MCQ Dom

1. Stressed parts are always kept in tension.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
2. Shot blasting process improves the endurance limit of the component.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
3. Which process allows controlling grain structure of the product?

a) Casting
b) Forging
c) None of the mentioned
d) Die Casting
Answer: b
4. While designing a forging, the profile is selected such that the fibrous lines are parallel to the tensile forces and
perpendicular to shear forces.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
5. Cast surfaces have good finishing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
6. In forging, metal is in which of the following stage?

a) Elastic
b) Plastic
c) Can be in any stage
d) Rigid
Answer: b
7. Forged components can be held between close limits.

a) True
Classification: Confidential
b) False
Answer: a
8. Among casting, forging and forging which has the slowest rate of production?
a) Casting
b) Forging
c) Machining
d) All have equal rate of production
Answer: c
9. In manual assembly, cost of screw is higher than the cost of driving a screw.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
10. Maximum carbon content in welding is usually limited to

a) 0.22%
b) 0.8%
c) 1.5%
d) 2%
Answer: a
1. The helix angle for double helical gears may be made up to
(A) 45°
(B) 60°
(C) 75°
(D) 90°
2. The bending moment ‘M’ and a torque ‘T’ is applied on a solid circular shaft. If the maximum bending stress equals to
maximum shear stress developed, then ‘M’ is equal to
(A) T/2
(B) T
(C) 2 T
(D) 4 T
3. The distribution of the forces along the length of key fitted in a shaft
(A) Varies linearly
(B) Is uniform throughout
(C) Varies exponentially, being more near the torque-input end
(D) Varies exponentially, being less near the torque-input end
4. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that
(A) Tolerance grade for the hole is 6 and for the shaft is 5
(B) Tolerance grade for the shaft is 6 and for the hole is 5
(C) Tolerance grade for the shaft is 4 to 8 and for the hole is 3 to 7
(D) Tolerance grade for the hole is 4 to 8 and for the shaft is 3 to 7
5. In designing a flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is taken as (where d = Diameter of the shaft)
(A) 2 d
(B) 3 d
(C) 4 d
(D) 5 d
6. A column of length l is fixed at both ends. The equivalent length of the column is
(A) l/2
(B) l/√2
(C) l
(D) 2 l
7. The notch sensitivity q is expressed in terms of fatigue stress concentration factor Kf and theoretical stress
concentration factor Kt as
(A) (Kf + 1)/ (Kt + 1)
(B) (Kf - 1)/ (Kt - 1)
(C) (Kt + 1)/ (Kf + 1)
(D) (Kt - 1)/ (Kf - 1)
Answer: Option B
8. If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is varied within limits, the velocity ratio
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) None of these
9. A type of brake commonly used in motor cars is a
(A) Shoe brake
(B) Band and block brake
(C) Band brake
(D) Internal expanding brake
10. Which of the following property is essential for spring materials?
(A) Stiffness
(B) Ductility
(C) Resilience
(D) Plasticity
11. The objective of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint
(A) Free from corrosion
(B) Stronger in tension
(C) Free from stress
(D) Leak-proof
12. The bending stress in a curved beam is
(A) Zero at the centroidal axis
(B) Zero at the point other than centroidal axis
(C) Maximum at the neutral axis
(D) None of these
13. Rankine Gordon formula for buckling is valid for
(A) Long column
(B) Short column
(C) Short and long column
(D) Very long column
14. In the levers of third type, the mechanical advantage is __________ one.
(A) Less than
(B) Equal to
(C) More than
(D) None of these
15. The maximum efficiency of a square threaded screw is
(A) (1 - sinφ)/ (1 + sinφ)
(B) (1 + sinφ)/ (1 - sinφ)s
(C) (1 - sinφ)/ (1 + cosφ)
(D) (1 + cosφ)/ (1 - sinφ)
View All Answers
1. Answer: Option A 2. Answer: Option A 3. Answer: Option C 4. Answer: Option A 5. Answer: Option B 6. Answer:
Option A 7. Answer: Option B 8. Answer: Option C 9. Answer: Option D 10. Answer: Option C 11. Answer: Option D 12.
Answer: Option B 13. Answer: Option C 14. Answer: Option A 15. Answer: Option A
1. The tendency of a deformed solid to regain its actual proportions instantly upon unloading known as ______________
a) Perfectly elastic
b) Delayed elasticity
c) Inelastic effect
d) Plasticity
Answer: a
2. How is Young’s modulus of elasticity defined?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Answer: c
3. The permanent mode of deformation of a material known as _____________

a) Elasticity
b) Plasticity
c) Slip deformation
d) Twinning deformation
Answer: b
4. The ability of materials to develop a characteristic behavior under repeated loading known as ___________
a) Toughness
b) Resilience
c) Hardness
d) Fatigue
Answer: d
5. What is the unit of tensile strength of a material?
a)
b) kg/cm2
c)
d) cm2/kg
Answer: b
6. Which of the following factors affect the mechanical properties of a material under applied loads?
a) Content of alloys
b) Grain size
c) Imperfection and defects
d) Shape of material
Answer: d
7. The ability of a material to resist plastic deformation known as _____________

a) Tensile strength
b) Yield strength
c) Modulus of elasticity
d) Impact strength
Answer: b
8. The ability of a material to be formed by hammering or rolling is known as _________

a) Malleability
b) Ductility
c) Harness
d) Brittleness
Answer: a
9. What type of wear occurs due to an interaction of surfaces due to adhesion of the metals?
a) Adhesive wear
b) Abrasive wear
c) Fretting wear
d) Erosive wear
Answer: a
10. Deformation that occurs due to stress over a period of time is known as ____________
a) Wear resistance
b) Fatigue
c) Creep
d) Fracture
Answer: c
1.Bronze is an alloy of
A. Copper and zinc
B. Copper and tin
C. Copper, tin and zinc
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
2.Manganese is added in low carbon steel to
A. Make the steel tougher and harder
B. Raise the yield point
C. Make the steel ductile and of good bending qualities
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
3.The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is
A. 0.05%
B. 0.15%
C. 0.3%
D. 0.5%
Answer: Option B
4.The elastic stress strain behavior of rubber is
A. Linear
B. Nonlinear
C. Plastic
D. No fixed relationship
Answer: Option B
5.The following element can't impart high strength at elevated temperature
A. Manganese
B. Magnesium
C. Nickel
D. Silicon
Answer: Option B
1) When a component is subjected to axial stress the normal stress σ n is maximum, if cos θ is _______ . (σn=σxCos2θ)
1. maximum
2. minimum
3. always one
4. always zero
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
ANSWER: 1 and 3
2) Which of the following formulae is used to calculate tangential stress, when a member is
subjected to stress in mutually perpendicular axis and accompanied by a shear stress?
a. [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ cos 2θ

b. [(σx – σy)/2 ]– τ cos 2θ
c. [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ2 cos θ
d. None of the above
ANSWER: [(σx – σy)/2 ]sin θ – τ cos 2θ
3) The angle between normal stress and tangential stress is known as angle of ______
a. declination
b. orientation
c. obliquity
d. rotation
ANSWER: obliquity
4) Principal stress is the magnitude of ________ stress acting on the principal plane.
a. Normal stress
b. Shear stress
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Normal stress
5) Which of the following stresses can be determined using Mohr's circle method?
a. Torsional stress
b. Bending stress
c. Principal stress
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Principal stress
6) The graphical method of Mohr's circle represents shear stress (τ) on ______
a. X-axis
b. Y-axis
c. Z-axis
ANSWER: Y-axis
7) In Mohr's circle method, compressive direct stress is represented on ____
a. positive x-axis
b. positive y-axis
c. negative x-axis
d. negative y-axis
ANSWER: negative x-axis
8) What is the value of shear stress acting on a plane of circular bar which is subjected to axial tensile load of 100 kN? (Diamet
a. 58.73 Mpa
b. 40.23 Mpa
c. 39.60 Mpa
d. Insufficient data
ASWER: 39.60 Mpa
9) The maximum tangential stress σt = (σx sin 2θ)/2 is maximum if, θ is equal to ________
a. 45o
b. 90o
c. 270o
d. all of the above
ANSWER: 45o
10) Minor principal stress has minimum ________
a. value of shear stress acting on the plane

b. intensity of direct stress
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
ANSWER: intensity of direct stress
1. A principal plane is a plane of
(a) Zero tensile stress

(b) Zero compressive stress
(c) Zero shear stress
(d) None
(Ans: c)
2. A principal plane is a plane of
(a) Only normal stress

(b) Only shear stress
(c) Only bending stress
(d) None
(Ans: a)
3. There are in all
(a) Two principal planes

(b) Three principal planes
(c) Four principal planes
(d) None
(Ans: b)
4. There are in all
(a) Two principal stresses

(b) Three principal stresses
(c) Four principal stresses
(d) None
(Ans: b)
5. There are in all
(a) Two principal strains

(b) Three principal strains
(c) Four principal strains
(d) None
(Ans: b)
6. Identify the principal stress
(a) Shear stress

(b) Bending stress
(c) Compressive stress
(d) None
(Ans: c)
7. On the planes of maximum shear, there are
(a) Normal stresses

(b) Bending stresses
(c) Bucking stresses
(d) None
(Ans: a)
8. Maximum shear stress is
(a) Average sum of principal stresses

(b) Average difference of principal stresses
(c) Average sum as well as difference of principal stresses
(d) None
(Ans: b)
9. The magnitude of principal stresses due to complex stresses is
(a) (1/2)[ (σx + σy) ± ((σx –σy)2 + 4 τ2))0.5]

(b) (1/2)[ (σx + σy) ± (1/2)((σx –σy)2 + 4 τ2))0.5]
(c) (1/2)[ (σx + σy) ± ((1/2)(σx –σy)2 + 4 τ2))0.5]
(d) None
(Ans: a)
10. The equations for principal stresses are valid only when
(a)σx and σy are both tensile
(b) σx is compressive and σy is tensile
(c) σx is tensile and σy is compressive
(d) None
(Ans: a)
11. The magnitude of maximum shear stress is
(a) ± (1/2)[ ((σx –σy)2 + 4 τ2))0.5]

(b) ± (1/2)[ (1/2)((σx –σy)2 + 4 τ2))0.5]
(c) ± (1/2)[ ((1/2)(σx –σy)2 + 4 τ2))0.5]
(d) None
(Ans: a)
12. A complementary shear stress is equal in magnitude and opposite in rotational tendency of an applied
(a) Tensile stress

(b) Compressive stress
(c) Shear stress
(d) None
(Ans: c)
13. All the principal stresses are at an angle of
(a) 450
(b) 600
(c) 750
(d) None
(Ans: d)
14. All the principal stresses are at an angle of
(a)900
(b) 450
(c) 1350
(d) None
Ans: (a)
15. All the principal strains are at an angle of
(a) 450
(b) 600
(c) 750
(d) None
(Ans: d)
16. All the principal strains are at an angle of
(a) 450
(b) 900
(c) 1350
(d) None
(Ans: b)
17. Total number of maximum shear stresses is
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) None
(Ans: b)
18. All the maximum shear stresses are at an angle of
(a)450
(b) 900
(c) 1350
(d) None
(Ans: b)
19. Does a plane of maximum shear stress contain a?
(a) Normal stress

(b) Bending stress
(c) Torsional shear stress
(d) None
(Ans: a)
20. The order of magnitude of the principal stresses is
a. Firstly σ1>σ2 >σ3
b. Secondly σ2>σ3 >σ1
c. Thirdly σ1>σ3 >σ2
d. None
ANS: (a)
21. Nature of the three principal stresses is
a. Firstly All tensile
b. Secondly All compressive
c. Thirdly All shear
d. None
ANS: (a)
22. A principal stress is a
a. Shear stress with zero normal stress
b. Normal stress with zero shear stress
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None
ANS: (b)
23. Principal stresses are
a. Firstly Maximum and minimum shear stresses
b. Secondly Maximum and minimum normal stresses
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None
ANS: (b)
24. How many angles of obliquity are there for a cuboidal body under complex stresses?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 4
d. None
ANS: (a)
25. How many maximum shear stresses are there with three principal stresses?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None
ANS: ©
26. In a body under pure shear, the magnitude and nature of the two principal stresses are
a. Firstly Equals shear stress, opposite nature
b. Secondly Equals shear stress, same nature
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None
ANS: (a)
27. Complementary shear stress is
a. > applied shear stress
b. < applied shear stress
c. = applied shear stress
d. None
ANS: (c )
28. Complementary shear stress is
a. Parallel to applied stress
b. Perpendicular to the applied shear stress
c. Inclined to the applied shear stress
d. None
ANS: (b)
29. The angle between a principal plane and a plane of maximum shear is
a. 300
b. 600
c. 900
d. None
ANS: (d)
30. The angle between a principal plane and a plane of maximum shear is
a. 150
b. 450
c. 750
d. None
ANS: (b)
31. Which is the maximum principal stress?
a. Firstly σ2
b. Secondly σ 3
c. Thirdly σ1
d. None
ANS: (c )
32. In the analysis, all the principal stresses are assumed as
a. Shear stresses
b. Compressive stresses
c. Tensile stresses
d. None
ANS: (c )
33. The magnitude of maximum principal stress is
a. Firstly (σx+σy)/2+ (1/2)( σx+σy) +4τ2)5
b. Secondly (σx+σy)/2+ (1/2)( σx-σy)2 +4τ2)5
c. Thirdly (σx+σy)/2+ (1/2)( σx+σy)2 +4τ2)5
d. None
ANS: (b)
34. Maximum shear stress in terms of principal stresses is
a. Firstly (σ1 +σ2)/2
b. Secondly (σ1/σ2)
c. Thirdly (σ1 –σ2)/2
d. None
ANS: (c )
35. Principal stresses are found by
a. Analytical method
b. Graphical method
c. Analytical & graphical methods
d. None
ANS: (c )
36. The principal strain due to σ1(tensile) and σ2 (Compressive ) stress is
(a) Firstly (1/E)( σ1 + σ2)

