Combine 0 ETI

The Shirpur Education Society’s
R. C. Patel Polytechnic, Shirpur

Department of Computer Engineering
Class: TYCO Subject: ETI Unit-1(MCQ’s)
1. __________ is a branch of science which deals with helping machines find solutions to
complex problems in a more human-like fashion.
A. AI
B. IOT
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
ANSWER: A
2. These machines only focus on current scenarios and react on it as per possible best action.
A. Reactive Machines
B. Limited Memory
C. Theory of mind
D. self awareness
ANSWER: A
3. The core components and constituents of AI are derived from
A. Cognition
B. Knowledge
C. Research
D. vision
ANSWER: A
4. Which one is the example of narrow AI
A. Self-driving cars
B. Apple series
C. Speech recognition
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
5. These machines can store the past experiences or data.
A. Theory of Mind
B. Self Awareness
C. IOT
D. Limited Memory
ANSWER: D
6. Which one is the type of AI based on Capabilities
A. Theory of Mind
B. Strong
C. IOT
D. Deep learning
ANSWER: B
7. The peripheral entities are on the __________

A. Third Dimension
B. Computational Level
C. First Dimension
D. Cognition
ANSWER: C
8. Which one is the compound components of AI
A. Knowledge
B. Reasoning
C. NLP
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
9. Which is the model of mental states
A. Intention
B. Behavior
C. Vision
D. Body language
ANSWER: A
10. NLP stands for
A. Neural language processing
B. Natural language processing

C. Natural language Programming
D. Neural Language Programming
ANSWER: B
11. The components of gross level is
A. Embedded System
B. AI
C. IOT
D. LISP
ANSWER: D
12.The Mean of cognition is
A. Knowledge
B. Experience
C. Learning process through knowledge
D. All of these
ANSWER: C
13.What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot controllers?
A. Temperature
B. Feedback
C. Pressure
D. Signal
ANSWER: B
14. Who is the “Father” of artificial intelligence?
A.John McCarthy
B. Alan Turing
C. Allen Newell
D. Fisher Ada
ANSWER: D
15. Which one is the first course outcome of this subject
A. Interpret Robotics Concepts.
B. Acquire Knowledge of Emerging Trends
C. Describe AI, Machine Learning and deep learning
D. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation.
ANSWER: C
16. Which is the second course outcome of this subject
B. Interpret IOT Concepts.
C. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation.
D. Describe Evidence Handling Procedures
ANSWER: B
17. Which is the third course outcome of this subject
A. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation
B. Interpret IOT Concepts
C. Describe Evidence Handling Procedures
D. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation
ANSWER: D
18. Which is the Fourth course outcome of this subject
A. Describe Evidence Handling Procedures.
B. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation
C. Interpret Robotics Concepts.
D. None of these
ANSWER: A
19.Machine Learning is_________________
A. a branch of science,thet they automatically learn and improve with experience.
B. AI
C. Robotics
D. ES
ANSWER: A
20.Supervised Learning is______________
A. Type osf AI
B. deals with learning a function from available training data
B. make sense of unlabled data without having any predefined dataset for its training
C. Type of IOT
D. None of these
ANSWER: B
21.___________ is the example of supervised learning
A. k-menas
B. self-organization
C. Driverless car
D. classifying E-mail as spam
ANSWER: D
22.___________ is the example of unsuperviesd learning
A. voice recognition
B. labelling web pages
C. text tecognition
D. k-means
ANSWER: D
23.SVM stands for_________
A. Secured voting machine
B. secured support system

C. support vector machine
D. None of these
ANSWER: C
24. Online advertisement is the application of___________
A. AI
B. IOT
C. Forensics
D. Deep Learning
ANSWER: D
25.To become intelligent _____________is needed
A. Data
B. Inforamtion
C. Knowledge
D. All of the above
26. The performance of an agent can be improved by __________
a. Learning
b. Observing
c. Perceiving
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: A
27. Which of the following could be the approaches to Artificial Intelligence?
a. Strong Artificial Intelligence

b. Weak Artificial Intelligence
c. Applied Artificial Intelligence
d. All of the mentioned
Answer: D
28. An Artificial Neural Network Is based on?
a. Strong Artificial Intelligence approach

b. Weak Artificial Intelligence approach
c. Cognitive Artificial Intelligence approach
d. Applied Artificial Intelligence approach
Answer: C
29. The Face Recognition system is based on?

Answer: D
30. A completely automated chess engine (Learn from previous games) is based on?

Answer: A
31. Which of the following task/tasks Artificial Intelligence could not do yet?
a. Construction of plans in real time dynamic systems

b. Understand natural language robustly
c. Web mining
Answer: D
32. LISP was created by---------------
a. John McCarthy
b. Marvin Minsky
c. Alan Turing
d. Allen Newell and Herbert Simon
Answer: A
33. What is Artificial intelligence?
a. Putting your intelligence into Computer

b. Programming with your own intelligence
c. Making a Machine intelligent
d. Playing a Game
Answer: C
34. Which is not the commonly used programming language for AI?
a. PROLOG
b. Java
c. LISP
d. Perl
Answer: D
35. Which of the following offers external chips for memory and peripheral interface circuits?
a. Microcontroller
b. Microprocessor
c. Peripheral system
d. Embedded system
Answer:B
36. What is CISC?
a. Computing instruction set complex

b. Complex instruction set computing
c. Complimentary instruction set computing
d. Complex instruction set complementary
Answer: B
37. Which of the following are comprised within AI?
a. Machine Learning
b. Deep Learning
c. Both (1) and (2)
d. None of the above
Answer: C
38. "Artificial Intelligence means to mimic a human. Hence, if a robot can move from one place
to another like a human, then it comes under Artificial Intelligence."True or False
a. True
b. False
Answer: B
39. Which of the mentioned human behavior does the AI aim to mimic?
a. Thinking
b. Eating
c. Sleeping
d. All of the above
Answer: A
40. Which of the following is not a goal of AI?
a. Thinking humanly
b. Adapting to the environment and situations
c. To rule over humans
d. Real Life Problem Solving
Answer: C
41. Embedded System is…..
a. Microcontroller
b. Microprocessor
c. Debugger
d. Microcontroller and Microprocessor
Answer: D
42. Sensors are used for
a. To measure digital quantity

b. To measure Logical quantity
c. To measure physical quantity
d. To sense Environmental factors
Answer: C
43. The function of Actuator is
a. To measure information
b. To generates actual output
c. To correct output
d. All of the above
Answer: B
44. Which one of the following is not the ES hardware
a. Power supply
b. Timers
c. Parallel ports
d. Proteus
Answer: D
45. ES operating system is also known as
a. MAC OS
b. RTOS
c. Linux
Answer: B
46. What is state space?
a. The whole problem

b. Your Definition to a problem
c. Problem you design
d. Representing your problem with variable and parameter
Answer: D
47. A production rule consists of
a. A set of Rule
b. A sequence of steps
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Arbitrary representation to problem
Answer: C
48. Which is the best way to go for Game playing problem?
a. Linear approach
b. Heuristic approach
c. Random approach
d. Optimal approach
Answer: B
49. Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?
a. Representational Verification
b. Representational Adequacy
c. Inferential Adequacy
d. Inferential Efficiency
Answer: A
50. Artificial Intelligence has its expansion in the following application.
a. Planning and Scheduling

b. Game Playing
c. Robotics
d. All of the above
Answer: D
51. The characteristics of the computer system capable of thinking, reasoning and learning is
known is
a. machine intelligence
b. human intelligence
c. artificial intelligence
d. virtual intelligence
Answer: C
52. The first AI programming language was called:
a. BASIC
b. FORTRAN
c. IPL
d. LISP
Answer: C
53. The first widely-used commercial form of Artificial Intelligence (Al) is being used in many
popular products like microwave ovens, automobiles and plug in circuit boards for desktop PCs.
It allows machines to handle vague information with a deftness that mimics human intuition.
What is the name of this AI?
a. Boolean logic
b. Human logic
c. Fuzzy logic
d. Functional logi
Answer: C
54. What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense part of problem
solving?
a. Heuristic
b. Critical
c. Value based
d. Analytical
Answer: A
55. Which kind of planning consists of successive representations of different levels of a plan?
a. hierarchical planning
b. non-hierarchical planning
c. project planning
d. All of the above
Answer: A
Class: TYCO Subject: ETI(22618) Unit-2(MCQ’s)
1. Embedded system is a _____ and _____ .
a. microprocessor
b. microcontroller
c. Both a And b
d. none of the above
Answer: C
2. Which of the following allows the reuse of the software and the hardware components?
a. platform based design

b. memory design
c. peripheral design
d. input design
Answer: A
3. Which of the following is the design in which both the hardware and software are considered
during the design?
a) platform based design
b) memory based design
c) software/hardware codesign
d) peripheral design
Answer: C
4. What does API stand for?

a) address programming interface
b) application programming interface
c) accessing peripheral through interface
d) address programming interface
Answer: B
5. Which of the following is a meet-in-the-middle approach?
a) peripheral based design
b) platform based design
c) memory based design
d) processor design
Answer: B
6. Which of the following helps in reducing the energy consumption of the embedded system?
a) compilers
b) simulator
c) debugger
d) emulator
Answer: A
7. Which of the following is an important ingredient of all power optimization?

a) energy model
b) power model
c) watt model
d) power compiler
Answer: B
8. Which of the following provides a buffer between the user and the low-level interfaces to the
hardware?
a) operating system
b) kernel
c) software
d) hardware
Answer: A
9. Which of the following can make the application program hardware independent?
a) software
b) application manager
c) operating system
d) kernel
Answer: C
10. Which of the following includes its own I/O routine?
a) hardware
b) kernel
c) operating system
d) application manager
Answer: C
11. How many types of messages are associated with the real-time operating system?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: A
12. Which can control the memory sharing between the tasks?
a) kernel
b) application
c) software
d) OS
Answer: A
13. Embedded sytem uses ____ to execute the operation.
a. Hardware Plafform
b. Interrupt controllers
c. Processor
Answer: A
14. Which one of the following offers CPUs as integrated memory or peripheral interfaces?
a) Microcontroller
b) Microprocessor
c) Embedded system
d) Memory system
a) Microcontroller
b) Microprocessor
c) Peripheral system
d) Embedded system
16. What is CISC?

a) Computing instruction set complex
b) Complex instruction set computing
c) Complimentary instruction set computing
d) Complex instruction set complementary
17. How is the protection and security for an embedded system made?
a) OTP
b) IPR
c) Memory disk security
d) Security chips
18. It retains its content when power is removed. What type of memory is this?
a) Volatile memory
b) Nonvolatile memory
c) RAM
d) SRAM
19. How an embedded system communicate with the outside world?

a) Peripherals
b) Memory
c) Input
d) Output
20. Name a nonvolatile memory.
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) SRAM
d) DRAM
21.Embedded processor consists of ______.
a. Control Unit
b. Execution Unit
c. Data memory
d. All of the above
22. RISC stands for:
a. Reduced instruction set computer
b. Reduces intercommunication set computing
c. Receiver instruction set computer
d. Receiver instruction set Computing
23. PIC microcontroller are the ______ microcontrollers can be programmed to be performed a
large range of task.
a. Huge
b. Large
c. Small
24. Application of the PIC :

a. Lighting
b. Connectivity
c. Human interface
d. All of the above
25. AVR stands for
a. Alf-EligBogen VegardWollan RISC microcontroller
b. Advanced virtual RISC
c. Abstract Virtual RISC
d. Both a And b
26. AVR was developed in _____
a. 1978
b. 1996
c. 1997
d. 1990
27. AVR was developed by ___
a. Atmel Corporation
b. Vegard Wollan
c. Alf-Egil Bogan
d. Harvard
28. AVR was designed by

b. Vegard Wollan
c. Alf-Egil Bogan
d. Both b And c
29. feature of AVR:
a. 8-bit and 16-bit timers
b. External 64KB little endian data space.
c. Both a And c
d. RISC architecture
30. Application of AVR:
a. Signal sensing and Interface motors
b. digital power
c. Automotive
d.None of the above
31. ARM stands for _____________
a) Advanced Rate Machines

b) Advanced RISC Machines
c) Artificial Running Machines
d) Aviary Running Machines
Answer: B
32. The main importance of ARM micro-processors is providing operation with ______
a) Low cost and low power consumption
b) Higher degree of multi-tasking
c) Lower error or glitches
d) Efficient memory management
Answer: A
33. ARM processors where basically designed for _______

a) Main frame systems
b) Distributed systems
c) Mobile systems
d) Super computers
Answer: C
34. The ARM processors don’t support Byte addressability.
a) True
b) False
Answer: B
35. Which devices measures gases or liquid?

a) Proximity sensor
b) Pressure sensor
c) Temperature sensor
d) Touch sensor
Answer: b
36. Which sensor measures the pressure relative to perfect vacuum?

a) Absolute pressure sensor
b) Gauge pressure sensor
c) Vacuum pressure sensor
d) Differential pressure sensor
Answer: a
37. Which sensor measures the pressure relative to atmospheric pressure?

Answer: b
38 . Barometer is which type of sensor________
a) Pressure sensor
b) Touch sensor
d) Humidity sensor
Answer: a
39. Touch screen devices use which sensor?

a) Touch sensor
b) Temperature sensor
c) Humidity sensor
d) Pressure sensor
Answer: d
Answer: c
40. The computer devices and smart phones that have _______ with pressure sensor.
a) Automotive Industry
b) Industrial
c) Aviation
d) Touch screen
Answer: d
41. In which place the pressure sensor is needed for monitoring gases and their partial
pressures.
a) Touch screen
b) Automotive Industry
c) Industrial
d) Aviation
Answer: c
Answer: b
42. Units for Humidity sensor____________

a) Dew/fost point or Relative Humidity
b) Relative Humidity or Parts Per Million
c) Dew/fost point or Parts Per Million
d) Dew/fost point or Parts Per Million or Relative Humidity
Answer: d
43. Dew point and Fost point are mainly used in which conditions?
a) Water vapor
b) Pressure of gas
c) Dryness of gas
d) Moisture in gas
Answer: c
45. Units for Absolute Humidity is ________

a) grams/m3
b) % by volume
c) PPMV
d) %
Answer: a
46. Units for Due point is _______

a) gram/m3
b) % by volume
c) PPMV
d) oC
Answer: d
47. Humidity sensors are divided into how many types and depending on what?
a) 2 types depending on output
b) 2 types depending on measurement units
c) 3 types depending on measurement units
d) 3 types depending on output
Answer: b
48. Electronic type hygrometers are divided into how many types?
a) 5 types
b) 3 types
c) 4 types
d) 2 types
Answer: d
49. Relative humidity is a function of ________

a) Ambient temperature
b) Water vapor pressure
c) Ambient temperature and Water vapor pressure
d) Dryness
Answer: c
50. Which sensors measure the moisture level using humidity?

a) Capacitive Sensor
b) Resistive Sensor
c) Thermal Conductivity
d) Both resistive and conductive
Answer: a
51. ________ sensors measure the electrical change in devices such as conductive polymers.
b) Resistive Sensor
Answer: d
52. ________ sensors are suitable for environments that have high temperatures.
b) Resistive Sensor
Answer: c
53. Are capacitive sensors linear?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
54. Capacitive RH sensors dominate __________ measurements.

a) Atmospheric
b) Process
c) Both atmospheric and process
d) Neither atmospheric nor process
Answer: c
55. Which sensor can detect nearby objects?
a) Proximity sensor
b) Humidity sensor
c) Touch sensor
d) Pressure sensor
Answer: a
56. The monitoring of machines, gears and objects are achieved by which sensor?
a) Humidity sensor
b) Proximity sensor
c) Touch sensor
d) Pressure sensor
Answer: b
57. Which proximity sensor detects metal objects?

a) Capacitive Proximity Sensor
b) Magnetic Proximity Sensor
c) Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
d) Inductive Proximity Sensor
Answer: d
58. Which proximity sensor indicates level?

a) Inductive Proximity Sensor
b) Capacitive Proximity Sensor
c) Magnetic Proximity Sensor
d) Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
Answer: a
59. Which proximity sensors are used in automotive?

Answer: d
60. Which proximity sensor detects positioning of an object?

c) Optical Proximity Sensor
d) Magnetic Proximity Sensor
Answer: c
61. Are proximity sensors used in retail settings?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
62. VCNL4100CT allows the proximity detection up to________

a) 2 meter
b) 1 meters
c) 0.5 meters
d) 1.5 meters
Answer: b
63. Which protocol is used by proximity sensor?

a) I2C
b) SPI
c) UART/USART
d) CAN
Answer: a
64. Does proximity sensor have a temperature sensor in it?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
65. Which device generates output signal when metal objects are either inside or entering into
sensing area.
a) Capacitive Proximity
b) Magnetic Proximity
c) Inductive proximity
d) Parallel Proximity
Answer: a
66. ________ detects metals but along with it can also detect resins, liquids.
a) Inductive proximity
b) Capacitive Proximity
c) Magnetic Proximity
Answer: b
67. _________ sensors have no electrical noise effect and it can work DC.
Answer: c
68.. What is the sensing range for magnetic proximity sensors?

a) 120mm
b) 90mm
c) 150mm
d) 100mm
Answer: a
69. What is the sensing range for capacitive proximity sensors?

a) 150mm
b) 25mm
c) 120mm
d) 100mm
Answer: c
70. IOT Level1 has a how many notes…………..
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: a
71. IOT Level1 cost is…………….
a) High
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Very Low
Answer: c
72. IOT Level1 Complexity is……………
a) Low
b) Very high
c) Medium
d) High
Answer: a
73. Which is the example o IOT LEVEL1?
a) Smart Irrigation
b) Home automation
c) Tracking package handling
d) Noise monitoring
Answer: b
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: a
a) Smart Irrigation
b) Home automation
d) Noise monitoring
Answer: a
a) Smart Irrigation
b) Home automation
d) Noise monitoring
Answer: c
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: a
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: d
a) Smart Irrigation
b) Home automation
d) Noise monitoring
Answer: d
80. …………….IOT system is not suitable for solutions where the data involved is big.
a) IOT Lvel1
b) IOT Lvel2
c) IOT Lvel3
d) IOT Lvel5
Answer: a
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: d
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: d
a) Forest fire detection

b) Home automation
d) Weather Monitoring System
Answer: a
a) Smart Irrigation
b) Weather Monitoring System
d) Noise monitoring
Answer: b
85. How many types of arduinos do we have?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 8
d) 6
Answer: c
86. What is the microcontroller used in Arduino UNO?

a) ATmega328p
b) ATmega2560
c) ATmega32114
d) AT91SAM3x8E
Answer: a
87.What does p refer to in ATmega328p?

a) Production
b) Pico-Power
c) Power-Pico
d) Programmable on chip
Answer: b
89. Arduino shields are also called as _________

a) Extra peripherals
b) Add on modules
c) Connectivity modules
d) Another Arduinos
Answer: b
90.What is the default bootloader of the Arduino UNO?

a) Optiboot bootloader
b) AIR-boot
c) Bare box
d) GAG
Answer: a
91.Does the level shifter converts the voltage levels between RS-232 and transistor-transistor
logic.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
92.Which is the software or a programming language used for controlling of Arduino?

a) Assembly Language
b) C Languages
c) JAVA
d) Any Language
Answer: d
93.Do Arduino provides IDE Environment?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
94.A program written with the IDE for Arduino is called _________
a) IDE source
b) Sketch
c) Cryptography
d) Source code
Answer: b
95. Arduino IDE consists of 2 functions. What are they?

a) Build() and loop()
b) Setup() and build()
c) Setup() and loop()
d) Loop() and build() and setup()
Answer: c
96.How many digital pins are there on the UNO board?

a) 14
b) 12
c) 16
d) 20
Answer: a
97. _________ board allows sewn into clothing.

a) UNO
b) RedBoard
c) LilyPad
d) Mega
Answer: c
98.How many analog pins are used in Arduino Mega board?

a) 16
b) 14
c) 12
d) 8
Answer: a
99.Which board is first to use microcontroller within build USB?

a) LilyPad
b) UNO
c) RedBoard
d) Leonardo
Answer: d
100. ___________ are pre built circuit boards that fit on top of Android.
a) Sensor
b) Data types
c) Breadboard
d) Sheilds
Answer: d
101. Does Raspberry Pi need external hardware?

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
102. Does RPi have an internal memory?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
103.What do we use to connect TV to RPi?

a) Male HDMI
b) Female HDMI
c) Male HDMI and Adapter
d) Female HDMI and Adapter
Answer: c
104.How power supply is done to RPi?

a) USB connection
b) Internal battery
c) Charger
d) Adapter
Answer: a
105.What is the Ethernet/LAN cable used in RPi?

a) Cat5
b) Cat5e
c) Cat6
d) RJ45
Answer: d
106.What are the parameters that are default values?

a) Port_Name and Bits
b) Speed and Port_Names
c) Speed and Parity
d) Stop bit and Flow Control
Answer: b
107.Which instruction set architecture is used in Raspberry Pi?

a) X86
b) MSP
c) AVR
d) ARM
Answer: d
108.What is the default user in Debain on Raspberry Pi?

a) Default
b) User
c) Pi
d) Root
Answer: c
109.What are the distributions are supported by raspberry Pi?

a) Arch Linux
b) Debain
c) Fedora Remix
d) Arch Linux, Debain, and Fedora Remix
Answer: d
110. What bit processor is used in Pi 3?

a) 64-bit
b) 32-bit
c) 128-bit
d) Both 64 and 32 bit
Answer: a
111.What is the speed of operation in Pi 3?

a) 900MHz
b) 1.2GHz
c) 1GHz
d) 500MHz
Answer: b
112.WiFi is not present in which of the following models?

a) Raspberry Pi3
b) Raspberry Pi Zero WH
c) Raspberry Pi Zero W
d) Raspberry Pi Zero
Answer: d
113.Does micro SD card present in all modules?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
114.How many USB ports are present in Raspberry Pi 3?

a) 5
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
Answer: c
115. -----------------sensor
a) Humidity
b) Temperature
c) Motion
d) Gas
Answer: b
115. -----------------sensor
a) Humidity
b) Temperature
c) Motion
d) Gas
Answer: b
116. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) IR
c) Proximity
d) Motion
Answer: d
117. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) Gas
c) Proximity
d) Smoke
Answer: b
118. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) Gas
c) Proximity
d) Smoke
Answer: d
119. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) Gas
c) Proximity
d) Image
Answer: d
120. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) Gas
c) Proximity
d) Image
Answer: a
121. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) IR
c) Proximity
d) Motion
Answer: b
122. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) Gas
c) Proximity
d) Image
Answer: c
122. Name of motor……………
a) Stepper
b) Servo
c) DC
d) Linear
Answer: b

a) Stepper
b) Servo
c) DC
d) Linear
Answer: a
a) Stepper
b) Servo
c) DC
d) Linear
Answer: c
125. Name of Actuator……………
a) Chain
b) Linear
c) Rack
d) Locking
Answer: b
1. Digital forensics is all of them except:
A. Extraction of computer data.
B. Preservation of computer data.
C. Interpretation of computer data.
D. Manipulation of computer data.
Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for
A. Integrated Digital Investigation Process.
B. Integrated Data Investigator Process.
C. Integrated Digital Investigator Process.
D. Independent Digital Investigator Process.
Ans: A
3. Who proposed Road Map for Digital Forensic Research (RMDFR)
A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D
4. Investigator should satisfy following points:
A. Contribute to society and human being.
B. Avoid harm to others.
C. Honest and trustworthy.
D. All of the above
Ans: D
5. In the past, the method for expressing an opinion has been to frame a ____ question based on
available factual evidence.

A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
6. More subtle because you are not aware that you are running these macros (the document opens
and the application automatically runs); spread via email
A. The purpose of copyright
B. Danger of macro viruses
C. Derivative works
D. computer-specific crime
Ans: B
7. There are three c's in computer forensics. Which is one of the three?
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
8. When Federal Bureau Investigation program was created?
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B
9. When the field of PC forensics began?
A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C
10. What is Digital Forensic?
A. Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of evidence in court
B. The application of computer science and investigative procedures for a legal purpose
involving the analysis of digital evidence after proper search authority, chain of custody,
validation with mathematics, use of validated tools, repeatability, reporting, and possible
expert presentation
C. process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer questions about digital events
D. Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of the facts or
evidence in a court of law
Ans: B
11. Digital Forensics entails _____.
A. Accessing the system's directories viewing mode and navigating through the various systems
files and folders
B. Undeleting and recovering lost files
C. Identifying and solving computer crimes
D. The identification, preservation, recovery, restoration and presentation of digital evidence
from systems and devices
Ans: D
12. Which of the following is FALSE?
A. The digital forensic investigator must maintain absolute objectivity
B. It is the investigator’s job to determine someone’s guilt or innocence.
C. It is the investigator’s responsibility to accurately report the relevant facts of a case.
D. The investigator must maintain strict confidentiality, discussing the results of an investigation
on only a “need to know”
Ans: B
13. What is the most significant legal issue in computer forensics?

A. Preserving Evidence
B. Seizing Evidence
C. Admissibility of Evidence
D. Discovery of Evidence
Ans: C
14. _______phase includes putting the pieces of a digital puzzle together and developing
investigative hypotheses
A. Preservation phase
B. Survey phase
C. Documentation phase
D. Reconstruction phase
E. Presentation phase
Ans: D
15. In _______phase investigator transfers the relevant data from a venue out of physical or
administrative control of the investigator to a controlled location
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
F. Preservation phase
G. Survey phase
H. Documentation phase
I. Reconstruction phase
J. Presentation phase
Ans:B
17. Computer forensics do not involve_____activity.
A. Preservation of computer data.
B. Exraction of computer data.
C. Manipulation of computer data.
D. Interpretation of computer data.
Ans: C
18. A set of instruction compiled into a program that perform a particular task is known as:
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D
19. Which of following is not a rule of digital forensics?
A. An examination should be performed on the original data
B. A copy is made onto forensically sterile media. New media should always be used if
available.
C. The copy of the evidence must be an exact, bit-by-bit copy
D. The examination must be conducted in such a way as to prevent any modification of the
evidence.
Ans: A
20. To collect and analyze the digital evidence that was obtained from the physical investigation
phase, is the goal of which phase?
A. Physical crime investigation
B. Digital crime investigation.
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase.
Ans: B
21. To provide mechanism to an incident to be detected and confirmed is purpose of which
phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
22. Which phase entails a review of the whole investigation and identifies area of improvement?
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C
23. ____________is known as father of computer forensic.
A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
24. ___________is well established science where various contribution have been made
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A
25. Who proposed End to End Digital Investigation Process (EEDIP)?

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B
26. Which model of Investigation proposed by Carrier and Safford?
A. Extended Model of Cybercrime Investigation (EMCI)
B. Integrated Digital Investigation Process(IDIP)
C. Road Map for Digital Forensic Research (RMDFR)
D. Abstract Digital Forensic Model (ADFM)
Ans: B
27. Which of the following is not a property of computer evidence?
A. Authentic and Accurate.

B. Complete and Convincing.
C. Duplicated and Preserved.
D. Conform and Human Readable.
Ans. D
28. _______can makes or breaks investigation.
A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
29. __________ is software that blocks unauthorized users from connecting to your computer.
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A
30. Which of following are general Ethical norms for Investigator?
A. To contribute to society and human being.
B. To avoid harm to others.
C. To be honest and trustworthy.
D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
31. Which of following are Unethical norms for Investigator?
A. Uphold any relevant evidence.
B. Declare any confidential matters or knowledge.
C. Distort or falsify education, training, credentials.
D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
32. Which of following is not general ethical norm for Investigator?
B. Uphold any relevant Evidence.
D. To honor confidentially.
Ans: B
33. Which of following is a not unethical norm for Digital Forensics Investigation?
D. To respect the privacy of others.
Ans: D
34. What is called as the process of creation a duplicate of digital media for purpose of
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
35. Which term refers for modifying a computer in a way which was not originally intended to
view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
36. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an
example of a law enforcement specialty called?
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
C. Computer Forensics
D. Animation
Ans: C
37. What are the important parts of the mobile device which used in Digital forensic?
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
38. Using what, data hiding in encrypted images be carried out in digital forensics?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B
39. Which of this is not a computer crime?
A. e-mail harassment
B. Falsification of data.
C. Sabotage.
D. Identification of data
Ans. D
40. Which file is used to store the user entered password?
A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
41. __________is the process of recording as much data as possible to create reports and analysis
on user input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
42. ________searches through raw data on a hard drive without using a file system.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: B
43. What is first step to Handle Retrieving Data from an Encrypted Hard Drive?
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
C. Finding configuration files.
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
44.Which model of Investigation proposed by Stephenson?
A. End-to-End Digital Investigation Process (EEDIP)

Ans: A
45. Which model of Investigation proposed by S. O. Ciardhuain?
Ans: A
46. Who was proposed UML modeling of digital forensics process model (UMDFPM)?
A. kohn
B. Eloff
C. Oliver
D. All of these
Ans. D
47.. …………………… is named the Integrated Digital Investigation Process(IDIP)?
A. DFPM
B. UML
C. case diagram
D. EMIC
Ans. A
48. How many phase are included in Integrated Digital Investigation Process(IDIP)?
A. Five
B. Four
C. Six
D. Seven
Ans. C
49. Which model follow by the Extended Model of Cybercrime Investigation (EMCI) ?
A. Spiral Model
B. Interactive Model
C. SDLC Model
D. Waterfall Model
Ans. D
50. DFPM Along With ……….. group and ………… phases are proposed by carrier and Stafford ?
A. 5, 17
B. 17, 5
C. 4, 17
D. 17, 4
Ans. A
Class: TYCO Subject: ETI(22618) Unit-4 Part-1(MCQ’s)
1. A valid definition of digital evidence is
a. Data stored or transmitted using a computer
b. Information of probative value
c. Digital data of probative value
d. Any digital evidence on a computer
Ans-c
2.Digital Evidences may be in the form of
a.Email-messages
b.cookies
c.Encrypted files
d.All of the above
Ans-d
3. What are the three general categories of computer systems that can contain digital
evidence
a. Desktop, laptop, server
b. Personal computer, Internet, mobile telephone
c. Hardware, software, networks
d. Internet based, communication systems, Stand alone computer

Ans-d
4.The digital Evidence are used to establish a credible link between the.........
a.Attacker-victim and crime Scene
b.Attacker and crime Scene
c.Victim and crime scene
d.None of the above
Ans-a
5. Digital evidence is only useful in a court of law.
a. True
b. False
Ans-b
6.The most complete copy or a copy which includes all neccessary parts of evidence,which is
closely related to the original evidence
a.Best Evidence
b.orginal Evidence
c.Documented Evidence
d.None of the above
Ans-a
7.What is the example of best evidence-
a. A client has a copy of the duplicate evidence media

b.A client has a copy of the original evidence media
c.both a and b
d.None of the above
Ans-b
8.The best evidence rule is concerned with the
a. Process
b. End result
c. Substance
d. Documents
Ans-d
9.The Rule of digital evidence must be
a. Admissible
b. Belivable
c. Both a and b
d. UnReliable
Ans-c
10.What are the Characteristics of digital Evidence
a. Witness Memory
b. Objective
c. Honesty
d. All of the above

Ans-d
11.According to.......... principle when two items make contact there will be an interchange
a.Cohen
b.Edmond Locard
c.Culley
d.Both b and c
Ans-b
12. Which of the following is the type of Digital Evidence
a.Illustrative Evidence
b.Best Evidence
c.Origital Evidence
d.All of the above
Ans-a
12........Evidence is also called as Demostrative Evidence
a.Electronic
b.Substantial
c.Documented
d.Illustrative
ans-d
13.Which Evidence is same as demostrative Evidence.

a.Explainable
b.Illustrative
c.Documented
d.Both b and c
Ans-c
14.What is examples of Illustrative Evidenvce
a.Photographs
b.DNA samples
c.dried blood
d.Footprints
Ans-a
15.A proof that is introduced in the form of Physical Object
a.Explainable Evidence
b.ELectronic Evidence
c.Illustrative Evidence
d.Substainable Evidence
Ans-d
16.The chain of custody in digital forensics can also be reffered to as the
a.Forensic link
b.The paper trail
c.Chronological Documentation
d.all of the above
Ans-d
17.Chain of custody indicates
a.Collection
b.Sequence of control
c.both a and b
d.forensic link
Ans-c
18.What is the role of examiner
a.Obtain metadata for a piece of evidence
b.to ensure that wholesome and meaningful chain of custody is presented
c.to save the original materials
d.both a and c
Ans-a
19.What is the role of court
d.both a and c
Ans-b
20.The Substanial Evidence also called as ........
a.Physical Evidence
b.Non-Physical Evidence
c.Exculpatory Evidence
d.None of the above
Ans-a
21.The Explainable Evidence is also reffered as
a.Physical Evidence
d.None of the above
Ans-c
Unit -4 ETI
Q. Chap QUESTION
1. 4.1&4.2 Investigation of computer security which step follow
A. Incident leads to legal proceeding B. Legal proceeding to leads incident
C. incident leads to legal procedure D. Legal proceeding to leads incident
Answer: A
2. 4 Incident leads to legal proceeding such as

A. Department proceeding B. Computer proceeding
C. State proceeding D. Court proceeding
Answer: D
3. 4 To meet the requirement of the judging body and to withstand or face any
challenges, it is essential to follow the _______
A. Evidence-handing procedure B. security
C. Incident-handing procedure D. Relevant evidence
Answer: A
4. 4 Digital Evidence use in today word

A. Security B. Internet
C. Helping people communication D. Hacking
locally and globally with ease
Answer: C
5. 4 evidence are called as

A. Confident or trusted information B. Indicating that a certain substance
C. Prove something related to a case in D. All of the above
trial
Answer: D
6. 4 An information which has a positive impact on the action occurred such as

_____
A. Original Evidence B. Relevant Evidence
C. Documented Evidence D. Digital Evidence
Answer: B
7. 4 Confident or trusted information that can be prove something related to case

trial called as ____
A. Digital Evidence B. Relevant Evidence
C. Documented Evidence D. Original Evidence
Answer: A
8. 4 Digital Evidence safe to use such _______ as evidence during an investigation

A. Condition B. impact
C. Information D. confident
Answer: C
9. 4 Digital evidence called as

A. Testimonial B. Electronic Evidence
C. Illustrative Evidence D. Documented Evidence
Answer: B
Computer Of Engineering -1- R. C. Patel Polytechnic

Unit -4 ETI
10. 4 Digital Evidence which form of data or information transmit or stored

A. Digital form B. Analog form
C. Both a and b D. None of the above
Answer: A
11. 4 Accepting digital evidence court will determine if the evidence is _____
A. relevant B. Authentic
Answer: C
12. 4 Evidence can be acquired when electronic device are ____ for examination
A. seized B. Secured
C. Seized and secured D. None of the above
Answer: C
13. 4 Electronic evidence is latent(hidden), like _______ evidence

A. Fingerprints or DNA B. Security
C. Password D. Substantial
Answer: A
14. 4 Digital evidence crosses jurisdictional border is _________

A. long duration B. Quickly and easily
Answer: B
15. 4 Digital evidence are

A. faster B. secure
C. sensitive D. Time sensitive
Answer: D
16. 4 Digital evidence topic are divided into how many types
A. 4 B. 2
C. 3 D. 6
Answer: C
17. 4 Which based digital evidence types are divided

A. Internet-based B. Stand-alone computer or device
C. Mobile device D. All of the above
Answer: D
18. 4 Popular electronic device such as

A. HDD B. PDA
C. USB drive D. All of this
Answer: D
19. 4 Digital evidence are used to establish a credible link between the ______
A. Attacker and victim B. Crime scene
Answer: C

Unit -4 ETI
20. 4 Information stored in the victim’s is the

A. IP address B. Log files
C. Browsing history D. All of this
Answer: D
21. 4 Digital Evidence form in

A. Cookies B. Web History
C. Registry D. All of the above
Answer: D
22. 4 Original copy of the document is considered as _____

A. Electronic evidence B. Superior evidence
C. Explainable evidence D. Documented evidence
Answer: B
23. 4 Original writing must be offered which evidence rule

A. Best evidence B. Superior evidence
C. Documented evidence D. Explainable evidence
Answer: A
24. 4 Rule of evidence is also called as

C. Law of evidence D. Explainable evidence
Answer: C
25. 4 Rule must be

A. Admissible B. Authentic
C. complete D. All of the above
Answer: D
1. Illustrative evidence is also called as………..

A. Digital evidence
B. Demonstrate evidence
C. Electronic evidence
D. Physical evidence
Ans. B
2. Which evidence are referred to as exculpatory.

A. Explainable evidence
D. Documents evidence
Ans. A
3. Substantial evidence also called as………..

A. Digital evidence
Unit -4 ETI
Ans. D
4. Which are following example of Illustrative Evidence?

A. X-ray
B. Graph
C. Both A & B
D. Contract
Ans. B
5. Which are following example of Electronic Evidence?

A. X-ray
B. Graph
C. Email
D. Contract
Ans. C
6. Which are following example of documented evidence?

A. Wills
B. Graph
C. Invoices
D. All of these
Ans. D
7. Which type of evidence is typically used in criminal cases in which it support the dependent,
either partially removing their guilt in the case.
Ans. D
8. Which is the following type of evidence?

D. All of these
Ans. D
9. Which techniques used to the Locked Exchange principal?

A. Blood analysis
B. DNA matching
C. Both A & B
D. Email
Ans. C
10. Who was developed by the Locate Exchange Principal?

A. Dr. Edmond
B.
C.
D.
Ans. A

Unit -4 ETI
11. Digital stream of bits used in ……….

A. digital communication
B. data storage application.
C. Both A & B
D. Crime Scene
Ans. C
12. Digital stream bit also know as ………….

A. Primary sequence
B. Binary sequence
C. Octal sequence
D. Both A & B
Ans. B
Chapter
Q. QUESTION
topics
26. 4-4.5.1 The laws of jurisdictions define data as _______________________
A. Written works and record keeping B. Record keeping words
C. None of above D. both
Answer: Written works and record keeping
27. 4.5.2 Which laws define the data

A. Law of data B. Jurisdictions
C. both D. none
Answer: Jurisdictions
28. The chain of custody in digital forensics can also be referred to as the________
A. Forensic link B. Scientific link
C. Digital link D. Custody link
Answer: Forensic link
29. It is important to maintained ________ to preserve the integrity of evidence and

prevent it from contamination.
A. Digital evidence B. Forensic link
C. Chain of custody D. all
Answer: Chain of custody
30. What is metadata?

A. Measurable data B. Big data
C. Data related about the digital D. Data about data
evidences
Answer: Data about data
31. 1 Sequence the following statements according to chain of custody?

i. Take screenshot of digital evidence content
ii. Perform a hash text analysis to further authenticate the working clone.
iii. Save the original materials

Unit -4 ETI
iv. Take screenshot of physical evidence
v. Inject a bit for bit clone of digital evidence content into our forensic
computers.
vi. Documents date,time and any other information n of reciept
A. iv-i-iii-ii-vi-v B. v-vi-iii-i-ii-iv
C. iii-iv-i-vi-v-ii D. i-ii-iii-iv-v-vi
Answer: iii-iv-i-vi-v-ii
32. _________prevents evidence from being tainted

A. Digital evidence B. Physical evidence
C. Chain of custody D. none
33. PDA is used to____________

A. Maintained data B. Extract evidences
C. Determined evidence D. none
Answer: Extract evidences
34. To maintained the data in the PDA, its needs to keep in?
A. Continuously charge mode B. Evidence locker
C. In safe place D. both
Answer: Continuously charge mode
35. 4.5.3 Original media matches the forensic duplication by ______hashes.

A. MD6 B. MD9
C. MD5 D. MD8
Answer: MD5
36. Forensic duplication is performed using___________

A. dd B. Ff
C. ee D. ddd
Answer: dd
37. 4.6 Who are the highly volatile

A. Registers B. Memory
C. APR cache D. none
Answer: Registers
38. Which of the following will make the difference of nanoseconds?

A. APR cache B. Memory
C. Registers D. none
Answer: Registers
39. RAM stands for

A. Readily available memory B. Random access memory
C. Remember all memory D. none
Answer: Random access memory

Unit -4 ETI
40. The physical configuration and is information_____________ that could help an
investigation
A. Star topology B. Physical configuration
C. network topology D. all
Answer: network topology
41. Where archived data is located?

A. DVD B. Tape
C. Both(A)&(B) D. none
Answer: Both(A)&(B)
42. BPO Stands for

A. Background process outcomes B. none
C. Business produre outsourcing D. Business process outsourcing
Answer: Business process outsourcing
43. The owners of these establishments identified the holder of the __________
A. Add-on card B. Identity card
C. Aadhar card D. none
Answer: Add-on card
44. Which case won the second runner -up position for the India Cyber Cop
Award?
A. Credit card fraud B. Hosting Obscene Profiles
C. Illegal money Transfer D. Fake travel agent
Answer: Credit card fraud
45. Who had proposed marriage?

A. Former college mate B. Best friend
C. School mate D. none
Answer: Former college mate
46. 2 Choose the correct sequence of Investigation of any case?

i. Investigation
ii. Background
iii. Current status
A. iii-i-ii B. i-ii-iii
C. ii-i-iii D. iii-ii-i
Answer: ii-i-iii
47. PIN stands for

A. Personal identity number B. Personal information number
C. Personal identification number D. None of these
Answer: Personal identification number
48. Who won the India Cyber Cop Award while investigating cases ?
A. Mr S.Balu B. Mr R.S Jadhav
C. Mr Edmond Locard’s D. Mr Sanjay Jadhav
Answer: Mr Sanjay Jadhav
49. Which of the following is not a type of volatile evidence?
A. Log files B. Routing tables

Unit -4 ETI
C. Main memory D. Cached data
Answer: Log files

1.Before accessing the security of system,one may want to understand something about the........
A.Victim Mindset
B.Investigator Mindset
C.Offender Mindset
D.None of the above
ANS-C
2.One should protect the system from......
A.Good Guys
B.Bad Guys only Internal
C.Bay Guys ony Outsider
D.Both B and C
ANS-D
3.Knowing what hackers and malicious users want helps to understand.....
A.How they work
B.How they look
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Ans-A
4.Who states that the public misunderatands them?
A.Victim
B.Hacker
C.Investigators
D.All of the above
Ans-B
5.It's easy to........ what is not understood
A.Prejudge
B.postjudge
C.judge
D.missjudge
Ans-A
6.Hackers often state that .......misunderstands them
A.Investigators
B.Crowd
C.Judge
D.Public
Ans-D
7.Many Hackers Stereotype are based on misunderstanding rather than fact.Here Stereotype
means what???
A.Mind
B.Image
C.Look
D.All of the above
Ans-B
8.Hackers can be classified by both their....and their underlying......
A.knowledge and motivations
B.Courage and motivations
C.Abilites and motivations
D.Abilities and knowledge
Ans-C
9.Who is seeking more knowledge?
A.Hackers
B.Public
C.Judge
D.All of the above
Ans-A
10.Hackers merely seeks more.....
A.courage
B.abilities
C.knowledge
D.problems
Ans-C
11.The negavtive aspects of hacking usually overshadow the ..... aspects
A.Normal
B.Positive
C.Negative
D.Both B and C
Ans-B
12.The negavtive aspects of hacking usually overshadow the positive aspects and
promotes...........
A.Positive Aspects
B.Positive Stereotypes
C.Negative Aspects
D.Negative stereotypes
Ans-D
13.Hackers hack for ........of knowledge and the ...... of the challanges.
A.gain and thrill
B.Thrill and gain
C.Pursuit and lack

D.Pursuit and Thrill
Ans-D
14.The hackers wonder what could happen if-
A.Cable was unplugged
B.A switch was flipped
C.Lines of code were changed in program
D.All of the above
Ans-D
15.......Hackers might think they can improve electronics and mechanical devices by rewiring
them.
A.Old-School
B.Old-Aged
C.Old-Minded
D.None of the above
Ans-A
16.Old-School hackers might think they can improve electronics and mechanical devices by...
A.Fixing them
B.Recreating them
C.Rewiring them
D.Buying new
Ans-C
17.Recent Evidence shows that many hackers may also hack for.........Purpose
A.Political
B.Social
C.Both A and B
D.Fixing old machines
Ans-C
18.Hackers dont think about the fact that human beings are behind.......
A.walls
B.Firewall
C.wired Network
D.None of the above
Ans-B
19.Hackers action may affect human beings in
A.Negative way
B.Positive way
C.neutral Way
D.Both B and C
Ans-A
20.Hacker looks for victims
A.Files
B.Server
C.Databases
D.All of the above
Ans-D
21.What hackers can do??
A.Steal
B.Modify
C.Delete
D.A,B,C
Ans-D
22.The Behaviour is ...... to detect
A.Easy
B.Hard
C.Normal
D.High
Ans-B
23. Past Behaviour is often ......predictor of future behaviour
A.Good
B.Bad
C.Best
D.Worst
Ans-C
24.Hackers and malicious users play key role in the............of technology
A.Acheivement
B.Advancment
C.Adverseness
D.All of the above
Ans-B
25. Hackers who help in finding bugs and vulnerabilities in a system & don’t intend to crack a
system are termed as ________
A.Black Hat hackers
B.White Hat Hackers
C.Grey Hat Hackers
D.Red Hat Hackers
Ans-B
26.Which is the legal form of hacking based on which jobs are provided in IT industries and
firms?
A.Cracking
B.Non ethical Hacking

C.Ethical hacking
D.Hactivism
Ans-C
27. __________ security consultants uses database security monitoring & scanning tools to
maintain security to different data residing in the database / servers / cloud.
a) Database
b) Network
c) System
d) Hardware
Ans-a
28.Governments hired some highly skilled hackers. These types of hackers are termed as
_______
a) Special Hackers
b) Government Hackers
c) Cyber Intelligence Agents
d) Nation / State sponsored hackers
Ans-d
29.These types of hackers are the most skilled hackers in the hackers’ community. Who are
“they” referred to?
a) White hat Hackers
b) Elite Hackers
c) Licensed Penetration Testers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Ans-b
30.Someone (from outside) who tests security issues for bugs before launching a system or
application, and who is not a part of that organization or company are ______
a) Black Hat hacker
b) External penetration tester
c) Blue Hat hacker
d) White Hat Hacker
Ans-c
31.What would not exists in the world without hackers??
A.intrusion prevention technology
B.Data leak Protection
C.Vulnerablility scanning tools
D.All of the above
Ans-D
32.One should........ his/her system from being hacked.
A.protect
B.Avoid
C.preserve
D.Leave
Ans-A
33.Malicious Attackers often think and work just like-
A.Cops
B.Organized Criminals
C.Normal People
D.Detective
Ans-B
34.What hackers do?
A.Nothing
B.fly under radar
C.fly under radar and find the weaknesses to get their target
D.find weaknesses to get their target
Ans-C
35.Which of the following is an eaxmple of how hackers and malicious users think and work:
A.Cycber-terrorits
B.Malicious users are all over the map
C.Exploiting physical security weakness
D.Both A and C
Ans-C
36.How Hackers Evade an intrusion prevention system?
A.By saving MAc and IP address.
B.By changing MAC and IP address every hour.
C.By changing MAC and IP address every minute.
D.By changing MAC and IP address every few minutes.
Ans-D
37.Hackers exploit a physical security weakness by....
A.Being aware of offices that at unouccpied.
B.Being aware of offices that at Cleaned by cleaning crew.
C.Both A and B
D.Being aware of offices that at ouccpied.
Ans-C
38.Why hackers chooses the offices that are unoccupied?
A.Because they are easy to access
B.Because they are easy to access and minimum chances to get caught
C.Because of minimum chances to get caught
D.Both A and B
Ans-B
39.How is web access control bypass?

A.By changing a malicious site's URL to its dotted decimal IP address
B.By changing a decimal IP address to its dotted malicious site's URL
C.By changing a malicious site's URL to its valid URL
D.None of these
Ans-A
40. Using unauthorized software that would otherwise be blocked at the firewall by changing ...
A.Default IP Address
B.Default TCP port that runs on
C.Default HTTP port
D.None of the above
Ans-B
41.What hackers can do by gaining overly trusting colleague's user ID and password............
A.to gain access to sensitive information
B.to gain access to insensitive information
C.Both A and B
D.None of these
Ans-A
42.All hackers are....
A.Not equal
B.Same
C.Equal
D.Both B and c
Ans-A
43.Each hackers has his or her own unique
A.motives
B.methods
C.skill
D.All of the above
Ans-D
44.Hackers skill level falls into ....... categories.
A.Two
B.Three
C.Four
D.Five
Ans-B
45.Which are the categories of Hackers skill levels falls into........
A.Script Kiddies
B.Criminal hackers
C.Security researchers
D.Both A and B
Ans-D
46.Who are Script kiddies?
A.Computer Beginners
B.Engineers
C.Programmers
D.All of these
Ans-A
47.Script kiddies takes advantages of........
A.Hacker tools
B.Vulnerability scanners
C.Documentation available
D.All of these
Ans-D
48.Who dont have any real knowledge of what's really going on behind the scenes?
A.Criminal hackers
B.Script kiddies
C.Hacktivists
D.Cycber Terrorists
Ans-B
49.Who are Skilled criminal experts?
A.Script kiddies
B.Hacktivits
C.Cycber terrorists
D.None of these
Ans-D
50.Who writes some of the hacking tools?
A.Script kiddies
B.Hacktivits
C.Criminal hackers
D.Cycber terrorists
Ans-C
51.Criminal hackers write which of the following hacking tools
A.Script
B.Other programs
C.Malware viruses and worms
D.All of these
Ans-D
52.Which hackers are secretive and share information
A.Script kiddies
B.Criminal Hackers
D.Hackitivists
Ans-B
53.Criminal Hackers also write.......
A.Malware as vriuses and worms
B.Malware
C.Vriuses
D.Worms
Ans-A
54.Who write Malware as Viruses amd worms?
A.A.Script kiddies
B.Criminal Hackers
D.Hackitivists
Ans-B
55.How prefer to remain nameless?
A.Criminal
B.Investigator
C.Advanced Hacker
D.Hacker
Ans-C
56.Who are the worst enemies in information security?
A.A.A.Script kiddies
B.Hackitivists
D.Criminal Hackers
Ans-D
57.Who are IT professionals?
A.Security researchers
B.Hackitivists
C.Cycber terrorist
D.Hackers for Hire
Ans-A
57.What Security researchers do?
A.Track Computer
B. Network
C.Applicaation vulnerabilites
D.All of these
Ans-D
58.Who are known as good guy?
A.White hat
B.Black hat
C.Grey Hat
D.Script kiddies
Ans-A
59.Who are known as Bad guy?
A.White hat
B.Black hat
C.Grey Hat
D.Script kiddies
Ans-B
60.Who are known as both Bad guy and white guy?
A.White hat
B.Black hat
C.Grey Hat
D.Script kiddies
Ans-C
61.Who are invited by software vendors to find security flaws in their system.
A.White hat
B.Black hat
C.Grey Hat
D.Blue hat
Ans-D
62.Who engage in malicious and criminal activity against others?
A.Security Researchers
B.IT Professionals
C.Hacktivists
D.Both A and B
Ans-D
63.Who try to distribute political or social message through their work.
B.Hackitivists
C.Cycber terrorist
D.Hackers for Hire
Ans-B
64.Hacktivists wants to raise ........ awareness of an issue.
A.Private
B.Public
C.Common
D.None of these
Ans-B
65.Examples of Hacktivism are-
A.Messages about legalizing drugs
B.Protests against the warin Iraq
C.Protests centered around wealth envy and big corporations
D.All of these
Ans-D
67.Cycber terrorists are
A.Unorganised
B.organised
C.Both A and B
D.None of these
Ans-C
68.Who attacks government computers or public utliity infrastructure
B.Hackitivists
C.Cycber terrorist
D.Hackers for Hire

Ans-A
69.Who are part of organised crime on the Internet.
B.Hackers for Hire
C.Cycber terrorist
D.Hackitivists
Ans-B
70.Why hackers hack the system?
A.For Casual Hobby
B.Just to see What they can do and cant break into.
C.Hackers often promote individualism
D.All of these
Ans-D
71.What are common motives of hackers?
A.Revenge
B.basic bragging rights
C.curiosity
D.All of the above
Ans-D
72.Arrange the following steps to become hacker in proper way-
i.Experiment a lot ii.Read Hacking
iii.Learn Unix iv.Learn More than one programming language
v.Lean network concepts vi.Start simple:Read some tutorialsabout Hacking
vii.Learn Cryptography viii.Learn More then on operating system
ix.Learn to program in C x.Continue Learning and keep Listening to security task
xi.Read some good books xii.Participate in Hacking challenges
from experts
xiii.Go to next level write xiv.Contribute to open source security projject
vulerability
A.i-ii-iii-iv-v-vi-vii-viii-ix-xi-x-xii-xiv-xiii
B.ii-i-iv-viii-iii-xii-vi-vii-v-xiii-ix-xiv-x-xi
C.ii-ix-vi-iii-viii-v-iv-vii-i-xi-xii-xiii-xiv-x
D.ii-ix-iv-iii-viii-v-vi-vii-i-xi-xii-xiii-xiv-x
Ans-D
73.The 3rd step to become hacker is Learn more than one ............
A.Operating System
B.Programming Language
C.Networking concepts
D.Both a and b
Ans-B
74.How many steps are mentioned to become a hacker?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.0-13
Ans-C
75.Computer programs and scripts that help you find and exploit weaknesses in computer
system,web applications,servers and networks is called
A.HAcking tools
B.Hacking weapon
C.Samspade
D.none of these
Ans-A
76.Which of the following is a tool for ethical hacking?
A.Probely
B.Savvius
C.Medusa
D.All of the aove
Ans-D
77.Which tool is easy to use webapplication scanner?
A.Ettercap
B.InsightVM
C.Netspaker
D.Aircrack
Ans-C
78.Netsparker is available as on-premises and ______________solution.
A.SAAS
B.PASS
C.IASS
D.none ofthese
Ans-A
79.The fully automated ethical hacking solution that mimics a hacker to keep one step ahead
ofmalicious intruders.
A.Probely
B.Acunetix
C.saferVPN
D.Hashcat
Ans-B
80.The web application security scanner accurately scans............

A.HTML5
B.JavaScript
C.Single Page Application
D.All of the Above
Ans-D
81.What is the purpose of Probely?
A.Scans the data
B.Allow customers to manage the life cycle of vularabilities
C.Scans vulnerabilities in your web Application
D.Both B and C
Ans-D
82........is a security tool built having developers in mind
A.Probely
B.Etterccap
C.Hashcat
D.Both A and B
Ans-A
83.which tool isa top ranked vulnerability risk management solution?
A.Savvius
B.AirCrack
C.InsightVM
D.WebInspect
Ans-C
84........... is an indespensible tool in Ethical Havkers aresenal.
A.InsightVM
B.SaferVPN
C.Netsparker
D.Both A and B
Ans-B
85.WHich is ethical hacking tool?
A.Qualys guard
B.GFI LanGuard
C.Ettercap
D.All of the above
Ans-D
86.Ettercap supports ........... dissection includes features for network and host analysis
A.Active
B.Passive
C.Active and Passive
D.none of these
Ans-C
87.Aircrcak is ........ ethical tool
A.Untrustable
B.Trustable
C.Faithful
D.Most used
Ans-B
88............ is open source and cross platform ethical hacking tool.
A.Angry Ip Scanner
B.GFI LanGuard
C.Ettercap
D.Qualys guard
Ans-A
89.An ethical tool that scans network for vulnerabilities
A.Angry Ip Scanner
B.GFI LanGuard
C.Ettercap
D.Qualys guard
Ans-B
90............ is automated dynamic application security testing that allows performing ethical
hacking techniques.
A.Acunetix
B.Ettercap
C.Rainbow Crack
D.WebInspect
Ans-D
91............ helps businesses streamline thier security and compliance solutions.
A.Hashcast
B.SQL Map
C.Qualys Guard
D.medusa
Ans-C
92.which tool is used for password cracking.
A.SQL Map
B.Hashcast
C.Qualys Guard
D.medusa
Ans-B
93.SQL map supports .............. databse design

A.Recover MS access password
B.uncover password feild
C.Sniffing networks
D.ALl of the above
Ans -D
94.............is one of the best oline brute force enthical hacking tool
A.IronWASP
B.Medusa
C.L0phtCrack 6
D.Hashcat
Ans-B
95........... is used to detect wireless networkss on windows platform
A.NetStumbler
B.Medusa
C.L0phtCrack 6
D.Hashcat
Ans-A
96.Nessus can be used to perform-
A.REmote vulnerability scanner
B.Password dictionary attacks

C.It is closed source,cross platform and free for personal use
D.All of these
Ans-D
Question 1. Which of the following statements best describes a white-hat hacker?
 A. Security professional
 B. Former black hat
 C. Former grey hat
 D. Malicious hacker
Answer 1. Option A
Explanation: A white-hat hacker is a “good” guy who uses his skills for defensive purposes.
Question 2. A security audit performed on the internal network of an organization by the

network administration is also known as ___________.
 A. Grey-box testing
 B. Black-box testing
 C. White-box testing
 D. Active testing
 E. Passive testing
Answer 2. Option C
Explanation: White-box testing is a security audit performed with internal knowledge of the systems.
Question 3. What is the first phase of hacking?
 A. Attack
 B. Maintaining access
 C. Gaining access
 D. Reconnaissance
 E. Scanning
Answer 3. Option D
Explanation: Reconnaissance is gathering information necessary to perform the attack.
Question 4. What type of ethical hack tests access to the physical infrastructure?
 A. Internal network
 B. Remote network
 C. External network
 D. Physical access
Answer 4. Option D
Explanation: Physical access tests access to the physical infrastructure.
Question 5. The security, functionality, and ease of use triangle illustrates which concept?
 A. As security increases, functionality and ease of use increase.

 B. As security decreases, functionality and ease of use increase.
 C. As security decreases, functionality and ease of use decrease.
 D. Security does not affect functionality and ease of use.
Answer 5. Option B
Explanation: As security increases it makes it more difficult to use and less functional.
Question 6. Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network?
 A. Disgruntled employees
 B. Black-hat hackers
 C. Grey-hat hackers
 D. Script kiddies
Answer 6. Option A
Explanation: Disgruntled employees have information which can allow them to launch a powerful
attack.
Question 7. What are the three phases of a security evaluation plan? (Choose three answers.)
 A. Conduct Security Evaluation

 B. Preparation
 C. Conclusion
 D. Final
 E. Reconnaissance
 F. Design Security
 G. Vulnerability Assessment
Answer 7. Options A, B, C
Explanation: The three phases of a security evaluation plan are preparation, conduct s ecurity
evaluation, and conclusion.
Question 8. Hacking for a cause is called __________________.
 A. Active hacking
 B. Hacktivism
 C. Activism
 D. Black-hat hacking
Answer 8. Option B
Explanation: Hacktivism is performed by individual who claim to be hacking for a political or social
cause.
Question 9. Which federal law is most commonly used to prosecute hackers?
 A. Title 12
 B. Title 18
 C. Title 20
 D. Title 2
Answer 9. Option B
Explanation: Title 18 of the U.S. Code of law is most commonly used to prosecute hackers
Question 10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known as what type
of attack?
 A. Remote attack
 B. Physical access
 C. Local access
 D. Internal attack
Answer 10. Option A
Explanation: An attack from the Internet is known as a remote attack.
Question 11. Which are the four regional Internet registries?
 A. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC

 B. APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
 C. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
 D. APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
Answer 11. Option D
Explanation: The four Internet registries are ARIN (American Registry of Internet Numbers), RIPE
NCC (Europe, the Middle East, and parts of Central Asia), LACNIC (Latin American and Caribbean
Internet Addresses Registry), and APNIC (Asia Pacific Network Information Centre).
Question 12. Which of the following is a tool for performing footprinting undetected?
 A. Whois search
 B. Traceroute
 C. Ping sweep
 D. Host scanning
Answer 12. Option A
Explanation: Whois is the only tool listed that won’t trigger an IDS alert or otherwise be detected by
an organization.
Question 13. Which of the following tools are used for footprinting? (Choose 3 answers.)
 A. Whois
 B. Sam Spade
 C. NMAP
 D. SuperScan
 E. Nslookup
Answer 13. Options A, B, E
Explanation: Whois, Sam Spade, and nslookup are all used to passively gather information about a
target. NMAP and SuperScanare host and network scanning tools.
Question 14. What is the next step to be performed after footprinting?
 A. Scanning
 B. Enumeration
 C. System hacking
 D. Active information gathering
Answer 14. Option A
Explanation: According to CEH methodology, scanning occurs after footprinting.
Question 15. Which are good sources of information about a company or its employees?
(Choose all that apply.)
 A. Newsgroups
 B. Job postings
 C. Company website
 D. Press releases
Answer 15. Options A, B, C, D
Explanation: Newsgroups, job postings, company websites, and press releases are all good sources
for information gathering.
Question 16. How does traceroute work?
 A. It uses an ICMP destination-unreachable message to elicit the name of a router.

 B. It sends a specially crafted IP packet to a router to locate the number of hops from the sender to the
destination network.
 C. It uses a protocol that will be rejected by the gateway to determine the location.
 D. It uses the TTL value in an ICMP message to determine the number of hops from the sender to the router.
Answer 16. Option D

Explanation: Traceroute uses the TTL values to determine how many hops the router is from the
sender. Each router decrements the TTL by one under normal conditions.
Question 17. What is footprinting?
 A. Measuring the shoe size of an ethical hacker

 B. Accumulation of data by gathering information on a target
 C. Scanning a target network to detect operating system types
 D. Mapping the physical layout of a target’s network
Answer 17. Option B
Explanation: Footprinting is gathering information about a target organization.
Question 18.Nslookup can be used to gather information regarding which of the following?
 A. Host names and IP addresses

 B. Whois information
 C. DNS server locations
 D. Name server types and operating systems
Answer 18. Option A
Explanation: Nslookup queries a DNS server for DNS records such as host names and IP
addresses.
Question 19. Which of the following is a type of social engineering?
 A. Shoulder surfing
 B. User identification
 C. System monitoring
 D. Face-to-face communication
Answer 19. Option A
Explanation: Of the choices listed here, shoulder surfing is considered a type of social engineering.
Question 20. Which is an example of social engineering?
 A. A user who holds open the front door of an office for a potential hacker
 B. Calling a help desk and convincing them to reset a password for a user account
 C. Installing a hardware keylogger on a victim’s system to capture passwords
 D. Accessing a database with a cracked password
Answer 20. Option B
Explanation: Calling a help desk and convincing them to reset a password for a user account is an
example of social engineering.
Question 21. What is the best way to prevent a social-engineering attack?
 A. Installing a firewall to prevent port scans

 B. Configuring an IDS to detect intrusion attempts
 C. Increasing the number of help-desk personnel
 D. Employee training and education
Answer 21. Option D
Explanation: Employee training and education is the best way to prevent a social-engineering attack.
Question 22. Which of the following is the best example of reverse social engineering?
 A. A hacker pretends to be a person of authority in order to get a user to give them information.
 B. A help-desk employee pretends to be a person of authority.
 C. A hacker tries to get a user to change their password.
 D. A user changes their password.
Answer 22. Option A
Explanation: When a hacker pretends to be a person of authority in order to get a user to ask them
for information, it’s an example of reverse social engineering.
Question 23. Using pop-up windows to get a user to give out information is which type of
social engineering attack?
 A. Human-based
 B. Computer-based
 C. Nontechnical
 D. Coercive
Answer 23. Option B
Explanation: Pop-up windows are a method of getting information from a user utilizing a computer.
Question 24. What is it called when a hacker pretends to be a valid user on the system?
 A. Impersonation
 B. Third-person authorization
 C. Help desk
 D. Valid user
Answer 24. Option A.
Explanation: Impersonation involves a hacker pretending to be a valid user on the system.
Question 25. What is the best reason to implement a security policy?
 A. It increases security.
 B. It makes security harder to enforce.
 C. It removes the employee’s responsibility to make judgments.
 D. It decreases security.
Answer 25. Option C
Explanation: Security policies remove the employee’s responsibility to make judgments regarding a
potential social-engineering attack.
Question 26. Faking a website for the purpose of getting a user’s password and username is
which type of social engineering attack?
 A. Human-based
 C. Web-based
 D. User-based
Answer 26. Option B
Explanation: Website faking is a form of computer-based social engineering attack.
Question 27. Dumpster diving can be considered which type of social engineering attack?
 A. Human-based
 C. Physical access
 D. Paper-based
Answer 27. Option A
Explanation: Dumpster diving is a human-based social engineering attack.
Question 28. What port number does FTP use?
 A. 21
 B. 25
 C. 23
 D. 80
Answer 28. Option A
Explanation: FTP uses TCP port 21. This is a well-known port number and can be found in the
Windows services file.
Question 29. What port number does HTTPS use?
 A. 443
 B. 80
 C. 53
 D. 21
Answer 29. Option A
Explanation: HTTPS uses TCP port 443. This is a well-known port number and can be found in the
Windows services file.
Question 30. What is war dialing used for?
 A. Testing firewall security

 B. Testing remote access system security
 C. Configuring a proxy filtering gateway
 D. Configuring a firewall
Answer 30. Option B
Explanation: War dialing involves placing calls to a series of numbers in hopes that a modem
will Answer the call. It can be used to test the security of a remote-access system.
Question 31. Banner grabbing is an example of what?
 A. Passive operating system fingerprinting

 B. Active operating system fingerprinting
 C. Footprinting
 D. Application analysis
Answer 31. Option A
Explanation: Banner grabbing is not detectible; therefore it is considered passive OS fingerprinting.
Question 32. What are the three types of scanning?
 A. Port, network, and vulnerability

 B. Port, network, and services
 C. Grey, black, and white hat
 D. Server, client, and network
Answer 32. Option A
Explanation: Port, network, and vulnerability are the three types of scanning.
Question 33. What is the main problem with using only ICMP queries for scanning?
 A. The port is not always available.

 B. The protocol is unreliable.
 C. Systems may not respond because of a firewall.
 D. Systems may not have the service running.
Answer 33. Option C
Explanation: Systems may not respond to ICMP because they have firewall software installed that
blocks the responses.
Question 34. What does the TCP RST command do?
 A. Starts a TCP connection

 B. Restores the connection to a previous state
 C. Finishes a TCP connections
 D. Resets the TCP connection
Answer 34.Option D
Explanation: The TCP RST command resets the TCP connection.
Question 35. What is the proper sequence of a TCP connection?
 A. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
 B. SYN-ACK-FIN
 C. SYN-SYNACK-ACK
 D. SYN-PSH-ACK
Explanation: A SYN packet is followed by a SYN-ACK packet. Then, an ACK finishes a successful
TCP connection.
Question 36. A packet with all flags set is which type of scan?
 A. Full Open
 B. Syn scan
 C. XMAS
 D. TCP connect
Answer 36. Option C.
Explanation: An XMAS scan has all flags set.
Question 37. What is the proper command to perform and NMAP SYN scan every 5 minutes?
 A. nmap -ss – paranoid

 B. nmap -Ss -paranoid
 C. nmap -Ss -fast
 D. namp -Ss -sneaky
Answer 37. Option B.
Explanation: The command nmap -Ss – paranoid performs a SYN scan every 300 seconds or 5
minutes.
Question 38. In order to prevent a hacker from using SMB session hijacking, which TCP and
UDP ports would you block at the firewall?
 A. 167 and 137

 B. 80 and 23
 C. 139 and 445
 D. 1277 and 1270
Explanation: Block the ports used by NetBIOS null sessions. These are 139 and 445.
Question 39. Why would an attacker want to perform a scan on port 137?
 A. To locate the FTP service on the target host

 B. To check for file and print sharing on Windows systems
 C. To discover proxy servers on a network

 D. To discover a target system with the NetBIOS null session vulnerability
Answer 39. Option D.
Explanation: Port 137 is used for NetBIOS null sessions.
Question 40. SNMP is a protocol used to manage network infrastructure devices. What is the
SNMP read/write community name used for?
 A. Viewing the configuration information

 B. Changing the configuration information
 C. Monitoring the device for errors
 D. Controlling the SNMP management station
Explanation: The SNMP read/write community name is the password used to make changes to the
device configuration.
Question 41. Why would the network security team be concerned about ports 135–139 being
open on a system?
 A. SMB is enabled, and the system is susceptible to null sessions.

 B. SMB is not enabled, and the system is susceptible to null sessions.
 C. Windows RPC is enabled, and the system is susceptible to Windows DCOM remote sessions.
 D. Windows RPC is not enabled, and the system is susceptible to Windows DCOM remote sessions.
Explanation: Ports in the 135 to 139 range indicate the system has SMB services running and is
susceptible to null sessions.
Question 42. Which step comes after enumerating users in the CEH hacking cycle?
 A. Crack password
 B. Escalate privileges
 C. Scanning
 D. Covering tracks
Explanation: Password cracking is the next step in the CEH hacking cycle after enumerating users.
Question 43. What is enumeration?
 A. Identifying active systems on the network

 B. Cracking passwords
 C. Identifying users and machine names
 D. Identifying routers and firewalls
Explanation: Enumeration is the process of finding usernames, machine names, network shares,
and services on the network.
Question 44. What is a command-line tool used to look up a username from a SID?
 A. UsertoSID
 B. Userenum
 C. SID2User
 D. Getacct
Explanation: SID2User is a command-line tool to find a username from a SID.
Question 45. Which tool can be used to perform a DNS zone transfer on Windows?
 A. nslookup
 B. DNSlookup
 C. whois
 D. ipconfig
Explanation: nslookup is a Windows tool that can be used to initiate a DNS zone transfer that sends
all
the DNS records to a hacker’s system.
Question 46. What is a null session?
 A. Connecting to a system with the administrator username and password

 B. Connecting to a system with the admin username and password
 C. Connecting to a system with a random username and password
 D. Connecting to a system with no username and password
Explanation: A null session involves connecting to a system with no username and password.
Question 47. What is a countermeasure for SNMP enumeration?
 A. Remove the SNMP agent from the device.

