. Mollusum canatgisum
b. Lichen planus
c. Impetigo

233. Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with all of the following except:

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypoproteinemia
d. Dehydration

234. Which statement is not true?

a. Most sugars are absorbed by simple diffusion
b. Xylulose deficiency is associated with coelic disease

235. Which combination of drugs has the best efficacy when comparing mode of action?
a. Sulphonyl urea & meglitinide
b. Sulphonylurea & Biguanide
c. Insulin & thiazolidenedione
d. Sulphonylurea & alpha-glucon…

236. An infant, cyanotic at birth, eventually dies at 5 weeks what is the most likely
explanation for the Congenital Heart Failure
a. TOF
b. TGV
c. CoA
d. PDA

237. What is the legal age of consent in Jamaica?

a. 14
b. 16
c. 18
d. 20

238. Which is least explanation for congestive cardiac failure in young children?
a. Severe Coarctation of Aorta
b. Large Ventricular Septal Defect
 c. TOF
d. PDA

239. 1st degree heart block is characterized by:

a. QT > 0.20s
b. QT >0.40s
c. PR >0.12s
d. PR >0.20s

240. Which is most appropriate for a 3 year old child who is moderately dehydrated?
a. Any soda that is uncolored
b. Commercially prepared rehydration solution
c. Apple juice
d. IV fluid

241. Which of the following does not show irregular cardiac rhythm:
a. Sinus tachycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Ventricular fibrillation
d. Ectopic atrial tachycardia

242. Vasodilation of arterioles in most tissues is produced by

a. Decrease local temperature
b. Increase discharge for nor-adrenergic (sympa) vasomotor nerves
c. Circulating Na+/K+ Inhibitors
d. Decrease local pH

Sympathetic sec Ach in skeletal musc, arterioles, eccrine sweat glands, piloerector
muscles which gives parasympa-like effect using n/m receptors. But usu sec NE.
Adrenal medulla gets one long neuron, but ANS usu has 2 neurons.

243 . Active absorption of bile salts takes place in the:

a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum
c. Ileum Terminal Ileum. It is absorbed by active transport.
d. Colon

244. Glucagon promotes glycogenolysis by stimulating synthesis of:

a. cAMP
b. ATP
c. 5’AMP
d. Glucose 6 phosphate

245. Which of the following is a complication(?) of duodenal ulcers:

a. Reflux oesophagitis
b. Gallstones
c. Vitamin B12 deficincy
d. Bleeding

246. Secretion of insulin in a diabetic is best assessed by measurement of:

 a. Cortisol
b. C-Peptide
c. Pro-insulin
d. Glycosylated Hb

247. Which of the following non-infectious response can trigger response identical to sepsis?
a. Dehydration
b. Renal failure
c. Hypotension
d. Pancreatitis

248. Which of the following statements about ADH is incorrect?

a. It reduces glomerular filtration rate
b. It is released from nerve cells in Hypothalamus
c. It increases permeability of water in collecting ducts
d. Secretion is influenced by plasma osmolality

249. In a cohort study in JA 800 non-diabetic persons are followed up for approximately 4
years. At the end of the follow up period 618 persons were found and assessed. 79 of
them developed diabetes. A total of 2258 person years risk have been accumulated
for the 618 persons.

Loss of follow up of 182 persons can introduce

a. Recall bias
b. Selection bias
c. Interview bias
d. Misclassification bias

250. What is the annual cumulative incidence % of diabetes

a. 12.8%
b. 9.8%
c. 3.5%
d. 3.2%
79/800 * 100 = 9.8%

251. What portion of the adrenal gland secretes aldosterone

a. Medulla
b. Zona reticularis
c. Zona fasiculata
d. Zona glomerulosa

252. 75 year old male presented with abdominal pain. After abdominal ultrasound, an
abdominal aneurysm and gallstones were found. Surgical repair of the aneurysm and
cholecystectomy revealed which type of stone:
a. Pure cholesterol stone
b. Mixed cholesterol stone 70 – 90 %
c. Black pigment stone – due to haemolytic anaemia
d. Brown pigment stone