(b)Secondly (1/E)( σ1 +µ σ2)
(c)Thirdly (1/E)( σ1 -µ σ2)
(d) None
(Ans: b)
37. The principal strain due to σ1 (compressive) and σ2 (tensile) stress is
(a) Firstly (1/E)( -σ1 + σ2)

(b) Secondly (1/E)( -σ1 +µ σ2)
(c)Thirdly (1/E)(- σ1 -µ σ2)
(d) None
(Ans: c)
38. A principal stress is
a. Tensile or shear stress
b. Compressive or shear stress
c. Tensile or compressive stress
d. None
ANS: (c )
39. Is principal a?
a. Simple stress
b. Complex stress
c. Bending stress
d. None
ANS: (a)
40. The principal stress ha a
a. Variable
b. Constant
c. Constant & variable
d. None
ANS: (b)
41. Resilience under principal tensile stresses σ1 and σ2 is
(a) (1/2E)( σ12 + σ22 –3µ σ1 σ2)

(b) (1/2E)( σ12 + σ22 –4µ σ1 σ2)
(c) (1/2E)( σ12 + σ22 –5µ σ1 σ2)
(d) None
(Ans: d)
(a) (1/2E)( σ12 + σ22 –3µ σ1 σ2)

(b) (1/2E)( σ12 + σ22 –4µ σ1 σ2)
(c) (1/2E)( σ12 + σ22 –5µ σ1 σ2)
(d) None
(Ans: d)
(a) (1/2E)( σ12 + σ22 –µ σ1 σ2)

(b) (1/2E)( σ12 + σ22 –4µ σ1 σ2)
(c) (1/2E)( σ12 + σ22 –2µ σ1 σ2)
(d) None
( ANS: c)
44. Shear strain energy under principal tensile stresses σ1 and σ2 is
(a) (1/12E) (σ1 — σ2)2 + σ22— σ12 )

(b) (1/12G) (σ1 — σ2)2 + σ22+ σ12 )
(c) (1/12K) (σ1 — σ2)2 + σ22+ σ12 )
(d) None
(Ans: b)
45. Why do we determine principal stresses?
a. Failure is due to simple stress or strain
b. Failure is due to complex stress or strain
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None
ANS: (a)
46. The maximum number of principal stresses is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. None
ANS: (d)
47. The maximum number of principal stresses is
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. None
ANS: (b)
48. Symbols for principal stresses are
a. Firstly σ, τ & γ
b. Secondly σ1, σ2 & σ3
c. Thirdly τ1, τ2 &τ3
d. None
ANS: (b)
49. The angle of obliquity is the angle between the
a. Firstly Resultant and the shear stress
b. Secondly Resultant & the normal stress
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None
ANS: (b)
1. The normal stress is perpendicular to the area under considerations, while the shear stress acts
over the area.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
6. If compressive yield stress and tensile yield stress are equivalent, then region of safety from maximum principal stress
theory is of which shape?
a) Rectangle
b) Square
c) Circle
d) Ellipse
Answer: b
7. Maximum Principal Stress Theory is not good for brittle materials.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
8. The region of safety in maximum shear stress theory contains which of the given shape
a) Hexagon
b) Rectangle
c) Square
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
9. The total strain energy for a unit cube subjected to three principal stresses is given by?
a) U= [(σέ) ₁ + (σέ) ₂+ (σέ) ₃]/3
b) U= [(σ₁²+σ₂²+σ₃²)/2E] – (σ₁σ₂+σ₂σ₃+σ₃σ₁)2μ
c) U= [(σέ) ₁ + (σέ) ₂+ (σέ) ₃]/4
Answer: b
10. Distortion energy theory is slightly liberal as compared to maximum shear stress theory.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
1-Principal planes are those planes on which
a. Normal stress is maximum
b. Normal stress is minimum
c. Normal stress is either maximum or minimum
d. Shear stress is maximum
(Ans: c)
2-In a general two dimensional stress system, there are
a. Two principal planes
b. Only one plane
c. Three principal planes
d. No principal plane
(Ans: a)
3-Principal planes are mutually inclined at
a. 45 degree
b. 60 degree
c. 90 degree
d. 180 degree
(Ans: c)
4-In a general two dimensional stress system, planes of maximum shear stress are inclined at ___ with principal
planes.
a. 90 degree
b. 180 degree
c. 45 degree
d. 60 degree
(Ans: c)
5-In a general two dimensional stress system, the planes on which shear stress is zero
a. The normal stress is minimum
b. Normal stress is zero
c. Normal stress is either maximum or minimum
d. None of these
(Ans: c)
6-Angle of obliquity is defined as
a. Angle between the plane on which stresses are evaluated and one of the given planes
b. Angle between resultant stress and the plane of given normal stress
c. Angle between resultant stress and shear stress
d. Angle between resultant stress and normal stress
(Ans: d)
7-Mohr’s stress circle is named so because it has equation of the form
a. x^2 + y^2 = r^2
b. (x-a)^2 + y^2 = r^2
c. (x-a)^2 + (y-b)^2 = r^2
d. It was desired by German Engineer Otto Mohr
(Ans: b)
8-Ellipse of stress is used to find
a. Resultant stress on any plane in a bi-axial stress system
b. Resultant stress on any plane in a general two dimensional system
c. Maximum shear stress
d. Location of planes of maximum shear stress
(Ans: a)
9-In Mohr’s circle of strain, y-axis represents
a. Shear strain
b. Half of shear strain
c. Normal strain
d. Half of normal strain
(Ans: b)
10-In a general two dimensional stress system, Ellipse of stress can find
a. Principal planes
b. Principal stresses
c. Planes of maximum shear stress
d. Resultant stress on any plane
(Ans: d)
1. Maximum principal stress theory is applicable to
(a) Ductile materials
(b) Brittle materials
(c) Composite materials
(d) None
(Ans: b)
2. Under maximum principal stress theory, maximum principal stress is equal to
(a) Allowable stress in tension

(b) Allowable stress in compression
(c) Allowable stress in shear
(d) None
(Ans: a)
3. Maximum principal theory is also known as
(a) Guest Theory

(b) Beltrami Theory
(c) Rankine Theory
(d) None
(Ans: c)
4. Maximum principal theory is also known as
(a) Beltrami Theory

(b) Maximum normal stress theory
(c) Saint Venant’s theory
(d) None
(Ans: b)
5. Maximum principal stress is equal to
(a) (σx + σy)/2 + [ (σx –σy)2 + τ2]0.5

(b) (σx + σy)/2 + 0.5 [ (σx –σy)2 + τ2]0.5
(c) (σx + σy)/2 + 0.5 [ (σx –σy)2 + 4τ2]0.5
(d) None
(Ans: c)
6. Maximum shear stress theory is also called as
(a) Beltrami theory

(b) Coulomb’s theory
(c) Haigh theory
(d) None
(Ans: b)
(a) Beltrami theory

(b) Haigh theory
(c) Tresca theory
(d) None
(Ans: c)
(a) Guest’s theory

(b) Haigh theory
(c) Rankine theory
(d) None
(Ans: a)
9. Maximum shear stress theory is applicable to

(d) None
(Ans: a)
10. Under maximum shear stress theory, maximum shear stress is equal to
(a) Allowable stress in tension

(b) Allowable stress in compression
(c) Allowable stress in shear
(d) None
(Ans: c)
11. Maximum shear stress is equal to
(a) (σ1 –σ2)/2

(b) (σ1 + σ2)/2
(c) (σ1 + 2σ2)/2
(d) None
(Ans: a)
12. Maximum principal strain theory is applicable to

(d) None
(Ans: b)
13. Maximum principal strain theory is also called as

(b) Haigh theory
(c) St.Venant’s theory
(d) None
(Ans: c)
14. Maximum principal strain is equal to when σ1 and σ2 are tensile
(a) (σ1 –µσ2)/E

(b) (σ1 + µσ2)/E
(c) (–σ1 –µσ2)/E
(d) None
(Ans: a)
15. Maximum total strain energy theory is also known as

(b) Haigh theory
(d) None
(Ans: b)

(b) St.Venant’s theory
(c) Beltrami theory
(d) None
(Ans: c)
(a) Huber theory

(b) Rankine theory
(d) None
(Ans: a)
18. Maximum total strain energy is equal to
(a) (σ12 +σ22)/2E

(b) ( σ12 +σ22+ 2µ σ1 σ2)/2E
(c) ( σ12 +σ22— 2µ σ1 σ2)/2E
(d) None
(Ans: c)
19. Maximum total strain energy theory is applicable to

(d) None
(Ans: b)
20. Shear strain energy theory is also known as
(a) Huber theory

(b) Rankine theory
(c) Mises-Hencky theory
(d) None
(Ans: c)
(a) Von Mises Theory

(b) Coulomb’s theory
(c) Rankine theory
(d) None
(Ans: a)
(a) Coulomb’s theory

(b) Distortion energy theory
(c) Rankine theory
(d) None
(Ans: b)
23. Shear strain energy is equal to
(a) [( σ12 +σ22+ (σ1 + σ2)2]/12E
(b) [( σ12 +σ22 + (σ1 — σ2)2]/12G
(c) [(σ12 +σ22 + (σ1 + σ2)2]/12G
(d) None
(Ans: b)
24. Maximum total strain energy theory is applicable to

(d) None
(Ans: a)
25. A ductile material may not meet a failure if it has been tested for the theories of failure
(a) Firstly Maximum Principal Theory
(b) Secondly Maximum Principal Strain Theory
(c) Thirdly Maximum principal strain energy theory
(d) None
ANS: (d)
26. A ductile material may not meet a failure if it has been tested for the theories of failure
(a) Firstly Maximum Shear Stress Theory
(b) Secondly Maximum Shear Strain Energy Theory
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None
ANS: (c)
27. Finding allowable stress after the application of theories of failure ensures
(a) Soundness of design
(b) Lapses in design
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None
ANS: (a)
28. Under complex loading, if elastic limit reaches in tension, then failure occurs due to
(a) Firstly Maximum principal strain theory
(b) Secondly Maximum principal theory of strain energy
(c) Thirdly Maximum shear stress theory
(d) None
ANS: (d)
29. Under complex loading, if elastic limit reaches in tension, then failure occurs due to
(a) Firstly Maximum principal strain theory
(b) Secondly Maximum principal theory of strain energy
(c) Thirdly Maximum Principal stress theory
(d) None
ANS: (c)
30. Under complex or simple loading, strain energy is
(a) External work done
(b) Internal work done
(c) Both internal and external work
(d) None
ANS: (b)
31. Under complex loading, theories of elastic failures ensure
(a) Stability
(b) Instability
(c) Both stability and instability
(d) None
ANS: (a)
32. Under complex loading, theories of elastic failure establishes the
(a) Margin of failure
(b) Margin of safety
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None
ANS: (b)
33. Theories of elastic failure help in the
(a) Material development
(b) Development of method of manufacture
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None
ANS: (c)
34. Theories of elastic failure help to recognize
(a) Weak materials
(b) Strong materials
(c) Both weak and strong materials
(d) None
ANS: (c)
35. Theories of elastic failure is the
(a) Firstly analysis of the various failures
(b) Secondly analysis of the strength of a material
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None
ANS: (c)
36. Theories of elastic failure establishes the
(a) Firstly Reasons of failure
(b) Secondly Reasons of safety
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None
ANS: (c)
37. Theories of elastic failure while dealing with ductile materials consider the failure criterion as
(a) Ultimate stress
(b) Yield stress
(c) Both ultimate and yield stress
(d) None
ANS: (b)
38. Theories of elastic failure while dealing with brittle materials consider the failure criterion as
(a) Ultimate stress
(b) Yield stress
(c) Both ultimate and yield stress
(d) None
ANS: (a)
39. In a brittle material, the strength are
(a) Firstly Ultimate >yield > elastic limit
(b) Secondly Ultimate > yield =elastic limit
(c) Thirdly Ultimate=yield=elastic limit
(d) None
ANS: (c)
40. In a ductile material, the strength are
(a)Firstly Ultimate >yield > elastic limit
(b) Secondly Ultimate > yield =elastic limit
(c) Thirdly Ultimate=yield=elastic limit
(d) None
ANS: (a)
41. Under complex loading, principal stresses exist as
(a) Firstly σ1 > σ2 =σ3
(b) Secondly σ1 = σ2 =σ3
(c) Thirdly σ 1 > σ2 < σ 3
(d) None
ANS: (d)
42. In a body under hydrostatic pressure, the case exists
(a) Firstly σ1 > σ2 =σ3
(b) Secondly σ1 = σ2 =σ3
(c) Thirdly σ1 > σ2 < σ3
(d) None
ANS: (b)
43. For a homogeneous & isotropic body under hydrostatic pressure, which theory of elastic failure fails
(b) Secondly Maximum Principal strain Theory
(c) Thirdly Maximum Principal Energy Theory
(d) None
ANS: (c)
44. For a homogeneous & isotropic body under hydrostatic pressure, which theory of elastic failure does not fail
(b) Secondly Maximum Shear Stress Theory
(c) Thirdly Maximum Principal Energy Theory
(d) None
ANS: (a)
1. Stress concentration is defined as the localization of high stresses due to irregularities present in the component and
no changes of the cross section.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
2. Stress Concentration Factor is the ratio of nominal stress obtained by elementary equations for minimum cross-
section and highest value of actual stress near discontinuity.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. If a flat plate with a circular hole is subjected to tensile force, then its theoretical stress concentration factor is?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: b
4. For an elliptical hole on a flat plate, if width of the hole in direction of the load decrease, Stress Concentration Factor
will______
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains constant
d) Can’t be determined. Varies from material to material
Answer: a
5. In which of the following case stress concentration factor is ignored?

