Communicable Disease - Community Health Nursing
Communicable Disease - Community Health Nursing
Communicable Disease - Community Health Nursing
1. It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through different
modes of transmission:
a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease
3. Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as:
a. Tell tall signs
b. Pathognomonic sign
c. Distinctive sign
d. Fastigium sign
4. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial?
a. When infection occurred upon admission
b. When infection is acquired before discharge
c. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital
d. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay
7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted in the
hospital?
a. S. aureus
b. P. aeruginosa
c. E. Coli
d. H. influenza
8. The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when the
body is immunocompromised:
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Nosocomial infection
c. True infection
d. Parasitic infection
9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is:
a. Communicable
b. Infectious
c. Contagious
d. Virulent
10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and
contagious?
a. Gonorrhea is infectious and influenza is contagious
b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious
c. Both are contagious and infectious
d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious but only infectious
12. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host:
a. Causative agent
b. Reservoir
c. Bacteria
d. Carrier
14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000 bacteria to
initiate disease. This property of microorganism is known as:
a. Viability
b. Toxigenecity
c. Virulence
d. Invasiveness
15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what property of
the causative agent?
a. Dose
b. Antigenicity
c. Specificity
d. Mode of action
16. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some communicable
disease is known as:
a. Patient
b. Carrier
c. Contact
d. Suspect
17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when they
lyse themselves (suicide bomber):
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and exhibits its
harmful effect by the inflammation of the intestinal tract:
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and are
self-limiting. Also known as the ultimate parasite:
a. Virus
b. Protozoa
c. Amoeba
d. Bacteria
20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented. This is
done by:
a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room
b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or window
c. Positioning the bed 1 meter away from each other
d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible.
21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried through air
current in the form of droplet nuclei, the mode of transmission is:
a. Airborne
b. Droplet
c. Pressurized
d. Fomites
23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir:
a. Mechanical vector
b. Biological vector
c. Accidental host
d. Intermediate vector
24. Which of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease?
a. A 30 year old male who is alcoholic
b. A pregnant mother
c. A healthy sexual worker
d. A patient who is discharged from the hospital
25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic signs of a specific disease is present is:
a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
c. Invasion/ fastigium period
d. Convalescent period
26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs intermittently or on and off in different parts of the country. This is pattern
of disease occurrence is known as:
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. Pandemic
27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds of hamburger eaters in the United States:
a. Sin Nombre Coli
b. E. coli O157:H7
c. Colicollus coli
d. Legionairre’s coli
28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quarternary
30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part of IEC that
involves behavioral change?
a. Information
b. Education
c. Communication
d. Integration
31. An information learned and caused a change in behavior of the client will only be effective if:
a. Able to apply everyday
b. If shared with other members of the family or even the society
c. If kept and considered as own
d. Written and well documented
32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced intradermally at right deltoid region?
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. Measles
d. Hep B
33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the freezer?
a. Measles
b. DPT
c. BCG
d. Hep B
34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is:
a. At birth, 6 weeks after the 1st dose and 8 weeks after the 2nd dose
b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in each doses
c. At birth with 4 weeks interval
d. Given together with DPT and OPV
35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT?
a. Give TSB and paracetamol, as ordered.
b. Do not give the second dose of DPT.
c. Give the child DTaP instead.
d. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and developed
pertussis with the first dose.
37. Environmental sanitation refers to the study of all factors in man’s physical environment which may exercise or may
not exercise deleterious effect on his health and well-being. Which of the following is not included?
a. Safe and Water Supply
b. Proper Excreta and Waste Disposal
c. Food Sanitation
d. Sexual worker’s occupation sanitation program
38. The four R’s of food sanitation includes all of the following, except:
a. Right Source
b. Right Price
c. Right Storage
d. Right Cooking
41. Food establishments in the community shall be appraised as to their sanitary conditions. Which of the following is
important for the cook or cook helper to have?
a. Inspection
b. Approval of all food sources
c. Updated health services
d. Compliance to health certificate
42. A patient is removed from the other persons because he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This kind of
isolation is called as:
a. Strict isolation
b. Contact isolation
c. Source isolation
d. Reverse isolation
44. The restriction of activities of well person that has been exposed to a case of communicable disease to prevent
disease transmission during the incubation period but without limitation to movements:
a. Complete quarantine
b. Source isolation
c. Surveillance
d. Separation
45. A patient with typhoid fever and have several bouts of diarrheal stool prompts a nurse to use what kind of
precaution:
a. Contact
b. Reverse Isolation
c. Drainage precaution
d. Enteric precaution
48. A patient with suspected tuberculosis has been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is not appropriate?
a. Droplet precautions
b. Source isolation
c. Standard precautions
d. Use of a type of N95 respirator by the health care provider
49. Which of the following precautions doesn’t require any private room?
a. Reverse isolation
b. Strict isolation
c. Droplet precaution
d. Universal precaution
51. It is the killing of microorganisms by chemical and physical means. It can be done through dry heat, moist heat and
radiation:
a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Sanitation
d. Disinfestation
52. You are caring a client in isolation. After nursing care is done what will you remove first after handling the patient?