253. Which statement about the pineal gland is INCORRECT?

 a. Pinealocytes produce melatonin predominantly during the day
b. Melatonin is responsible for the circadian rhythmicity of bodily functions
c. Tumors of the pineal gland press in the superior colliculi and cerebral aqueduct
and cause hydrocephalus and visual disturbances
d. Activity of the pinealocytes is regulated by 2 neural chains, the supachiasmatic
nucleus through inputs from the retina and the habenular nuclei, and from the
superior cervical ganglion

254. All of the following have been shown to reduce the mortality of congestive heart failure
except:
a. Captopril
b. Atenolol
c. Digoxin
d. Quinidine

255. Which of the following least affects carbohydrate metabolism?

a. Methylprednisolone
b. Deflazacort
c. Fludrocortisone

256. Which enzyme catalyzes biliverdin to bilirubin?

a. Haem oxidase
b. Biliverdin reductase
c. Bilirubin UDP diglucurone transferase
d. Gamma glutanyl transferase

257. Which Beta1 antagonist is used in the treatment of congestive heart failure?
a. Atenolol
b. Dobutamine
c. Captopril
d. Digoxin

258. A 25 year old woman had a massive post-partum haemorrhage after the delivery of her
3rd child. She now shows signs of hypothyroidism which is most likely due to:
a. Sheehan’s syndrome
b. Grave’s disease
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
d. Lymphocytic thyroiditis

259. Which of the following is NOT associated with H. Pylori?

a. Gastric carcinoma
b. Gastric lymphoma
c. Antral gastritis
d. Pancreatic carcinoma

260. Upper GI haemorrhage due to Curling’s ulcers are as a result of:

a. Shock
b. Hypovolaemic head injury
261. During exercise a man consumes 1.8L/min of oxygen. His arterial blood containing
190ml/L and his mixed venous blood contains 134ml/L. From these figures, what is
his estimated cardiac output?
a. 3.2L/min
b. 16L/min
c. 32L/min
d. 54L/min

Fitz principle = amount of oxygen consumed/ amt. of blood – venous blood

190 – 134= 56mL/L OR 0.056L/L.
1.8L/min* 1/0.056 L/Lm= 1.8L/mL/0.056 = 32L/min

262. A 70 year old male has a systolic blood pressure and a diastolic blood pressure of
90mmHg. Which pair represents his mean arterial pressure and his pulse pressure:
a. 140mmHg : 90mmHg
b. 100 mmHg: 30mmHg
c. 120mmHg : 40mmHg
d. 120mmHg : 30mmHg

263. Which is the best specimen to culture when a patient presents with enteric (typhoid)
fever:
a. Stools
b. Bile
c. Urine
d. Blood

264. Child abusers are usually persons who:

a. take out their anger on children
b. are spiteful
c. who have been abused

265. Which of the following classes of drugs is NOT used in the treatment of systolic
heart failure?
a. Diuretics
b. Inotropics
c. Arterial vasodilators
d. Venous vasoconstrictors

266. Which of the following is the most common anatomical site of an atherosclerotic
(aortic?) aneurysm?
a. thoracic aorta
b. supra-renal abdominal aorta - inoperable
c. infra-renal abdominal aorta - operable
d. renal arteries

267. When writing a medical report or case notes which of the following are appropriate
abbreviations or acronyms?
a. GPO, BBMF, PHBC, DTR
b. BP, RR, NAD, CBC
 c. FLK, PBI, BP, GLM
d. CTD, LOBNH, ART, FUBAR

268. Understanding and having a level of comfort with issues of sexual diversity is important
for health care workers because it helps to:
a. screen out patients that you are uncomfortablt treating
b. develop the ability to identify homosexual patients
c. be objective in dealing with patients of all sexual orientations
d. accept all types of sexual behaviours

269. Lower GI bleeds may be due to all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Diverticular disease
b. Angiodysplasia
c. Ischaemic colitis
d. Norwalk virus infection