a) Ductile material under static load
b) Ductile material under fluctuating load
c) Brittle material under static load
d) Brittle material under fluctuating load
Answer: a
6. Is it logical to use fluid analogy to understand the phenomenon of stress concentration?

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
7. Use of multiple notches in a V shaped flat plate will

a) Reduce the stress concentration
b) Increase the stress concentration
c) No effect
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: a
8. Which of the following reduces the stress concentration?

a) Use of multiple notches
b) Drilling additional holes
c) Removal of undesired material
d) Each of the mentioned
Answer: d
6. The phenomenon of decreased resistance of the materials to fluctuating stresses is the main characteristic of _____
failure.
a) Fracture
b) Fatigue
c) Yielding
Answer: b
7. Fatigue failure is time dependent failure.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
8. There is sufficient plastic deformation prior to fatigue failure, which gives a warning well in advance.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
1. The stress represented by sin (t) + 1 belongs to which category?
a) Fluctuating Stresses
b) Alternating stresses
c) Repeated Stresses
d) Reversed Stresses
Answer: c

b) None of the mentioned
Answer:a

a) Alternating Stresses
b) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
4. The stress represented by cos (t) belongs to which category?

b) Alternating Stresses
Answer: d
5. If the mean stress value for a sinusoidal stress function is zero, then this type of stress falls in which category?
b) Alternating Stresses
Answer: d
Stress concentration is caused due to
A. Variation in properties of material from point to point in a member
B. Pitting at points or areas at which loads on a member are applied
C. Abrupt change of section
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
1) Line joining Syt (yield strength of the material) on mean stress axis and Se
(endurance limit of the component) on stress amplitude axis is called as _____
a. Goodman line
b. Soderberg line
c. Gerber line
ANSWER: Soderberg line
2) Notch sensitivity (q) is given by the equation _______
where Kf = fatigue stress concentration factor and Kt = theoretical stress concentration factor
a. ( Kf + 1 ) / ( Kt – 1 )
b. ( Kf – 1 ) / ( Kt – 1 )
c. ( Kf + 1 ) / ( Kt + 1 )
d. ( Kf - 1 ) / ( Kt + 1 )
ANSWER: ( Kf – 1 ) / ( Kt – 1 )
3) Which of the following conditions is true for repeated stress?
1. σm = 0
2. σm = σmax / 2
3. σm = σa
4. σmin = 0
5. σmin = – σmax
6. σa = σmax / 2
where σm = mean stress and σa = stress amplitude
a. condition 2 and 3
b. condition 1, 3 and 5
c. condition 2, 4, and 6
d. condition 3,4, 5 and 6
ANSWER: condition 2, 4, and 6
4) In S-N diagram, the graph plotted between fatigue strength and number of stress cycles
becomes horizontal for which type of materials?
a. Ferrous materials
b. Non-ferrous materials
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Ferrous materials
5) Match the following Group 1 items with Group 2 items and select the correct option
1. Size factor ----------------------------------------- A. Kc

2. Load factor ---------------------------------------- B. Kg
3. Temperature factor ------------------------------- C. Kb
4. Reliability factor --------------------------------- D. Kd
a. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
c. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C
d. 1 – D, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – B
ANSWER: 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
6) Which of the following equations is correct for Soderberg Criteria?
a. (σm / Sut) + (σa / Se) = (1 / Nf)

b. (σm / Sut) - (σa / Se) = (1 / Nf)
c. (σm / Syt) + (σa / Se) = (1 / Nf)
d. (σm / Sut) - (σa / Se) = (1 / Nf)
ANSWER: (σm / Syt) + (σa / Se) = (1 / Nf)
7) Calculate fatigue stress concentration factor, when theoretical stress concentration factor is 1.62 and notch sensitivity is equal to 0.9
a. 1.558
b. 3.358
c. 1.162
ANSWER: 1.558
8) According to Modified Goodman Diagram for fluctuating torsional shear stress, which line defines fatigue failure?
a. Line joining point Sys on mean stress and stress amplitude
b. Horizontal line QR at point Ses on stress amplitude
c. Polyline STRQ defines fatigue failure
ANSWER: Horizontal line QR at point Ses on stress amplitude
10) To predict failure in design components which failure criteria is not assumed, when mean stress and stress
amplitude are nonzero?
a. Goodman criterion
b. Soderberg criteria
c. Gerber criteria
ANSWER: None of the above
3. In the Haig-Soderberg diagram, the test data for ductile material falls near the ______________
a) Soderberg line
b) Goodman Line
c) Gerber line
d) Haig line
Answer: c
4. The test data for Notched specimen fall near the ________________ line.
a) Soderberg line
b) Goodman Line
c) Gerber line
d) Haig line
Answer: b
5. The relationship between the alternating stress and mean stress is given by the following
equation:
σa= σe[1-(σm/σu)x].
The value of x for Goodman line is equal to _________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) -1
Answer: a
6. The relationship between the alternating stress and mean stress is given by the following
equation:
σa=σe[1-(σm/σu)x], where σe is the fatigue limit for completely reversed loading.
The value of x for Gerber line is equal to _________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) -1
Answer: b
1. A coupling is a mechanical device that temporarily joins two rotating shafts to each other.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
2. In distortion energy theorem, if a unit cube is subjected to biaxial stress, then S(yt) is given by
which of the following?
a) √ (σ₁²- σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²)
b) σ₁²- σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²
c) √ (σ₁²+ σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²)
d) σ₁²+ σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²
Answer: a
3. Oldham coupling i used to connect two shafts having intersecting axes.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
4. A machine started malfunctioning due to some issues with the coupling. The coupling emplaced in
the machine was Oldham. The only coupling available in the workshop is Hooke’s coupling. So
Oldham coupling can be replaced by Hooke’s coupling.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
5. A muff coupling is connecting two shafts. The torque involved is 650N-m. The shaft diameter is
45mm with length and breadth of the key being 14mm and 80mm respectively. Find the shear stress
induced in the key.
a) 30.2N/mm²
b) 25.8N/mm²
c) 34.4N/mm²
d) None of the listed
Answer: b
Explanation: τ =2M/dbl.
6. The region of safety for biaxial stresses is of which shape in the case of maximum distortion
energy theorem.
a) Ellipse
b) Circle
c) Rectangle
d) Square
Answer: a
7. Distortion energy theorem is not recommended for ductile materials.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
8. Among maximum shear stress theory and distortion energy theory, which gives the higher value
shear yield strength?
a) Maximum shear stress theory
b) Distortion energy theory
c) Both give equal values
d) Vary from material to material
Answer: b
1. Clamp coupling employ bolts.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
2. Entire torque is transmitted by friction in the clamp coupling.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. Does shaft has to be shifted i axial direction to remove clamp coupling.

a) Yes
b) No
Answer: b
4. If shaft diameter is 40mm, calculate the diameter of sleeves in clamp coupling.

a) 100mm
b) 80mm
c) 60mm
d) 40mm
Answer: a
5. If shaft diameter is 40mm, calculate the length of sleeves in clamp coupling.

a) 80mm
b) 140mm
c) 100mm
d) 120mm
Answer: b
8. Power is transmitted by only in rigid flange coupling.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
9. If shaft diameter is 60mm, how many bolts are recommended for rigid flange coupling?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c
11. The hub is treated as a solid shaft while calculating torsional shear stress in the hub.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
1. A transmission shaft subjected to pure bending moment should be designed on the basis of
(A) Maximum principal stress theory
(B) Maximum shear stress theory
(C) Distortion energy theory
(D) Goodman or Soderberg diagrams
2. A transmission shaft is subjected to bending moment (Mb) and torsional moment (Mt). The equivalent torsional
moment is given by,
(A) √(Mb + Mt)
(B) √(Mb2 + Mt2)
(C) Mb + Mt
(D) Mb +√(Mb2 + Mt2)
Answer: Option B
3. The standard height for flat key in terms of shaft diameter (D) is,
(A) d
(B) d/2
(C) d/4
(D) d/6
4. Kennedy key is used in
(A) Light duty applications
(B) Heavy duty applications
(C) High speed applications
(D) Precision equipments
5. A bushed-pin type flange coupling is used
(A) For intersecting shafts
(B) When the shafts are not in exact alignment
(C) For small shafts rotating at slow speeds
(D) For parallel shafts
6. Two shafts A and B are made of same material. The diameters of shaft A and B are dA and dB respectively. The ratio of
torque transmitted by shaft A to that of shaft B will be
(A) dA/dB-
(B) (dA/dB-)2
(C) (dA/dB-)3
(D) (dA/dB-)4
7. A transmission shaft is subjected to bending moment (Mb) and torsional moment (Mt). The equivalent bending
moment is given by,
(A) √(Mb + Mt)
(B) √(Mb2 + Mt2)
(C) Mb + Mt
(D) Mb +√(Mb2 + Mt2)
8. The standard length for square or flat key in terms of shaft diameter (D) is,
(A) d
(B) 2d
(C) 1.5d
(D) 2.5d
9. The key, which fits in the keyway of hub, only is called,
(A) Saddle key
(B) Feather key
(C) Woodruff key
(D) Kennedy key
10. Splines are used if,
(A) The power to be transmitted is high
(B) The torque to be transmitted is high
(C) The speed is high
(D) There is relative motion between shaft and hub
11. The shafts will have same strength on the basis of torsional rigidity, if
(A) Diameter and length of both shafts is same
(B) Material of both shafts is same
(C) Angle of twist for both shafts is same
(D) All of above conditions are satisfied
12. Maximum principle stress theory is used for
(A) Cast iron shafts
(B) Steel shafts
(C) Aluminum shafts
(D) Plastic shafts
13. The type of key used when the gear is required to slide on the shaft is
(A) Sunk key
(B) Feather key
(C) Woodruff key
(D) Kennedy key
1. The keyway,
(A) Reduces strength of shaft
(B) Reduces rigidity of shaft
(C) Increases stress concentration
(D) All of above
Answer: Option D
2. While designing a flange coupling, care is taken so that
(A) Shaft is the weakest component
(B) Bolts are the weakest component
(C) Key is the weakest component
(D) The flange is the weakest component
3. Two shafts A and B are made of same material. The diameter of shaft A is twice that of B. The torque transmitted by
shaft A will be
(A) Twice that of B
(B) Four times that of B
(C) Eight times that of B
(D) Sixteen times that of B
4. Maximum shear stress theory is used for
(A) Cast iron shafts
(B) Steel shafts
(C) Flexible shafts
(D) Plastic shafts
5. The key in the form of semi-circular disk of uniform thickness is called,
(A) Sunk key
(B) Feather key
(C) Woodruff key
(D) Kennedy key
6. Splines are commonly used in
(A) Machine tool gear box
(B) Automobile gear box
(C) Hoist and crane gear box
(D) Bicycle
7. In case of clamp coupling, power is transmitted by means of,
(A) Friction force
(B) Shear resistance
(C) Crushing resistance
(D) None of the above
8. The angle of twist for a transmission shaft is inversely proportional to
(A) Shaft diameter
(B) (Shaft diameter)2
(C) (Shaft diameter)3
(D) (Shaft diameter)4
9. In case of sunk key,
(A) The keyway is cut in the shaft only
(B) The keyway is cut in the hub only
(C) The keyway is cut in both the shaft and the hub
10. The compressive stress induced in a square key is,
(A) Equal to shear stress
(B) Four times of shear stress
(C) Twice of shear stress
(D) Half of shear stress
1. The shaft is always stepped with ________ diameter at the middle portion and __________ diameter at the shaft
ends.
a) Minimum, maximum
b) Maximum, minimum
c) Minimum, minimum
d) Zero, infinity
Answer: b
2. ______ is used for a shaft that supports rotating elements like wheels, drums or rope sleaves.
a) Spindle
b) Axle
c) Shaf
Answer: a
3. Axle is frequently used in torque transmission.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
4. Is it necessary for an axle to be ______ with respect to rotating element?