 B. Shut down ports 135 and 139 at the firewall.
 C. Shut down ports 80 and 443 at the firewall.
 D. Enable SNMP read-only security on the agent device.
Explanation: The best countermeasure to SNMP enumeration is to remove the SNMP agent from the device.
Doing so prevents it from responding to SNMP requests.
Question 48. What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?
 A. To think like hackers and know how to defend such attacks

 B. To hack a system without the permission
 C. To hack a network that is vulnerable
 D. To corrupt software or service using malware
Explanation: It is important for ethical hackers and security professional to know how the cyber-criminals think
and proceed to target any system or network. This is why ethical hackers and penetration testers are trained
with proper ethics to simulate such a scenario as how the real cyber-attack takes place.
Question 49.Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is

____________ ethical practice.
 A. A good
 B. Not so good
 C. very good social engineering practice
 D. A bad
Explanation: Overlooking or peeping into someone’s system when he/she is entering his/her password is a
bad practice and is against the ethics of conduct for every individual. Shoulder surfing is a social engineering
attack approach used by some cyber-criminals to know your password and gain access to your system later.
Question 50.___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for
unethical hacking.
 A. Automated apps
 B. Database software
 C. Malware
 D. Worms
Explanation: Malware is one of the biggest culprits that harm companies because they are programmed to do
the malicious task automatically and help hackers do illicit activities with sophistication.
Question 51.Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of
senior authority is a crime.
 A. True
 B. False
Explanation: Without prior permission of the senior authority or any senior member, if you’re leaking or taking
our your company’s data outside (and which is confidential), then it’s against the code of corporate ethics.
Question 52._____________ is the technique used in business organizations and firms to

protect IT assets
 A. Ethical Hacking
 B. Unethical hacking
 C. Fixing bugs
 D. internal data-Breach
Explanation: Ethical hacking is a that used by business organizations and firms for exploiting vulnerabilities to
secure the firm. Ethical hackers help in increasing the capabilities of any organization or firm in protecting their
IT and information assets.
Question 53.The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of personal
data.
 A. Stealing
 B. disclosure
 C. Deleting
 D. hacking
Explanation: The legal risks of ethical hacking contains lawsuits due to disclosure of personal data during the
penetration testing phase. Such disclosure of confidential data may lead to a legal fight between the ethical
hacker and the organization.
Question 54.Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key
points listed below is not mandatory?
 A. Know the nature of the Organization

 B. characteristics of work done in the firm
 C. system and network
 D. types of broadband company used by the firms
Explanation: Before performing any penetration test, through the legal procedure the key points that the
penetration tester must keep in mind are –
i) Know the nature of the organization
ii)what type of work the organization do and
iii) the system and networks used in various departments and their confidential data that are sent and
received over the network..
Question 55.An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not
get leaked.
 A. True
 B. False
Explanation: Yes, it is very important for an ethical hacker to make sure that while doing penetration tests, the
confidential data and proprietary information are preserved properly and not get leaked to the external network.
Question 56.After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client
information to other parties.
 A. Hacking
 B. Cracking
 C. Penteration Testing
 D. Expoliting
Explanation: It is against the laws and ethics of ethical hacker that after doing penetration tests, the ethical
hacker should never disclose client information to other parties. The protection of client data is in the hands of
the ethical hacker who performed the tests
Question 57.__________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides
different theories and a principle regarding the view-points about what is right and wrong.
 A. Social Ethics
 B. Ethics in Cyber-Security
 C. Corporate Ethics
 D. ethics in Black Hat Hacker
Explanation: Ethics in cyber-security is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides
different theories and principles’ regarding the view-points about what is right and what need not to be done.
Question 58.A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the ___________ &
___________ requirements of a firm while evaluating the security postures.
 A. Privacy & Security

 B. Rules & Regulations
 C. Hacking Techniques
 D. Ethics to Talk to seniors
Explanation: A penetration tester must keep in mind the privacy & security requirements as well as policies of
a firm while evaluating the security postures of the target, which is called as “industry and business ethics
policies”.
Ref:
a) https://www.sanfoundry.com/cyber-security-questions-answers-ethics-ethical-hacking/
b) https://www.objectivequiz.com/objective-questions/computer-science/ethical-hacking
Diplomastudyhelper.blogspot.com
Chapter 1- Artificial Intelligence

1. Which of these schools was not among the early leaders in AI research?
A. Dartmouth University
B. Harvard University
C. Massachusetts Institute of Technology
D. Stanford University
E. None of the above
Ans: B
2. DARPA, the agency that has funded a great deal of American AI research, is part of the
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
3. The conference that launched the AI revolution in 1956 was held at:
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
5. What of the following is considered to be a pivotal event in the history of AI.

A. 1949, Donald O, The organization of Behavior.
B. 1950, Computing Machinery and Intelligence.
C. 1956, Dartmouth University Conference Organized by John McCarthy.
D. 1961, Computer and Computer Sense.
Ans: C
6. A certain Professor at the Stanford University coined the word 'artificial intelligence' in
1956 at a conference held at Dartmouth College. Can you name the Professor?
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
C. Joseph Weizenbaum
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B
7. The field that investigates the mechanics of human intelligence is:

A. History
B. cognitive science
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
8. A.M. turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer could or could not
demonstrate the artificial Intelligence,, Presently, this technique is called
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

A. Putting your intelligence into Computer
B. Programming with your own intelligence
C. Making a Machine intelligent
D. Putting more memory into Computer
Ans: C
11. Who is a father of AI?

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

A. Planning and Scheduling
B. Game PlayingC. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
A. machine intelligence
B. human intelligence
C. artificial intelligence
D. virtual intelligence
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
15. The first widely used commercial form of Artificial Intelligence (Al) is being used in
many popular products like microwave ovens, automobiles and plug in circuit boards for
desktop PCs. What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
17. ______ is a branch of computer science which deals with helping machines finds
solutions to complex problems in a more human like fashions
A. Artificial Intelligence
B. Internet of Things
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
18. In ____ the goal is for the software to use what it has learned in one area to solve
problems in other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
19. Computer programs that mimic the way the human brain processes information is called
as
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
20. A ____ is a rule of thumb, strategy, trick, simplification, or any other kind of device
which drastically limits search for solutions in large problem spaces.
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
21. ______ do not guarantee optimal/any solutions

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
22. Cognitive science related with _____

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C
23. _____ Model should reflect how results were obtained.

A. Design model
B. Logic model
C. Computational model
D. None of above
Ans: C
24. Communication between man and machine is related with ______

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B
25. ELIZA created by _____

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
D. Joseph Weizenbaum
Ans: D
26. The concept derived from ________ level are propositional logic, tautology, predicate
calculus, model, temporal logic.
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
27. PROLOG is an AI programming language which solves problems with a form of

symbolic logic known as ______.
A. Propositional logic
B. Tautology
C. Predicate calculus
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
28. The ____ level contains constituents at the third level which are knowledge based system,
heuristic search, automatic theorem proving, multi-agent system.
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
29. PROLOG, LISP, NLP are the language of ____

B. Machine Learning
C. Internet of Things
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
30. ______ is used for AI because it supports the implementation of software that computes
with symbols very well.
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
31. Symbols, symbolic expressions and computing with those is at the core of ______
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
32. ______ that deals with the interaction between computers and humans using the natural
language
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOGD.
D. NLP
Ans: D
33. The core components are constituents of AI are derived from

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
34. Aristotle’s theory of syllogism and Descartes and kant’s critic of pure reasoning made
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
B. Computation logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
35. Charles Babbage and Boole who demonstrate the power of _______
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
36. In 1960s, _____ pushed the logical formalism to integrate reasoning with knowledge.
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
37. Sensing organs as input, mechanical movement organs as output and central nervous
system (CNS) in brain as control and computing devices is known as _____ of human being
A. Information Control Paradigm
B. Information Processing Paradigm
C. Information Processing Control
D. None of above
Ans: B
38. _____ model were developed and incorporated in machines which mimicked the
functionalities of human origin.
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
39. Chomsky’s linguistic computational theory generated a model for syntactic analysis
through__________
A. Regular Grammar
B. Regular Expression
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A
40. Human to Machine is _____ and Machine to Machine is ______.

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
C. Program, Hardware
D. Program, Program
Ans: C
41. Weak AI is also known as ____

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
42. _____ AI is able to perform dedicated task.

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
43. Narrow AI is performs multiple task at a time.

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

A. The embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer.
B. A set of computer programs that produce output that would be considered to reflect
intelligence if it were generated by humans.
C. The study of mental faculties through the use of mental models implemented on a
computer
D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

computer
D. All of the above
Ans: A
46. Artificial intelligence is___________

computer
D. All of the above
Ans: D
47. Apple siri is a good example of ______ AI.

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
48. IBM Watson supercomputer comes under ____ AI.

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
49. ____ AI is a type of intelligence which could perform any intellectual task with
efficiency like human.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
50. The idea behind _________AI to make such a system which could be smarter and think
like a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
51. The worldwide researchers are now focusing on developing machines with ___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
52. Playing chess, purchasing suggestions on e-commerce site, self-driving cars, speech
recognition, and image recognition are the example of ____.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
53. Machine can perform any task better than human with cognitive properties is known as
___AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
54. Ability to think, puzzle, make judgments, plan, learn, communication by its own is
known as___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
55. ____ AI is hypothetical concept of AI.

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
56. Which AI system not store memories or past experiences for future actions.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
57. Which machines only focus on current scenarios and react on it as per as possible best
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
58. IBM’s deep blue system is example of ___.

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
59. Google Alpha Go is example of ____.

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
60. Which can stores past experiences or some data for short period time.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B
61. Self-driving car is example of ____.

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B [Car stores recent speed of nearby cars, distance of others car, speed limit,
other
information to navigate the road]
62. Which AI should understand the human emotions, people, and beliefs and be able to
interact socially like humans.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C
63. Which machines will be smarter than human mind?

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D
64. _________machines will have their own consciousness and sentiments

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C
66. What is Machine learning?

A. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
B. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
C. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
D. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
Ans: A
67. ______________is a branch of science that deals with programing the systems in such a
way that they automatically learn and improve with experience
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
68. Classifying email as a spam, labeling webpages based on their content, voice recognition
are the example of _____.
A. Supervised learning
B. Unsupervised learning
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
69. K-means, self-organizing maps, hierarchical clustering are the example of _____.
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
70. Deep learning is a subfield of machine learning where concerned algorithms are inspired
by the structured and function of the brain called _____.
A. Machine learning
B. Artificial neural networks
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B
71. Machine learning invent by _____.

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D
Chapter-2 Internet of Things

1. Embedded systems are_____
A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B
2. Embedded system is______
A. An electronic system
B. A pure mechanical system
C. An electro-mechanical system
D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
3. Which of the following is not true about embedded systems?
A. Built around specialized hardware
B. Always contain an operating system
C. Execution behavior may be deterministic
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E
4. Which of the following is not an example of a “small-scale embedded system”?
A. Electronic Barbie doll
B. Simple calculator
C. Cell phone
D. Electronic toy car
Ans: C
5. The first recognized modern embedded system is
A. Apple computer
B. Apollo Guidance Computer (AGC)

C. Calculator
D. Radio navigation system
Ans: B
6. The first mass produced embedded system is
A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
D. Apollo Guidance Computer (AGC)
Ans: C
7. Which of the following is an (are) an intended purpose(s) of embedded systems?
A. Data collection
B. Data processing
C. Data communication
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
8. Which of the following is (are) example(s) of embedded system for data communication?
USB Mass Storage device
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
9. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an embedded system?
A. Ability to fit on a single chip
B. Low power consumption
C. Fast data processing for real-time operations

D .All of the above
Ans: D
10. A digital multi meter is an example of an embedded system for
A. Data communication
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
11. Which of the following is an (are) example(s) of an embedded system for signal processing?
A. Apple iPOD (media player device)
B. SanDisk USB mass storage device
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D
12. The instruction set of RISC processor is
A. Simple and lesser in number
B. Complex and lesser in number
C. Simple and larger in number
D. Complex and larger in number
Ans: A
13. Which of the following is true about CISC processors?
A. The instruction set is non-orthogonal
B. The number of general purpose registers is limited
C. Instructions are like macros in c language
D. Variable length instructions
E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E
14. Main processor chip in computers is_______
A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C
15. Processors used in many microcontroller products need to be______
A. high power
B. low power
C. low interrupt response
D. low code density
Ans: B
16. In microcontrollers, UART is acronym of_____
A. Universal Applied Receiver/Transmitter
B. Universal Asynchronous Rectified Transmitter
C. Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter
D. United Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter
Ans: C
17. Which architecture is followed by general purpose microprocessors?
A. Harvard architecture
B. Von Neumann architecture
C. None of the mentioned
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: B
18. Which architecture involves both the volatile and the non-volatile memory?
Ans: A
19. Which architecture provides separate buses for program and data memory?
Ans: A
20. Harvard architecture allows:
A. Separate program and data memory
B. Pipe-ling
C. Complex architecture
Ans: D
21. Which of the following processor architecture supports easier instruction pipelining?
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A
22. Which of the following is an example for wireless communication interface?
A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)

Ans: E
23. ARM stands for _________
A. Advanced RISC Machine
B. Advanced RISC Methodology
C. Advanced Reduced Machine
D. Advanced Reduced Methodology
Ans: A
24. What is the processor used by ARM7?
A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
A. Low cost and low power consumption
B. Higher degree of multi-tasking
C. Lower error or glitches
D. Efficient memory management
Ans: A
A. Main frame systems
B. Distributed systems
C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is
A. Simple in design.
B. Manufacturing time is less.
C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for
A. Application-System Integrated Circuits
B. Application-Specific Integrated Circuits
C. Application-System Internal Circuits
D. Application-Specific Internal Circuits
Ans: B
29. In microcontrollers, I2C stands for
A. Inter-Integrated Clock
B. Initial-Integrated Clock
C. Intel-Integrated Circuit
D. Inter-Integrated Circuit
Ans: D
30. ______________ is the smallest microcontrollers which can be programmed to perform a large range of
tasks.
A. PIC microcontrollers
B. ARM microcontrollers
C. AVR microcontrollers
D. ASIC microcontrollers
Ans: - A
31. _______________ was developed in the year 1996 by ATMEL Corporation
A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________.
A. Advanced Virtual RISC.
B. Alf-Egil Bogen and Vegard Wollan RISC
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
Ans: - C
33. AVR microcontroller executes most of the instruction in _________________.
A. Single execution cycle.
B. Double execution cycle.
C. Both A& B
D. None of the above.
Ans: - A
34. Term "the Internet of things" was coined by
A. Edward L. Schneider
B. Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
35. The huge numbers of devices connected to the Internet of Things have to communicate automatically,
not via humans, what is this called?
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
B. Machine to Machine(M2M)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B
36. What does “Things” in IoT refers to?
A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
37. Interconnection of Internet and computing devices embedded in everyday objects, enabling them to send
and receive data is called_____________
A. Internet of Things
B. Network Interconnection
C. Object Determination
D. None of these
Ans: A
38. _____________ is a computing concept that describes the idea of everyday physical objects
being connected to the internet.
A. IOT (Internet of Things)
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A
39 _____ devices may support a number of interoperable communication protocols and communicate with
other device and also with infrastructure.
B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C
40. Which one is not element of IOT?
A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for
A. Information Internet of Things
B. Industrial Internet of Things
C. Inovative Internet of Things
D. None of above
Ans:B
42. Name of the IOT device which is first recognized?
A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B
43. _____ is used by IOT
A. Radio information technology
B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
44. ______ consists of communication protocols for electronic devices, typically a mobile device
and a standard device.
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
45. _____________ refers to establish a proper connection between all the things of IOT.
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
D. Active Engagement
Ans: - A
46. IOT devices which have unique identities and can perform ________________________.
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
C. Monitoring capabilities
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
47. The sensed data communicated ___________________.
A. Cloud-based servers/storage.
B. I/O interfaces.
C. Internet connectivity.
Ans: - A
48. IOT devices are various types, for instance______________.
A. Wearable sensors.
B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
49. ______________ is a collection of wired Ethernet standard for the link layer.
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A
50.______ is a collection of WLAN communication standards.
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B
51. ____ is a collection of wireless broadband standards (WiMax).
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
52 ___ is a collection of standards for LR-WPANs.
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:D
53. LR-WPANs standards from basis of specifications for high level communication protocol such as ___.
A. Zigbee
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
D. Microsoft's Azure
Ans:A
54. ______ includes GSM and CDMA.
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A
55. ______include UMTS and CDMA2000.
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
56 ______include LTE.
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
57. _____________ layer protocols determine how the data is physically sent over the network’s physical
layer or medium.
A. Application layer
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - D
58 _______ layer is responsible for sending of IP datagrams from the source network to the destination
network.
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
59. ___ layer perform the host addressing and packet routing.
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
60. _____________ protocols provide end to end message transfer capability independent of the underlying
network.
A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
C. Application layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
61. The ___ protocols define how the applications interface with the lower layer protocol to send the data
over the network.
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A
62. 6LOWPAN stands for
A. 6 LOW Personal Area Network
B. IPv6 LOW Personal Area Network
C. IPv6 over Low power wireless personal area network
D. None of above
Ans:C
63. 802.3 is the standard for 10BASE5 Ethernet that uses ___________ cable as shared medium.
A. Twisted pair cable
B. Coaxial cable
C. Fiber optic cable
Ans: - B
64. IEEE 802.11 standards provide data rates ______________
A. 10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
C. 1 Mb/s to up to 6.75 Gb/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C
65. ________ of the following is a protocol related to IOT
A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
66. _______________ is useful for time-sensitive application that have very small data units to exchange
and do not want the overhead of connection setup.
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Transport layer
Ans: - B
67. ____________ protocol uses Universal Resource Identifiers (URIs) to identify HTTP resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
68. The 10/100Mbit Ethernet support enables the board to connect to _________
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
69. Which one out of these is not a data link layer technology?
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D
70. What is size of the IPv6 Address?
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________
A. MQ Telemetry Things
B. MQ Transport Telemetry
C. MQ Transport Things
D. MQ Telemetry Transport
Ans: D
72. MQTT is better than HTTP for sending and receiving data.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
73. MQTT is _________ protocol.
A. Machine to Machine
C. Machine to Machine and Internet of Things
D. Machine Things
Ans: C
74. Which protocol is lightweight?
A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
A. Based on client-server architecture
B. Based on publish-subscribe architecture
C. Based on both of the above
D. Based on none of the above
Ans: B
76. XMPP is used for streaming which type of elements?
A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B
77. XMPP creates _________ identity.
A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A
78. XMPP uses ________ architecture.
A. Decentralized client-server
B. Centralized client-server
C. Message
D. Public/subscriber
Ans: A
79. What does HTTP do?
A. Enables network resources and reduces perception of latency
B. Reduces perception of latency and allows multiple concurrency exchange
C. Allows multiple concurrent exchange and enables network resources
D. Enables network resources and reduces perception of latency and Allows multiple concurrent exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?
A. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
B. Hyper Terminal Transfer Protocol
C. Hyper Text Terminal Protocol
D. Hyper Terminal Text Protocol
Ans: A
81. CoAP is specialized in ___________
A. Internet applications
B. Device applications
C. Wireless applications
D. Wired applications
Ans: A
82. Which protocol is used to link all the devices in the IoT?
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A
83. Data in network layer is transferred in the form of ____________
A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits
Ans:B
84. Services provided by application layer?
A. Web chat
B. Error control
C. Connection services
D. Congestion control
Ans: A
85. TCP and UDP are called?
A. Application protocols
B. Session protocols
C. Transport protocols
D. Network protocols
Ans: C
86. Security based connection is provided by which layer?
B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
87. Using which layer in transport layer data integrity can be assured?
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
C. Cyclic redundancy checks
D. Error correction codes
Ans: A
88. Transport layer receives data in the form of?
A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
D. both packet and Byte stream
Ans: B
89. The network layer is considered as the _______?
A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A
90. The network layer consists of which hardware devices?
A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D
91. Network layer protocol exits in_____?
A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A
92. Which protocol has a quality of service?
A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A
93. _____ is a data-centric middleware standard for device-to-device and machine-to-machine

communication.
A. Data Distribution Serviced (DDS)
B. Advance Message Queuing Protocol (AMQP)
C. Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol (XMPP)
D. Message Queue Telemetry Transport (MQTT)
Ans:A
94. _____ is a bi-directional, fully duplex communication model that uses a persistent connection between
client and server.
A. Request-Response
B. Publish-Subscriber
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
95. ___ is a stateful communication model and server is aware of all open connection.
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
96. Which is not an IoT communication model.
A. Request-Response
B. Publish-Subscribe
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C
97. In Node MCU, MCU stands for_____.
A. Micro Control Unit
B. Micro Controller Unit
C. Macro Control Unit
D. Macro Controller Unit
Ans: B
98. REST is acronym for________
A. Representational State Transfer
B. Represent State Transfer
C. Representational State Transmit
D. Representational Store Transfer
Ans: A
99. WSN stands for
A. Wide Sensor Network
B. Wireless Sensor Network
C. Wired Sensor Network

D. None of these
Ans: B
100. Benefit of cloud computing services
A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
C. Higher utilization
D. All of the above
Ans: D
101. PaaS stands for_____
A. Platform as a Service
B. Platform as a Survey
C. People as a Service
D. Platform as a Survey
Ans: A
102. _________ as a Service is a cloud computing infrastructure that creates a development environment
upon which applications may be build.
A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
103. _________ is a cloud computing service model in which hardware is virtualized in the cloud.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
D. None of the mentioned
Ans:A
104. Which of the following is the fundamental unit of virtualized client in an IaaS deployment?
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
d) all of the mentioned
Ans:C
105. ______ offering provides the tools and development environment to deploy applications on another
vendor’s application.
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B
106._________ is the most refined and restrictive service model.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
107. _____ is suitable for IOT applications to have low latency or high throughput requirements.
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D
108____ is a one of the most popular wireless technologies used by WSNs.
A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A
109. Zigbee specification are based on ______.
A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
110. ____ is a transformative computing paradigm that involves delivering applications and services over
the internet.
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
111. The process of collecting, organizing and collecting large sets of data called as
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. True
B. False
Ans.B
A. True
B. False
Ans.A
114. What do we use to connect TV to RPi?
A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
C. Male HDMI and Adapter
D. Female HDMI and Adapter
Ans.C
115. How power supply is done to RPi?
A. USB connection
B. Internal batteryC. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A
116. What is the Ethernet/LAN cable used in RPi?
A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D
117. Which instruction set architecture is used in Raspberry Pi?
A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D
118. Does micro SD card present in all modules?
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
119. Which characteristics involve the facility the thing to respond in an intelligent way to a particular
situation?
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A
120. ________ empowers IoT by bringing together everyday objects.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B
121. The collection of data is achieved with ________ changes.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
122. The number of devices that need to be managed and that communicate with each other will be much
larger.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
123. ________ in IoT as one of the key characteristics, devices have different hardware platforms and
networks.
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B
124. Devices that transforms electrical signals into physical movements
A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B
125. Stepper motors are_____
A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B
126. DC motors converts electrical into ___ energy.
A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A
127. Linear actuators are used in________
A. Machine tools
B. Industrial machinery
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A
128. Solenoid is a specially designed ________
A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C
A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B
130. Accelerometer sensors are used in______
A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C
131. Image sensors are found in_______
A. Cameras
B. Night-vision equipment
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D
132. Gas sensors are used to detect _____gases.
A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A
133. Properties of Arduino are:
A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D
134. Properties of IoT devices.
A. Sense
B. Send and receive data
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C
135. IoT devices are ____
A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None
Ans: B
A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
137. ___ is an open source electronic platform based on easy to used hardware and software.
A. Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A
138 ____ is used latching, locking, triggering.
A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
139. ____detect the presence or absence of nearby object without any physical contact.
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
140____ sensors include thermocouples, thermistors, resistor temperature detectors (RTDs) and integratd
circuits (ICs).
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Temperature Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B
141. The measurement of humidity is
A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
142 ____ sensor is used for automatic door controls, automatic parking system, automated sinks, automated
toilet flushers, hand dryers.
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D
143 ____ sensor measure heat emitted by objects.
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C
Chapter-3 Basics of Digital

Forensics
Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for
Ans: A
A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D
D. All of the above
Ans: D
5. In the past, the method for expressing an opinion has been to frame a ____ question based on available
factual evidence.
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
6. More subtle because you are not aware that you are running these macros (the document opens and the
application automatically runs); spread via email
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B
A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C
B. The application of computer science and investigative procedures for a legal purpose involving the
analysis of digital evidence after proper search authority, chain of custody, validation with mathematics, use
of validated tools, repeatability, reporting, and possible expert presentation
D. Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of the facts or evidence in a court of
law
Ans: B
A. Accessing the system's directories viewing mode and navigating through the various systems files and
folders
D. The identification, preservation, recovery, restoration and presentation of digital evidence from systems
and devices
Ans: D
D. The investigator must maintain strict confidentiality, discussing the results of an investigation on only a
“need to know”
Ans: B
B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
14. _______phase includes putting the pieces of a digital puzzle together and developing investigative
hypotheses
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
15. In _______phase investigator transfers the relevant data from a venue out of physical or administrative
control of the investigator to a controlled location
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
16. In _______phase investigator transfers the relevant data from a venue out of physical or administrative
control of the investigator to a controlled location
G. Survey phase
Ans:B
Ans: C
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D
B. A copy is made onto forensically sterile media. New media should always be used if available.
D. The examination must be conducted in such a way as to prevent any modification of the evidence.
Ans: A
20. To collect and analyze the digital evidence that was obtained from the physical investigation phase, is
the goal of which phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: B
21. To provide mechanism to an incident to be detected and confirmed is purpose of which phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C
A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A
A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B
Ans. D
A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A
D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
Ans: B
Ans: D
34. What is called as the process of creation a duplicate of digital media for purpose of examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
35. Which term refers for modifying a computer in a way which was not originally intended to view
Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
36. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a
law enforcement specialty called?
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B
C. Sabotage.
Ans. D
A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
41. __________is the process of recording as much data as possible to create reports and analysis on user
input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
Chapter 4- Digital Evidence

1. A valid definition of digital evidence is:
A. Data stored or transmitted using a computer
B. Information of probative value
C. Digital data of probative value
D. Any digital evidence on a computer
Ans: C
2. What are the three general categories of computer systems that can contain digital evidence?
A. Desktop, laptop, server
B. Personal computer, Internet, mobile telephone
C. Hardware, software, networks
D. Open computer systems, communication systems, and embedded systems
Ans: D
3. In terms of digital evidence, a hard drive is an example of:
A. Open computer systems
B. Communication systems
C. Embedded computer systems
Ans: A
4. In terms of digital evidence, a mobile telephone is an example of:
Ans: C
5. In terms of digital evidence, a Smart Card is an example of:

Ans: C
6. In terms of digital evidence, the Internet is an example of:
Ans: B
7. Computers can be involved in which of the following types of crime?
A. Homicide and sexual assault
B. Computer intrusions and intellectual property theft
C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D
8. A logon record tells us that, at a specific time:
A. An unknown person logged into the system using the account
B. The owner of a specific account logged into the system
C. The account was used to log into the system
Ans: C
9. Cyber trails are advantageous because:
A. They are not connected to the physical world.
B. Nobody can be harmed by crime on the Internet.
C. They are easy to follow.
D. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise would
have.
Ans: D
10. Private networks can be a richer source of evidence than the Internet because:
A. They retain data for longer periods of time.
B. Owners of private networks are more cooperative with law enforcement.
C. Private networks contain a higher concentration of digital evidence.
D. All the above.
Ans: C
11. Due to caseload and budget constraints, often computer security professionals attempt to limit
the damage and close each investigation as quickly as possible. Which of the following is NOT a
significant drawback to this approach?
A. Each unreported incident robs attorneys and law enforcement personnel of an opportunity to
learn about the basics of computer-related crime.
B. Responsibility for incident resolution frequently does not reside with the security
professional, but with management.
C. This approach results in under-reporting of criminal activity, deflating statistics that are used to
allocate corporate and government spending on combating computer-related crime.
D. Computer security professionals develop loose evidence processing habits that can make it
more difficult for law enforcement personnel and attorneys to prosecute an offender. None of the
above
Ans: B
12. The criminological principle which states that, when anyone, or anything, enters a crime scene
he/she takes something of the scene with him/her, and leaves something of himself/herself behind,
is:
A. Locard’s Exchange Principle
B. Differential Association Theory
C. Beccaria’s Social Contract
Ans: A
13. The author of a series of threatening e-mails consistently uses “im” instead of “I’m.” This is an
example of:
A. An individual characteristic
B. An incidental characteristic
C. A class characteristic
D. An indeterminate characteristic
Ans: A
14. Personal computers and networks are often a valuable source of evidence. Those involved
with should be comfortable with this technology.
A. Criminal investigation
B. Prosecution
C. Defense work
D. All of the above
Ans:
15. An argument for including computer forensic training computer security specialists is:
A. It provides an additional credential.
B. It provides them with the tools to conduct their own investigations.
C. It teaches them when it is time to call in law enforcement.
Ans: C
16. The digital evidence are used to establish a credible link between
A. Attacker and victim and the crime scene
B. Attacker and the crime scene
C. Victim and the crime scene
D. Attacker and Information
Ans: A
17. Digital evidences must follow the requirements of the
A. Ideal Evidence rule
B. Best Evidence rule
C. Exchange rule
D. All the mentioned
Ans: B
18. From the two given statements 1 and 2, select the correct option from a-d.
a. Original media can be used to carry out digital investigation process.
b. By default, every part of the victim’s computer is considered as unreliable.
A. a and b both are true
B. a is true and b is false
C. a and b both are false
D. a is false and b is true
Ans: B
19. The evidences or proof can be obtained from the electronic source is called the
A. digital evidence
B. demonstrative evidence
C. Explainable evidence
D. substantial evidence
Ans: A
A. Routing tables
B. Main memory
C. Log files
D. Cached data
Ans: C
21. The evidence must be usable in the court which is called as
A. Admissible
B. Authentic
C. Complete
D. Reliable
Ans: A22. Photographs, videos, sound recordings, X-rays, maps drawing, graphs, charts is a
a type of
A. Illustrative evidence
B. Electronic evidence
C. Documented evidence
D. Explainable evidence
Ans: A
23. Email, hard drives are examples of
Ans: B
24. Blood, fingerprints, DNA these are examples of
D. Substantial evidence
Ans: D
25. When an incident takes place, a criminal will leave a hint evidence at the scene and remove a
hint from the scene which is called as
A. Locard’s Exchange principle
B. Anderson’s Exchange principle
C. Charles’s Anthony principle
D. Kevin Ashton principle
Ans: A
26. Which is not procedure to establish a chain of custody?
A. Save the original materials.
B. Take photos of physical evidence.
C. Don’t take screenshots of digital evidence content.
D. Document date, time, and any other information of receipt.
Ans: C
27. Which is not related with digital evidence?
A. Work with the original evidence to develop procedures.

B. Use clean collecting media.
C. Document any extra scope.
D. Consider safety of personnel at the scene.
Ans: A28. Which is example of non-volatile memory.
A. Flash memory
B. Registers and Cache
C. Process table
D. Arp cache
Ans: A
29.
is known as testimonial.
A. Oath affidavit
B. DNA samples
C. Fingerprint
D. Dried blood
Ans: A
30.The process of ensuring that providing or obtaining the data that you have collected is similar
to the data provided or presented in a court is known as
A. Evidence validation
B. Relative evidence
C. Best evidence
D. Illustrative evidence
Ans: A
31. When cases got to trial your forensics examiner play one of
role.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Ans. A
32.Types of digital evidence
A. Eye witness
B. Picture and video
C. Paper work
Ans B
33.Rule of evidence is also known as
A. Law of witness
B. Law of litigation
C. Law of evidence
D. All of the above
Ans. CTrue or False Questions

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
2. Attorneys and police are encountering progressively more digital evidence in their
work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
3. Video surveillance can be a form of digital evidence.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
4. All forensic examinations should be performed on the original digital evidence.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
5. Digital evidence can be duplicated exactly without any changes to the original data.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
6. Computers were involved in the investigations into both World Trade Center attacks.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
7. Digital evidence is always circumstantial.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
8. Digital evidence alone can be used to build a solid case.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
9. Computers can be used by terrorists to detonate bombs.A. True
B. False
Ans: A
10. The aim of a forensic examination is to prove with certainty what occurred.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
11. Even digital investigations that do not result in legal action can benefit from principles of
forensic science.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
12. Forensic science is the application of science to investigation and prosecution of crime or to
the just resolution of conflict.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Chapter 5 Basics of Hacking

1. Ethical Hacking is also known as
A. Black Hat Hacking.
B. White Hat Hacking.
C. Encryption.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
2. Tool(s) used by ethical hacker
A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D
3. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds
A. Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
4. Ethical hacking will allow to all the massive security breaches.
A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
5. Sequential step hackers use are: _ _ _ _.
A. Maintaining Access.
B. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
6. is the art of exploiting the human elements to gain access to the authorized user.
A. Social Engineering.
B. IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A
7. Which hacker refers to ethical hacker?
A. Black hat hacker.
B. White hat hacker.
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B
8. The term cracker refers to
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A
9. Who described a dissertation on fundamentals of hacker’s attitude?
A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B
10.Computer Hackers have been in existence for more than a
A. Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C
11.Hackers do hack for?
A. Fame.
B. Profit.
C. Revenge.
D. All the above
Ans. D
12.The intent of ethical hacker is to discover vulnerabilities from a point of view to better secure
system.
A. Victims.
B. Attackers.
C. Both A & B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
13.Security audits are usually based on
A. Entries.
B. Checklists.
C. Both A & B
Ans. B
14.Ethical hacking consist of
A. Penetration testing.
B. Intrusion testing.
C. Red teaming.
D. All of the above.
Ans. D
15. is a person who find and exploits the weakness in computer system.
A. Victim
B. Hacker
C. Developer
Ans. B
16. A white hat hacker is the one who
A. Fix identifies weakness
B. Steal the data
C. Identifies the weakness and leave message to owner
Ans. A
17.A black hat hacker is the one who
B. Steal the data
Ans. B
18. A grey hat hacker is the one who
B. Steal the data
Ans. C
19. Keeping information secured can protect an organization image and save and organization lot
of money
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
20.Information is a one of the most valuable assets of organization
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
21. To catch a thief, think like
A. Police
B. Forensics
C. Thief
D. Hacker
Ans. C
22. can create false feeling of safety
A. Firewall
B. Encryption
C. VNPs
D. All the above
Ans. D
23. exploits that involves manipulating people and user even your self are the greatest
vulnerability within any computer
A. Nontechnical attacks
B. Network infrastructure attack
C. Operating system attack
D. Application and other specialized attack
Ans. A
24.Connecting into network through a rogue modem attached to computer behind a firewall is an
example of -
Ans. B
25. comprise of large portion of hacker attacks simply because every computer has one and so
well know exploits can be used against them
Ans. C
26. should be done before ethical hacking process.
A. Data gathering.
B. Attacking
C. Planning
D. Research
Ans. C
27.Which permission is necessary before ethical hacking?
A. Written permission.
B. Decision maker permission
C. Privacy permission
D. Risk permission.
Ans. A
28. Which tool is used to crack the password?
A. Nmap
B. LC4
C. ToneLOC
D. Nessus
Ans. B
29. Which tool is used for depth analysis of a web application?
A. Whisker
B. Super scan
C. Nikto
D. Kismet
Ans. A
30. Which tool is used to encrypt Email?
A. WebInspect
B. QualyGuard
C. PGP (pretty good privacy)
Ans. C
31.Malicious attacker often think like?
A. Thieves
B. Kidnapper
C. Both A & B
Ans. C
32.Which hacker try to distribute political or social message through their work?
A. Black hat hacker
B. Hactivist
C. Script kiddes
D. White hat hacker
Ans. B
33.are part of organized crime on internet.
A. Criminal
B. Antinationalist
C. Hacker for hire
Ans. C
34. Which magazines releases the latest hacking methods?
A. 2600
B. Hackin9
C. PHRACK
D. All the above
Ans. D
35. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is
ethical
practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
C. very good social engineering practice
D. a bad
Ans. D
36.has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for unethical hacking.
A. Automated apps
B. Database software
C. Malware
D. Worms
Ans. C
37. Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of senior authority
is a crime.
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
38. A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the & requirements of a firm while
evaluating the security postures.
A. privacy and security
B. rules and regulations
C. hacking techniques
D. ethics to talk to seniors
Ans. A
39. The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to of personal data.
A. stealing
B. disclosure
C. deleting
D. hacking
Ans. B
40. Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key points listed below
is not mandatory?
A. Know the nature of the organization
B. Characteristics of work done in the firm
C. System and network
D. Type of broadband company used by the firm
Ans. D
Chapter-6 Types of Hacking

1. SNMP stands for
A. Simple Network Messaging Protocol
B. Simple Network Mailing Protocol
C. Simple Network Management Protocol
D. Simple Network Master Protocol
Ans: C
2. Which of the following tool is used for Network Testing and port Scanning
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D
3. Banner grabbing is used for
A. White Hat Hacking
B. Black Hat Hacking
C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A
4. An attacker can create an attack by sending hundreds or thousands of e-mails a with very large
attachments.
A. Connection Attack
B. Auto responder Attack
C. Attachment Overloading Attack
D. All the above
Ans: B
5. Which of the following tool is used for Windows for network queries from DNS lookups to trace
routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A
6. Which tool is used for ping sweeps and port scanning?
A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
7. Which of the following tool is used for security checks as port scanning and firewall testing?
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A
8. What is the most important activity in system cracking?
A. Information gathering
B. Cracking password
C. Escalating privileges
D. Covering tracks
Ans: B
9. Which Nmap scan is does not completely open a TCP connection?
A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A
10.Key loggers are form of
A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
D. Social engineering
Ans: A
11. Nmap is abbreviated as Network Mapper.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
12. is a popular tool used for discovering network as well as security auditing.
A. Ettercap
B. Metasploit
C. Nmap
D. Burp Suit
Ans: C
13. Which of this Nmap do not check?
A. Services different hosts are offering
B. On what OS they are running.
C. What kind of firewall in use?
D. What type of antivirus in use?
Ans: D
14. What is purpose of Denial of Service attacks?
A. Exploit weakness in TCP/IP attack.
B. To execute a trojan horse on a system.
C. To overload a system so it is no longer operational.
D. To shutdown services by turning them off.
Ans: C
15. What are the some of the most common vulnerabilities that exist in a network system?
A. Changing manufacturer, or recommended settings of newly installed application.
B. Additional unused feature on commercial software package.
C. Utilizing open source application code.
D. Balancing security and ease of use of system.
Ans: B
16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ethical hacker?
A. Excellent knowledge of Windows.
B. Understands the process of exploiting network vulnerabilities.
C. Patience, persistence and perseverance.
D. Has the highest level of security for the organization.
Ans: D
17. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s credentials is called the mode of
ethical hacking.
A. Local networking
B. Social engineering
C. Physical entry
D. Remote networking
Ans: A
18. The first phase of hacking an IT system is compromise of which foundation ofsecurity?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication
Ans: B
19. Why would a ping sweep be used?

A. To identify live systems
B. To locate live systems
C. To identify open ports
D. To locate firewalls
Ans: A
20. What are the port states determined by Nmap?
A. Active, inactive, standby
B. Open, half-open, closed
C. Open, filtered, unfiltered
D. Active, closed, unused
Ans: C
21. What port does Telnet use?
A. 22
B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Ans: D
22. Which of the following will allow foot printing to be conducted without detection?
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
Ans: D
23. Performing hacking activities with the intent on gaining visibility for an unfair situation is called
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
Ans: C
24. Why would a hacker use a proxy server?
A. To create a stronger connection with the target.
B. To create a ghost server on the network.
C. To obtain a remote access connection
D. To hide malicious activity on the network
Ans: A
25. Which phase of hacking performs actual attack on a network or system?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Maintaining Access
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
Ans: D
26. Sniffing is used to perform fingerprinting.
A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
C. Passive banner grabbing
D. Scanned
Ans: A
27. Services running on a system are determined by
A. The system’s IP address
B. The Active Directory
C. The system’s network name
D. The port assigned
Ans: D
28. What are the types of scanning?
A. Port, network, and services
B. Network, vulnerability, and port
C. Passive, active, and interactive
D. Server, client, and network
Ans: B
29. Enumeration is part of what phase of ethical hacking?
A. Reconnaissance
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
Ans: C
30.framework made cracking of vulnerabilities easy like point and click.
A. Net
B. Metasploit
C. Zeus
D. Ettercap
Ans: B
31.is a popular IP address and port scanner.
A. Cain and Abel
B. Snort
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Ettercap
Ans: C
32.is a popular tool used for network analysis in multiprotocol diverse network
A. Snort
B. SuperScan
C. Burp Suit
D. EtterPeak
Ans: D
33 scans TCP ports and resolves different hostnames.
A. SuperScan
B. Snort
C. Ettercap
D. QualysGuard .
Ans: A
34. What tool can be used to perform SNMP enumeration?
A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
D. IP Network Browser
Ans: D
35. Wireshark is a tool.
A. network protocol analysis
B. network connection security
C. connection analysis
D. defending malicious packet-filtering
Ans: A
36. Aircrack-ng is used for
A. Firewall bypassing
B. Wi-Fi attacks
C. Packet filtering
D. System password cracking
Ans: B
37. Phishing is a form of
A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
Ans: C
Ans: B
39 is used for searching of multiple hosts in order to target just one specific open port.
A. Ping Sweep
B. Port scan
C. Ipconfig
D. Spamming
Ans: A
40. ARP spoofing is often referred to as
A. Man-in-the-Middle attack
B. Denial-of-Service attack
C. Sniffing
D. Spoofing
Ans: A
41.is a tool that allows you to look into network and analyze data going across the wire for network
optimization, security and troubleshooting purposes.
A. Network analyzer
B. Crypt tool
C. John-the -Ripper
D. Back track
Ans: A
42. is not a function of network analyzer tool.
A. Captures all network traffic
B. Interprets or decodes what is found into a human-readable format.
C. Displays it all in chronological order.
D. Banner grabbing
Ans: D
43.protocol is used for network monitoring.
A. FTP SNMP
B.
C. RELNET
D. ARP
Ans: A
44. What is the attack called “evil twin”?
A. rouge access point
B. ARP poisoning
C. session hijacking
D. MAC spoofing
Ans: A
45.What is the primary goal of an ethical hacker?
A. avoiding detection
B. testing security controls
C. resolving security vulnerabilities
D. determining return on investment for security measures
Ans: C
46. What are the forms of password cracking technique?
A. Attack syllable
B. Attack brute forcing
C. Attacks hybrid
D. All the above
Ans: D
45.Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network?
A. black-hat hackers
B. grey-hat hackers
C. script kiddies
D. disgruntled employees
Ans: D
46. Hacking for a cause is called
A. hacktivism
B. black-hat hacking
C. active hacking
D. activism
Ans: A
47. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the internet it is known as what type of attack?
A. local access
B. remote attack
C. internal attack
D. physical access
Ans: B
49. A type of attack that overloads the resources of a single system to cause it to crash or hang.
A. Resource Starvation
B. Active Sniffing
C. Passive Sniffing
D. Session Hijacking
Ans. C
50.In computer networking, is any technical effort to manipulate the normal behavior of network
connections and connected systems.
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
51.generally refers to unauthorized intrusion into a computer or a network.
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
52.We can eliminate many well-known network vulnerabilities by simply patch-ing your network
hosts with their latest and
A. Hckers and Prackers
B. Vendor software and firmware patches
C. Software amd Hardware
D. None of above
Ans:-B
53.Network consist devices such as routers, firewalls, hosts that you must assess as a part of
process.
A. Prackers
B. Black hat hacking
C. Grey hat hacking process
D. Ethical hacking process.
Ans:-D
54.Network infrastructure vulnerabilities are the foundation for most technical security issues in
your information systems.
A. Operating system vulnerabilities
B. Web vulnerabilities
C. Wireless network vulnerabilities
D. Network infrastructure vulnerabilities
Ans:-D
55.attack, which can take down your Internet connection or your entire network.
A. MAC
B. DOS
C. IDS
D. None of above
Ans:-B
56.DOS stands for
A. Detection of system
B. Denial of Service
C. Detection of service
D. None of above
Ans:-B
57.IDS stands for
A. Intrusion detection system
B. Information documentation service
C. Intrusion documentation system
D. None of above
Ans:-A
58. Which protocols are in use is vulnerable
A. TCL
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Ans:-B
59. SSL stands for
A. Secure Sockets Layer
B. Software Security Layer
C. Socket security layer
D. System software layer
Ans:-A
60.include phishing, SQL injection, hacking, social engineering, spamming, denial of service
attacks, Trojans, virus and worm attacks.
Ans:-D
61.Who invent worm attack
A. Brightn Godfrey
B. Alan yeung
C. Robert Morris
D. None of above
Ans:-C
62. Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of an ethical hacker?
Ans:-D
63. What is the purpose of a Denial of Service attack?
A. Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
B. To execute a Trojan on a system
C. To overload a system so it is no longer operational
D. To shutdown services by turning them off
Ans:- C
64.What are some of the most common vulnerabilities that exist in a network or system?
A. Changing manufacturer, or recommended, settings of a newly installed application.
B. Additional unused features on commercial software packages.
C. Utilizing open source application code
D. Balancing security concerns with functionality and ease of use of a system.
Ans:B
65. What is the sequence of a TCP connection?
A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans:B
C. To identify open portsD. To locate firewalls
Ans:-A
67. A packet with no flags set is which type of scan?
A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL
Ans:-D
cwipedia.in
Question Bank (I scheme)
Name of Subject: Emerging Trends in Computer Engineering and Information Technology

Subject Code: 22618 Courses: CW6I Semester: VI
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1- Artificial Intelligence
Ans: B
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
solving? A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
5. What of the following is considered to be a pivotal event in the history of AI. A.
1949, Donald O, The organization of Behavior.
Ans: C
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B

A. History
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

Ans: C

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

B. Game Playing
C. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
15. The first widely used commercial form of Artificial Intelligence (Al) is being used in many
What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
16. What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense part of
problem solving? A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
17. ______ is a branch of computer science which deals with helping machines finds solutions to
complex problems in a more human like fashions
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
18. In ____ the goal is for the software to use what it has learned in one area to solve problems in
other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
19. Computer programs that mimic the way the human brain processes information is called as
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
20. A ____ is a rule of thumb, strategy, trick, simplification, or any other kind of device which
drastically limits search for solutions in large problem spaces.
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
27. PROLOG is an AI programming language which solves problems with a form of symbolic
logic known as ______.
B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG D. NLP
Ans: A
32. ______ that deals with the interaction between computers and humans using the
natural language A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: D

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
37. Sensing organs as input, mechanical movement organs as output and central nervous system
(CNS) in brain as control and computing devices is known as _____ of human being
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
39. Chomsky’s linguistic computational theory generated a model for syntactic analysis through
__________
A. Regular Grammar
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
D. Program, Program
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

C. The study of mental faculties through the use of mental models implemented on a computer
D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

D. All of the above
Ans: A

D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
49. ____ AI is a type of intelligence which could perform any intellectual task with efficiency
like human. A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
50. The idea behind _________AI to make such a system which could be smarter and think like
a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
Ans: A
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
53. Machine can perform any task better than human with cognitive properties is known as ___
AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
54. Ability to think, puzzle, make judgments, plan, learn, communication by its own is known as
___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
Ans: A
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B [Car stores recent speed of nearby cars, distance of others car, speed limit, other
62. Which AI should understand the human emotions, people, and beliefs and be able to interact
socially like humans. A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: A
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C

Ans: A
67______________is a branch of science that deals with programing the systems in such a way
that they automatically learn and improve with experience
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
68. Classifying email as a spam, labeling webpages based on their content, voice recognition are
the example of _____. A. Supervised learning
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
70. Deep learning is a subfield of machine learning where concerned algorithms are inspired by
the structured and function of the brain called _____.
A. Machine learning
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E

C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C

A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D

Ans: A

E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C

A. high power
B. low power
D. low code density
Ans: B

D. United Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter Ans: C

Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: A

B. Pipe-ling
Ans: D
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: E

Ans: A

A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
Ans: A

C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is

C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for

Ans: B

Ans: D
30. ______________ is the smallest microcontrollers which can be programmed to perform a

large range of tasks. A. PIC microcontrollers
Ans: - A

A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________. A.

Advanced Virtual RISC.
C. Both A & B
Ans: - C
33. AVR microcontroller executes most of the instruction in _________________. A.

Single execution cycle.
C. Both A& B
Ans: - A

A. Edward L. Schneider B.
Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
35. The huge numbers of devices connected to the Internet of Things have to communicate
automatically, not via humans, what is this called?
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B

A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
37. Interconnection of Internet and computing devices embedded in everyday objects, enabling
them to send and receive data is called_____________
D. None of these
Ans: A
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A
39 _____ devices may support a number of interoperable communication protocols and

communicate with other device and also with infrastructure.
B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for

D. None of above
Ans:B

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B

B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
Ans: - A
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
47. The sensed data communicated ___________________. A.

Cloud-based servers/storage.
B. I/O interfaces.
Ans: - A
48. IOT devices are various types, for instance______________. A.

Wearable sensors.
B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4 Ans:D
53. LR-WPANs standards from basis of specifications for high level communication protocol
such as ___. A. Zigbee
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
57. _____________ layer protocols determine how the data is physically sent over the network’s
physical layer or medium.
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer Ans: - D
58 _______ layer is responsible for sending of IP datagrams from the source network to the
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
60. _____________ protocols provide end to end message transfer capability independent of the
underlying network. A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
61. The ___ protocols define how the applications interface with the lower layer protocol to send
the data over the network.
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A

D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Coaxial cable
Ans: - B
64. IEEE 802.11 standards provide data rates ______________ A.

10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C

A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
66. _______________ is useful for time-sensitive application that have very small data units to
exchange and do not want the overhead of connection setup.
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Transport layer D. None of the above.
Ans: - B
67. ____________ protocol uses Universal Resource Identifiers (URIs) to identify HTTP
resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________

Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A
C. Message
Ans: A
D. Enables network resources and reduces perception of latency and Allows multiple concurrent
exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?

Ans: A

Ans: A
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits Ans:B

A. Web chat
B. Error control
Ans: A

Ans: C

B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
Ans: A

A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
Ans: B

A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A

A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A

A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A

communication.
Ans:A
94. _____ is a bi-directional, fully duplex communication model that uses a persistent connection
between client and server. A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D

A. Request-Response
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C

Ans: B

Ans: A
99. WSN stands for

D. None of these
Ans: B

A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
D. All of the above
Ans: D

Ans: A
102. _________ as a Service is a cloud computing infrastructure that creates a development

environment upon which applications may be build.
A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
103. _________ is a cloud computing service model in which hardware is virtualized in the
cloud. A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans:A
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
Ans:C
105. ______ offering provides the tools and development environment to deploy applications on
another vendor’s application.
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B

A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D

A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A
A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
110. ____ is a transformative computing paradigm that involves delivering applications and
services over the internet.
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C

A. True
B. False
Ans.B

A. True
B. False
Ans.A

A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
Ans.C

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A

A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
119. Which characteristics involve the facility the thing to respond in an intelligent way to a
particular situation? A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
122. The number of devices that need to be managed and that communicate with each other will
be much larger. A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
123. ________ in IoT as one of the key characteristics, devices have different hardware
platforms and networks.
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A

A. Machine tools
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A

A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Cameras
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D

A. Sense
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None Ans: B

A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
137. ___ is an open source electronic platform based on easy to used hardware and software. A.
Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
140____ sensors include thermocouples, thermistors, resistor temperature detectors (RTDs) and
integratd circuits (ICs).
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
142 ____ sensor is used for automatic door controls, automatic parking system, automated sinks,
automated toilet flushers, hand dryers.
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C
Chapter-3 Basics of Digital Forensics
1. Digital forensics is all of them except: A.

Extraction of computer data.
Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for

Ans: A
3. Who proposed Road Map for Digital Forensic Research (RMDFR) A.

G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D
4. Investigator should satisfy following points: A.

Contribute to society and human being.
D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
D. computer-specific crime Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989 Ans:
B

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's Ans:
C

expert presentation
Ans: B

files and folders
Ans: D

D. The investigator must maintain strict confidentiality, discussing the results of an
investigation on only a “need to know”
Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B
17. Computer forensics do not involve_____activity. A.

Preservation of computer data.
Ans: C
18. A set of instruction compiled into a program that perform a particular task is known as: A.
Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D

available.
evidence.
Ans: A
phase, is the goal of which phase? A. Physical crime investigation
C. Review phase.
Ans: B

phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
24. ___________is well established science where various contribution have been made A.
Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B
27. Which of the following is not a property of computer evidence? A.

Authentic and Accurate.
D. Conform and Human Readable. Ans. D

A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A
30. Which of following are general Ethical norms for Investigator? A.

To contribute to society and human being.
D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
31. Which of following are Unethical norms for Investigator? A.

Uphold any relevant evidence.
D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
32. Which of following is not general ethical norm for Investigator? A.

Ans: B
33. Which of following is a not unethical norm for Digital Forensics Investigation? A.
D. To respect the privacy of others. Ans: D
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography. C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
view Information? A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
38. Using what, data hiding in encrypted images be carried out in digital forensics? A.
Acquisition.
B. Steganography. C.
Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B

A. e-mail harassment B.
Falsification of data.
C. Sabotage.
Ans. D

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
on user input. A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
Happy Learning!
www.cwipedia.in
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QUESTION BANK
Unit Test-II
Program: - Computer Engineering Group Program Code:- CM/IF
/CW
Course Title: -Emerging Trends in Computer Technology Semester: - Sixth
ETI (22618) Scheme: I
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Chapter 4- Digital Evidence (CO4)
1. A valid definition of digital evidence is: A. Data stored or transmitted using a computer
Ans: C
Ans: D

Ans: A

Ans: C

Ans: C

Ans: B

C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D

Ans: C

D. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise
would have.
Ans: D
10. Private networks can be a richer source of evidence than the Internet because: A. They retain
data for longer periods of time.
D. All the above.
Ans: C
the damage and close each investigation as quickly as possible. Which of the following is NOT
a significant drawback to this approach?
A. Each unreported incident robs attorneys and law enforcement personnel of an opportunity
to learn about the basics of computer-related crime.
C. This approach results in under-reporting of criminal activity, deflating statistics that are
used to allocate corporate and government spending on combating computer-related crime.
D. Computer security professionals develop loose evidence processing habits that can make
it more difficult for law enforcement personnel and attorneys to prosecute an offender.
None of the above
Ans: B
he/she takes something of the scene with him/her, and leaves something of himself/herself
behind, is:
Ans: A
13. The author of a series of threatening e-mails consistently uses “im” instead of “I’m.” This is
an example of:
Ans: A
14. Personal computers and networks are often a valuable source of evidence. Those involved with
_______ should be comfortable with this technology.
B. Prosecution
C. Defense work
D. All of the above Ans:
15. An argument for including computer forensic training computer security specialists is: A. It
provides an additional credential.
D. None of the above. Ans: C
16. The digital evidence are used to establish a credible link between____________
Ans: A
17. Digital evidences must follow the requirements of the ___________

C. Exchange rule
Ans: B

Ans: B
19. The evidences or proof can be obtained from the electronic source is called the ___________
A. digital evidence
Ans: A

A. Routing tables
B. Main memory
C. Log files
D. Cached data
Ans: C
21. The evidence must be usable in the court which is called as_______
A. Admissible
B. Authentic
C. Complete
D. Reliable
Ans: A
22. Photographs, videos, sound recordings, X-rays, maps drawing, graphs, charts is a a type of
_____________
Ans: A
23. Email, hard drives are examples of ____________

Ans: B
24. Blood, fingerprints, DNA these are examples of____________

Ans: D
hint from the scene which is called as ____________
Ans: A
26. Which is not procedure to establish a chain of custody? A. Save the original materials. B. Take
photos of physical evidence.
Ans: C

Ans: A
28. Which is example of non-volatile memory.

A. Flash memory
C. Process table
D. Arp cache
Ans: A
29._________ is known as testimonial.

A. Oath affidavit
B. DNA samples
C. Fingerprint
D. Dried blood
Ans: A
to the data provided or presented in a court is known as___________
C. Best evidence
Ans: A
31. When cases got to trial your forensics examiner play one of ____ role.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3 D. 5
Ans. A
A. Eye witness
C. Paper work
Ans B
33.Rule of evidence is also known as __________
A. Law of witness
C. Law of evidence
D. All of the above
Ans. C
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----
True or False Questions

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
2. Attorneys and police are encountering progressively more digital evidence in their work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
5. Digital evidence can be duplicated exactly without any changes to the original data. A. True
B. False
Ans: B
6. Computers were involved in the investigations into both World Trade Center attacks. A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
9. Computers can be used by terrorists to detonate bombs. A. True

B. False
Ans: A
10. The aim of a forensic examination is to prove with certainty what occurred. A. True
B. False
Ans: B
forensic science.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Chapter 5
Basics of Hacking (CO5)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Ethical Hacking is also known as _____ A. Black Hat

Hacking.
C. Encryption.
D. None of these. Ans. B
2. Tool(s) used by ethical hacker_____.

A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D
3. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds_____. A.

Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
4. Ethical hacking will allow to____ all the massive security

breaches. A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
5. Sequential step hackers use are: _ _ _ _. A. Maintaining

Access. B. Reconnaissance C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
6. ______ is the art of exploiting the human elements to gain
access to the authorized user. A. Social Engineering. B.
IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A
7. Which hacker refers to ethical hacker? A. Black hat

hacker.
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B
8. The term cracker refers to_____ A. Black hat hacker.

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A
9. Who described a dissertation on fundamentals of hacker’s

attitude? A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B
10.Computer Hackers have been in existence for more than a____. A.

Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C
11.Hackers do hack for? A.

Fame.
B. Profit.
C. Revenge.
D. All the above
Ans. D
12.The intent of ethical hacker is to discover vulnerabilities from a_____ point of view to better
secure system.
A. Victims.
B. Attackers.
C. Both A & B D. None of these.
Ans. B
13.Security audits are usually based on___ A. Entries.

B. Checklists.
C. Both A & B
Ans. B
14.Ethical hacking consist of _______ A.

Penetration testing.
C. Red teaming.
Ans. D
15._______ is a person who find and exploits the weakness in computer system.
A. Victim
B. Hacker
C. Developer
Ans. B
16. A white hat hacker is the one who _____

B. Steal the data
Ans. A
17.A black hat hacker is the one who _______

B. Steal the data
D. None of the above. Ans. B
18. A grey hat hacker is the one who_______
B. Steal the data
Ans. C
of money
A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. True
B. False
Ans. A
21. To catch a thief, think like _____

A. Police
B. Forensics
C. Thief
D. Hacker
Ans. C
22._______can create false feeling of safety

A. Firewall
B. Encryption
C. VNPs
D. All the above
Ans. D
23.______ exploits that involves manipulating people and user even your self are the greatest
Ans. A
example of ____-
Ans. B
25.______ comprise of large portion of hacker attacks simply because every computer has one
and so well know exploits can be used against them
Ans. C
26.______ should be done before ethical hacking process. A.

Data gathering.
B. Attacking C.
Planning
D. Research
Ans. C
27.Which permission is necessary before ethical hacking? A.

Written permission.
B. Decision maker permission C.
Privacy permission D. Risk
permission.
Ans. A

A. Nmap
B. LC4
C. ToneLOC
D. Nessus
Ans. B

A. Whisker
B. Super scan
C. Nikto
D. Kismet Ans. A
A. WebInspect
B. QualyGuard
Ans. C

A. Thieves
B. Kidnapper
C. Both A & B
Ans. C
A. Black hat hacker
B. Hactivist
C. Script kiddes
D. White hat hacker
Ans. B
33._______ are part of organized crime on internet.

A. Criminal
B. Antinationalist
C. Hacker for hire
Ans. C

A. 2600
B. Hackin9
C. PHRACK
D. All the above
Ans. D
35. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is ____________ ethical
practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
D. a bad Ans. D
36. ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for unethical
hacking.
A. Automated apps
C. Malware
D. Worms
Ans. C
is a crime.
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
38. A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the ___________ & ___________
requirements of a firm while evaluating the security postures.
Ans. A
39. The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of personal data. A.
stealing
B. disclosure
C. deleting
D. hacking
Ans. B
is not mandatory?
Ans. D
Chapter-6
Types of Hacking (CO6)
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. SNMP stands for_____

Ans: C
2. Which of the following tool is used for Network Testing and port Scanning______
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D
3. Banner grabbing is used for A. White Hat Hacking

C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A
4. An attacker can create an________attack by sending hundreds or thousands of e-mails a with

very large attachments.
D. All the above
Ans: B
5. Which of the following tool is used for Windows for network queries from DNS lookups to
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A

A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A
8. What is the most important activity in system cracking? A. Information gathering

D. Covering tracks
Ans: B

A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A

A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
12. _________is a popular tool used for discovering network as well as security auditing.
A. Ettercap
B. Metasploit
C. Nmap
D. Burp Suit Ans: C
Ans: D
14. What is purpose of Denial of Service attacks? A. Exploit weakness in TCP/IP attack. B. To
execute a trojan horse on a system.
Ans: C
15. What are the some of the most common vulnerabilities that exist in a network system? A.
Changing manufacturer, or recommended settings of newly installed application.
Ans: B
16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ethical hacker? A. Excellent knowledge of
Windows.
Ans: D
17. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s credentials is called the
_____________ mode of ethical hacking.
A. Local networking
C. Physical entry
Ans: A
18. The first phase of hacking an IT system is compromise of which foundation of security?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication Ans: B
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. 22 B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Ans: D
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
Ans: D
23. Performing hacking activities with the intent on gaining visibility for an unfair situation is
called ________.
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
Ans: C

D. To hide malicious activity on the network Ans: A

A. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
Ans: D
26. Sniffing is used to perform ______________ fingerprinting.

A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
D. Scanned
Ans: A
27. Services running on a system are determined by _____________.

Ans: D
28. What are the types of scanning? A. Port, network, and services
Ans: B

A. Reconnaissance
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
Ans: C
30. ______________ framework made cracking of vulnerabilities easy like point and click.
A. Net
B. Metasploit
C. Zeus
D. Ettercap Ans: B
31.__________ is a popular IP address and port scanner.
A. Cain and Abel
B. Snort
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Ettercap
Ans: C
32.________ is a popular tool used for network analysis in multiprotocol diverse network
A. Snort
B. SuperScan
C. Burp Suit
D. EtterPeak
Ans: D
33___________ scans TCP ports and resolves different hostnames.

A. SuperScan
B. Snort
C. Ettercap D. QualysGuard .
Ans: A

A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
Ans: D
35. Wireshark is a ____________ tool.

Ans: A
36. Aircrack-ng is used for ____________

B. Wi-Fi attacks
C. Packet filtering
Ans: B
37. Phishing is a form of ____________________.

A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
Ans: C
Ans: B
39 _____ is used for searching of multiple hosts in order to target just one specific open port.
A. Ping Sweep
B. Port scan
C. Ipconfig
D. Spamming
Ans: A
40. ARP spoofing is often referred to as_____

C. Sniffing
D. Spoofing
Ans: A
41. ______is a tool that allows you to look into network and analyze data going across the wire
for network optimization, security and troubleshooting purposes.
A. Network analyzer
B. Crypt tool
C. John-the -Ripper
D. Back track
Ans: A
42. _________ is not a function of network analyzer tool.

C. Displays it all in chronological order. D. Banner grabbing Ans: D
43. _____ protocol is used for network monitoring.
A. FTP SNMP
B.
C. RELNET
D. ARP
Ans: A
44. What is the attack called “evil twin”? A. rouge access point
B. ARP poisoning
D. MAC spoofing
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. Attack syllable
C. Attacks hybrid
D. All the above
Ans: D

B. grey-hat hackers
C. script kiddies
Ans: D
46. Hacking for a cause is called______

A. hacktivism
C. active hacking
D. activism
Ans: A
47. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the internet it is known as what type of attack? A.
local access
B. remote attack
C. internal attack
D. physical access
Ans: B
B. Active Sniffing
C. Passive Sniffing
Ans. C
50.In computer networking, ____ is any technical effort to manipulate the normal behavior of
network connections and connected systems.
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
51._____ generally refers to unauthorized intrusion into a computer or a network.

A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
hosts with their latest ______and______.
D. None of above
Ans:-B
______ process.
A. Prackers
B. Black hat hacking C. Grey hat hacking process
Ans:-D
54. Network infrastructure vulnerabilities are the foundation for most technical security issues in
Ans:-D
55.____ attack, which can take down your Internet connection or your entire network.
A. MAC
B. DOS
C. IDS
D. None of above
Ans:-B
56.DOS stands for A. Detection

of system
D. None of above
Ans:-B
57.IDS stands for ____

D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. TCL
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Ans:-B
59. SSL stands for_____ A. Secure Sockets Layer

Ans:-A
60. ____ include phishing, SQL injection, hacking, social engineering, spamming, denial of
service attacks, Trojans, virus and worm attacks.
Ans:-D
61.Who invent worm attack___

A. Brightn Godfrey
B. Alan yeung
C. Robert Morris
D. None of above
Ans:-C
62. Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of an ethical hacker? A. Excellent
knowledge of Windows.
Ans:-D
Ans:- C
D. Balancing security concerns with functionality and ease of use of a system. Ans:B

A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans:B

Ans:-A
A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL
Ans:-D
Happy Learning! cwipedia.in

Unit 1: Artificial Intelligence
1) What is Artificial Intelligence?

a. Putting your intelligence into computer
d. Playing a game
2) _____is a branch of Science which deals with helping machines find solutions to complex problems in
a more human-like fashion.
a. Artificial Intelligence
b. Internet of Things
c. Embedded System
d. Cyber Security
3) In ____ the goal is for the software to use what it has learned in one area to solve problems in other
areas.
a. Machine learning
b. Deep learning
c. Neural networks
d. None of these
4) Computer programs that mimic the way the human brain processes information is called as
a. Machine learning
b. Deep learning
c. Neural networks
d. None of these
5) The core components and constituents of AI are derived from

a. Concept of logic
b. Cognition
c. Computation
d. All of above
6) Chomsky’s linguistic computational theory generated a model for syntactic analysis through
a. Regular grammar
b. Regular expression
c. Regular word
d. None of these
7) These machines only focus on current scenario and react on it as per possible best action
a. Reactive Machines
b. Limited Memory
c. Theory of Mind
d. Self-Awareness
8) _____ the father of AI described AI as, “The science and engineering of making intelligent machines,
especially intelligent computer programs”.
a. Margaret Geller
b. James Watson
c. John McCarthy
d. Donald Knuth
9) AI is built on _____, ______ & ______ concept.

a. IoT, Deep learning, Embedded System
b. Ethical Hacking, Digital Forensics, Neural network
c. Machine Learning, Deep learning, Neural Network
d. None of the above.
10) ____ is a message that contains relevant meaning, implication or input for decision and/or action.
a. Information
b. Data
c. Knowledge
d. Intelligence
11) _______ requires ability to sense the environment, to make decisions, and to control action.
a. Information
b. Data
c. Knowledge
d. Intelligence
12) ______ is not factors that characterize a career in AI.

a. Automation
b. Robotics
c. Animation
d. The use of sophisticated computer software.
13) Which skills are imperative to convey how AI services and tools will help when employed within
industry settings?
a. Communication Skills (written & verbal)
b. Reading skills
c. Animation
14) Pursuing a career in the field of AI we require specific education based on the foundation of ____,
technology, logic and engineering perspective.
a. Math
b. Science
c. Thinking
d. History
15) ______ do not guarantee optimal solutions; in fact, they do not guarantee any solution at all.
a. Cognitive Science
b. Heuristics
c. Turing Test
d. GPS
16) ______ is Cognitive science approach.

a. Think Well
b. Act Well
c. Think like Humans
d. Act like humans
17) In terms of AI approach GPS stands for_____.

a. Global Positioning System
b. General Problem Solver
c. General Purpose System
18) Act like humans approach is also called as _____.

a. Behaviorist Approach
b. Cognitive Science Approach
c. Heuristics
d. Turing Test
19) ELIZA was coded at MIT by ______.

a. John McCarthy
b. Joel Weizenbaum.
c. James Watson
d. Donald Knuth
20) ELIZA was coded at MIT during ______.

a. 1944-1946
b. 1954-1956
c. 1964-1966
d. 1974-1976
21) The compound components are built up through core components are___
a. Knowledge
b. Reasoning, search
c. NLP, Vision
d. All of the above
22) The philosophy of AI is ____ dimensional representation.

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
23) The AI x-direction consists of _____

a. Logic, cognition and computation
b. Knowledge, reasoning and interface
c. Language, vision and perception
24) The AI y-direction consists of _____.

25) The AI z-direction consists of _____.