270. Which of the following statements concerning the thyroid gland is INCORRECT?
a. the parathyroids are supplied by the inferior thyroid arteries.
b. The recurrent laryngeal nerve passes medial to the lateral lobe of the thyroid.
c. The presence of squamous cell epithelium indicates hyperactivity
d. The thyroid venous plexus lies superficial to the true capsule

271. Which form of thyroxine is active?

a. Albumin bound
b. Prealbumin bound
c. Globulin bound
d. Unbound

272. Which of the following statements concerning human scabies infection is correct?
a. Itching occurs within a few days of the initial infection
b. It is caused by ____ scabei? ____ ____ canis
c. scalp infection is most common
d. 6% sulphur can be used to treat the condition

273. A 19 year old girl was run over by a bus while walking on the sidewalk. The head of
the femur is protruding from a wound in the upper thing and is bleeding. Which
scenario most likely describes the medical officer as negligent?

a. The doctor who was driving past stops, ensures that the girls airway is open and
that she is breathing but does not site an intravenous line
b. The emergency doctor who ensures that her airway is open and that she is
breathing but does not site an intravenous line.
c. The emergency doctor who ensures that the airway is open, sites and
intravenous line but fails to ensure that she is breathing
d. The doctor who was driving past, rolls up his window and speeds away without
stopping.

274. Jaundice may occur in all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Haemolysis
 b. Gilbert’s Disease
c. Drugs
d. Duodenal ulcer disease

275. Vagotomy of the stomach causes:

a. protein deficiency
b. Iron Deficiency Anaemia
c. Pernicious Anaemia
d. Delayed gastric emptying

276. Active absorption of bile salts takes place in the:

a. duodenum
b. jejunum
c. ileum
d. colon

277. Digestion and the emulsification of bile salts....?

a. AIP
b. Lipase
c. Lecithin
d. Bile acids

278. Most common abdominal infection:

a. Primary peritonitis
b. Secondary peritonitis
c. Intra-abdominal abscess
d. Pancreatic necrosis

279. All of the following are sequele of HBV EXCEPT:

a. Cirrhosis
b. Carrier state
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma
d. Chronic pancreatitis

280. Secretion of insulin in a diabetic patient on insulin is best assessed by the measurement
of levels of:
a. cortisol
b. C-peptide
c. glycosilated Haemoglobin
d. Proinsulin

281. A doctor notices that some of his male patients who work at industrial plants have
testicular problems. He wants to do a quick study to see if there is a correlation (but
he has limited resources?). What type of study is this (would be most appropriate?)
a. prospective cohort
b. ecological study
c. case control study – observation of ppl with the disease and without disease
d. cross sectional study? – provides info on disease of interest

282. Primary regulation of electrlyte balance is?

 a. Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System
b. ADH
c. Sympathetics
d. Baroreceptor
Chief regulator of aldosterone secretion is sodium.

283. The pumping action of the heart is done by the:

a. endocardium
b. pericardial sac
c. myocardium
d. epicardium

284. Which of the following is an irregular cardiac rhythm?

a. sinus tachycardia
b. atrial fibrillation
c. ectopic atrial tachcardia
d. ventricular tachycardia

285. Which organ receives the greatest blood flow per 100ml of tissue?
a. kidney
b. liver
c. brain
d. heart muscle

286. What is the heart rate of someone with an RR interval of is 0.80s on an ECG?
= 75 bpm

287. Which of the following drugs has the longest half life?
a. amiodarone – class 3 K channel blocker used in treating cardiac arrhythmias
b. lignocaine – class 1 anti-arrhythmic drug
c. digoxin
d. dysopyramide – class 1 drug. Suppress supraventricular arrhythmias by prolonging
refractory period.

288. Which of the following salivary gland tumors is characterized by the presence of
perineural invasion and poor long-term outcome?
a. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma – most common malignant tumour of salivary
gland.
b. Warthin’s tumor – 2nd most common. benign tumour typically foun in parotid
gland. Most common in smokers.
c. Adenocystic carcinoma
d. Malignant mixed tumor

289. Which of the following part of the GI tract is featured with taenia coli?
a. Jejunum
b. Duodenum
c. Caecum
d. Ileum
290. Inserting a chest tube
a. Is a non-surgical procedure
b. Requires presence of a thoracic surgeon
c. Cannot be performed safely outside of an operating theatre
d. May be a life saving maneuver in the emergency room

291. Achalasia candia is

a. difficulty swallowing solids more than liquids
b. difficulty swallowing equally solids and liquids
c. Meissners plexus problem
d.