a) Stationary
b) Moving
c) Moving or stationary
Answer: c
5. Counter shaft is a secondary shaft.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
6. Hot rolling produces a stronger shaft then cold rolling.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
7. Shafts are subjected to ______ forces.

a) Compressive
b) Tensile
c) Shear
Answer: b
8. Which of the following act on shafts?

a) Torsional moment
b) Bending Moment
c) Both torsional and bending
Answer: c
9. When the shaft is subjected to pure bending moment, the bending stress is given by?
a) None of the listed
b) 32M/πdᵌ
c) 16M/πdᵌ
d) 8M/πdᵌ
Answer: b
10. When the shaft is subjected to pure torsional moment, the torsional stress is given by?
b) 32M/πdᵌ
c) 16M/πdᵌ
d) 8M/πdᵌ
Answer: c
1. While designing shaft on the basis of torsional rigidity, angle of twist is given by?
a) Ml/Gd⁴
b) 584Ml/Gd⁴
c) 292 Ml/Gd⁴
Answer: b
2. According to the ASME code, maximum allowable shear stress is taken as X% of yield strength or Y% of ultimate
strength.
a) X=30 Y=18
b) X=30 Y=30
c) X=18 Y=18
d) X=18 Y=30
Answer: a
3. Does ASME Standard take into consideration shock and fatigue factors?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: a
10. The stiffness of solid shaft is more than the stiffness of hollow shaft with same weight.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
11. The strength of hollow shaft is more than the strength of solid shaft of same weight.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
12. Solid shaft is costlier than hollow shaft of same weight.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
13. Solid shafts are used in epicyclic gearboxes.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
14. Flexible shafts have _______ rigidity in torsion making them flexible.
a) Low
b) High
c) Very high
d) Infinitely small
Answer: b
15. Flexible shafts have ______ rigidity in bending moment.

a) High
b) Low
c) Very high
d) Extremely low
Answer: b
1. A force 2P is acting on the double transverse fillet weld. Leg of weld is h and length l. Determine the shear stress in a
plane inclined at θ with horizontal.
a) PSinθ(Sinθ+Cosθ)/hl
b) P(Sinθ+Cosθ)/hl
c) Pcosθ(Sinθ+Cosθ)/hl
Answer: a
2. Maximum shear stress in transverse fillet weld of leg h and length l is

a) P/hl
b) 1.21P/hl
c) P/1.21hl
Answer: b
3. A sunk key fits in the keyway of the _____ only.

a) Hub
b) Sleeve
c) Both hub and sleeve
d) Neither hub nor sleeve
Answer: a
4. Hollow saddle key is superior to flat saddle key as far as power transmitting capability is concerned.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
5. Saddle key is more suitable than sunk key for heavy duty applications.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
6. The main advantage of sunk key is that it is a _____ drive.

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
Answer: a
7. Woodruff key permits _____ movement b/w shaft and the hub.
a) Axial
b) Radial
c) Eccentric
Answer: b
8. Determine the length of kennedy key required to transmit 1200N-m and allowable shear in the key is 40N/mm². The
diameter of shaft and width of key can be taken as 40mm and 10mm respectively.
a) 49mm
b) 36mm
c) 46mm
d) 53mm
Answer: d
9. Splines are keys.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
10. Involute splines have stub teeth with a pressure angle of ___
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
d) Can’t be determined
Answer: b
1. Sunk key fits in the keyway of the .......... only.
A. Sleeve
B. Hub
C. Both sleeve and hub
D. neither sleeve and hub
Ans - B
2. Standard length of shaft is a .......
A. 5 meter
B. 6 meter
C. 7 meter
D. All of these
Ans - D
3. Taper on rectangular sink key is .......
A. 1 in 16
B. 1 in 48
C. 1 in 100
D. 1 in 120
Ans - C
4. Taper is given on key is generally..........
A. Top side only
B. Bottom side only
C. On both side
D. Any side
Ans - A
5. Which properties ( characteristics) is not required in shaft material.
A. High fatigue strength
B. Good machinability
C. High shear strength
D. Good castability
Ans - D
6. Which theory is perfect for design of shaft when it mades from brittle materials...........
A. Rankine theory
B. Guest's theory
C. Vonmises theory
D. St. Venant's theory.
Ans - A
7. Universal coupling is rigid types coupling.
A. True
B. False
Ans - B
8. Flange coupling is rigid types coupling.
A. True
B. False
Ans - A
9. In sunk key no slips occurs
A. True
B. False
Ans - A
10. A shaft is subjected to the......
A. Normal stress
B. Bending stress
C. Shear stress
D. Combine stress
E. All types
Ans - E
11. Universal coupling is ............ types of coupling.
A. Flexible
B. Rigid
Ans - A
12. Flange coupling is ............ types of coupling.
A. Flexible
B. Rigid
Ans - B
13. Saddle key is transmit power or torque through friction resistant only
A. True
B. False
Ans - A
14. Sunk key is a .............. drive.
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Neutral
D. None
Ans - A
15. Spindles is type of keys
A. True
B. False
Ans - A
16. Shaft is rotating machine element.
A. True
B. False
Ans - A
17. Universal coupling is rigid types coupling.
A. True
B. False
Ans - B
18. Flange coupling is rigid types coupling.
A. True
B. False
Ans - A
19. In sunk key no slips occurs
A. True
B. False
Ans - A
20. Muff coupling is designed as a .........
A. Thick cylinder
B. Thin cylinder
C. Solid shaft
D. Hollow shaft
Ans - D
11.A universal coupling is used to connect two shafts
A. Which are not in exact alignment
B. Which are perfectly aligned
C. Whose axes intersect at a small angle
D. Have lateral misalignment
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
12.Oldham coupling is used to connect two shafts
A. Which are perfectly aligned
B. Which are not in exact alignment
C. Which have lateral misalignment
D. Whose axes intersect at a small angle
Answer: Option C
13.A flange coupling is used to connect two shafts
A. Which are perfectly aligned
B. Which are not in exact alignment
C. Have lateral misalignment
D. Whose axes intersect at a small angle
Answer: Option A
Transmission Shafts
1. The shaft is always stepped with ________ diameter at the middle portion and __________ diameter at the shaft
ends.
a) Minimum, maximum
b) Maximum, minimum
c) Minimum, minimum
d) Zero, infinity
Answer: b
2. ______ is used for a shaft that supports rotating elements like wheels, drums or rope sleaves.
a) Spindle
b) Axle
c) Shaf
Answer: a
3. Axle is frequently used in torque transmission.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
4. Is it necessary for an axle to be ______ with respect to rotating element?

a) Stationary
b) Moving
c) Moving or stationary
Answer: c
5. Counter shaft is a secondary shaft.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
6. Hot rolling produces a stronger shaft then cold rolling.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
7. Shafts are subjected to ______ forces.

a) Compressive
b) Tensile
c) Shear
Answer: b
8. Which of the following act on shafts?

a) Torsional moment
b) Bending Moment
c) Both torsional and bending
Answer: c
9. When the shaft is subjected to pure bending moment, the bending stress is given by?
b) 32M/πdᵌ
c) 16M/πdᵌ
d) 8M/πdᵌ
Answer: b
10. When the shaft is subjected to pure torsional moment, the torsional stress is given by?
b) 32M/πdᵌ
c) 16M/πdᵌ
d) 8M/πdᵌ
Answer: c
Shaft Design
1. While designing shaft on the basis of torsional rigidity, angle of twist is given by?
a) Ml/Gd⁴
b) 584Ml/Gd⁴
c) 292 Ml/Gd⁴
Answer: b
2. According to the ASME code, maximum allowable shear stress is taken as X% of yield strength or Y% of ultimate
strength.
a) X=30 Y=18
b) X=30 Y=30
c) X=18 Y=18
d) X=18 Y=30
Answer: a
3. Does ASME Standard take into consideration shock and fatigue factors?
a) Yes
b) No
Answer: a
8. Calculate the shaft diameter on rigidity basis if torsional moment is 196000N-mm, length of shaft is 1000mm.
Permissible angle of twist per meter is 0.5’ and take G=79300N/mm².
b) 41.2mm
c) 35.8mm
d) 38.8mm
Answer: b
9. If yielding strength=400N/mm², the find the permissible shear stress according to ASME standards.
a) 72 N/mm²
b) 76 N/mm²
c) 268 N/mm²
d) 422 N/mm²
Answer: a
10. The stiffness of solid shaft is more than the stiffness of hollow shaft with same weight.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
11. The strength of hollow shaft is more than the strength of solid shaft of same weight.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
12. Solid shaft is costlier than hollow shaft of same weight.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
13. Solid shafts are used in epicyclic gearboxes.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
14. Flexible shafts have _______ rigidity in torsion making them flexible.
a) Low
b) High
c) Very high
d) Infinitely small
Answer: b
15. Flexible shafts have ______ rigidity in bending moment.

a) High
b) Low
c) Very high
d) Extremely low
Answer: b
Keys
1. A force 2P is acting on the double transverse fillet weld. Leg of weld is h and length l. Determine the shear stress in
a plane inclined at θ with horizontal.
a) PSinθ(Sinθ+Cosθ)/hl
b) P(Sinθ+Cosθ)/hl
c) Pcosθ(Sinθ+Cosθ)/hl
Answer: a
2. Maximum shear stress in transverse fillet weld of leg h and length l is
a) P/hl
b) 1.21P/hl
c) P/1.21hl
Answer: b
3. A sunk key fits in the keyway of the _____ only.

a) Hub
b) Sleeve
c) Both hub and sleeve
d) Neither hub nor sleeve
Answer: a
4. Hollow saddle key is superior to flat saddle key as far as power transmitting capability is concerned.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
5. Saddle key is more suitable than sunk key for heavy duty applications.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
6. The main advantage of sunk key is that it is a _____ drive.

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
Answer: a
7. Woodruff key permits _____ movement b/w shaft and the hub.
a) Axial
b) Radial
c) Eccentric
Answer: b.
8. Determine the length of kennedy key required to transmit 1200N-m and allowable shear in the key is 40N/mm².
The diameter of shaft and width of key can be taken as 40mm and 10mm respectively.
a) 49mm
b) 36mm
c) 46mm
d) 53mm
Answer: d
9. Splines are keys.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
10. Involute splines have stub teeth with a pressure angle of ___
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
Answer: b
Couplings
1. A coupling is a mechanical device that temporarily joins two rotating shafts to each other.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
2. In distortion energy theorem, if a unit cube is subjected to biaxial stress, then S(yt) is given by which of the
following?
a) √ (σ₁²- σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²)
b) σ₁²- σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²
c) √ (σ₁²+ σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²)
d) σ₁²+ σ₁σ₂ +σ₂²
Answer: a.
3. Oldham coupling i used to connect two shafts having intersecting axes.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
4. A machine started malfunctioning due to some issues with the coupling. The coupling emplaced in the machine was
Oldham. The only coupling available in the workshop is Hooke’s coupling. So Oldham coupling can be replaced by
Hooke’s coupling.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
5. A muff coupling is connecting two shafts. The torque involved is 650N-m. The shaft diameter is 45mm with length
and breadth of the key being 14mm and 80mm respectively. Find the shear stress induced in the key.
a) 30.2N/mm²
b) 25.8N/mm²
c) 34.4N/mm²
Answer: b
6. The region of safety for biaxial stresses is of which shape in the case of maximum distortion energy theorem.
a) Ellipse
b) Circle
c) Rectangle
d) Square
Answer: a
7. Distortion energy theorem is not recommended for ductile materials.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
8. Among maximum shear stress theory and distortion energy theory, which gives the higher value shear yield
strength?
a) Maximum shear stress theory
b) Distortion energy theory
c) Both give equal values
d) Vary from material to material
Answer: b
9. A muff coupling is connecting two shafts. The torque involved is 650N-m. The shaft diameter is 45mm with length
and height of the key being 14mm and 80mm respectively. Find the compressive stress induced in the key.
a) 70.1 N/mm²
b) 51.6N/mm²
c) 45.5N/mm²
Answer: b
Clamp Coupling & Rigid Flange & Coupling Bushed Pin Flexible Coupling
1. Clamp coupling employ bolts.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
2. Entire torque is transmitted by friction in the clamp coupling.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. Does shaft has to be shifted i axial direction to remove clamp coupling.