a. Mask
b. Gown
c. Gloves
d. Bonnet
53. The process of weakening microorganism through consecutive steps of freezing and dessication. This process is used
for making vaccine:
a. Use of formaldehyde
b. Lyophilization
c. Attenuation
d. Moist heat application
54. The process of rendering surface that has been heavily exposed to infectious pathogen safe to handle is known as:
a. Disinfection
b. Decontamination
c. Sterilization
d. Anti-septic
55. When a nurse uses alcohol on the client’s skin before an injection, she uses what kind of chemical-removing-
microorganism?
a. Antiseptic
b. Disinfectant
c. Decontaminant
d. Antimicrobial
56. The removal of stains and any contaminants from a kitchen utensils done at home is also known as:
a. Sanitization
b. Sanitation
c. Decontamination
d. Disinfection
57. The client with tuberculosis is expelling large amount of sputum. The nurse, every time the client coughs, removes the
soiled linen and discards the tissues and burns it. This technique is what kind of disinfection?
a. Terminal
b. Concurrent
c. Longitudinal
d. Post-expulsion
58. The process of filling animal forms through use of gaseous agent.
a. Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS)
b. Disinfestation
c. Sanitation
d. Gaseous Desentisization
59. Medical hand washing can be done for ___ and with elbows ___ :
a. 10 – 15 seconds: down
b. 10 – 15 seconds: up
c. 3 - 5 minutes: down
d. 3 – 5 minutes: up
67. Which of the following management neutralized the toxins present in the body with tetanus?
a. Anti-tetanus toxin
b. Tetanus immunoglobulin
c. Penicillin
d. Equine anti toxin
71. Wounds with patients with suspected tetanus infection is best cleaned by:
a. Soap and water
b. 3% hydrogen peroxide
c. Iodophor
d. Cydex
74. Which of the following causative agents of meningitis which is common among children?
a. Hemophilus influenza
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Meningococcus
d. E. coli
75. The drug of choice for this meningitis causative agent is Penicillin:
a. Hemophilus influenza
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Meningococcus
d. Clostridium tetani
76. Meningoccocemia is a result of the systemic profileration of the microorganism in the body characterized by except:
a. Petechial rash
b. Hypotension
c. DIC
d. Convulsion
77. Meningitis is the characterized by flexion of the hip and knee while in supine position, when neck is flexed. This is
known as:
a. Kernig’s sign
b. Brudzinski’s sign
c. Opisthotonus
d. Nuchal rigidity
78. Chemoprophylaxis for meningitis includes which of the following pharmacological intervention for 2 days and 2 dose
and is contraindicated for pregnant mothers and taking contraceptives:
a. Rifampicin
b. Penicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Tetracycline
80. The following management decreases tendency of increased intra-cranial pressure, except:
a. Avoid valsalva maneuver
b. Administer anti-diuretics
c. Lessen environmental stimuli
d. Elevate head part
82. West Nile Encephalitis and St. Louis Encephalitis are mosquito-related encephalitis and is caused by:
a. Flavivuris
b. Togavirus
c. Bunyavirus
d. Paramyxovirus
83. It is a kind of encephalitis that resulted from complication of communicable disease of viral origin due to ascending
infection:
a. Secondary encephalitis
b. Amoebic encephalitis
c. Toxic encephalitis
d. Mosquito-borne encephalitis
85. The only mosquito borne encephalitis that have vaccine made from inactivated brain of mouse, given for three doses
of I cc:
a. Australian X Encephalitis
b. Equine Encephalitis
c. Japanese B encephalitis
d. St. Louise encephalitis
86. Mad cow disease is a kind of encephalitis and medically called as:
a. Kuru
b. Creudzfeldt Jakob Disease
c. Scrapie
d. Bovine spongiform encephalitis
87. Amoebic encephalitis is brought by a microorganism from waters containing organic waste and enters body through
nasal passages, olfactory nerve reaching the CNS. What is this amoeba?
a. N. fowleri
b. Acanthamoeba
c. Plasmodium ovale
d. T. brucei
88. Increase ICP among infants is manifested primarily by all of the following, in exception of:
a. High-pitched cry
b. Bulging of fontanels
c. Decrease pulse rate
d. Projectile vomiting
89. The following are the diagnostic procedures for encephalitis, except:
a. EEG
b. Blood culture
c. Nose and throat swab
d. Lumbar puncture
90. Which of the following intervention can be a preventive measure against encephalitis?
a. Avoid nasopharyngeal secretions from infected individuals with toxic encephalitis
b. CLEAN program of DOH
c. Influenza virus vaccine
d. Proper food handling
93. In 1955, Jonas Salk introduced this vaccine to prevent poliomyelitis caused by Sabin’s vaccine?
a. OPV
b. IPV
c. OPT
d. OPM
97. How many days will it take to have an irreversible paralysis among client with Poliomyelitis?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 100 days