26) The power of computation logic demonstrated by_____.

a. Turing
b. Bertrand Russell
c. John McCarthy
d. Charles Babbage and Boole
27) The modern philosopher such as ______ correlated logic with mathematics.
a. Turing
b. Bertrand Russell
c. John McCarthy
28) Who developed the theory of computation for mechanization?

a. Turing
b. Bertrand Russell
c. John McCarthy
29) In ____ Marvin Minsky pushed the logical formalism to integrate reasoning with knowledge.
a. 1940s
b. 1959s
c. 1960s
d. 1966s
30) KBS stands for___
a. Knowledge Based System
b. Knowledge of Basic Science
c. Knowledge Behave System
31) Which is a type of AI _______

a. Based on Capabilities
b. Based on Functionalities
c. Both a and b
d. Only a
32) ______ AI is a type of AI which is able to perform a dedicated task with intelligence.
a. General AI
b. Strong AI
c. Narrow AI
d. Reactive AI
33) Narrow AI is also called as ________.

a. General AI
b. Strong AI
c. Weak AI
d. Reactive AI
34) ______ is a good example of Narrow AI.

a. Apple Siriis
b. IBM’s Watson supercomputer
c. Playing Chess
d. All of the above
35) ________ AI is a type of intelligence which could perform any intellectual task with efficiency like a
human.
a. General AI
b. Strong AI
c. Narrow AI
d. Reactive AI
36) IBM’s Deep Blue system is an example of ______

b. Limited Memory
c. Theory of Mind
d. Self-Awareness
37) _____ can store past experiences or some data for a short period of time.
b. Limited Memory
c. Theory of Mind
d. Self-Awareness
38) ______ AI should understand the human emotions, people, beliefs, and ne able to interact socially like
humans.
b. Limited Memory
c. Theory of Mind
d. Self-Awareness
39) _____ AI is the future of Artificial Intelligence.

b. Limited Memory
c. Theory of Mind
d. Self-Awareness
40) By which process it is possible to interact with the computer that understands natural language spoken
by humans.
a. Expert systems
b. Natural Language Processing
c. Vision systems
d. Speech Recognition
41) ______ these systems understand, interpret and comprehend visual input on the computer.
a. Expert systems
c. Vision systems
42) _______ intelligent systems are capable of hearing and comprehending the language in terms of
sentences and their meanings while a human talks to it.
a. Expert systems
c. Vision systems
43) The ________ software reads the text written on paper by a pen or on screen by a stylus.
a. Handwriting Recognition
b. Speech Recognition
c. Expert systems
d. Vision Systems
44) ______ is a branch of science that deals with programming the systems in such a way that they
automatically learn and improve with experience.
a. Deep Learning
b. Machine Learning
c. Artificial Intelligence
d. Embedded Systems
45) What are the different ways to implement machine learning techniques?
a. Deep learning
b. Supervised Learning
c. Unsupervised Learning
d. Both b and c
46) _____ deals with learning a function from available training data.
a. Deep Learning
47) _____ makes sense of unlabeled data without having any predefined dataset for its training.
a. Deep Learning
48) ________ is a supervised learning algorithm.

a. Neural Networks
b. Support Vector Machines(SVM)
c. Naïve Bayes classifiers
d. All of the above
49) Deep Learning is a subfield of machine learning where concerned algorithms are inspired by the
structure and function of the brain called _______.
a. Neural Networks
b. Artificial Neural Networks
c. Natural language process.
50) Online Advertising is an application of :

a. Machine Learning
b. Deep Learning
c. Ethical Hacking
d. Both a and b
Unit-2 Internet of Things
1) IoT stands for

a. Internet of Technology
b. Internet of Things
c. Intranet of Things
d. Information of Things
2) Which is not the feature of IoT

a. Connectivity
b. Self-Configuring
c. Endpoint Management
d. Artificial Intelligence
3) Which is not an IoT Communication model

a. Request-Response
b. Publish-Subscribe
c. Push-Producer
d. Exclusive Pair
4) WSN stands for

a. Wide Sensor Network
b. Wireless Sensor Network
c. Wired Sensor Network
d. None of These
5) Devices that transforms electrical signals into physical movements.

a. Sensors
b. Actuators
c. Switches
d. Display
6) ________ is a microcontroller or microprocessor based system which is designed to perform a

specific task.
a. IoT
b. Artificial Intelligence
c. Embedded System
d. Machine Learning
7) Embedded system consists of _____

a. Input Device
b. Microcontroller
c. Output Device
d. All of The above
8) _____ is used to measure the physical quantity and converts it to an electrical signal which can be read
by any electronic device like an A-D converter.
a. Sensor
b. A-D Converter
c. D-A Converter
d. Actuator
9) An Embedded System uses a ______ platform to execute the operation.

a. Software
b. Hardware
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
10) The embedded system programs are mainly written using programming software like
a. Turbo c
b. TASM
c. Proteus or Lab-view
d. Eclipse
11) Embedded system programs are written in programming language like

a. C, C++ or embedded C
b. Java
c. Python
d. PHP
12) Embedded operating systems also known as

a. Palm OS
b. Mac OS
c. RTOS
d. Linux
13) RTOS stands for______

a. Real Technology Operating System
b. Real Time Operating System
c. Real Terminology Operating system
d. None of these
14) PIC stands for___

a. Programmable Interface Controllers
b. Peripheral Interface Controllers
c. Both a and b
15) RISC stands for____
a. Reduced Interface Set Computer
b. Reduced Instruction Set Computer
c. Reached Instruction Set Computer
d. Reached Interface Set Computer
16) PIC microcontrollers are the ____ microcontrollers which can be programmed to perform a large
range of tasks.
a. Smallest
b. Largest
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
17) AVR was developed in the year___

a. 1987
b. 1988
c. 1996
d. 1999
18) AVR stands for ____

a. Advanced Virtual Reactance
b. Advanced Virtual RISC
c. Alf-EgilBogenVegardWollanRISC
d. Both b and c
19) ARM is ____ RISC.

a. 32-bit
b. 64-bit
c. 128-bit
d. 256-bit
20) ARM stands for___

a. Advanced RISK Machine
b. Advanced Real Machine
c. Advanced RISC Machine
d. Advanced Read Machine
21) ARM introduced by Acron computers organization in ____.

a. 1985
b. 1986
c. 1987
d. 1988
22) ASIC stands for ____
a. Application Specific Integrated Circuit
b. Advanced Specific Interface Circuit
c. Application Specific Interface Circuit
d. Advanced Specific Integrated Circuit
23) Which of the following is not the characteristics of IoT

a. Dynamic & self-Adapting
b. Self-Configuring
c. Analyzing
d. Enormous scale
24) What is disadvantage of IoT

a. Security
b. Privacy
c. Complexity
d. All of the above
25) ____ protocols determine how the data is physically sent over the network’s physical layer or medium.
a. Application Layer
b. Transport Layer
c. Network Layer
d. Link Layer
26) _____ is a collection of wired Ethernet standards for the link layer.
a. IEEE 802.3
b. IEEE 802.11
c. IEEE 802.16
d. IEEE 802.15.4
27) ______ is a collection of wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) communication standards, including
extensive description of the link layer.
a. IEEE 802.3
b. IEEE 802.11
c. IEEE 802.16
d. IEEE 802.15.4
28) Which of the following is not network layer protocol

a. IPv4
b. IPv6
c. 6LOWPAN
d. TCP
29) _____ Layer performs the host addressing and packet routing.
b. Transport Layer
c. Network Layer
d. Link Layer
30) The ____ Layer protocols provide end-to-end message transfer capability independent of the
underlying network.
b. Transport Layer
c. Network Layer
d. Link Layer
31) Transport layer provides functions such as

a. Error Control
b. Segmentation
c. Flow Control and Congestion control
d. All of the above
32) TCP is ______protocol.

a. Connection oriented
b. Stateful
c. Stateless
d. Both a and b
33) UDP is _____ protocol

a. Stateless
b. Transaction Oriented
c. Connectionless
d. All of the above
34) ____ protocol does not provide guaranteed delivery, ordering of messages and duplicate elimination.
a. TCP
b. UDP
c. HTTP
d. FTP
35) _____ is the application layer protocol that forms the foundation of the WWW.
a. TCP
b. UDP
c. HTTP
d. FTP
36) HTTP includes commands such as
a. GET, PUT
b. POST, DELETE
c. HEAD, TRACE
d. All of the above
37) COAP stands for

a. Control Application Protocol
b. Constrained Application Protocol
c. Connection Oriented Application Protocol
38) WebSocket protocol allows ____ communication over a single socket connection for sending
messages between client and server.
a. Half –Duplex
b. Simplex
c. Full- Duplex
39) MQTT stands for

a. Message Queue Telemetry Transport
b. Message Queue Transfer Transport
c. Message Query Telemetry Transport
d. Message Query Transfer Transport
40) MQTT is based on ____ model.

a. Request-Response
b. Push-Pull
c. Publish-Subscribe
d. Exclusive Pair
41) XMPP stands for

a. Extensible Messaging and presence Protocol
b. Extensible Messaging and Presentation Protocol
c. Extensible Meaningful and Presentation Protocol
42) Which of the following is IoT functional blocks:

a. Device
b. Communication
c. Services
d. All of The above
43) In which IoT model the client sends requests to the server and the server responds to the requests.
a. Publish-Subscribe
b. Request-Response
c. Push-Pull
d. Exclusive Pair
44) _______ is a transformative computing paradigm that involves delivering applications and services
over the internet.
a. Big Data Analytics
b. Wireless Sensor Network
c. Cloud Computing
45) Home automation is example of

a. IoT Level-1
b. IoT Level-2
c. IoT Level-3
d. IoT Level-4
46) _____ devices are the microcontrollers and microcontroller kit for building digital devices that can be
sense and control objects in the physical and digital world.
a. Raspberry Pi
b. Arduino
c. Node MCU
d. Uno
47) Inexpensive, Cross-platform, Simple, clear programming environment is the ____ of the Arduino.
a. Characteristics
b. Features
c. Properties
d. Components
48) Which device is low cost, credit-card sized computer?

a. Raspberry Pi
b. Arduino
c. Node MCU
d. Uno
49) Which of the following device measure the amount of Heat energy generated from an object or
surrounding area?
a. Humidity Sensors
b. Temperature Sensors
c. Gas Sensors
d. Smoke Sensors
50) Which sensor is used to sense the amount of water vapor in air
a. Humidity Sensors
b. Temperature Sensors
c. Gas Sensors
d. Smoke Sensors
Unit 3- Basics of Digital Forensic
1) ____ is a well-established science that pays vital role in criminal justice systems.
a. Machine Learning
b. Artificial Intelligence
c. Forensic Science
d. Deep Learning
2) Forensic Science applied to both ___ & ___ action.

a. Criminal, Civil
b. Investigation , Validation
c. Recovery, Identification
3) Field of pc forensics began in ___ when personal computers became a viable possibility for the buyer.
a. 1965
b. 1970
c. 1980
d. 1985
4) In ___ an associate Federal Bureau of Investigation program was created, which was referred to as
magnet media program.
a. 1980
b. 1984
c. 1990
d. 1995
5) CART stands for

a. Computer Analysis & Response Team
b. Computer Analytics & Response Team
c. Computer Analytics & Required Team
d. Computer Analysis & Required Team
6) Who is the father of Computer Forensics?

a. G.Gunsh
b. S.Ciardhuain
c. G. Palmar
d. Michael Anderson
7) IOCE stands for

a. International Organization on Computer Evidence
b. International Office on Computer Evidence
c. Indian Organization of Computer Evidence
d. Indian Office of Computer Evidence
8) IOCE is formed in??
a. 1992
b. 1993
c. 1994
d. 1995
9) In ____ the great countries declared that law enforcement personnel should be trained and equipped to
deal with sophisticated crimes.
a. 1990
b. 1995
c. 1997
d. 1998
10) INTERPOL Forensic Science symposium was apprehended in__

a. 1995
b. 1996
c. 1997
d. 1998
11) How many rules are there for Digital Forensics?

a. 4
b. 10
c. 6
d. 8
12) RMDFR stands for

a. Road Mapping for Data Forensic Records
b. Road Map for Digital Forensic Research
c. REST Model for Digital Forensic Research
13) Who proposed RMDFR model?

a. G. Gunsh
b. S. Ciardhuain
c. J. Korn
d. G. Palmar
14) How many phases are there in Road Map model?

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
15) Which of the following phase recognizes an incident from indicators and determines its type?
a. Identification
b. Preservation
c. Collection
d. Examination
16) Which stage corresponds to freezing the crime scene?

a. Identification
b. Preservation
c. Collection
d. Examination
17) Which of the following stage consists in finding and collecting digital information that may be relevant
to the investigation?
a. Identification
b. Preservation
c. Collection
d. Examination
18) Which of the following stage consists in an in-depth systematic search of evidence?
a. Identification
b. Preservation
c. Collection
d. Examination
19) “Draw conclusions based on evidence found” is the aim of __ phase.

a. Collection
b. Examination
c. Analysis
d. Reporting
20) ___ Phase entails writing a report outlining the examination process and pertinent data recovered from
the overall investigation.
a. Collection
b. Examination
c. Analysis
d. Reporting
21) ADFM stands for___

a. Analysis of Digital Forensic Model
b. Analysis of Data Forensic Model
c. Abstract Digital Forensic Model
d. Abstract Data Forensic Model
22) Who proposed AFDM model?
a. Reith
b. Carr
c. Gunsh
d. All of the above
23) When AFDM model was proposed?

a. 2001
b. 2002
c. 2003
d. 2004
24) How many phases are there in AFDM Model?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 9
d. 10
25) Which phase involves the preparation of tools, techniques, search warrants and monitoring authorization
and management support?
a. Identification
b. Preparation
c. Approach Strategy
d. Preservation
26) Which phase involves the isolation, securing and preserving the state of physical and digital evidence.
a. Identification
b. Approach Strategy
c. Preservation
d. Collection
27) Arrange the sequence of AFDM model

i. Approach Strategy
ii. Preservation
iii. Identification
iv. Preparation
a. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
b. (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
c. (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
d. (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
28) At which phase summary & explanation of conclusion will take place?
a. Examination
b. Analysis
c. Presentation
d. Returning Evidence.
29) At which phase physical & digital property returned to proper owner?
a. Examination
b. Analysis
c. Presentation
d. Returning Evidence.
30) IDIP stands for

a. Integrated Digital Investigation Process
b. Integrated Data Investigation Process
c. Integrated Digital Investigator Process
d. Independent Digital Investigator Process
31) DFPM along with 5 groups and 17 phases are proposed by ____
a. G. Gunsh
b. S. Ciardhuain
c. Carrier and Safford
d. J. Korn
32) The goal of ____ phase is to ensure that the operations and infrastructure are able to fully support an
investigation.
a. Readiness
b. Deployment
c. Physical Crime Investigation
d. Digital Crime Investigation
33) Readiness phase includes following phases: ___

a. Operations
b. Infrastructure
c. Examination
d. Both (a) & (b)
34) The purpose of ___ phase is to provide a mechanism for an incident to be detected and confirmed.
a. Readiness
b. Deployment
35) What are the sub phases of Deployment phase?

a. Operation
b. Detection and Notification phase
c. Confirmation and Authorization phase
d. Both (b) & (c)
36) The goal of ___ phase is to collect and analyze the physical evidence and reconstruct the actions that
took place during the incident.
a. Readiness
b. Deployment
37) How many sub phases are involved in physical crime investigation phase?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
38) Which phase involves taking photographs, sketches, and videos of the crime scene and the physical
evidence?
a. Preservation phase
b. Survey phase
c. Documentation phase
d. Search & collection phase
39) The goal of ___ phase is to collect and analyze the digital evidence that was obtained from the physical
investigation phase and through any other future means.
a. Deployment
b. Digital Crime Investigation phase
c. Readiness
d. Review phase
40) ____ Phase entails a review of the whole investigation and identifies areas of improvement.
a. Deployment
b. Digital Crime Investigation phase
c. Readiness
d. Review phase
41) EEDIP stands for

a. Electronics & Electrical Digital Investigation Process
b. End to End Digital Investigation Process
c. End to End Data Investigation Process
42) EEDIP proposed by__

a. Gunsh
b. Palmar
c. Stephenson
d. Carr
43) EMCI Model stands for__
a. Extended Model of Cybercrime Investigation
b. Embedded Model of Cybercrime Investigation
c. Extended Model of Cybercrime Investigator
44) EMCI model proposed by____

a. Gunsh
b. Carr
c. S.O. Ciardhuain
d. Palmar
45) The EMCI Model follows which model?

a. Spiral Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. UML Model
d. Ramp Model
46) UMDFPM stands for___

a. Ultra Modeling of Data Forensic Process Model
b. UML Modeling of Digital Forensic Process Model
c. UML Modeling of Data Forensic Process Model
47) UMDFPM proposed by___

a. Kohn
b. Eloff
c. Oliver
d. All of the above
48) Which of the following is a General Ethical norm for investigator?

a. Upload any relevant evidence
b. Declare any confidential matters or knowledge
c. To honor confidentiality
d. Distort or falsify education, training, credentials
49) Ethical decision making in digital forensic work comprises which of the following?
a. Honesty towards the investigation
b. Prudence means carefully handling the digital evidences
c. Compliance with the law and professional norms
d. All of the above
50) Which of the following is an Unethical norm for Digital Forensic Investigation?
a. Express an opinion on the guilt or innocence belonging to any party
b. To avoid harm to others
c. To be fair and take actions not to discriminate
d. To respect the privacy of others.
51) Digital forensics is all of them except:

a. Extraction of computer data
b. Preservation of computer data
c. Interpretation of computer data
d. Manipulation of computer data
52) Identify the following model
a. EEDIP
b. RMDFR
c. IDIP
d. Both (a) & (b)
53) Identify the following model:
a. RMDFR
b. IDIP
c. ADFM
d. UMDFPM
a. RMDFR
b. IDIP
c. ADFM
d. EEDIP
55) Identify the following model
a. EMCI
b. UMDFPM
c. IDIP
d. EEDIP
a. EMCI
b. UMDFPM
c. IDIP
d. EEDIP
Unit 4- Digital Evidence
1) The field of ____ includes events that provide a successful courtroom experience, which are both
worthwhile and satisfactory.
a. Computer Networking
b. Computer Security
c. Ethical hacking
d. Computer Programming
2) To meet the requirements of the judging body and to withstand or face any challenges, it is essential
to follow the ____ procedure.
a. Evidence carrying
b. Evidence hiding
c. Evidence handling
3) Any information that can be confident or trusted and can prove something related to a case in trial
that is, indicating that a certain substance or condition is present is called as___.
a. Relevant Evidence
b. Evidence
c. Digital evidence
d. Both (b) & (c)
4) Information which has a positive impact on the action occurred, such as the information supporting
an incident is called as____.
a. Relevant Evidence
b. Evidence
c. Digital Evidence
5) Which of the following devices are potential digital evidence:

a. HDD
b. USB drive
c. Biometric scanner
d. All of the above
6) Text messages, emails, pictures, videos and internet searches are most common types of ___.
a. Digital Evidence
b. Relevant Evidence
c. Testimonial Evidence
7) The digital evidence are used to establish a credible link between____
a. Attacker and victim and the crime scene
b. Attacker and the crime scene
c. Victim and the crime scene
d. Attacker and information
8) The most complete copy or a copy which includes all necessary parts of evidence which is closely
related to the original evidence is called as___
a. Ideal Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Exchange Rule
9) The ____ says that an original writing must be offered as evidence unless it is unavailable, in which
case other evidence, like copies, notes or other testimony can be used.
c. Exchange Rule
10) Rule of evidence is also called as ___

a. Law of hacking
b. Law of evidence
c. Law of security
11) What is meant by admissible?

a. The evidence should act positively to an incident
b. A proof that covers all perspectives
c. The evidence should be understandable and believable to the jury.
d. The evidence must be usable in the court
12) What is meant by authentic?

a. The evidence must be usable in the court.
b. The evidence should act positively to an incident.
c. A proof that covers all perspectives
d. There ought to be no doubt about the reality of the specialist’s decision
13) What is meant by complete?

14) What is meant by reliable?
a. The evidence must be usable in the court.
b. The evidence should act positively to an incident.
c. A proof that covers all perspectives
d. There ought to be no doubt about the reality of the specialist’s decision
15) What is meant by Believable?

16) When an incident takes place, a criminal will leave hint evidence at the scene and remove a hint
evidence from the scene. This alteration is known as the ____.
a. Locard’s Exchange Principle
b. Digital Stream of Bits
c. Chain of Custody
17) Illustrative evidence is also called as___.

a. Digital Evidence
b. Documented Evidence
c. Demonstrative Evidence
d. Substantial Evidence
18) ____ is generally a representation of an object which is common form of proof.

a. Illustrative Evidence
b. Electronic Evidence
c. Documented Evidence
d. Explainable Evidence
19) Electronic Evidence is nothing but ____.

a. Documented Evidence
b. Explainable Evidence
c. Digital Evidence
20) The evidences or proof that can be obtained from the electronic source is called the___.
a. Digital Evidence
b. Documented Evidence
c. Demonstrative Evidence
21) In ____ the proof is presented in writing (Viz. contracts, wills, invoices etc.).
a. Illustrative evidence
b. Electronic evidence
c. Documented evidence
d. Explainable evidence
22) Which type of evidence is typically used in criminal cases?

b. Electronic evidence
23) Substantial evidence is also called as___.

a. Demonstrative Evidence
b. Digital Evidence
c. Physical Evidence
24) ___ Evidence is spoken by the spectator under the oath, or writing evidence given under the oath by
an official declaration that is affidavit.
b. Testimonial
25) The _____ in digital forensics can also be referred to as the forensic link, the paper trail or the
chronological documentation of electronic evidence.
a. Locard’s Exchange Principle
b. Digital Stream of Bits
c. Chain of Custody
26) Which case won the second runner up position for the India Cyber Cop Award for its investigating
officer Mr. S. Balu, Assistant Commissioner of Police, Crime, Chennai Police.
a. Credit Card Fraud
b. Hosting Obscene Profiles
c. Illegal money transfer
d. Fake travel agent
27) Illegal money transfer case was happened at __

a. Chennai
b. Pune
c. Mumbai
d. Hydrabad
28) From the two given statements 1 & 2 select the correct options from a-d.
1) Original media can be used to carry out digital investigation process.
2) By default, every part of the victim’s computer is considered unreliable.
a. (1) & (2) both are true
b. (1) is true and (2) is false
c. (1) & (b) both are false
d. (1) is false & (2) is true
29) Which of the following is not a type of volatile evidence?

a. Routing tables
b. Main Memory
c. Log Files
d. Cached Data
30) Digital evidence must follow the requirements of the___

c. Exchange Rule
Unit 5- Basics of Hacking
1) Ethical Hacking is also known as _____
a. Black Hat hacking
b. White hat hacking
c. Encrypting
d. None of these
2) Tools used by ethical hackers____

a. Scanner
b. Decoder
c. Proxy
d. All of the above
3) Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds___

a. Strengths
b. Weakness
c. a & b
d. None of these
4) Ethical hacking will allow to ____ all the massive security breaches.
a. Remove
b. Measure
c. Reject
d. None of these
5) Sequential steps hackers use are:___, __, ____, ____

A) Maintain Access
B) Reconnaissance
C) Scanning
D) Gaining Access
a. B, C, D, A
b. B, A, C, D
c. A, B, C, D
d. D, C, B, A
6) _____ is the science of testing computers and network for security vulnerabilities and plugging the
holes found before the unauthorized people get a chance to exploit them.
a. Computer Security
b. Ethical Hacking
c. Both a & b
7) ____ is the art of exploiting the human elements to gain access to unauthorized resources.
a. Ethical Hacking
b. Computer Security
c. Social Engineering
8) The term cracker refer to ___

a. White hat hacker
b. Black hat hacker
c. Script kiddies
d. Grey hat hackers
9) ____ is a person who finds and exploits the weakness in computer systems and/or networks to gain
access.
a. Hacker
b. Cracker
c. Malicious user
10) An ______ hacker is a security professional who applies their hacking skills for defensive purposes on
behalf of the owners of information systems.
a. Grey hat
b. Black hat
c. Ethical
d. Script kiddies
11) _____ or internal attackers try to compromise computers and sensitive information from the inside as
authorized and trusted users.
a. Hacker
b. Script kiddies
c. Malicious users
12) _____ means a rogue employee, contractor, intern or other user who abuses his or her trusted
privileges.
a. Ethical hacker
b. Black hat hacker
c. Grey hat hacker
d. Malicious users
13) A hacker who gains access to systems with a view to fix the identified weakness is called as___.
a. Ethical hacker
b. White hat hacker
c. Black hat hacker
d. Both a & b
14) A hacker who gains unauthorized access to computer systems for personal gain is called as ____.
a. Script kiddies
b. Black hat hacker
c. Cracker
d. Both b & c
15) Which hacker performs penetration testing and vulnerability assessments?

a. Ethical hacker
b. Black hat hacker
c. Phreaker
d. Hacktivist
16) Which hacker’s intent is to steal corporate data, violate privacy rights, transfer funds from bank account
etc.?
a. White hat
b. Cracker
c. Grey hat
d. Script kiddies
17) A hacker who is in between ethical and black hat hackers is called as ____.
a. White hat hacker
b. Script kiddies
c. Grey hat hacker
d. Phreaker
18) A non-skilled person who gains access to computer systems using already made tools is called as ____.
a. White hat hacker
b. Script kiddies
c. Grey hat hacker
d. Black hat hacker
19) A hacker who uses hacking to send social, religious and political etc. messages is called as___.
a. Grey hat hacker
b. Script kiddies
c. Hacktivist
d. Phreaker
20) A hacker who identifies and exploits weaknesses in telephones instead of computers is called as___.
a. Grey hat hacker
b. Script kiddies
c. Hacktivist
d. Phreaker
21) What is the slogan for ethical hacking?
a. To catch a thief, think like a thief
b. To catch a thief, think like a police
c. Both a & b
22) Which of the following creates a false feeling of safety?

a. Firewalls
b. Encryption
c. Virtual Private Networks
d. All of the above
23) “Flooding a network with too many requests, creating Denial of Service (DoS) for legitimate requests”,
this type of attack is known as ____.
a. Nontechnical attacks
b. Network infrastructure attacks
c. Operating system attacks
d. Application and other specialized attacks
24) Which operating systems hackers prefer for attacking?

a. Windows
b. Linux
c. Net ware
d. Both a & b
25) Which of the following is example of attacks on operating systems?

a. Exploiting specific protocol implementation
b. Attacking built-in authentication systems
c. Cracking passwords and encryption mechanism
d. All of the above
26) Viruses, worms, Trojan horses and spyware are called as ____.
a. Malicious software
b. Malware
c. Both a & b
27) ____ is wreaking havoc on system availability and storage space.

a. Virus
b. Malware
c. Spam ( junk e-mails)
d. Spyware
28) Arrange proper sequence of ethical hacking process:
A) Moving on
B) Executing the plan
C) Selecting tools
D) Evaluating results
E) Formulating your plan
a. A-D-B-C-E
b. E-C-B-D-A
c. C-E-B-D-A
d. A-B-C-D-E
29) Which of the tools used by ethical hacker?

a. Nmap
b. EtherPeek
c. John the Ripper
d. All of the above
30) How many steps are there for person to become hacker?
a. 5
b. 13
c. 15
d. 20
31) Which tool is used to find SQL injections?

a. Netsparker
b. Acunetix
c. Safer VPN
d. Aircrack
32) Which of the following tool is focusing on detecting, prioritizing and remediating vulnerabilities?
a. Netsparker
b. Insight VM
c. Safer VPN
d. Ettercap
33) Which tool is used to check target in different geographies, simulate non-personalized browsing
behavior, undiscovered file transfer etc.?
a. Insight VM
b. Safer VPN
c. Burp suite
d. Ettercap
34) ___ is a useful platform for performing security testing of web applications.
a. Insight VM
b. Safer VPN
c. Burp Suite
d. Ettercap
35) ____ Supports active and passive dissection includes features for network and host analysis.
a. Ettercap
b. Aircrack
c. GFI LanGuard
d. Savvius
36) Which tool is used to crack vulnerable wireless connections?

a. Ettercap
b. Aircrack
c. Angry IP Scanner
d. Savvius
37) Which tool is to scan IP addresses and port?

a. Aircrack
b. Angry IP Scanner
c. Savvius
d. WebInspect
38) ____ is an ethical tool that scans networks for vulnerabilities. It can acts as your virtual security
consultant on demand. It allows creating an asset inventory of every device.
a. Angry IP Scanner
b. Savvius
c. GFI LanGuard
d. Qualys guard
39) ____ Performance issues and reduces security risk with the deep visibility provided by Omnipeek.
a. Angry IP Scanner
b. Savvius
c. Qualys guard
d. WebInspect
40) ___ helps businesses streamline their security and compliance solutions. It also builds security into
their digital transformation initiatives.
a. Savvius
b. Qualys guard
c. WebInspect
d. Hashcat
41) Which tool provides comprehensive dynamic analysis of complex web applications and services?
a. Hashcat
b. WebInspect
c. L0phtCrack 6
d. Rainbow Crack
42) Which tool is used for helping users to recover lost passwords, audit password security, or just find out
what data is stored in a hash?
a. Hashcat
b. L0phtCrack 6
c. Rainbow Crack
d. IKECrack
43) ____ is useful password audit and recovery tool. It identifies and assesses password vulnerability over
local machines and networks.
a. Medusa
b. NetStumbler
c. SQLMap
d. L0phtCrack 6
44) ____ is a password cracking tool widely used for ethical hacking. It cracks hashes with rainbow tables.
It uses time-memory tradeoff algorithm for this purpose.
a. Hashcat
b. Medusa
c. Rainbow Crack
d. ironWASP
45) Which tool is used as open source authentication crack tool?

a. Hashcat
b. IKECrack
c. IronWASP
d. Medusa
46) Which tool is designed to be customizable so that users can create their custom security scanners using
it?
a. IKECrack
b. IronWASP
c. Netstumbler
d. SQL Map
47) _____ is one of the best online brute-force, speedy, parallel password crackers ethical hacking tool.
a. Medusa
b. SQL Map
c. NetStumbler
d. IronWASP
48) ____ is used to detect wireless networks on the windows platform.
a. Medusa
b. SQL Map
c. NetStumbler
d. Nessus
49) Recover MS Access passwords, uncover password field, sniffing networks are done by ___.
a. NetStumbler
b. SQL Map
c. Nessus
50) ____ can be used to perform remote vulnerability scanner, password dictionary attacks etc.
a. Medusa
b. NetStumbler
c. SQL Map
d. Nessus
Unit 6- Types of Hacking
1) ___ used for windows for network queries from DNS lookups to trace routes.
a. Sam Spade
b. Super Scan
c. NetScan
d. Nmap
2) ___ used for ping sweep & port scanning.

a. Sam Spade
b. Super Scan
c. Net Scan
d. Nmap
3) ___ tools Pro for dozens of network security-assessment functions, including ping sweeps, port
scanning, and SMTP relay testing.
a. Sam Spade
b. Super Scan
c. NetScan
d. Nmap
4) ____ used as a happy-clicky-GUI front end for host-port probing and operating system fingerprinting.
a. Sam Spade
b. Super Scan
c. NetScan
d. Nmap or NMapWin
5) ____ is the most versatile security tool for such security checks as port scanning and firewall testing.
a. NetScan
b. Nmap or NMapWin
c. Netcat
d. WildPacketsEtherPeek
6) ___ is used for network analysis.

a. NetScan
b. Nmap or NMapWin
c. Netcat
d. WildPacketsEtherPeek
7) Which software tool is used to scan the network to see who’s there and provide basic views of how the
network is laid out?
a. Port Scanner
b. Ping Sweeping
c. SNMP Scanning
d. Banner Grabbing
8) As an ethical hacker, you should scan all ____ ports on each network host that’s found by your scanner.
a. 6346 TCP and 6347 UDP
b. 27665 TCP and 31335 UDP
c. 65,535 TCP and 65,535 UDP
d. 1434 TCP and 1434 UDP
9) FTP stands for ___

a. File Transport Protocol
b. File Transfer Protocol
c. File Tracing Protocol
10) SMTP stands for___

a. Simple Mail Transport Protocol
b. Simple Management Transfer Protocol
c. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
d. Simple Management Transport Protocol
11) DNS stands for ____

a. Domain Name Service
b. Domain Name System
c. Data Name Service
d. Data Name System
12) TFTP stands for ____

a. Trivial File Transfer Protocol
b. Trivial File Transport Protocol
c. Thin File Transport Protocol
13) HTTP stands for____

a. Higher Text Transport Protocol
b. Higher Text Transfer Protocol
c. Hypertext Transfer Protocol
d. Hypertext Transport Protocol
14) SNMP stands for ___

a. Simple Network Messaging Protocol
b. Simple Network Mailing Protocol
c. Simple Network Management Protocol
d. Simple Network Master Protocol
15) IMAP stands for____

a. Internet Mailing Access Protocol
b. Internet Message Access Protocol
c. Intranet Message Access Protocol
d. Intranet Mailing Access Protocol
16) In traffic restriction which device is used for inbound traffic?

a. Internal Router
b. Modem
c. Firewall
d. External Router
17) In traffic restriction which device is used for outbound traffic?

a. Internal Router
b. Modem
c. Firewall
d. External Router
18) IDS stands for ___

a. Instruction Detection System
b. Instruction Detection Service
c. Intrusion Detection Service
d. Intrusion Detection System
19) Which tool is used to find out the general network information, such as the number of unique IP
addresses, NetBIOS names and MAC addresses?
a. Nmap
b. Sam Spade
c. NetScanTools Pro
20) ____ is executed through the searching of multiple hosts in order to target just one specific open port.
a. Port scanning
b. Port sweeping
c. Port searching
21) _____ is considered a serious threat to one’s PC, as it can occur without producing any outward signs to
the owner that anything dangerous is taking place.
a. Port scanning
b. Port sweeping
c. Port searching
22) A ___ monitors incoming and outgoing connections through one’s personal computer.
a. Router
b. Repeater
c. Firewall
d. Modem
23) ___ tells Nmap to perform a ping scan.
a. sP
b. n
c. –T4
d. 192.168.1.1-254
24) ____ tells Nmap to not perform name resolution.

a. sP
b. n
c. –T4
d. 192.168.1.1-254
25) ___ Option tells Nmap to perform an aggressive (faster) scan.

a. sP
b. n
c. –T4
d. 192.168.1.1-254
26) ____ tells Nmap to scan the entire 192.168.1.x subnet.

a. sP
b. n
c. –T4
d. 192.168.1.1-254
27) If ___ is compromised, a hacker can gather such network information as ARP tables and TCP
connections to attack your systems.
a. ICMP
b. SNMP
c. FTP
d. Banner grabbing
28) ____ is the act of capturing the information provided by banners, configurable text-based welcome
screens from network hosts that generally display system information.
a. ICMP
b. SNMP
c. FTP
d. Banner grabbing
29) Banner grabbing is often used for

a. White hat hacking
b. Black hat hacking
c. Grey hat hacking
d. Script kiddies
30) We can grab banners by using __

a. telnet
b. Netcat
c. Both a & b
31) ____ can grab banner information from routers and other network hosts, such as a wireless access point
or managed Ethernet switch.
a. Telnet
b. Netcat
c. Network analyzer
32) A ___ is a tool that allows you to look into a network and analyze data going across the wire for network
optimization, security, and/or troubleshooting purposes.
a. Telnet
b. Netcat
c. Network analyzer
33) Network analyzer are often generically referred to as ___

a. Attacker
b. Intruder
c. Sniffer
d. Hacker
34) EtherPeek by WildPackets network analyzer tools supports ____ operating system.
a. Windows
b. Windows and UNIX
c. Windows and Linux
d. UNIX
35) Ethereal & Ettercap Network analyzer tool supports _____ operating system.
a. Windows
b. Windows and UNIX
d. UNIX
36) Dsniff Network analyzer tool supports ___ operating system.

a. Windows
b. Windows and UNIX
d. UNIX
37) ____ tools can modify the ARP tables, which are responsible for saving IP addresses to MAC address
mappings on network hosts.
a. Dsniff tool
b. Cain & Abel tool
c. Both a & b
38) The victims machines think they require to forward traffic to the hacker’s computer rather than to the
correct destination machine when communicating on the network and this type of is called as _____
a. Denial of service attack
b. Man-in-the-middle attack
c. ARP spoofing attack
39) An excessive amount of ARP requests can be a sign of an ____ attack on your network.
a. ARP poisoning attack
b. ARP spoofing attach
c. Man-in-the-middle attack
d. Both a & b
40) Email bomb is also known as __

a. Rogue networks
b. Attachment overloading attack
c. Letter bomb
d. Storage overload
41) ____ can be captured directly out of the airwaves, making this communication medium susceptible to
malicious eavesdropping.
a. Wired traffic
b. Wireless traffic
c. Rogue networks
d. Physical security problems
42) WEP stands for ____

a. Wired Equivalent Privacy
b. Wired Equivalent Protocol
c. Wireless Equivalent Privacy
d. Wireless Equivalent Protocol
43) The Orinoco Client Manager software stores ____ keys in the windows Registry even for multiple
networks.
a. Decrypted WEP
b. Encrypted WEP
c. Both a & b
44) SSIDs stands for____

a. Service Support IDentifier
b. Secure Service IDentifier
c. Service Set IDentifier
45) An _____ is a program that acts as an interface between the software and computer hardware.
a. Networking
b. Remote code execution
c. Storage overload
d. Operating System
46) The hackers attacks against messaging systems include ___

a. Transmitting malware
b. Crashing Servers
c. Obtaining remote control of workstations
d. All of the above
47) An attacker can create an ______attack by sending hundreds or thousands of e-mails with very large
attachments.
a. Connection attack
b. Autoresponder attack
c. Attachment overloading attack
d. All of the above
48) Multiple large messages can quickly fill the total storage capacity of an e-mail server is called as __
a. Email bomb
b. Storage overload
c. Bandwidth blocking
d. Connection attack
49) What are the countermeasures are there to prevent attachment-overloading attack?
a. Limit the size of either e-mails or e-mail attachments
b. Limit each user’s space on the server
c. Both a & b
50) Which attack is often carried out as spam attack?

a. Email bomb
b. Storage overload
c. Bandwidth blocking
d. Connection attack
51) ____ is that annoying automatic e-mail response you often get back from random users when you’re
subscribing to a mailing list.
a. Connection attack
b. Autoresponder attack
c. Attachment overloading attack
d. All of the above
52) ___ attack is basically browsing a site and looking for clues about the server’s directory structure.
a. SQL Injection
b. Cross site Scripting
c. Directory Traversals
d. Security Misconfiguration
EMERGING TRENDS IN COMPUTER AND
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY (22618)

Ans: C
evidence?
Ans: D

Ans: A

Ans: C
Ans: C

Ans: B

C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D

Ans: C

would have.
Ans: D
D. All the above.
Ans: C
11. Due to caseload and budget constraints, often computer security professionals attempt to
limit the damage and close each investigation as quickly as possible. Which of the following is
NOT a significant drawback to this approach?
used to allocate corporate and government spending on combating computer-related
crime.
None of the above
Ans: B
12. The criminological principle which states that, when anyone, or anything, enters a crime
scene he/she takes something of the scene with him/her, and leaves something of himself/herself
behind, is:
Ans: A
13. The author of a series of threatening e-mails consistently uses “im” instead of “I’m.” This
is an example of:
Ans: A
14. Personal computers and networks are often a valuable source of evidence. Those
involved with should be comfortable with this technology.
B. Prosecution
C. Defense work
D. All of the above
Ans:
Ans: C
Ans: A

C. Exchange rule
Ans: B

Ans: B
A. digital evidence
Ans: A

A. Routing tables
B. Main memory
C. Log files
D. Cached data
Ans: C

A. Admissible
B. Authentic
C. Complete
D. Reliable
Ans: A
22. Photographs, videos, sound recordings, X-rays, maps drawing, graphs, charts is a
a type of _
Ans: A

Ans: B

Ans: D
Ans: A

Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Flash memory
C. Process table
D. Arp cache
Ans: A
29. is known as testimonial.

A. Oath affidavit
B. DNA samples
C. Fingerprint
D. Dried blood
Ans: A
30. The process of ensuring that providing or obtaining the data that you have collected is similar
C. Best evidence
Ans: A
31. When cases got to trial your forensics examiner play one of role.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Ans. A
32. Types of digital evidence
A. Eye witness
C. Paper work
Ans B
33. Rule of evidence is also known as
A. Law of witness
C. Law of evidence
D. All of the above
Ans. C
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
9. Computers can be used by terrorists to detonate bombs.

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
forensic science.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Chapter 5

C. Encryption.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
2. Tool(s) used by ethical hacker .

A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D
3. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds .

A. Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B

A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

B. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
B. IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A

A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B
10. Computer Hackers have been in existence for more than a .

A. Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C
11. Hackers do hack for?

A. Fame.
B. Profit.
C. Revenge.
D. All the above
Ans. D
12. The intent of ethical hacker is to discover vulnerabilities from a point of view to better
secure system.
A. Victims.
B. Attackers.
C. Both A & B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
13. Security audits are usually based on

A. Entries.
B. Checklists.
C. Both A & B
Ans. B
14. Ethical hacking consist of

C. Red teaming.
Ans. D
A. Victim
B. Hacker
C. Developer
Ans. B

B. Steal the data
Ans. A

B. Steal the data
Ans. B
B. Steal the data
Ans. C
of money
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
20. Information is a one of the most valuable assets of organization

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. Police
B. Forensics
C. Thief
D. Hacker
Ans. C

A. Firewall
B. Encryption
C. VNPs
D. All the above
Ans. D
Ans. A
24. Connecting into network through a rogue modem attached to computer behind a firewall is an
example of -
Ans. B
25. comprise of large portion of hacker attacks simply because every computer has one
Ans. C

A. Data gathering.
B. Attacking
C. Planning
D. Research
Ans. C
27. Which permission is necessary before ethical hacking?

D. Risk permission.
Ans. A

A. Nmap
B. LC4
C. ToneLOC
D. Nessus
Ans. B

A. Whisker
B. Super scan
C. Nikto
D. Kismet
Ans. A
A. WebInspect
B. QualyGuard
Ans. C
31. Malicious attacker often think like?

A. Thieves
B. Kidnapper
C. Both A & B
Ans. C
32. Which hacker try to distribute political or social message through their work?
A. Black hat hacker
B. Hactivist
C. Script kiddes
D. White hat hacker
Ans. B
33. are part of organized crime on internet.

A. Criminal
B. Antinationalist
C. Hacker for hire
Ans. C

A. 2600
B. Hackin9
C. PHRACK
D. All the above
Ans. D
35. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is ethical

practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
D. a bad
Ans. D
36. has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for unethical
hacking.
A. Automated apps
C. Malware
D. Worms
Ans. C
37. Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of senior
authority is a crime.
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
38. A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the &
Ans. A
A. stealing
B. disclosure
C. deleting
D. hacking
Ans. B
40. Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key points listed
below is not mandatory?
Ans. D
Chapter-6
1. SNMP stands for

Ans: C
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D

C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A
4. An attacker can create an attack by sending hundreds or thousands of e-mails a with

D. All the above
Ans: B
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A
A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A

D. Covering tracks
Ans: B

A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A
10. Key loggers are form of

A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Ettercap
B. Metasploit
C. Nmap
D. Burp Suit
Ans: C
Ans: D

Ans: C
Ans: B

Ans: D
mode of ethical hacking.
A. Local networking
C. Physical entry
Ans: A
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication
Ans: B
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. 22
B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Ans: D
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
Ans: D
called .
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
Ans: D

A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
D. Scanned
Ans: A
27. Services running on a system are determined by .

Ans: D

Ans: B

A. Reconnaissance
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
Ans: C
30. framework made cracking of vulnerabilities easy like point and click.
A. Net
B. Metasploit
C. Zeus
D. Ettercap
Ans: B
31. is a popular IP address and port scanner.
A. Cain and Abel
B. Snort
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Ettercap
Ans: C
32. is a popular tool used for network analysis in multiprotocol diverse network
A. Snort
B. SuperScan
C. Burp Suit
D. EtterPeak
Ans: D

A. SuperScan
B. Snort
C. Ettercap
D. QualysGuard .
Ans: A

A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
Ans: D

Ans: A

B. Wi-Fi attacks
C. Packet filtering
Ans: B
37. Phishing is a form of .
A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
Ans: C

Ans: B
A. Ping Sweep
B. Port scan
C. Ipconfig
D. Spamming
Ans: A

C. Sniffing
D. Spoofing
Ans: A
41. is a tool that allows you to look into network and analyze data going across the wire
A. Network analyzer
B. Crypt tool
C. John-the -Ripper
D. Back track
Ans: A

D. Banner grabbing
Ans: D
43. protocol is used for network monitoring.
A. FTP SNMP
B.
C. RELNET
D. ARP
Ans: A

B. ARP poisoning
D. MAC spoofing
Ans: A
45. What is the primary goal of an ethical hacker?

Ans: C

A. Attack syllable
C. Attacks hybrid
D. All the above
Ans: D
45. Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network?
B. grey-hat hackers
C. script kiddies
Ans: D

A. hacktivism
C. active hacking
D. activism
Ans: A
A. local access
B. remote attack
C. internal attack
D. physical access
Ans: B
B. Active Sniffing
C. Passive Sniffing
Ans. C
50. In computer networking, is any technical effort to manipulate the normal behavior of
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
51. generally refers to unauthorized intrusion into a computer or a network.

A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
52. We can eliminate many well-known network vulnerabilities by simply patch-ing your
network hosts with their latest and .
D. None of above
Ans:-B
53. Network consist devices such as routers, firewalls, hosts that you must assess as a part of
process.
A. Prackers
Ans:-D
54. Network infrastructure vulnerabilities are the foundation for most technical security
issues in your information systems.
Ans:-D
55. attack, which can take down your Internet connection or your entire network.
A. MAC
B. DOS
C. IDS
D. None of above
Ans:-B
56. DOS stands for

D. None of above
Ans:-B
57. IDS stands for

D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. TCL
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Ans:-B
59. SSL stands for

Ans:-A
60. include phishing, SQL injection, hacking, social engineering, spamming, denial of
Ans:-D
61. Who invent worm attack

A. Brightn Godfrey
B. Alan yeung
C. Robert Morris
D. None of above
Ans:-C

Ans:-D
Ans:- C
64. What are some of the most common vulnerabilities that exist in a network or system?
Ans:B

A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans:B

Ans:-A

A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL
Ans:-D
Name of Subject: Emerging Trends in Computer and Information Technology Unit Test: I
Subject Code: 22618 Courses: IF/CM6I
Semester: VI
Ans: B
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

Ans: C
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B

A. History
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

Ans: C

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

B. Game Playing
C. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
30. ______ is used for AI because it supports the implementation of software that computes with
symbols very well.
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
language
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: D

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
__________
A. Regular Grammar
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
D. Program, Program
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

D. All of the above
Ans: A

D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
like human.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
socially like humans.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
the example of _____.
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
A. Machine learning
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E

C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C

A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D

Ans: A

E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C

A. high power
B. low power
D. low code density
Ans: B

Ans: C
Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: A

B. Pipe-ling
Ans: D
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: E

Ans: A
A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
Ans: A

C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is

C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for

Ans: B

Ans: D

large range of tasks.
Ans: - A
A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________.

C. Both A & B
Ans: - C

C. Both A& B
Ans: - A

B. Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B

A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
D. None of these
Ans: A
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A

B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for

D. None of above
Ans:B

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B

B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
Ans: - A
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
D. All of the above
Ans: - D

B. I/O interfaces.
Ans: - A

B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:D
such as ___.
A. Zigbee
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - D
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
underlying network.
A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A

D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Coaxial cable
Ans: - B

A. 10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C

A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Transport layer
Ans: - B
resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________

Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A

C. Message
Ans: A
exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?
Ans: A

Ans: A
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits
Ans:B

A. Web chat
B. Error control
Ans: A

Ans: C

B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
Ans: A

A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
Ans: B

A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A

A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A

A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A

communication.
Ans:A
between client and server.
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D

A. Request-Response
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C

Ans: B

Ans: A
99. WSN stands for

D. None of these
Ans: B

A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Ans: A

A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
cloud.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans:A
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
Ans:C
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B

A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D
A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A

A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C

A. True
B. False
Ans.B

A. True
B. False
Ans.A

A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
Ans.C

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A

A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
particular situation?
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
be much larger.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A

A. Machine tools
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A

A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Cameras
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D

A. Sense
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None
Ans: B

A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
A. Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for

Ans: A

A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D

D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C

expert presentation
Ans: B

files and folders
Ans: D

Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B

Ans: C
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D

available.
evidence.
Ans: A
C. Review phase.
Ans: B

phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B
Ans. D

A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

Ans: B
Ans: D
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B

C. Sabotage.
Ans. D

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
on user input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
In LISP, the function returns the list that results after the first element is removed (the rest f the
list), is __________
a) car
b) last
c) cons
d) cdr
Which of the following contains the output segments of Artificial Intelligence programming?
a) Printed language and synthesized speech
b) Manipulation of physical object
c) Locomotion
d) All of the mentioned
LISP was created by?

a) John McCarthy
b) Marvin Minsky
c) Alan Turing
d) Allen Newell and Herbert Simon
Expert Ease was developed under the direction of __________

a) John McCarthy
b) Donald Michie
c) Lofti Zadeh
d) Alan Turing
An Artificial Intelligence system developed by Terry A. Winograd to permit an interactive

dialogue about a domain he called blocks-world.
a) SHRDLU
b) SIMD
c) BACON
d) STUDENT
MLMenu, a natural language interface for the TI Explorer, is similar to __________

a) Ethernet
b) NaturalLink
c) PROLOG
d) The Personal Consultant
Strong Artificial Intelligence is __________

a) the embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer
b) a set of computer programs that produce output that would be considered to reflect
intelligence if it were generated by humans
c) the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models implemented on a computer
The traditional way to exit and LISP system is to enter __________

a) quit
b) exit
c) bye
d) ok
In which of the following situations might a blind search be acceptable?

a) real-life situation
b) complex game
c) small search space
. What is Artificial intelligence?

a) Putting your intelligence into Computer
b) Programming with your own intelligence
c) Making a Machine intelligent
d) Playing a Game
Which search method takes less memory?

a) Depth-First Search
b) Breadth-First search
c) Optimal search
d) Linear Search
A heuristic is a way of trying __________

a) To discover something or an idea embedded in a program
b) To search and measure how far a node in a search tree seems to be from a goal
c) To compare two nodes in a search tree to see if one is better than the other is
How do you represent “All dogs have tails”?

a) ۷x: dog(x) àhastail(x)
b) ۷x: dog(x) àhastail(y)
c) ۷x: dog(y) àhastail(x)
d) ۷x: dog(x) àhasàtail(x)
. Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?

a) Representational Verification
b) Representational Adequacy
c) Inferential Adequacy
d) Inferential Efficiency
A series of Artificial Intelligence systems, developed by Pat Langley to explore the role of
heuristics in scientific discovery is ________
a) RAMD
b) BACON
c) MIT
d) DU
A.M. turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer could or could not
demonstrate the artificial Intelligence, Presently, this technique is called __________
a) Turing Test
b) Algorithm
c) Boolean Algebra
d) Logarithm
A Personal Consultant knowledge base contain information in the form of __________

a) parameters
b) contexts
c) production rules
Which approach to speech recognition avoids the problem caused by the variation in speech
patterns among different speakers?
a) Continuous speech recognition
b) Isolated word recognition
c) Connected word recognition
d) Speaker-dependent recognition
Which of the following, is a component of an expert system?

a) inference engine
b) knowledge base
c) user interface
A computer vision technique that relies on image templates is __________

a) edge detection
b) binocular vision
c) model-based vision
d) robot vision
DARPA, the agency that has funded a great deal of American Artificial Intelligence research, is
part of the Department of __________
a) Defense
b) Energy
c) Education
d) Justice
. Which of these schools was not among the early leaders in Artificial Intelligence research?
a) Dartmouth University
b) Harvard University
c) Massachusetts Institute of Technology
d) Stanford University
A certain Professor at the Stanford University coined the word ‘artificial intelligence’ in 1956 at
a conference held at Dartmouth college. Can you name the Professor?
a) David Levy
b) John McCarthy
c) Joseph Weizenbaum
d) Hans Berliner
In LISP, the function (copy-list <list>)

a) returns a new list that is equal to <list> by copying the top-level element of <list>
b) returns the length of <list>
c) returns t if <list> is empty
Who is the “father” of artificial intelligence?

a) Fisher Ada
b) John McCarthy
c) Allen Newell
d) Alan Turning
In 1985, the famous chess player David Levy beat a world champion chess program in four
straight games by using orthodox moves that confused the program. What was the name of the
chess program?
a) Kaissa
b) CRAY BLITZ
c) Golf
d) DIGDUG
. The explanation facility of an expert system may be used to __________
a) construct a diagnostic model
b) expedite the debugging process
c) explain the system’s reasoning process
d) expedite the debugging process & explain the system’s reasoning process
A process that is repeated, evaluated, and refined is called __________

a) diagnostic
b) descriptive
c) interpretive
d) iterative
Visual clues that are helpful in computer vision include __________

a) color and motion
b) depth and texture
c) height and weight
d) color and motion, depth and texture
The conference that launched the AI revolution in 1956 was held at?
a) Dartmouth
b) Harvard
c) New York
d) Stanford
Texas Instruments Incorporated produces a low-cost LISP machine called __________

a) The Computer-Based Consultant
b) The Explorer
c) Smalltalk
d) The Personal Consultant
When a top-level function is entered, the LISP processor do(es)?

a) It reads the function entered
b) It evaluates the function and the function’s operands
c) It prints the results returned by the function
One method of programming a computer to exhibit human intelligence is called modeling or

__________
a) simulation
b) cognitization
c) duplication
d) psychic amelioration
Graphic interfaces were first used in a Xerox product called __________
a) InterLISP
b) Ethernet
c) Smalltalk
d) ZetaLISP
The Al researcher who co-authored both the Handbook of Artificial Intelligence and The Fifth
Generation is __________
a) Bruce Lee
b) Randy Davis
c) Ed Feigenbaum
d) Mark Fox
Which of the following is being investigated as a means of automating the creation of a

knowledge base?
a) automatic knowledge acquisition
b) simpler tools
c) discovery of new concepts
The CAI (Computer-Assisted Instruction) technique based on programmed instruction is

__________
a) frame-based CAI
b) generative CAI
c) problem-solving CAI
d) intelligent CAI
A robot’s “arm” is also known as its __________

a) end effector
b) actuator
c) manipulator
d) servomechanism
KEE is a product of __________

a) Teknowledge
b) IntelliCorpn
c) Texas Instruments
d) Tech knowledge
In LISP, the function X (x). (2x+l) would be rendered as __________

a) (lambda (x) (+(*2 x)l))
b) (lambda (x) (+1 (* 2x)
c) (+ lambda (x) 1 (*2x))
d) (* lambda(x) (+2×1)
A natural language generation program must decide __________

a) what to say
b) when to say something
c) why it is being used
d) both what to say & when to say something
The hardware features of LISP machines generally include __________

a) large memory and a high-speed processor
b) letter-quality printers and 8-inch disk drives
c) a mouse and a specialized keyboard
d) large memory and a high-speed processor & a mouse and a specialized keyboard
In which of the following areas may ICAI programs prove to be useful?

a) educational institutions
b) corporations
c) department of Defense
A network with named nodes and labeled arcs that can be used to represent certain natural
language grammars to facilitate parsing.
a) Tree Network
b) Star Network
c) Transition Network
d) Complete Network
What is Machine learning?

a) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
b) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
c) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
d) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
Which of the factors affect the performance of learner system does not include?
a) Representation scheme used
b) Training scenario
c) Type of feedback
d) Good data structures
Different learning methods does not include?

a) Memorization
b) Analogy
c) Deduction
d) Introduction
In language understanding, the levels of knowledge that does not include?

a) Phonological
b) Syntactic
c) Empirical
d) Logical
A model of language consists of the categories which does not include?

a) Language units
b) Role structure of units
c) System constraints
d) Structural units
What is a top-down parser?

a) Begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S) and successively predicting lower level
constituents until individual preterminal symbols are written
b) Begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S) and successively predicting upper level
constituents until individual preterminal symbols are written
c) Begins by hypothesizing lower level constituents and successively predicting a sentence (the
symbol S)
d) Begins by hypothesizing upper level constituents and successively predicting a sentence (the
symbol S)
Among the following which is not a horn clause?

a) p
b) Øp V q
c) p → q
d) p → Øq
The action ‘STACK(A, B)’ of a robot arm specify to _______________

a) Place block B on Block A
b) Place blocks A, B on the table in that order
c) Place blocks B, A on the table in that order
d) Place block A on block B
Which instruments are used for perceiving and acting upon the environment?
a) Sensors and Actuators
b) Sensors
c) Perceiver
d) None of the mentioned
What is meant by agent’s percept sequence?

a) Used to perceive the environment
b) Complete history of actuator
c) Complete history of perceived things
How many types of agents are there in artificial intelligence?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
What is the rule of simple reflex agent?

a) Simple-action rule
b) Condition-action rule
c) Simple & Condition-action rule
What are the composition for agents in artificial intelligence?

a) Program
b) Architecture
c) Both Program & Architecture
In which agent does the problem generator is present?

a) Learning agent
b) Observing agent
c) Reflex agent
Which is used to improve the agents performance?
a) Perceiving
b) Learning
c) Observing
Which agent deals with happy and unhappy states?

a) Simple reflex agent
b) Model based agent
c) Learning agent
d) Utility based agent
Which action sequences are used to achieve the agent’s goal?

a) Search
b) Plan
c) Retrieve
d) Both Search & Plan
Which element in the agent are used for selecting external actions?
a) Perceive
b) Performance
c) Learning
d) Actuator
What is Artificial intelligence?

a) Putting your intelligence into Computer
b) Programming with your own intelligence
c) Making a Machine intelligent
d) Playing a Game
Which is not the commonly used programming language for AI?

a) PROLOG
b) Java
c) LISP
d) Perl
Artificial Intelligence has its expansion in the following application.

a) Planning and Scheduling
b) Game Playing
c) Diagnosis
What is an ‘agent’?
a) Perceives its environment through sensors and acting upon that environment through actuators
b) Takes input from the surroundings and uses its intelligence and performs the desired
operations
c) A embedded program controlling line following robot
Agents behavior can be best described by ____________

a) Perception sequence
b) Agent function
c) Sensors and Actuators
d) Environment in which agent is performing
Rational agent is the one who always does the right thing.
a) True
b) False
Performance Measures are fixed for all agents.

a) True
b) False
What is rational at any given time depends on?

a) The performance measure that defines the criterion of success
b) The agent’s prior knowledge of the environment
c) The actions that the agent can perform
An omniscient agent knows the actual outcome of its actions and can act accordingly; but
omniscience is impossible in reality. Rational Agent always does the right thing; but Rationality
is possible in reality.
a) True
b) False
The Task Environment of an agent consists of ____________

a) Sensors
b) Actuators
c) Performance Measures
What could possibly be the environment of a Satellite Image Analysis System?
a) Computers in space and earth
b) Image categorization techniques
c) Statistical data on image pixel intensity value and histograms
Categorize Crossword puzzle in Fully Observable / Partially Observable.

a) Fully Observable
b) partially Observable
c) All of the mentioned
The game of Poker is a single agent.

a) True
b) False
Satellite Image Analysis System is (Choose the one that is not applicable).
a) Episodic
b) Semi-Static
c) Single agent
d) Partially Observable
An agent is composed of ________

a) Architecture
b) Agent Function
c) Perception Sequence
d) Architecture and Program
_________ allows us to control electronic components

a) RETful API
b) RESTful API
c) HTTP
d) MQTT
MQTT stands for _____________

a) MQ Telemetry Things
b) MQ Transport Telemetry
c) MQ Transport Things
d) MQ Telemetry Transport
MQTT is better than HTTP for sending and receiving data.
a) True
b) False
MQTT is _________ protocol.

a) Machine to Machine
b) Internet of Things
c) Machine to Machine and Internet of Things
d) Machine Things
Which protocol is lightweight?

a) MQTT
b) HTTP
c) CoAP
d) SPI
PubNub publishes and subscribes _________ in order to send and receive messages.
a) Network
b) Account
c) Portal
d) Keys
By clicking which key the PubNub will display public, subscribe, and secret keys.
a) Pane
b) Demo Keyset
c) Portal
d) Network
The messageChannel class declares the _________ class attribute that defines the key string.
a) command_key
b) command-key
c) commandkey
d) Key_command
_________ method saves the received arguments in three attributes.
a) __Init
b) Init__
c) __Init__
d) _init_
_________ and _________ saves the publish and subscribe keys that we have generated with the
PubNub Admin portal.
a) public_key and subscribe_key
b) Public-key and subscribe-key
c) publickey and subscribekey
d) Key_public and key_subscribe
_________ specifies the function that will be called when there is a new message received from
the channel.
a) Reconnect
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Callback
_________ specifies the function that will be called on an error event.

a) Callback
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Reconnect
_________ Specifies the function that will be called when a successful connection with the
PubNub cloud.
a) Callback
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Reconnect
_________ specifies the function that will be called when a successful re-connection is
completed.
a) Callback
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Reconnect
___________ specifies the function that will be called when the client disconnects.
a) Callback
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Disconnect
What is the java extension file in IoT?

a) .jar
b) .c
c) .exe
d) .py
Do we run our program in the same computer where we have written?

a) True
b) False
c) May or may not
d) Cannot be determined
Publish command message is sent from _________

a) Only publisher to broker
b) Only broker to publisher
c) Publisher to broker and broker to publisher
d) Server to client
The message is sent to the input queue of a message flow that contains a _________
a) Subscriber
b) Server
c) Publication node
d) Client
Does user has authority for all topics.

a) True
b) False
ROSTOPIC uses _________ at the command line for representing the content of the message.
a) YAML_syntax
b) rostopic bw
c) rostopic delay
d) rostopic echo
Which command displays the band width?
a) rostopic hz
b) rostopic delay
c) rostopic echo
d) rostopic bw
rostopic delay will provide delay for ___________
a) Topics which has header
b) Topics which has tail
c) Topics which has tail and head
d) To all topics
Which command displays messages published to a topic?

a) rostopic bw
b) rostopic delay
c) rostopic echo
d) rostopic hz
Which command finds out the topic?

a) rostopic bw
b) rostopic delay
c) rostopic echo
d) rostopic find
Publishing messages is handled through ________ Class.

a) Client()
b) Server()
c) Publish()
d) Batch()
client() class provides ________ to create topics.

a) Software
b) Classes
c) Methods
d) Batch
________ method publishes messages to pub/sub.

a) Client()
b) Publish()
c) Server()
d) Batch()
How many arguments are accepted by publish()?
a) 5 arguments
b) 3 arguments
c) 1 argument
d) 2 arguments
Does publish() method accepts arbitrary arguments.

a) True
b) False
The topic in the publish method is in which form?

a) Binomial form
b) Canonical form
c) Nominal form
d) Message form
The message in pub/sub is an opaque blob of ________

a) Bits
b) Bytes
c) Word
d) Nibble
________ error will show if we try to send text string instead of bytes.
a) TypeError
b) Error
c) Linker error
d) Compiler error
What do we call string in python 2?

a) Str
b) Unicode
c) Strs
d) Unicades
When you publish a message ________ is automatically created?

a) Client
b) Server
c) Batch
d) Server
When the batch is created, it begins a countdown that publishes the batch once sufficient time
has elapsed.
a) True
b) False
What is the time elapsed after a batch is created?

a) 0.5 seconds
b) 0.05 seconds
c) 1.5 seconds
d) 1 second
Every call to publish() will return a class that conforms to the __________ interface.
a) Batch
b) Client
c) Server
d) Future
IaaS stands for __________

a) Infrastructure as a Service
b) Infrastructure as a Software
c) Internet as a Service
d) Internet as a Software
Mobile cloud computing at its simplest refers to an __________

a) Intervention
b) Internet
c) Infrastructure
d) Intervention & Internet
Mobile Cloud applications move the __________ Power and __________ away from mobile
phone and into cloud.
a) Computing and internet
b) Data storage and computing
c) Computing and data storage
d) Internet and computing
SaaS stands for __________
a) Service as a Smartphone
b) Service as a software
c) Smartphone as a service
d) Software as a Service
__________ reduces the development and running cost of mobile applications on smartphone
devices.
a) Infrastructure
b) Productive business
c) Software
d) Services
PaaS stands as __________

a) Platform as a Software
b) Photo as a service
c) Platform as a Service
d) Photo as a Software
The architecture of MCC is such that various mobile devices are connected to their respective
mobile networks via __________
a) Software
b) Satellite
c) Access point
d) Base Station
MCC stands for Mobile Cloud Computation.

a) True
b) False
__________ is the minimum value which an application shall exceed to be offloaded.

a) Static value
b) Critical value
c) Threshold value
d) Dynamic value
Offloading decision depends upon __________ to be offloaded.

a) Size of application
b) Threshold value
c) Critical value
d) Dynamic value
The part of the code which involves complex computations and requires more time to execute is
referred to as __________
a) Static session
b) Threshold session
c) Dynamic session
d) Critical session
In __________ offloading application is partitioned during development.

a) Static offloading
b) Dynamic offloading
c) Threshold offloading
d) Critical offloading
__________ network environment means changing connection status.

a) Static offloading
b) Dynamic offloading
c) Threshold offloading
d) Critical offloading
__________ is defined as delay between the offloading and final result.

a) Latency rate
b) Network Bandwidth
c) Heterogeneity
d) Migration Cost
_____________ Depends upon the amount of the code being offloaded.

a) Latency rate
b) Network Bandwidth
c) Heterogeneity
d) Migration Cost
Which one of the following offers CPUs as integrated memory or peripheral interfaces?
a) Microcontroller
b) Microprocessor
c) Embedded system
d) Memory system
Which of the following offers external chips for memory and peripheral interface circuits?
a) Microcontroller
b) Microprocessor
d) Embedded system
How many bits does an MC6800 family have?

a) 16
b) 32
c) 4
d) 8
Which of the following is a 4-bit architecture?

a) MC6800
b) 8086
c) 80386
d) National COP series
What is CISC?
How is the protection and security for an embedded system made?

a) OTP
b) IPR
d) Security chips
Which of the following possesses a CISC architecture?

a) MC68020
b) ARC
c) Atmel AVR
d) Blackfin
Which of the following is a RISC architecture?
a) 80286
b) MIPS
c) Zilog Z80
d) 80386
Which one of the following is board based system?

a) Data bus
b) Address bus
c) VMEbus
d) DMA bus
VME bus stands for

a) Versa module Europa bus
b) Versa module embedded bus
c) Vertical module embedded bus
d) Vertical module Europa bus
Which of the following provides a buffer between the user and the low-level interfaces to the
hardware?
a) operating system
b) kernel
c) software
d) hardware
Which of the following enables the user to utilise the system efficiently?
a) kernel
b) operating system
c) software
d) hardware
Which of the following can make the application program hardware independent?
a) software
c) operating system
d) kernel
Which of the following speed up the testing process?

a) kernel
b) software
c) application manager
d) program debugging tools
Which of the following includes its own I/O routine?
a) hardware
b) kernel
c) operating system
Which forms the heart of the operating system?

a) kernel
b) applications
c) hardware
d) operating system
Which of the following locates a parameter block by using an address pointer?

a) OS
b) kernel
c) system
d) memory
Which of the following are not dependent on the actual hardware performing the physical task?
a) applications
b) hardware
c) registers
d) parameter block
Which of the following bus can easily upgrade the system hardware?
a) control bus
b) data bus
c) VMEbus
d) bus interface unit
Which of the following is the first widely used operating system?

a) MS-DOS
b) windows XP
c) android
d) CP/M
Which of the following is an example of a single task operating system?
a) android
b) windows
c) IOS
d) CP/M
Which of the following becomes a limiting factor while an application program has to be
complete?
a) memory
b) peripheral
c) input
d) output
Which of the following cannot carry implicit information?

a) semaphore
b) message passing
c) threads
d) process
Which of the following works by dividing the processor’s time?

a) single task operating system
b) multitask operating system
c) kernel
d) applications
Which of the following decides which task can have the next time slot?
a) single task operating system
b) applications
c) kernel
d) software
Which of the following controls the time slicing mechanism in a multitasking operating system?
a) kernel
b) single tasking kernel
c) multitasking kernel
Which of the following provides a time period for the context switch?
a) timer
b) counter
c) time slice
d) time machine
Which of the following can periodically trigger the context switch?

a) software interrupt
b) hardware interrupt
c) peripheral
d) memory
Which interrupt provides system clock in the context switching?

a) software interrupt
b) hardware interrupt
c) peripheral
d) memory
The special tale in the multitasking operating system is also known as

a) task control block
b) task access block
c) task address block
d) task allocating block
Which of the following stores all the task information that the system requires?
a) task access block
b) register
c) accumulator
d) task control block
Which of the following contains all the task and their status?
a) register
b) ready list
c) access list
d) task list
Which determines the sequence and the associated task’s priority?
a) scheduling algorithm
b) ready list
c) task control block
d) application register
Which can control memory usage?

a) operating system
b) applications
c) hardware
d) kernel
Which can control the memory sharing between the tasks?

a) kernel
b) application
c) software
d) OS
Which of the following can implement the message passing and control?
a) application software
b) operating system
c) software
d) kernel
How many types of messages are associated with the real-time operating system?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Which of the following can carry information and control task?

a) semaphore
b) messages
c) flags
d) address message
What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an embedded system?
a. Ability to fit on a single chip

b. Low power consumption
c. Fast data processing for real-time operations
d. All of the above
Which abstraction level under-go the compilation process by converting a sequential program
into finite-state machine and register transfers while designing an embedded system?
a. System
b. Behaviour
c. RT
d. Logic
Which characteristics of an embedded system exhibit the responsiveness to the assortments or

variations in system's environment by computing specific results for real-time applications
without any kind of postponement ?
a. Single-functioned Characteristic
b. Tightly-constraint Characteristics
c. Reactive & Real time Characteristics
d. All of the above
Which of the following is not a type of cyber crime?

a) Data theft
b) Forgery
c) Damage to data and systems
d) Installing antivirus for protection
Cyber-laws are incorporated for punishing all criminals only.

a) True
b) False
Cyber-crime can be categorized into ________ types.