a) Yes
b) No
Answer: b
4. If shaft diameter is 40mm, calculate the diameter of sleeves in clamp coupling.
a) 100mm
b) 80mm
c) 60mm
d) 40mm
Answer: a
5. If shaft diameter is 40mm, calculate the length of sleeves in clamp coupling.

a) 80mm
b) 140mm
c) 100mm
d) 120mm
Answer: b
Explanation: L=3.5d.
6. If 8 bolts are emplaced in a clamp coupling with shaft diameter 80mm d, calculate the tensile force on each bolt if
coefficient of friction is 0.3 and torque transmitted is 4000N-m.
a) 51234.4N
b) 45968.3N
c) 41666.7N
Answer: c
7. If 8 bolts are emplaced in a clamp coupling with shaft diameter 80mm d, calculate the diameter of each bolt if
coefficient of friction is 0.3 and torque transmitted is 4000N-m. Permissible tensile stress is 80N/mm².
a) 27mm
b) 25mm
c) 23mm
d) 21mm
Answer: a
8. Power is transmitted by only in rigid flange coupling.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
9. If shaft diameter is 60mm, how many bolts are recommended for rigid flange coupling?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c
10. Determine the diameter of the bolts used in rigid flange coupling if transmitted torque is 270N-m, pitch circle
diameter=125mm and four bolts are emplace in the coupling. Permissible shear stress in the bolts is 70N/mm².
a) 3.8mm
b) 3.6mm
c) 4.4mm
d) 4mm
Answer: c
11. The hub is treated as a solid shaft while calculating torsional shear stress in the hub.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
12. Find the shear stress in a flange at the junction of hub in rigid flanged coupling if torsional moment is 2980N-m
and diameter of hub being 125mm. Also the thickness of flange is 25mm.
a) 6.77N/mm²
b) 10.24N/mm²
c) 4.84N/mm²
d) 4.22N/mm²
Answer: c
13. If shaft diameter is 30mm and number of pins emplaced are 6, then the diameter of the pin will be?
a) 6.4mm
b) 5.6mm
c) 6.1mm
d) 5.9mm
Answer: c
14. Calculate the force acting on the each pin in flexible coupling if torque transmitted is 397N-m and PCD=120mm
with number of pins 6.
a) 1400.3N
b) 1102.8N
c) 1320.3N
Answer: b
1. In a fusion welding process,
(a) only heat is used (b) only pressure is used
(c) combination of heat and pressure is used (d) none of these
2. The electric arc welding is a type of ............. welding.
(a) forge (b) fusion
3. The principle of applying heat and pressure is widely used in
(a) spot welding (b) seam welding
(c) projection welding (d) all of these
4. In transverse fillet welded joint, the size of weld is equal to
(a) 0.5 × Throat of weld (b) Throat of weld
(c) 2 × Throat of weld (d) 2 × Throat of weld
5. The transverse fillet welded joints are designed for
(a) tensile strength (b) compressive strength
(c) bending strength (d) shear strength
6. The parallel fillet welded joint is designed for
(a) tensile strength (b) compressive strength
(c) bending strength (d) shear strength
7. The size of the weld in butt welded joint is equal to
(a) 0.5 × Throat of weld (b) Throat of weld
(c) 2 × Throat of weld (d) 2 × Throat of weld
8. For a parallel load on a fillet weld of equal legs, the plane of maximum shear occurs at
(a) 22.5° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60°
9. The stress which vary from a minimum value to a maximum value of the same nature (i.e. tensile or compressive) is
called
(a) repeated stress (b) yield stress
(c) fluctuating stress (d) alternating stress
10.The endurance or fatigue limit is defined as the maximum value of the stress which a polished standard specimen can
withstand without failure, for infinite number of cycles, when subjected to
(a) static load (b) dynamic load
(c) static as well as dynamic load (d) completely reversed load
11.Failure of a material is called fatigue when it fails
(a) at the elastic limit (b) below the elastic limit
(c) at the yield point (d) below the yield point
12.The resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by
(a) elastic limit (b) Young's modulus
(c) ultimate tensile strength (d) endurance limit
13. The yield point in static loading is ............... as compared to fatigue loading.
(a) higher (b) lower (c) same
14. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of
(a) elastic limit to the working stress
(b) Young's modulus to the ultimate tensile strength
(c) endurance limit to the working stress
(d) elastic limit to the yield point
15. When a material is subjected to fatigue loading, the ratio of the endurance limit to the ultimate tensile strength is
(a) 0.20 (b) 0.35
(c) 0.50 (d) 0.65
16. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in flexure is
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.40
(c) 0.55 (d) 0.70
1. Castle nut is a locking device in which
(A) A smaller nut is tightened against main nut creating friction at the contacting surface
(B) A split pin is passed through diametrically opposite slots in nut and a hole in bolt and the two ends of split pin are
separated and bent back on nut
(C) A slot is cut in the middle of nut along the length and a cap screw is provided to tighten the two parts of nut
separated by slot
(D) An elastic piece is tightened in the nut by a setscrew
2. When a nut is tightened by placing a washer below it, the shank of bolt is subjected to
(A) Direct shear stress
(B) Torsional shear stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Compressive stress
3. The resultant axial force on bolt depends upon
(A) Initial tension
(B) External applied load
(C) Stiffness of bolt and parts held by bolt
(D) All three factors
4. While designing screw threads, adequate length of engaged threads between the screw and nut is provided so as to
prevent failure of threads due to
(C) Tensile stress
5. Setscrews are
(A) Similar to tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of heads are available
(B) Slotted for screw driver and generally used with a nut
(C) Used to prevent relative motion between parts
(D) Similar to studs
6. When the shear strength of nut is half the tensile strength of bolt, the height of nut (h) should be
(A) h = 0.5 dc
(B) h = 0.25 dc
(C) h = 0.75 dc
(D) h = dc
Where, dc = core diameter of threads
7. The connecting rod bolts are tightened up with the initial tension greater than external load so that
(A) Failure of bolt will be static
(B) The resultant load on bolt will not be affected by external cyclic load
(C) The bolt will not fail by fatigue although the external load is fluctuating
(D) All the three
8. The inner diameter of washer is
(A) Equal to the nut size
(B) More than the nut size
(C) Less than the nut size
(D) Independent of the nut size
9. The designation M 36 × 2 means
(A) Metric fine threads of 36 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch
(B) Metric coarse threads of 36 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch
(C) Metric threads of 36 mm pitch diameter and 2 mm pitch
(D) Metric threads of 36 mm core diameter and 2 mm pitch
10. When the shear strength of nut is equal to the tensile strength of bolt, the height of nut (h) should be
(A) h = 0.5 dc
(B) h = 0.25 dc
(C) h = 0.75 dc
(D) h = dc
Where, dc = core diameter of threads
1. When a nut is tightened by placing a washer below it, the threads of bolt are subjected to
(C) Tensile stress
2. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt can be increased by
(A) Increasing stress in shank
(B) Increasing stress in core diameter of threads
(C) Decreasing stress in shank
(D) Decreasing stress in core diameter of threads
3. A washer is specified by
(A) Outer diameter
(B) Inner diameter
(C) Thickness
(D) Mean diameter
4. Jam nut is a locking device in which
(A) A smaller nut is tightened against main nut creating friction at the contacting surface
(B) A split pin is passed through diametrically opposite slots in nut and a hole in bolt and the two ends of split pin are
separated and bent back on nut
(C) A slot is cut in the middle of nut along the length and a cap screw is provided to tighten the two parts of nut
separated by slot
(D) An elastic piece is tightened in the nut by a setscrew
5. Standard coarse threads are equally strong in failure by shear and failure by tension, if the height of nut is
(A) h = 0.4 d
(B) h = 0.6 d
(C) h = 0.5 d
(D) h = d
Where, d is nominal diameter of threads
6. The largest diameter of external or internal screw thread is called
(A) Major diameter
(B) Minor diameter
(C) Pitch diameter
7. The connecting rod bolts are tightened up so that the initial tightening stress
(A) Approaches yield point
(B) Approaches endurance limit
(C) Approaches (yield point stress/factor of safety)
(D) Approaches (endurance limit stress/factor of safety)
8. A screw is specified by
(A) Major diameter
(B) Minor diameter
(C) Pitch diameter
(D) Mean diameter
9. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt can be increased by
(A) Increasing shank diameter
(B) Making shank diameter equal to core diameter of threads
(C) Using castle nut in place of ordinary hexagonal nut
(D) Using a washer
10. Allen key is used to tighten
(A) Cap screw with hexagonal head
(B) Cap screw with fillister head
(C) Cap screw with hexagonal socket head
(D) Cap screw with flat head
6) Which type of screw fasteners are threaded through out its length?
a. Cap screws
b. Set screws
c. Studs
d. Tap bolt
ANSWER: Set screws
7) What is the approximate nominal diameter for coarse threads?
a. d = 1.136 dc
b. d = 1.59 dc
c. d = 1.19 dc
d. d = 0.5 dc
ANSWER: d = 1.19 dc
8) Threads used in screw fasteners are ______
a. having high strength
b. having low efficiency
c. single start type
d. all of the above
ANSWER: all of the above
9) Which among the following is the condition to avoid separation of connected members?
a. Force acting on the connected members should be negative
b. Force acting on the connected members should be positive
c. Force acting on the connected members should be neither positive nor negative
ANSWER: Force acting on the connected members should be negative
10) When a coupler nut is subjected to crushing stress, crushing failure can be avoided if _____
a. crushing stress induced is more than permissible crushing stress in the nut
b. permissible crushing stress is more than crushing stress induced in the threads
c. crushing stress induced is equal to permissible crushing stress
d. all of the above
ANSWER: permissible crushing stress is more than crushing stress induced in the threads
12. Self-locking takes place when
a) Coefficient of friction is equal to or greater than the tangent of the helix angle
b) Coefficient of friction is lesser than or equal to the tangent of the helix angle
c) Coefficient of friction is equal to or greater than the tangent of the helix angle
Answer: c
9. Nominal diameter of the screw thread is the same as core diameter.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
1. Efficiency of screw depends upon lead of the screw.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
2. Efficiency of the screw depends upon helix angle but does not depend on friction angle.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. Efficiency of the screw _______ with increase of coefficient of friction.

a) decreases
b) increases
c) has no effect
d) cannot be determined
Answer: a
4. Maximum efficiency of a square threaded is given by

a) 1-sinǾ/1+sinǾ
b) 1+sinǾ/1-sinǾ
c) 1-2sinǾ/1+2sinǾ
d) 1+2sinǾ/1-2sinǾ
Answer: a
5. If friction angle is 30’ then the maximum efficiency of the screw is

a) 33%
b) 66%
c) 50%
d) Noe of the mentioned
Answer: a
6. Maximum possible efficiency of a self-locking screw is

a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 66%
d) 33%
Answer: a
7. In trapezoidal threads, f (coefficient of friction) can be taken as

a) f sec θ
b) f cos θ
c) f sin θ
d) f cosec θ
Answer: a
8. Clutch and coupling can be considered to be same.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
1. Threaded joints are non-separable joints.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
2. Which type of joints is better when the product is subjected to large vibrations: welded or
threaded?
a) Welded
b) Threaded
c) Both have same results
d) Depends on the magnitude of the vibrational force
Answer: a
3. If a fastener is threaded into a tapped hole, then the fastener is likely to be called as
a) Screw
b) Bolt
c) Washer
d) Screw or bolt
Answer: a
4. In nut and bolt fastener, nut is generally held stationary while bolt is rotated.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
5. Which of the following is not a function of washer?

a) Distributes load over a large area of clamped parts
b) Provides bearing surface over large clearance bolts
c) Prevents marring of the bolt head and nut surface
d) Helps in locking of the fastener
Answer: d
6. Shank is the portion of bolt between the head and the thread.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
7. If there is no place to accommodate the nut, then one would choose the
a) Through Bolts
b) Tap Bolts
c) Studs
Answer: b
8. Which of the following are good for parts that are seldom dismantled.
a) Through Bolts
b) Tap Bolts
c) Studs
d) Cannot be stated
Answer: b
9. Which of the following requires more space for the rotation of spanner?
a) Square Head
b) Hexagonal Head
c) Both require equal space of rotation
d) Cannot be stated
Answer: a
10. Fillister, button, flat and hexagonal heads are all tightened externally.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
11. Set screws are subjected to tensile forces only.