292. Affective skills do not include:

a. supporting the patient
b. facilitating disclosure of feelings
c. illiciting relevant information form the patient’s records
d. empathy

293. Which of the following can be used to treat digitoxin toxicity?

a. Lignocaine
b. Magnesium
c. Slow potassium
d. ? antibodies

294. Which of the following is in high concentrations during sleep?

a. glucagon
b. insulin
c. ADH

295. A man who has consumed a large quantity of alcohol presents to the emergency room.
Which would be the best vitals to do?
a. pulse, temperature, blood pressure
b. pulse, temperature, urine analysis, blood glucose, blood pressure

296. Sexual dysfunction is classified as:

a. Anatomical, physiological, lack of interest, biochemical
b. Disorders of desire, arousal, ejaculation

297. Sexuality is
a. Sexual intercourse
b. Feelings about sex, relationships and sexual preferences
c. All feelings, relationships and expressions related to being male or female

298. Increasing viscosity of blood would

a. increase cardiac output
b. increase mean blood pressure

299. A child with nephritis is likely to develop peritonitis from

a. Escherichia coli
b. Bacteriodes
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

300. Which of the following would be a cause of cor pulmonale

a. right ventricular hypertrophy
b. left ventricular hypertrophy
c. pulmonary oedema

301. Which are features of left ventricular failure?

a. Pleural effusion
b. Pulmonary oedema
c. Hepatomegaly

302. HMG Co A reductase inhibitors

a. are useful in types IIa and IIb hyperlipidaemia
b. prevent the release of mevalonic acid in the synthesis of cholesterol

303. Which is a beta-1 selective antagonist used to treat hypertension?

a. atenolol
b. propranolol
c. cimetidine

304. A 62-year-old man has a complete thrombotic occlusion of his left circumflex artery.
Which of the following is likely to occur within an hour?
a. syncope
b. thromboembolism
c. arrhythmia

305. Regarding rheumatic fever, which is incorrect?

a. it is a sequela of beta haemolytic streptococcal infection
b. blood samples show active infection with beta-haemolytic streptococcus group A
c. it occurs mostly in children
d. the preferred prophylaxis is intramuscular penicillin once per month

306. Cardiac tamponade may be associated with

a. tension haemothorax
b. cardiogenic shock
c. sepsis

307. Lead time bias is

a. increased time in calculating survival because of pushing back time when diagnosis
is made earlier
b. decreased time in calculating survival because of diagnosis made upon screening

308. A study was done of hypertensives in the corporate area. Households were randomly
selected, and interviews were done of persons present at the chosen household
between the hours of 8:30 a.m. and 4:30 p.m. on weekdays. This study may have
incurred
a. random error
b. systematic error
c. confounding

309. Which is true of esomeprazole?

a. It promotes the production of excess protective mucous
b. It neutralizes acid on contact
c. It it a prodrug that is activated in the stomach

310. A study was done to see whether individual couselling or group counseling produced
better results in management of diabetes by patients.
The likely study design was:
a. Case Control
b. Prospective
c. Controlled Trial
d. Cross-Sectional

311. Population-based control programmes

a. are highly beneficial to the population with a small change in risk factors
b. are easy to implement
c. are very expensive

312. A 72 year-old man presents with tense blisters on his arms and legs that healed
spontaneously after rupturing. It is likely that he has
a. Bullous pemphigoid
b. Pemphigus vulgaris
c. Pemphigus foliaceous

313. Which is true of acne vulgaris?

a. It is more common in females than males
b. There is usually excess androgen in the serum of sufferers
c. It is caused by eating oily foods

314. Regarding swallowing, which is incorrect?

a. The tongue pushes the bolus against the palate by contraction of the muscles of
mastication
b. The muscles of the inferior constrictor relax
c. The ridge of Passavant is formed by contraction of the superior constrictor