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 6
Which of the following is not a type of peer-to-peer cyber-crime?

a) Phishing
b) Injecting Trojans to a target victim
c) MiTM
d) Credit card details leak in deep web
Which of the following is not an example of a computer as weapon cyber-crime?

a) Credit card fraudulent
b) Spying someone using keylogger
c) IPR Violation
d) Pornography
Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals?

a) Unauthorized account access
b) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets
c) Email spoofing and spamming
d) Report vulnerability in any system
What is the name of the IT law that India is having in the Indian legislature?
a) India’s Technology (IT) Act, 2000
b) India’s Digital Information Technology (DIT) Act, 2000
c) India’s Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000
d) The Technology Act, 2008
In which year India’s IT Act came into existence?

a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
What is the full form of ITA-2000?

a) Information Tech Act -2000
b) Indian Technology Act -2000
c) International Technology Act -2000
d) Information Technology Act -2000
The Information Technology Act -2000 bill was passed by K. R. Narayanan.
a) True
b) False
Under which section of IT Act, stealing any digital asset or information is written a cyber-crime.
a) 65
b) 65-D
c) 67
d) 70
What is the punishment in India for stealing computer documents, assets or any software’s
source code from any organization, individual, or from any other means?
a) 6 months of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 50,000
b) 1 year of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 100,000
c) 2 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 250,000
d) 3 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 500,000
What is the updated version of the IT Act, 2000?

a) IT Act, 2007
b) Advanced IT Act, 2007
c) IT Act, 2008
d) Advanced IT Act, 2008
In which year the Indian IT Act, 2000 got updated?

a) 2006
b) 2008
c) 2010
d) 2012
What type of cyber-crime, its laws and punishments does section 66 of the Indian IT Act holds?
a) Cracking or illegally hack into any system
b) Putting antivirus into the victim
c) Stealing data
d) Stealing hardware components
Accessing computer without prior authorization is a cyber-crimes that come under _______
a) Section 65
b) Section 66
c) Section 68
d) Section 70
Cracking digital identity of any individual or doing identity theft, comes under __________ of IT
Act.
a) Section 65
b) Section 66
c) Section 68
d) Section 70
Accessing Wi-Fi dishonestly is a cyber-crime.

a) True
b) False
Download copy, extract data from an open system done fraudulently is treated as _________
a) cyber-warfare
b) cyber-security act
c) data-backup
d) cyber-crime
Any cyber-crime that comes under section 66 of IT Act, the accused person gets fined of around
Rs ________
a) 2 lacs
b) 3 lacs
c) 4 lacs
d) 5 lacs
How many years of imprisonment can an accused person face, if he/she comes under any cyber-
crime listed in section 66 of the Indian IT Act, 2000?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years
Any digital content which any individual creates and is not acceptable to the society, it’s a cyber-
crime that comes under _________ of IT Act.
a) Section 66
b) Section 67
c) Section 68
d) Section 69
IT Act 2008 make cyber-crime details more precise where it mentioned if anyone publishes
sexually explicit digital content then under ___________ of IT Act, 2008 he/she has to pay a
legitimate amount of fine.
a) section 67-A
b) section 67-B
c) section 67-C
d) section 67-D
If anyone publishes sexually explicit type digital content, it will cost that person imprisonment of
_________ years.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Using spy cameras in malls and shops to capture private parts of any person comes under
_______ of IT Act, 2008.
a) Section 66
b) Section 67
c) Section 68
d) Section 69
Using spy cameras in malls and shops to capture private parts of any person comes under section
67 of IT Act, 2008 and is punished with a fine of Rs. 5 Lacs.
a) True
b) False
Using of spy cameras in malls and shops to capture private parts of any person comes under
section 67 of IT Act, 2008 and is punished with imprisonment of ___________
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years
Misuse of digital signatures for fraudulent purposes comes under __________ of IT Act.
a) section 65
b) section 66
c) section 71
d) section 72
Sending offensive message to someone comes under _____________ of the Indian IT Act
______
a) section 66-A, 2000
b) section 66-B, 2008
c) section 67, 2000
d) section 66-A, 2008
Stealing of digital files comes under __________ of the Indian IT Act.

a) section 66-A
b) section 66-B
c) section 66-C
d) section 66-D
Section 79 of the Indian IT Act declares that any 3rd party information or personal data leakage
in corporate firms or organizations will be a punishable offense.
a) True
b) False
Which of the following attach is not used by LC4 to recover Windows password?
a) Brute-force attack
b) Dictionary attack
c) MiTM attack
d) Hybrid attacks
____________ is the world’s most popular vulnerability scanner used in companies for checking
vulnerabilities in the network.
a) Wireshark
b) Nessus
c) Snort
d) WebInspect
_____________ is a tool which can detect registry issues in an operating system.

a) Network Stumbler
b) Ettercap
c) Maltego
d) LANguard Network Security Scanner
Network Stumbler is a Windows Wi-Fi monitoring tool.

a) True
b) False
5. ToneLoc is abbreviated as __________

a) Tone Locking
b) Tone Locator
c) Tone Locker
d) Tune Locator
__________ is a debugger and exploration tool.

a) Netdog
b) Netcat
c) Tcpdump
d) BackTrack
__________ is a popular command-line packet analyser.

a) Wireshark
b) Snort
c) Metasploit
d) Tcpdump
________________ is a platform that essentially keeps the log of data from networks, devices as
well as applications in a single location.
a) EventLog Analyser
b) NordVPN
c) Wireshark
d) PacketFilter Analyzer
______________ is competent to restore corrupted Exchange Server Database files as well as

recovering unapproachable mails in mailboxes.
a) Outlook
b) Nessus
c) Mailbox Exchange Recovery
d) Mail Exchange Recovery toolkit
. ________________ helps in protecting businesses against data breaches that may make threats
to cloud.
a) Centrify
b) Mailbox Exchange Recovery
c) Nessus
d) Dashline
advertisement
__________ is a popular corporate security tool that is used to detect the attack on email with
cloud only services.
a) Cain and Abel
b) Proofpoint
c) Angry IP Scanner
d) Ettercap
_____________ helps in protecting corporate data, communications and other assets.

a) Snort
b) CipherCloud
c) Burp Suit
d) Wireshark
_________ framework made cracking of vulnerabilities easy like point and click.
a) .Net
b) Metasploit
c) Zeus
d) Ettercap
Nmap is abbreviated as Network Mapper.

a) True
b) False
__________ is a popular tool used for discovering networks as well as in security auditing.
a) Ettercap
b) Metasploit
c) Nmap
d) Burp Suit
Which of this Nmap do not check?
a) services different hosts are offering
b) on what OS they are running
c) what kind of firewall is in use
d) what type of antivirus is in use
Which of the following deals with network intrusion detection and real-time traffic analysis?
a) John the Ripper
b) L0phtCrack
c) Snort
d) Nessus
Wireshark is a ____________ tool.

a) network protocol analysis
b) network connection security
c) connection analysis
d) defending malicious packet-filtering
Which of the below-mentioned tool is used for Wi-Fi hacking?

a) Wireshark
b) Nessus
c) Aircrack-ng
d) Snort
Aircrack-ng is used for ____________

a) Firewall bypassing
b) Wi-Fi attacks
c) Packet filtering
d) System password cracking
_____________ is a popular IP address and port scanner.

a) Cain and Abel
b) Snort
c) Angry IP Scanner
d) Ettercap
_______________ is a popular tool used for network analysis in multiprotocol diverse network.
a) Snort
b) SuperScan
c) Burp Suit
d) EtterPeak
____________ scans TCP ports and resolves different hostnames.

a) SuperScan
b) Snort
c) Ettercap
d) QualysGuard
___________ is a web application assessment security tool.

a) LC4
b) WebInspect
c) Ettercap
d) QualysGuard
Which of the following attack-based checks WebInspect cannot do?

a) cross-site scripting
b) directory traversal
c) parameter injection
d) injecting shell code
________ is a password recovery and auditing tool.

a) LC3
b) LC4
c) Network Stumbler
d) Maltego
L0phtCrack is formerly known as LC3.
a) True
b) False
___________ is a weakness that can be exploited by attackers.
a) System with Virus
b) System without firewall
c) System with vulnerabilities
d) System with a strong password
_________ is the sum of all the possible points in software or system where unauthorized users
can enter as well as extract data from the system.
a) Attack vector
b) Attack surface
c) Attack point
d) Attack arena
____________ is the cyclic practice for identifying & classifying and then solving the
vulnerabilities in a system.
a) Bug protection
b) Bug bounty
c) Vulnerability measurement
d) Vulnerability management
Risk and vulnerabilities are the same things.

a) True
b) False
_____________ is a special type of vulnerability that doesn’t possess risk.

a) Vulnerabilities without risk
b) Vulnerabilities without attacker
c) Vulnerabilities without action
d) Vulnerabilities no one knows
A/An __________ is a piece of software or a segment of command that usually take advantage
of a bug to cause unintended actions and behaviors.
a) malware
b) trojan
c) worms
d) exploit
There are ________ types of exploit.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
Remote exploits is that type of exploits acts over any network to exploit on security
vulnerability.
a) True
b) False
________ type of exploit requires accessing to any vulnerable system for enhancing privilege for
an attacker to run the exploit.
a) Local exploits
b) Remote exploits
c) System exploits
d) Network exploits
___________ is a technique used by penetration testers to compromise any system within a

network for targeting other systems.
a) Exploiting
b) Cracking
c) Hacking
d) Pivoting
A _________ is a software bug that attackers can take advantage to gain unauthorized access in a
system.
a) System error
b) Bugged system
c) Security bug
d) System virus
Security bugs are also known as _______

a) security defect
b) security problems
c) system defect
d) software error
__________ is the timeframe from when the loophole in security was introduced till the time
when the bug was fixed.
a) Time-frame of vulnerability
b) Window of vulnerability
c) Time-lap of vulnerability
d) Entry-door of vulnerability
ISMS is abbreviated as __________

a) Information Server Management System
b) Information Security Management Software
c) Internet Server Management System
d) Information Security Management System
A zero-day vulnerability is a type of vulnerability unknown to the creator or vendor of the

system or software.
a) True
b) False
What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?
a) To think like hackers and know how to defend such attacks
b) To hack a system without the permission
c) To hack a network that is vulnerable
d) To corrupt software or service using malware
Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is ____________ ethical

practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
c) very good social engineering practice
d) a bad
___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for unethical
hacking.
a) Automated apps
b) Database software
c) Malware
d) Worms
Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of senior authority
is a crime.
a) True
b) False
_____________ is the technique used in business organizations and firms to protect IT assets.
a) Ethical hacking
b) Unethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
d) Internal data-breach
The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of personal data.
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key points listed below is
not mandatory?
a) Know the nature of the organization
b) Characteristics of work done in the firm
c) System and network
d) Type of broadband company used by the firm
An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not get leaked.
a) True
b) False
After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client information to
other parties.
a) hacking
b) cracking
c) penetration testing
d) exploiting
__________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides different
theories and a principle regarding the view-points about what is right and wrong.
a) Social ethics
b) Ethics in cyber-security
c) Corporate ethics
d) Ethics in black hat hacking
. ________ helps to classify arguments and situations, better understand a cyber-crime and helps
to determine appropriate actions.
a) Cyber-ethics
b) Social ethics
c) Cyber-bullying
d) Corporate behaviour
A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the ___________ & ___________
a) privacy and security
b) rules and regulations
c) hacking techniques
d) ethics to talk to seniors
A ______________ tries to formulate a web resource occupied or busy its users by flooding the
URL of the victim with unlimited requests than the server can handle.
a) Phishing attack
b) DoS attack
c) Website attack
d) MiTM attack
During a DoS attack, the regular traffic on the target _____________ will be either dawdling
down or entirely interrupted.
a) network
b) system
c) website
d) router
The intent of a ______________ is to overkill the targeted server’s bandwidth and other
resources of the target website.
a) Phishing attack
b) DoS attack
c) Website attack
d) MiTM attack
DoS is abbreviated as _____________________

a) Denial of Service
b) Distribution of Server
c) Distribution of Service
d) Denial of Server
A DoS attack coming from a large number of IP addresses, making it hard to manually filter or
crash the traffic from such sources is known as a _____________
a) GoS attack
b) PDoS attack
c) DoS attack
d) DDoS attack
DDoS stands for _________________

a) Direct Distribution of Server
b) Distributed Denial of Service
c) Direct Distribution of Service
d) Distributed Denial of Server
Instead of implementing single computer & its internet bandwidth, a ____________ utilizes
various systems & their connections for flooding the targeted website.
a) GoS attack
b) PoS attack
c) DDoS attack
d) DoS attack
There are ______ types of DoS attack.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Application layer DoS attack is also known as _______________

a) Layer4 DoS attack
b) Layer5 DoS attack
c) Layer6 DoS attack
d) Layer7 DoS attack
___________ is a type of DoS threats to overload a server as it sends a large number of requests
requiring resources for handling & processing.
a) Network Layer DoS
b) Physical Layer DoS
c) Transport Layer DoS
d) Application Layer DoS
Which of the following is not a type of application layer DoS?

a) HTTP flooding
b) Slowloris
c) TCP flooding
d) DNS query flooding
Network layer attack is also known as ________________

a) Layer3-4 DoS attack
b) Layer5 DoS attack
c) Layer6-7 DoS attack
d) Layer2 DoS attack
Which of the following do not comes under network layer DoS flooding?
a) UDP flooding
b) HTTP Flooding
c) SYN flooding
d) NTP Amplification
Which of the following do not comes under network layer DoS flooding?
a) DNS amplification
b) UDP flooding
c) DNS query flooding
d) NTP Amplification
DDoS are high traffic events that are measured in Gigabits per second (Gbps) or packets per
second (PPS).
a) True
b) False
A DDoS with 20 to 40 Gbps is enough for totally shutting down the majority network
infrastructures.
a) True
b) False
______________ is an internet scam done by cyber-criminals where the user is convinced

digitally to provide confidential information.
a) Phishing attack
b) DoS attack
c) Website attack
d) MiTM attack
In _______________ some cyber-criminals redirect the legitimate users to different phishing

sites and web pages via emails, IMs, ads and spyware.
a) URL Redirection
b) DoS
c) Phishing
d) MiTM attack
Phishers often develop ______________ websites for tricking users & filling their personal data.
a) legitimate
b) illegitimate
c) genuine
d) official
Which of the following type of data, phishers cannot steal from its target victims?
a) bank details
b) phone number
c) passwords
d) apps installed in the mobile
Algorithm-Based Phishing was developed in the year __________

a) 1988
b) 1989
c) 1990
d) 1991
______________ was the first type of phishing where the phishers developed an algorithm for
generating random credit card numbers.
a) Algo-based phishing
b) Email-based phishing
c) Domain Phishing
d) Vishing
Email Phishing came into origin in the year __________

a) 1990
b) 2000
c) 2005
d) 2015
_________________ type of phishing became very popular as if it has been sent from a
legitimate source with a legitimate link to its official website.
c) Domain Phishing
d) Vishing
_____________ refers to phishing performed over smart-phone by calling.

c) Domain Phishing
d) Vishing
_____________ = voice + phishing.

b) Vishing
c) Domain Phishing
d) Email-based phishing
Victims of phishing are mostly ___________________

a) Tech enthusiast
b) Professional computer engineers
c) Lack of computer knowledge
d) Lack of management skill
___________________ is usually targeted by nature where the emails are exclusively designed
to target any exact user.
b) Vishing
c) Domain Phishing
d) Spear phishing
. ____________ or smishing is one of the simplest types of phishing where the target victims
may get a fake order detail with a cancellation link.
b) SMS phishing
c) Domain Phishing
d) Spear phishing
________________ phishing is that type of phishing where the construction of a fake webpage is
done for targeting definite keywords & waiting for the searcher to land on the fake webpage.
a) Voice
b) SMS
c) Search engine
d) Email
Which of the following is not an example or type of phishing?

a) Spear phishing
b) Deceptive phishing
c) Whaling
d) Monkey in the Middle
Which of the following is not an example or type of phishing?

a) Tracking
b) Vishing
c) Smishing
d) Pharming
_____________ is data interception method used by hackers.

a) Phishing
b) DoS
c) Sniffing
d) MiTM
Sniffing is also known as ___________________

a) network-tapping
b) wiretapping
c) net-tapping
d) wireless-tapping
_____________ are programs or devices that capture the vital information from the target
network or particular network.
a) Routers
b) Trappers
c) Wireless-crackers
d) Sniffers
Which of them is not an objective of sniffing for hackers?

a) Fetching passwords
b) Email texts
c) Types of files transferred
d) Geographic location of a user
Which of the following tech-concepts cannot be sniffed?

a) Router configuration
b) ISP details
c) Email Traffic
d) Web Traffic
Which of the following tech-concepts cannot be sniffed?

a) Cloud sessions
b) FTP passwords
c) Telnet passwords
d) Chat sessions
Which of the below-mentioned protocol is not susceptible to sniffing?
a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) POP
d) TCP
Which of the below-mentioned protocol is not susceptible to sniffing?

a) NNTP
b) UDP
c) FTP
d) IMAP
There are __________ types of sniffing.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Active sniffing is difficult to detect.

a) True
b) False
Which of the following is not a sniffing tool?

a) Wireshark
b) Dude Sniffer
c) Maltego
d) Look@LAN
A sniffer, on the whole turns your system’s NIC to the licentious mode so that it can listen to all
your data transmitted on its division.
a) True
b) False
A ______________ on the whole turns your system’s NIC to the licentious mode so that it can
listen to all your data transmitted on its division.
a) Phishing site
b) Sniffer tool
c) Password cracker
d) NIC cracker
In _____________ sniffing, the network traffic is not only supervised & locked but also be can
be altered in different ways to accomplish the attack.
a) passive
b) signal
c) network
d) active
__________________ are those devices which can be plugged into your network at the hardware
level & it can monitor traffic.
a) Hardware sniffers & analyzers
b) Hardware protocol analyzers
c) Hardware protocol sniffers
d) Hardware traffic sniffers and observers
Unit-1 Artificial intelligence
1. The Strategic Computing Program is a project of the:

a. Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
b. National Science Foundation
c. Jet Propulsion Laboratory
d. All of the above
Ans:a) Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
2. Weak AI is
a. the embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer.

b. a set of computer programs that produce output that would be considered to
reflect intelligence if it were generated by humans.
c. the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models implemented on a
computer.
d. All of the above
Ans: c) the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models implemented on a
computer
3. A bidirectional feedback loop links computer modelling with:
a. artificial science
b. heuristic processing
c. human intelligence
d. cognitive science
Ans: d) cognitive science
4. Who is considered to be the "father" of artificial intelligence?
a. Fisher Ada
b. John McCarthy
c. Allen Newell
d. Alan Turning
Ans: b) John McCarthy
5. An AI technique that allows computers to understand associations and relationships

between objects and events is called:
a. heuristic processing
b. cognitive science
c. relative symbolism
d. pattern matching
Ans:d) pattern matching

d. Putting more memory into Computer
Ans: c) Making a Machine intelligent

b. Game Playing
c. Robotics
d. All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above

a. BASIC
b. FORTRAN
c. IPL
d. LISP
Ans:c) IPL
9. Which kind of planning consists of successive representations of different levels of a
plan?
c. All of the above
d. project planning
Ans:a) hierarchical planning
10. To invoke the LISP system, you must enter

a. AI
b. LISP
c. both b and c
Ans:d) None of the above
1. Which one out of these is not a data link layer technology:
a. Bluetooth
b. UART
c. WIFI
d. HTTP
Ans:d) HTTP
2. Which transport layer protocols is used by DHCP?

a. RSVP
b. TCP
c. DCCP
d. UDP
Ans: d) UDP
3. Which layer is called a port layer in OSI model?

a. Session
b. Application
c. Presentation
d. Transport
Ans: a) Session
4 .Frequency band used by 802.11 ah standard is:

a. 60 GHz
b. 2.4 GHz
c. Sub 1 GHz
d. 5 GHz
Ans: c) Sub 1 GHz
5. Machine learning is
a. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
b. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
c. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
d. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
Ans: d) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
6. HTTP resources are located by
a. unique resource locator
b. unique resource identifier
c. none of the mentioned
d. uniform resource identifier
Ans: d) uniform resource identifier
7. MQTT is:
a. Based on client-server architecture
b. Based on publish-subscribe architecture
c. Based on both of the above
d. Based on none of the above
Ans: b) Based on publish-subscribe architecture
8. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a. ALOHA
b. CSMA/CA
c. CDMA
d. none of the mentioned
Ans: b) CSMA/CA
9. Which IEEE standard is developed for CSMA/CD

a. IEEE 802.1
b. IEEE 802.2
c. IEEE 802.3
d. IEEE 802.4
Ans: c) IEEE 802.3
10. Which is the part of Data Link Layer:

a. LLC
b. MAC
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Ans:c) Both a and b
Unit-3 : Basics of Digital Forensic
1. The Father of Computer Forensics is

a) Michasel Anderson
b) J.Korn
c) S.Ciardhuain
d) G.Gunsh
Ans: a) Michasel Anderson

2. IDIP stands for
a) Integrated Digital Investigation Process
b) Integrrated Digital Investigator Process
c) Integrated Digital Investigator Process
d) Independent Digital Investigator Process
Ans: a) Integrated Digital Investigation Process

3. Who proposed Road map model
a) G.Gunsh
b) S.Ciardhuain
c) J.Korn
d) G.Palmar
Ans: d) G.Palmar
4. Who proposed Extended Model of Cybercrime Investigation
a) G.Gunsh
b) S.Ciardhuain
c) J.Korn
d) G.Palmar
Ans: b) S.Ciardhuain
5. Digital forensics is all of them except
a) Extraction of computer data
b) Preservation of computer data
c) Interpretation of computer data
d) Manipulation of computer data
Ans:
6. Investigator should satisfy the following point
a) Contribute to the society and human being
b) Avoid harm to others
c) Honest and trustworthy
d) All of the above

7. Does database forensic include in Digital Forensic application
a) True
b) False
Ans: a) True
8. Who proposed Abstract Digital Forensic Model
a) G.Gunsh
b) S.Ciardhuain
c) Kohn , Eloff
d) G.Palmar
Ans: G.Gunsh
9. International Organization on Compter Evidence was formed in
a) 1980
b) 1995
c) 1997
d) 1998
Ans: b) 1995
10. Abstract Digital Forensic model in
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
Ans: c) 2002
Unit-4: Digital Evidences

a) Data stored or transmitted using a computer
b) Information of probative value
c) Digital data probative value
d) Any digital evidence on a computer
Ans: c) Digital data probative value

2. Digital evidence is only useful in a court of law
a) True
b) False
Ans: b) False
3. In terms of digital evidence the Internet is an example of
a) Open computer systems
b) Communication systems
c) Embedded computer system
d) None of the above
Ans: b) Communication systems

4. The digital evidences are used to establish a credible link between
a) Attacker and victim and the crime scene
b) Attacker and the crime scene
c) Victim and the crime scene
d) Attacker and Information
Ans: a) Attacker and victim and the crime scene

a) Ideal Evidence rule
b) Best Evidence Rule
c) Exchange Rule
Ans:
6. Which of the following is not a type of volatile evidence
a) Routing Tables
b) Main Memory
c) Log files
d) Cached Data
Ans: c) Log files

7. Which of the following is not a type of Evidences
a) Electronic evidence
b) Documented evidence
c) Substantial Evidence
d) Main memory
Ans: d) Main memory

8. Rule of evidence is also called as
a) Law of evidence
c) Electronic evidence
d) Illustrative evidence
Ans: a) Law of evidence

9. The IP address was traced to a cable Internet services provider in city are of
a) Hyderabad
b) Nagpur
c) Aurangabad
d) Ahmednagar
Ans: a) Hyderabad
10. The major forensic categories of devices where evidence can be found:
a) Internet-based
b) Stand-alone computers
c) Mobile devices
d) All of the above

Unit-5 : Basics of Hacking
1. Most computer crimes are committed by

a) Hackers
b) Inteenational spies
c) Highly paid computer consultants
d) Web designers
Ans: a) hackers
2. Ethical hacking is also known as
a) Black hat hacking
b) White hat hacking
c) Encrypting
d) None of these
Ans: b) White hat hacking

3. Types of hackers as follows:
a) White hat hacker
b) Black hat hacker
c) Grey hat hacker
d) All of the above

4. CEH stands for
a) Certified Ethical Hackers
b) Cyber Ethical Hackers
c) Computer Ethical Hackers
d) None of these
Ans: a) Certified Ethical Hackers

a) Strengths
b) Weakness
c) a & b
d) None of these
Ans: b) Weakness
6. Cracker is known as
a) Black hat
b) White hat
c) Encrypting
d) None of these
Ans: a) Black hat

7. _____is used to detect wireless networks on the windows platform
a) Medusa
b) NetStumbler
c) SQLMap
d) Iraon WASP
Ans: b) NetStumbler
8. It is powered by ______ encryption tools
a) WEP WPA & WPA2
b) WEP
c) WPA
d) None of these
Ans: a) WEP WPA & WPA2

9. What port number does HTTPS use
a) 53
b) 443
c) 80
d) 21
Ans: b) 443
10. What is the attack called “evil twin”
a) Rogue access point
b) ARP poisoning
c) Session hijacking
d) MAC spoofing
Ans: a) Rogue access point

Unit-6 : Types of Hacking
1. Which of the following tools is used for Networks Testing and port Scanning
a) NetCat
b) SuperScan
c) NetScan
d) All of Above
Ans: d) All of Above

2. SNMP stands for
a) Simple Networks Messaging Protocol
b) Simple Networks Mailing Protocol
c) Simple Networks Management Protocol
d) Simple Networks Master Protocol
Ans: c) Simple Networks Management Protocol

3. What port number does DNS use
a) 37
b) 53
c) 69
d) 79
Ans: b) 53
4. What port number does HTTP use
a) 53
b) 69
c) 80
d) 79
Ans: c) 80
5. An email bomb is also known as a ___
a) Letter bomb
b) Internet
c) Banner
d) Attack
Ans: a) letter bomb

6. An attacker can create an _____attack by sending hundreds or thousands of
email with very large attachments
a) Connection Attacks
b) Auto responder attacks
c) Attachment Overloading Attacks
d) All of the above
Ans: c) Attachment Overloading Attacks
7. Cross Site Scripting is also shortly khown as
a) XSS
b) HTTP
c) HTTPS
d) DNS
Ans: a) XSS
8. Banner grabbing is often used for
a) White hat hacking
b) Black hat hacking
c) Gray hat hacking
d) Scepit Kiddies
Ans: a) White hat hacking

9. ____for ping sweeps and port scanning
a) Sam Spade
b) SuperScan
c) NetScan
d) NetCat
Ans: b) SuperScan
10. SNMP port is
a) 37
b) 53
c) 111
d) 161
Ans: d) 161
MCQ’s Question and Answers (the answers are highlighted in bold)
Q1.When the Federal Bureau of investigation was create ?.
A)1900 B)1980 C)19450 D)1984
Q2.What is The Full form of CART
A)Computer Analysis and Response Team B) Cathode Analog Ray Tube
C)Computer Accessories Repairing team D)None
Q3 When IOCE is Formed
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)1995
Q4Full Form Of IOCE
A)International Organization on Computer Evidence B)Internet of Computer Education
C) Internet of Computer Evidence D)None
Q5When was the first FBI Regional Computer Forensic laboratory was Recognize ?.
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)2000
Q6How Many Rules in Digital forensic
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q7 What is the Long form of DFI
A)Digital Forensic Investigation B)Digital Fraud Industry
C)Defining Form In D)None
Q8 How Many Phases in RDMDFR
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q9 Investigator should satisfy the following point:
A)Contribute to the society and human being B)Avoid harm to others
C)honest and trustworthy D)All Of the Above
Q10 Who proposed Road Map Model
A)G. Gunsh B)S. Ciardhuain C)J. Korn D)G. Palmar
Q11 Digital Evidence in the form of the:
A)Office File B)E-mail Messages C)Either A or B D)Both A and B

Q12 In Computer intrusions the attacker will be leave multiple traces of there presence in:
A)File System B)Registry C)System Logs D)All of the Above
Q13 What are the Form of Electronic Evidence:
A)Hard Drive B)E-mail C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q14 How Many Types of the Evidence
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q15 What is the full form of BPO
A)Business Process Outsourcing
Q16 The Digital evidence are used to established a credible link between……….
A)Attacker and victim and the crime scene B)Attacker And information
C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q17 The evidence and proof that can be obtained from the electronic source is called the…….
A)Digital Evidence B)Explainable evidence C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q18 Which of the following is not type of volatile evidence:
A)Routing Tables B) Main Memory C)Log Files D) Cached Data
Q19 Digital Evidence must follow the requirement of the
A)Ideal Evidence Rule B)Best Evidence Rule C)Exchange Rule D)All of the mentioned
Q20 White hat Hacker is known as the
A)Cracker B)Ethical C)Grey Hat D)Script Kiddies
Q21 What is an grey hat hacker
A)Black Hat Hacker B)White Hat Hacker C)Combination of White and black hat hackers D)None
Q22 A Hacker who identifies and exploits weakness in telephones instead of computers is known as:
A)Phreaker B)Hacktivist C)Ethical hacker D)Grey Hat hacker
Q23 Long Form of the VPN
A)Virtual Private Network B)Virtual Personal Network C)Both D)None
Q24 Who are use their skill to identify security problem with computer network
A)Black Hat Hacker B)Ethical Hacker C)Grey Hat hacker D)Script Kiddies
Q25 To crack the password you need cracking tool such as:
A)LC4 B)John The Ripper C)pwdump D)All of the above
Q26 NMAP known as:
A)Network Mapper B)NetCat C)SuperScan D)NetScan
Q27 What is the most valuable assets of an organization
A)Information
Q28 What is the full form of SMTP
A)Simple mail Transfer Protocol
Q29 What is the full form of DNS
A)Domain Name System B)Simple mail Transfer Protocol
C)Internet Message Access Protocol D) Network Mapper
Q30 What is the full form of IMAP
A)Internet Message Access Protocol B)Simple mail Transfer Protocol
C)Internet Message Access Protocol D)None
Q31 What is the full form of SNMP
A)Simple Network Management Protocol
Q32 Which of the following used for the Network Testing and port scanning
A)NetCat B)SuperScan C)NetScan D)All of Above
Q33 The whole email server may be targeted for a complete interruption of services with these failure
like
A)Storage overload and bandwidth blocking
Q34 Which is the top most directory in the server file system
A)Root Directory
Q35 Which list is used in the authorization process
A)Access Control List

Q36 What is the latest version of UNIX
A)LINUX
Q37 Which OS is widely used in the world
A)Windows B)LINUX C)IOS D)NONE
Q38 Name of network analyzer which support windows and unix OS
A)Ethereal
Q39 You can grab banner by using
A)Telnet B)NetCat C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q40 An attacker can create an …………………………….. attack by sending hundreds or thousands of emails
with very large attachment
A)Attachment Overloading Attack B)Connection Attack C)Auto Responder Attack
D)All of the Above
1. An Artificial Intelligence system developed by Terry A. Winograd to permit an interactive dialogue

about a domain he called blocks-world.
a. SIMD
b. STUDENT
c. SHRDLU
d. BACON
a. Programming with your own intelligence
b. Putting your intelligence into Computer
c.Making a Machine intelligent
d.Playing a Game
3. Who is the “father” of artificial intelligence?
a.John McCarthy
b. Fisher Ada
c. Allen Newell
d.Alan Turning
4.Which of the following is a proposed means of testing the intelligence of the machine?
Turing TestTurning TestTuning Test
a.Turing Test
b.Turning Test
c.Tuning Test
d.None
5.Which of the following is not a component of a production system?
a.Control System
b.Associative Memory
c.Primary Memory
d.Secondary Memory
6. Zero sum game has player…
a. seven
b. Two
c.three player
d. Multiplayer
7.Which one is used for compute the logical inference algorithm?
a. Validity
b.Satisfiability
c. Logical equivalence
d.All of these
8.Single inference rule also called…
a. Resolution
b. Reference
c.Reference
d.None of these
9.Factoring means…
a.Removal of redundant literal
b.Removal of redundant variable
c.Addition of redundant variable
d.Addition of redundant literal

evidence?
d. Open computer systems, communication systems, embedded systems

a. Open computer systems
b. Communication systems
c. Embedded computer systems



a. Homicide and sexual assault
b. Computer intrusions and intellectual property theft
c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above

a. An unknown person logged into the system using the account
b. The owner of a specific account logged into the system
c. The account was used to log into the system
9. Cybertrails are advantageous because:

a. They are not connected to the physical world.
b. Nobody can be harmed by crime on the Internet.
c. They are easy to follow.
d. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise
would have.
a. They retain data for longer periods of time.
b. Owners of private networks are more cooperative with law enforcement.
c. Private networks contain a higher concentration of digital evidence.
d. All of the above.
Answer 1. Option A.
Question 2. A security audit performed on the internal network of an organization

by the network administration is also known as ___________.
Answer 2. Option C..
 A. Attack
 E. Scanning
Answer 3. Option D.
Answer 4. Option D
Question 5. The security, functionality, and ease of use triangle illustrates which
concept?

Answer 5. Option B.
Answer 6. Option A.
Question 7. What are the three phases of a security evaluation plan? (Choose
three answers.)

 B. Preparation
 C. Conclusion
 D. Final
Answer 7. Options A, B, C.
 B. Hacktivism
 C. Activism
Answer 8. Option B.
 A. Title 12
 B. Title 18
 C. Title 20
 D. Title 2
Answer 9. Option B.
Question 10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known
as what type of attack?
 C. Local access
a) Black Hat hackers
b) White Hat Hackers
c) Grey Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: b
2. Which is the legal form of hacking based on which jobs are provided in IT industries and
firms?
a) Cracking
b) Non ethical Hacking
c) Ethical hacking
d) Hactivism
Answer: c
3. They are nefarious hackers, and their main motive is to gain financial profit by doing cyber
crimes. Who are “they” referred to here?
a) Gray Hat Hackers
c) Hactivists
d) Black Hat Hackers
Answer: d
4. ________ are the combination of both white as well as black hat hackers.
a) Grey Hat hackers
b) Green Hat hackers
c) Blue Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: a
5. The amateur or newbie in the field of hacking who don’t have many skills about coding and
in-depth working of security and hacking tools are called ________
a) Sponsored Hackers
b) Hactivists
c) Script Kiddies
d) Whistle Blowers
Answer: c
6. Suicide Hackers are those _________

a) who break a system for some specific purpose with or without keeping in mind that they may
suffer long term imprisonment due to their malicious activity
b) individuals with no knowledge of codes but an expert in using hacking tools
c) who know the consequences of their hacking activities and hence try to prevent them by
erasing their digital footprints
d) who are employed in an organization to do malicious activities on other firms
Answer: a
7. Criminal minded individuals who work for terrorist organizations and steal information of
nations and other secret intelligence are _________
a) State sponsored hackers
b) Blue Hat Hackers
c) Cyber Terrorists
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: c
8. One who disclose information to public of a company, organization, firm, government and
private agency and he/she is the member or employee of that organization; such individuals are
termed as ___________
a) Sponsored hackers
b) Crackers
c) Hactivist
d) Whistleblowers
Answer: d
9. These types of hackers are the most skilled hackers in the hackers’ community. Who are
b) Elite Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: b
10. _________ are those individuals who maintain and handles IT security in any firm or
organization.
a) IT Security Engineer
b) Cyber Security Interns
c) Software Security Specialist
d) Security Auditor
Answer: a
11. Role of security auditor is to ____________

a) secure the network
b) probe for safety and security of organization’s security components and systems
c) detects and prevents cyber attacks and threats to organization
d) does penetration testing on different web applications
Answer: b
Chapter 4 – Digital Evidences
1. Having a member of the search team trained to handle digital evidence:
a. Can reduce the number of people who handle the evidence

b. Can serve to streamline the presentation of the case
c. Can reduce the opportunity for opposing counsel to impugn the integrity of the
Evidence
d. All of the above
2. An attorney asking a digital investigator to find evidence supporting a particular line of

Inquiry is an example of:
a. Influencing the examiner

b. Due diligence
c. Quid pro quo
d. Voir dire
3. A digital investigator pursuing a line of investigation in a case because that line of

Investigation proved successful in two previous cases is an example of:
a. Logical reasoning
b. Common sense
c. Preconceived theory
d. Investigator’s intuition
4. A scientific truth attempts to identify roles that are universally true. Legal judgment, on
The other hand, has a standard of proof in criminal prosecutions of:
a. Balance of probabilities
b. Beyond a reasonable doubt
c. Acquittal
5. Regarding the admissibility of evidence, which of the following is not a consideration:
a. Relevance
b. Authenticity
c. Best evidence
d. Nominally prejudicial
6. According to the text, the most common mistake that prevents evidence seized from
Being admitted is:
a. Uninformed consen
b. Forcible entry
c. Obtained without authorization
7. In obtaining a warrant, an investigator must convince the judge on all of the following
Points except:
a. Evidence of a crime is in existence

b. A crime has been committed
c. The owner or resident of the place to be searched is likely to have committed
The crime
d. The evidence is likely to exist at the place to be searched
8. If, while searching a computer for evidence of a specific crime, evidence of a new,
Unrelated crime is discovered, the best course of action is:
a. Abandon the original search, and pursue the new line of investigation
b. Continue with the original search but also pursue the new inquiry
c. Stop the search and obtain a warrant that addresses the new inquiry
d. Continue with the original search, ignoring the new information
9. The process of documenting the seizure of digital evidence and, in particular, when that
Evidence changes hands, is known as:
a. Chain of custody
b. Field notes
c. Interim report
10. Evidence contained in a document provided to prove that statements made in court are
True is referred to as:
a. Inadmissible evidence
b. Illegally obtained evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
d. Direct evidence
Chapter 5 Basics of Ethical hacking
1. What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?
Answer: a
2. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is ____________

ethical practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
Answer: d
3. ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for
unethical hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
Answer: c
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
5. _____________ is the technique used in business organizations and firms to protect IT

assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
Answer: a
6. The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of personal data.
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
Answer: b
7. Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key points
listed below is not mandatory?
Answer: d
8. An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not get
leaked.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
9. After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
Answer: c
10. __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides
different theories and a principle regarding the view-points about what is right and
wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
Answer: d
Answer: a

ethical practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
Answer: d
unethical hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
Answer: c
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
Answer: a
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
Answer: b
Answer: d
leaked.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
Answer: c
wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
Answer: d
Chapter 6 Types of hackers
A. Security professional
B. Former black hat
C. Former grey hat
D. Malicious hacker
Answer. Option A.

A. Grey-box testing
B. Black-box testing
C. White-box testing
D. Active testing
E. Passive testing
Answer. Option C.
A. Attack
B. Maintaining access
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
Answer. Option D.
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
Answer. Option D.
concept?
A. As security increases, functionality and ease of use increase.

B. As security decreases, functionality and ease of use increase.
C. As security decreases, functionality and ease of use decrease.
D. Security does not affect functionality and ease of use.
Answer. Option B.
A. Disgruntled employees
B. Black-hat hackers
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
Answer. Option A.
three answers.)
A. Conduct Security Evaluation

B. Preparation
C. Conclusion
D. Final
E. Reconnaissance
F. Design Security
G. Vulnerability Assessment
Answer. Options A, B, C.
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
D. Black-hat hacking
Answer. Option B.
A. Title 12
B. Title 18
C. Title 20
D. Title 2
Answer. Option B.
A. Remote attack
B. Physical access
C. Local access
D. Internal attack
Answer. Option A.

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for
Ans: A
A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D
D. All of the above
Ans: D
5. In the past, the method for expressing an opinion has been to frame a ____ question based
on available factual evidence.
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
6. More subtle because you are not aware that you are running these macros (the document
opens and the application automatically runs); spread via email
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B
A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
10 MCQs from Each Chapter of Emerging Trend in Computer Science
Chapter 1 Artificial Intelligence
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(A) Putting your intelligence into Computer
(B) Programming with your own intelligence
(C) Making a Machine intelligent
(D) Playing a Game
Ans: C
(A) PROLOG
(B) Java
(C) LISP
(D) Perl
Ans: D
(A) The whole problem
(B) Your Definition to a problem
(C) Problem you design
(Ď) Representing your problem with variable and parameter
Ans: D
(A) A set of Rule (B) A sequence of steps
(C) Both (a) and (b) (D) Arbitrary representation to problem
Ans: C
5. Which search method takes less memory?
(A) Depth-First Search (B) Breadth-First search
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Linear Search.
Ans: A
6.A heuristic is a way of trying
(A) To discover something or an idea embedded in a program
(B) To search and measure how far a node in a search tree seems to be
from a goal
(C) To compare two nodes in a search tree to see if one is better than
the other
(D) Only (a), (b) and (c).
Ans: D
7. A* algorithm is based on
(A) Breadth-First-Search (B) Depth-First –Search
(C) Best-First-Search (D) Hill climbing.
Ans: C
(A) Linear approach (B) Heuristic approach
(C) Random approach (D) Optimal approach
Ans: B
9. How do you represent “All dogs have tails”.
(A) ۷x: dog(x)àhastail(x) (B) ۷x: dog(x)àhastail(y)
(C) ۷x: dog(y)àhastail(x) (D) ۷x: dog(x)àhasàtail(x)
Ans: A
(A) Representational Verification (B) Representational Adequacy
(C) Inferential Adequacy (D) Inferential Efficiency
Ans: A
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D

D. None of these
Ans: D
4. Which of the following is not an example of a “small-scale
embedded system”?
C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C
7. Which of the following is an (are) an intended purpose(s) of
embedded systems?
A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
Ans: D
8. Which of the following is (are) example(s) of embedded system for

data communication?
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
Ans: B
9. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design

metrics of an embedded system?
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
Ans: B
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(A) Extraction of computer data.
(B) Preservation of computer data.
(C) Interpretation of computer data.
(D) Manipulation of computer data.
Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for
(A) Integrated Digital Investigation Process.

(B) Integrated Data Investigator Process.
(C) Integrated Digital Investigator Process.
(D)Independent Digital Investigator Process.
Ans: A
(A) G.Gunsh.
(B) S.Ciardhuain
(C) J.Korn.
(D) G.Palmar
Ans: D

(A) Contribute to society and human being.
(B) Avoid harm to others.
(C) Honest and trustworthy.
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
5. In the past, the method for expressing an opinion has been to frame
a ____ question based on available factual evidence.
(A) Hypothetical
(B) Nested
(C) Challenging
(D) Contradictory
Ans: A
6. More subtle because you are not aware that you are running these
macros
(A) The purpose of copyright

(B) Danger of macro viruses
(C) Derivative works
(D) computer-specific crime
Ans: B
(A) Control
(B) Chance
(C) Chains
(D) Core
Ans: A

(A) 1979
(B) 1984
(C) 1995
(D) 1989
Ans: B

(A) 1960's
(B) 1970's
(C) 1980's
(D) 1990's
Ans: C
(A) Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of
evidence in court
(B) The application of computer science and investigative procedures
for a legal purpose involving the analysis of digital evidence after
proper search authority, chain of custody, validation with
mathematics, use of validated tools, repeatability, reporting, and
possible expert presentation
(C) process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer
questions about digital events
(D) Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment
of the facts or evidence in a court of law
Ans: B
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ans: C
2. What are the three general categories of computer systems that

can contain digital
evidence?
D. Open computer systems, communication systems, and embedded

systems
Ans: D
Ans: A
Ans: C
Ans: C
Ans: B
7. Computers can be involved in which of the following types of

crime?
C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D
Ans: C
D. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than
they otherwise
would have.
Ans: D
10. Private networks can be a richer source of evidence than the

Internet because:
B. Owners of private networks are more cooperative with law

enforcement.
D. All the above.
Ans: C
Chapter 5 Basics of Hacking (CO5)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Ethical Hacking is also known as _____
C. Encryption.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D
3. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds_____.
A. Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
4. Ethical hacking will allow to____ all the massive security breaches.
A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
B. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
6. ______ is the art of exploiting the human elements to gain access to
the authorized user.
B. IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B
8. The term cracker refers to_____
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A
A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B
10.Computer Hackers have been in existence for more than a____.
A. Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C
Chapter-6 Types of Hacking (CO6)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ans: C
2. Which of the following tool is used for Network Testing and port
Scanning______
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D
C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A
4. An attacker can create an________attack by sending hundreds or
thousands of e-mails a with
D. All the above
Ans: B
5. Which of the following tool is used for Windows for network

queries from DNS lookups to
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A
A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
7. Which of the following tool is used for security checks as port

scanning and firewall testing?
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A
D. Covering tracks
Ans: B
A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A
A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A
MCQ EMERGING TRENDS
Chapter 1: - artificial inteligence
1) is a branch of science which deals with helping machine find solution to complex to
problem in a more human like a fashion.
(a) Artificial intelligence
(b) Internet of think
(c) Embided system
(d) Cyber security
2) Is a message that consist relavat meaning , implication , or input for decision and or
action.
(a) Data
(b) Information
(c) Knowledge
(d) Intelligence
3) The goal is for the software to use what is it is was learned in one area to solve
problem in other area.
(a) Machine learning
(b) Deep learning
(c) Neural network
(d) All of above
4) the consist of computer program that mimic the way the human brain process
information.
(b) Deep learning
(c) Neural learning
(d) All of this
5) A heuristic is a rule of thumb-------
(a) Strategy
(b) Trick
(c) Simplification
(d) All of above
6) The component of AI concept of------

(a) Logic
(b) Congition
(c) Computation
(d) All of above
7) Is branch of science that deals with programming the system in such that they
automatically learn with experience
(b) Deep earning
(c) Neural learning
(d) All of above
8) The first AI programming language was called

(a) Basic
(b) IPL
(c) FORIRAN
(d) LISP
9) The characteristic of the computer system cable of thinking, reasoning and learning is
know as
(a) Machine intelligence
(b) Human intelligence
(c) Artificial intelligence
(d) Virtual intelligence
10) There are how many dimensions of AI

(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) One
Chapter 2:- internet of things
1. _________ allows us to control electronic components

a) RETful API
b) RESTful API
c) HTTP
d) MQTT
2. MQTT stands for _____________


a) True
b) False

d) Machine things

a) MQTT
b) HTTP
c) CoAP
6. PubNub publishes and subscribes _________ in order to send and receive

messages.
a) Network
b) Account
c) Portal
d) Keys
7. By clicking which key the PubNub will display public, subscribe, and secret
keys.
a) Pane
b) Demo Keyset
c) Portal
d) Network
8. The messageChannel class declares the _________ class attribute that defines
the key string.
a) command_key
b) command-key
c) commandkey
d) Key_command
9. _________ method saves the received arguments in three attributes.

a) __Init
b) Init__
c) __Init__
d) _init_
10. _________ and _________ saves the publish and subscribe keys that we have
generated with the PubNub Admin portal.
Chapter 3:- basic of digital forensic

1) The digital network divided radio frequency into time slots
(a) TQMA
(b) COMA
(c) EDMA
(d) EDGE
2) When cases go to trial forensics examiner can play one of role

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
3) Forensics is the systematic trucking of incoming and outgoing ruffic on

your network
(a) Network
(b) Computer
(c) Criminal
(d) Server
4) Validate your tools and verify your evidence with to ensure its integrity
(a) Hashing algorithms
(b) Steganography
(c) Watermark
(d) Digital certificates
5) Is a written list of objection to certain testimony are exhibits

(a) Defendant
(b) Plaintiff
(c) Empanelling the jury
(d) Motion in limine
6) Regarding the trail the term means rejecting potential jurors.

(a) Voir dire
(b) Rebuttal
(c) Strikes
(d) Venireman
7) The evidences of proof that can be obtained from the electricity source is
called the
(a) Digital evidence
(b) Demonstrative evidence
(c) Explainable evidence
(d) Substantial evidence
8) If a micro-phone is present during your testimony, placeit to eight to

inches from you
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 6
9) Jurors typically average just over year of education and eight-grade

reading level
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
10) The digital avoidance are use to stablish a credible link between
(a) Attacker and victim and crime scene
(b) Attacker and the crime scene
(c) Victim and crime scene
(d) Attacker and information.
Chapter 4:- digital evidence

1) A valid definition of digital evidence is
(a) data stored or transmitted using a computer
(b) information of probative value
(c) digital data of probative value
(d) any digital evidence an a computer
2) Digital evidence , a hard drive is a example

(a) Open computer system
(b) Communication system
(c) Embedded system
(d) None of these
3) The term of digital evidence the internet is an example of

(c) Embedded system
(d) None of these
4) Digital avoidance is a only useful in a counter of law

(a) True
(b) False
5) What are the three general categories of computer system that can
contain digital evidence
(a) Desktop ,laptop ,server
(b) Personal computer
(c) Hardware, software
(d) Open computer system
6) In term of digital evidence , a smart card of use of example of

(a) Communication system
(b) Open system
(c) Embedded system
(d) None of above
7) All of forensic examination should be perform on a original digital
evidence
(a) True
(b) False
8) The term of digital evidence, the internet is an example of

(c) Embedded system
(d) None of these
9) Private network can be a richear sorce of digital evidence than they

internet
(a) They retain data for longer period of time
(b) Owener of private network more cooprative with law enforcement
(c) Private network contain higher concentration of digital evidence
(d) None of these
10) Digital evidence can be duplicate exactly without any change to be

original data
(a) True
(b) False
Chapter 5:- basic of hackings

1). What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?
2). Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
3). ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools
for unethical hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
4). Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of
a) True
b) False
5). _____________ is the technique used in business organizations and firms to protect
IT assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
d) Internal data-breach .
6) The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of

personal data.
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
7). Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key
8). An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does
not get leaked.
a) True
b) False
9). After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
10). __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and
provides different theories and a principle regarding the view-points about what
is right and wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
Chapter 6:- type of hacking

1) Which of the following statement based describe a white hat hackers
(a) Security professional
(b) Former black hat
(c) Former grey hat
(d) Malicious hackers
2) SNMP stand for

(a) simple network messeging protocol
(b) simple network mailing protocol
(c) simple network management protocol
(d) simple network master protocol
3) what is the first phase of hacking

(a) attack
(b) maintaining access
(c) gaining access
(d) reconnaissance
4) banner grabbing is often use for

(a) white hat hacking
(b) black hat hacking
(c) gray hat hacking
(d) script kiddies
5) an attack can create and attack by sending hundreds or thousand of e-mail
(a) connection attack
(b) auto responder attack
(c) attachment overloading attack
(d) all of the above
6) what type of ethical hack test access to the physical infra structure
(a) internal network
(b) remote network
(c) external network
(d) physical network
7) the security functinallity and ease of use triangle illustrated which concept
(a) a security increase, functionality and ease of use increase
(b) a security decrease, functionality and ease of use increase
(c) a security increase, functionality and ease of use decrease
(d) security does not affect functionality and ease of use
8) which type of hackers represent the highest risk to your network

(a) black hat hackers
(b) grey hat hackers
(c) disgruntled employees
(d) script kiddies
9) hackings for a causes is called

(a) active hacking
(b) hacktivism
(c) activism
(d) black-hat-hackers
10) when a hackers attempt to attack a host via the internet is the know as
what type of attack
(a) remote attack
(b) local access
(c) internal attack
(d) physical access
Unit3. basics of digital forensics
a. Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of evidence in court
b. The application of computer science and investigative procedures for a legal purpose
expert presentation
c. A process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer questions about digital
events
d. Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of the facts or


a. Extraction of computer data.
b. Preservation of computer data.
c. Interpretation of computer data.
d. Manipulation of computer data.
3. Which of the following is NOT focus of digital forensic analysis?
a. Authenticity
b. Comparison
c. Proving
d. Enhancement
4. Which of the following represents the step of scientific method?
I- Develop hypothesis based on evidence
II- Calculate hash value of evidence
III- Test the hypothesis to look for additional evidence
IV-make an imaging of the original evidence
a. I and IV
b. I and II
c. II, III and IV
d. All of above
5. What is the Primary Objectives of Digital Forensic for Business and Industry?
a. Availability of service
b. Prosecution
c. Continuity of operation
d. Security
6. Which of the following hold the highest value of evidence in the court?
a. Documentary
b. Demonstrative
c. Testimonial
d. Real

a. The digital forensic investigator must maintain absolute objectivity
b. It is the investigator’s job to determine someone’s guilt or innocence.
c. It is the investigator’s responsibility to accurately report the relevant facts of a case.
d. The investigator must maintain strict confidentiality, discussing the results of an
investigation on only a “need to know” ba
7. which is following father of computer forensics

a. M. Anderson
b. G. Gunsh
c. S. Ciardhuain
d. G. Palmar
8. Who proposed Road map model?

a. G. Gunsh
b. S. Ciardhuain
c. J. Korn
d. G. Palmar
9. IDIP stands for

d. Independent Digital Investigation Process
10. When you give ____ testimony, you present this evidence and explain what it is and how it
was obtained.
a. technical/scientific
b. expert
c. lay witness
d. deposition
Unit-4 Digital Evidences



a. True
b. False
with _______ should be comfortable with this technology.
a. Criminal investigation
b. Prosecution
c. Defense work
d. All of the above
a. It provides an additional credential.
b. It provides them with the tools to conduct their own investigations.
c. It teaches them when it is time to call in law enforcement.
a. True
b. False
Unit-5 Basics of Hacking

wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
2. What is the first phase of hacking?

a. Attack
b. Maintaining access
c. Gaining access
d. Reconnaissance
e. Scanning
3. What is the one thing that old hackers were fond of or find interests in?
a) Breaking Other’s system
b) Voracious thirst for knowledge
c) Cracking Phone calls
d) Learning new languages
5. What is the name of the first hacker’s conference?
a) DEFCON
b) OSCON
c) DEVCON
d) SECCON
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
7. In which year the term hacking was coined?
a) 1965-67
b) 1955-60
c) 1970-80
d) 1980-82
8. From where the term ‘hacker’ first came to existence?
a) MIT
b) Stanford University
c) California
d) Bell’s Lab
9. In which year, hacking became a practical crime and a matter of concern in the field of
technology?
a) 1971
b) 1973
c) 1970
d) 1974
10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known as what type of
attack?
a. Local access
b. Remote attack
c. Internal attack
d. Physical access
11. Which tool can be used to perform a DNS zone transfer on Windows?
a. DNSlookup
b. nslookup
c. whois
d. ipconfig
Unit-6 Types of Hacking
a. To create a stronger connection with the target.
b. To create a ghost server on the network.
c. To obtain a remote access connection.
d. To hide malicious activity on the network.
2. A security audit performed on the internal network of an organization by the network
administration is also known as ___________.
a. Grey-box testing
b. Black-box testing
c. White-box testing
d. Active testing E. Passive testing
3. Which are the four regional Internet registries?
a. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC
b. APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
c. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
d. APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
4. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s credentials is called the _____________
a. Local networking
b. Social engineering
c. Physical entry
d. Remote networking
a. DNSlookup
b. Whois
c. Nslookup
d. IP Network Browser

a. Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
b. To execute a Trojan on a system
c. To overload a system so it is no longer operational
d. To shutdown services by turning them off

a. 22
b. 80
c. 20
d. 23
________.
a. Cracking
b. Analysis
c. Hacktivism
d. Exploitation
9. What protocol is the Active Directory database based on?
a. LDAP
b. TCP
c. SQL
d. HTTP
10 Which databases is queried by Whois?
a. ICANN
b. ARIN
c. APNIC
d. DNS
MCQ Chapter 01
1) Which is the first AI program?

a) The Logical Brain
b) AlphaSense
c) The Jarvis
d) The Logic Theorist
Ans: d) The Logical Theorist
2) Who is regarded as “The Father of AI?”

a) Allan Turin
b) John Mc Carthy
c) J. C. Shaw
d) Allen Newell
Ans: b) John Mc Carthy
3) Which among this, is an AI created by IBM partner with Fluid PVT. Used specially for
‘Data Analysis?’
a) EVE AI
b) Watson
c) Siri
d) Novel AI
Ans: b) Watson
4) What is PROLOG and LISP?

a) Examples of super AI
b) Languages of AI
c) Concepts of AI
d) Type of AI
Ans: b) Languages of AI
5) The given illustrative diagram is related to which topic?
a) Machine Learning
b) Neural Network Processing
c) Reasoning
d) Deep learning
Ans: a) Machine Learning
6) There are how many dimensions of AI?

a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
Ans: b) Three
7) The term “Strong” or “Super” AI comes under which ‘type’ of AI?

a) Type-1
b) Type-2
c) None of the above
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Type-1
8) These machines can use stored data for a limited time period only.
a) Reactive Machine
b) Self-Awareness
c) Limited machine
d) Theory of mind
Ans: c) Limited machine
9) “KBS” in AI stands for?

a) Knowledge Based Scenario
b) Knowledge Based System
c) Knowledge Based Segments
d) Knowing Best System
Ans: b) Knowledge Based System
10) There are how many ‘AI Approaches?’

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Ans: d) Four
MCQ Chapter 03
1. When was International Organization on Computer Evidence (IOCE) formed?

a. 1980
b. 1997
c. 1995
d. 1984
Ans: c. 1995
2. CART is referred as…

a. Computer Art and Response Team
b. Common Analysis and Response Team
c. Computer Analysis and Reasoning Team
d. Computer Analysis and Response Team
Ans: d. Computer Analysis and Response Team
3. How many Rules are there of Digital Forensics?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 4
Ans: b. 6
4. Fill in the blanks.
Digital Forensics is a series of steps to _________ and _________ electronic data through
________ method.
a. Solve, analyses, Intelligent

b. Uncover, analyses, scientific
c. Uncover, analyses, electronic
d. Solve, analyses, electronic
Ans: b. Uncover, analyses, scientific
5. There are how many models of digital forensics?

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
Ans: c. 6
6. Which of the following is not a model of digital forensics?

a. RMDFR
b. DFI
c. IDIP
d. UMDFPM
Ans: b. DFI
7. Who proposed EEDIP?

a. Gunsh
b. Korn
c. Stepenson
d. Palmer
Ans: c. Stepenson
8. There are hoe many phases in RMDFR model of digital forensics?

a. Four
b. Six
c. Eight
d. Ten
Ans: b. Six
9. When was pc forensics began?

a. 1980
b. 1984
c. 1995
d. 1997
Ans: a. 1980
10. Who is the father of Computer Forensics?

a. Anderson
b. Palmer
c. Ciardhuain
d. Korn
Ans: a. Anderson
MCQ Chapter 04
1. The digital evidence is used to establish the credible link between …

a. System, evidence and victim
b. Attacker, victim, and crime scene
c. Attacker, victim and case file
d. Attacker, system and victim
Ans: b. Attacker, victim and crime scene
2. An original copy of the document is considered as…

a. Best evidence
b. Original evidence
c. Superior evidence
d. True evidence
Ans: c. Superior evidence
3. Best Evidence Rule states that…

a. It states that multiple copies of electronic files may be a part of the “original” or equivalent
to the “original.”
b. It states that copy of evidence may be considered as original evidence.
c. It states that the multiple copies of evidence may be part of the “original” or equivalent to
the “original.”
d. It states that multiple copies of electronic files may be a part of the “original” or same as
“original.”
Ans: a. It states that multiple copies of electronic files may be a part of the “original” or equivalent
4. According to Locard’s Exchange Principle, contact between two items will result in an
_________.
a. War
b. Love
c. Exchange
d. Failure
Ans: c. Exchange
5. Which of the following is used to portray data more specifically and is helpful in determining
the background of digital evidence?
a. Data
b. Metadata
c. Cookies
d. History
Ans: b. Metadata
6. Testimonial is the major type of Evidence.

a. True
b. False
c. None
d. N/A
Ans: a. True
7. When collecting evidence, you should always try to proceed from
a. Least volatile to most volatile evidence
b. Most volatile to least volatile evidence
c. All evidence at same priority
d. Least then medium then most volatile evidence
Ans: b. most volatile to least volatile evidence
8. You must have both ____ and ____ to validate your evidence.
a. Proof and victim
b. Power and skill
c. Power and proof
d. Proof and skill
Ans: b. power and skill
9. There are how many major types of evidence?

a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Seven
Ans: c. six
10. Physical evidence is also called as.

b. Explainable evidence
c. Substantial evidence
d. Real evidence
Ans: c. substantial evidence
MCQ Chapter 05
1. Select the most appropriate definition of Ethical hacking.

a. Ethical hacking is the science of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities
and plugging the hole before the viruses get chance to exploit them.
b. Ethical hacking is the art of hacking computer and network for security vulnerabilities and
plugging the hole before the viruses get chance to exploit them.
c. Ethical hacking is the science of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities
and plugging the hole before the unauthorized peoples get a chance to exploit them.
d. Ethical hacking is the art of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities and
plugging the hole before the viruses get chance to handle them.
Ans: c. Ethical hacking is the science of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities
2. A hacker who gains access to system with a view to fix the identified weaknesses is known as
a. White hat hackers
b. Grey hath hackers
c. Red hat hackers
d. Hacktivist
Ans: a. white hat hackers
3. Complete the sentence below
To catch a thief, think like a _______.
a. Police
b. Victim
c. Thief
d. Hacker
Ans: c. Thief
4. SATAN stands for_

a. Security Advanced Tool for Analysis Networks
b. Security Admin Tool for Analysis Networks
c. Security Administrator Tool for Analysis Networks
d. Security Administrator Tool for Analysing Network
Ans: c. Security Administrator for Analysis Networks
5. Which type of hackers are invited by the software vendors to find the security flaws in their
system?
b. Black hat hackers
c. Grey hat hackers
d. Blue hat hackers
Ans: d. Blue hat hackers
6. IRC stands for

a. Internet Rules Chat
b. Internet Relay Chat
c. Internet Ready Chat
d. Internet Readable chat
Ans: b. Internet Relay chat
7. A non-skilled person who gains access to computer system using already made tools are
known as?
a. Grey hat hackers
b. Hacktivist
c. Script kiddies
d. Phreakers
Ans: c. Script kiddies
8. Identifying weakness in computer system or network to exploit its weaknesses to gain access
is known as
a. Cracking
b. Cybersecurity
c. Hacking
d. Threatening
Ans: c. Hacking
9. Exploration of a phone network without authorization is known as

a. Scripting
b. Phreaking
c. Phone hacking
d. Call tracing
Ans: b. Phreaking
10. Social engineering the ____ of exploiting the human elements to gain access to unauthorized
resources.
a. Art
b. Science
c. Hacking
d. Skill
Ans: a. Art
MCQ Chapter 06
1. Which of the following is not a network testing and port scanning tool?
a. Nmap
b. SuperScan
c. John the ripper
d. NetCat
Ans: c. John the Rippers
2. Select the most appropriate option for the below two statements.
I. A Dos attack can take down your internet connection

II. A Dos attack can take down your entire system
a. Both I and II are true

b. I is true II is false
c. I is false II is True
d. Both I and II are false
Ans: a. Both I and II are true
3. SNMP stands for

a. Simple Network Message Protocol
b. Simple New Message Protocol
d. Simple Network Managing Protocol
Ans: c. Simple Network Management Protocol
4. Which protocol does hackers use to make their system seems as your system or another
allowed host on your network?
a. SNMP protocol
b. TCP protocol
c. ARP protocol
d. ICMP protocol
Ans: c. ARP protocol
5. Letter bomb is also known as

a. Official bomb
b. Hacking bomb
c. Mail bomb
d. E-mail bomb
Ans: d. Email Bomb
6. Which attack allows the attacker to execute the scripts on the victim’s browser?
a. SSL attack
b. Cookie attack
c. Banner grabbing
d. XSS attack
Ans: d. XSS attack
7. ACL stands for.

a. Application Control Language
b. Application Control list
c. Access control List
d. Access Command List
Ans: c. Access Control List
8. As an ethical hacker, you should scan all ________ UDP and TCP port on each network host
that’s found by your scanner.
a. 65535
b. 65353
c. 65333
d. 65555
Ans: a. 65535
9. Which of the following are the foundation of all the technical security issues in your
information systems?
a. Network Infrastructure vulnerabilities
b. Information vulnerabilities
c. System Infrastructure vulnerabilities
d. Network Information vulnerabilities
Ans: a. Network infrastructure vulnerabilities
10. Which attack is an HTTP attack which allows attackers to access restricted directories and
execute commands outside the web servers root directory?
a. XSS attack
b. Path Traversal attack
c. MITM attack
d. SQL Injection attack
Ans: b. Path traversal Attack
1What allows digital devices to interconnect and transmit data?
a. a sensor
b.a global positioning sensor
c.a smart phone
d.a network
2. Which command is used to test network connectivity and provide a response to each packet
received by the remote host?
a.test
b.tracer
c.ping
d.connect
3. What type of device could allow a refrigerator to place a replacement order for an item contained
within it?
a.digital network
b.generator
c.smart phone
d.sensor
4. True or False?
Once connected to the home gateway, smart devices can be controlled from a smartphone, tablet, or
PC.
a.true
b.false
5. What information is conveyed by the SSID that is configured on an IoT device?
a.the registration server
b.he default gateway
c.the wireless network
d.the home gateway
6. What is comprised of millions of smart devices and sensors connected to the internet?
a.the fog
b.the internet of things
c.the data center
d.the cloud
7. Which tool allows a user to simulate real networks?
a.artificial intelligence
b.Packet Tracer
c.internet
d.PAN
8. True or False?
The Internet of Things will connect inanimate objects to the network with intelligent sensors.
a.true
b.false
9. Which type of network is used to connect a company located in one area of a city to another
location in a city far away?
a.LAN
b.PAN
c.MAN
d.WAN
10. Which type of computing is located at the edge of a business or corporate network and that allows
data from sensors to be preprocessed?
a.internet
b.fog
c.wireless
d.WAN
1. Artificial Intelligence system developed by Terry A. Winograd to permit an

interactive dialogue about a domain he called blocks-world.
 SIMD
 STUDENT
 SHRDLU
 BACON
And:- SHRDLU
 Programming with your own intelligence

 Putting your intelligence into Computer
 Making a Machine intelligent
 Playing a Game
And:- Making a Machine intelligent

3. DARPA, the agency that has funded a great deal of American Artificial
Intelligence research, is part of the Department of
 Education
 Defense
 Energy
 Justice
And:- Defense.
 John McCarthy
 Fisher Ada
 Allen Newell
 Alan Turning
And:- Fisher Ada .
5. KEE is a product of
 IntelliCorpn
 Teknowledge
 Texas Instruments
 Tech knowledge
Ans:- IntelliCorpn .
6. Default reasoning is another type of
 Analogical reasoning
 Bitonic reasoning
 Non-monotonic reasoning
 Monotonic reas
Ans:- Non-monotonic reasoning.

7. Weak AI is
 a set of computer programs that produce output that would be considered

to reflect intelligence if it were generated by humans.
 the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models
implemented on a computer.
 the embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer.
 All of the above
Ans:- Weak AI is the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models
8. If a robot can alter its own trajectory in response to external conditions, it is

considered to be:
 mobile
 open loop
 intelligent
 non-servo
Ans:- intelligent .
9. One of the leading American robotics centers is the Robotics Institute located
at
RAND
MIT
CMU
SRI
And:- CMU
10. What is the name of the computer program that contains the distilled
knowledge of an expert?
 Management information System

 Expert system
 Data base management system
 Artificial intelligence
Ans:- expert system.
11. In LISP, the function evaluates both <variable> and <object> is -
 setq
 add
 set
 eva
Ans:- setq

 putting more memory into Computer
Ans:- Making a Machine intelligent.
 PROLOG
 LISP
 Perl
 Java script
And:- Perl
 Inferential Adequacy
 Representational Adequacy
 Representational Verification
 Inferential Efficiency
Ans:- Representational Verification .
15. A Hybrid Bayesian network contains
 Both discrete and continuous variables

 Only Discontinuous variable
 Both Discrete and Discontinuous variable
 Continous variable only.
And:- Both discrete and continuous variables

3. Basics of Digital Forensic
1. When cases go to trial, you as a forensics examiner can play one of ____ roles.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d.5
Ans:- 2
was obtained.
a. technical/scientific. c. lay witness
b. expert d. deposition
And:- technical/scientific.
3. Validate your tools and verify your evidence with ____ to ensure its integrity
a. hashing algorithms c. steganography
b. watermarks d. digital certificates
And:- hashing algorithms
4. For forensics specialists, keeping the ____ updated and complete is crucial to supporting
your role as an expert and showing that you’re constantly enhancing your skills through
training, teaching, and experience.
a. testimony c. examination plan
b. CV d. deposition
Ans:- CV
5. If your CV is more than ____ months old, you probably need to update it to reflect new
cases and additional training.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
Ans:- 3
6. __ is a written list of objections to certain testimony or exhibits.
a. Defendant c. Plaintiff
b. Empanelling the jury d. Motion in limine
Ans:- Motion in limine
7. Regarding a trial, the term ____ means rejecting potential jurors.
a. voir dire c. strikes
b. rebuttal d. venireman
Ans:- strikes
8. ____ from both plaintiff and defense is an optional phase of the trial. Generally, it’s allowed
to cover an issue raised during cross-examination
a. Rebuttal c. Closing arguments
b. Plaintiff d. Opening statements
Ans:- Rebuttal
9. If a microphone is present during your testimony, place it ____ to eight inches from you.
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6
Ans:- 6
10. Jurors typically average just over ____ years of education and an eighth-grade reading
level. a. 9 c. 11
b. 10 d. 12
Ans:- 12
4. Digital Evidences
evidence?

c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above

d. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise would
have.
c. Private networks contain a higher concentration of digital Evidences
5. Basic of Hacking
 Rogue access point

 ARP poisoning
 Session hijacking
 MAC spoofing
2. What are the forms of password cracking techniques?
 AttackSyllable
 AttackBrute Forcing
 AttacksHybrid
3. what is the primary goal of an Ethical Hacker ?
 Avoiding detection
 Testing security controls
 Resolving security vulnerabilities
 Determining return on investment for security measures
 Maintaining access
 Gaining access
 Reconnaissance
 Scanning
 Black-hat hackers
 Grey-hat hackers
 Script kiddies
 Disgruntled employees
6. Hacking for a cause is called ..................
 Hacktivism
 Black-hat hacking
 Active hacking
 Activism
7. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known as what type of attack?
 Local access
 Remote attack
 Internal attack
 Physical access
 APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC

 APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
 APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC
 APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
9. What port number does HTTPS use?

 53
 443
 80
 21
10. Banner grabbing is an example of what?