a) Yes
b) No, they are subjected to compressive forces only
c) Both compressive and tensile
Answer: b
12. If the lateral force acting on the set screw is large and tends to displace one part with respect to
other than which point is recommended?
a) Dog Point
b) Cone Point
c) Window Point
d) Cut Point
Answer: a
14. A but joint can be defined as a joint between two components lying approximately in a different
plane.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
15. A fillet weld is an approximately triangular cross section joining two surfaces lying parallels to
each other.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
1. Resilience is defined as the property of material to absorb energy when deformed _________ and to
release this energy when unloaded.
a) Elastically
b) Plastically
c) Up to fracture point
Answer: a
2. The shock absorbing capacity of bolt can be increased by making the shank diameter ________ the
root diameter.
a) Lesser than
b) Equal to
c) Greater than
d) No effect
Answer: b
3. The shock absorbing capacity of bolts can be increased by

a) Increasing the shank diameter
b) Decreasing the length of shank portion of bolt
c) Increase the shank diameter and decreasing the length of shank
Answer: d
4. If the length of the shank is doubled, then strain energy absorbed by shank
a) Doubles
b) Remains same
c) Increases 4 time
d) Become half
Answer: a
5. Which of the following help in accomplishing the locking?

a) Creating supplementary friction
b) Using special locking devices like split pins
c) By plastic deformation
d) All of the listed
Answer: d
6. Crests and roots of the threads may lead to leakage in fluid tight threads if flattened or rounded to
a circular arc.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
7. The static load carrying capacity of fine threads is greater than that of coarse threads.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
8. Coarse threads have helix angle _____ fine threads.

a) Equal to
b) Greater than
c) Lesser than
d) There is no relation
Answer: c
9. Which threads have greater resistance to unscrewing?

a) Coarse
b) Fine
c) They have equal resistance
Answer: b
10. Which type of threads is recommended for fluctuating loads?

a) Fine threads
b) Coarse Threads
c) Either of fine or coarse
Answer: a
1. If core diameter of bolt is 13.8cm the it’s nominal diameter is given by?
a) 17.27mm
b) 15.34mm
c) 14.67mm
d) 16.34mm
Answer: a
6. Which of the following statements are true about eccentrically loaded circular base?
a) All bolts are symmetrically spaced with equal angle on either side of vertical
b) Bolts are not preloaded
c) Bearing is rigid
d) Dowel pins are used to relieve stresses
Answer: a
7. Certain types of radial bearings can also take thrust load.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
8. Balls and the races of the deep groove ball may roll freely without any sliding.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
1. Cotter joint is used when the members are subjected to which type of stresses?
a) Axial tensile
b) Axial compressive
c) Axial tensile or compressive
Answer: c
2. The principle of wedge action is used in cotter joint.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
3. Can the cotter joint be used to connect slide spindle and fork of valve mechanism?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
4. Which of the following is not a part of cotter joint?

a) Socket
b) Spigot
c) Cotter
d) Collar
Answer: d
5. Cold riveting holds the connected parts better than hot riveting.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
6. In cold riveting like hot riveting shank is subjected to majorly tensile stress.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
9. Cotter joint can be used to connect two rods for torque transmission purpose.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
10. Thickness of plate is required more in welding than in riveting.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
1. Knuckle Joint can’t be used to connect two intersecting rods.

a) Yes
b) No, it can’t be used
c) It can be used with some modificatios
d) It is expensive and hence isn’t used
Answer: b
2. A knuckle joint is unsuitable for two rotating shafts, which transmit torque
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
3. A maximum of how many roads may be connected using a knuckle joint?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
4. A knuckle joint is also called socket pin joint.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
5. Which of the following are important parts of knuckle joint?

a) Eye
b) Pin
c) Fork
d) Each of the mentioned
Answer: d
9. A knuckle joint can be used in valve mechanism of a reciprocating engine.

a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes but there are stress probles
d) No as it is very dangerous to use
Answer: a
6. A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint when making a
(a) butt weld
(b) fillet weld
(c) sleeve weld
(d) socket weld
(e) tube weld.
Ans: a
97. The shear plane in case of bolts should
(a) be across threaded portion of shank
(b) be parallel to axis of bolt
(c) be normal to threaded portion of shank
(d) never be across the threaded portion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
1. All welding processes require pressure along with heat.
a) Yes
b) No, fusion doesn’t require
c) Can’t be stated
Answer: b
2. The capacity of welded structures to damp vibrations is quite good.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. Themit consists of a finely divided mixture of iron oxide and copper.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
4. Rails in the field are generally welded by using

a) Thermit welding
b) Gas welding
c) Electric arc welding
d) Forge welding
Answer: a
5. In gas welding which of the following is generally used?

a) Oxygen-Hydrogen
b) Oxygen-Acetylene
c) Oxygen-Hydrogen or Oxygen-Acetylene
Answer: c
6. Among gas and electric arc welding, which has the higher rate of heating?
a) Gas welding
b) Electric arc welding
c) Gas welding and electric arc welding have equal rate of heating
Answer: b
7. Forge welding involves heating of parts to elastic stage and joint is prepared by impact force.
a) Yes
b) No, it is done up to plastic stage
c) Heating is done up to boiling point
Answer: b
8. Filler material is used in electric resistance welding.

a) Yes
b) No filler material used
c) Depends on the type of welding
Answer: b
9. Which type of welding is generally used in automobile sector?

a) Electric arc welding
b) Electric resistance welding
c) Gas welding
d) Forge welding
Answer: b
10. Hard peening is
a) Hammering the weld across the length while the joint is hot
b) Hammering the weld along the length while the joint is hot
c) Hammering the weld along the length while the joint is cold
d) Hammering the weld across the length while the joint is cold
Answer: b
1. If force act in a direction parallel to the direction of weld, then fillet weld is called as?
a) Transverse
b) Longitudinal
c) Parallel
d) Longitudinal or Parallel
Answer: d
2. Convex weld is generally preferred over normal weld.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. Parallel fillet weld and transverse fillet weld both have the plane in which maximum shear stress
occurs at 45’ to the leg dimension.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
4. The length of each of the two equal sides of a parallel fillet weld is called
a) Leg
b) Throat
c) Arm
Answer: a
5. Relation between throat and leg for a parallel fillet weld is

a) t =h Cos (45’)
b) h =t Cos (45’)
c) h= t
Answer: a
6. If length of weld is l and leg h, then area of throat can be given by

a) 0.707 hl
b) 1.414hl
c) hl
Answer: a
11. Strength of parallel fillet weld is greater than strength of transverse fillet weld.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
1. The following bracket is welded to the vertical column. The joint undergoes torsional stresses.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
2. A bracket is shown welded to a vertical column by means of two fillet welds. The bending stress
induced in the welds can be given by
a) My/I
b) 2My/I
c) My/2I
Answer: a
3. Calculate the moment of inertia about the axis parallel to welds and shift it to CG by considering
thickness of welds t.
a) tᵌ+2000t
b) None of the listed
c) 250000 t
d) 125000 t
Answer: c
4. Find the bending stress in the top weld is if thickness of weld is t. Given P=15kN and e=120mm.
a) 230/t
b) 360/t
c) 200/t
Answer: b
8. While calculating bending stress in the following welded joints which of the welds moment of
inertia can be neglected?
a) 1
b) None of the listed
c) Both 1 & 3
d) Both 2 & 4
Answer: b
9. If a circular shaft is welded to the plate by means of circumferential fillet, then the shaft is
subjected to torsional moment M. If throat of weld is t, then torsional shear stress is given by
a) M/2πtr²
b) M/πtr²
c) M/4πtr²
Answer: a
10. Magnetic crack detection method in the welds is destructible examination.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
11. Testing the ultimate strength of the weld falls in nondestructive examination.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
1. Strength of a welded joint increases by radio graphing by
i. 10 %
ii. 12%
iii. 15%
iv. None
Ans: (ii)
2. Welded joint strength increases due to annealing by
i. 6%
ii. 10%
iii. 14%
iv. None
Ans: (i)
3. Why are butt welded joints longitudinal joints ?
i. High strength requirements
ii. Low strength requirements
iii. Low as well as high strength requirements
iv. None
Ans: (i)
4. Lap welded joints used in circumferential joints because of ?
i. High strength requirements
ii. Low strength requirements
iii. Low as well as high strength requirements
iv. None
Ans: (ii)
5. Longitudinal welded joint fails by
 Longitudinal stress
 Radial stress
 Hoop stress
 None
Ans: (iii)
6. Circumferential welded joint fails by
i. Longitudinal stress
ii. Radial stress
iii. Hoop stress
iv. None
Ans: (i)
7. Single full fillet welded joint cannot be used for a plate thickness greater than
i. 1/8”
ii. 2/8”
iii. 3/8”
iv. None
Ans: (iii)
8. Double full fillet welded joint cannot be used for a plate thickness greater than
i. 1/8”
ii. 3/8”
iii. 5/8”
iv. None
Ans: (iii)
9. Out of the followings, which welded joint is more stronger
(i) Butt joint
(ii) Lap joint
(iii)Screwed joint
(iv) None
Ans: (i)
10. In which case, molten metal is used to do welding?
(i) Groove type
(ii) spot type
(iii) Plug type
(iv) None
Ans: (iii)
11. A weld symbol is necessary because of
(i) Aesthetic sense
(ii) Finishing
(iii) Manufacturing
(iv) None
Ans: (iii)
12. Different parts of a weld symbol are
(i) Arrow, center line and back part
(ii) Arrow, body line and length
(iii) Arrow, body line and tail
(iv)None
Ans: (iii)
13. Joint which does not fall under lap joint category
(i)Transverse fillet
(ii) Parallel fillet
(iii) Circular fillet
(iv) None
Ans: (iv)
14. Choose which is not a lap joint?
(i) Single V
(ii) Double V
(iii) Single U
(iv) None
Ans: (iv)
15. Quantity which is not a part of the weld symbol
(i)Length of welding
(ii) Weld is made in the welding shop
(iii) Welding is on both sides
(iv) Machine used in welding
Ans: (iv)
16. Term which is not a part of the weld symbol
(i) Tail
(ii) Arrow
(iii) Temperature of welding
(iv) None
Ans: (iii)
17. Quantity is not a part of the weld symbol
(i)Dark circle
(ii) Open circle
(iii) Angle of weld
(iv)Starting and stopping allowance for welding
Ans: (iv)
18. Type of welded joint which do not exit
(i) Groove type
(ii) Spot type
(iii)Plug type
(iv) Surface type
Ans: (iv)
19. Term which is not applicable to a welded joint
(i) Higher efficiency
(ii)Easy process
(iii) Faster process
(iv) None
Ans: (ii)
20. One which is applicable to a welded joint
(i)Less rigidity
(ii) Heavy
(iii) Difficult process
(iv) None
Ans: (iv)
21. Projection welding is
(i) Electric arc welding
(ii) Gas welding
(iii)Spot welding
(iv) None
Ans: (iv)
22. Internal defects in a welded joint can be found by a process called
(i) Tension test
(ii) Visual inspection
(iii) Radio graphing
(iv) None
Ans: (iii)
24. Parallel fillet welds are under
 Shear and bending stresses
 Compressive and torsion shear stresses
 Tensile and compressive stresses
 None
Ans: (iv)
25.Butt welds are under
(i) Shear stress
(ii) Compressive stress
(iii) Tensile stress
(iv)None
Ans: (iii)
26. Area under tension in a single transverse fillet lap weld is
(i)0.707 tl
(ii) 0.807 tl
(iii) 400 tl
(iv)None
Ans: (i)
27. By overlapping the plates, which type of welded joint is made
(i) Fillet welded joint
(ii) Butt welded joint
(iii) Fillet-Butt welded joint
(iv) None
Ans: (i)
28. The name of the welded joint made by placing the plates edge to edge is
(i) Fillet welded joint
(ii) Butt welded joint
(iii) Fillet-Butt welded joint
(iv) None
Ans: (ii)
29.The advantage of a welded joint over a riveted joint is
(i) Introduce residual stresses
(ii) Requires highly skilled labor and supervision
(iii) Lighter in weight
(iv) None
Ans: (iii)
30.Transverse fillet welds are under
(i) Shear stress
(ii) Compressive stress
(iii) Tensile stress
(iv)None
Ans: (iii)
31. Transverse fillet welds are under
(i) Bending and shear stresses
(ii)Compressive and torsion shear stresses
(iii)Tensile and compressive stresses
(iv)None
Ans: (iv)
32. Parallel fillet welds are under
(i) Shear stress
(ii)Compressive stress
(iii)Tensile stress
(iv)None
Ans: (i)
33. Welded joint used in the longitudinal joint of a cylindrical pressure vessel is
(i) Butt joint
(ii) Lap joint
(iii)Screwed joint
(iv) None
Ans: (i)
34. Which welded joint used in the circumferential joint of a cylindrical pressure vessel is
(i) Butt joint
(ii) Lap joint
(iii)Screwed joint
(iv) None
Ans: (ii)
34. Efficiency of a welded joint with respect to a riveted joint is
a. Smaller
b. Equal
c. Greater
d. None
ANS: (c )
35. The welded structure with respect to riveted structure is
a. Heavier
b. Lighter
c. Same
d. None
ANS: (b)
36. The strength of a welded joint with respect to a riveted joint is
a. Greater
b. Smaller
c. Equal
d. None
ANS: (a)
37. Changes in a welded structure are
a. Easier
b. Difficult
c. Easier & difficult
d. None
ANS: (a)
38. Welded structures with respect to riveted joint is
a. Weakened in tension
b. Strengthened in tension
c. No change in tension strength
d. None
ANS: (c )
39. Welded joints are
a. Hinged joint
b. Rigid joint
c. Freely supported joint
d. None
ANS: (b)
40. Process of welding with respect to riveting takes
a. More time
b. Less time
c. Same time
d. None
ANS: (b)
41. Welded joints require
a. Punching of holes
b. Drilling of holes
c. Punching & Drilling of holes
d. None
ANS: (d)
42. Welded structures with to riveted structures for a certain load are
a. Heavier
b. Lighter
c. Same weight
d. None
ANS: (b)
43. Appearance of welded structures with respect to riveted structures is
a. Smooth
b. Rough
c. Same
d. None
ANS: (a)
44. Welding requires
a. Non-skilled worker
b. Skilled worker
c. Any worker
d. None
ANS: (b)
45. Heating and cooling in welding is
a. Even
b. Non-even
c. Cannot say
d. None
ANS:(b)
46. Inspection of welded joints with respect to riveted joints is
a. Difficult
b. Easier
c. Cannot say
d. None
ANS:(a)
47. Lap welded joints are
a. Rectangular
b. Square
c. Triangular
d. None
ANS: (c )
48. Length of throat of a fillet weld is
a. 0.505 x leg
b. 0.707x leg
c. 0.909x leg
d. None
ANS: (b)
49. The angle of a fillet weld is
a. 600
b. 300
c. 900
d. None
ANS: (d)
50. The angle of a fillet weld is
a. 200
b. 400
c. 450
d. None
ANS: (c )
51. Fillet weld is a
a. Square
b. Rectangular
c. Triangular
d. None
ANS: (c )
52. Plug weld is
a. Rectangular
b. Square
c. Triangular
d. None
ANS: (d)
53. The angle of V-welded joint in a pressure vessel