98. Which kind of paralysis that affects the cranial nerves and respiratory muscles?
a. Spinal
b. Bulbar
c. Bulbo-spinal
d. Laundry’s paralysis
99. Diagnostic procedure for poliomyelitis includes all of the following, except:
a. Muscle Grading Scale
b. Electroencephalogram
c. Lumbar puncture
d. Stool exam
111. Which of the following neutralizes virus and said to be safe if given to human bitten by an infected dog?
a. ERIG, 40 IU/kg
b. HRIG , 20 IU/kg
c. HyperRab 40 IU/kg
d. Imogam 60 IU/kg
112. If an animal dies after 10 days, the following are the considerations, except:
a. Animal should not be cooked for food
b. Keep the brain frozen
c. Send animal’s head immediately to the laboratory for the detection of Negri bodies
d. Put it in a cool dawg
113. Management for the wound includes all of the following, except:
a. 70 % alcohol antisepsis
b. Running water and soap cleaning
c. Suture site if wound is large to prevent excessive bleeding
d. Place blockage tie above the injury site
114. A wild animal if even though unprovoked bit, animal should be:
a. Observed for 10 days
b. Killed at once
c. Send to PAWS
d. Donated to Malabon Zoo
116. The causative agent of diphtheria manifest its infective property by:
a. Invasion in the throat by adhesion and initiates inflammatory response
b. Exotoxin kills leukocytes and forms congregation in the throat
c. Staying latent in the lungs after non-recognition of macrophages
d. Increase mucus production and impedes entry air going to lungs
117. The type of diphtheria where hoarseness of voice, DOB, and aphonia is observed:
a. Nasal
b. Pharyngeal
c. Laryngeal
d. Mucous membrane
118. What type of diphtheria is manifested where the client has exudative pseudomembrane on throat and vulva and
considered uncommon yet very dangerous?
a. Nasal
b. Pharyngeal
c. Laryngeal
d. Mucous membrane
119. Pharyngeal type of diphtheria with 2 cultures already sent to the laboratory must have a strict isolation for:
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 2 to 4 days
d. 14 days
120. Patients with diphtheria must have how many negative results should be taken to confirm absence of infection?
a. Three
b. Two
c. One
d. None, clinical sign is enough to confirm presence
122. Equine diphtheria anti-toxin must be given for patients with diphtheria:
a. After three positive result to nose and throat culture
b. Even without laboratory result
c. Together with penicillin or erythromycin to eliminate toxin that has already been absorbed
d. If not allergic to equine; otherwise, human equine anti-toxin must be given
123. If client is experiencing diphtheria, which of the following is a must at the client’s bedside?
a. Pair of scissors
b. Mechanical ventilator
c. Tracheostomy set
d. Bottle
124. Which of the following complications is likely to happen for clients with diphtheria?
a. Meningitis
b. Orchitis
c. Myocarditis
d. Gastro-intestinal affectations
125. Contact isolation is needed for client with what kind of diphtheria?
a. Nasal
b. Laryngeal
c. Cutaneous
d. Mucous membrane
126. Preventive measure against diphtheria is through vaccination. Which of the following considerations are not intended
for diphtheria vaccine?
a. 3 doses, given first at 6 weeks
b. Injected IM at deltoid region
c. Booster dose every two years especially for travelers
d. DPT antigen is a whole cell vaccine
128. Presence of whooping cough, increase thoracic pressure and involuntary micturition occurs on what stage of
pertussis?
a. Invasive
b. Spasmodic
c. Catarrhal
d. Convalescence
130. The client with Pertussis taking Penicillin is considered non-infective after:
a. Negative result on the laboratory test
b. Five days after continued therapy
c. Increased WBC up to 20 per cent
d. Absence of whooping cough
132. Patient with pertussis should be seggrated for 3 weeks from the appearance of paroxysmal cough through:
a. Contact isolation
b. Airborne isolation
c. Droplet isolation
d. Transmission based precaution
133. If a child experienced convulsion after a DPT immunization, which of the following intervention would the nurse do?
a. Give the next dose as scheduled
b. Give DTaP on the next dose
c. Give DT for the next dose
d. No vaccination on the next schedule
134. It is a acute and mutative highly communicable diseases that cause 20 M deaths (1918) rendering more mortality
than the World War I.
a. Malaria
b. Tuberculosis
c. AIDS
d. Influenza
135. The influenza virus is very virulent to those immunocompromised and extremes of age and has the ability to:
a. Reactivate after latent infection
b. Mutate and create another strain
c. Infiltrate other organs; hence, multiple organ failure
d. Affect gonads and may lead to sterility
136. Strain of influenza that is most severe and major cause of epidemics and endemics:
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
137. The drug of choice for influenza, especially for type A is:
a. Amantidine
b. Acyclovir
c. Zidovoudine
d. Zanamivir
138. Zanamivir (Reenza) and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) are both effective to influenza virus type:
a. A
b. B
c. Both A and B
d. Type C
143. The tuberculosis-causing microorganism can be transmitted through the following means, except:
a. Coughing, sneezing, singing
b. Direct invasion through mucus membrane or break in the skin
c. Feco-oral route
d. Unpasteurized milk or dairy products
144. Granuloma or tubercles that resist digestion and removal by macrophages are called:
a. Ghons complexes
b. Caseous necrosis
c. Consumption
d. Cavity
146. A tuberculosis patient have moderately advanced extent of disease progression if:
a. Lesions are demonstrated without excavation and confined to small part of one or both lungs
b. One or both lungs are involved with a total diameter of cavities less than 4 cm
c. Lesions are more than the volume of a single lung
d. Microorganisms traveled in the systemic circulation affecting only proximal organs
147. Which of the following TB category according to DOH, has a new smear negative PTB with minimal parenchymal
lesions on Chest X-ray?