 Footprinting
 Active operating system fingerprinting
 Passive operating system fingerprinting
 Application analysis
6. Types of Hacking
1 . Which of the following statements best describes a white-hat
hacker?
B. Former black hat
C. Former grey hat
D. Malicious hacker
2. A security audit performed on the internal network of an

organization by the network administration is also known as
___________.
A. Grey-box testing
D. Active testing
E. Passive testing
A. Attack
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
4. What type of ethical hack tests access to the physical infrastructure?
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
5. The security, functionality, and ease of use triangle illustrates which

concept?
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
7. What are the three phases of a security evaluation plan? (Choose
three answers.)
B. Preparation
C. Conclusion
D. Final
E. Reconnaissance
F. Design Security
Answer :- A, B, C.
8. Hacking for a cause is called __________________.
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
9. Which federal law is most commonly used to prosecute hackers?
A. Title 12
B. Title 18
C. Title 20
D. Title 2
10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known
A. Remote attack
B. Physical access
C. Local access
D. Internal attack
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 3: Basics of Digital Forensics
1. IOCE is …………………..?
a. Organization on computer evidence
b. Organization on communication evidence
c. Organization on country education
d. Organization on crime evidence
Ans : a)Organization on computer evidence
2. Digital forensic applied both ……………. ?

a. Analysis and response action
b. Computer crime and civil action
c. Criminal and civil action
d. Regional and forensic action
Ans : c) criminal and civil action
3. How many rules are there in Digital Forensics :
a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : d) 6
4. Compliance with the law and ………….

a. Professional norms.
b. Collection
c. Prevention
d. Examination
Ans : a) Professional norms
5. What is the full form of ADFM

a. Abstract defining forensic model
b. Abstract digital forensic model
c. Abstract digital forensic media
d. Analysis digital forensic model
Ans : b) Abstract digital forensic model
6. The whole process is trigged by …………..

a. Investigator
b. Society
c. Digital forensic
d. Criminal activity
Ans : d) Criminal activity
7. Digital forensic is all of them except:

Ans: b) Preservation of computer data
8. IDIP stand for

a. Integrated digital investigation process
b. Integrated data investigation process
c. Integrated digital investigator process
Ans : a) Integrated digital investigation process
9. Who proposed Road map model ?
a. G.Gunsh
b. S.Ciardhuain
c. J.Korn
d. G.Palmar
Ans : d) G.Palmar
10. Field of PC forensics began in which year ?

a. 1975
b. 1944
c. 1971
d. 1980
Ans : d) 1980
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 4: Digital Evidences
1. Which of the following is not a digital device ?

a. Computer
b. Phone
c. Guitar
d. Internet
Ans : c) Guitar
2. Rule of evidence is called as ………….

a. Digital Evidence
b. Law of Evidence
c. Hidden Evidence
d. Electronic Evidence
Ans : b) Law Of Evidence
3. BPO stand for …………..

a. Business profile outsourcing
b. Business profile outcome
c. Business process outsourcing
d. Business process outcome
Ans : c) Businesses process outsourcing
4. The digital evidence are used to establish a credible link between……
Ans : a) Attacker and victim and the crime scene
a. Routing Table
b. Main memory
c. Log files
d. Cached Data
Ans : c) Log files
5. Will volatile evidences last forever

a. No
b. Not Sure
c. Yes
Ans : a) No
6. Investigation means :
a. Collection of information
b. A procedure to find the Digital Evidence
c. Searching over internet
d. Hacking computer systems
Ans : b) A procedure to find the Digital Evidence
7. The evidence or proof that can be obtained from the electronic source is called the ………
a. Digital evidence
b. Demonstrative evidence
c. Explainable evidence
d. Substantial evidence
Ans : a) Digital evidence
8. Which one is not a 103 rule of evidence

a. Maintaining a claim of error
b. Aim of an offer of proof
c. Plain error taken
d. Destroying data
Ans : d) Destroying data
9. Digital evidence must follow the requirements of the ……..
a. Ideal evidence
b. Best evidence
c. Exchange evidence
Ans : b) Best evidence
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 5: Basics of Hacking
1. What is hacking ?
a. Identifying weakness in computer system or networks
b. Refers to act of locating vulnerabilities
c. A security to your personal data
d. Protocols of corrupting data
Ans : a) Identifying weakness in computer system or networks
2. Ethical Hacking is known as ………..

a. White Hat hacking
b. Black Hat hacking
c. Encrypting
d. None of these
Ans : a) white Hat hacking
3. How many steps are there the legality of ethical hacking ?

a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : a) 5
4. Tools used by ethical hackers………..

a. Scanner
b. Decoder
c. Proxy
d. All of these
Ans : a) scanner
5. Hackers are also called as
a. Good Guys
b. Bad Guys
c. Both of the above
Ans : b) Bad Guys
6. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds……….

a. Strengths
b. Weakness
c. A&B
d. None of these
Ans : b) weakness
7. What is the required education to be an ethical hacker ?

a. Diploma holder
b. 10+2 passed
c. Bachelor’s degree in the related field
d. Nothing needed
Ans : c) Bachelor’s degree in related field
8. Ethical hacking will allow to ………all the massive security breaches.

a. Reject
b. Measure
c. Remove
d. None of these
Ans : d) None of these
9. Security tools that are widely used are :

a. Nmap
b. WebInspect
c. Network Strumbler
d. All of the above
Ans : d) All of the above
10. TCP stand for………

a. Transmission Control Protocol
b. Transfer Control Protocol
c. Travel Control Protocol
d. Tracking Control Protocol
Ans : a) Transmission Control Protocol
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 6: Types of Hacking
1. SNMP stand for…………

a. Simple network messaging protocol
b. Simple network Mailing protocol
c. Simple network management protocol
d. Simple network Master protocol
Ans : c) Simple network management protocol
2. What is the full form of NIV Foundation?

a. Network Infrastructure Violation
b. Network Issue Vulnerabilities
c. Network Infrastructure Vulnerabilities
d. Network Information Vulnerabilities
Ans : c) Network Infrastructure Vulnerabilities
3. Banner grabbing is often used for…….

c. Gray hat hacking
d. Script kiddies
Ans : a) white hat hacking
4. What is the full form of UDP

a. Union Development Program
b. User Data Program
c. User Datagram Protocol
d. Unified Datagram Provider
Ans : c) User Datagram Protocol
5. IMAP stand for…………

a. Internet message access protocol
b. Internet mailing access protocol
c. Information access protocol
d. None of these
Ans : a) Internet message access protocol
6. What is full form of MAC
a. Model Access Communication
b. Media Access Control
c. Multimedia Access Control
d. Modern Access Control
Ans : b) Media Access Control
7. Which IEEE standards specify the technologies for wireless LANs 802.11
a. IEEE 802.11
b. IEEE 802.10
c. IEEE 279.6
d. IEEE 275.4
Ans : a) 802.11
8. An attackers can create an …....attack by sending hundreds or thousand of e-mail with

very large attachment.
a. Connection Attack
b. Auto responder Attack
c. Attachment overloading Attack
d. All of the above
Ans : c) Attachment overloading attack
9. Port no.(6346,6347) Gnutella service having which protocols …..

a. TCP
b. UDP
c. TCP, UDP
d. NONE
Ans : c) TCP,UDP
10. What is the full form of DMZ

a. Demilitarized Zone
b. Demonetized Zone
c. Demand Zone
d. Demoralized Zone
Ans : a) Demilitarized Zone
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 1: Artificial Intelligence

b) AlphaSense
c) The Jarvis

a) Allan Turin
b) John Mc Carthy
c) J. C. Shaw
d) Allen Newell

3) Which among this, is an AI created by IBM partner with Fluid PVT. Used specially for ‘Data
Analysis?’
a) EVE AI
b) Watson
c) Siri
d) Novel AI Ans: b)
Watson

b) Languages of AI
c) Concepts of AI
d) Type of AI

a) Machine Learning
c) Reasoning
d) Deep learning

a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
Ans: b) Three
a) Type-1
b) Type-2
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Type-1
a) Reactive Machine
b) Self-Awareness
c) Limited machine
d) Theory of mind Ans: c)
Limited machine


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Ans: d) Four
CHAPTER 2: Internet of Things
1) Raspbian is:
a) Assembler
b) Language
c) Compiler
d) OS
Ans:- d. OS
2) Which one out of these is not LPWAN technologies:
a) SigFox
b) WiFi
c) NB-oT
d) LoRa
Ans:- b. WiFi
3) Computer programs that mimic the way the human brain processes information is called as:-
a) Machine learning
b) Deep learning
c) Neural networks
Ans:- c. Neural
networks
4) is a branch of Science which deals with the helping machine find
solutions to complex problems in a more human like fashion
b. Internet Od Things
c. Embedded system
d. cyber Security
Ans:- a. Artificial Intelligence
5) What does LTE stands for:-

a) Long Terms Errors
b) Long Term Evolution
c) Lengthy terminal Estimation
d) Long term Estimates
Ans:- b. Long Term Evolution
6) Which transport layer protocols is used by DHCP:-
a. RSVP
b.TCP
c. DCCP
d. UDP
Ans:- d. UDP
7) Which one out of these is not a data link layer technology:-
a) Bluetooth
b) UART
c) WiFi
d) HTTP
Ans:- d. HTTP
8) IoT stands for:-
a) Internet of Technology
b) Intranet of Things
c) Internet of Things
d) Information of Things
Ans:- c. Internet of
Things
9) WSN stands for:-
a) Wide Sensor Network

b) Wireless Sensor Network
c) Wired Sensor Network
d) None of these
Ans:- b. Wireless Sensor Network
10) Which is not the feature of IoT:-
a. Connectivity
b. Self-configuring
Ans:- b. Self-configuring
11. Which of the following sciences pay vital role in criminal justice systems ?
a. Digital Forensics
b. Forensic Science
c. PC Forensics
d. INTERPOL Forensic
Ans : b) Forensic Science
12. The full form of DFI is :

e. Digital Forensic Investigation
f. Digitalized Forensic Investigation
g. Digital Foreign Investment
h. Direct Forensic Investigation
Ans : a) Digital Forensic Science

a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : d) 6
14. Which of the following is not involved in DFI’s road map :

a. Identification
b. Collection
c. Prevention
d. Examination
Ans : c) Prevention
15. What is the full form of EEDIP

a. End to End Digital Investigation Program
c. End to End Digital Forensic Investigation
d. End to End Digital Forensic Investment
Ans : b) End to End Digital Investigation Process
16. Ethical Issues in Digital Forensic means :
a. Set of moral principals that regulate the use of computers
b. Related to ethical hacking
c. Honesty towards investigation
d. Compliance with law
Ans : a) Set of moral principals that regulate the use of computers
17. What do primary investigator consider from the original source :

a. Summarize and hold the data
b. Whether to analyze more data or to extract more data
c. Examine the data and store it
d. Compress the data
Ans : b) Whether to analyze more data or to extract more data
18. Who proposed the UML Modelling of Digital Forensic Process Model
a. Kohn, Eloff and Oliver
b. Response Team
c. Only (a)
Ans : a) Kohn, Eloff and Oliver
19. From what should the digital data must be protected ?

a. Copied
b. Deleted
c. Modified
d. Destroyed
Ans : c) Modified

a. 1975
b. 1944
c. 1971
d. 1980
Ans : d) 1980
MCQ’S

a. Computer
b. Phone
c. Guitar
d. Internet
Ans : c) Guitar
11. Digital evidences are also called as :

a. Digital proof
b. Evidence
c. Hidden Truth
Ans : d) Electronic Evidence
12. Which of the following is not the form of digital evidence:

a. Text messages
b. Emails
c. Pictures
d. Paper
Ans : d) Paper
13. According to Edmond Locard, there will be interchange if :

a. Two items interchange with each other
b. Two items make contact
c. No interaction needed
d. No devices needed
Ans : b) Two items make contact
14. What is digital evidence according to Cohen ?

a. Baggage of proofs
b. Collection of evidences
c. Bag of bits
d. Backpack of Bytes
Ans : c) Bag of bits
a. No
b. Not Sure
c. Yes
Ans : a) No

17. To whom is the IP addresses were traced ?

a. Internet Service Provider
b. Cyber Crime Office
c. Only (a)
Ans : a) Internet Service Provider

d. Destroying data
19. Which one of the following locates data on network devices :

a. ARP Cache
b. Kernel Statistics
c. Routing Table
d. Memory
Ans : c) Routing Table
MCQ’S

12. Malicious users are also called as :

a. External attackers
b. Trusted users
c. hacker
d. Internal attackers
Ans : d) Internal attackers
a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : a) 5
14. What is PayPal ?

a. Pay through Pal
b. NetBanking
c. Payment Gateway
d. Information app
Ans : c) Payment Gateway

a. Good Guys
b. Bad Guys
Ans : b) Bad Guys
16. Ethical hackers are
a. Trained hackers
c. Bad guys
d. Good guys
Ans : a) Trained hackers

a. Diploma holder
b. 10+2 passed
d. Nothing needed
18. Which is not an Ethical Hacking related career

a. Back-End Developer
b. Software Tester
c. Software Developer
d. Computer Networking Specialist
Ans : a) Software Tester

a. Nmap
b. WebInspect
d. All of the above
20. What is the full form of TCP :

MCQ’S
11. Network Testing and port scanning tools are :

a. Sam Spade
b. SuperScan
c. NetScan
d. All of the above

13. Number of Successful NetBIOS queries :

a. 5
b. 13
c. 12
d. 17
Ans : b) 13

15. What is Banner Grabbing ?

a. Act of capturing the information by banners
b. Grabbing Information
c. Information Sharing
d. Sharing Information
Ans : a) Act of capturing the information by banners
a. IEEE 802.11
b. IEEE 802.10
c. IEEE 279.6
d. IEEE 275.4
Ans : a) 802.11
18. LINUX is an
a. Application
b. Software
c. Toolkit
d. Operating System
Ans : d) Operating System
19. Which of the following is an Email attack :

a. Hacking
b. Decrypting
c. Bomb
d. Banner
Ans : d) Banner

b. Demonetized Zone
c. Demand Zone
d. Demoralized Zone
A)1900 B)1980 C)19450 D)1984
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)1995
Q4Full Form Of IOCE
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)2000
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6

A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q26 NMAP known as:
A)Information
like
A)Root Directory
A)LINUX
A)Ethereal
D)All of the Above

A. Attack
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
5. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known as what
type of attack?
A. Remote attack
B. Physical access
C. Local access
D. Internal attack
A. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC

B. APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
C. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
D. APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
7.How does traceroute work?
A. It uses an ICMP destination-unreachable message to elicit the name of a router.

B. It sends a specially crafted IP packet to a router to locate the number of hops from the
sender to the destination network.
C. It uses a protocol that will be rejected by the gateway to determine the location.
D. It uses the TTL value in an ICMP message to determine the number of hops from the
sender to the router.
8. Nslookup can be used to gather information regarding which of the following?
A. Host names and IP addresses

B. Whois information
C. DNS server locations
D. Name server types and operating systems
9.What is it called when a hacker pretends to be a valid user on the system?
A. Impersonation
B. Third-person authorization
C. Help desk
D. Valid user
10.What is the best reason to implement a security policy?
A. It increases security.
B. It makes security harder to enforce.
C. It removes the employee’s responsibility to make judgments.
D. It decreases security.
Chapter No 3 : Basics Of Digital Forensic
A. Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of evidence in

court
B. The application of computer science and investigative procedures for a legal

purpose involving the analysis of digital evidence after proper search authority,
chain of custody, validation with mathematics, use of validated tools,
repeatability, reporting, and possible expert presentation
C. A process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer questions about
digital events

A. True
B. False
A. Authenticity
B. Comparison
C. Proving
D. Enhancement
4. Which of the following represents the step of scientific methodI- Develop hypothesis
based on evidenceII- Calculate hash value of evidenceIII- Test the hypothesis to look for
additional evidence IV-make an imaging of the original evidence
A. All above
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. II, III and IV

5. What is the Primary Objectives of Digital Forensic for Business and Industry
A. Availability of service
B. Continuity of operation
C. Prosecution
D. Security
A. Documentary
B. Demonstrative
C. Testimonial
D. Real
7. Which of the following is FALSE
C. It is the investigator’s responsibility to accurately report the relevant facts of a

case.

8. ____ is a written list of objections to certain testimony or exhibits.
a.Defendant
b.Empanelling the jury
c.Plaintiff
d.Motion in limine
9. Attorneys can now submit documents electronically in many courts; the standard format
in federal courts is ____.
a. Microsoft Word (DOC)
b. Portable Document Format (PDF)
c. Encapsulated Postscript (EPS)
d. Postscript (PS)
10. A(n) ____is a document that lets you know what questions to expect when you are
testifying.
a.written report
b.affidavit
c.examination plan
d.subpoena
Chapter No 4 : Digital Evidences

evidence?

c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
would have.
Chapter No 5 : Basics of hacking


practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
a) True
b) False

assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
8. An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not get leaked.
a) True
b) False
9. After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client information
to other parties.
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
10. __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides different
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
1.In terms of digital evidence, the Internet is an example of:

c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
evidence?


c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above



have.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human

D. None of above
Ans: C
4. _____ Model should reflect how results were

obtained. A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. LISP B.
ELIZA
C. All of above D.
None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
7. The concept derived from ________ level are propositional logic, tautology,
predicate calculus, model, temporal logic.
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
9. The ____ level contains constituents at the third level which are knowledge based
system, heuristic search, automatic theorem proving, multi-agent system.
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
A. LISP B.
ELIZA C.
PROLOG D.
NLP
Ans: A
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

C. Machine to Machine and Internet of

Things D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
5. MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A

C. Message
Ans: A

D. Enables network resources and reduces perception of latency and Allows multiple
concurrent exchange.
Ans: D
10. HTTP expands?


Ans: A


D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
2. Which of following is not general ethical norm for

Investigator? A. To contribute to society and human being.

Ans: B


Ans: D
4. What is called as the process of creation a duplicate of digital media for purpose
of examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
5. Which term refers for modifying a computer in a way which was not originally intended
to view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
6. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is
an example of a law enforcement specialty called?
A.Robotis
C.ComputerForenss
D.Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
Using what, data hiding in encrypted images be carried out in digital forensics?
A. Acquisition.
B.Steganogrhy. C.
Liveanalysis
D. Hashing.
And: B
Which of this is not a computer crime?
C. Sabotage.
Ans. D
Which file is used to store the user entered password?
A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .asm
Ans: D
Chapter-4 DIGITAL EVIDENCE
1. A Valid Definition of Digital Evidence is

a. Data Stored or transmitted using a computer
b. Information of Probative value
c. Digital dada of probative Value
d. Any digital evidence on computer
2. In term of Digital evidence, a hard drive is example.of

a. Open Computer System
b. Communication System
c. Embedded Computer System
d. None of the Above
3. In term of Digital evidence, a mobile telephone is an example.of

4. In term of Digital evidence, the internet is an example of

a. Open computer System
5. Digital Evidence is only useful in court of law

a. True
b. False
6. Video Surveillance can be form of Digital evidence

a. True
b. False
7. Computer Can be Involved in which of the following types of crime

a. Homicide and sexual Assault
c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
a. True
b. False
Chapter-5 Basics of Hacking
1. Which of the following statements best describes a white-hat hacker?
B. Former black hat
C. Former grey hat
D. Malicious hacker
A. Attack
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
5. Hacking for a cause is called __________________
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
A. Title 12
B. Title 18
C. Title 20
D. Title 2
8. port number does FTP use?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 23
D. 80
9. What is the primary goal of an Ethical Hacker?
a. Avoiding Detection
b. Determining return on investment (ROI) for security measure
c. Resolving security vulnerabilities
d. Testing Security Controls
a) True
b) False
Chapter-6 Types Of Hacking
1. Hackers who help in finding bugs and vulnerabilities in a system & don’t intend to
crack a system are termed as ________
c) Grey Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
2. Which is the legal form of hacking based on which jobs are provided in IT industries
and firms?
a) Cracking
c) Ethical hacking
d) Hactivism
3. They are nefarious hackers, and their main motive is to gain financial profit by doing
cyber crimes. Who are “they” referred to here?
a) Gray Hat Hackers
c) Hactivists
a) Grey Hat hackers
c) Blue Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
5. The amateur or newbie in the field of hacking who don’t have many skills about
coding and in-depth working of security and hacking tools are called ________
b) Hactivists
c) Script Kiddies
d) Whistle Blowers
6. Criminal minded individuals who work for terrorist organizations and steal
information of nations and other secret intelligence are _________
b) Blue Hat Hackers
c) Cyber Terrorists
d) Red Hat Hackers
7. These types of hackers are the most skilled hackers in the hackers’ community. Who
are “they” referred to?
b) Elite Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
organization.
d) Security Auditor
9. Governments hired some highly skilled hackers. These types of hackers are termed
as _______
a) Special Hackers
10. __________ security consultants uses database security monitoring & scanning
tools to maintain security to different data residing in the database / servers / cloud.
a) Database
b) Network
c) System
d) Hardware
Semester: VI
Ans: B
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

Ans: C
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B

A. History
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

Ans: C

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

B. Game Playing
C. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
symbols very well.
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
language
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: D

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
__________
A. Regular Grammar
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
D. Program, Program
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

D. All of the above
Ans: A

D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
like human.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
A. Machine learning
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E

C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C

A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D

Ans: A

E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C

A. high power
B. low power
D. low code density
Ans: B

Ans: C
Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: A

B. Pipe-ling
Ans: D
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: E

Ans: A
A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
Ans: A

C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is

C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for

Ans: B

Ans: D

Ans: - A
A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________.

C. Both A & B
Ans: - C

C. Both A& B
Ans: - A

B. Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B

A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
D. None of these
Ans: A
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A

B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for

D. None of above
Ans:B

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B

B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
Ans: - A
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
D. All of the above
Ans: - D

B. I/O interfaces.
Ans: - A

B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:D
such as ___.
A. Zigbee
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - D
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
underlying network.
A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A

D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Coaxial cable
Ans: - B

A. 10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C

A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Transport layer
Ans: - B
resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________

Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A

C. Message
Ans: A
exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?
Ans: A

Ans: A
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits
Ans:B

A. Web chat
B. Error control
Ans: A

Ans: C

B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
Ans: A

A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
Ans: B

A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A

A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A

A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A

communication.
Ans:A
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D

A. Request-Response
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C

Ans: B

Ans: A
99. WSN stands for

D. None of these
Ans: B

A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Ans: A

A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
cloud.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans:A
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
Ans:C
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B

A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D
A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A

A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C

A. True
B. False
Ans.B

A. True
B. False
Ans.A

A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
Ans.C

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A

A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
be much larger.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A

A. Machine tools
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A

A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Cameras
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D

A. Sense
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None
Ans: B

A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
A. Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for

Ans: A

A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D

D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C

expert presentation
Ans: B

files and folders
Ans: D

Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B

Ans: C
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D

available.
evidence.
Ans: A
C. Review phase.
Ans: B

phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B
Ans. D

A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

Ans: B
Ans: D
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B

C. Sabotage.
Ans. D

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
on user input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
BHARATI VIDYAPEETH INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
QUESTION BANK
Unit Test-II (Shift:-I & II)


Course Abbr & Code:-ETI (22618) Scheme: I
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Ans: C
evidence?
Ans: D

Ans: A

Ans: C
Ans: C

Ans: B

C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D

Ans: C

would have.
Ans: D
D. All the above.
Ans: C
crime.
None of the above
Ans: B
behind, is:
Ans: A
is an example of:
Ans: A
involved with _______ should be comfortable with this technology.
B. Prosecution
C. Defense work
D. All of the above
Ans:
Ans: C
Ans: A

C. Exchange rule
Ans: B

Ans: B
A. digital evidence
Ans: A

A. Routing tables
B. Main memory
C. Log files
D. Cached data
Ans: C
A. Admissible
B. Authentic
C. Complete
D. Reliable
Ans: A
a type of _____________
Ans: A

Ans: B

Ans: D
Ans: A

Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Flash memory
C. Process table
D. Arp cache
Ans: A

A. Oath affidavit
B. DNA samples
C. Fingerprint
D. Dried blood
Ans: A
C. Best evidence
Ans: A
31.When cases got to trial your forensics examiner play one of ____ role.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Ans. A
A. Eye witness
C. Paper work
Ans B
A. Law of witness
C. Law of evidence
D. All of the above
Ans. C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
forensic science.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Chapter 5
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

C. Encryption.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D

A. Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

B. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
6. ______ is the art of exploiting the human elements to gain access to the authorized user.
B. IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A

A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B

A. Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C

A. Fame.
B. Profit.
C. Revenge.
D. All the above
Ans. D
secure system.
A. Victims.
B. Attackers.
C. Both A & B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
13.Security audits are usually based on___

A. Entries.
B. Checklists.
C. Both A & B
Ans. B
14.Ethical hacking consist of _______

C. Red teaming.
Ans. D
A. Victim
B. Hacker
C. Developer
Ans. B

B. Steal the data
Ans. A

B. Steal the data
Ans. B
B. Steal the data
Ans. C
of money
A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. Police
B. Forensics
C. Thief
D. Hacker
Ans. C

A. Firewall
B. Encryption
C. VNPs
D. All the above
Ans. D
Ans. A
example of ____-
Ans. B
Ans. C
26.______ should be done before ethical hacking process.

A. Data gathering.
B. Attacking
C. Planning
D. Research
Ans. C

D. Risk permission.
Ans. A

A. Nmap
B. LC4
C. ToneLOC
D. Nessus
Ans. B

A. Whisker
B. Super scan
C. Nikto
D. Kismet
Ans. A
A. WebInspect
B. QualyGuard
Ans. C

A. Thieves
B. Kidnapper
C. Both A & B
Ans. C
A. Black hat hacker
B. Hactivist
C. Script kiddes
D. White hat hacker
Ans. B

A. Criminal
B. Antinationalist
C. Hacker for hire
Ans. C

A. 2600
B. Hackin9
C. PHRACK
D. All the above
Ans. D
practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
D. a bad
Ans. D
hacking.
A. Automated apps
C. Malware
D. Worms
Ans. C
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. stealing
B. disclosure
C. deleting
D. hacking
Ans. B
Ans. D
Chapter-6
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Ans: C
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D

C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A

D. All the above
Ans: B
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A
A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A

D. Covering tracks
Ans: B

A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A

A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Ettercap
B. Metasploit
C. Nmap
D. Burp Suit
Ans: C
Ans: D

Ans: C
Ans: B

Ans: D
A. Local networking
C. Physical entry
Ans: A
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication
Ans: B
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. 22
B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Ans: D
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
Ans: D
called ________.
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
Ans: D

A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
D. Scanned
Ans: A

Ans: D

Ans: B

A. Reconnaissance
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
Ans: C
A. Net
B. Metasploit
C. Zeus
D. Ettercap
Ans: B
A. Cain and Abel
B. Snort
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Ettercap
Ans: C
A. Snort
B. SuperScan
C. Burp Suit
D. EtterPeak
Ans: D

A. SuperScan
B. Snort
C. Ettercap
D. QualysGuard .
Ans: A

A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
Ans: D

Ans: A

B. Wi-Fi attacks
C. Packet filtering
Ans: B
A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
Ans: C

Ans: B
A. Ping Sweep
B. Port scan
C. Ipconfig
D. Spamming
Ans: A

C. Sniffing
D. Spoofing
Ans: A
A. Network analyzer
B. Crypt tool
C. John-the -Ripper
D. Back track
Ans: A

D. Banner grabbing
Ans: D
A. FTP SNMP
B.
C. RELNET
D. ARP
Ans: A

B. ARP poisoning
D. MAC spoofing
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. Attack syllable
C. Attacks hybrid
D. All the above
Ans: D

B. grey-hat hackers
C. script kiddies
Ans: D

A. hacktivism
C. active hacking
D. activism
Ans: A
A. local access
B. remote attack
C. internal attack
D. physical access
Ans: B
B. Active Sniffing
C. Passive Sniffing
Ans. C
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
52.We can eliminate many well-known network vulnerabilities by simply patch-ing your
network hosts with their latest ______and______.
D. None of above
Ans:-B
______ process.
A. Prackers
Ans:-D
Ans:-D
A. MAC
B. DOS
C. IDS
D. None of above
Ans:-B
56.DOS stands for

D. None of above
Ans:-B

D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. TCL
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Ans:-B
59. SSL stands for_____

Ans:-A
Ans:-D

A. Brightn Godfrey
B. Alan yeung
C. Robert Morris
D. None of above
Ans:-C

Ans:-D
Ans:- C
Ans:B

A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans:B

Ans:-A

A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL
Ans:-D
Semester: VI
Ans: B
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

Ans: C
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B

A. History
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

Ans: C

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

B. Game Playing
C. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
symbols very well.
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
language
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: D

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
__________
A. Regular Grammar
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
D. Program, Program
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

D. All of the above
Ans: A

D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
like human.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
A. Machine learning
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E

C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C

A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D

Ans: A

E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C

A. high power
B. low power
D. low code density
Ans: B

Ans: C
Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: A

B. Pipe-ling
Ans: D
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: E

Ans: A
A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
Ans: A

C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is

C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for

Ans: B

Ans: D

Ans: - A
A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________.

C. Both A & B
Ans: - C

C. Both A& B
Ans: - A

B. Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B

A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
D. None of these
Ans: A
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A

B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for

D. None of above
Ans:B

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B

B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
Ans: - A
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
D. All of the above
Ans: - D

B. I/O interfaces.
Ans: - A

B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:D
such as ___.
A. Zigbee
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - D
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
underlying network.
A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A

D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Coaxial cable
Ans: - B

A. 10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C

A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Transport layer
Ans: - B
resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________

Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A

C. Message
Ans: A
exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?
Ans: A

Ans: A
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits
Ans:B

A. Web chat
B. Error control
Ans: A

Ans: C

B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
Ans: A

A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
Ans: B

A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A

A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A

A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A

communication.
Ans:A
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D

A. Request-Response
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C

Ans: B

Ans: A
99. WSN stands for

D. None of these
Ans: B

A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Ans: A

A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
cloud.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans:A
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
Ans:C
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B

A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D
A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A

A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C

A. True
B. False
Ans.B

A. True
B. False
Ans.A

A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
Ans.C

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A

A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
be much larger.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A

A. Machine tools
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A

A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Cameras
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D

A. Sense
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None
Ans: B

A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
A. Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for

Ans: A

A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D

D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C

expert presentation
Ans: B

files and folders
Ans: D

Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B

Ans: C
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D

available.
evidence.
Ans: A
C. Review phase.
Ans: B

phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B
Ans. D

A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

Ans: B
Ans: D
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B

C. Sabotage.
Ans. D

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
on user input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
cwipedia.in

Ans: B
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
Ans: C
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B

A. History
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

Ans: C

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

B. Game Playing
C. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG D. NLP
Ans: A
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: D

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
__________
A. Regular Grammar
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
D. Program, Program
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

D. All of the above
Ans: A

D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
Ans: A
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
Ans: A
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: A
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
A. Machine learning
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E

C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C

A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D

Ans: A

E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C

A. high power
B. low power
D. low code density
Ans: B


Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: A

B. Pipe-ling
Ans: D
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: E

Ans: A

A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
Ans: A

C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is

C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for

Ans: B

Ans: D

Ans: - A

A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________. A.

C. Both A & B
Ans: - C

C. Both A& B
Ans: - A

Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B

A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
D. None of these
Ans: A
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A

B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for

D. None of above
Ans:B

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B

B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
Ans: - A
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
D. All of the above
Ans: - D

B. I/O interfaces.
Ans: - A

Wearable sensors.
B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A

D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Coaxial cable
Ans: - B

10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C

A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
A. TCP
B. UDP
Ans: - B
resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________

Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A
C. Message
Ans: A
exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?

Ans: A

Ans: A
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits Ans:B

A. Web chat
B. Error control
Ans: A

Ans: C

B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
Ans: A

A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
Ans: B

A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A

A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A

A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A

communication.
Ans:A
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D

A. Request-Response
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C

Ans: B

Ans: A
99. WSN stands for

D. None of these
Ans: B

A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
D. All of the above
Ans: D

Ans: A

A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
cloud. A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans:A
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
Ans:C
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B

A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D

A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A
A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C

A. True
B. False
Ans.B

A. True
B. False
Ans.A

A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
Ans.C

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A

A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A

A. Machine tools
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A

A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Cameras
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D

A. Sense
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None Ans: B

A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for

Ans: A

G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D

D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989 Ans:
B

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's Ans:
C

expert presentation
Ans: B

files and folders
Ans: D

Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B

Ans: C
Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D

available.
evidence.
Ans: A
C. Review phase.
Ans: B

phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B


A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

Ans: B
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
Acquisition.
Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B

C. Sabotage.
Ans. D

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
B. Data carving
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
Happy Learning!
www.cwipedia.in
Cwipedia.in
QUESTION BANK
Unit Test-II
/CW
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ans: C
Ans: D

Ans: A

Ans: C

Ans: C

Ans: B

C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D

Ans: C

would have.
Ans: D
D. All the above.
Ans: C
None of the above
Ans: B
behind, is:
Ans: A
an example of:
Ans: A
B. Prosecution
C. Defense work
Ans: A

C. Exchange rule
Ans: B

Ans: B
A. digital evidence
Ans: A

A. Routing tables
B. Main memory
C. Log files
D. Cached data
Ans: C
A. Admissible
B. Authentic
C. Complete
D. Reliable
Ans: A
_____________
Ans: A

Ans: B

Ans: D
Ans: A
Ans: C

Ans: A

A. Flash memory
C. Process table
D. Arp cache
Ans: A

A. Oath affidavit
B. DNA samples
C. Fingerprint
D. Dried blood
Ans: A
C. Best evidence
Ans: A
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3 D. 5
Ans. A
A. Eye witness
C. Paper work
Ans B
A. Law of witness
C. Law of evidence
D. All of the above
Ans. C
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
B. False
Ans: B
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

B. False
Ans: A
B. False
Ans: B
forensic science.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Chapter 5
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Hacking.
C. Encryption.

A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D

Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B

B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A

hacker.
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A

B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B

Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C

Fame.
B. Profit.
C. Revenge.
D. All the above
Ans. D
secure system.
A. Victims.
B. Attackers.
Ans. B

B. Checklists.
C. Both A & B
Ans. B

C. Red teaming.
Ans. D
A. Victim
B. Hacker
C. Developer
Ans. B

B. Steal the data
Ans. A

B. Steal the data
B. Steal the data
Ans. C
of money
A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. Police
B. Forensics
C. Thief
D. Hacker
Ans. C

A. Firewall
B. Encryption
C. VNPs
D. All the above
Ans. D
Ans. A
example of ____-
Ans. B
Ans. C

Data gathering.
B. Attacking C.
Planning
D. Research
Ans. C

Written permission.
permission.
Ans. A

A. Nmap
B. LC4
C. ToneLOC
D. Nessus
Ans. B

A. Whisker
B. Super scan
C. Nikto
D. Kismet Ans. A
A. WebInspect
B. QualyGuard
Ans. C

A. Thieves
B. Kidnapper
C. Both A & B
Ans. C
A. Black hat hacker
B. Hactivist
C. Script kiddes
D. White hat hacker
Ans. B

A. Criminal
B. Antinationalist
C. Hacker for hire
Ans. C

A. 2600
B. Hackin9
C. PHRACK
D. All the above
Ans. D
practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
D. a bad Ans. D
hacking.
A. Automated apps
C. Malware
D. Worms
Ans. C
is a crime.
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
Ans. A
stealing
B. disclosure
C. deleting
D. hacking
Ans. B
is not mandatory?
Ans. D
Chapter-6
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Ans: C
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D

C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A

D. All the above
Ans: B
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A

A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A

D. Covering tracks
Ans: B

A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A

A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Ettercap
B. Metasploit
C. Nmap
D. Burp Suit Ans: C
Ans: D
Ans: C
Ans: B
Windows.
Ans: D
A. Local networking
C. Physical entry
Ans: A
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. 22 B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Ans: D
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
Ans: D
called ________.
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
Ans: C


A. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
Ans: D

A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
D. Scanned
Ans: A

Ans: D
Ans: B

A. Reconnaissance
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
Ans: C
A. Net
B. Metasploit
C. Zeus
D. Ettercap Ans: B
A. Cain and Abel
B. Snort
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Ettercap
Ans: C
A. Snort
B. SuperScan
C. Burp Suit
D. EtterPeak
Ans: D

A. SuperScan
B. Snort
Ans: A

A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
Ans: D

Ans: A

B. Wi-Fi attacks
C. Packet filtering
Ans: B

A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
Ans: C
Ans: B
A. Ping Sweep
B. Port scan
C. Ipconfig
D. Spamming
Ans: A

C. Sniffing
D. Spoofing
Ans: A
A. Network analyzer
B. Crypt tool
C. John-the -Ripper
D. Back track
Ans: A

A. FTP SNMP
B.
C. RELNET
D. ARP
Ans: A
B. ARP poisoning
D. MAC spoofing
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. Attack syllable
C. Attacks hybrid
D. All the above
Ans: D

B. grey-hat hackers
C. script kiddies
Ans: D

A. hacktivism
C. active hacking
D. activism
Ans: A
local access
B. remote attack
C. internal attack
D. physical access
Ans: B
B. Active Sniffing
C. Passive Sniffing
Ans. C
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
D. None of above
Ans:-B
______ process.
A. Prackers
Ans:-D
Ans:-D
A. MAC
B. DOS
C. IDS
D. None of above
Ans:-B

of system
D. None of above
Ans:-B

D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. TCL
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Ans:-B

Ans:-A
Ans:-D

A. Brightn Godfrey
B. Alan yeung
C. Robert Morris
D. None of above
Ans:-C
Ans:-D
Ans:- C

A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans:B

Ans:-A
A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL
Ans:-D

21/05/2020 State Level Online Exam for Emerging Trends in Computer Engineering and Information Technology(22618)
State Level Online Exam for Emerging

Trends in Computer Engineering and
Information Technology(22618)
Total points 63/70
This Online Exam is for Final Year students of Computer Engineering Group of MSBTE
affiliated Polytechnic.
Date : 21-05-2020
Time 10.00 to 11.30am.
Email address *
[email protected]
0 of 0 points
Full Name *
Institute Name *
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSewPHDBW8z6BupgS-RKxbAZmZAz_W-rKu0CPZcACA733SoVyw/viewscore?viewsco… 1/27
Institute Code *
Enrollment number *
63 of 70 points
1. IBM Watson Supercomputer comes under --- AI 1/1
Narrow AI
General AI
Neural AI
None of the above
Feedback
Narrow AI
2. DARPA, the agency that has funded a great deal of American AI 1/1
research, is part of the Department of:
Defence
Energy
Education
Jastice
Feedback
Defence
3. The conference that launched the AI revolution in 1956 was held at: 1/1
Dartmouth
Harvard
New York
Stanford
Feedback
Dartmouth
4. What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense 1/1
part of problem solving?
Heuristic
Critical
Value based
Analytical
Feedback
Heuristic
5. What of the following is considered to be a pivotal event in the history 0/1

of AI.
1950, Computing Machinery and Intelligence.
1956, Dartmouth University Conference Organized by John McCarthy.
1961, Computer and Computer Sense.E. None of the above3
Correct answer
6. A certain Professor at the Stanford University coined the word 1/1

'artificial intelligence' in 1956 at a conference held at Dartmouth College.
Can you name the Professor?
David Levy
John McCarthy
Joseph Weizenbaum
Hans Berliner
None of the above
Feedback
John McCarthy
7. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a 1/1
criminal’s computer is an example of a law enforcement specialty called?
Robotics
Simulation
Computer Forensics
Animation
Feedback
Computer Forensics
8. What are the important parts of the mobile device which used in 1/1
Digital forensic?
SIM
RAM
ROM
EMMC chip
Feedback
EMMC chip
9. Using what, data hiding in encrypted images be carried out in digital 1/1
forensics?
Acquisition.
Steganography.
Live analysis
Hashing.
Other:
Feedback
Steganography
10. Which of this is not a computer crime? 1/1
e-mail harassment
Falsification of data
Sabotage
Identification of data
Feedback
Identi cation of data
11. Which file is used to store the user entered password? 1/1
.exe
.txt
.iso
.sam
Feedback
.sam
12.___________is the process of recording as much data as possible to 1/1

create reports and analysis on user input.
Data mining
Data carving
Meta data
Data Spoofing.
Feedback
Data mining
13. What is first step to Handle Retrieving Data from an Encrypted Hard 1/1
Drive?
Formatting disk
Storing data
Finding configuration files.
Deleting files.
Feedback
Finding con guration les.
14. In phase investigator transfers the relevant data from a venue out of 1/1
physical or administrative control of the investigator to a controlled
location
Preservation phase
Survey phase
Documentation phase
Reconstruction phase
Presentation phase
Feedback
Survey phase
15. Computer forensics do not involve activity. 1/1
Exraction of computer data.
Manipulation of computer data.
Interpretation of computer data.
Feedback
16. A set of instruction compiled into a program that perform a particular 1/1
task is known as:
Hardware.
CPU
Motherboard
Software
Feedback
Software
17. Which of following is not a rule of digital forensics? 1/1
An examination should be performed on the original data
A copy is made onto forensically sterile media. New media should always be used if
available.
The copy of the evidence must be an exact, bit-by-bit copy
The examination must be conducted in such a way as to prevent any modification of

the evidence.
Feedback
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/e/1FAIpQLSewPHDBW8z6BupgS-RKxbAZmZAz_W-rKu0CPZcACA733SoVyw/viewscore?viewsc… 10/27
18. To collect and analyze the digital evidence that was obtained from the 1/1
physical investigation phase, is the goal of which phase?
Physical crime investigation
Digital crime investigation.
Review phase.
Deployment phase.
Feedback
19. To provide mechanism to an incident to be detected and confirmed is 1/1

purpose of which phase?
Digital crime investigation
Review phase
Deployment phase
Feedback
Deployment phase
20. Which phase entails a review of the whole investigation and identifies 1/1
area of improvement?
Review phase.
Deployment phase
Feedback
Review phase.
21.___________is known as father of computer forensic. 1/1
G. Palmar
J. Korn
Michael Anderson
S.Ciardhuain.
Feedback
Michael Anderson
22. ___________is well established science where various contribution 1/1

have been made
Forensic
Crime
Cyber Crime
Evidence
Feedback
forensic
23. Who proposed End to End Digital Investigation Process (EEDIP)? 1/1
G. Palmar
Stephenson
Michael Anderson
S.Ciardhuain
Feedback
Stephenson.
24. Which model of Investigation proposed by Carrier and Safford? 1/1
Extended Model of Cybercrime Investigation (EMCI)
Integrated Digital Investigation Process(IDIP)
Road Map for Digital Forensic Research (RMDFR)
Abstract Digital Forensic Model (ADFM)
Feedback
25. Which of the following is not a property of computer evidence? 1/1
Complete and Convincing.
Duplicated and Preserved.
Conform and Human Readable.
Feedback
26. A valid definition of digital evidence is 1/1
Data stored or transmitted using a computer
Information of probative value
Digital data of probative value
Any digital evidence on acomputer
Feedback
Digital Data of probative value
27. What are the three general categories of computer systems that can 1/1
contain digital evidence?
Desktop, laptop,server
Personal computer, Internet, mobile telephone
Hardware, software,networks
Open computer systems, communication systems, and embedded systems
Feedback
28. In terms of digital evidence, the Internet is an example of 0/1
Open computersystems
Communication systems
Embedded computersystems
None of the above
Correct answer
29. Cyber trails are advantageous because: 1/1
They are not connected to the physical world.
Nobody can be harmed by crime on the Internet.
They are easy to follow.
Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise
would have.
Feedback
Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise would
have.
30. Private networks can be a richer source of evidence than the Internet 0/1
because:
They retain data for longer periods of time.
Owners of private networks are more cooperative with law enforcement.
Private networks contain a higher concentration of digital evidence.
All the above.
Correct answer
31. The criminological principle which states that, when anyone, or 2/2
anything, enters a crime scene he/she takes something of the scene with
him/her, and leaves something of himself/herself behind, is:
Locard’s Exchange Principle
Differential AssociationTheory
Beccaria’s SocialContract
None of theabove
Feedback
32. Ethical Hacking is also known as 2/2
Black Hat Hacking.
White Hat Hacking.
Encryption.
None ofthese.
Feedback
White Hat Hacking.
33. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds 2/2
Strengths.
Weakness.
A &B
None of these.
Feedback
Weakness.
34. Who described a dissertation on fundamentals of hacker’s attitude? 2/2
G. Palma.
Raymond.
Either.
Jhon Browman
Feedback
Raymond.
35. A grey hat hacker is the one who ···/2
Fix identifiesweakness
Steal thedata
Identifies the weakness and leave message to owner
None of the above
No correct answers
36. Which tool is used to crack the password? 2/2
Nmap
LC4
ToneLOC
Nessus
Feedback
LC4
37. Which tool is used for depth analysis of a web application? 2/2
Whisker
Superscan
Nikto
Kismet
Feedback
Whisker
38. Which hacker try to distribute political or social message through 2/2
their work?
Black hathacker
Hactivist
Scriptkiddes
White hathacker
Feedback
Hactivist
39. A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the & 2/2
privacy and security
rules and regulations
hacking techniques
ethics to talk to seniors
Feedback
40. Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, 2/2
which key points listed below is not mandatory?
Know the nature of the organization
Characteristics of work done in the firm
System and network
Type of broadband company used by the firm
Feedback
Type of broadband company used by the rm
41. Banner grabbing is used for 2/2
White Hat Hacking
Black Hat Hacking
Grey Hat Hacking
Script Kiddies
Feedback
White Hat Hacking
42. Which of the following tool is used for Windows for network queries 2/2
from DNS lookups to trace routes?
SamSpade
SuperScan
NetScan
Netcat
Feedback
SamSpade
43. Which Nmap scan is does not completely open a TCP connection? 2/2
SYN stealthscan
TCP scan
XMAS treescan
ACKscan
Feedback
SYN stealthscan
44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ethical hacker? 2/2
Excellent knowledge of Windows.
Understands the process of exploiting network vulnerabilities.
Patience, persistence and perseverance.
Has the highest level of security for the organization.
Feedback
45. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s 2/2

credentials is called the mode of ethical hacking.
Local networking
Social engineering
Physical entry
Remote networking
Feedback
Local networking
46. Enumeration is part of what phase of ethical hacking? 2/2
Reconnaissance
Maintaining Access
Gaining Access
Scanning
Feedback
Gaining Access
47. Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network? 0/2
black-hathackers
grey-hathackers
script kiddies
disgruntled employees
Correct answer
48. Embedded systems are 2/2
General Purpose
Special Purpose
Feedback
Special Purpose
49. A digital multi meter is an example of embedded system for 2/2
Data communication
Monitoring
control
All of above
Feedback
Monitoring
50. Main Processor chip in computers is 2/2
ASIC
ASSP
CPU
CPLD
Feedback
CPU
This content is neither created nor endorsed by Google. - Terms of Service - Privacy Policy
Forms
Semester: VI
Ans: B
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

Ans: C
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B

A. History
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

Ans: C

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

B. Game Playing
C. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
symbols very well.
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
language
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: D

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
__________
A. Regular Grammar
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
D. Program, Program
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

D. All of the above
Ans: A

D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
like human.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
A. Machine learning
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E

C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C

A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D

Ans: A

E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C

A. high power
B. low power
D. low code density
Ans: B

Ans: C
Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: A

B. Pipe-ling
Ans: D
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: E

Ans: A
A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
Ans: A

C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is

C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for

Ans: B

Ans: D

Ans: - A
A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________.

C. Both A & B
Ans: - C

C. Both A& B
Ans: - A

B. Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B

A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
D. None of these
Ans: A
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A

B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for

D. None of above
Ans:B

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B

B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
Ans: - A
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
D. All of the above
Ans: - D

B. I/O interfaces.
Ans: - A

B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:D
such as ___.
A. Zigbee
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - D
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
underlying network.
A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A

D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Coaxial cable
Ans: - B

A. 10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C

A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Transport layer
Ans: - B
resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________

Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A

C. Message
Ans: A
exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?
Ans: A

Ans: A
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits
Ans:B

A. Web chat
B. Error control
Ans: A

Ans: C

B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
Ans: A

A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
Ans: B

A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A

A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A

A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A

communication.
Ans:A
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D

A. Request-Response
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C

Ans: B

Ans: A
99. WSN stands for

D. None of these
Ans: B

A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Ans: A

A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
cloud.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans:A
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
Ans:C
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B

A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D
A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A

A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C

A. True
B. False
Ans.B

A. True
B. False
Ans.A

A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
Ans.C

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A

A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
be much larger.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A

A. Machine tools
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A

A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Cameras
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D

A. Sense
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None
Ans: B

A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
A. Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for

Ans: A

A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D

D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C

expert presentation
Ans: B

files and folders
Ans: D

Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B

Ans: C
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D

available.
evidence.
Ans: A
C. Review phase.
Ans: B

phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B
Ans. D

A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

Ans: B
Ans: D
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B

C. Sabotage.
Ans. D

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
on user input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
QUESTION BANK


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Ans: C
evidence?
Ans: D

Ans: A

Ans: C
Ans: C

Ans: B

C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D

Ans: C

would have.
Ans: D
D. All the above.
Ans: C
crime.
None of the above
Ans: B
behind, is:
Ans: A
is an example of:
Ans: A
B. Prosecution
C. Defense work
D. All of the above
Ans:
Ans: C
Ans: A

C. Exchange rule
Ans: B

Ans: B
A. digital evidence
Ans: A

A. Routing tables
B. Main memory
C. Log files
D. Cached data
Ans: C
A. Admissible
B. Authentic
C. Complete
D. Reliable
Ans: A
a type of _____________
Ans: A

Ans: B

Ans: D
Ans: A

Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Flash memory
C. Process table
D. Arp cache
Ans: A

A. Oath affidavit
B. DNA samples
C. Fingerprint
D. Dried blood
Ans: A
C. Best evidence
Ans: A
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Ans. A
A. Eye witness
C. Paper work
Ans B
A. Law of witness
C. Law of evidence
D. All of the above
Ans. C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
forensic science.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Chapter 5
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

C. Encryption.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D

A. Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

B. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
B. IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A

A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B

A. Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C

A. Fame.
B. Profit.
C. Revenge.
D. All the above
Ans. D
secure system.
A. Victims.
B. Attackers.
C. Both A & B
D. None of these.
Ans. B

A. Entries.
B. Checklists.
C. Both A & B
Ans. B

C. Red teaming.
Ans. D
A. Victim
B. Hacker
C. Developer
Ans. B

B. Steal the data
Ans. A

B. Steal the data
Ans. B
B. Steal the data
Ans. C
of money
A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. Police
B. Forensics
C. Thief
D. Hacker
Ans. C

A. Firewall
B. Encryption
C. VNPs
D. All the above
Ans. D
Ans. A
example of ____-
Ans. B
Ans. C

A. Data gathering.
B. Attacking
C. Planning
D. Research
Ans. C

D. Risk permission.
Ans. A

A. Nmap
B. LC4
C. ToneLOC
D. Nessus
Ans. B

A. Whisker
B. Super scan
C. Nikto
D. Kismet
Ans. A
A. WebInspect
B. QualyGuard
Ans. C

A. Thieves
B. Kidnapper
C. Both A & B
Ans. C
A. Black hat hacker
B. Hactivist
C. Script kiddes
D. White hat hacker
Ans. B

A. Criminal
B. Antinationalist
C. Hacker for hire
Ans. C

A. 2600
B. Hackin9
C. PHRACK
D. All the above
Ans. D
practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
D. a bad
Ans. D
hacking.
A. Automated apps
C. Malware
D. Worms
Ans. C
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. stealing
B. disclosure
C. deleting
D. hacking
Ans. B
Ans. D
Chapter-6
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Ans: C
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D

C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A

D. All the above
Ans: B
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A
A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A

D. Covering tracks
Ans: B

A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A

A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Ettercap
B. Metasploit
C. Nmap
D. Burp Suit
Ans: C
Ans: D

Ans: C
Ans: B

Ans: D
A. Local networking
C. Physical entry
Ans: A
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication
Ans: B
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. 22
B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Ans: D
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
Ans: D
called ________.
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
Ans: D

A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
D. Scanned
Ans: A

Ans: D

Ans: B

A. Reconnaissance
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
Ans: C
A. Net
B. Metasploit
C. Zeus
D. Ettercap
Ans: B
A. Cain and Abel
B. Snort
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Ettercap
Ans: C
A. Snort
B. SuperScan
C. Burp Suit
D. EtterPeak
Ans: D

A. SuperScan
B. Snort
C. Ettercap
D. QualysGuard .
Ans: A

A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
Ans: D

Ans: A

B. Wi-Fi attacks
C. Packet filtering
Ans: B
A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
Ans: C

Ans: B
A. Ping Sweep
B. Port scan
C. Ipconfig
D. Spamming
Ans: A

C. Sniffing
D. Spoofing
Ans: A
A. Network analyzer
B. Crypt tool
C. John-the -Ripper
D. Back track
Ans: A

D. Banner grabbing
Ans: D
A. FTP SNMP
B.
C. RELNET
D. ARP
Ans: A

B. ARP poisoning
D. MAC spoofing
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. Attack syllable
C. Attacks hybrid
D. All the above
Ans: D

B. grey-hat hackers
C. script kiddies
Ans: D

A. hacktivism
C. active hacking
D. activism
Ans: A
A. local access
B. remote attack
C. internal attack
D. physical access
Ans: B
B. Active Sniffing
C. Passive Sniffing
Ans. C
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
D. None of above
Ans:-B
______ process.
A. Prackers
Ans:-D
Ans:-D
A. MAC
B. DOS
C. IDS
D. None of above
Ans:-B
56.DOS stands for

D. None of above
Ans:-B

D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. TCL
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Ans:-B

Ans:-A
Ans:-D

A. Brightn Godfrey
B. Alan yeung
C. Robert Morris
D. None of above
Ans:-C

Ans:-D
Ans:- C
Ans:B

A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans:B

Ans:-A

A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL
Ans:-D
Semester: VI
Ans: B
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

Ans: C
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B

A. History
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

Ans: C

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

B. Game Playing
C. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
symbols very well.
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
language
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: D

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
__________
A. Regular Grammar
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
D. Program, Program
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

D. All of the above
Ans: A

D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
like human.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
A. Machine learning
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E

C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C

A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D

Ans: A

E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C

A. high power
B. low power
D. low code density
Ans: B

Ans: C
Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: A

B. Pipe-ling
Ans: D
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: E

Ans: A
A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
Ans: A

C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is

C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for

Ans: B

Ans: D

Ans: - A
A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________.

C. Both A & B
Ans: - C

C. Both A& B
Ans: - A

B. Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B

A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
D. None of these
Ans: A
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A

B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for

D. None of above
Ans:B

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B

B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
Ans: - A
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
D. All of the above
Ans: - D

B. I/O interfaces.
Ans: - A

B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:D
such as ___.
A. Zigbee
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - D
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
underlying network.
A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A

D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Coaxial cable
Ans: - B

A. 10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C

A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Transport layer
Ans: - B
resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________

Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A

C. Message
Ans: A
exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?
Ans: A

Ans: A
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits
Ans:B

A. Web chat
B. Error control
Ans: A

Ans: C

B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
Ans: A

A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
Ans: B

A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A

A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A

A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A

communication.
Ans:A
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D

A. Request-Response
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C

Ans: B

Ans: A
99. WSN stands for

D. None of these
Ans: B

A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Ans: A

A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
cloud.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans:A
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
Ans:C
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B

A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D
A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A

A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C

A. True
B. False
Ans.B

A. True
B. False
Ans.A

A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
Ans.C

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A

A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
be much larger.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A

A. Machine tools
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A

A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Cameras
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D

A. Sense
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None
Ans: B

A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
A. Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for

Ans: A

A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D

D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C

expert presentation
Ans: B

files and folders
Ans: D

Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B

Ans: C
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D

available.
evidence.
Ans: A
C. Review phase.
Ans: B

phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B
Ans. D

A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

Ans: B
Ans: D
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B

C. Sabotage.
Ans. D

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
on user input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
cwipedia.in

Ans: B
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
Ans: C
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B

A. History
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

Ans: C

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

B. Game Playing
C. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG D. NLP
Ans: A
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: D

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
__________
A. Regular Grammar
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
D. Program, Program
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

D. All of the above
Ans: A

D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
Ans: A
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
Ans: A
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: A
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
A. Machine learning
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E

C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C

A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D

Ans: A

E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C

A. high power
B. low power
D. low code density
Ans: B


Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: A

B. Pipe-ling
Ans: D
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: E

Ans: A

A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
Ans: A

C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is

C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for

Ans: B

Ans: D

Ans: - A

A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________. A.

C. Both A & B
Ans: - C

C. Both A& B
Ans: - A

Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B

A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
D. None of these
Ans: A
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A

B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for

D. None of above
Ans:B

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B

B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
Ans: - A
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
D. All of the above
Ans: - D

B. I/O interfaces.
Ans: - A

Wearable sensors.
B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A

D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Coaxial cable
Ans: - B

10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C

A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
A. TCP
B. UDP
Ans: - B
resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________

Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A
C. Message
Ans: A
exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?

Ans: A

Ans: A
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits Ans:B

A. Web chat
B. Error control
Ans: A

Ans: C

B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
Ans: A

A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
Ans: B

A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A

A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A

A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A

communication.
Ans:A
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D

A. Request-Response
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C

Ans: B

Ans: A
99. WSN stands for

D. None of these
Ans: B

A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
D. All of the above
Ans: D

Ans: A

A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
cloud. A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans:A
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
Ans:C
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B

A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D

A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A
A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C

A. True
B. False
Ans.B

A. True
B. False
Ans.A

A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
Ans.C

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A

A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A

A. Machine tools
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A

A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Cameras
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D

A. Sense
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None Ans: B

A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for

Ans: A

G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D

D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989 Ans:
B

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's Ans:
C

expert presentation
Ans: B

files and folders
Ans: D

Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B

Ans: C
Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D

available.
evidence.
Ans: A
C. Review phase.
Ans: B

phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B


A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

Ans: B
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
Acquisition.
Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B

C. Sabotage.
Ans. D

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
B. Data carving
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
Happy Learning!
www.cwipedia.in
Cwipedia.in
QUESTION BANK
Unit Test-II
/CW
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ans: C
Ans: D

Ans: A

Ans: C

Ans: C

Ans: B

C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D

Ans: C

would have.
Ans: D
D. All the above.
Ans: C
None of the above
Ans: B
behind, is:
Ans: A
an example of:
Ans: A
B. Prosecution
C. Defense work
Ans: A

C. Exchange rule
Ans: B

Ans: B
A. digital evidence
Ans: A

A. Routing tables
B. Main memory
C. Log files
D. Cached data
Ans: C
A. Admissible
B. Authentic
C. Complete
D. Reliable
Ans: A
_____________
Ans: A

Ans: B

Ans: D
Ans: A
Ans: C

Ans: A

A. Flash memory
C. Process table
D. Arp cache
Ans: A

A. Oath affidavit
B. DNA samples
C. Fingerprint
D. Dried blood
Ans: A
C. Best evidence
Ans: A
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3 D. 5
Ans. A
A. Eye witness
C. Paper work
Ans B
A. Law of witness
C. Law of evidence
D. All of the above
Ans. C
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
B. False
Ans: B
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

B. False
Ans: A
B. False
Ans: B
forensic science.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Chapter 5
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Hacking.
C. Encryption.

A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D

Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B

B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A

hacker.
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A

B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B

Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C

Fame.
B. Profit.
C. Revenge.
D. All the above
Ans. D
secure system.
A. Victims.
B. Attackers.
Ans. B

B. Checklists.
C. Both A & B
Ans. B

C. Red teaming.
Ans. D
A. Victim
B. Hacker
C. Developer
Ans. B

B. Steal the data
Ans. A

B. Steal the data
B. Steal the data
Ans. C
of money
A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. Police
B. Forensics
C. Thief
D. Hacker
Ans. C

A. Firewall
B. Encryption
C. VNPs
D. All the above
Ans. D
Ans. A
example of ____-
Ans. B
Ans. C

Data gathering.
B. Attacking C.
Planning
D. Research
Ans. C

Written permission.
permission.
Ans. A

A. Nmap
B. LC4
C. ToneLOC
D. Nessus
Ans. B

A. Whisker
B. Super scan
C. Nikto
D. Kismet Ans. A
A. WebInspect
B. QualyGuard
Ans. C

A. Thieves
B. Kidnapper
C. Both A & B
Ans. C
A. Black hat hacker
B. Hactivist
C. Script kiddes
D. White hat hacker
Ans. B

A. Criminal
B. Antinationalist
C. Hacker for hire
Ans. C

A. 2600
B. Hackin9
C. PHRACK
D. All the above
Ans. D
practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
D. a bad Ans. D
hacking.
A. Automated apps
C. Malware
D. Worms
Ans. C
is a crime.
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
Ans. A
stealing
B. disclosure
C. deleting
D. hacking
Ans. B
is not mandatory?
Ans. D
Chapter-6
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Ans: C
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D

C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A

D. All the above
Ans: B
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A

A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A

D. Covering tracks
Ans: B

A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A

A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Ettercap
B. Metasploit
C. Nmap
D. Burp Suit Ans: C
Ans: D
Ans: C
Ans: B
Windows.
Ans: D
A. Local networking
C. Physical entry
Ans: A
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. 22 B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Ans: D
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
Ans: D
called ________.
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
Ans: C


A. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
Ans: D

A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
D. Scanned
Ans: A

Ans: D
Ans: B

A. Reconnaissance
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
Ans: C
A. Net
B. Metasploit
C. Zeus
D. Ettercap Ans: B
A. Cain and Abel
B. Snort
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Ettercap
Ans: C
A. Snort
B. SuperScan
C. Burp Suit
D. EtterPeak
Ans: D

A. SuperScan
B. Snort
Ans: A

A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
Ans: D

Ans: A

B. Wi-Fi attacks
C. Packet filtering
Ans: B

A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
Ans: C
Ans: B
A. Ping Sweep
B. Port scan
C. Ipconfig
D. Spamming
Ans: A

C. Sniffing
D. Spoofing
Ans: A
A. Network analyzer
B. Crypt tool
C. John-the -Ripper
D. Back track
Ans: A

A. FTP SNMP
B.
C. RELNET
D. ARP
Ans: A
B. ARP poisoning
D. MAC spoofing
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. Attack syllable
C. Attacks hybrid
D. All the above
Ans: D

B. grey-hat hackers
C. script kiddies
Ans: D

A. hacktivism
C. active hacking
D. activism
Ans: A
local access
B. remote attack
C. internal attack
D. physical access
Ans: B
B. Active Sniffing
C. Passive Sniffing
Ans. C
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
D. None of above
Ans:-B
______ process.
A. Prackers
Ans:-D
Ans:-D
A. MAC
B. DOS
C. IDS
D. None of above
Ans:-B

of system
D. None of above
Ans:-B

D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. TCL
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Ans:-B

Ans:-A
Ans:-D

A. Brightn Godfrey
B. Alan yeung
C. Robert Morris
D. None of above
Ans:-C
Ans:-D
Ans:- C

A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans:B

Ans:-A
A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL
Ans:-D


Total points 63/70
Date : 21-05-2020
Time 10.00 to 11.30am.
Email address *
[email protected]
0 of 0 points
Full Name *
Institute Name *
Institute Code *
Enrollment number *
63 of 70 points
Narrow AI
General AI
Neural AI
None of the above
Feedback
Narrow AI
Defence
Energy
Education
Jastice
Feedback
Defence
Dartmouth
Harvard
New York
Stanford
Feedback
Dartmouth
Heuristic
Critical
Value based
Analytical
Feedback
Heuristic

of AI.
Correct answer

David Levy
John McCarthy
Joseph Weizenbaum
Hans Berliner
None of the above
Feedback
John McCarthy
Robotics
Simulation
Computer Forensics
Animation
Feedback
Computer Forensics
Digital forensic?
SIM
RAM
ROM
EMMC chip
Feedback
EMMC chip
forensics?
Acquisition.
Steganography.
Live analysis
Hashing.
Other:
Feedback
Steganography
e-mail harassment
Sabotage
Feedback
.exe
.txt
.iso
.sam
Feedback
.sam

Data mining
Data carving
Meta data
Data Spoofing.
Feedback
Data mining
Drive?
Formatting disk
Storing data
Deleting files.
Feedback
location
Preservation phase
Survey phase
Documentation phase
Presentation phase
Feedback
Survey phase
Feedback
task is known as:
Hardware.
CPU
Motherboard
Software
Feedback
Software
available.

the evidence.
Feedback
Review phase.
Deployment phase.
Feedback

Review phase
Deployment phase
Feedback
Deployment phase
Review phase.
Deployment phase
Feedback
Review phase.
G. Palmar
J. Korn
Michael Anderson
S.Ciardhuain.
Feedback
Michael Anderson

have been made
Forensic
Crime
Cyber Crime
Evidence
Feedback
forensic
G. Palmar
Stephenson
Michael Anderson
S.Ciardhuain
Feedback
Stephenson.
Feedback
Feedback
Feedback
Feedback
None of the above
Correct answer
would have.
Feedback
have.
because:
All the above.
Correct answer
None of theabove
Feedback
Black Hat Hacking.
White Hat Hacking.
Encryption.
None ofthese.
Feedback
White Hat Hacking.
Strengths.
Weakness.
A &B
None of these.
Feedback
Weakness.
G. Palma.
Raymond.
Either.
Jhon Browman
Feedback
Raymond.
Steal thedata
None of the above
No correct answers
Nmap
LC4
ToneLOC
Nessus
Feedback
LC4
Whisker
Superscan
Nikto
Kismet
Feedback
Whisker
their work?
Black hathacker
Hactivist
Scriptkiddes
White hathacker
Feedback
Hactivist
hacking techniques
Feedback
System and network
Feedback
White Hat Hacking
Black Hat Hacking
Grey Hat Hacking
Script Kiddies
Feedback
White Hat Hacking
SamSpade
SuperScan
NetScan
Netcat
Feedback
SamSpade
SYN stealthscan
TCP scan
XMAS treescan
ACKscan
Feedback
SYN stealthscan
Feedback

Local networking
Social engineering
Physical entry
Remote networking
Feedback
Local networking
Reconnaissance
Maintaining Access
Gaining Access
Scanning
Feedback
Gaining Access
black-hathackers
grey-hathackers
script kiddies
Correct answer
General Purpose
Special Purpose
Feedback
Special Purpose
Data communication
Monitoring
control
All of above
Feedback
Monitoring
ASIC
ASSP
CPU
CPLD
Feedback
CPU
Forms
Class: TYCO Subject: ETI Unit-1(MCQ’s)
1. __________ is a branch of science which deals with helping machines find solutions to
complex problems in a more human-like fashion.
A. AI
B. IOT
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
ANSWER: A
2. These machines only focus on current scenarios and react on it as per possible best action.
A. Reactive Machines
B. Limited Memory
C. Theory of mind
D. self awareness
ANSWER: A
3. The core components and constituents of AI are derived from
A. Cognition
B. Knowledge
C. Research
D. vision
ANSWER: A
4. Which one is the example of narrow AI
A. Self-driving cars
B. Apple series
C. Speech recognition
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
5. These machines can store the past experiences or data.
A. Theory of Mind
B. Self Awareness
C. IOT
D. Limited Memory
ANSWER: D
6. Which one is the type of AI based on Capabilities
A. Theory of Mind
B. Strong
C. IOT
D. Deep learning
ANSWER: B
7. The peripheral entities are on the __________

A. Third Dimension
B. Computational Level
C. First Dimension
D. Cognition
ANSWER: C
8. Which one is the compound components of AI
A. Knowledge
B. Reasoning
C. NLP
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
9. Which is the model of mental states
A. Intention
B. Behavior
C. Vision
D. Body language
ANSWER: A
10. NLP stands for
A. Neural language processing
B. Natural language processing

C. Natural language Programming
D. Neural Language Programming
ANSWER: B
11. The components of gross level is
A. Embedded System
B. AI
C. IOT
D. LISP
ANSWER: D
12.The Mean of cognition is
A. Knowledge
B. Experience
C. Learning process through knowledge
D. All of these
ANSWER: C
13.What is the name for information sent from robot sensors to robot controllers?
A. Temperature
B. Feedback
C. Pressure
D. Signal
ANSWER: B
14. Who is the “Father” of artificial intelligence?
A.John McCarthy
B. Alan Turing
C. Allen Newell
D. Fisher Ada
ANSWER: D
15. Which one is the first course outcome of this subject
B. Acquire Knowledge of Emerging Trends
C. Describe AI, Machine Learning and deep learning
D. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation.
ANSWER: C
16. Which is the second course outcome of this subject
B. Interpret IOT Concepts.
C. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation.
D. Describe Evidence Handling Procedures
ANSWER: B
17. Which is the third course outcome of this subject
A. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation
B. Interpret IOT Concepts
C. Describe Evidence Handling Procedures
D. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation
ANSWER: D
18. Which is the Fourth course outcome of this subject
A. Describe Evidence Handling Procedures.
B. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation
C. Interpret Robotics Concepts.
D. None of these
ANSWER: A
19.Machine Learning is_________________
A. a branch of science,thet they automatically learn and improve with experience.
B. AI
C. Robotics
D. ES
ANSWER: A
20.Supervised Learning is______________
A. Type osf AI
B. deals with learning a function from available training data
B. make sense of unlabled data without having any predefined dataset for its training
C. Type of IOT
D. None of these
ANSWER: B
21.___________ is the example of supervised learning
A. k-menas
B. self-organization
C. Driverless car
D. classifying E-mail as spam
ANSWER: D
22.___________ is the example of unsuperviesd learning
A. voice recognition
B. labelling web pages
C. text tecognition
D. k-means
ANSWER: D
23.SVM stands for_________
A. Secured voting machine
B. secured support system

C. support vector machine
D. None of these
ANSWER: C
24. Online advertisement is the application of___________
A. AI
B. IOT
C. Forensics
D. Deep Learning
ANSWER: D
25.To become intelligent _____________is needed
A. Data
B. Inforamtion
C. Knowledge
D. All of the above
26. The performance of an agent can be improved by __________
a. Learning
b. Observing
c. Perceiving
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: A
27. Which of the following could be the approaches to Artificial Intelligence?
a. Strong Artificial Intelligence

b. Weak Artificial Intelligence
c. Applied Artificial Intelligence
Answer: D
28. An Artificial Neural Network Is based on?

Answer: C
29. The Face Recognition system is based on?

Answer: D
30. A completely automated chess engine (Learn from previous games) is based on?

Answer: A
31. Which of the following task/tasks Artificial Intelligence could not do yet?
a. Construction of plans in real time dynamic systems

b. Understand natural language robustly
c. Web mining
Answer: D
32. LISP was created by---------------
a. John McCarthy
b. Marvin Minsky
c. Alan Turing
d. Allen Newell and Herbert Simon
Answer: A

d. Playing a Game
Answer: C
a. PROLOG
b. Java
c. LISP
d. Perl
Answer: D
a. Microcontroller
b. Microprocessor
c. Peripheral system
d. Embedded system
Answer:B
36. What is CISC?
a. Computing instruction set complex

b. Complex instruction set computing
c. Complimentary instruction set computing
d. Complex instruction set complementary
Answer: B
37. Which of the following are comprised within AI?
a. Machine Learning
b. Deep Learning
c. Both (1) and (2)
Answer: C
38. "Artificial Intelligence means to mimic a human. Hence, if a robot can move from one place
to another like a human, then it comes under Artificial Intelligence."True or False
a. True
b. False
Answer: B
39. Which of the mentioned human behavior does the AI aim to mimic?
a. Thinking
b. Eating
c. Sleeping
d. All of the above
Answer: A
40. Which of the following is not a goal of AI?
a. Thinking humanly
b. Adapting to the environment and situations
c. To rule over humans
d. Real Life Problem Solving
Answer: C
41. Embedded System is…..
a. Microcontroller
b. Microprocessor
c. Debugger
d. Microcontroller and Microprocessor
Answer: D
42. Sensors are used for
a. To measure digital quantity

b. To measure Logical quantity
c. To measure physical quantity
d. To sense Environmental factors
Answer: C
43. The function of Actuator is
a. To measure information
b. To generates actual output
c. To correct output
d. All of the above
Answer: B
44. Which one of the following is not the ES hardware
a. Power supply
b. Timers
c. Parallel ports
d. Proteus
Answer: D
45. ES operating system is also known as
a. MAC OS
b. RTOS
c. Linux
Answer: B
a. The whole problem

b. Your Definition to a problem
c. Problem you design
d. Representing your problem with variable and parameter
Answer: D
a. A set of Rule
b. A sequence of steps
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Arbitrary representation to problem
Answer: C
a. Linear approach
b. Heuristic approach
c. Random approach
d. Optimal approach
Answer: B
a. Representational Verification
b. Representational Adequacy
c. Inferential Adequacy
d. Inferential Efficiency
Answer: A

b. Game Playing
c. Robotics
d. All of the above
Answer: D
known is
a. machine intelligence
b. human intelligence
c. artificial intelligence
d. virtual intelligence
Answer: C
a. BASIC
b. FORTRAN
c. IPL
d. LISP
Answer: C
53. The first widely-used commercial form of Artificial Intelligence (Al) is being used in many
It allows machines to handle vague information with a deftness that mimics human intuition.
What is the name of this AI?
a. Boolean logic
b. Human logic
c. Fuzzy logic
d. Functional logi
Answer: C
solving?
a. Heuristic
b. Critical
c. Value based
d. Analytical
Answer: A
55. Which kind of planning consists of successive representations of different levels of a plan?
c. project planning
d. All of the above
Answer: A
Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for
Ans: A
A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B
A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C
expert presentation
Ans: B
files and folders
Ans: D
Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B
Ans: C
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D
available.
evidence.
Ans: A
C. Review phase.
Ans: B
phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C
A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B
Ans: B

Ans. D
A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A
D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
Ans: B
Ans: D
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B
C. Sabotage.
Ans. D
A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
on user input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
44.Which model of Investigation proposed by Stephenson?
A. End-to-End Digital Investigation Process (EEDIP)

Ans: A
45. Which model of Investigation proposed by S. O. Ciardhuain?
Ans: A
46. Who was proposed UML modeling of digital forensics process model (UMDFPM)?
A. kohn
B. Eloff
C. Oliver
D. All of these
Ans. D
47.. …………………… is named the Integrated Digital Investigation Process(IDIP)?
A. DFPM
B. UML
C. case diagram
D. EMIC
Ans. A
48. How many phase are included in Integrated Digital Investigation Process(IDIP)?
A. Five
B. Four
C. Six
D. Seven
Ans. C
49. Which model follow by the Extended Model of Cybercrime Investigation (EMCI) ?
A. Spiral Model
B. Interactive Model
C. SDLC Model
D. Waterfall Model
Ans. D
50. DFPM Along With ……….. group and ………… phases are proposed by carrier and Stafford ?
A. 5, 17
B. 17, 5
C. 4, 17
D. 17, 4
Ans. A
Unit -4 ETI
Q. Chap QUESTION
1. 4.1&4.2 Investigation of computer security which step follow
A. Incident leads to legal proceeding B. Legal proceeding to leads incident
C. incident leads to legal procedure D. Legal proceeding to leads incident
Answer: A
2. 4 Incident leads to legal proceeding such as

A. Department proceeding B. Computer proceeding
C. State proceeding D. Court proceeding
Answer: D
3. 4 To meet the requirement of the judging body and to withstand or face any
challenges, it is essential to follow the _______
A. Evidence-handing procedure B. security
C. Incident-handing procedure D. Relevant evidence
Answer: A
4. 4 Digital Evidence use in today word

A. Security B. Internet
C. Helping people communication D. Hacking
locally and globally with ease
Answer: C
5. 4 evidence are called as

A. Confident or trusted information B. Indicating that a certain substance
C. Prove something related to a case in D. All of the above
trial
Answer: D
6. 4 An information which has a positive impact on the action occurred such as

_____
A. Original Evidence B. Relevant Evidence
C. Documented Evidence D. Digital Evidence
Answer: B
7. 4 Confident or trusted information that can be prove something related to case

trial called as ____
A. Digital Evidence B. Relevant Evidence
C. Documented Evidence D. Original Evidence
Answer: A
8. 4 Digital Evidence safe to use such _______ as evidence during an investigation

A. Condition B. impact
C. Information D. confident
Answer: C
9. 4 Digital evidence called as

A. Testimonial B. Electronic Evidence
C. Illustrative Evidence D. Documented Evidence
Answer: B

Unit -4 ETI
10. 4 Digital Evidence which form of data or information transmit or stored

A. Digital form B. Analog form
Answer: A
11. 4 Accepting digital evidence court will determine if the evidence is _____
A. relevant B. Authentic
Answer: C
12. 4 Evidence can be acquired when electronic device are ____ for examination
A. seized B. Secured
C. Seized and secured D. None of the above
Answer: C
13. 4 Electronic evidence is latent(hidden), like _______ evidence

A. Fingerprints or DNA B. Security
C. Password D. Substantial
Answer: A
14. 4 Digital evidence crosses jurisdictional border is _________

A. long duration B. Quickly and easily
Answer: B
15. 4 Digital evidence are

A. faster B. secure
C. sensitive D. Time sensitive
Answer: D
16. 4 Digital evidence topic are divided into how many types
A. 4 B. 2
C. 3 D. 6
Answer: C
17. 4 Which based digital evidence types are divided

A. Internet-based B. Stand-alone computer or device
C. Mobile device D. All of the above
Answer: D
18. 4 Popular electronic device such as

A. HDD B. PDA
C. USB drive D. All of this
Answer: D
19. 4 Digital evidence are used to establish a credible link between the ______
A. Attacker and victim B. Crime scene
Answer: C

Unit -4 ETI
20. 4 Information stored in the victim’s is the

A. IP address B. Log files
C. Browsing history D. All of this
Answer: D
21. 4 Digital Evidence form in

A. Cookies B. Web History
C. Registry D. All of the above
Answer: D
22. 4 Original copy of the document is considered as _____

A. Electronic evidence B. Superior evidence
C. Explainable evidence D. Documented evidence
Answer: B
23. 4 Original writing must be offered which evidence rule

C. Documented evidence D. Explainable evidence
Answer: A
24. 4 Rule of evidence is also called as

C. Law of evidence D. Explainable evidence
Answer: C
25. 4 Rule must be

A. Admissible B. Authentic
C. complete D. All of the above
Answer: D
1. Illustrative evidence is also called as………..

A. Digital evidence
Ans. B
2. Which evidence are referred to as exculpatory.

Ans. A
3. Substantial evidence also called as………..