30 to 450
40 to 550
55 to 700
None
ANS: (c
1. Cotter joints is connected two ......... roads.

A. Co - axial
B. Parallel
C. Perpendicular
D. Inclined
Ans - A
2. Taper is made cotter and slot on both the side.
A. Yes
B. No
Ans - B
3. Cotter joints is used for transforming...........

A. Axial compressive load
B. Axial tensile load
C. Axial tensile or compressive load
D. Twisting load
Ans - C
4. The draw of cotter should not be more than the........

A. 3 mm
B. 4 mm
C. 5 mm
D. 6 mm
Ans - A
5. Taper on Cotter is varies from

A. 1 in 15 to 1 in 12
B. 1 in 20 to 1 in 15
C. 1 in 25 to 1 in 20
D. 1 in 48 to 1 in 24
Ans - D
6. In steam engine, the piston rod is usually connected to the cross head by means of a.......
A. Cotter joints
B. Universal joints
C. Knuckle joint
D. Bearing
Ans - A
7. Cotter joint is connected to parallel roads .

A. True
B. False
Ans – B
8. Cotter joints is used for transforming rotating torque.
A. True
B. False
Ans – B
1. The knuckle joint is used to connect the...
A. Two roads whose Axes are coincide or intersecting and lies in single plane.
B. Two roads whose Axes are coincide or intersecting and lies in multiple plane.
C. Two roads whose Axes are parallel or intersecting and lies in single plane.
D. None of the above
Answer:- A
2. Maximum rod connecting limit by using knuckle joint is .
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer:- B
3. The valve rod connected in steam engine by using..
A. Cotter joint
B. Knuckle joint
C. Universal coupling
D. Bolted joint
Answer:- B
4. The use of knuckle joint is to transmit the torque between two shafts.
A. True
B. False
Answer:- B
5. Forked - pin joints is also called as...
A. Cotter joint
B. Knuckle joint
D. Bolted joint
Answer:- B
6. Which of the following are parts of knuckle joint.
A. Eye
B. Pin
C.Fork
D. All of the above
Answer:- D
7. Knuckle Joint is used to connect the two rods whose axes are coincide or intersect and lies
in the same plane.
A. True
B. False
Answer:- A
8. The knuckle joint is used two joint between the tie bars in roof trusses.
A. True
B. False
Answer:- A
9. The real application of knuckle joint is used to connect three rods - two with forks and a
third with the eye.
A. True
B. False
Answer:- A
10. To joining the links of a bicycle chain which of the following joint is used.
A. Cotter joint
B. Knuckle joint
D. Bolted joint
Answer:- B
11. The diameter of knuckle pin in the knuckle joint is usually...
A. 0.5 d
B. 0.8 d
C. 1.5 d
D. d
Answer:- D
12. The joints between link of a suspension bridge, which of the following joints used..
A. Cotter joint
B. Knuckle joint
D. Bolted joint
Answer:- B
13. The split - pin is used in...
A. Cotter joint
B. Knuckle joint
D. Bolted joint
Answer:- B
14. The knuckle joint is made up of...
A. Cast iron
B. stainless Steel
C. Teflon
D. All of the above
Answer:- D
15. Teflon can be used for manufacturing of knuckle joints.
A. True
B. False
Answer:- A
1. Cotter joint can be used to connect two rods for torque transmission purpose. true /false.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
2. Which of the subsequent must not be a section of cotter joint?
a) Socket
b) Spigot
c) Cotter
d) Collar
Answer: d
3. Cotter joints is connected two ......... roads.
A. Co - axial
B. Parallel
C. Perpendicular
D. Inclined
Answer: a
4. Cotter joints is used for transforming...........

A. Axial compressive load
B. Axial tensile load
C. Axial tensile or compressive load
D. Twisting load
Answer: c
5. Cotter joint is connected to parallel roads .

A. True
B. False
Answer: b
6. Cotter joints is used for transforming rotating torque.
A. True
B. False
Answer: b
7. Cotter joint is going to be use to connect the two rods for torque transmission purpose.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
8. . Cotter joint is employed when the members are subjected to which sort of stresses?
a) Axial tensile
b) Axial compressive
c) Axial tensile or compressive
d) None of the above
Answer: c
12. Within the external combination engine, a piston rod is usually connected to the cross
head by means of.......
A. Cotter joints
B. Universal joints
C. Knuckle joint
D. Bearing
Answer: a
13. The taper on cotter and slot is fomed on both the location is agreed or not..
a) agree
b) disagree
Answer: b
14. Cotter joint is a permanent fastening.

a) true
b) false
Answer: b
15. Cotter joint is used in bicycle to join pedal with sprocket wheels.
A. True
B. False
Answer:- A
1. Which of the following function can the spring perform?

a) Store energy
b) Absorb shock
c) Measure force
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
2. The helix angle is very small about 2⁰. The spring is open coiled spring.
a) Yes
b) It is closed coiled spring
c) That small angle isn’t possible
Answer: b
3. The helical spring ad wire of helical torsion spring, both are subjected to torsional shear stresses.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
4. The longest leaf in a leaf spring is called centre leaf.
a) It is called middle leaf
b) It is called master leaf
c) Yes
Answer: b
5. Multi leaf springs are not recommended for automobile and rail road suspensions.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
6. The spring index is the ratio of wire diameter to mean coil diameter.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
7. If spring index=2.5, what can be concluded about stresses in the wire?

a) They are high
b) They are negligible
c) They are moderate
Answer: a
8. A spring with index=15 is prone to buckling.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
9. If the spring is compressed completely and the adjacent coils touch each other,the the length of
spring is called as?
a) Solid length
b) Compressed length
c) Free length
Answer: a
10. If number of coils are 8 and wire diameter of spring 3mm, then solid length is given by?
b) 27mm
c) 24mm
d) 21mm
Answer: c
11. Compressed length is smaller than the solid length.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
12. Pitch of coil is defined as axial distance in compressed state of the coil.
a) Yes
b) It is measured in uncompressed state
c) It is same in uncompressed or compressed state
Answer: b
13. If uncompressed length of spring is 40mm and number of coils 10mm, then pitch of coil is?
a) 4
b) 40/9
c) 40/11
Answer: b
14. Active and inactive, both types of coils support the load although both don’t participate in spring
action.
a) Active coils don’t support the load
b) Inactive coils don’t support the load
c) Both active and inactive don’t support the load
d) Both active and inactive support the load
Answer: b
1. If a spring has plain ends then number of inactive coils is?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
Answer: d
2. Spring having square ends has 1 inactive coil.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. Martin’s factor compensates for curvature effect in springs.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
4. The angle of twist for the equivalent bar to a spring is given by? (Symbols have their usual
meaning)
a) 8PD²N/Gd⁴
b) 16PD²N/Gd⁴
c) 16PDN/Gdᵌ
d) 8PDN/Gdᵌ
Answer: b
5. The axial deflection of spring for the small angle of θ is given by?
a) 328PDᵌN/Gd⁴
b) 8PDᵌN/Gd⁴
c) 16PDᵌN/Gd⁴
d) 8PD²N/Gdᵌ
Answer: b
6. A spring of stiffness constant k is cut in two equal parts. The stiffness constant of new spring will
be k/2.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
7. For two spring connected in series, the force acting on each spring is same and equal to half of the
external force.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
8. For two springs connected in series, the net deflection is equal to the sum of deflection in two
springs.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
9. For two springs connected in parallel, net force is equal to the sum of force in each spring.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
10. Patenting is defined as the cooling below the freezing point of water.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
11. Find the Wahl’s factor if spring index is 6.

a) 1.2020
b) 1.2424
c) 1.2525
d) 1.5252
Answer: c
Explanation: K=[4C-1/4C-4]+0.615/C.
1. In concentric springs, vibrations called surge are amplified.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
2. Can concentric springs be used to obtain a force which is not proportional to its deflection?
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
3. The load shared by each spring is inversely proportional to the cross section of wire.
a) Yes
b) No, it is directly proportional
c) It is proportional to its square
d) It is proportional to its square root
Answer: b
7. What will happen if stresses induced due to surge in the spring exceeds the endurance limit stress
of the spring.
a) Fatigue Failure
b) Fracture
c) None of the listed
d) Nipping
Answer: a
8. Surge is caused by resonance effect in the spring.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
9. Surge is a desirable effect in the sprigs.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
10. For a helical torsion sprig, the stress concentration factor at inner fibre is? Give spring index=5.
a) 1.005
b) 1.175
c) 1.223
d) 1.545
Answer: b
11. For a helical torsion sprig, the stress concentration factor at outer fibre is? Give spring index=5.
a) 0.78
b) 0.87
c) 1.87
d) 0.69
Answer: b
12. Spiral spring is quite rigid.

a) Yes
b) No it is flexible
c) It is of moderate rigidity
d) Rigidity can’t be determined
Answer: b
13. The strip of spiral spring is never subjected to pure bending moment.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
15. Angle of rotation o arbour with respect to drum is given by?

b) 12ML/Ebtᵌ
c) 8 ML/Ebtᵌ
d) 16ML/Ebtᵌ
Answer: b
1. Bending stress in graduated length leaves are more than that in full length leaves.
a) Yes
b) No
c) In some cases
d) Can’t be stated
Answer: b
2. Nip is the initial gap between extra full length leaf and the graduated length leaf before the
assembly.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
3. Nipping is defined as leaving the gap between full length leaf and graduated length leaf.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
6. Belleville spring can be used in clutch application.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
7. Belleville spring can only produce linear load deflection characteristics.

a) Only linear
b) Linear as well as non linear
c) Non-linear
Answer: b
8. When two Belleville sprigs are arranged in series, half deflection is obtained for same force.
a) One fourth deflection
b) Double deflection
c) Four time deflection
Answer: b
9. When two Belleville springs are in parallel, half force is obtained for a given deflection.
a) Half force
b) Double force
c) Same force
Answer: b
10. Propagation of fatigue failure is always due to compressive stresses.