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV
148. Immediate reporting of this category to the Regional Tuberculosis Program Center is a must:
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
d. Category IV
149. Which of the following signs and symptoms may prompt a patient to seek medical attention suspecting tuberculosis?
a. Chest pain
b. Afternoon fever
c. Cough for two weeks
d. Shortness of breath
152. Which of the following patient does not confirm positive test for Mantoux test?
a. 5 mm induration for those positive granuloma formation after CXR
b. 10 mm induration for those with DM, Renal Failure and hematological problem
c. 10 mm induration for those with sudden weight loss
d. 10 mm for HIV patient
153. Which of the following drug for TB is the only one in capsule form?
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Isoniazid
158. The best method of prevention of TB and leprosy especially among children is:
a. Taking INH for prophylaxis
b. Good nutrition
c. Healthy environment
d. BCG immunization
162. Which of the following food handling measures are said to be incorrect?
a. Boil food approximately reaching 60 degrees Celcius.
b. Avoid tasting unusual or foods with peculiar odor.
c. Sanitization is the process of disinfecting kitchen utensils.
d. Wash hand before, during and after food preparation.
163. According to WHO, the following are the keys on how to maintain safety of food, except:
a. Cook thoroughly
b. Use safe water
c. Separate raw and cook
d. Use hand sanitizer
TYPHOID FEVER
166. The causative agent of typhoid fever is:
a. Salmonella enterica
b. Salmonella typhosa
c. Salmonella enteritidis
d. Salmonella choleraesuis
169. Salmonella enterica / typhosa microorganism is virulent because which of the following mode of action?
a. Pushing itself from one cell to another by adhesin and actin tail
b. Attracts electrolytes and then expelled causing diarrhea
c. Burrowing to the Peyer’s patches of the small intestine
d. Penetrating the intestinal wall and travels systemically
170. The following clinical manifestations are observed during the fastidial stage, except:
a. Typhoid psychosis
b. Carphologia
c. Subsultus tendinum
d. Intestinal perforation
172. The following immunoglobulin findings indicate the early infection of typhoid fever:
a. Increase IgG
b. Increase IgM
c. No Ig increase
d. Increase in both IgG and IgM
173. The drug of choice for typhoid fever is:
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Ampicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Penicillin
174. Chloramphenicol is contraindicated for children in the United States because it may cause:
a. Liver cirrhosis
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Sterility
d. Blindness
177. The group of Shigella or dysentery bacillus that produces a Shiga toxin and is said to be the most virulent:
a. Shflesneri
b. Shboy-dii
c. Sh-dysenteriae
d. Sh-connei
178. The following are the means of transmitting Shigella or dysentery bacillus, except:
a. Feco-oral transmission
b. Contaminated water, milk and food
c. Droplet transmission
d. Transmission by fly
179. Which of the following nursing intervention in collecting stool specimen with Shigellosis?
a. Must be of sufficient amount to obtain accurate result, approximately one half of a drinking cup
b. 2 successive fecal sample twice a day
c. Must be sent in the laboratory at once
d. Must be refrigerated first to halt the growth of other microorganisms
180. The drug of choice for Shigellosis which is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimetropin:
a. Ampicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. Loperamide
183. During the collapse stage of cholera, the client will be experiencing what sign of dehydration which is considered also
a pathognomonic sign of cholera:
a. Marked mental depression
b. Sultus tendinum
c. Washerwoman’s sign
d. Rose spots on the abdomen
185. Cholera, dysentery and typhoid fever can be prevented by CDT immunization given deltoid area and gives:
a. 6 months immunity
b. 1 year immunity
c. 3 years immunity
d. 5 months immunity
188. The possible complication of amebiasis which is of greatest concern and most severe is:
a. Extraintestinal amebiasis
b. Dehydration
c. Hemorrhage
d. Shock
193. Patients with Paragonomiasis are misdiagnosed because it has this disease manifestation:
a. PTB
b. Diptheria
c. Pneumonia
d. Pertussis
199. Which of the following facts about PSP’s causative agent is not true?
a. Caused by Dinoflagellates
b. Common term is plankton
c. Less than 30 kinds of 2000 varieties ca cause poisoning
d. Increases because of continuous high temperature and/or summer
201. Which of the following facts about shellfish with poison is not true:
a. It contains a toxin known as Pyromidium
b. The toxin affects the CNS primarily
c. It can be neutralize by vinegar or any acidic solution
d. It can tolerate extreme heat and temperature
202. Classical clinical manifestations of PSP are the following, in exception to:
a. Paralysis
b. Ataxia
c. Dysphagia
d. Urticaria
203. Which of the following victims would probably have the highest rate of survival after ingesting a poisonous shellfish?
a. Those who have eaten pamaypay, the least poisonous shellfish
b. Those who have survived the first 12 hours after ingestion
c. Those who have drank immediately sea water to counterpart shellfish’s poison
d. Those who urged and successfully vomited
204. A person who have eaten and manifested signs and symptoms of PSP must first:
a. Drink decaffeinated coffee
b. Take the shellfish and let it be examined by the laboratory technicians to know antibiotic of choice.
c. Induce vomiting.
d. Take metronidazole, as ordered.