A. Digital evidence
Unit -4 ETI
Ans. D
4. Which are following example of Illustrative Evidence?

A. X-ray
B. Graph
C. Both A & B
D. Contract
Ans. B
5. Which are following example of Electronic Evidence?

A. X-ray
B. Graph
C. Email
D. Contract
Ans. C
6. Which are following example of documented evidence?

A. Wills
B. Graph
C. Invoices
D. All of these
Ans. D
7. Which type of evidence is typically used in criminal cases in which it support the dependent,
either partially removing their guilt in the case.
Ans. D
8. Which is the following type of evidence?

D. All of these
Ans. D
9. Which techniques used to the Locked Exchange principal?

A. Blood analysis
B. DNA matching
C. Both A & B
D. Email
Ans. C
10. Who was developed by the Locate Exchange Principal?

A. Dr. Edmond
B.
C.
D.
Ans. A

Unit -4 ETI
11. Digital stream of bits used in ……….

A. digital communication
B. data storage application.
C. Both A & B
D. Crime Scene
Ans. C
12. Digital stream bit also know as ………….

A. Primary sequence
B. Binary sequence
C. Octal sequence
D. Both A & B
Ans. B
Chapter
Q. QUESTION
topics
26. 4-4.5.1 The laws of jurisdictions define data as _______________________
A. Written works and record keeping B. Record keeping words
C. None of above D. both
Answer: Written works and record keeping
27. 4.5.2 Which laws define the data

A. Law of data B. Jurisdictions
C. both D. none
Answer: Jurisdictions
28. The chain of custody in digital forensics can also be referred to as the________
A. Forensic link B. Scientific link
C. Digital link D. Custody link
Answer: Forensic link
29. It is important to maintained ________ to preserve the integrity of evidence and

prevent it from contamination.
A. Digital evidence B. Forensic link
C. Chain of custody D. all
30. What is metadata?

A. Measurable data B. Big data
C. Data related about the digital D. Data about data
evidences
Answer: Data about data
31. 1 Sequence the following statements according to chain of custody?

i. Take screenshot of digital evidence content
ii. Perform a hash text analysis to further authenticate the working clone.
iii. Save the original materials

Unit -4 ETI
iv. Take screenshot of physical evidence
v. Inject a bit for bit clone of digital evidence content into our forensic
computers.
vi. Documents date,time and any other information n of reciept
A. iv-i-iii-ii-vi-v B. v-vi-iii-i-ii-iv
C. iii-iv-i-vi-v-ii D. i-ii-iii-iv-v-vi
Answer: iii-iv-i-vi-v-ii
32. _________prevents evidence from being tainted

A. Digital evidence B. Physical evidence
C. Chain of custody D. none
33. PDA is used to____________

A. Maintained data B. Extract evidences
C. Determined evidence D. none
Answer: Extract evidences
34. To maintained the data in the PDA, its needs to keep in?
A. Continuously charge mode B. Evidence locker
C. In safe place D. both
Answer: Continuously charge mode
35. 4.5.3 Original media matches the forensic duplication by ______hashes.

A. MD6 B. MD9
C. MD5 D. MD8
Answer: MD5
36. Forensic duplication is performed using___________

A. dd B. Ff
C. ee D. ddd
Answer: dd
37. 4.6 Who are the highly volatile

A. Registers B. Memory
C. APR cache D. none
Answer: Registers
38. Which of the following will make the difference of nanoseconds?

A. APR cache B. Memory
C. Registers D. none
Answer: Registers
39. RAM stands for

A. Readily available memory B. Random access memory
C. Remember all memory D. none
Answer: Random access memory

Unit -4 ETI
40. The physical configuration and is information_____________ that could help an
investigation
A. Star topology B. Physical configuration
C. network topology D. all
Answer: network topology
41. Where archived data is located?

A. DVD B. Tape
C. Both(A)&(B) D. none
Answer: Both(A)&(B)
42. BPO Stands for

A. Background process outcomes B. none
C. Business produre outsourcing D. Business process outsourcing
Answer: Business process outsourcing
43. The owners of these establishments identified the holder of the __________
A. Add-on card B. Identity card
C. Aadhar card D. none
Answer: Add-on card
44. Which case won the second runner -up position for the India Cyber Cop
Award?
A. Credit card fraud B. Hosting Obscene Profiles
C. Illegal money Transfer D. Fake travel agent
Answer: Credit card fraud
45. Who had proposed marriage?

A. Former college mate B. Best friend
C. School mate D. none
Answer: Former college mate
46. 2 Choose the correct sequence of Investigation of any case?

i. Investigation
ii. Background
iii. Current status
A. iii-i-ii B. i-ii-iii
C. ii-i-iii D. iii-ii-i
Answer: ii-i-iii
47. PIN stands for

A. Personal identity number B. Personal information number
C. Personal identification number D. None of these
Answer: Personal identification number
48. Who won the India Cyber Cop Award while investigating cases ?
A. Mr S.Balu B. Mr R.S Jadhav
C. Mr Edmond Locard’s D. Mr Sanjay Jadhav
Answer: Mr Sanjay Jadhav
A. Log files B. Routing tables

Unit -4 ETI
C. Main memory D. Cached data
Answer: Log files

1.Before accessing the security of system,one may want to understand something about the........
A.Victim Mindset
B.Investigator Mindset
C.Offender Mindset
D.None of the above
ANS-C
2.One should protect the system from......
A.Good Guys
B.Bad Guys only Internal
C.Bay Guys ony Outsider
D.Both B and C
ANS-D
3.Knowing what hackers and malicious users want helps to understand.....
A.How they work
B.How they look
C.Both A and B
D.None of the above
Ans-A
4.Who states that the public misunderatands them?
A.Victim
B.Hacker
C.Investigators
D.All of the above
Ans-B
5.It's easy to........ what is not understood
A.Prejudge
B.postjudge
C.judge
D.missjudge
Ans-A
6.Hackers often state that .......misunderstands them
A.Investigators
B.Crowd
C.Judge
D.Public
Ans-D
7.Many Hackers Stereotype are based on misunderstanding rather than fact.Here Stereotype
means what???
A.Mind
B.Image
C.Look
D.All of the above
Ans-B
8.Hackers can be classified by both their....and their underlying......
A.knowledge and motivations
B.Courage and motivations
C.Abilites and motivations
D.Abilities and knowledge
Ans-C
9.Who is seeking more knowledge?
A.Hackers
B.Public
C.Judge
D.All of the above
Ans-A
10.Hackers merely seeks more.....
A.courage
B.abilities
C.knowledge
D.problems
Ans-C
11.The negavtive aspects of hacking usually overshadow the ..... aspects
A.Normal
B.Positive
C.Negative
D.Both B and C
Ans-B
12.The negavtive aspects of hacking usually overshadow the positive aspects and
promotes...........
A.Positive Aspects
B.Positive Stereotypes
C.Negative Aspects
D.Negative stereotypes
Ans-D
13.Hackers hack for ........of knowledge and the ...... of the challanges.
A.gain and thrill
B.Thrill and gain
C.Pursuit and lack

D.Pursuit and Thrill
Ans-D
14.The hackers wonder what could happen if-
A.Cable was unplugged
B.A switch was flipped
C.Lines of code were changed in program
D.All of the above
Ans-D
15.......Hackers might think they can improve electronics and mechanical devices by rewiring
them.
A.Old-School
B.Old-Aged
C.Old-Minded
D.None of the above
Ans-A
16.Old-School hackers might think they can improve electronics and mechanical devices by...
A.Fixing them
B.Recreating them
C.Rewiring them
D.Buying new
Ans-C
17.Recent Evidence shows that many hackers may also hack for.........Purpose
A.Political
B.Social
C.Both A and B
D.Fixing old machines
Ans-C
18.Hackers dont think about the fact that human beings are behind.......
A.walls
B.Firewall
C.wired Network
D.None of the above
Ans-B
19.Hackers action may affect human beings in
A.Negative way
B.Positive way
C.neutral Way
D.Both B and C
Ans-A
20.Hacker looks for victims
A.Files
B.Server
C.Databases
D.All of the above
Ans-D
21.What hackers can do??
A.Steal
B.Modify
C.Delete
D.A,B,C
Ans-D
22.The Behaviour is ...... to detect
A.Easy
B.Hard
C.Normal
D.High
Ans-B
23. Past Behaviour is often ......predictor of future behaviour
A.Good
B.Bad
C.Best
D.Worst
Ans-C
24.Hackers and malicious users play key role in the............of technology
A.Acheivement
B.Advancment
C.Adverseness
D.All of the above
Ans-B
A.Black Hat hackers
B.White Hat Hackers
C.Grey Hat Hackers
D.Red Hat Hackers
Ans-B
26.Which is the legal form of hacking based on which jobs are provided in IT industries and
firms?
A.Cracking
B.Non ethical Hacking

C.Ethical hacking
D.Hactivism
Ans-C
27. __________ security consultants uses database security monitoring & scanning tools to
maintain security to different data residing in the database / servers / cloud.
a) Database
b) Network
c) System
d) Hardware
Ans-a
28.Governments hired some highly skilled hackers. These types of hackers are termed as
_______
a) Special Hackers
Ans-d
29.These types of hackers are the most skilled hackers in the hackers’ community. Who are
b) Elite Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Ans-b
30.Someone (from outside) who tests security issues for bugs before launching a system or
application, and who is not a part of that organization or company are ______
a) Black Hat hacker
b) External penetration tester
c) Blue Hat hacker
d) White Hat Hacker
Ans-c
31.What would not exists in the world without hackers??
A.intrusion prevention technology
B.Data leak Protection
C.Vulnerablility scanning tools
D.All of the above
Ans-D
32.One should........ his/her system from being hacked.
A.protect
B.Avoid
C.preserve
D.Leave
Ans-A
33.Malicious Attackers often think and work just like-
A.Cops
B.Organized Criminals
C.Normal People
D.Detective
Ans-B
34.What hackers do?
A.Nothing
B.fly under radar
C.fly under radar and find the weaknesses to get their target
D.find weaknesses to get their target
Ans-C
35.Which of the following is an eaxmple of how hackers and malicious users think and work:
A.Cycber-terrorits
B.Malicious users are all over the map
C.Exploiting physical security weakness
D.Both A and C
Ans-C
36.How Hackers Evade an intrusion prevention system?
A.By saving MAc and IP address.
B.By changing MAC and IP address every hour.
C.By changing MAC and IP address every minute.
D.By changing MAC and IP address every few minutes.
Ans-D
37.Hackers exploit a physical security weakness by....
A.Being aware of offices that at unouccpied.
B.Being aware of offices that at Cleaned by cleaning crew.
C.Both A and B
D.Being aware of offices that at ouccpied.
Ans-C
38.Why hackers chooses the offices that are unoccupied?
A.Because they are easy to access
B.Because they are easy to access and minimum chances to get caught
C.Because of minimum chances to get caught
D.Both A and B
Ans-B
39.How is web access control bypass?

A.By changing a malicious site's URL to its dotted decimal IP address
B.By changing a decimal IP address to its dotted malicious site's URL
C.By changing a malicious site's URL to its valid URL
D.None of these
Ans-A
40. Using unauthorized software that would otherwise be blocked at the firewall by changing ...
A.Default IP Address
B.Default TCP port that runs on
C.Default HTTP port
D.None of the above
Ans-B
41.What hackers can do by gaining overly trusting colleague's user ID and password............
A.to gain access to sensitive information
B.to gain access to insensitive information
C.Both A and B
D.None of these
Ans-A
42.All hackers are....
A.Not equal
B.Same
C.Equal
D.Both B and c
Ans-A
43.Each hackers has his or her own unique
A.motives
B.methods
C.skill
D.All of the above
Ans-D
44.Hackers skill level falls into ....... categories.
A.Two
B.Three
C.Four
D.Five
Ans-B
45.Which are the categories of Hackers skill levels falls into........
A.Script Kiddies
B.Criminal hackers
D.Both A and B
Ans-D
46.Who are Script kiddies?
A.Computer Beginners
B.Engineers
C.Programmers
D.All of these
Ans-A
47.Script kiddies takes advantages of........
A.Hacker tools
B.Vulnerability scanners
C.Documentation available
D.All of these
Ans-D
48.Who dont have any real knowledge of what's really going on behind the scenes?
A.Criminal hackers
B.Script kiddies
C.Hacktivists
D.Cycber Terrorists
Ans-B
49.Who are Skilled criminal experts?
A.Script kiddies
B.Hacktivits
C.Cycber terrorists
D.None of these
Ans-D
50.Who writes some of the hacking tools?
A.Script kiddies
B.Hacktivits
C.Criminal hackers
D.Cycber terrorists
Ans-C
51.Criminal hackers write which of the following hacking tools
A.Script
B.Other programs
C.Malware viruses and worms
D.All of these
Ans-D
52.Which hackers are secretive and share information
A.Script kiddies
B.Criminal Hackers
D.Hackitivists
Ans-B
53.Criminal Hackers also write.......
A.Malware as vriuses and worms
B.Malware
C.Vriuses
D.Worms
Ans-A
54.Who write Malware as Viruses amd worms?
A.A.Script kiddies
B.Criminal Hackers
D.Hackitivists
Ans-B
55.How prefer to remain nameless?
A.Criminal
B.Investigator
C.Advanced Hacker
D.Hacker
Ans-C
56.Who are the worst enemies in information security?
A.A.A.Script kiddies
B.Hackitivists
D.Criminal Hackers
Ans-D
57.Who are IT professionals?
B.Hackitivists
C.Cycber terrorist
D.Hackers for Hire
Ans-A
57.What Security researchers do?
A.Track Computer
B. Network
C.Applicaation vulnerabilites
D.All of these
Ans-D
58.Who are known as good guy?
A.White hat
B.Black hat
C.Grey Hat
D.Script kiddies
Ans-A
59.Who are known as Bad guy?
A.White hat
B.Black hat
C.Grey Hat
D.Script kiddies
Ans-B
60.Who are known as both Bad guy and white guy?
A.White hat
B.Black hat
C.Grey Hat
D.Script kiddies
Ans-C
61.Who are invited by software vendors to find security flaws in their system.
A.White hat
B.Black hat
C.Grey Hat
D.Blue hat
Ans-D
62.Who engage in malicious and criminal activity against others?
A.Security Researchers
B.IT Professionals
C.Hacktivists
D.Both A and B
Ans-D
63.Who try to distribute political or social message through their work.
B.Hackitivists
C.Cycber terrorist
D.Hackers for Hire
Ans-B
64.Hacktivists wants to raise ........ awareness of an issue.
A.Private
B.Public
C.Common
D.None of these
Ans-B
65.Examples of Hacktivism are-
A.Messages about legalizing drugs
B.Protests against the warin Iraq
C.Protests centered around wealth envy and big corporations
D.All of these
Ans-D
67.Cycber terrorists are
A.Unorganised
B.organised
C.Both A and B
D.None of these
Ans-C
68.Who attacks government computers or public utliity infrastructure
B.Hackitivists
C.Cycber terrorist
D.Hackers for Hire

Ans-A
69.Who are part of organised crime on the Internet.
B.Hackers for Hire
C.Cycber terrorist
D.Hackitivists
Ans-B
70.Why hackers hack the system?
A.For Casual Hobby
B.Just to see What they can do and cant break into.
C.Hackers often promote individualism
D.All of these
Ans-D
71.What are common motives of hackers?
A.Revenge
B.basic bragging rights
C.curiosity
D.All of the above
Ans-D
72.Arrange the following steps to become hacker in proper way-
i.Experiment a lot ii.Read Hacking
iii.Learn Unix iv.Learn More than one programming language
v.Lean network concepts vi.Start simple:Read some tutorialsabout Hacking
vii.Learn Cryptography viii.Learn More then on operating system
ix.Learn to program in C x.Continue Learning and keep Listening to security task
xi.Read some good books xii.Participate in Hacking challenges
from experts
xiii.Go to next level write xiv.Contribute to open source security projject
vulerability
A.i-ii-iii-iv-v-vi-vii-viii-ix-xi-x-xii-xiv-xiii
B.ii-i-iv-viii-iii-xii-vi-vii-v-xiii-ix-xiv-x-xi
C.ii-ix-vi-iii-viii-v-iv-vii-i-xi-xii-xiii-xiv-x
D.ii-ix-iv-iii-viii-v-vi-vii-i-xi-xii-xiii-xiv-x
Ans-D
73.The 3rd step to become hacker is Learn more than one ............
A.Operating System
B.Programming Language
C.Networking concepts
D.Both a and b
Ans-B
74.How many steps are mentioned to become a hacker?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.0-13
Ans-C
75.Computer programs and scripts that help you find and exploit weaknesses in computer
system,web applications,servers and networks is called
A.HAcking tools
B.Hacking weapon
C.Samspade
D.none of these
Ans-A
76.Which of the following is a tool for ethical hacking?
A.Probely
B.Savvius
C.Medusa
D.All of the aove
Ans-D
77.Which tool is easy to use webapplication scanner?
A.Ettercap
B.InsightVM
C.Netspaker
D.Aircrack
Ans-C
78.Netsparker is available as on-premises and ______________solution.
A.SAAS
B.PASS
C.IASS
D.none ofthese
Ans-A
79.The fully automated ethical hacking solution that mimics a hacker to keep one step ahead
ofmalicious intruders.
A.Probely
B.Acunetix
C.saferVPN
D.Hashcat
Ans-B
80.The web application security scanner accurately scans............

A.HTML5
B.JavaScript
C.Single Page Application
D.All of the Above
Ans-D
81.What is the purpose of Probely?
A.Scans the data
B.Allow customers to manage the life cycle of vularabilities
C.Scans vulnerabilities in your web Application
D.Both B and C
Ans-D
82........is a security tool built having developers in mind
A.Probely
B.Etterccap
C.Hashcat
D.Both A and B
Ans-A
83.which tool isa top ranked vulnerability risk management solution?
A.Savvius
B.AirCrack
C.InsightVM
D.WebInspect
Ans-C
84........... is an indespensible tool in Ethical Havkers aresenal.
A.InsightVM
B.SaferVPN
C.Netsparker
D.Both A and B
Ans-B
85.WHich is ethical hacking tool?
A.Qualys guard
B.GFI LanGuard
C.Ettercap
D.All of the above
Ans-D
86.Ettercap supports ........... dissection includes features for network and host analysis
A.Active
B.Passive
C.Active and Passive
D.none of these
Ans-C
87.Aircrcak is ........ ethical tool
A.Untrustable
B.Trustable
C.Faithful
D.Most used
Ans-B
88............ is open source and cross platform ethical hacking tool.
A.Angry Ip Scanner
B.GFI LanGuard
C.Ettercap
D.Qualys guard
Ans-A
89.An ethical tool that scans network for vulnerabilities
A.Angry Ip Scanner
B.GFI LanGuard
C.Ettercap
D.Qualys guard
Ans-B
90............ is automated dynamic application security testing that allows performing ethical
hacking techniques.
A.Acunetix
B.Ettercap
C.Rainbow Crack
D.WebInspect
Ans-D
91............ helps businesses streamline thier security and compliance solutions.
A.Hashcast
B.SQL Map
C.Qualys Guard
D.medusa
Ans-C
92.which tool is used for password cracking.
A.SQL Map
B.Hashcast
C.Qualys Guard
D.medusa
Ans-B
93.SQL map supports .............. databse design

A.Recover MS access password
B.uncover password feild
C.Sniffing networks
D.ALl of the above
Ans -D
94.............is one of the best oline brute force enthical hacking tool
A.IronWASP
B.Medusa
C.L0phtCrack 6
D.Hashcat
Ans-B
95........... is used to detect wireless networkss on windows platform
A.NetStumbler
B.Medusa
C.L0phtCrack 6
D.Hashcat
Ans-A
96.Nessus can be used to perform-
A.REmote vulnerability scanner
B.Password dictionary attacks

C.It is closed source,cross platform and free for personal use
D.All of these
Ans-D
Class: TYCO Subject: ETI(22618) Unit-4 Part-1(MCQ’s)
Ans-c
2.Digital Evidences may be in the form of
a.Email-messages
b.cookies
c.Encrypted files
d.All of the above
Ans-d
evidence
d. Internet based, communication systems, Stand alone computer

Ans-d
4.The digital Evidence are used to establish a credible link between the.........
a.Attacker-victim and crime Scene
b.Attacker and crime Scene
c.Victim and crime scene
d.None of the above
Ans-a
a. True
b. False
Ans-b
6.The most complete copy or a copy which includes all neccessary parts of evidence,which is
closely related to the original evidence
a.Best Evidence
b.orginal Evidence
c.Documented Evidence
d.None of the above
Ans-a
7.What is the example of best evidence-
a. A client has a copy of the duplicate evidence media

b.A client has a copy of the original evidence media
c.both a and b
d.None of the above
Ans-b
8.The best evidence rule is concerned with the
a. Process
b. End result
c. Substance
d. Documents
Ans-d
9.The Rule of digital evidence must be
a. Admissible
b. Belivable
c. Both a and b
d. UnReliable
Ans-c
10.What are the Characteristics of digital Evidence
a. Witness Memory
b. Objective
c. Honesty
d. All of the above

Ans-d
11.According to.......... principle when two items make contact there will be an interchange
a.Cohen
b.Edmond Locard
c.Culley
d.Both b and c
Ans-b
12. Which of the following is the type of Digital Evidence
a.Illustrative Evidence
b.Best Evidence
c.Origital Evidence
d.All of the above
Ans-a
12........Evidence is also called as Demostrative Evidence
a.Electronic
b.Substantial
c.Documented
d.Illustrative
ans-d
13.Which Evidence is same as demostrative Evidence.

a.Explainable
b.Illustrative
c.Documented
d.Both b and c
Ans-c
14.What is examples of Illustrative Evidenvce
a.Photographs
b.DNA samples
c.dried blood
d.Footprints
Ans-a
15.A proof that is introduced in the form of Physical Object
a.Explainable Evidence
b.ELectronic Evidence
c.Illustrative Evidence
d.Substainable Evidence
Ans-d
16.The chain of custody in digital forensics can also be reffered to as the
a.Forensic link
b.The paper trail
c.Chronological Documentation
d.all of the above
Ans-d
17.Chain of custody indicates
a.Collection
b.Sequence of control
c.both a and b
d.forensic link
Ans-c
18.What is the role of examiner
d.both a and c
Ans-a
19.What is the role of court
d.both a and c
Ans-b
20.The Substanial Evidence also called as ........
a.Physical Evidence
d.None of the above
Ans-a
21.The Explainable Evidence is also reffered as
a.Physical Evidence
d.None of the above
Ans-c
1. Embedded system is a _____ and _____ .
a. microprocessor
b. microcontroller
c. Both a And b
Answer: C
2. Which of the following allows the reuse of the software and the hardware components?
a. platform based design

b. memory design
c. peripheral design
d. input design
Answer: A
3. Which of the following is the design in which both the hardware and software are considered
during the design?
a) platform based design
b) memory based design
c) software/hardware codesign
d) peripheral design
Answer: C
4. What does API stand for?

a) address programming interface
b) application programming interface
c) accessing peripheral through interface
d) address programming interface
Answer: B
5. Which of the following is a meet-in-the-middle approach?
a) peripheral based design
b) platform based design
c) memory based design
d) processor design
Answer: B
6. Which of the following helps in reducing the energy consumption of the embedded system?
a) compilers
b) simulator
c) debugger
d) emulator
Answer: A
7. Which of the following is an important ingredient of all power optimization?

a) energy model
b) power model
c) watt model
d) power compiler
Answer: B
8. Which of the following provides a buffer between the user and the low-level interfaces to the
hardware?
a) operating system
b) kernel
c) software
d) hardware
Answer: A
9. Which of the following can make the application program hardware independent?
a) software
c) operating system
d) kernel
Answer: C
10. Which of the following includes its own I/O routine?
a) hardware
b) kernel
c) operating system
Answer: C
11. How many types of messages are associated with the real-time operating system?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: A
12. Which can control the memory sharing between the tasks?
a) kernel
b) application
c) software
d) OS
Answer: A
13. Embedded sytem uses ____ to execute the operation.
a. Hardware Plafform
b. Interrupt controllers
c. Processor
Answer: A
14. Which one of the following offers CPUs as integrated memory or peripheral interfaces?
a) Microcontroller
b) Microprocessor
c) Embedded system
d) Memory system
a) Microcontroller
b) Microprocessor
d) Embedded system
16. What is CISC?

17. How is the protection and security for an embedded system made?
a) OTP
b) IPR
d) Security chips
18. It retains its content when power is removed. What type of memory is this?
a) Volatile memory
b) Nonvolatile memory
c) RAM
d) SRAM
19. How an embedded system communicate with the outside world?

a) Peripherals
b) Memory
c) Input
d) Output
20. Name a nonvolatile memory.
a) ROM
b) RAM
c) SRAM
d) DRAM
21.Embedded processor consists of ______.
a. Control Unit
b. Execution Unit
c. Data memory
d. All of the above
22. RISC stands for:
a. Reduced instruction set computer
b. Reduces intercommunication set computing
c. Receiver instruction set computer
d. Receiver instruction set Computing
23. PIC microcontroller are the ______ microcontrollers can be programmed to be performed a
large range of task.
a. Huge
b. Large
c. Small
24. Application of the PIC :

a. Lighting
b. Connectivity
c. Human interface
d. All of the above
25. AVR stands for
a. Alf-EligBogen VegardWollan RISC microcontroller
b. Advanced virtual RISC
c. Abstract Virtual RISC
d. Both a And b
26. AVR was developed in _____
a. 1978
b. 1996
c. 1997
d. 1990
27. AVR was developed by ___
b. Vegard Wollan
c. Alf-Egil Bogan
d. Harvard
28. AVR was designed by

b. Vegard Wollan
c. Alf-Egil Bogan
d. Both b And c
29. feature of AVR:
a. 8-bit and 16-bit timers
b. External 64KB little endian data space.
c. Both a And c
d. RISC architecture
30. Application of AVR:
a. Signal sensing and Interface motors
b. digital power
c. Automotive
d.None of the above
31. ARM stands for _____________
a) Advanced Rate Machines

b) Advanced RISC Machines
c) Artificial Running Machines
d) Aviary Running Machines
Answer: B
a) Low cost and low power consumption
b) Higher degree of multi-tasking
c) Lower error or glitches
d) Efficient memory management
Answer: A

a) Main frame systems
b) Distributed systems
c) Mobile systems
d) Super computers
Answer: C
34. The ARM processors don’t support Byte addressability.
a) True
b) False
Answer: B
35. Which devices measures gases or liquid?

a) Proximity sensor
b) Pressure sensor
d) Touch sensor
Answer: b
36. Which sensor measures the pressure relative to perfect vacuum?

Answer: a
37. Which sensor measures the pressure relative to atmospheric pressure?

Answer: b
38 . Barometer is which type of sensor________
a) Pressure sensor
b) Touch sensor
d) Humidity sensor
Answer: a
39. Touch screen devices use which sensor?

a) Touch sensor
b) Temperature sensor
c) Humidity sensor
d) Pressure sensor
Answer: d
Answer: c
40. The computer devices and smart phones that have _______ with pressure sensor.
a) Automotive Industry
b) Industrial
c) Aviation
d) Touch screen
Answer: d
41. In which place the pressure sensor is needed for monitoring gases and their partial
pressures.
a) Touch screen
b) Automotive Industry
c) Industrial
d) Aviation
Answer: c
Answer: b
42. Units for Humidity sensor____________

a) Dew/fost point or Relative Humidity
b) Relative Humidity or Parts Per Million
c) Dew/fost point or Parts Per Million
d) Dew/fost point or Parts Per Million or Relative Humidity
Answer: d
43. Dew point and Fost point are mainly used in which conditions?
a) Water vapor
b) Pressure of gas
c) Dryness of gas
d) Moisture in gas
Answer: c
45. Units for Absolute Humidity is ________

a) grams/m3
b) % by volume
c) PPMV
d) %
Answer: a
46. Units for Due point is _______

a) gram/m3
b) % by volume
c) PPMV
d) oC
Answer: d
47. Humidity sensors are divided into how many types and depending on what?
a) 2 types depending on output
b) 2 types depending on measurement units
c) 3 types depending on measurement units
d) 3 types depending on output
Answer: b
48. Electronic type hygrometers are divided into how many types?
a) 5 types
b) 3 types
c) 4 types
d) 2 types
Answer: d
49. Relative humidity is a function of ________

a) Ambient temperature
b) Water vapor pressure
c) Ambient temperature and Water vapor pressure
d) Dryness
Answer: c
50. Which sensors measure the moisture level using humidity?

b) Resistive Sensor
Answer: a
51. ________ sensors measure the electrical change in devices such as conductive polymers.
b) Resistive Sensor
Answer: d
52. ________ sensors are suitable for environments that have high temperatures.
b) Resistive Sensor
Answer: c
53. Are capacitive sensors linear?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
54. Capacitive RH sensors dominate __________ measurements.

a) Atmospheric
b) Process
c) Both atmospheric and process
d) Neither atmospheric nor process
Answer: c
55. Which sensor can detect nearby objects?
a) Proximity sensor
b) Humidity sensor
c) Touch sensor
d) Pressure sensor
Answer: a
56. The monitoring of machines, gears and objects are achieved by which sensor?
a) Humidity sensor
b) Proximity sensor
c) Touch sensor
d) Pressure sensor
Answer: b
57. Which proximity sensor detects metal objects?

a) Capacitive Proximity Sensor
b) Magnetic Proximity Sensor
c) Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
d) Inductive Proximity Sensor
Answer: d
58. Which proximity sensor indicates level?

Answer: a
59. Which proximity sensors are used in automotive?

Answer: d
60. Which proximity sensor detects positioning of an object?

c) Optical Proximity Sensor
d) Magnetic Proximity Sensor
Answer: c
61. Are proximity sensors used in retail settings?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
62. VCNL4100CT allows the proximity detection up to________

a) 2 meter
b) 1 meters
c) 0.5 meters
d) 1.5 meters
Answer: b
63. Which protocol is used by proximity sensor?

a) I2C
b) SPI
c) UART/USART
d) CAN
Answer: a
64. Does proximity sensor have a temperature sensor in it?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
65. Which device generates output signal when metal objects are either inside or entering into
sensing area.
a) Capacitive Proximity
b) Magnetic Proximity
c) Inductive proximity
Answer: a
66. ________ detects metals but along with it can also detect resins, liquids.
Answer: b
67. _________ sensors have no electrical noise effect and it can work DC.
Answer: c
68.. What is the sensing range for magnetic proximity sensors?

a) 120mm
b) 90mm
c) 150mm
d) 100mm
Answer: a
69. What is the sensing range for capacitive proximity sensors?

a) 150mm
b) 25mm
c) 120mm
d) 100mm
Answer: c
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: a
71. IOT Level1 cost is…………….
a) High
b) Medium
c) Low
d) Very Low
Answer: c
72. IOT Level1 Complexity is……………
a) Low
b) Very high
c) Medium
d) High
Answer: a
a) Smart Irrigation
b) Home automation
d) Noise monitoring
Answer: b
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: a
a) Smart Irrigation
b) Home automation
d) Noise monitoring
Answer: a
a) Smart Irrigation
b) Home automation
d) Noise monitoring
Answer: c
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: a
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: d
a) Smart Irrigation
b) Home automation
d) Noise monitoring
Answer: d
80. …………….IOT system is not suitable for solutions where the data involved is big.
a) IOT Lvel1
b) IOT Lvel2
c) IOT Lvel3
d) IOT Lvel5
Answer: a
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: d
a) Single node
b) Double node
c) Triple node
d) Multiple node
Answer: d
a) Forest fire detection

b) Home automation
d) Weather Monitoring System
Answer: a
a) Smart Irrigation
b) Weather Monitoring System
d) Noise monitoring
Answer: b
85. How many types of arduinos do we have?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 8
d) 6
Answer: c

a) ATmega328p
b) ATmega2560
c) ATmega32114
d) AT91SAM3x8E
Answer: a
87.What does p refer to in ATmega328p?

a) Production
b) Pico-Power
c) Power-Pico
d) Programmable on chip
Answer: b
89. Arduino shields are also called as _________

a) Extra peripherals
b) Add on modules
c) Connectivity modules
d) Another Arduinos
Answer: b
90.What is the default bootloader of the Arduino UNO?

a) Optiboot bootloader
b) AIR-boot
c) Bare box
d) GAG
Answer: a
91.Does the level shifter converts the voltage levels between RS-232 and transistor-transistor
logic.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
92.Which is the software or a programming language used for controlling of Arduino?

a) Assembly Language
b) C Languages
c) JAVA
d) Any Language
Answer: d
93.Do Arduino provides IDE Environment?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
94.A program written with the IDE for Arduino is called _________
a) IDE source
b) Sketch
c) Cryptography
d) Source code
Answer: b
95. Arduino IDE consists of 2 functions. What are they?

a) Build() and loop()
b) Setup() and build()
c) Setup() and loop()
d) Loop() and build() and setup()
Answer: c
96.How many digital pins are there on the UNO board?

a) 14
b) 12
c) 16
d) 20
Answer: a
97. _________ board allows sewn into clothing.

a) UNO
b) RedBoard
c) LilyPad
d) Mega
Answer: c
98.How many analog pins are used in Arduino Mega board?

a) 16
b) 14
c) 12
d) 8
Answer: a
99.Which board is first to use microcontroller within build USB?

a) LilyPad
b) UNO
c) RedBoard
d) Leonardo
Answer: d
100. ___________ are pre built circuit boards that fit on top of Android.
a) Sensor
b) Data types
c) Breadboard
d) Sheilds
Answer: d

a) True
b) False
Answer: b

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
103.What do we use to connect TV to RPi?

a) Male HDMI
b) Female HDMI
c) Male HDMI and Adapter
d) Female HDMI and Adapter
Answer: c
104.How power supply is done to RPi?

a) USB connection
b) Internal battery
c) Charger
d) Adapter
Answer: a
105.What is the Ethernet/LAN cable used in RPi?

a) Cat5
b) Cat5e
c) Cat6
d) RJ45
Answer: d
106.What are the parameters that are default values?

a) Port_Name and Bits
b) Speed and Port_Names
c) Speed and Parity
d) Stop bit and Flow Control
Answer: b
107.Which instruction set architecture is used in Raspberry Pi?

a) X86
b) MSP
c) AVR
d) ARM
Answer: d
108.What is the default user in Debain on Raspberry Pi?

a) Default
b) User
c) Pi
d) Root
Answer: c
109.What are the distributions are supported by raspberry Pi?

a) Arch Linux
b) Debain
c) Fedora Remix
d) Arch Linux, Debain, and Fedora Remix
Answer: d
110. What bit processor is used in Pi 3?

a) 64-bit
b) 32-bit
c) 128-bit
d) Both 64 and 32 bit
Answer: a
111.What is the speed of operation in Pi 3?

a) 900MHz
b) 1.2GHz
c) 1GHz
d) 500MHz
Answer: b
112.WiFi is not present in which of the following models?

a) Raspberry Pi3
b) Raspberry Pi Zero WH
c) Raspberry Pi Zero W
d) Raspberry Pi Zero
Answer: d
113.Does micro SD card present in all modules?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
114.How many USB ports are present in Raspberry Pi 3?

a) 5
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
Answer: c
115. -----------------sensor
a) Humidity
b) Temperature
c) Motion
d) Gas
Answer: b
115. -----------------sensor
a) Humidity
b) Temperature
c) Motion
d) Gas
Answer: b
116. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) IR
c) Proximity
d) Motion
Answer: d
117. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) Gas
c) Proximity
d) Smoke
Answer: b
118. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) Gas
c) Proximity
d) Smoke
Answer: d
119. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) Gas
c) Proximity
d) Image
Answer: d
120. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) Gas
c) Proximity
d) Image
Answer: a
121. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) IR
c) Proximity
d) Motion
Answer: b
122. -----------------sensor
a) Accelerator
b) Gas
c) Proximity
d) Image
Answer: c
a) Stepper
b) Servo
c) DC
d) Linear
Answer: b

a) Stepper
b) Servo
c) DC
d) Linear
Answer: a
a) Stepper
b) Servo
c) DC
d) Linear
Answer: c
125. Name of Actuator……………
a) Chain
b) Linear
c) Rack
d) Locking
Answer: b
Semester: VI
Ans: B
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

Ans: C
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B

A. History
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

Ans: C

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

B. Game Playing
C. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
symbols very well.
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
language
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: D

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
__________
A. Regular Grammar
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
D. Program, Program
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

D. All of the above
Ans: A

D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
like human.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
A. Machine learning
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E

C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C

A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D

Ans: A

E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C

A. high power
B. low power
D. low code density
Ans: B

Ans: C
Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: A

B. Pipe-ling
Ans: D
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: E

Ans: A
A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
Ans: A

C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is

C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for

Ans: B

Ans: D

Ans: - A
A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________.

C. Both A & B
Ans: - C

C. Both A& B
Ans: - A

B. Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B

A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
D. None of these
Ans: A
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A

B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for

D. None of above
Ans:B

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B

B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
Ans: - A
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
D. All of the above
Ans: - D

B. I/O interfaces.
Ans: - A

B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:D
such as ___.
A. Zigbee
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - D
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
underlying network.
A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A

D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Coaxial cable
Ans: - B

A. 10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C

A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Transport layer
Ans: - B
resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________

Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A

C. Message
Ans: A
exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?
Ans: A

Ans: A
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits
Ans:B

A. Web chat
B. Error control
Ans: A

Ans: C

B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
Ans: A

A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
Ans: B

A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A

A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A

A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A

communication.
Ans:A
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D

A. Request-Response
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C

Ans: B

Ans: A
99. WSN stands for

D. None of these
Ans: B

A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Ans: A

A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
cloud.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans:A
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
Ans:C
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B

A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D
A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A

A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C

A. True
B. False
Ans.B

A. True
B. False
Ans.A

A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
Ans.C

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A

A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
be much larger.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A

A. Machine tools
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A

A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Cameras
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D

A. Sense
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None
Ans: B

A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
A. Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for

Ans: A

A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D

D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C

expert presentation
Ans: B

files and folders
Ans: D

Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B

Ans: C
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D

available.
evidence.
Ans: A
C. Review phase.
Ans: B

phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B
Ans. D

A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

Ans: B
Ans: D
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B

C. Sabotage.
Ans. D

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
on user input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
QUESTION BANK


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Ans: C
evidence?
Ans: D

Ans: A

Ans: C
Ans: C

Ans: B

C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D

Ans: C

would have.
Ans: D
D. All the above.
Ans: C
crime.
None of the above
Ans: B
behind, is:
Ans: A
is an example of:
Ans: A
B. Prosecution
C. Defense work
D. All of the above
Ans:
Ans: C
Ans: A

C. Exchange rule
Ans: B

Ans: B
A. digital evidence
Ans: A

A. Routing tables
B. Main memory
C. Log files
D. Cached data
Ans: C
A. Admissible
B. Authentic
C. Complete
D. Reliable
Ans: A
a type of _____________
Ans: A

Ans: B

Ans: D
Ans: A

Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Flash memory
C. Process table
D. Arp cache
Ans: A

A. Oath affidavit
B. DNA samples
C. Fingerprint
D. Dried blood
Ans: A
C. Best evidence
Ans: A
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Ans. A
A. Eye witness
C. Paper work
Ans B
A. Law of witness
C. Law of evidence
D. All of the above
Ans. C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
forensic science.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Chapter 5
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

C. Encryption.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D

A. Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

B. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
B. IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A

A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B

A. Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C

A. Fame.
B. Profit.
C. Revenge.
D. All the above
Ans. D
secure system.
A. Victims.
B. Attackers.
C. Both A & B
D. None of these.
Ans. B

A. Entries.
B. Checklists.
C. Both A & B
Ans. B

C. Red teaming.
Ans. D
A. Victim
B. Hacker
C. Developer
Ans. B

B. Steal the data
Ans. A

B. Steal the data
Ans. B
B. Steal the data
Ans. C
of money
A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. Police
B. Forensics
C. Thief
D. Hacker
Ans. C

A. Firewall
B. Encryption
C. VNPs
D. All the above
Ans. D
Ans. A
example of ____-
Ans. B
Ans. C

A. Data gathering.
B. Attacking
C. Planning
D. Research
Ans. C

D. Risk permission.
Ans. A

A. Nmap
B. LC4
C. ToneLOC
D. Nessus
Ans. B

A. Whisker
B. Super scan
C. Nikto
D. Kismet
Ans. A
A. WebInspect
B. QualyGuard
Ans. C

A. Thieves
B. Kidnapper
C. Both A & B
Ans. C
A. Black hat hacker
B. Hactivist
C. Script kiddes
D. White hat hacker
Ans. B

A. Criminal
B. Antinationalist
C. Hacker for hire
Ans. C

A. 2600
B. Hackin9
C. PHRACK
D. All the above
Ans. D
practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
D. a bad
Ans. D
hacking.
A. Automated apps
C. Malware
D. Worms
Ans. C
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. stealing
B. disclosure
C. deleting
D. hacking
Ans. B
Ans. D
Chapter-6
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Ans: C
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D

C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A

D. All the above
Ans: B
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A
A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A

D. Covering tracks
Ans: B

A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A

A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Ettercap
B. Metasploit
C. Nmap
D. Burp Suit
Ans: C
Ans: D

Ans: C
Ans: B

Ans: D
A. Local networking
C. Physical entry
Ans: A
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication
Ans: B
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. 22
B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Ans: D
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
Ans: D
called ________.
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
Ans: D

A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
D. Scanned
Ans: A

Ans: D

Ans: B

A. Reconnaissance
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
Ans: C
A. Net
B. Metasploit
C. Zeus
D. Ettercap
Ans: B
A. Cain and Abel
B. Snort
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Ettercap
Ans: C
A. Snort
B. SuperScan
C. Burp Suit
D. EtterPeak
Ans: D

A. SuperScan
B. Snort
C. Ettercap
D. QualysGuard .
Ans: A

A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
Ans: D

Ans: A

B. Wi-Fi attacks
C. Packet filtering
Ans: B
A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
Ans: C

Ans: B
A. Ping Sweep
B. Port scan
C. Ipconfig
D. Spamming
Ans: A

C. Sniffing
D. Spoofing
Ans: A
A. Network analyzer
B. Crypt tool
C. John-the -Ripper
D. Back track
Ans: A

D. Banner grabbing
Ans: D
A. FTP SNMP
B.
C. RELNET
D. ARP
Ans: A

B. ARP poisoning
D. MAC spoofing
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. Attack syllable
C. Attacks hybrid
D. All the above
Ans: D

B. grey-hat hackers
C. script kiddies
Ans: D

A. hacktivism
C. active hacking
D. activism
Ans: A
A. local access
B. remote attack
C. internal attack
D. physical access
Ans: B
B. Active Sniffing
C. Passive Sniffing
Ans. C
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
D. None of above
Ans:-B
______ process.
A. Prackers
Ans:-D
Ans:-D
A. MAC
B. DOS
C. IDS
D. None of above
Ans:-B
56.DOS stands for

D. None of above
Ans:-B

D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. TCL
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Ans:-B

Ans:-A
Ans:-D

A. Brightn Godfrey
B. Alan yeung
C. Robert Morris
D. None of above
Ans:-C

Ans:-D
Ans:- C
Ans:B

A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans:B

Ans:-A

A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL
Ans:-D
Semester: VI
Ans: B
Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
Ans: A
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
Ans: A
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

Ans: C
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
D. Hans Berliner
Ans: B

A. History
C. psychology
D. sociology
Ans: B
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
Ans: A

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C

Ans: C

A. Alain Colmerauer
B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Seymour Papert
Ans: B

B. Game Playing
C. Robotics
D. All of the above
Ans: D
known is
Ans: C

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
Ans: C
What is name of AI?
A. Boolean logic
B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic
D. Functional logic
Ans: C
solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
C. Embedded System
D. Cyber Security
Ans: A
other areas.
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: B
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: C
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. All of above
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
symbols very well.
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: A
language
A. LISP
B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG
D. NLP
Ans: D

A. Concept of logic
B. Cognition
C. Computation
D. All of above
Ans: D
knowledge on _____.
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: A
A. Logic
C. Cognition logic
D. All of above
Ans: B
A. Marvin Minsky
B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy
D. None of above
Ans: A
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Functional model
B. Neural model
D. None of above
Ans: C
__________
A. Regular Grammar
C. Regular Word
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. Process, Process
B. Process, Program
D. Program, Program
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
44. Weak AI is____________

D. All of the above
Ans: C
45. Strong AI is__________

D. All of the above
Ans: A

D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Neural AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
like human.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
a human by its own.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: A
AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
___ AI.
A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Narrow AI
B. General AI
C. Super AI
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
action.
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: A
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Reactive machine
B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-Awareness
Ans: D

A. Reactive machine
B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness
D. Both B & C
Ans: C
A. PROLOG
B. LISP
C. Perl
D. Java script
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Machine Learning
B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks
D. None of these
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: A
C. Machine learning
D. Deep learning
Ans: B
A. Machine learning
C. Deep learning
D. Robotics
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Nicklaus Wirth
D. Arthur Samuel
Ans: D

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: E

C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C

A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: D
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
Ans: B
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: D

Ans: A

E. All of these
F. None of these
Ans: E

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
Ans: C

A. high power
B. low power
D. low code density
Ans: B

Ans: C
Ans: B
Ans: A
Ans: A

B. Pipe-ling
Ans: D
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
Ans: A

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
Ans: E

Ans: A
A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
Ans: D
Ans: A

C. Mobile systems
D. Super computers
Ans: C
27. ASIC chip is

C. It is faster.
D. Both A&C.
Ans: C
28. ASIC stands for

Ans: B

Ans: D

Ans: - A
A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
Ans: - B
32. AVR stands for_____________________.

C. Both A & B
Ans: - C

C. Both A& B
Ans: - A

B. Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
Ans: B
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
Ans: B

A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
Ans: C
D. None of these
Ans: A
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
Ans: -A

B. Machine Learning
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
Ans:C
41. IIOT stands for

D. None of above
Ans:B

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
Ans: B

B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
Ans:A
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
D. None of above
Ans:C
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
Ans: - A
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
D. All of the above
Ans: - D

B. I/O interfaces.
Ans: - A

B. Smart watches.
C. LED lights.
D. All of the above
Ans: - D
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans: - A

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:B

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:C
A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
Ans:D
such as ___.
A. Zigbee
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:A

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - D
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans: C
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:C
underlying network.
A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
D. Link layer
Ans: - B
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link layer
Ans:A

D. None of above
Ans:C
B. Coaxial cable
Ans: - B

A. 10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
D. 250 Kb/s
Ans: - C

A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
Ans: C
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Transport layer
Ans: - B
resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
Ans: A
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
Ans: A
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
Ans: D

A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Ans: C
71. MQTT stands for _____________

Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
75 MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A

C. Message
Ans: A
exchange.
Ans: D
80. HTTP expands?
Ans: A

Ans: A
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
Ans: A

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits
Ans:B

A. Web chat
B. Error control
Ans: A

Ans: C

B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
Ans: D
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
Ans: A

A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
Ans: B

A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
Ans: A

A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
Ans: D

A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
Ans: A

A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
Ans: A

communication.
Ans:A
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans:D

A. Request-Response
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
Ans: C

Ans: B

Ans: A
99. WSN stands for

D. None of these
Ans: B

A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
D. All of the above
Ans: D
Ans: A

A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
Ans:C
cloud.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans:A
a) workunit
b) workspace
c) workload
Ans:C
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
Ans.B

A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
Ans.C
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
Ans:D
A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
Ans:A

A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
Ans:D
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:B
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
D. None of above
Ans:C

A. True
B. False
Ans.B

A. True
B. False
Ans.A

A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
Ans.C

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
Ans.A

A.Cat5
B.at5e
C. cat6
D . RJ45
Ans.D

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: A

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: B

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: C
be much larger.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
Ans: D
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
Ans: B

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
Ans: B

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B

A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
Ans: A

A. Machine tools
C.both A and B
D.None
Ans: A

A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
Ans: C

A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
D. None of above
Ans: B
A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Cameras
C. Sonars
D. All of above
Ans: D

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
Ans: A

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
Ans: D

A. Sense
C. Both A and B
D. None of above
Ans: C

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None
Ans: B

A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
Ans: A
A. Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
Ans:A

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:D
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:B

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
D. None of aboved
Ans:A
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
Ans:D

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Ans:C

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for

Ans: A

A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D

D. All of the above
Ans: D
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C

expert presentation
Ans: B

files and folders
Ans: D

Ans: B

B. Seizing Evidence
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
B. Survey phase
Ans:B
G. Survey phase
Ans:B

Ans: C
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
Ans: D

available.
evidence.
Ans: A
C. Review phase.
Ans: B

phase?
C. Review phase.
Ans: D
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
Ans: C

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Ans: C
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
Ans: A

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
Ans: B

Ans: B
Ans. D

A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
Ans: D
A. Firewall
B. Quick lauch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
Ans: A

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D

Ans: B
Ans: D
examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
D. Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
And: B

C. Sabotage.
Ans. D

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
Ans: D
on user input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: A
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Meta data
D. Data Spoofing.
Ans: B
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
D. Deleting files.
Ans: C
EMERGING TRENDS IN COMPUTER AND
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY (22618)

Ans: C
evidence?
Ans: D

Ans: A

Ans: C
Ans: C

Ans: B

C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D

Ans: C

would have.
Ans: D
D. All the above.
Ans: C
crime.
None of the above
Ans: B
behind, is:
Ans: A
is an example of:
Ans: A
involved with should be comfortable with this technology.
B. Prosecution
C. Defense work
D. All of the above
Ans:
Ans: C
Ans: A

C. Exchange rule
Ans: B

Ans: B
A. digital evidence
Ans: A

A. Routing tables
B. Main memory
C. Log files
D. Cached data
Ans: C

A. Admissible
B. Authentic
C. Complete
D. Reliable
Ans: A
a type of _
Ans: A

Ans: B

Ans: D
Ans: A

Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Flash memory
C. Process table
D. Arp cache
Ans: A
29. is known as testimonial.

A. Oath affidavit
B. DNA samples
C. Fingerprint
D. Dried blood
Ans: A
30. The process of ensuring that providing or obtaining the data that you have collected is similar
C. Best evidence
Ans: A
31. When cases got to trial your forensics examiner play one of role.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Ans. A
32. Types of digital evidence
A. Eye witness
C. Paper work
Ans B
33. Rule of evidence is also known as
A. Law of witness
C. Law of evidence
D. All of the above
Ans. C
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
forensic science.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Chapter 5

C. Encryption.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
2. Tool(s) used by ethical hacker .

A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D
3. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds .

A. Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B

A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

B. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
B. IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A

A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B
10. Computer Hackers have been in existence for more than a .

A. Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C
11. Hackers do hack for?

A. Fame.
B. Profit.
C. Revenge.
D. All the above
Ans. D
12. The intent of ethical hacker is to discover vulnerabilities from a point of view to better
secure system.
A. Victims.
B. Attackers.
C. Both A & B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
13. Security audits are usually based on

A. Entries.
B. Checklists.
C. Both A & B
Ans. B
14. Ethical hacking consist of

C. Red teaming.
Ans. D
A. Victim
B. Hacker
C. Developer
Ans. B

B. Steal the data
Ans. A

B. Steal the data
Ans. B
B. Steal the data
Ans. C
of money
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
20. Information is a one of the most valuable assets of organization

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. Police
B. Forensics
C. Thief
D. Hacker
Ans. C

A. Firewall
B. Encryption
C. VNPs
D. All the above
Ans. D
Ans. A
24. Connecting into network through a rogue modem attached to computer behind a firewall is an
example of -
Ans. B
25. comprise of large portion of hacker attacks simply because every computer has one
Ans. C

A. Data gathering.
B. Attacking
C. Planning
D. Research
Ans. C
27. Which permission is necessary before ethical hacking?

D. Risk permission.
Ans. A

A. Nmap
B. LC4
C. ToneLOC
D. Nessus
Ans. B

A. Whisker
B. Super scan
C. Nikto
D. Kismet
Ans. A
A. WebInspect
B. QualyGuard
Ans. C
31. Malicious attacker often think like?

A. Thieves
B. Kidnapper
C. Both A & B
Ans. C
32. Which hacker try to distribute political or social message through their work?
A. Black hat hacker
B. Hactivist
C. Script kiddes
D. White hat hacker
Ans. B
33. are part of organized crime on internet.

A. Criminal
B. Antinationalist
C. Hacker for hire
Ans. C

A. 2600
B. Hackin9
C. PHRACK
D. All the above
Ans. D
35. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is ethical

practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
D. a bad
Ans. D
36. has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for unethical
hacking.
A. Automated apps
C. Malware
D. Worms
Ans. C
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
38. A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the &
Ans. A
A. stealing
B. disclosure
C. deleting
D. hacking
Ans. B
Ans. D
Chapter-6
1. SNMP stands for

Ans: C
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D

C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A
4. An attacker can create an attack by sending hundreds or thousands of e-mails a with

D. All the above
Ans: B
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A
A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A

D. Covering tracks
Ans: B

A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A
10. Key loggers are form of

A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Ettercap
B. Metasploit
C. Nmap
D. Burp Suit
Ans: C
Ans: D

Ans: C
Ans: B

Ans: D
A. Local networking
C. Physical entry
Ans: A
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication
Ans: B
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. 22
B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Ans: D
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
Ans: D
called .
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
Ans: D

A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
D. Scanned
Ans: A
27. Services running on a system are determined by .

Ans: D

Ans: B

A. Reconnaissance
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
Ans: C
30. framework made cracking of vulnerabilities easy like point and click.
A. Net
B. Metasploit
C. Zeus
D. Ettercap
Ans: B
31. is a popular IP address and port scanner.
A. Cain and Abel
B. Snort
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Ettercap
Ans: C
32. is a popular tool used for network analysis in multiprotocol diverse network
A. Snort
B. SuperScan
C. Burp Suit
D. EtterPeak
Ans: D

A. SuperScan
B. Snort
C. Ettercap
D. QualysGuard .
Ans: A

A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
Ans: D

Ans: A

B. Wi-Fi attacks
C. Packet filtering
Ans: B
37. Phishing is a form of .
A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
Ans: C

Ans: B
A. Ping Sweep
B. Port scan
C. Ipconfig
D. Spamming
Ans: A

C. Sniffing
D. Spoofing
Ans: A
41. is a tool that allows you to look into network and analyze data going across the wire
A. Network analyzer
B. Crypt tool
C. John-the -Ripper
D. Back track
Ans: A

D. Banner grabbing
Ans: D
43. protocol is used for network monitoring.
A. FTP SNMP
B.
C. RELNET
D. ARP
Ans: A

B. ARP poisoning
D. MAC spoofing
Ans: A
45. What is the primary goal of an ethical hacker?

Ans: C

A. Attack syllable
C. Attacks hybrid
D. All the above
Ans: D
B. grey-hat hackers
C. script kiddies
Ans: D

A. hacktivism
C. active hacking
D. activism
Ans: A
A. local access
B. remote attack
C. internal attack
D. physical access
Ans: B
B. Active Sniffing
C. Passive Sniffing
Ans. C
50. In computer networking, is any technical effort to manipulate the normal behavior of
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
51. generally refers to unauthorized intrusion into a computer or a network.

A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
52. We can eliminate many well-known network vulnerabilities by simply patch-ing your
network hosts with their latest and .
D. None of above
Ans:-B
53. Network consist devices such as routers, firewalls, hosts that you must assess as a part of
process.
A. Prackers
Ans:-D
Ans:-D
55. attack, which can take down your Internet connection or your entire network.
A. MAC
B. DOS
C. IDS
D. None of above
Ans:-B
56. DOS stands for

D. None of above
Ans:-B
57. IDS stands for

D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. TCL
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Ans:-B
59. SSL stands for

Ans:-A
60. include phishing, SQL injection, hacking, social engineering, spamming, denial of
Ans:-D
61. Who invent worm attack

A. Brightn Godfrey
B. Alan yeung
C. Robert Morris
D. None of above
Ans:-C

Ans:-D
Ans:- C
64. What are some of the most common vulnerabilities that exist in a network or system?
Ans:B

A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans:B

Ans:-A

A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL
Ans:-D
Optical Network & Satellite Communication
(22647) (EJ)
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1) In an optical fiber communication system, which among the following is not a typical
transmitter function?
a. Coding for error protection
b. Decoding of input data
c. Electrical to optical conversion
d. Recoding to match output standard
ANSWER: (d) Recoding to match output standard
2) Which among the following is provided by an optical receiver for the regeneration of data
signal with minimum error?
a. Photo-diode
b. Signal Processing Circuits
c. Linear Circuitry
ANSWER: (c) Linear Circuitry
3) For a sine wave, the frequency is represented by the cycles per

a. Second
b. Minute
c. Hour
ANSWER: (a) Second
4) Which property/ies of PCM stream determine/s the fidelity to original analog signal?
a. Sampling rate
b. Bit depth
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (c) Both a and b
5) In single-mode fibers, how does the fraction of energy traveling through bound mode
appear in the cladding?
a. As a crescent wave
b. As a gibbous wave
c. As an evanescent wave
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) As an evanescent wave
6) What is the typical value of refractive index for an ethyl alcohol?

a. 1
b. 1.36
c. 2.6
d. 3.4
ANSWER:(b) 1.36
7) If a light travels in a certain medium and it gets reflected off an optically denser medium
with high refractive index, then it is regarded as
a. External Reflection
b. Internal Reflection
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (a) External Reflection
8) In an optical fiber, the concept of Numerical aperture is applicable in describing the ability
of
a. Light Collection
b. Light Scattering
c. Light Dispersion
d. Light Polarization
ANSWER:(a) Light Collection
9) Which among the following do/does not support/s the soot formation process?
a. OVPO
b. MCVD
c. PCVD
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) PCVD
10) Which type of photonic crystal fiber exhibit/s its/their similarity to the periodic crystalline
lattice in a semiconductor?
a. Index guiding fiber
b. Photonic bandgap fiber
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) Photonic bandgap fiber
11) Which type of fiber optic cable has/have its/their core with the size of about 480 μm to 980
μm & made up of polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)?
a. Glass fiber optic cable
b. Plastic fiber optic cable
c. Plastic clad silica fiber optic cable
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Plastic fiber optic cable
12) In multifiber cable system, which form of outer jacket/s consist/s of polyolefin compounds
and are regarded as halogen free?
a. OFNR
b. OFNP
c. LSZH
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) LSZH
13) During the design of FOC system, which among the following reasons is/are responsible for
an extrinsic absorption?
a. Atomic defects in the composition of glass
b. Impurity atoms in glass material
c. Basic constituent atoms of fiber material
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Impurity atoms in glass material
14) Which among the following represent/s the measure/s to minimize the inhomogenities for
Mie scattering reduction?
a. Extrusion Control
b. Increase in relative R.I. difference
c. Removal of imperfections due to glass manufacturing process
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (d) All of the above
15) In Kerr effect, induced index change has its proportionality with respect to
a. square of electric field
b. cube of electric field
c. cube root of electric field
d. one-fourth power of electric field
ANSWER: (a) square of electric field
16) Which among the following is regarded as an inelastic scattering of a photon?

a. Kerr Effect
b. Raman Effect
c. Hall Effect
d. Miller Effect
ANSWER: (b) Raman Effect
17) Which kind/s of misalignment assist/s in the reduction of overlap region in fiber?
a. Angular
b. Longitudinal
c. Lateral
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Lateral
18) Which is the correct order of sequential steps for an electric arc fusion technique?
A. Pressing of fiber ends for fusion
B. Application of heat for smoothening of end-surfaces
C. Alignment of broken fiber edges
a. A, B, C
b. B, A, C
c. C, B, A
d. C, A, B
ANSWER: (c) C, B, A
19) Which splicing technique involves the alignment and locking of broken fiber edges by
means of positioning devices & optical cement?
a. Fusion
b. Mechanical
c. Both a and b
ANSWER:(b) Mechanical
20) By using Springroove splicing technique, what is the value of mean insertion loss for multi
mode graded index fiber?
a. 0.01
b. 0.03
c. 0.05
d. 0.09
ANSWER: (c) 0.05
21) In the fiber optic link, power transfer from one fiber to another and from fiber to detector
must take place with coupling efficiency.
a. maximum
b. stable
c. minimum
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: (a) maximum
22) In spontaneous emission, the light source in an excited state undergoes the transition to a
state with
a. Higher energy
b. Moderate energy
c. Lower energy
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Lower energy
23) Which among the following is a key process adopted for the laser beam formation as it
undergoes the light amplification?
a. Spontaneous Emission
b. Stimulated Emission
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) Stimulated Emission
24) While coupling of LEDs with fiber, on which factor/s does the size of source and lighting
angle generated within the semiconductor depend/s?
a. Geometry of die
b. Refractive index of semiconductor
c. Encapsulation Medium
d. All of the above
25) Which among the following results in the removal of LED lens interface for achieving high
coupling efficiency?
a. Spherical lens
b. Cylindrical lens
c. Integral lens LED
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Integral lens LED
26) For a photo-diode with responsivity of 0.50 A/W & optical power of about 12μW, what
would be the value of generated photocurrent?
a. 3 μA
b. 6 μA
c. 9 μA
d. 12 μA
ANSWER: (b) 6 μA
27) Which component of an optical receiver is a linear frequency shaping filter used for the
compensation of signal distortion and Inter Symbol Interference (ISI)?
a. Photodetector
b. Amplifier
c. Equalizer
ANSWER: (c) Equalizer
28) In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate the sampled analog signals after
their quantization into discrete levels?
a. Binary
b. Decimal
c. ASCII
d. Excess-3
ANSWER: (a) Binary
29) Which feature of an eye-diagram assists in the measurement of additive noise in the signal?
a. Eye opening (height, peak to peak)
b. Eye overshoot/ undershoot
c. Eye width
ANSWER: (a) Eye opening (height, peak to peak)
30) Which method determines the dispersion limitation of an optical link?

a. Link power budget
b. Rise time budget
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) Rise time budget
31) Which phenomenon causes the dynamic line width broadening under the direct
modulation of injection current?
a. Modal Noise
b. Mode-partition Noise
c. Frequency Chirping
d. Reflection Noise
ANSWER: (c) Frequency Chirping
32) Speckle pattern is generated due to interference of nodes from a coherent source especially
when the coherence time of source is the intermodal dispersion time in the fiber.
a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Equal to
ANSWER: (b) Greater than
33) Which among the following is/are determined by the fiber characterization?
a. Fiber integrity & performance for desired transmission rate
b. Installation practices
c. Service Implementation
d. All of the above
34) From the tests carried out in fiber characterization, which among the following measures
the total light reflected back to the transmitter caused by the fiber as well as the components
like connector pairs and mechanical splices?
a. ORL
b. OTDR
c. LTS
d. PMD
ANSWER: (a) ORL
35) In fiber fault location, the equation of length (l) for time difference (t) is expressed as L = ct
/ 2n1 . Which factor in this equation implies that the light travels a length from source to break
point and then through another length on the return trip?
a. L
b. c
c. t
d. 2
ANSWER: (d) 2
36) Which line code in PCM indicates the return of signal to zero between each pulse & takes
place even due to occurrence of consecutive 0‟s & 1‟s in the signal?
a. Return-to-zero (RZ)
b. Non-Return to zero space
c. Return to zero inverted
d. Non-return to zero inverted
ANSWER: (a) Return-to-zero (RZ)
37) In the structure of fiber, the light is guided through the core due to total internal
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. diffraction
d. dispersion
ANSWER: (a) reflection
38) In the structure of a fiber, which component provides additional strength and prevents the
fiber from any damage?
a. Core
b. Cladding
c. Buffer Coating
ANSWER: (c) Buffer Coating
39) Which is the transmission medium for VLF electromagnetic waves especially applicable for
aeronautical and submarine cables?
a. Paired wires
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Wireless
ANSWER: (a) Paired wires
40) Which rays exhibit the variation in the light acceptability ability of the fiber?
a. Meridional
b. Skew
c. Leaky
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Skew
41) If a fiber operates at 1400nm with the diameter of about 10 μm, n1 = 1.30, Δ = 0.80% , V =
3.5, then how many modes will it have?
a. 6.125
b. 9.655
c. 12.95
d. 16.55
ANSWER: (a) 6.125
42) Which kind of dispersion phenomenon gives rise to pulse spreading in single mode fibers?
a. Intramodal
b. Intermodal
c. Material
d. Group Velocity
ANSWER: (a) Intramodal
43) With respect to single mode and graded index fibers, which parameter specifies the
propagation of polarization modes with different phase velocities & the difference between their
effective refractive indices?
a. Mode field diameter
b. Birefringence
c. Fiber beat length
d. Spot Size
ANSWER: (b) Birefringence
44) On which of the following factor/s do/does the „Hydrogen Effect‟ depend/s?
a. Type of fiber & Cable Design
b. Operating Wavelength
c. Installation Method
d. All of the above
45) Consider the statements given below. Which among them is not a drawback of double
crucible method?
a. Utility in mass production of fibers
b. High attenuation
c. High OH content in drawn fiber
d. Addition of impurity while the fiber is drawn
ANSWER: (a) Utility in mass production of fibers
46) Consider the assertions given below. Which is the correct sequential order of process
adopted in glass fiber preparation?
A. Drawing of fiber
B. Production of pure glass
C. Pulling of fiber
D. Conversion of pure glass into preform
a. B, D, A, C
b. A, B, C, D
c. C, A, D, B
d. D, B, A, C
ANSWER: (a) B, D, A, C
47) At which level of temperature does the oxidation process occur in MCVD?
a. Low
b. Moderate
c. High
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: (c) High
48) Assuming no ISI, the maximum possible bandwidth of a multimode graded index fiber
with 5 MHz, shows the total pulse broadening of 0.1s for the distance of about 12km. What
would be the value of bandwidth length product?
a. 40 MHz
b. 60 MHz
c. 90 MHz
d. 120 MHz
ANSWER: (b) 60 MHz
49) In Rayleigh scattering of light in glass, at which type of temperature does the glass attain
the state of thermal equilibrium and exhibits its relativity to annealing temperature?
a. Junction
b. Fictive
c. Breakdown
d. Decomposition
ANSWER: (b) Fictive
50) Which type of scattering occurs due to interaction of light in a medium with time
dependent optical density variations thereby resulting into the change of energy (frequency) &
path?
a. Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)
b. Stimulated Raman Scattering (SRS)
c. Mie Scattering
d. Rayleigh Scattering
ANSWER: (a) Stimulated Brilliouin Scattering (SBS)
https://electronicspost.com/multiple-choice-questions-and-answers-on-optical-fiber-
communicationpart-1/
Part-2
1) The macroscopic bending losses show an exponential increase due to in radius of
curvature.
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stability
ANSWER: (b) Decrease
2) Which type of mechanical splicing exhibits the permanent bonding of prepared fiber ends
with the rigid alignment of the tube?
a. Snug Tube Splicing
b. Loose Tube Splicing
c. Elastomeric Splicing
d. Precision Pin Splicing
ANSWER: (a) Snug Tube Splicing
3) Which component of fiber-optic connector has a provision of entry for the fiber along with
the fixation to connector housing?
a. Ferrule
b. Cable
c. Connector Housing
d. Coupling Device
ANSWER: (b) Cable
4) Which among the following is regarded as a keyed bayonet connector along with its
feasibility of easiest insertion and removal from the fiber optic cable?
a. FC Connectors
b. LC Connectors
c. MT-RJ Connectors
d. ST Connectors
ANSWER: (d) ST Connectors
5) How many mating cycles are being rated by typically matched SC Connectors?
a. 500
b. 600
c. 800
d. 1000
ANSWER: (d) 1000
6) In Stimulated Emission, which among the following parameters of generated photon is/are
similar to the photon of incident wave?
a. Phase
b. Frequency
c. Polarization & direction of travel
d. All of the above
7) Consider a crystal of ruby laser whose length is 6 cm and the refractive index is 1.8, emits
the wavelength of about 0.55 μm. What will be the value of number of longitudinal modes?
a. 3.9 x 105
b. 4.9 x 105
c. 5.6 x 105
d. 7.7 x 105
ANSWER: (a) 3.9 x 105
8) In a laser structure, the existence of standing waves is possible at frequencies for which the
distance between the mirrors is an integral number of
a. λ / 2
b. λ / 4
c. λ / 6
d. λ / 8
ANSWER: (a) λ / 2
9) The small section of fiber which is coupled to the optical source is known as
a. Flylead
b. Pigtail
c. Both a and b
10) In Lambertian output pattern of LED, the source is bright from all directions.
a. Less
b. Equally
c. More
d. Unpredictably
ANSWER: (b) Equally
11) In pyroelectric photodetectors, the consequent increase in dielectric constant due to

temperature variation by the photon absorption, is generally measured as change in
a. resistance
b. inductance
c. admittance
d. capacitance
ANSWER: (d) capacitance
12) Which type of preamplifier plays a crucial role in reducing the effect of thermal noise?
a. Low Impedance Pre-amplifier
b. High Impedance Preamplifier
c. Transimpedance Preamplifier
ANSWER: (b) High Impedance Preamplifier
13) In high impedance preamplifier, how are the noise sources kept to minimum level?
a. By reducing dark current with proper selection of photodiode
b. By reducing thermal noise of biasing resistor
c. By using high impedance amplifier
d. All of the above
14) Which among the following are the disadvantages of an optical feedback transimpedance
receiver?
A. Increase in receiver input capacitance
B. Increase in dark current
C. Decrease in receiver input capacitance
D. Decrease in dark current
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER: (a) A & B
15) Which category/ies of wavelength division multiplexer comprise/s two 3dB couplers where
the splitting of an incident beam takes place into two fiber paths, followed by the recombination
with second 3-dB coupler?
a. Interference filter based devices
b. Angular dispersion based devices
c. Mach-Zehnder Interferometers
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Mach-Zehnder Interferometers
16) Which among the following controls the length of Fabry-Perot interferometer so that it can
act as a tunable optical filter?
a. Transducer
b. Tachometer
c. Multimeter
d. Phase-meter
ANSWER: (a) Transducer
17) In circulator, an optical path of signal follows

a. An open loop
b. A closed loop
c. Both a and b
ANSWER: (b) A closed loop
18) Which among the following is/are responsible for generating attenuation of an optical
power in fiber?
a. Absorption
b. Scattering
c. Waveguide effect
d. All of the above
19) Consider the assertions/ characteristics given below. Which type of attenuation
measurement technique exhibits these characteristics?
1. Necessity of accessing both ends of fiber.
2. Measurements corresponding to specific wavelengths.
3. Requirement of spectral response over a range of wavelengths.
a. Cutback Technique
b. Insertion Loss Technique
c. Use of OTDR Technique
ANSWER: (a) Cutback Technique
20) For neglecting the pulse dispersion in the digital systems, the rms width of fiber impulse
response must be one-quarter of the pulse spacing.
a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
ANSWER: (a) Less than
21) If a noisy channel has a bandwidth of 4 MHz with signal to noise ratio of about 1, what
would be the maximum capacity of the channel?
a. 2 Mb/sec
b. 4 Mb/sec
c. 6 Mb/sec
d. 8 Mb/sec
ANSWER: (b) 4 Mb/sec
22) In the structure of fiber optic cable, the refractive index of core is always the
refractive index of cladding.
a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. Greater than
ANSWER: (c) Greater than
23) The order of mode is equal to the number of field across the guide.
a. Zeros
b. Poles
c. Ones
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Zeros
24) Which among the following represents the lateral shift of a light beam on reflection at a
dielectric interface?
a. Doppler’s Shift
b. Goos-Haenchen’s Shift
c. Frequency Shift
d. Phase Shift
ANSWER: (b) Goos-Haenchen‟s Shift
25) Why are plastic clad silica fiber optic cables not used widely?
a. Difficulty in connector application due to excessive plasticity in cladding
b. Difficulty in bonding
c. Insolubility in organic solvents
d. All of the above
26) In cables, water is prevented from filling the spaces with resistant compounds.
a. moisture
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. stress
ANSWER: (a) moisture
27) Which reason/s is/are responsible for the occurrence of non-linear Cross Phase Modulation
(XPM)?
a. Difference in transmission phase of peak pulse & leading or trailing edges of pulse
b. Third-order optical non-linearity
c. Intensity dependence of refractive index
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) Intensity dependence of refractive index
28) What is/ are the consequence/s of Self Phase Modulation in non-linear optics?
a. Modification in pulse spectrum
b. Limited transmission rate
c. Dispersion effect
d. All of the above
29) Which type of fiber-optic coupler causes the distribution of an optical power from more
than two input ports among the several output ports?
a. Star Coupler
b. Tree Coupler
c. X Coupler
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Star Coupler
30) Which optical devices are adopted or applicable for routing signals from one waveguide to
another?
a. Optical Combiner
b. Optical Splitter
c. Optical Coupler
ANSWER: (c) Optical Coupler
31) Which among the following characteristics of Laser light specifies the precise movement of
all individual light waves together through time and space?
a. Monochromatic
b. Directional
c. Coherent
d. Brightness
ANSWER: (c) Coherent
32) Which modes are acknowledged due to their association with electromagnetic field and
beam profile in the direction perpendicular to the plane of pn junction?
a. Longitudinal Modes
b. Transverse Modes
c. Lateral Modes
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Transverse Modes
33) Which type of injection laser involves the use of geometry for fabrication of the multimode
injection laser with a single or small number of lateral modes?
a. Gain guided laser
b. Index guided laser
c. Quantum well laser
d. Quantum dot laser
ANSWER: (a) Gain guided laser
34) In the dynamic response of Injection Laser Diode (ILD), the delay which is followed by
frequency damped oscillations give rise to the generation of relaxation oscillations.
a. Low
b. Medium
c. High
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (c) High
35) The spectral response of an ideal photodetector depicts its efficiency as a function of
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. period
d. wavelength
ANSWER: (d) wavelength
36) According to frequency response of photo-detector, the modulation frequency at which the
output current decreases to of peak value.
a. one-third
b. one-fourth
c. half
d. one-tenth
ANSWER: (c) half
37) Which photodiodes are crucially applicable to overcome the bandwidth-quantum efficiency
trade-off along with its resemblence to the pyramid structure?
a. Mushroom Waveguide Photodiode
b. Traveling Wave Photodiode
c. Resonant Cavity Photodiode
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (a) Mushroom Waveguide Photodiode
38) When an optical signal is incident on a photo-detector, which noise originate/s due to
statistical nature of production and collection of photoelectrons?
a. Dark Current Noise
b. Quantum Noise
c. Surface Leakage Current noise
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Quantum Noise
39) In an eye-diagram, digital signals with very bad interference resembles the shape of
a. circle
b. rectangle
c. triangle
d. straight line
ANSWER:(d) straight line
40) On which factor/s do/does the response time of photodiode depend/s?