315. In which of the following is the Koebler effect demonstrated?

a. Lichen planus
b. Pityriasis versicolor
c. Pityriasis rosea
d. Bullous pemphigoid

316. A 30 year old presents with erythema and scaling of the nose, eyelids. Her likely
diagnosis is
a. Allergic dermatitis
b. Seborrhaic dermatitis
c. Atopic dermatitis

317. Which of the following media would grow cultures of Salmonella typhi?
 a. Stool
b. Urine
c. Bile
d. Blood

318. Taenia coli are found on the

a. Jejunum
b. ileum
c. rectum
d. caecum

319. When there is a total lack of transmission of excitation from atria to ventricles it is
a. 1st degree heart block
b. Sinus Sickness
c. 2nd degree heart block
d. 3rd degree heart block

320. Conduction of the rhythmic electrical activity of the heart begins by activity in the:
a. Sinoatrial node
b. Atrio ventricular node
c. Atria
d. Ventricles

321. Achalasia involves

a. dysphagia for solids first, then liquids
b. dysphagia for both liquids and solids
c. a defect in Meissners plexus

322. Which of the following is most often associated with pancreatic cancer?
a. Adenoma of the duct cells
b. Endocrine cell carcinoma
c. Carcinoma of the acini
d. Mixed cell carcinoma

323. Which of the following directly stimulates the vasomotor centre?

a. K + concentration
b. Ca 2+ concentration
c. O 2 and CO 2 Concentration

324. A 70 kg man has a systolic pressure of 120 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 80 mm

Hg. Which would be his arterial pressure and his pulse pressure?
a. 100, 10 mm Hg
b. 70, 90
c. 100, 30
d. 90, 30

325. Which of the following would be a good serum indicator of heart failure?
a. insulin
b. brain natriuretic peptide
c. adrenalin
326. Which of the following corticosteroid drugs would have the LEAST effect on the blood
glucose level?
a. Dexamethasone
b. Prednisolone
c. Flucortisone
d. Betamethasone

327. Which of the following would not be associated with increased pulmonary
vascularisation?
a. Patent ductus arteriosus
b. Atrial septal defect
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Aortic dissection

328. Which is not an effect of glucagons?

a. increased liver glycogenolysis
b. decreased insulin secretion
c. increased lipolysis
d. increased gluconeogenesis

329. The mother of a 3-year old discovered an abdominal mass while bathing him. The mass
was surgically removed, and diagnosed as originating in the adrenal medulla. The
tumour most likely
a. was bilateral
b. metastasized to liver and bone
c. secreted adrenaline

330. A 30-year-old complaining of abdominal discomfort, was shown to have renal caliculi
and pitted bones. Which was her likely diagnosis?
a. Parathyroid adenoma
b. Parathyroid carcinoma
c. Parathyroid hypertrophy

331. Which is true of the thyroid and parathyroid glands?

a. The thyroid is located corresponding to C4, C5-T1 vertebrae
b. The parathyroid glands are located on the posterior surface of the thyroid

332. The enzyme responsible for converting biliverdin to bilirubin is

a. heme oxygenase
b. bilirubin reductase
c. glucuronyl transferase

333. Which of the following is incorrect about the ECG?

a. Right axis deviation is between -90 and +120 degrees and is caused by right
ventricular hypertrophy
b. The normal electrical axis of the heart is -30 to +120 degrees
c. Left axis deviation is between + 120 and – 180 degrees and is caused by left
ventricular hypertrophy
 d. Right axis deviation is between – 30 and – 90 degrees and is caused by right
ventricular hypertrophy

334. Which is not true of the thyroid gland?

a) The recurrent laryngeal nerve is medial to thyroid lobes
b) Thyroid tissue can be found in the tongue
c) The parathyroid glands et blood supply from the inferior thyroid artery
d) The venous plexus is located superficial to the histological capsule of the gland.

335. Which is correct about the inguinal canal?

a.The deep inguinal ring is medial to the inferior epigastric artery
b.The inferior epigastric artery is medial to the deep inguinal ring
c.The superficial inguinal ring is at the level of the mid-inguinal point
dThe conjoint tendon forms the lateral aspect of the posterior wall of the canal.