205. During the early stage of poisoning, let the client do which of the following first aid measures to neutralize toxin,
except?
a. Drinking pure coconut milk
b. Drinking milk
c. Drinking sodium bicarbonate solution
d. Drinking vinegar
209. The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infection in the Philippines are, except:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichuris trichuria
c. Hookworms (Ancylostoma duodonale and Necator americanus)
d. Oxyuris vermicularis
217. Threadworms are different from other roundworms because it has the following capacity, except:
a. Reproduce even without host
b. Eggs hatch into larvae in the intestine
c. Have an increase viability form known as the rhabdozoite
d. Eggs are the infective stage
221. Tapeworm or flatworms are found in fish, beef and pork. Tapeworm infection from pork is caused by:
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Taenia saginata
c. Taenia solium
d. Taenia baraziliense
222. Pinworms are embedded in the animal meat through what form?
a. Cysticerci
b. Proglottids
c. Rhabdozoites
d. Sporozoites
223. The most efficient and cost-effective method done to determine worm infection is:
a. Stool Exam
b. Scotch tape method
c. Direct fecal smear
d. Sigmoidoscopy
HEPATITIS
226. Considered AIDS’ twin, it is the 2nd leading cause of cancer, second to tobacco:
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
234. Diet of patients with a fulminant hepatitis includes all the following except:
a. small, frequent feedings
b. high CHO
c. increase CHON
d. high in vitamins, especially Vitamin B Complex
235. Which of the following is not nursing management intended to clients with hepatitis?
a. Relieve pruritus – warm, moist compress or emollient lotion
b. Health teaching – avoid alcohol
c. Isolation precaution
d. Administer medications as ordered (Corticosteroids, Liver protector – Essentiale)
237. Which of the following management is not included for the care of patients with integumentary problems?
a. Use calamine lotion
b. Administer anti-histamine
c. Trim nails and wear mittens among children
d. Wear constrictive clothing to alleviate itching
MEASLES
238. Measles is also known as, except:
a. Three-day measles
b. Rubeola
c. Little Red Disease
d. Morbili
241. The appearance of rashes of measles is characterized by all of the following, except:
a. Begins at the hairline and behind the ears
b. Appears at the trunk first (unifocal)
c. Desquamation occurs after rashes
d. Cephalocaudal appearance of rashes is observed
242. A complication of Measles wherein a defective virus enters the brain and causes seizure, paralysis and coma:
a. Bovine Spongiform Encephalitis
b. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis
c. Herpes Zoster
d. African Sleeping Sickness
245. Measles can be prevented by a vaccine known as MMR and is given during the:
a. 9th months
b. 15th month
c. 12th month
d. 14th month
GERMAN MEASLES
246. German measles is also known as, except:
a. Rubella
b. Rubeola
c. Roseola
d. Rothein
247. Characteristics of German measles rash include all of the following, except:
a. Pink-red maculopapular rash
b. Rashes are slightly bigger than measles
c. Rashes appears on face going to the trunk to the extremities
d. Rash disappearance is characterized by fine flaking
248. Avoidance of German measles is a must for pregnant mothers specifically for the first trimester because of its possible
effect to the baby. This is observed because:
a. The virus produces inflammatory response that is not conducive for the zygote.
b. The virus can readily pass through the placenta and produce its effects to the fetus
c. It causes abortion
d. It dilates the cervix that causes propulsion of the fetus.
249. The following are the possible complication of German measles, except:
a. Congenital anomaly
b. Otitis media
c. Bronchopneumonia
d. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis
CHICKEN POX
250. The causative agent of chicken pox is:
a. Herpes simplex
b. Human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus)
c. Paramyxovirus
d. Morbili virus
251. The possible sequelae of chicken pox when reactivated during the later years if life is:
a. Pneumonia
b. Peripheral Neuropathy
c. Cataract
d. Shingles
252. The appearance of rashes among clients with chicken pox start from the trunk and is initially characterized by what
kind of lesion?
a. Maculae
b. Papulae
c. Vesicle
d. Pustule
254. Aspirin is not given for patient with Chicken pox to prevent:
a. Creutzfeld-Jakob Syndrome
b. Reye’s syndrome
c. Herpes Zoster
d. Postherpetic neuralgia
255. Which of the following assessment procedures will diagnose chicken pox?
a. Varicella Zoster Ig is more than 10
b. Physical assessment
c. Fecalysis
d. CSF analysis on the 2nd day
256. The burning pain experienced along the cluster of skin vesicles, along courses of peripheral sensory nerves
experienced by those with shingles is called:
a. Postherpetic neuralgia
b. Herpetic Blisters
c. Dermatologic pain
d. Shingle’s pain
257. Involvement of the facial nerve in herpes zoster with facial paralysis, hearing loss, loss of taste in half of the tongue
and skin lesions around the ear and ear canal is known as:
a. Ramsay-hunt syndrome
b. Cushing’s sydrome
c. Psychotic syndrome
d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
258. The first disease where microorganism is discovered through the ages and in the bible:
a. Leprosy
b. Cholera
c. Typhus
d. Bubonic plague
259. Multidrug therapy was first introduced in the Philippines through a pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in:
a. 1985
b. 1987
c. 1989
d. 1991
260. MDT was implemented nationwide after the successful pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in:
a. 1985
b. 1987
c. 1989
d. 1991
261. Leprosy is still a health problem among 4 provinces in the Philippines, except:
a. Ilocos region
b. Basilan
c. Sulu
d. Aparri
262. Which of the following leprosy type indicates skin lesions that are sharply demarcated and bilaterally symmetrical?
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline
263. In this type of leprosy, nodules, papules and macules are diffuse, infiltrations are bilaterally symmetrical, numerous
and extensive, and crusting of the nasal mucosa, obstructed breathing and epistaxis occurs.