a. Diffusion time of photo carriers outside the depletion region
b. Diffusion time of photo carriers within the depletion region
c. RC time constant
d. All of the above
41) Which nature of charge carriers give rise to the current fluctuations thereby resulting into
the generation of shot noise?
a. Continuous
b. Discrete
c. Sampled
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) Discrete
42) Which among the following parameters is/are decided by the front-end of a receiver?
a. Sensitivity
b. Bandwidth
c. Both a and b
43) In an optical network, increase in the number of lasers the bit rate.
a. Increases
b. Stabilizes
c. Decreases
ANSWER: (a) Increases
44) Which band/s specify/ies the operation range of Erbium doped fiber amplifier (EDFA)?
a. By O band
b. By C band
c. By S band
d. All of the above
ANSWER: (b) By C band
45) Basically, solitons are pulses which propagates through the fiber without showing any
variation in
a. Amplitude
b. Velocity
c. Shape
d. All of the above
46) Why is an electrical isolation required between several portions of an electronic circuit?
a. Provision of high voltage protection
b. Reduction in noise level
c. Both a & b
ANSWER: (c) Both a & b
47) For measuring the shape of input pulse in time-domain intermodal dispersion method, the
test fiber is replaced by another fiber whose length is less than of the test fiber.
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 20%
ANSWER: (a) 1%
48) In chromatic dispersion, which parameter for the modulation of the received signal is
measured with the help of a vector voltmeter?
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Phase
d. Period
ANSWER: (c) Phase
49) Which among the following stages is/are adopted in Splice Loss Experiment?
a. Translational
b. Rotational
c. Both a and b
50) Which among the following misalignments give/gives rise to the occurrence of splice loss?
a. Longitudinal separation between the end-faces of fiber
b. Angular tilt between fiber ends
c. Transverse offset between fiber ends
d. All of the above
https://electronicspost.com/multiple-choice-questions-and-answers-on-optical-fiber-
communicationpart-2/
Satellite Communication
Q1. Satellite engine uses …………
a. Jet propulsion
b. Ion propulsion system
c. Liquid fuel
d. Solar jet
Answer : b
Q2. The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam is known as ……..
a. Beam width
b. Band width
c. Footprint
d. Zone
Answer : c
Q3. What kind of battery used by older satellites ?

a. Lithium
b. Leclanche
c. Hydrogen
d. Magnesium
Answer : c
Q4. The location of AsiaSat I.

a. 105.5˚ East
b. 151.5˚ East
c. 115.5˚ East
d. 170.5˚ East
Answer : a
Q5. To make antenna more directional, either its size must be increased or
a. the number of its feed horns must be increased
b.the frequency of its transmission must be increased
c. its effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) must be increased
d. its footprint must be increased
Answer : b
Q6. India‟s first domestic geostationary satellite 1NSAT-IA was launched on 10th April 1982
from
a. USSR
b.USA
c. UK
d. UP
Answer : b
Q7. Satellite launch sites are invariably located on Eastern seaboards to ensure that
a. launch takes place eastward
b. expenditure of propulsion fuel is reduced during plane changing
c. the satellite achieves circular orbit quickly
d. spent rocket motor and other launcher debris falls into the sea
Answer : d
Q8. The owner of a communication satellite is usually required to keep the spacecraft on station
at its assigned place in the geosynchronous orbit with an accuracy of degree.
a. 0.1
b. 1.0
c. 2.0
d. 0.5
Answer : a
Q9. The number of days when Earth‟s shadow falls on a geosynchronous satellite is
a. 88
b. 277
c. 5
d. 10
Answer : a
Q10. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earth‟s station is ……….
a. Uplink
b. Downlink
c. Terrestrial
d. Earthbound
Answer : b
Q11. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of …………..

a. Circular polarization
b. Maneuverability
c. Beamwidth
d. Gain
Answer : a
Q12. What band does VSAT first operate?

a. L-band
b. X-band
c. C-band
d. Ku-band
Answer : c
Q13. VSAT was made available in ……..

a. 1979
b. 1981
c. 1983
d. 1977
Answer : a
Q14. ......................collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite

a. Helical antenna
b. Satellite dish
c. LNA
d. TWT
Answer : b
Q15. ………….is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earth‟s atmosphere.
a. Atmospheric loss
b. Path loss
c. Radiation loss
d. RFI
Answer : b
Q16. .....................is considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system.

a. Coverage
b. Cost
c. Access
d. Privacy
Answer : d
Q17. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite ……………
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
Answer : a
Q18. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earth‟s surface is called ……………
a. Zone beam
b. Hemispheric beam
c. Spot beam
d. Global beam
Answer : d
Q19. A geosynchronous satellite

a. has the same period a that of the Earth
b. has a circular orbit
c. rotates in the equatorial plane
d. has all of the above
Answer : d
Q20. A transponder is a satellite equipment which

a. receives a signal from Earth station and amplifies
b. changes the frequency of the received signal
c. retransmits the received signal
d. does all of the above-mentioned functions
Answer : d
Q21. The INTELSAT-IV satellite launched in 1974 had two earth coverage antenna and two
narrower-angle antennas subtending 4.5°. The signal from narrow-angle antenna was stronger
than that from earth- coverage antenna by a factor of ……………
a. 17.34/4.5
b. 17.34/4.5
c. (17.34/4.5)2
d. (17.34/4.5)4
Answer : c
Q22. The angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is ………..

a. 17.34°
b. 51.4°
c. 120°
d. 60°
Answer : a
Q23. The discussing sharing of a communication satellite by many geographically dispersed

Earth station, DAMA means
a. Demand-Assigned Multiple Access
b. Decibel Attenuated Microwave Access
c. Digital Analog Master Antenna
d. Dynamically-Assigned Multiple Access
Answer : a
Q24. A 20 m antenna gives a certain uplink gain at frequencies of 4/6 GHz. For getting same
gain in the 20/30 GHz band, antenna size required is ..............metre.
a. 100
b. 4
c. 1
d. 10
Answer : b
Q25. Of the four INSAT-I satellites planned by India so for, only ..................... has proved to be
successful.
a. INSAT-IA
b. INSAT-IB
c. INSAT-IC
d. INSAT-ID
Answer : b
Q26. Radio broadcasting is a familiar example of …………….

a. space multiplexing
b. time multiplexing
c. frequency multiplexing
Answer : c
Q27. As compared to 17.34° antenna, the total increase in the signal relayed by 4.5° antenna of
INTELSAT-IV is ……….
a. 14.85
b. 220
c. 78
d. 3.85
Answer : b
Q28. Which one of the following statements regarding DSI is false?

a. It is a digital form of TASI
b. Though it is more efficient than TASI, it is much slower
c. A speaker has to wait (it at all) for only a few milliseconds for reallocation of channel
d. It has increased the capacity of satellite channels by a factor of 2.2 or more with out degrading
speech quality
Answer : b
Q29. Which one of the following statements regarding compandor is FALSE?

a. It compresses the higher-amplitude parts of a signal before modulation and expands them back to
normal again after demodulation.
b. It gives preferential treatment to the weaker parts of the signal
c. For weaker signals it gives a poor ratio of signal strength to quantizing error
d. Weaker signals, traverse more quantum steps than they would do otherwise and so quantizing error
is reduced.
Answer : c
Q30. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the ............... ratio.

a. C/N
b. S/N
c. G/T
d. EIRP
Answer :a
Q31. The useful operational life of INSAT-IB (launched in 1983) is expected to end by
a. 1992-93
b. 1991-92
c. 1989-90
d. 1993-94
Answer : c
Q32. At present, the radio-frequency band mainly used by most satellites is ……….
a. EHF
b. UHF
c. VHF
d. SHF
Answer : d
Q33. Orbital disturbances of a geosynchronous satellite are caused by the

a. moon
b. sun
c. earth
d. all of the above
Answer : d
Q34. Which one of the following statement is correct?

a. Satellite spacing is not affected by the bandwidth of the transmitting earth station
b. Beamwidth is independent of antenna size and frequency band used
c. The width of a beam in space is inversely proportional to the width of the transmitting antenna
d. Use of high-frequency bands permits less number of satellites to share the orbit
Answer : c
Q35. In a stop-and-wait ARQ system, the transmitting terminal

a. waits for positive or negative acknowled-gement from the receiving terminal after sending a block
b. sends another block if positive acknowledge is received through ACK character
c. resends the previous block if negative acknowledgement is received through a NAK character
d. does not wait for acknowledgement after sending a block
Answer : d
Q36. A geostationary satellite is one which

a. hangs motionless in space about 36000 km about Earth
b. travels around the Earth in 24 hours
c. remains stationary above the Earth
d. appears stationary to everybody on Earth
Answer : d
Q37. The geostationary communication satellite APPLE is parked in the equatorial orbit at
a. 102° E longitude over Sumatra
b. 90° E longitude over Bangladesh
c. 74° E longitude over India
d. 67° E longitude over Pakistan
Answer : a
Q38. Power received from Sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite in
nearly................. watt.
a. 100
b. 500
c. 2000
d. 1000
Answer : d
Q39. A certain sound has 10000 times more energy than another sound. The number of times it
would sound stronger to a listener is
a. 40
b. 10000
c. 100
d. 10
Answer : a
Q40. The bandwidth of C- band satellite frequency band in U.C is ………

a. 500 GHz
b. 1000 GHz
c. 1000 MHz
d. 500 MHz
Answer : d
Q41. Repeaters inside communication satellites are known as ………

a. Trancievers
b. Transponders
c. Transducers
d. TWT
Answer : b
Q42. What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites?
a. Germanium based panels
b. Silicon based panel
c. Galium Phosphate solar panel array
d. Galium Arsenide solar panel array
Answer : d
Q43. What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink frequency in
GHz band?
a. 3500 MHz
b. 4500 MHz
c. 2225 MHz
d. 2555 MHz
Answer : c
Q44. How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine Government from ITU ?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
Answer : c
Q45. The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satellite array.
a. Series
b. Radial
c. Matrix
d. Shunt
Answer : d
Q46. What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna elements in a
mobile satellite array ?
a. Radial divider
b. Divider/combiner
c. Radial combiner
d. Radial multiplexer
Answer : a
Q47. INTELSAT stands for ………….

a. Intel Satellite
b. International Telephone Satellite
c. International Telecommunications Satellite
d. International Satellite
Answer : c
Q48. ................... is an artificial body that is projected from earth to orbit either earth (or)
another body of solar systems.
a. Satellite
b. moon
c. sun
Answer : a
Q49. .................. is defined as the use of orbiting satellites to receive, amplify and retransmit data
to earth stations.
a. Optical communication
b. Digital communication
c. Analog communication
d. Satellite communication
Answer : d
Q50. .................. law states that the path followed by the satellite around the primary will be an
ellipse.
a. Newton’s 1st law
b. kepler’s first law
c. kepler’s second law
d. kepler’s third law
Answer : b
Q51. Which law states that for equal time intervals, the satellite will sweep out equal areas in its
orbital plane, focused at the barycenter.
Answer : c
Q52. Which law states that the square of the periodic time of orbit is perpendicular to the cube
of the mean distance between the two bodies. A3 = 3/n2
Answer : d
Q53. What is meant by GPRS ?

a. General packet receiver service
b. General packet radio service
c. Global packet radio service
d. none of these
Answer : b
Q54. Television transmission is an example of which type of transmission?

a. Simplex
b. Half Duplex
c. Full Duplex
Answer : a
Q55. What are the limitations of FDMA-satellite access?

a. If the traffic in the downlink is much heavier than that in the uplink, then FDMA is relatively
inefficient.
b. Compared with TDMA, FDMA has less flexibility in reassigning channels.
c. Carrier frequency assignments are hardware controlled
d. all of the above
Answer : d
Q56. What is meant by EIRP?
a. Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power
b. Energy Isotropic Radiated Power
c. Equivalent Isotropic Resonance Power
d. none of these
Answer : a
Q57. A satellite downlink at 12 GHz operates with a transmit power of 6 W and an antenna gain
of 48.2 dB. Calculate the EIRP in dBW.
a. 45 dBW
b. 50 dBW
c. 75 dBW
d. 56 dBW
Answer : d
Q58. The range between a ground station and a satellite is 42000 km. Calculate the free space
loss a frequency of 6 GHz.
a. 100 dB
b. 150 dB
c. 175dB
d. 200.4dB
Answer : d
Q59. The flux density required at the receiving antenna to produce saturation of TWTA is
known as ……….
a. Electric flux density
b. Magnetic flux density
c. Saturation flux density
d. Photon flux density
Answer : c
Q60. .................... is necessary to prevent the bursts from overlapping.

a. Preamble
b. Guard time
c. Frame efficiency
d. Decoding quenching
Answer : b
Q61. In some phase detection systems, the phase detector must be allowed for some time to
recover from one burst before the next burst is receiving by it. This waiting time is known as
…………
a. Preamble
b. Guard time
c. Frame efficiency
Answer : d
Q62. .................. is a measure of the fraction of frame time which is used for the transmission of
traffic.
a. . Preamble
b. Guard time
c. Frame efficiency
Answer : c
Q63. What is meant by OMT ?

a. Orthogonal mode tube
b. Orthogonal modulation tube
c. Orthogonal mode transducer
d. none of these
Answer : c
Q64. Which of the following comes under methods of multiple access techniques?
a. FDMA & TDMA
b. SCPC & CDMA
c. CDMA & GSM
d. none of these
Answer : a
Q65. What is meant by SCPC?

a. Single channel per carrier
b. Single carrier per channel
c. Single code per channel
d. none of these
Answer : a
Q66. For satellite communication, standard Earth stations have antenna diameters in the range
of ................... metre.
a. 27.5 to 30
b. 10 to 15
c. 30 to 50
d. 5 to 10
Answer : a
Q67. The most effective anti jamming technique is ………..

a. frequency hopping
b. spread-spectrum modulation
c. key leverage
d. once-only key
Answer : b
Q68. The ending part of the popular teleserial Mahabharat will be beamed to the viewers
a. WESTAT
b. INSAT-IC
c. ARABSAT
d. INSAT-ID
Answer : c
Q69. A communication satellite is a repeater between …………… and …………..

a. a transmitting station and a receiving station
b. a transmitting station and many receiving station
c. many transmitting station and many receiving station
d. none
Answer : c
Q70. While keeping the down-link frequency constant, the diameter of a satellite antenna is
reduced by half. To offer the same EIRP over the increased coverage area, the RF output power
has to be increases by a factor of ………..
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
Answer : b
Q71. The Sun blots out the transmission of a geosynchronous satellite twice a year when satellite
passes directly in front of it. This outage lasts for about
a. 10 minutes on 5 consecutive days
b. 5 minutes on 10 consecutive days
c. 30 minutes for 5 consecutive days
d. one hour for 5 consecutive days
Answer : a
Q72. In satellite communication, frequency modulation is used because satellite channel has
a. small bandwidth and negligible noise
b. large bandwidth and severe noise
c. maximum bandwidth and minimum noise
d. high modulation index
Answer : b
Q73. Which of the following factor does NOT contribute to the drift of a geostationary satellite
from its stationary position in space?
a. Pressure of solar radiations
b. Gravitational changes due to Sun and Moon
c. Oblateness of the Earth
d. Weight of the satellite
Answer : d
Q74. In communication satellites, the up-link normally operates at a higher frequency than the
down-link because it
a. gives a narrow beam shining into space
b. results in lesser signal attenuation
c. gives better beam-shaping
d. is easier to polarize a high frequency beam
Answer : a
Q75. For global communication, the number of satellites needed is

a. 1
b. 3
c. 10
d. 5
Answer : b
Q76. The noise temperature of sky is about °K.

a. 100
b. 273
c. 0
d. 30
Answer : d
Q77. Assuming earth to be a sphere of radius 6400 km and height of a geosynchronous satellite
above Earth as 36000 km, the velocity of a geosynchronous satellite is km/hr.
a. 28000
b. 15000
c. 36000
d. 11100
Answer : d
Q78. In the context of error detection in satellite transmission, ARQ stands for ……………
a. Automatic Repeat Request
b. Automatic Relay Request
c. Accelerated Recovery Request
d. Automatic Radiation Quenching
Answer : a
Q79. To cover all inhabited regions of the Earth, the number of geosynchronous communication
satellites required
a. 5
b. 3
c. 10
d. 2
Answer : b
Q80. Depending on the technique used, digitized television requires a bit rate between
millions.
a. 40 and 92.5
b. 25 and 60
c. 30 and 82.5
d. 2
Answer : a
Q81. In selecting a satellite system, the First determining factor is its

a. EIRP
b. antenna size
c. coverage a sea
d. antenna gain
Answer : c
Q82. Phase modulation is commonly-used for data transmission mainly because

a. phase can be varied from + 180° to 180°
b. it is resistant to the effects of noise
c. demodulation is very easy
d. it gives highest data rates that can be transmitted over a given channel
Answer : b
Q83. India‟s Polar Satellite Launch vehicle (PSLV) to be ready in 1991 is designed to launch
1000 kg spacecraft into orbit.
a. geostationary
b. equatorial
c. polar
d. sun-synchronous polar
Answer : d
Q84. Most of the communication satellites are stationed to the West of their service areas in
order to reduce their ………..
a. eclipse period
b. loss of power
c. battery power provision
d. mass of station-keeping fuel
Answer : c
Q85. The degradation of satellite solar cells with time is mainly due to
a. their bombardment by electrons
b. collection of meteoric dust
c. increase in resistivity of silicon
d. gradual leakage of charge carriers from the semiconductor material
Answer : a
Q86. The echo heard by a telephone user on a satellite channel can be removed by using
a. a vocoder
b. a multiplexer
c. echo suppressor
d. digital techniques
Answer : c
Q87. The 1150 kg geosynchronous satellite INSAT-IA parked 36000 km above India had greatly
improved India‟s
a. intelligence gathering capacity
b. domestic communications
c. meteorological capability
d. both (b) and (c)
Answer : d
Q88. Presently, the worlds‟s largest and most advanced multi-purpose communication satellite
is ……………
a. INSAT-2
b. Intelsat-V
c. INSAT-ID
d. Olympus-I
Answer : d
Q89. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ……..
a. avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b. avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signal and weak in coming signal
c. minimise free-space losses
d. maximise antenna gain
Answer : b
Q90. Regarding TASI which one of the following statements is wrong?

a. It snatches the channel in his speech and may allocate it to another speaker needing it.
b. The same speaker is reassigned a channel almost instantly when he speaks again even when the
circuit is heavily loaded.
c. It increases the overall utilization of the transmission channel.
d. Intercontinental callers sometimes confuse the effects of TASI with the effects of satellite delay
Answer : b
Q91. Master control facility (MCF) for INSAT-2 series satellites is located at …………..
a. Madras
b. New Delhi
c. Leh
d. Hassan
Answer : d
Q92. The communication satellite INSAT-IB had to take up the job of INSAT-IA because the
latter collapsed within ..................... months of its launch.
a. 12
b. 20
c. 5
d. 36
Answer : c
Q93. The distance of a synchronous satellite from Earth‟s surface is ................... km.
a. 300
b. 10000
c.35900
d. 5
Answer : c
Q94. The traffic-handling capacity of an Earth station on the uplink depends on …………
a. its EIRP
b. satellite antenna gain
c. noise associated with the satellite
d. all of the above
Answer : d
Q95. System satellites orbit the Earth once in .................. hrs.

a. 24
b. 12
c. 1
d. 6
Answer : a
Q96. The lowest frequency used in satellite communications is ................ GHz.

a. 0.8
b. 3
c. 18
d. 30
Answer : a
Q97. Geosynchronous satellites are always launched in the equatorial plane because it is the
only plane which provides
a. 24-hour orbit
b. stationary satellite
c. global communication
d. zero-gravity environs
Answer : c
Q98. A few minutes disturbance in space communications occurs twice a year during
Sunblinding when are in line.
a. Sun and satellite
b. Sun and Earth station
c. Satellite and Earth station
d. Sun, satellite and Earth station
Answer : d
Q99. After the death of INSAT-IB, the mainstay of the entire Indian satellite network for some
time to come would be
a. INSTELSAT-V
b. INSAT-ID
c. INSAT-2
d. ARABSAT
Answer : d
Q100. For satellite transmission, analog signals may be converted into digital form with the help
of ……………..
a. modem
b. transponder
c. codec
d. compandor
Answer : c
Q101. The maximum signal propagation time of a geosynchronous satellite transmission is

about ............... millisecond
a. 540
b. 270
c. 135
d. 1080
Answer : b
Q102. The life time of a geosynchronous communication ……..

a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 50
Answer : b
Q103. A typical error rate on satellite circuits is one bit error in

a. 107
b. 103
c. 102
d. 1010
Answer : a
Q104. In satellite communication, highly directional antennas are used to

a. direct the spot beam to a particular region of space on Earth
b. strengthen the beam to overcome the cosmic noise
c. make corrections in change of polarisation of the beam
d. select a particular channel in transmission and reception
Answer : a
Q105. The average noise temperature of Earth, as viewed from space, is .............. °K
a. 254
b. 303
c. 100
d. 500
Answer : a
Q106. Low-orbit satellites are not used for communications because they
a. produce sonic booms
b. do not provide 24 hour/ day contact to the users on Earth
c. heat up and melt
d. none
Answer : c
QUESTION BANK


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Ans: C
evidence?
Ans: D

Ans: A

Ans: C
Ans: C

Ans: B

C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D

Ans: C

would have.
Ans: D
D. All the above.
Ans: C
crime.
None of the above
Ans: B
behind, is:
Ans: A
is an example of:
Ans: A
B. Prosecution
C. Defense work
D. All of the above
Ans:
Ans: C
Ans: A

C. Exchange rule
Ans: B

Ans: B
A. digital evidence
Ans: A

A. Routing tables
B. Main memory
C. Log files
D. Cached data
Ans: C
A. Admissible
B. Authentic
C. Complete
D. Reliable
Ans: A
a type of _____________
Ans: A

Ans: B

Ans: D
Ans: A

Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Flash memory
C. Process table
D. Arp cache
Ans: A

A. Oath affidavit
B. DNA samples
C. Fingerprint
D. Dried blood
Ans: A
C. Best evidence
Ans: A
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Ans. A
A. Eye witness
C. Paper work
Ans B
A. Law of witness
C. Law of evidence
D. All of the above
Ans. C
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
forensic science.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
Chapter 5
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

C. Encryption.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D

A. Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B

B. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
B. IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B

C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A

A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B

A. Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C

A. Fame.
B. Profit.
C. Revenge.
D. All the above
Ans. D
secure system.
A. Victims.
B. Attackers.
C. Both A & B
D. None of these.
Ans. B

A. Entries.
B. Checklists.
C. Both A & B
Ans. B

C. Red teaming.
Ans. D
A. Victim
B. Hacker
C. Developer
Ans. B

B. Steal the data
Ans. A

B. Steal the data
Ans. B
B. Steal the data
Ans. C
of money
A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. True
B. False
Ans. A

A. Police
B. Forensics
C. Thief
D. Hacker
Ans. C

A. Firewall
B. Encryption
C. VNPs
D. All the above
Ans. D
Ans. A
example of ____-
Ans. B
Ans. C

A. Data gathering.
B. Attacking
C. Planning
D. Research
Ans. C

D. Risk permission.
Ans. A

A. Nmap
B. LC4
C. ToneLOC
D. Nessus
Ans. B

A. Whisker
B. Super scan
C. Nikto
D. Kismet
Ans. A
A. WebInspect
B. QualyGuard
Ans. C

A. Thieves
B. Kidnapper
C. Both A & B
Ans. C
A. Black hat hacker
B. Hactivist
C. Script kiddes
D. White hat hacker
Ans. B

A. Criminal
B. Antinationalist
C. Hacker for hire
Ans. C

A. 2600
B. Hackin9
C. PHRACK
D. All the above
Ans. D
practice.
A. a good
B. not so good
D. a bad
Ans. D
hacking.
A. Automated apps
C. Malware
D. Worms
Ans. C
A. True
B. False
Ans. A
Ans. A
A. stealing
B. disclosure
C. deleting
D. hacking
Ans. B
Ans. D
Chapter-6
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Ans: C
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D

C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A

D. All the above
Ans: B
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A
A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A

D. Covering tracks
Ans: B

A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A

A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. Ettercap
B. Metasploit
C. Nmap
D. Burp Suit
Ans: C
Ans: D

Ans: C
Ans: B

Ans: D
A. Local networking
C. Physical entry
Ans: A
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity
D. Authentication
Ans: B
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. 22
B. 80
C. 20
D. 23
Ans: D
A. PingSweep
B. Traceroute
C. War Dialers
D. ARIN
Ans: D
called ________.
A. Cracking
B. Analysis
C. Hacktivism
D. Exploitation
Ans: C

Ans: A
A. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning
D. Gaining Access
Ans: D

A. Passive stack
B. Active stack
D. Scanned
Ans: A

Ans: D

Ans: B

A. Reconnaissance
C. Gaining Access
D. Scanning
Ans: C
A. Net
B. Metasploit
C. Zeus
D. Ettercap
Ans: B
A. Cain and Abel
B. Snort
C. Angry IP Scanner
D. Ettercap
Ans: C
A. Snort
B. SuperScan
C. Burp Suit
D. EtterPeak
Ans: D

A. SuperScan
B. Snort
C. Ettercap
D. QualysGuard .
Ans: A

A. DNSlookup
B. Whois
C. Nslookup
Ans: D

Ans: A

B. Wi-Fi attacks
C. Packet filtering
Ans: B
A. Spamming
B. Identify Theft
C. Impersonation
D. Scanning
Ans: C

Ans: B
A. Ping Sweep
B. Port scan
C. Ipconfig
D. Spamming
Ans: A

C. Sniffing
D. Spoofing
Ans: A
A. Network analyzer
B. Crypt tool
C. John-the -Ripper
D. Back track
Ans: A

D. Banner grabbing
Ans: D
A. FTP SNMP
B.
C. RELNET
D. ARP
Ans: A

B. ARP poisoning
D. MAC spoofing
Ans: A

Ans: C

A. Attack syllable
C. Attacks hybrid
D. All the above
Ans: D

B. grey-hat hackers
C. script kiddies
Ans: D

A. hacktivism
C. active hacking
D. activism
Ans: A
A. local access
B. remote attack
C. internal attack
D. physical access
Ans: B
B. Active Sniffing
C. Passive Sniffing
Ans. C
A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. Hacking
B. Evidence
C. Tracing
D. None of above
Ans:-A
D. None of above
Ans:-B
______ process.
A. Prackers
Ans:-D
Ans:-D
A. MAC
B. DOS
C. IDS
D. None of above
Ans:-B
56.DOS stands for

D. None of above
Ans:-B

D. None of above
Ans:-A

A. TCL
B. SSL
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Ans:-B

Ans:-A
Ans:-D

A. Brightn Godfrey
B. Alan yeung
C. Robert Morris
D. None of above
Ans:-C

Ans:-D
Ans:- C
Ans:B

A. SYN-ACK-FIN
B. SYN-SYN ACK-ACK
C. SYN-ACK
D. SYN-SYN-ACK
Ans:B

Ans:-A

A. TCP
B. XMAS
C. IDLE
D. NULL
Ans:-D
Unit-1 Artificial intelligence
1. The Strategic Computing Program is a project of the:

a. Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
b. National Science Foundation
c. Jet Propulsion Laboratory
d. All of the above
Ans:a) Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
2. Weak AI is
a. the embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer.

b. a set of computer programs that produce output that would be considered to
reflect intelligence if it were generated by humans.
c. the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models implemented on a
computer.
d. All of the above
Ans: c) the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models implemented on a
computer
3. A bidirectional feedback loop links computer modelling with:
a. artificial science
b. heuristic processing
c. human intelligence
d. cognitive science
Ans: d) cognitive science
4. Who is considered to be the "father" of artificial intelligence?
a. Fisher Ada
b. John McCarthy
c. Allen Newell
d. Alan Turning
Ans: b) John McCarthy
5. An AI technique that allows computers to understand associations and relationships

between objects and events is called:
a. heuristic processing
b. cognitive science
c. relative symbolism
d. pattern matching
Ans:d) pattern matching

d. Putting more memory into Computer
Ans: c) Making a Machine intelligent

b. Game Playing
c. Robotics
d. All of the above

a. BASIC
b. FORTRAN
c. IPL
d. LISP
Ans:c) IPL
9. Which kind of planning consists of successive representations of different levels of a
plan?
c. All of the above
d. project planning
Ans:a) hierarchical planning
10. To invoke the LISP system, you must enter

a. AI
b. LISP
c. both b and c
Ans:d) None of the above
1. Which one out of these is not a data link layer technology:
a. Bluetooth
b. UART
c. WIFI
d. HTTP
Ans:d) HTTP
2. Which transport layer protocols is used by DHCP?

a. RSVP
b. TCP
c. DCCP
d. UDP
Ans: d) UDP
3. Which layer is called a port layer in OSI model?

a. Session
b. Application
c. Presentation
d. Transport
Ans: a) Session
4 .Frequency band used by 802.11 ah standard is:

a. 60 GHz
b. 2.4 GHz
c. Sub 1 GHz
d. 5 GHz
Ans: c) Sub 1 GHz
5. Machine learning is
a. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
b. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
c. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
d. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
Ans: d) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
6. HTTP resources are located by
a. unique resource locator
b. unique resource identifier
c. none of the mentioned
d. uniform resource identifier
Ans: d) uniform resource identifier
7. MQTT is:
a. Based on client-server architecture
b. Based on publish-subscribe architecture
c. Based on both of the above
d. Based on none of the above
Ans: b) Based on publish-subscribe architecture
8. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a. ALOHA
b. CSMA/CA
c. CDMA
d. none of the mentioned
Ans: b) CSMA/CA
9. Which IEEE standard is developed for CSMA/CD

a. IEEE 802.1
b. IEEE 802.2
c. IEEE 802.3
d. IEEE 802.4
Ans: c) IEEE 802.3
10. Which is the part of Data Link Layer:

a. LLC
b. MAC
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Ans:c) Both a and b
Unit-3 : Basics of Digital Forensic
1. The Father of Computer Forensics is

a) Michasel Anderson
b) J.Korn
c) S.Ciardhuain
d) G.Gunsh
Ans: a) Michasel Anderson

2. IDIP stands for
a) Integrated Digital Investigation Process
b) Integrrated Digital Investigator Process
c) Integrated Digital Investigator Process
d) Independent Digital Investigator Process
Ans: a) Integrated Digital Investigation Process

3. Who proposed Road map model
a) G.Gunsh
b) S.Ciardhuain
c) J.Korn
d) G.Palmar
Ans: d) G.Palmar
4. Who proposed Extended Model of Cybercrime Investigation
a) G.Gunsh
b) S.Ciardhuain
c) J.Korn
d) G.Palmar
Ans: b) S.Ciardhuain
5. Digital forensics is all of them except
a) Extraction of computer data
b) Preservation of computer data
c) Interpretation of computer data
d) Manipulation of computer data
Ans:
6. Investigator should satisfy the following point
a) Contribute to the society and human being
b) Avoid harm to others
c) Honest and trustworthy
d) All of the above

a) True
b) False
Ans: a) True
8. Who proposed Abstract Digital Forensic Model
a) G.Gunsh
b) S.Ciardhuain
c) Kohn , Eloff
d) G.Palmar
Ans: G.Gunsh
9. International Organization on Compter Evidence was formed in
a) 1980
b) 1995
c) 1997
d) 1998
Ans: b) 1995
10. Abstract Digital Forensic model in
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
Ans: c) 2002
Unit-4: Digital Evidences

a) Data stored or transmitted using a computer
b) Information of probative value
c) Digital data probative value
d) Any digital evidence on a computer
Ans: c) Digital data probative value

2. Digital evidence is only useful in a court of law
a) True
b) False
Ans: b) False
3. In terms of digital evidence the Internet is an example of
a) Open computer systems
b) Communication systems
c) Embedded computer system
Ans: b) Communication systems

4. The digital evidences are used to establish a credible link between
a) Attacker and victim and the crime scene
b) Attacker and the crime scene
c) Victim and the crime scene
d) Attacker and Information
Ans: a) Attacker and victim and the crime scene

a) Ideal Evidence rule
b) Best Evidence Rule
c) Exchange Rule
Ans:
6. Which of the following is not a type of volatile evidence
a) Routing Tables
b) Main Memory
c) Log files
d) Cached Data
Ans: c) Log files

7. Which of the following is not a type of Evidences
a) Electronic evidence
c) Substantial Evidence
d) Main memory
Ans: d) Main memory

8. Rule of evidence is also called as
a) Law of evidence
c) Electronic evidence
d) Illustrative evidence
Ans: a) Law of evidence

9. The IP address was traced to a cable Internet services provider in city are of
a) Hyderabad
b) Nagpur
c) Aurangabad
d) Ahmednagar
Ans: a) Hyderabad
10. The major forensic categories of devices where evidence can be found:
a) Internet-based
b) Stand-alone computers
c) Mobile devices
d) All of the above

Unit-5 : Basics of Hacking
1. Most computer crimes are committed by

a) Hackers
b) Inteenational spies
c) Highly paid computer consultants
d) Web designers
Ans: a) hackers
2. Ethical hacking is also known as
a) Black hat hacking
b) White hat hacking
c) Encrypting
d) None of these
Ans: b) White hat hacking

3. Types of hackers as follows:
a) White hat hacker
b) Black hat hacker
c) Grey hat hacker
d) All of the above

4. CEH stands for
a) Certified Ethical Hackers
b) Cyber Ethical Hackers
c) Computer Ethical Hackers
d) None of these
Ans: a) Certified Ethical Hackers

a) Strengths
b) Weakness
c) a & b
d) None of these
Ans: b) Weakness
6. Cracker is known as
a) Black hat
b) White hat
c) Encrypting
d) None of these
Ans: a) Black hat

7. _____is used to detect wireless networks on the windows platform
a) Medusa
b) NetStumbler
c) SQLMap
d) Iraon WASP
Ans: b) NetStumbler
8. It is powered by ______ encryption tools
a) WEP WPA & WPA2
b) WEP
c) WPA
d) None of these
Ans: a) WEP WPA & WPA2

9. What port number does HTTPS use
a) 53
b) 443
c) 80
d) 21
Ans: b) 443
10. What is the attack called “evil twin”
a) Rogue access point
b) ARP poisoning
c) Session hijacking
d) MAC spoofing
Ans: a) Rogue access point

Unit-6 : Types of Hacking
1. Which of the following tools is used for Networks Testing and port Scanning
a) NetCat
b) SuperScan
c) NetScan
d) All of Above
Ans: d) All of Above

2. SNMP stands for
a) Simple Networks Messaging Protocol
b) Simple Networks Mailing Protocol
c) Simple Networks Management Protocol
d) Simple Networks Master Protocol
Ans: c) Simple Networks Management Protocol

3. What port number does DNS use
a) 37
b) 53
c) 69
d) 79
Ans: b) 53
4. What port number does HTTP use
a) 53
b) 69
c) 80
d) 79
Ans: c) 80
5. An email bomb is also known as a ___
a) Letter bomb
b) Internet
c) Banner
d) Attack
Ans: a) letter bomb

6. An attacker can create an _____attack by sending hundreds or thousands of
email with very large attachments
a) Connection Attacks
b) Auto responder attacks
c) Attachment Overloading Attacks
d) All of the above
Ans: c) Attachment Overloading Attacks
7. Cross Site Scripting is also shortly khown as
a) XSS
b) HTTP
c) HTTPS
d) DNS
Ans: a) XSS
8. Banner grabbing is often used for
a) White hat hacking
b) Black hat hacking
c) Gray hat hacking
d) Scepit Kiddies
Ans: a) White hat hacking

9. ____for ping sweeps and port scanning
a) Sam Spade
b) SuperScan
c) NetScan
d) NetCat
Ans: b) SuperScan
10. SNMP port is
a) 37
b) 53
c) 111
d) 161
Ans: d) 161
A)1900 B)1980 C)19450 D)1984
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)1995
Q4Full Form Of IOCE
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)2000
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6

A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q26 NMAP known as:
A)Information
like
A)Root Directory

A)LINUX
A)Ethereal
D)All of the Above
1. An Artificial Intelligence system developed by Terry A. Winograd to permit an interactive dialogue

about a domain he called blocks-world.
a. SIMD
b. STUDENT
c. SHRDLU
d. BACON
a. Programming with your own intelligence
b. Putting your intelligence into Computer
c.Making a Machine intelligent
d.Playing a Game
a.John McCarthy
b. Fisher Ada
c. Allen Newell
d.Alan Turning
4.Which of the following is a proposed means of testing the intelligence of the machine?
Turing TestTurning TestTuning Test
a.Turing Test
b.Turning Test
c.Tuning Test
d.None
5.Which of the following is not a component of a production system?
a.Control System
b.Associative Memory
c.Primary Memory
d.Secondary Memory
6. Zero sum game has player…
a. seven
b. Two
c.three player
d. Multiplayer
7.Which one is used for compute the logical inference algorithm?
a. Validity
b.Satisfiability
c. Logical equivalence
d.All of these
8.Single inference rule also called…
a. Resolution
b. Reference
c.Reference
d.None of these
9.Factoring means…
a.Removal of redundant literal
b.Removal of redundant variable
c.Addition of redundant variable
d.Addition of redundant literal

evidence?




c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above


would have.
Answer 1. Option A.

Answer 2. Option C..
 A. Attack
 E. Scanning
Answer 3. Option D.
Answer 4. Option D
concept?

Answer 5. Option B.
Answer 6. Option A.
three answers.)

 B. Preparation
 C. Conclusion
 D. Final
Answer 7. Options A, B, C.
 B. Hacktivism
 C. Activism
Answer 8. Option B.
 A. Title 12
 B. Title 18
 C. Title 20
 D. Title 2
Answer 9. Option B.
 C. Local access
c) Grey Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: b
2. Which is the legal form of hacking based on which jobs are provided in IT industries and
firms?
a) Cracking
c) Ethical hacking
d) Hactivism
Answer: c
3. They are nefarious hackers, and their main motive is to gain financial profit by doing cyber
crimes. Who are “they” referred to here?
a) Gray Hat Hackers
c) Hactivists
Answer: d
a) Grey Hat hackers
c) Blue Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: a
5. The amateur or newbie in the field of hacking who don’t have many skills about coding and
in-depth working of security and hacking tools are called ________
b) Hactivists
c) Script Kiddies
d) Whistle Blowers
Answer: c
6. Suicide Hackers are those _________

a) who break a system for some specific purpose with or without keeping in mind that they may
suffer long term imprisonment due to their malicious activity
b) individuals with no knowledge of codes but an expert in using hacking tools
c) who know the consequences of their hacking activities and hence try to prevent them by
erasing their digital footprints
d) who are employed in an organization to do malicious activities on other firms
Answer: a
7. Criminal minded individuals who work for terrorist organizations and steal information of
nations and other secret intelligence are _________
b) Blue Hat Hackers
c) Cyber Terrorists
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: c
8. One who disclose information to public of a company, organization, firm, government and
private agency and he/she is the member or employee of that organization; such individuals are
termed as ___________
a) Sponsored hackers
b) Crackers
c) Hactivist
d) Whistleblowers
Answer: d
9. These types of hackers are the most skilled hackers in the hackers’ community. Who are
b) Elite Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: b
organization.
d) Security Auditor
Answer: a
11. Role of security auditor is to ____________

a) secure the network
b) probe for safety and security of organization’s security components and systems
c) detects and prevents cyber attacks and threats to organization
d) does penetration testing on different web applications
Answer: b
Chapter 4 – Digital Evidences
1. Having a member of the search team trained to handle digital evidence:
a. Can reduce the number of people who handle the evidence

b. Can serve to streamline the presentation of the case
c. Can reduce the opportunity for opposing counsel to impugn the integrity of the
Evidence
d. All of the above
2. An attorney asking a digital investigator to find evidence supporting a particular line of

Inquiry is an example of:
a. Influencing the examiner

b. Due diligence
c. Quid pro quo
d. Voir dire
3. A digital investigator pursuing a line of investigation in a case because that line of

Investigation proved successful in two previous cases is an example of:
a. Logical reasoning
b. Common sense
c. Preconceived theory
d. Investigator’s intuition
4. A scientific truth attempts to identify roles that are universally true. Legal judgment, on
The other hand, has a standard of proof in criminal prosecutions of:
a. Balance of probabilities
b. Beyond a reasonable doubt
c. Acquittal
5. Regarding the admissibility of evidence, which of the following is not a consideration:
a. Relevance
b. Authenticity
c. Best evidence
d. Nominally prejudicial
6. According to the text, the most common mistake that prevents evidence seized from
Being admitted is:
a. Uninformed consen
b. Forcible entry
c. Obtained without authorization
7. In obtaining a warrant, an investigator must convince the judge on all of the following
Points except:
a. Evidence of a crime is in existence

b. A crime has been committed
c. The owner or resident of the place to be searched is likely to have committed
The crime
d. The evidence is likely to exist at the place to be searched
8. If, while searching a computer for evidence of a specific crime, evidence of a new,
Unrelated crime is discovered, the best course of action is:
a. Abandon the original search, and pursue the new line of investigation
b. Continue with the original search but also pursue the new inquiry
c. Stop the search and obtain a warrant that addresses the new inquiry
d. Continue with the original search, ignoring the new information
9. The process of documenting the seizure of digital evidence and, in particular, when that
Evidence changes hands, is known as:
a. Chain of custody
b. Field notes
c. Interim report
10. Evidence contained in a document provided to prove that statements made in court are
True is referred to as:
a. Inadmissible evidence
b. Illegally obtained evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
d. Direct evidence
Answer: a

ethical practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
Answer: d
unethical hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
Answer: c
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
Answer: a
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
Answer: b
Answer: d
leaked.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
Answer: c
wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
Answer: d
Answer: a

ethical practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
Answer: d
unethical hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
Answer: c
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
Answer: a
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
Answer: b
Answer: d
leaked.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
Answer: c
wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
Answer: d
Chapter 6 Types of hackers
B. Former black hat
C. Former grey hat
D. Malicious hacker
Answer. Option A.

A. Grey-box testing
D. Active testing
E. Passive testing
Answer. Option C.
A. Attack
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
Answer. Option D.
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
Answer. Option D.
concept?

Answer. Option B.
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
Answer. Option A.
three answers.)

B. Preparation
C. Conclusion
D. Final
E. Reconnaissance
F. Design Security
Answer. Options A, B, C.
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
Answer. Option B.
A. Title 12
B. Title 18
C. Title 20
D. Title 2
Answer. Option B.
A. Remote attack
B. Physical access
C. Local access
D. Internal attack
Answer. Option A.

Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for
Ans: A
A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D
D. All of the above
Ans: D
5. In the past, the method for expressing an opinion has been to frame a ____ question based
on available factual evidence.
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
6. More subtle because you are not aware that you are running these macros (the document
opens and the application automatically runs); spread via email
C. Derivative works
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B
A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
10 MCQs from Each Chapter of Emerging Trend in Computer Science
Chapter 1 Artificial Intelligence
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(A) Putting your intelligence into Computer
(B) Programming with your own intelligence
(C) Making a Machine intelligent
(D) Playing a Game
Ans: C
(A) PROLOG
(B) Java
(C) LISP
(D) Perl
Ans: D
(A) The whole problem
(B) Your Definition to a problem
(C) Problem you design
(Ď) Representing your problem with variable and parameter
Ans: D
(A) A set of Rule (B) A sequence of steps
(C) Both (a) and (b) (D) Arbitrary representation to problem
Ans: C
5. Which search method takes less memory?
(A) Depth-First Search (B) Breadth-First search
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Linear Search.
Ans: A
6.A heuristic is a way of trying
(A) To discover something or an idea embedded in a program
(B) To search and measure how far a node in a search tree seems to be
from a goal
(C) To compare two nodes in a search tree to see if one is better than
the other
(D) Only (a), (b) and (c).
Ans: D
7. A* algorithm is based on
(A) Breadth-First-Search (B) Depth-First –Search
(C) Best-First-Search (D) Hill climbing.
Ans: C
(A) Linear approach (B) Heuristic approach
(C) Random approach (D) Optimal approach
Ans: B
9. How do you represent “All dogs have tails”.
(A) ۷x: dog(x)àhastail(x) (B) ۷x: dog(x)àhastail(y)
(C) ۷x: dog(y)àhastail(x) (D) ۷x: dog(x)àhasàtail(x)
Ans: A
(A) Representational Verification (B) Representational Adequacy
(C) Inferential Adequacy (D) Inferential Efficiency
Ans: A
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B

D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D

D. None of these
Ans: D
4. Which of the following is not an example of a “small-scale
embedded system”?
C. Cell phone
Ans: C

A. Apple computer
C. Calculator
Ans: B

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
Ans: C
7. Which of the following is an (are) an intended purpose(s) of
embedded systems?
A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
Ans: D
8. Which of the following is (are) example(s) of embedded system for

data communication?
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
Ans: B
9. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design

metrics of an embedded system?
D .All of the above
Ans: D
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
Ans: B
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(A) Extraction of computer data.
(B) Preservation of computer data.
(C) Interpretation of computer data.
(D) Manipulation of computer data.
Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for
(A) Integrated Digital Investigation Process.

(B) Integrated Data Investigator Process.
(C) Integrated Digital Investigator Process.
(D)Independent Digital Investigator Process.
Ans: A
(A) G.Gunsh.
(B) S.Ciardhuain
(C) J.Korn.
(D) G.Palmar
Ans: D

(A) Contribute to society and human being.
(B) Avoid harm to others.
(C) Honest and trustworthy.
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
5. In the past, the method for expressing an opinion has been to frame
a ____ question based on available factual evidence.
(A) Hypothetical
(B) Nested
(C) Challenging
(D) Contradictory
Ans: A
6. More subtle because you are not aware that you are running these
macros
(A) The purpose of copyright

(B) Danger of macro viruses
(C) Derivative works
(D) computer-specific crime
Ans: B
(A) Control
(B) Chance
(C) Chains
(D) Core
Ans: A

(A) 1979
(B) 1984
(C) 1995
(D) 1989
Ans: B

(A) 1960's
(B) 1970's
(C) 1980's
(D) 1990's
Ans: C
(A) Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of
evidence in court
(B) The application of computer science and investigative procedures
for a legal purpose involving the analysis of digital evidence after
proper search authority, chain of custody, validation with
mathematics, use of validated tools, repeatability, reporting, and
possible expert presentation
(C) process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer
questions about digital events
(D) Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment
of the facts or evidence in a court of law
Ans: B
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ans: C
2. What are the three general categories of computer systems that

can contain digital
evidence?
D. Open computer systems, communication systems, and embedded

systems
Ans: D
Ans: A
Ans: C
Ans: C
Ans: B
7. Computers can be involved in which of the following types of

crime?
C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D
Ans: C
D. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than
they otherwise
would have.
Ans: D
10. Private networks can be a richer source of evidence than the

Internet because:
B. Owners of private networks are more cooperative with law

enforcement.
D. All the above.
Ans: C
Chapter 5 Basics of Hacking (CO5)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
C. Encryption.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D
A. Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
B. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
6. ______ is the art of exploiting the human elements to gain access to
the authorized user.
B. IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A
A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B
A. Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C
Chapter-6 Types of Hacking (CO6)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ans: C
2. Which of the following tool is used for Network Testing and port
Scanning______
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D
C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A
4. An attacker can create an________attack by sending hundreds or
thousands of e-mails a with
D. All the above
Ans: B
5. Which of the following tool is used for Windows for network

queries from DNS lookups to
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A
A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
7. Which of the following tool is used for security checks as port

scanning and firewall testing?
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A
D. Covering tracks
Ans: B
A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A
A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
Ans: A
MCQ EMERGING TRENDS
Chapter 1: - artificial inteligence
1) is a branch of science which deals with helping machine find solution to complex to
problem in a more human like a fashion.
(a) Artificial intelligence
(b) Internet of think
(c) Embided system
(d) Cyber security
2) Is a message that consist relavat meaning , implication , or input for decision and or
action.
(a) Data
(b) Information
(c) Knowledge
(d) Intelligence
3) The goal is for the software to use what is it is was learned in one area to solve
problem in other area.
(b) Deep learning
(c) Neural network
(d) All of above
4) the consist of computer program that mimic the way the human brain process
information.
(b) Deep learning
(c) Neural learning
(d) All of this
5) A heuristic is a rule of thumb-------
(a) Strategy
(b) Trick
(c) Simplification
(d) All of above
6) The component of AI concept of------

(a) Logic
(b) Congition
(c) Computation
(d) All of above
7) Is branch of science that deals with programming the system in such that they
automatically learn with experience
(b) Deep earning
(c) Neural learning
(d) All of above
8) The first AI programming language was called

(a) Basic
(b) IPL
(c) FORIRAN
(d) LISP
9) The characteristic of the computer system cable of thinking, reasoning and learning is
know as
(a) Machine intelligence
(b) Human intelligence
(c) Artificial intelligence
(d) Virtual intelligence
10) There are how many dimensions of AI

(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) One
Chapter 2:- internet of things
1. _________ allows us to control electronic components

a) RETful API
b) RESTful API
c) HTTP
d) MQTT


a) True
b) False

d) Machine things

a) MQTT
b) HTTP
c) CoAP
6. PubNub publishes and subscribes _________ in order to send and receive

messages.
a) Network
b) Account
c) Portal
d) Keys
7. By clicking which key the PubNub will display public, subscribe, and secret
keys.
a) Pane
b) Demo Keyset
c) Portal
d) Network
8. The messageChannel class declares the _________ class attribute that defines
the key string.
a) command_key
b) command-key
c) commandkey
d) Key_command
9. _________ method saves the received arguments in three attributes.

a) __Init
b) Init__
c) __Init__
d) _init_
10. _________ and _________ saves the publish and subscribe keys that we have
generated with the PubNub Admin portal.
Chapter 3:- basic of digital forensic

1) The digital network divided radio frequency into time slots
(a) TQMA
(b) COMA
(c) EDMA
(d) EDGE
2) When cases go to trial forensics examiner can play one of role

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
3) Forensics is the systematic trucking of incoming and outgoing ruffic on

your network
(a) Network
(b) Computer
(c) Criminal
(d) Server
4) Validate your tools and verify your evidence with to ensure its integrity
(a) Hashing algorithms
(b) Steganography
(c) Watermark
(d) Digital certificates
5) Is a written list of objection to certain testimony are exhibits

(a) Defendant
(b) Plaintiff
(c) Empanelling the jury
(d) Motion in limine
6) Regarding the trail the term means rejecting potential jurors.

(a) Voir dire
(b) Rebuttal
(c) Strikes
(d) Venireman
7) The evidences of proof that can be obtained from the electricity source is
called the
(a) Digital evidence
(b) Demonstrative evidence
(c) Explainable evidence
(d) Substantial evidence
8) If a micro-phone is present during your testimony, placeit to eight to

inches from you
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 6
9) Jurors typically average just over year of education and eight-grade

reading level
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
10) The digital avoidance are use to stablish a credible link between
(a) Attacker and victim and crime scene
(b) Attacker and the crime scene
(c) Victim and crime scene
(d) Attacker and information.
Chapter 4:- digital evidence

1) A valid definition of digital evidence is
(a) data stored or transmitted using a computer
(b) information of probative value
(c) digital data of probative value
(d) any digital evidence an a computer
2) Digital evidence , a hard drive is a example

(c) Embedded system
(d) None of these
3) The term of digital evidence the internet is an example of

(c) Embedded system
(d) None of these
4) Digital avoidance is a only useful in a counter of law

(a) True
(b) False
5) What are the three general categories of computer system that can
contain digital evidence
(a) Desktop ,laptop ,server
(b) Personal computer
(c) Hardware, software
(d) Open computer system
6) In term of digital evidence , a smart card of use of example of

(a) Communication system
(b) Open system
(c) Embedded system
(d) None of above
7) All of forensic examination should be perform on a original digital
evidence
(a) True
(b) False
8) The term of digital evidence, the internet is an example of

(c) Embedded system
(d) None of these
9) Private network can be a richear sorce of digital evidence than they

internet
(a) They retain data for longer period of time
(b) Owener of private network more cooprative with law enforcement
(c) Private network contain higher concentration of digital evidence
(d) None of these
10) Digital evidence can be duplicate exactly without any change to be

original data
(a) True
(b) False
Chapter 5:- basic of hackings

1). What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?
2). Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
3). ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
4). Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of
a) True
b) False
5). _____________ is the technique used in business organizations and firms to protect
IT assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
d) Internal data-breach .
6) The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of

personal data.
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
7). Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key
8). An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does
not get leaked.
a) True
b) False
9). After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
10). __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and
provides different theories and a principle regarding the view-points about what
is right and wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
Chapter 6:- type of hacking

1) Which of the following statement based describe a white hat hackers
(a) Security professional
(b) Former black hat
(c) Former grey hat
(d) Malicious hackers
2) SNMP stand for

(a) simple network messeging protocol
(b) simple network mailing protocol
(c) simple network management protocol
(d) simple network master protocol
3) what is the first phase of hacking

(a) attack
(b) maintaining access
(c) gaining access
(d) reconnaissance
4) banner grabbing is often use for

(a) white hat hacking
(b) black hat hacking
(c) gray hat hacking
(d) script kiddies
5) an attack can create and attack by sending hundreds or thousand of e-mail
(a) connection attack
(b) auto responder attack
(c) attachment overloading attack
(d) all of the above
6) what type of ethical hack test access to the physical infra structure
(a) internal network
(b) remote network
(c) external network
(d) physical network
7) the security functinallity and ease of use triangle illustrated which concept
(a) a security increase, functionality and ease of use increase
(b) a security decrease, functionality and ease of use increase
(c) a security increase, functionality and ease of use decrease
(d) security does not affect functionality and ease of use
8) which type of hackers represent the highest risk to your network

(a) black hat hackers
(b) grey hat hackers
(c) disgruntled employees
(d) script kiddies
9) hackings for a causes is called

(a) active hacking
(b) hacktivism
(c) activism
(d) black-hat-hackers
10) when a hackers attempt to attack a host via the internet is the know as
what type of attack
(a) remote attack
(b) local access
(c) internal attack
(d) physical access
Unit3. basics of digital forensics
a. Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of evidence in court
b. The application of computer science and investigative procedures for a legal purpose
expert presentation
c. A process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer questions about digital
events
d. Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of the facts or


a. Extraction of computer data.
b. Preservation of computer data.
c. Interpretation of computer data.
d. Manipulation of computer data.
a. Authenticity
b. Comparison
c. Proving
d. Enhancement
4. Which of the following represents the step of scientific method?
I- Develop hypothesis based on evidence
II- Calculate hash value of evidence
III- Test the hypothesis to look for additional evidence
IV-make an imaging of the original evidence
a. I and IV
b. I and II
c. II, III and IV
d. All of above
5. What is the Primary Objectives of Digital Forensic for Business and Industry?
a. Availability of service
b. Prosecution
c. Continuity of operation
d. Security
a. Documentary
b. Demonstrative
c. Testimonial
d. Real

a. The digital forensic investigator must maintain absolute objectivity
b. It is the investigator’s job to determine someone’s guilt or innocence.
c. It is the investigator’s responsibility to accurately report the relevant facts of a case.
d. The investigator must maintain strict confidentiality, discussing the results of an
7. which is following father of computer forensics

a. M. Anderson
b. G. Gunsh
c. S. Ciardhuain
d. G. Palmar
8. Who proposed Road map model?

a. G. Gunsh
b. S. Ciardhuain
c. J. Korn
d. G. Palmar
9. IDIP stands for

d. Independent Digital Investigation Process
was obtained.
a. technical/scientific
b. expert
c. lay witness
d. deposition
Unit-4 Digital Evidences



a. True
b. False
with _______ should be comfortable with this technology.
a. Criminal investigation
b. Prosecution
c. Defense work
d. All of the above
a. It provides an additional credential.
b. It provides them with the tools to conduct their own investigations.
c. It teaches them when it is time to call in law enforcement.
a. True
b. False
Unit-5 Basics of Hacking

wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics

a. Attack
b. Maintaining access
c. Gaining access
d. Reconnaissance
e. Scanning
3. What is the one thing that old hackers were fond of or find interests in?
a) Breaking Other’s system
b) Voracious thirst for knowledge
c) Cracking Phone calls
d) Learning new languages
5. What is the name of the first hacker’s conference?
a) DEFCON
b) OSCON
c) DEVCON
d) SECCON
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
7. In which year the term hacking was coined?
a) 1965-67
b) 1955-60
c) 1970-80
d) 1980-82
8. From where the term ‘hacker’ first came to existence?
a) MIT
b) Stanford University
c) California
d) Bell’s Lab
9. In which year, hacking became a practical crime and a matter of concern in the field of
technology?
a) 1971
b) 1973
c) 1970
d) 1974
10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known as what type of
attack?
a. Local access
b. Remote attack
c. Internal attack
d. Physical access
11. Which tool can be used to perform a DNS zone transfer on Windows?
a. DNSlookup
b. nslookup
c. whois
d. ipconfig
Unit-6 Types of Hacking
a. To create a stronger connection with the target.
b. To create a ghost server on the network.
c. To obtain a remote access connection.
d. To hide malicious activity on the network.
2. A security audit performed on the internal network of an organization by the network
administration is also known as ___________.
a. Grey-box testing
b. Black-box testing
c. White-box testing
d. Active testing E. Passive testing
a. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC
b. APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
c. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
d. APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
4. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s credentials is called the _____________
a. Local networking
b. Social engineering
c. Physical entry
d. Remote networking
a. DNSlookup
b. Whois
c. Nslookup
d. IP Network Browser

a. Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
b. To execute a Trojan on a system
c. To overload a system so it is no longer operational
d. To shutdown services by turning them off

a. 22
b. 80
c. 20
d. 23
________.
a. Cracking
b. Analysis
c. Hacktivism
d. Exploitation
9. What protocol is the Active Directory database based on?
a. LDAP
b. TCP
c. SQL
d. HTTP
10 Which databases is queried by Whois?
a. ICANN
b. ARIN
c. APNIC
d. DNS
MCQ Chapter 01

b) AlphaSense
c) The Jarvis

a) Allan Turin
b) John Mc Carthy
c) J. C. Shaw
d) Allen Newell
3) Which among this, is an AI created by IBM partner with Fluid PVT. Used specially for
‘Data Analysis?’
a) EVE AI
b) Watson
c) Siri
d) Novel AI
Ans: b) Watson

b) Languages of AI
c) Concepts of AI
d) Type of AI
a) Machine Learning
c) Reasoning
d) Deep learning

a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
Ans: b) Three

a) Type-1
b) Type-2
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Type-1
a) Reactive Machine
b) Self-Awareness
c) Limited machine
d) Theory of mind
Ans: c) Limited machine


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Ans: d) Four
MCQ Chapter 03
1. When was International Organization on Computer Evidence (IOCE) formed?

a. 1980
b. 1997
c. 1995
d. 1984
Ans: c. 1995
2. CART is referred as…

a. Computer Art and Response Team
b. Common Analysis and Response Team
c. Computer Analysis and Reasoning Team
d. Computer Analysis and Response Team
Ans: d. Computer Analysis and Response Team
3. How many Rules are there of Digital Forensics?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 4
Ans: b. 6
4. Fill in the blanks.
Digital Forensics is a series of steps to _________ and _________ electronic data through
________ method.
a. Solve, analyses, Intelligent

b. Uncover, analyses, scientific
c. Uncover, analyses, electronic
d. Solve, analyses, electronic
Ans: b. Uncover, analyses, scientific
5. There are how many models of digital forensics?

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
Ans: c. 6
6. Which of the following is not a model of digital forensics?

a. RMDFR
b. DFI
c. IDIP
d. UMDFPM
Ans: b. DFI
7. Who proposed EEDIP?

a. Gunsh
b. Korn
c. Stepenson
d. Palmer
Ans: c. Stepenson
8. There are hoe many phases in RMDFR model of digital forensics?

a. Four
b. Six
c. Eight
d. Ten
Ans: b. Six
9. When was pc forensics began?

a. 1980
b. 1984
c. 1995
d. 1997
Ans: a. 1980
10. Who is the father of Computer Forensics?

a. Anderson
b. Palmer
c. Ciardhuain
d. Korn
Ans: a. Anderson
MCQ Chapter 04
1. The digital evidence is used to establish the credible link between …

a. System, evidence and victim
b. Attacker, victim, and crime scene
c. Attacker, victim and case file
d. Attacker, system and victim
Ans: b. Attacker, victim and crime scene
2. An original copy of the document is considered as…

a. Best evidence
b. Original evidence
c. Superior evidence
d. True evidence
Ans: c. Superior evidence
3. Best Evidence Rule states that…

a. It states that multiple copies of electronic files may be a part of the “original” or equivalent
b. It states that copy of evidence may be considered as original evidence.
c. It states that the multiple copies of evidence may be part of the “original” or equivalent to
the “original.”
d. It states that multiple copies of electronic files may be a part of the “original” or same as
“original.”
Ans: a. It states that multiple copies of electronic files may be a part of the “original” or equivalent
4. According to Locard’s Exchange Principle, contact between two items will result in an
_________.
a. War
b. Love
c. Exchange
d. Failure
Ans: c. Exchange
5. Which of the following is used to portray data more specifically and is helpful in determining
the background of digital evidence?
a. Data
b. Metadata
c. Cookies
d. History
Ans: b. Metadata
6. Testimonial is the major type of Evidence.

a. True
b. False
c. None
d. N/A
Ans: a. True
7. When collecting evidence, you should always try to proceed from
a. Least volatile to most volatile evidence
b. Most volatile to least volatile evidence
c. All evidence at same priority
d. Least then medium then most volatile evidence
Ans: b. most volatile to least volatile evidence
8. You must have both ____ and ____ to validate your evidence.
a. Proof and victim
b. Power and skill
c. Power and proof
d. Proof and skill
Ans: b. power and skill
9. There are how many major types of evidence?

a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Seven
Ans: c. six
10. Physical evidence is also called as.

b. Explainable evidence
c. Substantial evidence
d. Real evidence
Ans: c. substantial evidence
MCQ Chapter 05
1. Select the most appropriate definition of Ethical hacking.

a. Ethical hacking is the science of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities
and plugging the hole before the viruses get chance to exploit them.
b. Ethical hacking is the art of hacking computer and network for security vulnerabilities and
plugging the hole before the viruses get chance to exploit them.
c. Ethical hacking is the science of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities
d. Ethical hacking is the art of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities and
plugging the hole before the viruses get chance to handle them.
Ans: c. Ethical hacking is the science of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities
2. A hacker who gains access to system with a view to fix the identified weaknesses is known as
b. Grey hath hackers
c. Red hat hackers
d. Hacktivist
Ans: a. white hat hackers
3. Complete the sentence below
To catch a thief, think like a _______.
a. Police
b. Victim
c. Thief
d. Hacker
Ans: c. Thief
4. SATAN stands for_

a. Security Advanced Tool for Analysis Networks
b. Security Admin Tool for Analysis Networks
c. Security Administrator Tool for Analysis Networks
d. Security Administrator Tool for Analysing Network
Ans: c. Security Administrator for Analysis Networks
5. Which type of hackers are invited by the software vendors to find the security flaws in their
system?
b. Black hat hackers
c. Grey hat hackers
d. Blue hat hackers
Ans: d. Blue hat hackers
6. IRC stands for

a. Internet Rules Chat
b. Internet Relay Chat
c. Internet Ready Chat
d. Internet Readable chat
Ans: b. Internet Relay chat
7. A non-skilled person who gains access to computer system using already made tools are
known as?
a. Grey hat hackers
b. Hacktivist
c. Script kiddies
d. Phreakers
Ans: c. Script kiddies
8. Identifying weakness in computer system or network to exploit its weaknesses to gain access
is known as
a. Cracking
b. Cybersecurity
c. Hacking
d. Threatening
Ans: c. Hacking
9. Exploration of a phone network without authorization is known as

a. Scripting
b. Phreaking
c. Phone hacking
d. Call tracing
Ans: b. Phreaking
10. Social engineering the ____ of exploiting the human elements to gain access to unauthorized
resources.
a. Art
b. Science
c. Hacking
d. Skill
Ans: a. Art
MCQ Chapter 06
1. Which of the following is not a network testing and port scanning tool?
a. Nmap
b. SuperScan
c. John the ripper
d. NetCat
Ans: c. John the Rippers
2. Select the most appropriate option for the below two statements.
I. A Dos attack can take down your internet connection

II. A Dos attack can take down your entire system
a. Both I and II are true

b. I is true II is false
c. I is false II is True
d. Both I and II are false
Ans: a. Both I and II are true
3. SNMP stands for

a. Simple Network Message Protocol
b. Simple New Message Protocol
d. Simple Network Managing Protocol
Ans: c. Simple Network Management Protocol
4. Which protocol does hackers use to make their system seems as your system or another
allowed host on your network?
a. SNMP protocol
b. TCP protocol
c. ARP protocol
d. ICMP protocol
Ans: c. ARP protocol
5. Letter bomb is also known as

a. Official bomb
b. Hacking bomb
c. Mail bomb
d. E-mail bomb
Ans: d. Email Bomb
6. Which attack allows the attacker to execute the scripts on the victim’s browser?
a. SSL attack
b. Cookie attack
c. Banner grabbing
d. XSS attack
Ans: d. XSS attack
7. ACL stands for.

a. Application Control Language
b. Application Control list
c. Access control List
d. Access Command List
Ans: c. Access Control List
8. As an ethical hacker, you should scan all ________ UDP and TCP port on each network host
that’s found by your scanner.
a. 65535
b. 65353
c. 65333
d. 65555
Ans: a. 65535
9. Which of the following are the foundation of all the technical security issues in your
information systems?
a. Network Infrastructure vulnerabilities
b. Information vulnerabilities
c. System Infrastructure vulnerabilities
d. Network Information vulnerabilities
Ans: a. Network infrastructure vulnerabilities
10. Which attack is an HTTP attack which allows attackers to access restricted directories and
execute commands outside the web servers root directory?
a. XSS attack
b. Path Traversal attack
c. MITM attack
d. SQL Injection attack
Ans: b. Path traversal Attack
1What allows digital devices to interconnect and transmit data?
a. a sensor
b.a global positioning sensor
c.a smart phone
d.a network
2. Which command is used to test network connectivity and provide a response to each packet
received by the remote host?
a.test
b.tracer
c.ping
d.connect
3. What type of device could allow a refrigerator to place a replacement order for an item contained
within it?
a.digital network
b.generator
c.smart phone
d.sensor
4. True or False?
Once connected to the home gateway, smart devices can be controlled from a smartphone, tablet, or
PC.
a.true
b.false
5. What information is conveyed by the SSID that is configured on an IoT device?
a.the registration server
b.he default gateway
c.the wireless network
d.the home gateway
6. What is comprised of millions of smart devices and sensors connected to the internet?
a.the fog
b.the internet of things
c.the data center
d.the cloud
7. Which tool allows a user to simulate real networks?
a.artificial intelligence
b.Packet Tracer
c.internet
d.PAN
8. True or False?
The Internet of Things will connect inanimate objects to the network with intelligent sensors.
a.true
b.false
9. Which type of network is used to connect a company located in one area of a city to another
location in a city far away?
a.LAN
b.PAN
c.MAN
d.WAN
10. Which type of computing is located at the edge of a business or corporate network and that allows
data from sensors to be preprocessed?
a.internet
b.fog
c.wireless
d.WAN
1. Artificial Intelligence system developed by Terry A. Winograd to permit an

interactive dialogue about a domain he called blocks-world.
 SIMD
 STUDENT
 SHRDLU
 BACON
And:- SHRDLU

 Playing a Game
And:- Making a Machine intelligent

3. DARPA, the agency that has funded a great deal of American Artificial
Intelligence research, is part of the Department of
 Education
 Defense
 Energy
 Justice
And:- Defense.
 John McCarthy
 Fisher Ada
 Allen Newell
 Alan Turning
And:- Fisher Ada .
5. KEE is a product of
 IntelliCorpn
 Teknowledge
 Texas Instruments
 Tech knowledge
Ans:- IntelliCorpn .
6. Default reasoning is another type of
 Analogical reasoning
 Bitonic reasoning
 Non-monotonic reasoning
 Monotonic reas
Ans:- Non-monotonic reasoning.