336. Which of the following reduces cardiac output?

a) High environmental pressure
b) Pregnancy
c) Sitting or standing from a lying position
d) Anxiety and excitement

337. The agent to most appropriately rehydrate a 3year old who is moderately dehydrated is:
a. Any soda without colour
b. Commercially prepared rehydration salts
c. Apple juice
d. Intravenous fluid

338. All of the following are clinically or physiologically proven to have positive inotropic
effect except:
a. Digoxin
b. Enapril
c. Adrenaline
d. Captopril

339. The primary regulator of electrolytes in blood is:

a. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
b. Antidiuretic hormone
c. Baroreceptors
d. The adrenergic system

340. Which is false about the embryological origin of the gut.

a. The anterior surface of the stomach was originally on the left in the embryo
b. Both lesser and greater omentum originated from the ventral mesogastrium
c. The duodenum has origins from both fore and mid-gut.
d. The lesser sac was also called the omental bursa and can be assessed by the
epiploic foramen.

341. Which is false about the embryology of the gut?

a. The falciform ligament contains the ligamentum teres which is the remnant of
the obliterated umbilical artery
 b. The superior mesenteric artery is the origin of mid-gut
c. …..
d. …..

342. Which cardiomyopathy would have caused obstructed left ventricular outflow?
a. Dilated
b. Hypertrophic
c. Endocardial fibrosis
d. Restrictive

343. The five week old infant, cyanotic from birth died of congestive cardiac failure. Which
condition did he have?
a. Tetralogy of fallot
b. Transposition of the great arteries
c. Patent ductus arteriosius
d. Ventro septal defect

344. A 23 year old medical student had hypertension which was constant or 3 consecutive
examinations but had normal physical findings. What did she have?
a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
b. Primary aldosteronism
c. ….
d. Cushing’s syndrome

345. Which non-bacterial infestation causes symptoms similar to sepsis:

a. Hypotension
b. Pancreatitis
c. Renal failure
d. …

346. A 68 year old male had an abdominal obstruction. Which of the following tumours is
least likely to be the cause:
a. Adeno-carcinoma
b. Angio-sarcoma
c. Carcinoid tumour
d. Lymphoma

347. What statement concerning the stomach is correct?

a. The cardioesophageal junction is at 2.5cm left of the midline, posterior to the
left 7th intercostal cartilage.
b. The hepatogastric ligament contains the common hepatic artery with
periarterial sympathetic nerve plexus
c. The muscularis mucosa contains a significant portion of postganglionic cell
bodies of Meissners nerve plexus
d. The gastrocolic trunk commonly receives venous blood from the fundus of the
stomach.

348. Which statement concerning the ischiorectal fossa is incorrect?

a. The anterior boundary is the posterior boundary of the urogenital diaphragm
 b. The inferior rectal nerve is commonly found coursing through the ischiorectal pad of
fat
c. The sphincter ani externus forms the medial boundary
d. The nerve to the ischiorectal fossa runs through its connective tissue

349. What is not a cause of a solitary nodule of the thyroid?

a. Non-toxic nodular
b. Thyroid adenoma
c. Thyroid carcinoma
d. ….

350. Complete heart block from atria to ventricle…..

a. First degree heart block
b. Sinus sickness
c. Second degree heart block
d. Third degree heart block

351. Which of the following has the longest half life?

a. Amiodarone
b. Quinidine
c. Dysopyramide
d. Procainamide

352. Increasing preload of cardiac muscle:

a. Decreases ventricular end-diastolic volume
b. Increases ventricular wall tension
c. Decreases peak tension in muscle
d. Decreases time taken for peak muscle to reach peak tension
353. Which of the following statements concerning the action of loperimide is correct?
a. It activates muscarinic receptors
b. It activates peripheral opiate receptors only
c. It has a moderate laxative action
d. It stimulates acetylcholine release

354. All of the following may be used to assess blood flow except:
a. CT
b. Conversional angiography
c. Magnetic resonance imaging
d. Plain x-ray