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline
264. Leprosy type with hypopigmented macule with ill defined borders:
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline
266. Paucubacillary is a non-infectious type of leprosy that is treated for how many months?
a. 6 to 9 months
b. 24 to 30 months
c. 12 to 24 months
d. 8 to 16 months
267. Which of the following manifestations is not considered a late sign of leprosy:
a. Anhydrosis
b. Lagopthalmos
c. Madarosis
d. Gynecomastia
269. The use of two or more drugs for the treatment of leprosy and considered as a public health program:
a. MDT
b. DOTS
c. IMCI
d. MBS
270. A person is considered non-infectious after undergoing how many weeks of MDT?
a. Three weeks
b. One week
c. After the complete treatment of the Paucibacillay or Multibacillary treatment
d. Four weeks
271. How many blister pack should be completed for a patient with Multibacillary leprosy?
a. 6 blisters packs for a maximum period of nine months
b. 12 blister packs to be taken within a maximum period of 18 months
c. 6 blister packs for a maximum period of 18 months
d. 12 blister packs to be taken within nine months
274. A negative slit skin smear requires a single dose of the following drugs except:
a. Ofloxacin
b. Rifampicin
c. Clofazimine
d. Minocycline
275. The drug that has a side effect of skin discoloration is:
a. Clofazimine
b. Rifampicin
c. Dapsone
d. Streptomycin
276. Clofazimine is given how many times for a patient with Paucibacillary leprosy:
a. Once a month then daily
b. Once a month only
c. Daily
d. None
277. Rifampicin in both Multibacillary and Paucibacillary treatment is given once a day with how many mg is
recommended for a child with leprosy?
a. 600 mg
b. 450 mg
c. 100 mg
d. 50 mg
278. Should the patient fail to complete the regimen prescribed for MB, the patient should continue treatment until how
many blister packs are consumed?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 18
d. 24
280. The disease that is the most common concern in the Philippines is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomoniasis
281. The leading mode of transmission of HIV and STI in the Philippines is:
a. Sharing needles for injecting drug use
b. Sexual contact
c. Vertical transmission
d. Blood transfusion
GONORRHEA
283. The pathognomonic sign of gonorrhea is:
a. Nocturnal ani
b. Gleet
c. Dyspareunia
d. Chancre
286. Neisseria gonorrhea and Treponema pallidum is contracted only during sexual intercourse because:
a. These microorganisms need physical contact to transfer from one another.
b. These microorganisms love heat and grow fast when body temperature is high.
c. These microorganisms are active only during sexual intercourse.
d. These microorganisms possess the ability to penetrate only during sexual contact.
287. Neisseria gonorrhea have the ability to be transferred from the infective male going to the partner through:
a. Adhesion of the microorganism to the sperm during expulsion
b. Enterotoxin production that is transmitted by the sperm
c. Penile contact to the mucosa of the vagina transmits the microorganism
d. Oral and anal sex even without withdrawal
288. The female who contracted the microorganism may have sterility because:
a. Microorganism attacks the ovaries and kills egg cells
b. Endotoxin paralyze cilia in the fallopian tube
c. The microorganism clogs in the cervical opening preventing sperm to enter
d. Uterus keeps on contracting expulsing sperm away due to toxins produced by the microorganism
291. Which of the following are the possible complications of gonorrhea, except?
a. PID
b. Arthritis
c. Kidney damage
d. Liver cirrhosis
295. The presence of rashes, where the blood vessels are severely damaged, is an indicator that the stage of syphilis is now
at what stage?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary
296. Syphilis microorganism is sensitive with antibiotics, specifically a single injection of:
a. Tetracycline
b. Benzathine Penicillin
c. Vancomycin
d. Metronifazole
297. The stage when a syphilis-infected individual remains infectious but not to other people:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary
298. The only sexually transmitted disease that may cause insanity is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Nonspecific vaginitis
299. The disease that manifests and same microbial invasion mechanism like that of Chylamydia and can only be
differentiated through culture test is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Herpes simplex
301. One of the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy brought by a sexually transmitted disease is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. Chylamydia
d. Herpes simplex
303. The distinguishing characteristic of vaginal discharge of those with is Trichomoniasis is:
a. White-greenish discharge with fish like odor
b. Cheesy like discharge
c. Whitish with red spots discharge
d. Vinegar smelling greenish discharge
304. The medicine of choice for female who are infected with Trichomonas vaginalis is?
a. Metronidazole
b. Tetracycline
c. Penicillin
d. Erythromycin
307. Which of the following may likely contribute to the development of Candidiasis, except?
a. Cancer
b. Diabetes
c. Broad spectrum antibiotics
d. Hereditary factors
310. Herpes simplex type that is transmitted through kissing, sharing kitchen utensils and/or sharing towels:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Latent type
d. Type 3
311. Herpes simplex type that causes minor rash, itching, muscular pain and burning sensation is:
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Latent type
d. Type 3
312. The leading sexually transmitted disease among industrialized countries is:
a. Herpes simplex
b. Syphilis
c. Gonorrhea
d. Candidiasis
313. The first name for the end stage of HIV infection and coined on 1981 is:
a. Gay-related immunodeficiency syndrome
b. Hypo-immunity syndrome
c. Acquired immune deficiency disease
d. Venereal disease
314. The year when Philippines had its first case of AIDS:
a. 1983
b. 1984
c. 1985
d. 1986
317. The period where no manifestations are observed for patient infected with HIV and laboratory results shows no
remarkable immune system defect?