7. Weak AI is
 a set of computer programs that produce output that would be considered

to reflect intelligence if it were generated by humans.
 the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models
 the embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer.
Ans:- Weak AI is the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models
8. If a robot can alter its own trajectory in response to external conditions, it is

considered to be:
 mobile
 open loop
 intelligent
 non-servo
Ans:- intelligent .
9. One of the leading American robotics centers is the Robotics Institute located
at
RAND
MIT
CMU
SRI
And:- CMU
10. What is the name of the computer program that contains the distilled
knowledge of an expert?
 Management information System

 Expert system
 Data base management system
 Artificial intelligence
Ans:- expert system.
11. In LISP, the function evaluates both <variable> and <object> is -
 setq
 add
 set
 eva
Ans:- setq

 putting more memory into Computer
Ans:- Making a Machine intelligent.
 PROLOG
 LISP
 Perl
 Java script
And:- Perl
 Inferential Adequacy
 Representational Adequacy
 Representational Verification
 Inferential Efficiency
Ans:- Representational Verification .
15. A Hybrid Bayesian network contains
 Both discrete and continuous variables

 Only Discontinuous variable
 Both Discrete and Discontinuous variable
 Continous variable only.
And:- Both discrete and continuous variables

3. Basics of Digital Forensic
1. When cases go to trial, you as a forensics examiner can play one of ____ roles.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d.5
Ans:- 2
was obtained.
a. technical/scientific. c. lay witness
b. expert d. deposition
And:- technical/scientific.
3. Validate your tools and verify your evidence with ____ to ensure its integrity
a. hashing algorithms c. steganography
b. watermarks d. digital certificates
And:- hashing algorithms
4. For forensics specialists, keeping the ____ updated and complete is crucial to supporting
your role as an expert and showing that you’re constantly enhancing your skills through
training, teaching, and experience.
a. testimony c. examination plan
b. CV d. deposition
Ans:- CV
5. If your CV is more than ____ months old, you probably need to update it to reflect new
cases and additional training.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
Ans:- 3
6. __ is a written list of objections to certain testimony or exhibits.
a. Defendant c. Plaintiff
b. Empanelling the jury d. Motion in limine
Ans:- Motion in limine
7. Regarding a trial, the term ____ means rejecting potential jurors.
a. voir dire c. strikes
b. rebuttal d. venireman
Ans:- strikes
8. ____ from both plaintiff and defense is an optional phase of the trial. Generally, it’s allowed
to cover an issue raised during cross-examination
a. Rebuttal c. Closing arguments
b. Plaintiff d. Opening statements
Ans:- Rebuttal
9. If a microphone is present during your testimony, place it ____ to eight inches from you.
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6
Ans:- 6
10. Jurors typically average just over ____ years of education and an eighth-grade reading
level. a. 9 c. 11
b. 10 d. 12
Ans:- 12
4. Digital Evidences
evidence?

c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above

have.
c. Private networks contain a higher concentration of digital Evidences
5. Basic of Hacking
 Rogue access point

 ARP poisoning
 Session hijacking
 MAC spoofing
2. What are the forms of password cracking techniques?
 AttackSyllable
 AttackBrute Forcing
 AttacksHybrid
3. what is the primary goal of an Ethical Hacker ?
 Avoiding detection
 Testing security controls
 Resolving security vulnerabilities
 Determining return on investment for security measures
 Maintaining access
 Gaining access
 Reconnaissance
 Scanning
 Black-hat hackers
 Grey-hat hackers
 Script kiddies
 Disgruntled employees
6. Hacking for a cause is called ..................
 Hacktivism
 Black-hat hacking
 Active hacking
 Activism
7. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known as what type of attack?
 Local access
 Remote attack
 Internal attack
 Physical access
 APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC

 APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
 APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC
 APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
9. What port number does HTTPS use?

 53
 443
 80
 21
10. Banner grabbing is an example of what?

 Footprinting
 Active operating system fingerprinting
 Passive operating system fingerprinting
 Application analysis
6. Types of Hacking
1 . Which of the following statements best describes a white-hat
hacker?
B. Former black hat
C. Former grey hat
D. Malicious hacker
2. A security audit performed on the internal network of an

organization by the network administration is also known as
___________.
A. Grey-box testing
D. Active testing
E. Passive testing
A. Attack
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
5. The security, functionality, and ease of use triangle illustrates which

concept?
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
7. What are the three phases of a security evaluation plan? (Choose
three answers.)
B. Preparation
C. Conclusion
D. Final
E. Reconnaissance
F. Design Security
Answer :- A, B, C.
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
A. Title 12
B. Title 18
C. Title 20
D. Title 2
10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known
A. Remote attack
B. Physical access
C. Local access
D. Internal attack
MCQ’S
1. IOCE is …………………..?
a. Organization on computer evidence
b. Organization on communication evidence
c. Organization on country education
d. Organization on crime evidence
Ans : a)Organization on computer evidence
2. Digital forensic applied both ……………. ?

a. Analysis and response action
b. Computer crime and civil action
c. Criminal and civil action
d. Regional and forensic action
Ans : c) criminal and civil action
a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : d) 6
4. Compliance with the law and ………….

a. Professional norms.
b. Collection
c. Prevention
d. Examination
Ans : a) Professional norms
5. What is the full form of ADFM

a. Abstract defining forensic model
b. Abstract digital forensic model
c. Abstract digital forensic media
d. Analysis digital forensic model
Ans : b) Abstract digital forensic model
6. The whole process is trigged by …………..

a. Investigator
b. Society
c. Digital forensic
d. Criminal activity
Ans : d) Criminal activity
7. Digital forensic is all of them except:

Ans: b) Preservation of computer data
8. IDIP stand for

a. Integrated digital investigation process
b. Integrated data investigation process
c. Integrated digital investigator process
Ans : a) Integrated digital investigation process
9. Who proposed Road map model ?
a. G.Gunsh
b. S.Ciardhuain
c. J.Korn
d. G.Palmar
Ans : d) G.Palmar

a. 1975
b. 1944
c. 1971
d. 1980
Ans : d) 1980
MCQ’S

a. Computer
b. Phone
c. Guitar
d. Internet
Ans : c) Guitar
2. Rule of evidence is called as ………….

a. Digital Evidence
b. Law of Evidence
c. Hidden Evidence
Ans : b) Law Of Evidence
3. BPO stand for …………..

a. Business profile outsourcing
b. Business profile outcome
c. Business process outsourcing
d. Business process outcome
Ans : c) Businesses process outsourcing
4. The digital evidence are used to establish a credible link between……
Ans : a) Attacker and victim and the crime scene
a. Routing Table
b. Main memory
c. Log files
d. Cached Data
Ans : c) Log files

a. No
b. Not Sure
c. Yes
Ans : a) No
7. The evidence or proof that can be obtained from the electronic source is called the ………
a. Digital evidence
b. Demonstrative evidence
c. Explainable evidence
d. Substantial evidence
Ans : a) Digital evidence

d. Destroying data
9. Digital evidence must follow the requirements of the ……..
a. Ideal evidence
b. Best evidence
c. Exchange evidence
Ans : b) Best evidence
MCQ’S
2. Ethical Hacking is known as ………..

a. White Hat hacking
b. Black Hat hacking
c. Encrypting
d. None of these
Ans : a) white Hat hacking

a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : a) 5
4. Tools used by ethical hackers………..

a. Scanner
b. Decoder
c. Proxy
d. All of these
Ans : a) scanner
a. Good Guys
b. Bad Guys
Ans : b) Bad Guys
6. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds……….

a. Strengths
b. Weakness
c. A&B
d. None of these
Ans : b) weakness

a. Diploma holder
b. 10+2 passed
d. Nothing needed
8. Ethical hacking will allow to ………all the massive security breaches.

a. Reject
b. Measure
c. Remove
d. None of these
Ans : d) None of these

a. Nmap
b. WebInspect
d. All of the above
10. TCP stand for………

MCQ’S
1. SNMP stand for…………

a. Simple network messaging protocol
b. Simple network Mailing protocol
c. Simple network management protocol
d. Simple network Master protocol
Ans : c) Simple network management protocol

3. Banner grabbing is often used for…….

c. Gray hat hacking
d. Script kiddies
Ans : a) white hat hacking

5. IMAP stand for…………

a. Internet message access protocol
b. Internet mailing access protocol
c. Information access protocol
d. None of these
Ans : a) Internet message access protocol
a. IEEE 802.11
b. IEEE 802.10
c. IEEE 279.6
d. IEEE 275.4
Ans : a) 802.11
8. An attackers can create an …....attack by sending hundreds or thousand of e-mail with

very large attachment.
a. Connection Attack
b. Auto responder Attack
c. Attachment overloading Attack
d. All of the above
Ans : c) Attachment overloading attack
9. Port no.(6346,6347) Gnutella service having which protocols …..

a. TCP
b. UDP
c. TCP, UDP
d. NONE
Ans : c) TCP,UDP

b. Demonetized Zone
c. Demand Zone
d. Demoralized Zone
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 1: Artificial Intelligence

b) AlphaSense
c) The Jarvis

a) Allan Turin
b) John Mc Carthy
c) J. C. Shaw
d) Allen Newell

3) Which among this, is an AI created by IBM partner with Fluid PVT. Used specially for ‘Data
Analysis?’
a) EVE AI
b) Watson
c) Siri
d) Novel AI Ans: b)
Watson

b) Languages of AI
c) Concepts of AI
d) Type of AI

a) Machine Learning
c) Reasoning
d) Deep learning

a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
Ans: b) Three
a) Type-1
b) Type-2
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Type-1
a) Reactive Machine
b) Self-Awareness
c) Limited machine
d) Theory of mind Ans: c)
Limited machine


a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Ans: d) Four
CHAPTER 2: Internet of Things
1) Raspbian is:
a) Assembler
b) Language
c) Compiler
d) OS
Ans:- d. OS
2) Which one out of these is not LPWAN technologies:
a) SigFox
b) WiFi
c) NB-oT
d) LoRa
Ans:- b. WiFi
3) Computer programs that mimic the way the human brain processes information is called as:-
a) Machine learning
b) Deep learning
c) Neural networks
Ans:- c. Neural
networks
4) is a branch of Science which deals with the helping machine find
solutions to complex problems in a more human like fashion
b. Internet Od Things
c. Embedded system
d. cyber Security
Ans:- a. Artificial Intelligence
5) What does LTE stands for:-

a) Long Terms Errors
b) Long Term Evolution
c) Lengthy terminal Estimation
d) Long term Estimates
Ans:- b. Long Term Evolution
6) Which transport layer protocols is used by DHCP:-
a. RSVP
b.TCP
c. DCCP
d. UDP
Ans:- d. UDP
7) Which one out of these is not a data link layer technology:-
a) Bluetooth
b) UART
c) WiFi
d) HTTP
Ans:- d. HTTP
8) IoT stands for:-
a) Internet of Technology
b) Intranet of Things
c) Internet of Things
d) Information of Things
Ans:- c. Internet of
Things
9) WSN stands for:-
a) Wide Sensor Network

b) Wireless Sensor Network
c) Wired Sensor Network
d) None of these
Ans:- b. Wireless Sensor Network
10) Which is not the feature of IoT:-
a. Connectivity
b. Self-configuring
Ans:- b. Self-configuring
11. Which of the following sciences pay vital role in criminal justice systems ?
a. Digital Forensics
b. Forensic Science
c. PC Forensics
d. INTERPOL Forensic
Ans : b) Forensic Science
12. The full form of DFI is :

e. Digital Forensic Investigation
f. Digitalized Forensic Investigation
g. Digital Foreign Investment
h. Direct Forensic Investigation
Ans : a) Digital Forensic Science

a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : d) 6
14. Which of the following is not involved in DFI’s road map :

a. Identification
b. Collection
c. Prevention
d. Examination
Ans : c) Prevention
15. What is the full form of EEDIP

a. End to End Digital Investigation Program
c. End to End Digital Forensic Investigation
d. End to End Digital Forensic Investment
Ans : b) End to End Digital Investigation Process
16. Ethical Issues in Digital Forensic means :
a. Set of moral principals that regulate the use of computers
c. Honesty towards investigation
d. Compliance with law
Ans : a) Set of moral principals that regulate the use of computers
17. What do primary investigator consider from the original source :

a. Summarize and hold the data
b. Whether to analyze more data or to extract more data
c. Examine the data and store it
d. Compress the data
Ans : b) Whether to analyze more data or to extract more data
18. Who proposed the UML Modelling of Digital Forensic Process Model
a. Kohn, Eloff and Oliver
b. Response Team
c. Only (a)
Ans : a) Kohn, Eloff and Oliver
19. From what should the digital data must be protected ?

a. Copied
b. Deleted
c. Modified
d. Destroyed
Ans : c) Modified

a. 1975
b. 1944
c. 1971
d. 1980
Ans : d) 1980
MCQ’S

a. Computer
b. Phone
c. Guitar
d. Internet
Ans : c) Guitar
11. Digital evidences are also called as :

a. Digital proof
b. Evidence
c. Hidden Truth
Ans : d) Electronic Evidence
12. Which of the following is not the form of digital evidence:

a. Text messages
b. Emails
c. Pictures
d. Paper
Ans : d) Paper
13. According to Edmond Locard, there will be interchange if :

a. Two items interchange with each other
b. Two items make contact
c. No interaction needed
d. No devices needed
Ans : b) Two items make contact
14. What is digital evidence according to Cohen ?

a. Baggage of proofs
b. Collection of evidences
c. Bag of bits
d. Backpack of Bytes
Ans : c) Bag of bits
a. No
b. Not Sure
c. Yes
Ans : a) No

17. To whom is the IP addresses were traced ?

a. Internet Service Provider
b. Cyber Crime Office
c. Only (a)
Ans : a) Internet Service Provider

d. Destroying data
19. Which one of the following locates data on network devices :

a. ARP Cache
b. Kernel Statistics
c. Routing Table
d. Memory
Ans : c) Routing Table
MCQ’S

12. Malicious users are also called as :

a. External attackers
b. Trusted users
c. hacker
d. Internal attackers
Ans : d) Internal attackers
a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : a) 5
14. What is PayPal ?

a. Pay through Pal
b. NetBanking
c. Payment Gateway
d. Information app
Ans : c) Payment Gateway

a. Good Guys
b. Bad Guys
Ans : b) Bad Guys
16. Ethical hackers are
a. Trained hackers
c. Bad guys
d. Good guys
Ans : a) Trained hackers

a. Diploma holder
b. 10+2 passed
d. Nothing needed
18. Which is not an Ethical Hacking related career

a. Back-End Developer
b. Software Tester
c. Software Developer
d. Computer Networking Specialist
Ans : a) Software Tester

a. Nmap
b. WebInspect
d. All of the above
20. What is the full form of TCP :

MCQ’S
11. Network Testing and port scanning tools are :

a. Sam Spade
b. SuperScan
c. NetScan
d. All of the above

13. Number of Successful NetBIOS queries :

a. 5
b. 13
c. 12
d. 17
Ans : b) 13

15. What is Banner Grabbing ?

a. Act of capturing the information by banners
b. Grabbing Information
c. Information Sharing
d. Sharing Information
Ans : a) Act of capturing the information by banners
a. IEEE 802.11
b. IEEE 802.10
c. IEEE 279.6
d. IEEE 275.4
Ans : a) 802.11
18. LINUX is an
a. Application
b. Software
c. Toolkit
d. Operating System
Ans : d) Operating System
19. Which of the following is an Email attack :

a. Hacking
b. Decrypting
c. Bomb
d. Banner
Ans : d) Banner

b. Demonetized Zone
c. Demand Zone
d. Demoralized Zone
A)1900 B)1980 C)19450 D)1984
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)1995
Q4Full Form Of IOCE
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)2000
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6

A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q26 NMAP known as:
A)Information
like
A)Root Directory
A)LINUX
A)Ethereal
D)All of the Above

A. Attack
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
5. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known as what
type of attack?
A. Remote attack
B. Physical access
C. Local access
D. Internal attack
A. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC

B. APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
C. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
D. APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
7.How does traceroute work?
A. It uses an ICMP destination-unreachable message to elicit the name of a router.

B. It sends a specially crafted IP packet to a router to locate the number of hops from the
sender to the destination network.
C. It uses a protocol that will be rejected by the gateway to determine the location.
D. It uses the TTL value in an ICMP message to determine the number of hops from the
sender to the router.
8. Nslookup can be used to gather information regarding which of the following?
A. Host names and IP addresses

B. Whois information
C. DNS server locations
D. Name server types and operating systems
9.What is it called when a hacker pretends to be a valid user on the system?
A. Impersonation
B. Third-person authorization
C. Help desk
D. Valid user
10.What is the best reason to implement a security policy?
A. It increases security.
B. It makes security harder to enforce.
C. It removes the employee’s responsibility to make judgments.
D. It decreases security.
Chapter No 3 : Basics Of Digital Forensic
A. Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of evidence in

court
B. The application of computer science and investigative procedures for a legal

purpose involving the analysis of digital evidence after proper search authority,
chain of custody, validation with mathematics, use of validated tools,
repeatability, reporting, and possible expert presentation
C. A process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer questions about
digital events

A. True
B. False
A. Authenticity
B. Comparison
C. Proving
D. Enhancement
4. Which of the following represents the step of scientific methodI- Develop hypothesis
based on evidenceII- Calculate hash value of evidenceIII- Test the hypothesis to look for
additional evidence IV-make an imaging of the original evidence
A. All above
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. II, III and IV

5. What is the Primary Objectives of Digital Forensic for Business and Industry
A. Availability of service
B. Continuity of operation
C. Prosecution
D. Security
A. Documentary
B. Demonstrative
C. Testimonial
D. Real
7. Which of the following is FALSE
C. It is the investigator’s responsibility to accurately report the relevant facts of a

case.

8. ____ is a written list of objections to certain testimony or exhibits.
a.Defendant
b.Empanelling the jury
c.Plaintiff
d.Motion in limine
9. Attorneys can now submit documents electronically in many courts; the standard format
in federal courts is ____.
a. Microsoft Word (DOC)
b. Portable Document Format (PDF)
c. Encapsulated Postscript (EPS)
d. Postscript (PS)
10. A(n) ____is a document that lets you know what questions to expect when you are
testifying.
a.written report
b.affidavit
c.examination plan
d.subpoena
Chapter No 4 : Digital Evidences

evidence?

c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
would have.
Chapter No 5 : Basics of hacking


practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
a) True
b) False

assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
8. An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not get leaked.
a) True
b) False
9. After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client information
to other parties.
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
10. __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides different
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
1.In terms of digital evidence, the Internet is an example of:

c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
evidence?


c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above



have.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human

D. None of above
Ans: C
4. _____ Model should reflect how results were

obtained. A. Design model
B. Logic model
D. None of above
Ans: C
A. LISP B.
ELIZA
C. All of above D.
None of above
Ans: B

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
Ans: D
7. The concept derived from ________ level are propositional logic, tautology,
predicate calculus, model, temporal logic.
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B

B. Tautology
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
9. The ____ level contains constituents at the third level which are knowledge based
system, heuristic search, automatic theorem proving, multi-agent system.
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
B. Machine Learning
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
A. LISP B.
ELIZA C.
PROLOG D.
NLP
Ans: A
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

C. Machine to Machine and Internet of

Things D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
5. MQTT is:
Ans: B

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A

C. Message
Ans: A

D. Enables network resources and reduces perception of latency and Allows multiple
concurrent exchange.
Ans: D
10. HTTP expands?


Ans: A


D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
2. Which of following is not general ethical norm for

Investigator? A. To contribute to society and human being.

Ans: B


Ans: D
4. What is called as the process of creation a duplicate of digital media for purpose
of examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
5. Which term refers for modifying a computer in a way which was not originally intended
to view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
6. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is
an example of a law enforcement specialty called?
A.Robotis
C.ComputerForenss
D.Animation
Ans: C
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
Using what, data hiding in encrypted images be carried out in digital forensics?
A. Acquisition.
B.Steganogrhy. C.
Liveanalysis
D. Hashing.
And: B
Which of this is not a computer crime?
C. Sabotage.
Ans. D
Which file is used to store the user entered password?
A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .asm
Ans: D
Chapter-4 DIGITAL EVIDENCE
1. A Valid Definition of Digital Evidence is

a. Data Stored or transmitted using a computer
b. Information of Probative value
c. Digital dada of probative Value
d. Any digital evidence on computer
2. In term of Digital evidence, a hard drive is example.of

3. In term of Digital evidence, a mobile telephone is an example.of

4. In term of Digital evidence, the internet is an example of

a. Open computer System
5. Digital Evidence is only useful in court of law

a. True
b. False
6. Video Surveillance can be form of Digital evidence

a. True
b. False
7. Computer Can be Involved in which of the following types of crime

a. Homicide and sexual Assault
c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
a. True
b. False
Chapter-5 Basics of Hacking
1. Which of the following statements best describes a white-hat hacker?
B. Former black hat
C. Former grey hat
D. Malicious hacker
A. Attack
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
5. Hacking for a cause is called __________________
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
A. Title 12
B. Title 18
C. Title 20
D. Title 2
8. port number does FTP use?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 23
D. 80
9. What is the primary goal of an Ethical Hacker?
a. Avoiding Detection
b. Determining return on investment (ROI) for security measure
c. Resolving security vulnerabilities
d. Testing Security Controls
a) True
b) False
Chapter-6 Types Of Hacking
1. Hackers who help in finding bugs and vulnerabilities in a system & don’t intend to
crack a system are termed as ________
c) Grey Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
2. Which is the legal form of hacking based on which jobs are provided in IT industries
and firms?
a) Cracking
c) Ethical hacking
d) Hactivism
3. They are nefarious hackers, and their main motive is to gain financial profit by doing
cyber crimes. Who are “they” referred to here?
a) Gray Hat Hackers
c) Hactivists
a) Grey Hat hackers
c) Blue Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
5. The amateur or newbie in the field of hacking who don’t have many skills about
coding and in-depth working of security and hacking tools are called ________
b) Hactivists
c) Script Kiddies
d) Whistle Blowers
6. Criminal minded individuals who work for terrorist organizations and steal
information of nations and other secret intelligence are _________
b) Blue Hat Hackers
c) Cyber Terrorists
d) Red Hat Hackers
7. These types of hackers are the most skilled hackers in the hackers’ community. Who
are “they” referred to?
b) Elite Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
organization.
d) Security Auditor
9. Governments hired some highly skilled hackers. These types of hackers are termed
as _______
a) Special Hackers
10. __________ security consultants uses database security monitoring & scanning
tools to maintain security to different data residing in the database / servers / cloud.
a) Database
b) Network
c) System
d) Hardware

Total points 63/70
Date : 21-05-2020
Time 10.00 to 11.30am.
Email address *
[email protected]
0 of 0 points
Full Name *
Institute Name *
Institute Code *
Enrollment number *
63 of 70 points
Narrow AI
General AI
Neural AI
None of the above
Feedback
Narrow AI
Defence
Energy
Education
Jastice
Feedback
Defence
Dartmouth
Harvard
New York
Stanford
Feedback
Dartmouth
Heuristic
Critical
Value based
Analytical
Feedback
Heuristic

of AI.
Correct answer

David Levy
John McCarthy
Joseph Weizenbaum
Hans Berliner
None of the above
Feedback
John McCarthy
Robotics
Simulation
Computer Forensics
Animation
Feedback
Computer Forensics
Digital forensic?
SIM
RAM
ROM
EMMC chip
Feedback
EMMC chip
forensics?
Acquisition.
Steganography.
Live analysis
Hashing.
Other:
Feedback
Steganography
e-mail harassment
Sabotage
Feedback
.exe
.txt
.iso
.sam
Feedback
.sam

Data mining
Data carving
Meta data
Data Spoofing.
Feedback
Data mining
Drive?
Formatting disk
Storing data
Deleting files.
Feedback
location
Preservation phase
Survey phase
Documentation phase
Presentation phase
Feedback
Survey phase
Feedback
task is known as:
Hardware.
CPU
Motherboard
Software
Feedback
Software
available.

the evidence.
Feedback
Review phase.
Deployment phase.
Feedback

Review phase
Deployment phase
Feedback
Deployment phase
Review phase.
Deployment phase
Feedback
Review phase.
G. Palmar
J. Korn
Michael Anderson
S.Ciardhuain.
Feedback
Michael Anderson

have been made
Forensic
Crime
Cyber Crime
Evidence
Feedback
forensic
G. Palmar
Stephenson
Michael Anderson
S.Ciardhuain
Feedback
Stephenson.
Feedback
Feedback
Feedback
Feedback
None of the above
Correct answer
would have.
Feedback
have.
because:
All the above.
Correct answer
None of theabove
Feedback
Black Hat Hacking.
White Hat Hacking.
Encryption.
None ofthese.
Feedback
White Hat Hacking.
Strengths.
Weakness.
A &B
None of these.
Feedback
Weakness.
G. Palma.
Raymond.
Either.
Jhon Browman
Feedback
Raymond.
Steal thedata
None of the above
No correct answers
Nmap
LC4
ToneLOC
Nessus
Feedback
LC4
Whisker
Superscan
Nikto
Kismet
Feedback
Whisker
their work?
Black hathacker
Hactivist
Scriptkiddes
White hathacker
Feedback
Hactivist
hacking techniques
Feedback
System and network
Feedback
White Hat Hacking
Black Hat Hacking
Grey Hat Hacking
Script Kiddies
Feedback
White Hat Hacking
SamSpade
SuperScan
NetScan
Netcat
Feedback
SamSpade
SYN stealthscan
TCP scan
XMAS treescan
ACKscan
Feedback
SYN stealthscan
Feedback

Local networking
Social engineering
Physical entry
Remote networking
Feedback
Local networking
Reconnaissance
Maintaining Access
Gaining Access
Scanning
Feedback
Gaining Access
black-hathackers
grey-hathackers
script kiddies
Correct answer
General Purpose
Special Purpose
Feedback
Special Purpose
Data communication
Monitoring
control
All of above
Feedback
Monitoring
ASIC
ASSP
CPU
CPLD
Feedback
CPU
Forms
Emerging Trends in Computer Engineering
and Information Technology
(22618)
CHAPTER WISE ANALYSIS
Prepared by
RISHAN SIR
CHAPTER NO -1
ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
• 1. Which of these schools was not among the early leaders in AI research?
• A. Dartmouth University
• B. Harvard University
• C. Massachusetts Institute of Technology
• D. Stanford University
• 2. DARPA, the agency that has funded a great deal of American AI research,
is part of the Department of:
• A. Defense
• B. Energy
• C. Education
• D. Justice
• 3. The conference that launched the AI revolution in 1956 was held at:
• A. Dartmouth
• B. Harvard
• C. New York
• D. Stanford
• E. None of the above
• 4. What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense part
of problem solving? A. Heuristic
• B. Critical
• C. Value based
• D. Analytical
• E. None of the above
• 5. What of the following is considered to be a pivotal event in the history of
AI.
• A. 1949, Donald O, The organization of Behavior.
• B. 1950, Computing Machinery and Intelligence.
• C. 1956, Dartmouth University Conference Organized by John McCarthy.
• D. 1961, Computer and Computer Sense.
• 6. A certain Professor at the Stanford University coined the word 'artificial
intelligence' in 1956 at a conference held at Dartmouth College. Can you
name the Professor?
• A. David Levy
• B. John McCarthy
• C. Joseph Weizenbaum
• D. Hans Berliner
• 7. The field that investigates the mechanics of human intelligence is:
• A. History
• B. cognitive science
• C. psychology
• D. sociology
• 8. A.M. turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer
could or could not demonstrate the artificial Intelligence,, Presently, this
technique is called
• A. Turing Test
• B. Algorithm
• C. Boolean Algebra
• D. Logarithm
• 9. The first AI programming language was called:
• A. BASIC
• B. FORTRAN
• C. IPL
• D. LISP
• 10. What is Artificial intelligence?
• A. Putting your intelligence into Computer
• B. Programming with your own intelligence
• C. Making a Machine intelligent
• D. Putting more memory into Computer
• 11. Who is a father of AI?
• A. Alain Colmerauer
• B. John McCarthy
• C. Nicklaus Wirth
• D. Seymour Papert
• 12. Artificial Intelligence has its expansion in the following application.
• A. Planning and Scheduling
• B. Game Playing
• C. Robotics
• D. All of the above
• 13. The characteristics of the computer system capable of thinking,
reasoning and learning is known is
• A. machine intelligence
• B. human intelligence
• C. artificial intelligence
• D. virtual intelligence
• 14. Which is not the commonly used programming language for AI?
• A. PROLOG
• B. LISP
• C. Perl
• D. Java script
• 15. The first widely used commercial form of Artificial Intelligence (Al) is
being used in many popular products like microwave ovens, automobiles and
plug in circuit boards for desktop PCs. What is name of AI?
• A. Boolean logic
• B. Human logic
• C. Fuzzy logic
• D. Functional logic
• 16. What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense
• A. Heuristic
• B. Critical
• C. Value based
• D. Analytical
• 17. ______ is a branch of computer science which deals with helping
machines finds solutions to complex problems in a more human like
fashions
• A. Artificial Intelligence
• B. Internet of Things
• C. Embedded System
• D. Cyber Security
• 18. In ____ the goal is for the software to use what it has learned in one area
to solve problems in other areas.
• A. Machine Learning
• B. Deep Learning
• C. Neural Networks
• D. None of these
• 19. Computer programs that mimic the way the human brain processes
information is called as
• A. Machine Learning
• B. Deep Learning
• C. Neural Networks
• 20. A ____ is a rule of thumb, strategy, trick, simplification, or any other
kind of device which drastically limits search for solutions in large problem
spaces.
• A. Heuristic
• B. Critical
• C. Value based
• D. Analytical
• 21. ______ do not guarantee optimal/any solutions
• A. Heuristic
• B. Critical
• C. Value based
• D. Analytical
• 22. Cognitive science related with _____
• A. Act like human
• B. ELIZA
• C. Think like human
• D. None of above
• 23. _____ Model should reflect how results were obtained.
• A. Design model
• B. Logic model
• C. Computational model
• 24. Communication between man and machine is related with ______
• A. LISP
• B. ELIZA
• C. All of above
• 25. ELIZA created by _____
• A. John McCarthy
• B. Steve Russell
• C. Alain Colmerauer
• D. Joseph Weizenbaum
• 26. The concept derived from ________ level are propositional logic,
tautology, predicate calculus, model, temporal logic.
• A. Cognition level
• B. Logic level
• C. Functional level
• D. All of above
• 27. PROLOG is an AI programming language which solves problems with a
form of symbolic logic known as ______.
• A. Propositional logic
• B. Tautology
• C. Predicate calculus
• D. Temporal logic
• 28. The ____ level contains constituents at the third level which are
knowledge based system, heuristic search, automatic theorem proving, multi-
agent system.
• A. Cognition level
• B. Gross level
• C. Functional level
• D. All of above
• 29. PROLOG, LISP, NLP are the language of ____
• B. Machine Learning
• C. Internet of Things
• D. Deep Learning
• 30. ______ is used for AI because it supports the implementation of
software that computes with symbols very well.
• A. LISP
• B. ELIZA
• C. PROLOG
• D. NLP
• 31. Symbols, symbolic expressions and computing with those is at the core
of ______
• A. LISP
• B. ELIZA
• C. PROLOG
• D. NLP
• 32. ______ that deals with the interaction between computers and humans
using the natural language
• A. LISP
• B. ELIZA
• C. PROLOG
• D. NLP
• 33. The core components are constituents of AI are derived from
• A. Concept of logic
• B. Cognition
• C. Computation
• D. All of above
• 34. Aristotle’s theory of syllogism and Descartes and kant’s critic of pure
reasoning made knowledge on _____.
• A. Logic
• B. Computation logic
• C. Cognition logic
• D. All of above
• 35. Charles Babbage and Boole who demonstrate the power of _______
• A. Logic
• B. Computation logic
• C. Cognition logic
• D. All of above
• 36. In 1960s, _____ pushed the logical formalism to integrate reasoning with
knowledge.
• A. Marvin Minsky
• B. Alain Colmerauer
• C. John McCarthy
• 37. Sensing organs as input, mechanical movement organs as output and
central nervous system (CNS) in brain as control and computing devices is
known as _____ of human being
• A. Information Control Paradigm
• B. Information Processing Paradigm
• C. Information Processing Control
• 38. _____ model were developed and incorporated in machines which
mimicked the functionalities of human origin.
• A. Functional model
• B. Neural model
• C. Computational model
• 39. Chomsky’s linguistic computational theory generated a model for
syntactic analysis through __________
• A. Regular Grammar
• B. Regular Expression
• C. Regular Word
• 40. Human to Machine is _____ and Machine to Machine is ______.
• A. Process, Process
• B. Process, Program
• C. Program, Hardware
• D. Program, Program
• 41. Weak AI is also known as ____
• A. Narrow AI
• B. General AI
• C. Neural AI
• 42. _____ AI is able to perform dedicated task.
• A. Narrow AI
• B. General AI
• C. Neural AI
• 43. Narrow AI is performs multiple task at a time.
• A. True
• B. False
• 44. Weak AI is____________
• A. The embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer.
• B. A set of computer programs that produce output that would be
considered to reflect intelligence if it were generated by humans.
• C. The study of mental faculties through the use of mental models
implemented on a computer
• 45. Strong AI is__________
implemented on a computer D. All of the above
• 46. Artificial intelligence is___________
implemented on a computer
• 47. Apple siri is a good example of ______ AI.
• A. Narrow AI
• B. General AI
• C. Neural AI
• 48. IBM Watson supercomputer comes under ____ AI.
• A. Narrow AI
• B. General AI
• C. Neural AI
• 49. ____ AI is a type of intelligence which could perform any intellectual
task with efficiency like human.
• A. Narrow AI
• B. General AI
• C. Super AI
• 50. The idea behind _________AI to make such a system which could be
smarter and think like a human by its own.
• A. Narrow AI
• B. General AI
• C. Super AI
CHAPTER NO -2
INTERNET OF THINGS
• 1. Embedded systems are_____
• A. General purpose
• B. Special purpose
• C. both
• D . none
• 2. Embedded system is______
• A. An electronic system
• B. A pure mechanical system
• C. An electro-mechanical system
• D. (A) or (C)
• 3. Which of the following is not true about embedded systems?
• A. Built around specialized hardware
• B. Always contain an operating system
• C. Execution behavior may be deterministic
• 4. Which of the following is not an example of a “small-scale embedded
system”?
• A. Electronic Barbie doll
• B. Simple calculator
• C. Cell phone
• D. Electronic toy car
• 5. The first recognized modern embedded system is
• A. Apple computer
• B. Apollo Guidance Computer (AGC)
• C. Calculator
• D. Radio navigation system
• 6. The first mass produced embedded system is
• A. Minuteman-I
• B. Minuteman-II
• C. Autonetics D-17
• D. Apollo Guidance Computer (AGC)
• 7. Which of the following is an (are) an intended purpose(s) of embedded
systems?
• A. Data collection
• B. Data processing
• C. Data communication
• D. All of these
• 8. Which of the following is (are) example(s) of embedded system for data
communication? USB Mass Storage device
• A. Network router
• B. Digital camera
• C. Music player
• D. All of these
• 9. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an
embedded system?
• A. Ability to fit on a single chip
• B. Low power consumption
• C. Fast data processing for real-time operations
• D .All of the above
• 10. A digital multi meter is an example of an embedded system for
• A. Data communication
• B. Monitoring
• C. Control
• D. All of these
• 11. Which of the following is an (are) example(s) of an embedded system for
signal processing?
• A. Apple iPOD (media player device)
• B. SanDisk USB mass storage device
• C. Both (A) and (B)
• 12. The instruction set of RISC processor is
• A. Simple and lesser in number
• B. Complex and lesser in number
• C. Simple and larger in number
• D. Complex and larger in number
• 13. Which of the following is true about CISC processors?
• A. The instruction set is non-orthogonal
• B. The number of general purpose registers is limited
• C. Instructions are like macros in c language
• D. Variable length instructions
• E. All of these
• 14. Main processor chip in computers is_______
• A. ASIC
• B. ASSP
• C. CPU
• D. CPLD
• 15. Processors used in many microcontroller products need to be______
• A. high power
• B. low power
• C. low interrupt response
• D. low code density
• 16. In microcontrollers, UART is acronym of_____
• A. Universal Applied Receiver/Transmitter
• B. Universal Asynchronous Rectified Transmitter
• C. Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter
• D. United Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter
• 17. Which architecture is followed by general purpose microprocessors?
• A. Harvard architecture
• B. Von Neumann architecture
• C. None of the mentioned
• D. All of the mentioned
• 18. Which architecture involves both the volatile and the non-volatile
memory?
• 19. Which architecture provides separate buses for program and data
memory?
• 20. Harvard architecture allows:
• A. Separate program and data memory
• B. Pipe-ling
• C. Complex architecture
• 21. Which of the following processor architecture supports easier instruction
pipelining?
• A. Harvard
• B. Von Neumann
• C. Both of them
• 22. Which of the following is an example for wireless communication
interface?
• A. RS-232C
• B. Wi-Fi
• C. Bluetooth
• D. Both (B) and (C)
• 23. ARM stands for _________
• A. Advanced RISC Machine
• B. Advanced RISC Methodology
• C. Advanced Reduced Machine
• D. Advanced Reduced Methodology
• 24. What is the processor used by ARM7?
• A. 8-bit CISC
• B. 8-bit RISC
• C. 32-bit CISC
• D. 32-bit RISC
• 25. The main importance of ARM micro-processors is providing operation
with ______
• A. Low cost and low power consumption
• B. Higher degree of multi-tasking
• C. Lower error or glitches
• D. Efficient memory management
• 26. ARM processors where basically designed for _______
• A. Main frame systems
• B. Distributed systems
• C. Mobile systems
• D. Super computers
• 27. ASIC chip is
• A. Simple in design.
• B. Manufacturing time is less.
• C. It is faster.
• D. Both A&C.
• 28. ASIC stands for
• A. Application-System Integrated Circuits
• B. Application-Specific Integrated Circuits
• C. Application-System Internal Circuits
• D. Application-Specific Internal Circuits
• 29. In microcontrollers, I2C stands for
• A. Inter-Integrated Clock
• B. Initial-Integrated Clock
• C. Intel-Integrated Circuit
• D. Inter-Integrated Circuit
• 30. ______________ is the smallest microcontrollers which can be
programmed to perform a large range of tasks.
• A. PIC microcontrollers
• B. ARM microcontrollers
• C. AVR microcontrollers
• D. ASIC microcontrollers
• 31. _______________ was developed in the year 1996 by ATMEL
Corporation
• A. PIC
• B. AVR
• C. ARM
• D. ASIC
• 32. AVR stands for_____________________.
• A. Advanced Virtual RISC.
• B. Alf-Egil Bogen and Vegard Wollan RISC
• C. Both A & B
• D. None of the above
• 33. AVR microcontroller executes most of the instruction in
_________________.
• A. Single execution cycle.
• B. Double execution cycle.
• C. Both A& B
• D. None of the above.
• 34. Term "the Internet of things" was coined by
• A. Edward L. Schneider
• B. Kevin Ashton
• C. John H.
• D. Charles Anthony
• 35. The huge numbers of devices connected to the Internet of Things have
to communicate automatically, not via humans, what is this called?
• A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
• B. Machine to Machine(M2M)
• C. InterCloud
• D. Skynet
• 36. What does “Things” in IoT refers to?
• A. General device
• B. Information
• C. IoT devices
• D. Object
• 37. Interconnection of Internet and computing devices embedded in
everyday objects, enabling them to send and receive data is
called_____________
• A. Internet of Things
• B. Network Interconnection
• C. Object Determination
• 38. _____________ is a computing concept that describes the idea of
everyday physical objects being connected to the internet.
• A. IOT (Internet of Things)
• B. MQTT
• C. COAP
• D. SPI
• 39 _____ devices may support a number of interoperable communication
protocols and communicate with other device and also with infrastructure.
• B. Machine Learning
• C. Internet of Things
• 40. Which one is not element of IOT?
• A. Process
• B. People
• C. Security
• D. Things
• 41. IIOT stands for
• A. Information Internet of Things
• B. Industrial Internet of Things
• C. Inovative Internet of Things
• 42. Name of the IOT device which is first recognized?
• A. Smart Watch
• B. ATM
• C. Radio
• D. Video Game
• 43. _____ is used by IOT
• A. Radio information technology
• B. Satellite
• C. Cable
• D. Broadband
• 44. ______ consists of communication protocols for electronic devices,
typically a mobile device and a standard device.
• A. RFID
• B. MQTT
• C. NFC
• 45. _____________ refers to establish a proper connection between all the
things of IOT.
• A. Connectivity
• B. Analyzing
• C. Sensing
• D. Active Engagement
• 46. IOT devices which have unique identities and can perform
________________________.
• A. Remote sensing
• B. Actuating
• C. Monitoring capabilities
• 47. The sensed data communicated ___________________. A. Cloud-based
servers/storage.
• B. I/O interfaces.
• C. Internet connectivity.
• 48. IOT devices are various types, for instance______________.
• A. Wearable sensors.
• B. Smart watches.
• C. LED lights.
• 49. ______________ is a collection of wired Ethernet standard for the link
layer.
• A. IEEE 802.3
• B. IEEE 802.11
• C. IEEE 802.16
• D. IEEE 802.15.4
• 50.______ is a collection of WLAN communication standards.
• A. IEEE 802.3
• B. IEEE 802.11
• C. IEEE 802.16
• D. IEEE 802.15.4
• 51. ____ is a collection of wireless broadband standards (WiMax).
• A. IEEE 802.3
• B. IEEE 802.11
• C. IEEE 802.16
• D. IEEE 802.15.4
• 52 ___ is a collection of standards for LR-WPANs.
• A. IEEE 802.3
• B. IEEE 802.11
• C. IEEE 802.16
• D. IEEE 802.15.4
• 53. LR-WPANs standards from basis of specifications for high level
communication protocol such as ___.
• A. Zigbee
• B. Allsean
• C. Tyrell
• D. Microsoft's Azure
• 54. ______ includes GSM and CDMA.
• A. 2G
• B. 3G
• C. 4G
• 55. ______include UMTS and CDMA2000.
• A. 2G
• B. 3G
• C. 4G
• 56 ______include LTE.
• A. 2G
• B. 3G
• C. 4G
• 57. _____________ layer protocols determine how the data is physically sent
over the network’s physical layer or medium.
• A. Application layer
• B. Transport layer
• C. Network layer
• D. Link layer
• 58 _______ layer is responsible for sending of IP datagrams from the source
network to the destination network.
• D. Link layer
• 59. ___ layer perform the host addressing and packet routing.
• D. Link layer
• 60. _____________ protocols provide end to end message transfer
capability independent of the underlying network.
• A. Network layer
• C. Application layer
• D. Link layer
• 61. The ___ protocols define how the applications interface with the lower
layer protocol to send the data over the network.
• D. Link layer
• 62. 6LOWPAN stands for
• A. 6 LOW Personal Area Network
• B. IPv6 LOW Personal Area Network
• C. IPv6 over Low power wireless personal area network
• 63. 802.3 is the standard for 10BASE5 Ethernet that uses ___________
cable as shared medium.
• A. Twisted pair cable
• B. Coaxial cable
• C. Fiber optic cable
• 64. IEEE 802.11 standards provide data rates ______________
• A. 10 Gbit/s.
• B. 1 Gbit/s
• C. 1 Mb/s to up to 6.75 Gb/s
• D. 250 Kb/s
• 65. ________ of the following is a protocol related to IOT
• A. Zigbee
• B. 6LoWPAN
• C. CoAP
• 66. _______________ is useful for time-sensitive application that have very
small data units to exchange and do not want the overhead of connection
setup.
• A. TCP
• B. UDP
• C. Transport layer
• 67. ____________ protocol uses Universal Resource Identifiers (URIs) to
identify HTTP resources.
• A. HTTP
• B. COAP
• C. WebSocket
• D. MQTT
• 68. The 10/100Mbit Ethernet support enables the board to connect to
_________
• A. LAN
• B. MAN
• C. WAN
• D. WLAN
• 69. Which one out of these is not a data link layer technology?
• A. Bluetooth
• B. UART
• C. Wi-Fi
• D. HTTP
• 70. What is size of the IPv6 Address?
• A. 32 bits
• B. 64 bits
• C. 128 bits
• D. 256 bits
• THANKS
CHAPTER-3
BASICS OF DIGITAL FORENSICS

• 1. Digital forensics is all of them except:
• A. Extraction of computer data.
• B. Preservation of computer data.
• C. Interpretation of computer data.
• D. Manipulation of computer data.
• 2. IDIP stands for
• A. Integrated Digital Investigation Process.
• B. Integrated Data Investigator Process.
• C. Integrated Digital Investigator Process.
• D. Independent Digital Investigator Process.
• 3. Who proposed Road Map for Digital Forensic Research (RMDFR)
• A. G.Gunsh.
• B. S.Ciardhuain
• C. J.Korn.
• D. G.Palmar
• 4. Investigator should satisfy following points:
• A. Contribute to society and human being.
• B. Avoid harm to others.
• C. Honest and trustworthy.
• 5. In the past, the method for expressing an opinion has been to frame a
____ question based on available factual evidence.
• A. Hypothetical
• B. Nested
• C. Challenging
• D. Contradictory
• 6. More subtle because you are not aware that you are running these macros
(the document opens and the application automatically runs); spread via
email
• A. The purpose of copyright
• B. Danger of macro viruses
• C. Derivative works
• D. computer-specific crime
• 7. There are three c's in computer forensics. Which is one of the three?
• A. Control
• B. Chance
• C. Chains
• D. Core
• 8. When Federal Bureau Investigation program was created?
• A.1979
• B.1984
• C.1995
• D.1989
• 9. When the field of PC forensics began?
• A.1960's
• B.1970's
• C.1980's
• D.1990's
• 10. What is Digital Forensic?
• A. Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of evidence in court
• B. The application of computer science and investigative procedures for a legal purpose
expert presentation
• C. process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer questions about digital events
• D. Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of the facts or
• 11. Digital Forensics entails _____.
• A. Accessing the system's directories viewing mode and navigating through
the various systems files and folders
• B. Undeleting and recovering lost files
• C. Identifying and solving computer crimes
• D. The identification, preservation, recovery, restoration and presentation of
digital evidence from systems and devices
• 12. Which of the following is FALSE?
• A. The digital forensic investigator must maintain absolute objectivity
• B. It is the investigator’s job to determine someone’s guilt or innocence.
• C. It is the investigator’s responsibility to accurately report the relevant facts
of a case.
• D. The investigator must maintain strict confidentiality, discussing the results
of an investigation on only a “need to know”
• 13. What is the most significant legal issue in computer forensics?
• A. Preserving Evidence
• B. Seizing Evidence
• C. Admissibility of Evidence
• D. Discovery of Evidence
• 14. _______phase includes putting the pieces of a digital puzzle together
and developing investigative hypotheses
• A. Preservation phase
• B. Survey phase
• C. Documentation phase
• D. Reconstruction phase
• 15. In _______phase investigator transfers the relevant data from a venue
out of physical or administrative control of the investigator to a controlled
location
• A. Preservation phase
• B. Survey phase
• C. Documentation phase
• D. Reconstruction phase
• 16. What is first step to Handle Retrieving Data from an Encrypted Hard
Drive?
• A. Formatting disk
• B. Storing data
• C. Finding configuration files.
• D. Deleting files.
• 17. Computer forensics do not involve _____ activity.
• A. Preservation of computer data.
• B. Exraction of computer data.
• C. Manipulation of computer data.
• D. Interpretation of computer data.
• 18. A set of instruction compiled into a program that perform a particular
task is known as:
• A. Hardware.
• B.CPU
• C. Motherboard
• D. Software
• 19. Which of following is not a rule of digital forensics?
• A. An examination should be performed on the original data
• B. A copy is made onto forensically sterile media. New media should always
be used if available.
• C. The copy of the evidence must be an exact, bit-by-bit copy
• D. The examination must be conducted in such a way as to prevent any
modification of the evidence.
• 20. To collect and analyze the digital evidence that was obtained from the
• A. Physical crime investigation
• B. Digital crime investigation.
• C. Review phase.
• D. Deployment phase.
• 21. To provide mechanism to an incident to be detected and confirmed is
• D. Deployment phase.
• 22. Which phase entails a review of the whole investigation and identifies
• D. Deployment phase
• 23. ____________is known as father of computer forensic.
• A. G. Palmar
• B. J. Korn
• C. Michael Anderson
• D. S.Ciardhuain.
• 24. ___________is well established science where various contribution have
been made
• A. Forensic
• B. Crime
• C. Cyber Crime
• D. Evidence
• 25. Who proposed End to End Digital Investigation Process (EEDIP)?
• A. G. Palmar
• B. Stephenson
• C. Michael Anderson
• D. S.Ciardhuain
• 26. Which model of Investigation proposed by Carrier and Safford?
• A. Extended Model of Cybercrime Investigation (EMCI)
• B. Integrated Digital Investigation Process(IDIP)
• C. Road Map for Digital Forensic Research (RMDFR)
• D. Abstract Digital Forensic Model (ADFM)
• 27. Which of the following is not a property of computer evidence? A.
• B. Complete and Convincing.
• C. Duplicated and Preserved.
• D. Conform and Human Readable
• 28. _______can makes or breaks investigation.
• A. Crime
• B. Security
• C: Digital Forensic
• D: Evidence
• 29. __________ is software that blocks unauthorized users from connecting
to your computer.
• A. Firewall
• B. Quick launch
• C. OneLogin
• D. Centrify
• 30. Which of following are general Ethical norms for Investigator?
• A. To contribute to society and human being.
• B. To avoid harm to others.
• C. To be honest and trustworthy.
• D. All of above
• 31. Which of following are Unethical norms for Investigator? A. Uphold any
relevant evidence.
• B. Declare any confidential matters or knowledge.
• C. Distort or falsify education, training, credentials.
• D. All of above
• 32. Which of following is not general ethical norm for Investigator?
• A. To contribute to society and human being.
• B. Uphold any relevant Evidence.
• C. To be honest and trustworthy.
• D. To honor confidentially.
• 33. Which of following is a not unethical norm for Digital Forensics
Investigation?
• A. Uphold any relevant evidence.
• B. Declare any confidential matters or knowledge.
• C. Distort or falsify education, training, credentials.
• D. To respect the privacy of others
• 34. What is called as the process of creation a duplicate of digital media for
purpose of examining it?
• A. Acquisition.
• B. Steganography.
• C. Live analysis
• D. Hashing.
• 35. Which term refers for modifying a computer in a way which was not
originally intended to view Information?
• A. Metadata
• B. Live analysis
• C. Hacking
• D. Bit Copy
• 36. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s
computer is an example of a law enforcement specialty called?
• A. Robotics
• B. Simulation
• C. Computer Forensics
• D. Animation
• 37. What are the important parts of the mobile device which used in Digital
forensic?
• A. SIM
• B. RAM
• C. ROM.
• D.EMMC chip
• 38. Using what, data hiding in encrypted images be carried out in digital
forensics?
• A. Acquisition.
• B. Steganography.
• C. Live analysis
• D. Hashing.
• 39. Which of this is not a computer crime?
• A. e-mail harassment
• B. Falsification of data.
• C. Sabotage.
• D. Identification of data
• 40. Which file is used to store the user entered password?
• A. .exe
• B. .txt
• C. .iso
• D. .sam
THANKS
FOR
WATCHING
CHAPTER NO. 4
DIGITAL EVIDENCE (CO4)

• 1. A valid definition of digital evidence is:
• A. Data stored or transmitted using a computer
• B. Information of probative value
• C. Digital data of probative value
• D. Any digital evidence on a computer
• 2. What are the three general categories of computer systems that can
• A. Desktop, laptop, server
• B. Personal computer, Internet, mobile telephone
• C. Hardware, software, networks
• D. Open computer systems, communication systems, and embedded systems
• 3. In terms of digital evidence, a hard drive is an example of:
• A. Open computer systems
• B. Communication systems
• C. Embedded computer systems
• 4. In terms of digital evidence, a mobile telephone is an example of:
• 5. In terms of digital evidence, a Smart Card is an example of:
• 6. In terms of digital evidence, the Internet is an example of:
• Ans: B
• 7. Computers can be involved in which of the following types of crime?
• A. Homicide and sexual assault
• B. Computer intrusions and intellectual property theft
• C. Civil disputes
• D. All the above
• Ans: D
• 8. A logon record tells us that, at a specific time:
• A. An unknown person logged into the system using the account
• B. The owner of a specific account logged into the system
• C. The account was used to log into the system
• Ans: C
• 9. Cyber trails are advantageous because:
• A. They are not connected to the physical world.
• B. Nobody can be harmed by crime on the Internet.
• C. They are easy to follow.
• D. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they
otherwise would have.
• Ans: D
• 10. Private networks can be a richer source of evidence than the Internet because:
• A. They retain data for longer periods of time.
• B. Owners of private networks are more cooperative with law enforcement.
• C. Private networks contain a higher concentration of digital evidence.
• D. All the above.
• Ans: C
• 12. The criminological principle which states that, when anyone, or anything, enters a crime
scene he/she takes something of the scene with him/her, and leaves something of
himself/herself behind, is:
• A. Locard’s Exchange Principle
• B. Differential Association Theory
• C. Beccaria’s Social Contract
• Ans: A
• 13. The author of a series of threatening e-mails consistently uses “im” instead of
“I’m.” This is an example of:
• A. An individual characteristic
• B. An incidental characteristic
• C. A class characteristic
• D. An indeterminate characteristic
• Ans: A
• 14. Personal computers and networks are often a valuable source of evidence.
Those involved with _______ should be comfortable with this technology.
• A. Criminal investigation
• B. Prosecution
• C. Defense work
• Ans: A
• 15. An argument for including computer forensic training computer security
specialists is:
• A. It provides an additional credential.
• B. It provides them with the tools to conduct their own investigations.
• C. It teaches them when it is time to call in law enforcement.
• Ans: C
• 16. The digital evidence are used to establish a credible link between____________
• A. Attacker and victim and the crime scene
• B. Attacker and the crime scene
• C. Victim and the crime scene
• D. Attacker and Information
• Ans: A
• 17. Digital evidences must follow the requirements of the ___________
• A. Ideal Evidence rule
• B. Best Evidence rule
• C. Exchange rule
• D. All the mentioned
• Ans: B
• 18. From the two given statements 1 and 2, select the correct option from a-d.
• a. Original media can be used to carry out digital investigation process.
• b. By default, every part of the victim’s computer is considered as unreliable.
• A. a and b both are true

• B. a is true and b is false
• C. a and b both are false
• D. a is false and b is true
• Ans: B
• 19. The evidences or proof can be obtained from the electronic source is called the
___________
• A. digital evidence
• B. demonstrative evidence
• C. Explainable evidence
• D. substantial evidence
• Ans: A
• 20. Which of the following is not a type of volatile evidence?
• A. Routing tables
• B. Main memory
• C. Log files
• D. Cached data
• Ans: C
• 21. The evidence must be usable in the court which is called as_______
• A. Admissible
• B. Authentic
• C. Complete
• D. Reliable
• Ans: A
• 22. Photographs, videos, sound recordings, X-rays, maps drawing, graphs, charts is a
a type of _____________
• A. Illustrative evidence
• B. Electronic evidence
• C. Documented evidence
• D. Explainable evidence
• Ans: A
• 23. Email, hard drives are examples of ____________
• D. Explainable evidence
• Ans: B
• 24. Blood, fingerprints, DNA these are examples of____________
• D. Substantial evidence
• Ans: D
• 25. When an incident takes place, a criminal will leave a hint evidence at the scene
and remove a hint from the scene which is called as ____________
• A. Locard’s Exchange principle
• B. Anderson’s Exchange principle
• C. Charles’s Anthony principle
• D. Kevin Ashton principle
• Ans: A
• 26. Which is not procedure to establish a chain of custody?
• A. Save the original materials.
• B. Take photos of physical evidence.
• C. Don’t take screenshots of digital evidence content.
• D. Document date, time, and any other information of receipt.
• Ans: C
• 27. Which is not related with digital evidence?
• A. Work with the original evidence to develop procedures.
• B. Use clean collecting media.
• C. Document any extra scope.
• D. Consider safety of personnel at the scene.
• Ans: A
• 28. Which is example of non-volatile memory.
• A. Flash memory
• B. Registers and Cache
• C. Process table
• D. Arp cache
• Ans: A
• 29._________ is known as testimonial.
• A. Oath affidavit
• B. DNA samples
• C. Fingerprint
• D. Dried blood
• Ans: A
• 30.The process of ensuring that providing or obtaining the data that you have collected is
similar to the data provided or presented in a court is known as___________
• A. Evidence validation
• B. Relative evidence
• C. Best evidence
• D. Illustrative evidence
• Ans: A
• 31.When cases got to trial your forensics examiner play one of ____ role.
• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 3
• D. 5
• Ans. A
• 32.Types of digital evidence
• A. Eye witness
• B. Picture and video
• C. Paper work
• Ans B
• 33.Rule of evidence is also known as __________
• A. Law of witness
• B. Law of litigation
• C. Law of evidence
• Ans. C
• 34. Digital evidence is only useful in a court of law.
• A. True
• B. False
• Ans: B
• 35. Attorneys and police are encountering progressively more digital
evidence in their work.
• A. True
• B. False
• Ans: A
CHAPTER N0 - 05
BASICS OF HACKING (CO5)

• 1. Ethical Hacking is also known as _____
• A. Black Hat Hacking.
• B. White Hat Hacking.
• C. Encryption.
• D. None of these.
• Ans. B
• 2. Tool(s) used by ethical hacker_____.
• A. Scanner
• B. Decoder
• C. Proxy
• D. All of these.
• Ans. D
• 3. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds_____.
• A. Strengths.
• B. Weakness.
• C. A &B
• Ans. B
• 4. Ethical hacking will allow to____ all the massive security breaches.
• A. Remove.
• B. Measure.
• C. Reject.
• Ans. B
• 5. Sequential step hackers use are: _ _ _ _. A. Maintaining Access.
• B. Reconnaissance , C. Scanning. , D. Gaining Access.
• A. B, C, D, A
• B. B, A, C, D
• C. A, B, C, D
• D. D, C, B, A
• Ans. A
• 6. ______ is the art of exploiting the human elements to gain access to the
authorized user.
• A. Social Engineering.
• B. IT Engineering.
• C. Ethical Hacking.
• Ans. A
• 7. Which hacker refers to ethical hacker?
• A. Black hat hacker.
• B. White hat hacker.
• C. Grey hat hacker.
• Ans. B
• 8. The term cracker refers to_____
• A. Black hat hacker.
• B. White hat hacker.
• C. Grey hat hacker.
• Ans. A
• 9. Who described a dissertation on fundamentals of hacker’s attitude?
• A. G. Palma.
• B. Raymond.
• C. Either.
• D. Jhon Browman.
• Ans. B
• 10.Computer Hackers have been in existence for more than a____.
• A. Decade.
• B. Year.
• C. Century
• D. Era.
• Ans. C
• 11.Hackers do hack for?
• A. Fame.
• B. Profit.
• C. Revenge.
• Ans. D
• 12.The intent of ethical hacker is to discover vulnerabilities from a_____ point of
view to better secure system.
• A. Victims.
• B. Attackers.
• C. Both A & B
• Ans. B
• 13.Security audits are usually based on___
• A. Entries.
• B. Checklists.
• C. Both A & B
• Ans. B
• 14.Ethical hacking consist of _______
• A. Penetration testing.
• B. Intrusion testing.
• C. Red teaming.
• D. All of the above.
• Ans. D
• 15._______ is a person who find and exploits the weakness in computer system.
• A. Victim
• B. Hacker
• C. Developer
• Ans. B
• 16. A white hat hacker is the one who _____
• A. Fix identifies weakness
• B. Steal the data
• C. Identifies the weakness and leave message to owner
• Ans. A
• 17.A black hat hacker is the one who _______
• Ans. B
• 18. A grey hat hacker is the one who_______
• Ans. C
• 19. Keeping information secured can protect an organization image and save
and organization lot of money
• A. True
• B. False
• Ans. A
• 20.Information is a one of the most valuable assets of organization
• A. True
• B. False
• Ans. A
• 21. To catch a thief, think like _____
• A. Police
• B. Forensics
• C. Thief
• D. Hacker
• Ans. C
• 22._______can create false feeling of safety
• A. Firewall
• B. Encryption
• C. VNPs
• Ans. D
• 23.______ exploits that involves manipulating people and user even your self are
the greatest vulnerability within any computer
• A. Nontechnical attacks
• B. Network infrastructure attack
• C. Operating system attack
• D. Application and other specialized attack
• Ans. A
• 24.Connecting into network through a rogue modem attached to computer behind a
firewall is an example of ____-
• Ans. B
• 25.______ comprise of large portion of hacker attacks simply because every
computer has one and so well know exploits can be used against them
• Ans. C
• 26.______ should be done before ethical hacking process. A.
• Data gathering.
• B. Attacking
• C. Planning
• D. Research
• Ans. C
• 27.Which permission is necessary before ethical hacking?
• A. Written permission.
• B. Decision maker permission
• C. Privacy permission
• D. Risk permission.
• Ans. A
• 28. Which tool is used to crack the password?
• A. Nmap
• B. LC4
• C. ToneLOC
• D. Nessus
• Ans. B
• 29. Which tool is used for depth analysis of a web application?
• A. Whisker
• B. Super scan
• C. Nikto
• D. Kismet
• Ans. A
• 30. Which tool is used to encrypt Email?
• A. WebInspect
• B. QualyGuard
• C. PGP (pretty good privacy)
• Ans. C
• 31.Malicious attacker often think like?
• A. Thieves
• B. Kidnapper
• C. Both A & B
• Ans. C
• 32.Which hacker try to distribute political or social message through their work?
• A. Black hat hacker
• B. Hactivist
• C. Script kiddes
• D. White hat hacker
• Ans. B
• 33._______ are part of organized crime on internet.
• A. Criminal
• B. Antinationalist
• C. Hacker for hire
• Ans. C
• 34. Which magazines releases the latest hacking methods?
• A. 2600
• B. Hackin9
• C. PHRACK
• Ans. D
• 35. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is
• A. a good
• B. not so good
• C. very good social engineering practice
• D. a bad
• Ans. D
• 36. ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools
• A. Automated apps
• B. Database software
• C. Malware
• D. Worms
•
• Ans. C
• 37. Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior
permission of senior authority is a crime.
• A. True
• B. False
• Ans. A
• 38. A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the ___________ &
___________ requirements of a firm while evaluating the security postures.
• A. privacy and security
• B. rules and regulations
• C. hacking techniques
• D. ethics to talk to seniors
• Ans. A
• 39. The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of
personal data.
• A. stealing
• B. disclosure
• C. deleting
• D. hacking
• Ans. B
• 40. Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key
• A. Know the nature of the organization
• B. Characteristics of work done in the firm
• C. System and network
• D. Type of broadband company used by the firm
• Ans. D
CHAPTER NO - 06
TYPES OF HACKING (CO6)

• 1. SNMP stands for_____
• A. Simple Network Messaging Protocol
• B. Simple Network Mailing Protocol
• C. Simple Network Management Protocol
• D. Simple Network Master Protocol
• Ans: C
• 2. Which of the following tool is used for Network Testing and port
Scanning______
• A. NetCat
• B. SuperScan
• C. NetScan
• D. All of above
• Ans: D
• 3. Banner grabbing is used for
• A. White Hat Hacking
• B. Black Hat Hacking
• C. Grey Hat Hacking
• D. Script Kiddies
• Ans: A
• 4. An attacker can create an________attack by sending hundreds or thousands of
e-mails a with very large attachments.
• A. Connection Attack
• B. Auto responder Attack
• C. Attachment Overloading Attack
• Ans: B
• 5. Which of the following tool is used for Windows for network queries from DNS
lookups to trace routes?
• A. Sam Spade
• B. SuperScan
• C. NetScan
• D. Netcat
• Ans: A
• 6. Which tool is used for ping sweeps and port scanning?
• A. Netcat
• B. SamSpade
• C. SuperScan
• Ans: C
• 7. Which of the following tool is used for security checks as port scanning and
firewall testing?
• A. Netcat
• B. Nmap
• C. Data communication
• D. Netscan
• Ans: A
• 8. What is the most important activity in system cracking?
• A. Information gathering
• B. Cracking password
• C. Escalating privileges
• D. Covering tracks
• Ans: B
• 9. Which Nmap scan is does not completely open a TCP connection?
• A. SYN stealth scan
• B. TCP scan
• C. XMAS tree scan
• D. ACK scan
• Ans: A
• 10.Key loggers are form of
• A. Spyware
• B. Shoulder surfing
• C. Trojan
• D. Social engineering
• Ans: A
• 11. Nmap is abbreviated as Network Mapper.
• A. True
• B. False
• Ans: A
• 12. _________is a popular tool used for discovering network as well as security
auditing.
• A. Ettercap
• B. Metasploit
• C. Nmap
• D. Burp Suit
• Ans: C
• 13. Which of this Nmap do not check?
• A. Services different hosts are offering
• B. On what OS they are running.
• C. What kind of firewall in use?
• D. What type of antivirus in use?
• Ans: D
• 14. What is purpose of Denial of Service attacks?
• A. Exploit weakness in TCP/IP attack.
• B. To execute a trojan horse on a system.
• C. To overload a system so it is no longer operational.
• D. To shutdown services by turning them off.
• Ans: C
• 15. What are the some of the most common vulnerabilities that exist in a network
system?
• A. Changing manufacturer, or recommended settings of newly installed application.
• B. Additional unused feature on commercial software package.
• C. Utilizing open source application code.
• D. Balancing security and ease of use of system.
• Ans: B
• 16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ethical hacker?
• A. Excellent knowledge of Windows.
• B. Understands the process of exploiting network vulnerabilities.
• C. Patience, persistence and perseverance.
• D. Has the highest level of security for the organization.
• Ans: D
• 17. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s credentials is called
the _____________ mode of ethical hacking.
• A. Local networking
• B. Social engineering
• C. Physical entry
• D. Remote networking
• Ans: A
• 18. The first phase of hacking an IT system is compromise of which foundation of
security?
• A. Availability
• B. Confidentiality
• C. Integrity
• D. Authentication
• Ans: B
• 19. Why would a ping sweep be used?
• A. To identify live systems
• B. To locate live systems
• C. To identify open ports
• D. To locate firewalls
• Ans: A
•
• 20. What are the port states determined by Nmap?
• A. Active, inactive, standby
• B. Open, half-open, closed
• C. Open, filtered, unfiltered
• D. Active, closed, unused
• Ans: C
• 21. What port does Telnet use?
• A. 22
• B. 80
• C. 20
• D. 23
• Ans: D
• 22. Which of the following will allow foot printing to be conducted without
detection?
• A. PingSweep
• B. Traceroute
• C. War Dialers
• D. ARIN
• Ans: D
• 23. Performing hacking activities with the intent on gaining visibility for an unfair
situation is called ________.
• A. Cracking
• B. Analysis
• C. Hacktivism
• D. Exploitation
• Ans: C
• 24. Why would a hacker use a proxy server?
• A. To create a stronger connection with the target.
• B. To create a ghost server on the network.
• C. To obtain a remote access connection
• D. To hide malicious activity on the network
• Ans: A
• 25. Which phase of hacking performs actual attack on a network or system?
• A. Reconnaissance
• B. Maintaining Access
• C. Scanning
• D. Gaining Access
• Ans: D
• 26. Sniffing is used to perform ______________ fingerprinting.
• A. Passive stack
• B. Active stack
• C. Passive banner grabbing
• D. Scanned
• Ans: A
• 27. Services running on a system are determined by _____________.
• A. The system’s IP address
• B. The Active Directory
• C. The system’s network name
• D. The port assigned
• Ans: D
• 28. What are the types of scanning?
• A. Port, network, and services
• B. Network, vulnerability, and port
• C. Passive, active, and interactive
• D. Server, client, and network
• Ans: B
• 29. Enumeration is part of what phase of ethical hacking?
• A. Reconnaissance
• B. Maintaining Access
• C. Gaining Access
• D. Scanning
• Ans: C
• 30. ______________ framework made cracking of vulnerabilities easy like point
and click.
• A. Net
• B. Metasploit
• C. Zeus
• D. Ettercap
• Ans: B

Combine 0 ETI

Uploaded by

Combine 0 ETI

Uploaded by

The Shirpur Education Society’s

R. C. Patel Polytechnic, Shirpur

3. The core components and constituents of AI are derived from

4. Which one is the example of narrow AI

D. All of the above

5. These machines can store the past experiences or data.

6. Which one is the type of AI based on Capabilities

7. The peripheral entities are on the __________

8. Which one is the compound components of AI

D. All of the above

9. Which is the model of mental states

10. NLP stands for

A. Neural language processing

B. Natural language processing

D. Neural Language Programming

11. The components of gross level is

12.The Mean of cognition is

C. Learning process through knowledge

14. Who is the “Father” of artificial intelligence?

15. Which one is the first course outcome of this subject

A. Interpret Robotics Concepts.

B. Acquire Knowledge of Emerging Trends

C. Describe AI, Machine Learning and deep learning

D. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation.

16. Which is the second course outcome of this subject

A. Interpret Robotics Concepts.

B. Interpret IOT Concepts.

C. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation.

D. Describe Evidence Handling Procedures

A. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation

B. Interpret IOT Concepts

C. Describe Evidence Handling Procedures

D. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation

18. Which is the Fourth course outcome of this subject

A. Describe Evidence Handling Procedures.

B. Compare models of digital forensic Investigation

C. Interpret Robotics Concepts.

19.Machine Learning is_________________

A. a branch of science,thet they automatically learn and improve with experience.

20.Supervised Learning is______________

21.___________ is the example of supervised learning

D. classifying E-mail as spam

22.___________ is the example of unsuperviesd learning

B. labelling web pages

23.SVM stands for_________

A. Secured voting machine

B. secured support system

24. Online advertisement is the application of___________

25.To become intelligent _____________is needed

D. All of the above

26. The performance of an agent can be improved by __________

27. Which of the following could be the approaches to Artificial Intelligence?

a. Strong Artificial Intelligence

28. An Artificial Neural Network Is based on?

a. Strong Artificial Intelligence approach

29. The Face Recognition system is based on?

a. Strong Artificial Intelligence approach

a. Strong Artificial Intelligence approach

a. Construction of plans in real time dynamic systems

32. LISP was created by---------------

33. What is Artificial intelligence?

a. Putting your intelligence into Computer

36. What is CISC?

a. Computing instruction set complex

37. Which of the following are comprised within AI?

40. Which of the following is not a goal of AI?

41. Embedded System is…..

42. Sensors are used for

a. To measure digital quantity

43. The function of Actuator is

44. Which one of the following is not the ES hardware

45. ES operating system is also known as

46. What is state space?

a. The whole problem

47. A production rule consists of

49. Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?