355. The portion of the intrinsic conduction system located in the interventricular septum is:
a. Sinoatrial node
b. Purkinje fibers
c. Bundle of His and its branches
d. Atrioventricular node

356. Which statement concerning adrenal glands and paraganglia is incorrect:

a. All layers of cells in adrenal cortex undergoes mitosis through life while the
chromaffin cells do not
 b. The activities of adrenal cortex is under the control of ACTH produced in anterior
pituitary gland
c. Chromaffin cells in the paraganglia secrete equal quantities of adrenaline and
noradrenaline
d. Addisons disease is an adrenal insufficiency of the cortex

357. Which of the following is correct?

a. In hyperthyroidism there is decreased concentration in circulating TSH
b. Increased cholesterol is associated with hyperthyroidism
c. Increased heart rate is a complaint of hypothyroidism
d. Increased thyroxine binding globulin is the reason for the measured hypothroxine

358. Each of the following is a feature of ketoacidosis except:

a. Hyperglycaemia
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Dehydration
d. Hypoproteinemia

359. Which of the following fatty acids is NOT synthesized in the body?
a. Oleic acid
b. Linoleic acid
c. Palmitoleic acid
d. Stearic acid

360. Which of these is False about viruses?

a. Herpes Simplex virus is a DNA virus
b. Some viruses are enveloped
c. Human Influenza virus causes epidemics and pandemics
d. All viruses have RNA as their nucleic acid

361. Which is a true fungus?

a. Actinomyces
b. Nocardia
c. Rhizopus
d. Pythium

362. Which statement about viral diagnosis is INCORRECT?

a. Good viral diagnosis is due to rapid communication between the physician and
laboratory personnel
b. The quality of the specimen is a paramount importance
c. The gold standard for viral aetiology is serological testing
d. Proper timing for virus recovery is important

363. Sexual spores are found in sac-like structures in the following:

a. Zygomycota
b. Ascomycota
c. Basidiomycota
d. Oomycota
364. The region of the body which has the largest population of indigenous anaerobic
bacteria is:
a. Skin
b. Vagina
c. Mouth
d. Colon

365. Which of the following disorders is not associated with Epstein –Barr virus infection?
a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b. Cervical carcinoma
c. Burkitt’s Lymphoma
d. Hodgkin’s disease

366. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Raised serum levels of IgE and eosinophils are features of helminthic infection
b. Raised serum levels of IgD is an indication of the immunity against infection
c. Viral capsules are virulent factors of the viruses
d. Only a small amount of antibodies is necessary to prevent reinfection of viruses

367. Which of the following organisms induces immunosuppression?

a. Rotavirus
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Influenza virus
d. Cytomegalovirus

368. Formal Operational thinking in adolescence is characterized by all of the following

EXCEPT
a. Personal Fable
b. Abstract thinking
c. Egocentrism
d. Rapprochement

369. According to Erik Erikson, the most important psychosocial task for a school –aged
child is:
a. Learning to trust others
b. Achieving a sense of competence
c. Learning to take initiative
d. Achieving a sense of autonomy

370. Charateristics of reasoning and thinking in a 3-4 year old include:

a. Egocentrism and animism
b. Classification and reversibility
c. Reflective and divergent thinking
d. Sensorimotor processing

371. A 2002 study on nutrition status in Jamaican children revealed:

a. The majority of 11-12 year olds are underweight
b. Body mass index (BMI) values of 11-12 year olds are mainly below the 5th percentile
c. The prevalence of the overweight in Jamaican children was approaching that seen in
the USA
 d. Obesity is a common finding among school-aged children in Jamaica

372. Auditory Hallucinations occur in:

a. Conversion Disorder
b. Phobic Disorder
c. Post traumatic stress disorder
d. Schizophrenic Disorder

373. A feature of Mania:

a. Recurrent Panic Attack
b. Mood congruent delusions
c. Blunted Affect
d. Intellecual Affect

374. Anxiety Disorders include:

a. Paranoid Disorder
b. Personality Disorder
c. Somatoform Disorder
d. Obsessive compulsory Disorder