a. Sero-conversion period
b. Cell-mediated period
c. Fastigium period
d. Early asymptomatic period
318. How many times would a laboratory technician to withdraw blood sample from a patient to satisfy ELISA and Western
Blot diagnostic procedure?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
319. The golden standard for confirming a positive individual infected with HIV:
a. ELISA
b. Western Blot
c. Immunosorbent test
d. Fluorescent Antibody test
320. A patient infected with HIV is said to be on its late stage when his/her CD4 cells are:
a. Below 200 cells/mm3
b. Below 300 cells/mm3
c. Below 400 cells/mm3
d. Below 100 cells/mm3
324. The leading cause of death among patients with AIDS is:
a. Herpes Simplex
b. Candidiasis
c. Tuberculosis
d. AIDS-related Dementia
325. An enzyme of an HIV that causes transformation of RNA to DNA is known as:
a. Protease
b. Reverse transcriptase
c. Integrase
d. Nuclease
326. The following are the consideration in taking good care of clients with HIV except:
a. Gloves should be worn when handling blood specimen, soiled linen or any body fluids.
b. Thermometer is washed with warm soapy water and soaks it with 40% alcohol for 10 minutes.
c. Avoid contact to open wound or lesions.
d. Universal precaution and body substance isolation is a must.
327. Blood spills should be cleaned up promptly with a disinfectant solution of:
a. Household bleach
b. Alcohol
c. Iodine
d. Hydrogen peroxide
328. Patients with AIDS are said to immunocompromised. Which of the following intervention is the nurse would likely
best perform to prevent further infection:
a. Administration of antibiotics, as ordered
b. Hand washing
c. Monitor for oral infection and meningitis
d. Always check laboratory records of WBC and CD4 cells
330. Client refused to answer some of the questions asked by the nurse during the assessment phase. What will the nurse
do?
a. Respect client’s inability to discuss problem
b. Encourage verbalizations until information is extracted
c. Let the patient sign a refusal slip
d. Report patient to DOH at once
331. According to the goals of Reproductive health, all are true, except,
a. Every pregnancy should be intended
b. Every birth should be healthy
c. Every women should be given condom to protect herself from STD and pregnancy
d. Every sex should be free of coercion and infection
332. The four C’s of STD management includes all of the following, except:
a. Condom
b. Contact-tracing
c. Counseling
d. Cooperation
333. Which of the management is included in the proposed strategy by the DOH to prevent mosquito-causing diseases
such as dengue and malaria?
a. Insecticide treated mosquito net
b. Breeding of larva-eating fish
c. Stream clearing
d. Use of OFF lotion to the skin
334. A mosquito net is said to be effective against mosquito, if the following characteristics is observed, except:
a. It is treated with pyethroid or pyethrinoids.
b. It must have 156 holes/ square inch.
c. It must be tuck under the bed or mat.
d. With a seal by the DOH, as inspected.
336. N-diethyl-D-toluamide is an effective chemical against mosquito because it provide protections for how many hours?
a. 24 hours
b. 4-12 hours
c. 12 to 24 hours
d. 2-3 hours only
337. The mosquito instead of biting distal humans , bits an animal proximal to it. This technique is also known as:
a. Chemoprophylaxis
b. Zooprophylaxis
c. Faunoprophylaxis
d. Malaria-dengue animal technique
338. A soap that is recommended by DOH that will propel mosquitoes away:
a. Safeguard
b. Lifebuoy
c. Likas Papaya
d. Lanzones soap
341. The first dengue case in the Philippines was reported last:
a. 1953
b. 1958
c. 1984
d. 1985
343. Among the viral strain of Dengue, the most common is, dengue virus type:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
344. The following are the vectors that can carry the dengue virus, except:
a. Culex fatigans
b. Aedes Aegypti
c. Aedes albopictus
d. Aedes poecilus
345. Characteristics of mosquito causing dengue includes all of the following, except:
a. Low flying mosquito
b. Bites at the lower extremities
c. Bites before sunrise and sunset
d. Breeds on a flowing water
347. Which of the following manifestations of the client, that according to WHO, may lead to definitive diagnosis of
Dengue Hemorrhagic fever, except:
a. Fever lasting 2-7 days
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Positive tourniquet test plus petechiae, ecchymoses, purpura
d. Abdominal pain plus joint fever
349. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of bleeding among clients with Dengue, except?
a. Hemoptysis
b. Melena
c. Hematochezia
d. Hematemesis
350. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate that the client is in the late stage of dengue infection?
a. Vomiting of blood
b. Herman’s sign
c. Hypotension, rapid weak pulse, narrow pulse pressure
d. Abdominal pain with bone pain
352. Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse consistently monitors to those patients with Dengue?
a. Troponin
b. Platelet count
c. Liver Enzymes
d. Viral count
353. Which of the following management are not included to patients with Dengue?
a. Administer Vitamin K.
b. Complete bed rest
c. Provide warmth to patients, if possible comforters.
d. Do not give aspirin in cases of fever.
354. Majority of patients with dengue are candidate for transfusion if their platelet level is:
a. Below 150
b. Below 100
c. Below 50
d. Below 25
355. To prevent hypovolemic shock for patients with dengue, the nurse understands that this management is aimed to
prevent such case:
a. Give ORS 75 ml/kg in 4 to 6 hours for children
b. Give ORESOL up to 2 to 3 L for children
c. Give one to three cups oral rehydration solution, in every bout
d. ORESOL will only be given to patients with those who are experiencing vomiting and diarrhea
356. In cases that the client is experiencing melena, what would be the most appropriate nursing response?
a. Provide ice chips
b. Ice bag over the abdomen
c. Low fat, low fiber diet
d. Assume dorsal recumbent position
357. Which of the following diet can be given to patient with Dengue?
a. DAT
b. Noodle soup
c. Pineapple and watermelon
d. NPO
358. Which of the following nursing intervention is best aimed against the prevention of dengue cases?
a. Insecticide use
b. Health education
c. Hand washing
d. Contact tracing
360. The Plasmodium species that is most common in the Philippines and accounts for 70% of all malarial cases:
a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
d. P. ovale
361. Which of the following species of plasmodium doesn’t exist in the Philippines?
a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
d. P. ovale
363. Which of the following vectors is the most common mosquito transmitting the Plasmodium species in the country?
a. Anopheles litoralis
b. Anopheles flavistoris
c. Anopheles balabacensis
d. Anopheles mangyanus
364. Plasmodium as an amoeba undergoes cycle. Which of the following is considered the definitive host of malaria?
a. Humans
b. Streams
c. Mosquito
d. Fly
365. What is the protozoan form that is present in the salivary glands of the mosquito?
a. Sporozoites
b. Merozoites
c. Thropozoites
d. Gametocytes
366. The protozoan stage present in the RBC, multiplies and causes lysis:
a. Sporozoites
b. Merozoites
c. Thropozoites
d. Gametocytes
367. The initial and primary site of merozoite multiplication is found in the:
a. Lungs
b. Kidneys
c. Liver
d. Gall bladder
369. Amazingly, patients with malaria have a cycle of cold, hot and diaphoretic stage. Fever is evident in a particular period
of time and not all through the disease process because:
a. During febrile stage toxins are present.
b. During febrile stage, the microorganisms simultaneously reproduce.
c. During febrile stage, iron is sequestered by the liver.
d. During febrile stage, the gametocytes are produced.
370. A diagnostic procedure that is a must in every case of Malaria in a certain community:
a. Malarial Blood Smear
b. Quantitative Buffy Coat
c. ELISA
d. Nocturnal Blood Examination
373. Which of the following health teachings will be included if the patient is taking chloroquine?
a. Advise patient that the urine may turn rust brown in color.
b. It should be given before meals.
c. Can be given even before C and S is completed or confirmed.
d. Frequent ambulation is required when taking the medication.
375. Causative agent of Filariasis that accounts for 90% of all the cases:
a. Wuchureria bancrofti
b. Brugia malayi
c. Brugia timori
d. Oncomelania quadrasi
376. The following regions in the Philippines, where Filariasis is said to be endemic are, except:
a. Region V
b. Region IX
c. Region X
d. Region XI
378. Lymphadenitis, Lymphangitis, epidydimitis is evidently seen in what clinical stage of Filariasis?
a. Asymptomatic stage
b. Acute stage
c. Chronic stage
d. Immune stage
379. The enlargement and thickening of the skin of the lower extremities and/or upper extremities, scrotum or breast is
known as:
a. Lymphedema
b. Lymphadenitis
c. Elephantiasis
d. Funiculitis
380. A clinical diagnostic procedure for Filariasis that can be done at daytime:
a. NBE
b. ICT
c. MBS
d. ELISA
381. Drug of choice for filarisis is:
a. Hetrazan
b. Biltricide
c. Chloroquine
d. Praziquantel
382. Medication given to client that kills the microfilirae may be given with this drug to prevent side effects:
a. Corticosteroids / antihistamine
b. Penicillin
c. Metronidazole
d. Amoxicillin
383. Hydrocele among infected individuals with filariasis is surgically intervened through:
a. Ligation and stripping of the lymphatics of pedicle of affected kidneys
b. Lymphoveous anastamosis
c. Inversion and resection of tunica vaginalis
d. Fistulectomy
386. The causative agent of the Schistosomiasis that have the strong affinity with the urinary system is:
a. S. haematobium
b. S. mansoni
c. S. japonicum
d. S. schistosomium
393. Which of the following characteristics does not refer to Leptospira species:
a. Species is divided into 19 serogroups and 200 serovar
b. Icterohemorrhagiae subspecies causes Weil’s disease and is most virulent
c. It is a slender spirochete with hooked ends
d. Attacks and have a strong affinity to liver and gall bladder
394. Which of the following are the correct consecutive steps in the disease progression of leptospirosis?
a. Anicteric - septicemic and immune; icteric – jaundice and hemorrhagic
b. Icteric – septicemic and immune; anicteric – jaundice and hemorrhagic
c. Anicteric - jaundice and hemorrhagic; icteric – septicemic and immune
d. Anicteric – septicemic and jaundice; icteric hemorrhagic and immune
395. The clinical phase where jaundice is an evident clinical manifestation of Leptospirosis:
a. Leptospiremic phase
b. Immune phase
c. Septicemic phase
d. Hemorrhagic phase
396. The following are the test for leptospirosis and with its respective day of specimen collection. Which of the following
is incorrectly paired:
a. Blood – after 7 to 10 days
b. Urine – 7 days after
c. CSF – during the 10th day
d. Feces – 3rd day
399. Which of the following measure is the most effective method of preventing communicable diseases?
a. Information dissemination
b. Education provision
c. Communication
d. Hand washing