a) Due to bending
b) Due to tensile
c) Due to fatigue
Answer: b
11. The strain energy stored in a spiral spring is given by?
a) 12M²L/Ebtᵌ
b) 6M²L/Ebtᵌ
c) 8M²L/Ebtᵌ
Answer: b
1. When the helical extension spring is subjected to axial tensile force, the type of stress induced in
the spring wire is,
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Bending stress
(D) Torsional shear stress
2. Wahl factor to account for direct shear stress and stress concentration due to curvature for helical
springs is given by,
(A) (4C - 1/4C - 4) + 0.615/C
(B) (4C - 1/4C + 4) + 0.615/C
(C) (4C + 1/4C - 4) + 0.615/C
(D) (4C + 1/4C + 4) + 0.615/C
Where, C is spring index
3. The stiffness of spring is,
(A) Deflection per unit of axial force
(B) Force per unit cross-sectional area of spring
(C) Ratio of mean coil diameter to wire diameter
(D) Force required to produce unit deflection
4. Springs are used,
(A) To absorb shocks and vibrations
(B) To store and release energy
(C) To measure force
(D) For any of the above functions
5. The type of spring used to achieve any linear or non-linear load-deflection characteristic is
(A) Spiral spring
(B) Non-ferrous spring
(C) Belleville (coned disk) spring
(D) Torsion spring
6. The maximum shear stress in spring wire is induced at
(A) Inner surface of the coil
(B) Outer surface of the coil
(C) Central surface of the coil
(D) End coils
7. The type of spring used to absorb shocks and vibrations in vehicles is,
(A) Helical extension spring
(B) Multi-leaf spring
(C) Spiral spring
(D) Belleville (coned disk) spring
8. Two springs of stiffness k1 and k2 are connected in parallel, the combined stiffness of the
connection is given by,
(A) k1k2/k1 + k2
(B) k1k2/k1 - k2
(C) k1 + k2
(D) k1 + k2/k1k2
9. The ends of spring, which are in contact with the seat, are
(A) Active coils
(B) Inactive coils
(C) Transmit maximum force
(D) Do not transmit any force
10. The type of spring used in door hinges is,
(C) Spiral spring
(D) Helical torsion spring
11. When the helical compression spring is subjected to axial compressive force, the type of stress
induced in the spring wire is,
(A) Tensile stress
(C) Bending stress
12. When a helical spring is cut into two halves, the stiffness of each half spring will be,
(A) Same as original spring
(B) Double of original spring
(C) Half of original spring
(D) One fourth of original spring
13. The type of spring used to measure weights in spring balance is,
(C) Spiral spring
14. Concentric springs are used,
(A) To achieve greater load carrying capacity with given space
(B) To achieve fail-safe system
(C) To eliminate surge
(D) Any of the above objectives
1. When two concentric springs are made of same material, having same free length and
compressed equally by axial load, then the load shared by each spring is proportional to
(A) Spring index of each spring
(B) Wire diameter of each spring
(C) Mean coil diameter of each spring
(D) Square of wire diameter of each spring
2. When the helical torsion spring is subjected to torque, the type of stress induced in the spring wire
is,
(A) Tensile stress
(C) Bending stress
3. The type of spring used to achieve greater load carrying capacity within given space is
(A) Spiral spring
(B) Springs in series
(C) Multi-leaf spring
(D) Concentric springs
4. The type of spring used in valve mechanism is,
(C) Spiral spring
5. The type of spring used in vehicle clutches is,
(A) Helical compression spring
(B) Belleville spring
(C) Both (A) and (B)
6. The spring operates
(A) Within plastic limit
(B) Within elastic limit
(C) Within elasto-plastic limit
(D) Within visco-elastic limit
7. The type of spring used to absorb and release energy in mechanical watches is
(C) Spiral spring
8. Two springs of stiffness k1 and k2 are connected in series, the combined
(A) k1k2/k1 + k2
(B) k1k2/k1 - k2
(C) k1 + k2
(D) k1 + k2/k1k2
9. The function of automotive multi-leaf spring is
(A) To measure the force
(B) To store and release energy
(C) To absorb shocks and vibrations
(D) To activate the mechanism
10. The spring index is,
(A) Ratio of wire diameter to mean coil diameter
(B) Force per unit cross-sectional area of spring
(C) Ratio of mean coil diameter to wire diameter
(D) Force required to produce unit deflection
1-A spring is defined as a(an) ___ machine element.
(A) plastic
(B) elastic
(C) special purpose
(D) none of the above
2-In which of the following item(s), spring is used to store energy.
(A) clocks
(B) toys
(C) circuit breakers
(D) all of the above
3-In compression springs, the external force tends to
(A) shorten the spring
(B) lengthen the spring
(C) both (A) and (C)
(D) keep the length same
4-Torsional shear stresses are induced in the spring wire when
(A) spring is under compression
(B) spring is under tension
(C) both (A) and (B)
5-The helix angle in case of closely coiled helical spring is
(A) less than 10°
(B) 10° to 15°
(C) 15° to 20°
(D) more than 20°
6- The helix angle in case of closely coiled helical spring is
(A) less than 5°
(B) 5° to 7°
(C) 7° to 10°
(D) more than 10°
7-Helical torsion spring is used in
(A) door hinges
(B) door closers
(C) automobile starters
8-The longest leaf in Semi-elliptic leaf spring is known as
(A) chief leaf
(B) master leaf
(C) major leaf
(D) higher leaf
9-The leaves of multi-leaf springs are subjected to
(A) bending stress
(B) shear stress
(C) axial stress
10-Multi-leaf springs are used in
(A) automobile suspension
(B) railroad suspension
(C) both (A) and (B)
11-The spring index (C) is
(A) mean coil diameter / wire diameter
(B) wire diameter / mean coil diameter
(C) wire diameter x mean coil diameter
12-The spring index indicates the relative sharpness of the ___ of the coil.
(A) length
(B) curvature
(C) thickness
13-A spring index from ___ is considered as best for manufacturing considerations.
(A) 4 to 12
(B) 12 to 20
(C) 20 to 28
(D) 28 to 36
14-Axial length of the spring which is so compressed that the adjacent coils touch each other.
(A) compressed length
(B) solid length
(C) free length
ANSWERS:
1-(B), 2-(D), 3-(A), 4-(C), 5-(A), 6-(D), 7-(D), 8-(B), 9-(A), 10-(C), 11-(A), 12-(B), 13-(A), 14-(B)
15-Axial length of an unloaded helical compression spring is called
(A) compressed length
(B) solid length
(C) free length
16-The force required to produce unit deflection is known as
(A) gradient of spring
(B) stiffness of the spring
(C) spring constant
17-The coils of spring which are in contact with the seat and do not contribute to spring
action are called
(A) resting coils
(B) static coils
(C) inactive coils
(D) ideal coils
18-Following is (are) style(s) of end styles of Helical Compression Springs.
(A) plain ends
(B) Plain and ground ends
(C) square and ground ends
19-Number of inactive coils in plain end is (are)
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
20-The length of one coil in the spring is
(A) πD
(B) 2πD
(C) πD/2
(D) πD/4
21-The strain energy (E) stored in the spring is given by
Where P=Load and δ = deflection of spring
(A) Pδ/2
(B) 2Pδ
(C) Pδ/3
(D) Pδ/4
22-For two springs in series, effective stiffness (k) is
Where k1 & k2 are stiffness of springs 1 & 2 respectively
(A) k1k2 / (k1 + k2)
(B) k1 + k2
(C) k1k2
(D) (k1 + k2) / k1k2
23- For two springs in parallel, effective stiffness (k) is
Where k1 & k2 are stiffness of springs 1 & 2 respectively
(A) k1k2 / (k1 + k2)
(B) k1 + k2
(C) k1k2
(D) (k1 + k2) / k1k2
24-Factor of safety in the design of springs is usually
(A) 1.5 or less
(B) 3 or less
(C) 4.5 or less
(D) 6 or less
25-A concentric spring consist of two helical compression springs
(A) both springs always have right hand helix
(B) both springs always have left hand helix
(C) both springs always have opposite hand of helices
(D) any of the above
26-Cocentric springs are used in
(A) Heavy duty diesel engines
(B) aircraft engines
(C) railroad suspensions
27-The initial gap between the extra full-length leaf and the graduated-length leaf before the
assembly, is called as
(A) clearance
(B) nip
(C) gap
(D) eye
28-The method used to induce a layer of residual compressive stress on the surface of the
spring wire, is
(A) shot peening
(B) burnishing
(C) lapping
ANSWERS:
15-(C), 16-(D), 17-(C), 18-(D), 19-(A), 20-(A), 21-(A), 22-(A), 23-(B), 24-(A), 25-(C), 26-(D), 27-(B), 28-(A)
1. Which of the following are functions of bearings?

a) Ensure free rotation of shaft with minimum friction
b) Holding shaft in a correct position
c) Transmit the force of the shaft to the frame
Answer: d
2. A radial bearing supports the load that acts along the axis of the shaft.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
3. A_______ bearing supports the load acting along the axis of the shaft.
a) Thrust
b) Radial
c) Longitudinal
d) Transversal
Answer: a
4. Sliding contact bearings, also called plain bearings have no problem of wear.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
5. In steam and gas turbines, rolling contact bearings are used.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
6. Which of the following are true about plasticity?

a) Permanent Deformation
b) Ability to retain deformation under load or after removal of load
c) Plastic deformation is greater than elastic deformation
Answer: d
7. Which of the following is measure of stiffness?

a) Modulus of elasticity
b) Modulus of plasticity
c) Resilience
d) Toughness
Answer: a
8. Which of the following facts are true for resilience?

a) Ability of material to absorb energy when deformed elastically
b) Ability to retain deformation under the application of load or after removal of load
c) Ability of material to absorb energy when deformed plastically
Answer: a
9. Modulus of resilience is defined as

a) Strain energy per unit volume
b) Strain energy per unit area
c) Independent of strain energy
Answer: a
10. In gear boxes and small size motors, rolling contact bearings are used.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
1. Deep groove ball bearings creates a lot of noise.

a) Yes
b) They create very less noise
c) Depends on the application
d) No reference frame for comparison is mentioned
Answer: b
2. There is problem of alignment in deep groove ball bearings.

a) Yes
b) No, it is self-aligning
c) It aligns itself only in some particular cases
Answer: a
3. Deep groove ball bearing has immense rigidity.

a) True
b) No it has point contact and hence low rigidity
c) It has surface contact
d) It has line contact
Answer: b
4. Cylindrical load bearing has lower load capacity as compared to deep groove ball bearing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b.
5. Angular contact bearing can take thrust as well as radial loads.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
6. In angular contact bearings, ____ bearings are required to take thrust load in both directions.
a) 1
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
Answer: c
7. The angular play bearing must be mounted without axial play.
a) Yes
b) Little tolerance is adjusted
c) Little tolerance is necessary
Answer: a
8. Taper rolling supports

a) Axial loads
b) Thrust loads
c) Both axial and thrust loads
Answer: c
9. Which of the following isn’t the property of taper roller?

a) High rigidity
b) Easy dismantling
c) Take low radial and heavy loads
d) All are the properties of tapper roller
Answer: c
10. Which of the following cannot take radial load?

a) Cylindrical Roller bearing
b) Taper roller bearing
c) Thrust ball bearing
Answer: c
11. Which of the following cannot tolerate misalignment?

a) Angular contact bearing
b) Cylinder roller bearing
c) Thrust ball bearings
Answer: d.
12. Cylinder roller creates lesser noise than deep groove ball bearing.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
1. Static load is defined as the load acting on the bearing when shaft is _____
a) Stationary
b) Rotating at rpm<10
c) Rotating at rpm<5
Answer: a
2. A total permanent deformation of 0.0001 of the ball diameter is taken for considering static load
capacity of the shaft.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
3. Stribeck equation gives dynamic load capacity of the bearing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
4. Which of the following is expression for stribeck equation?(Number of balls=z)?

a) C=kd²z/5
b) C=kd²z/15
c) C=kd²z/10
Answer: a
Explanation: C=(1/5)zP and P=kd².
5. The life of an individual ball bearing is the time period for which it works without any signs of
failures.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
6. For majority of bearings, actual life is considerably greater than rated life.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
7. The dynamic load carrying capacity of a bearing is defined as the radial load in radial bearings that
can be carried for a minimum life of 1000 revolutions.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
8. In the expression of dynamic load capacity P=XVF(r) + YF(a), V stands for ?

a) Race rotation factor
b) Radial factor
c) Thrust factor
Answer: a
12. A rolling contact bearing is specified as X307. Determine the series.

a) Extra light series
b) Light series
c) Medium series
d) Heavy series
Answer: c.
13. Needles bearing consist of rollers of small diameter and very small length.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
14. Extreme pressure causes ______ wear in the bearing parts.

a) Abrasive
b) Corrosive
c) Pitting
Answer: b
15. Scoring is a ________ phenomenon.
a) Stick-slip
b) Fracture
c) Fatigue
d) In-out
Answer: a
1. Thick film lubrication describes a phenomenon where two surfaces are _______ separated.
a) Completely
b) Partially
c) Not
Answer: a
2. Hydrodynamic bearing is a self-acting bearing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
3. A journal bearing is a ______ contact bearing working on the hydrodynamic lubrication and which
supports load in____ direction.
a) Sliding, Axial
b) Rolling, Radial
c) Sliding, Radial
d) Rolling, Axial
Answer: c
4. Partial bearing is preferred over journal bearing.

a) True
b) No
c) More friction losses
Answer: a
5. Temperature rise in partial bearing is ____ than full bearing.

a) Lesser
b) Greater
c) Equal
d) Undeterminable
Answer: a
6. A clearance bearing is design accurately to keep the radius of journal and bearing equal.
a) Journal radius is kept larger
b) Journal radius is kept smaller
c) True
Answer: b
7. Fitted bearing must be partial bearing.

a) True
b) No
c) No lubricating space is required
Answer: a
8. Footstep bearing is an axial load bearing.

a) True
b) Thrust load
c) Shear load
Answer: b
9. Hydrostatic and hydrodynamic lubrication are the same thing.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
10. If we exclude the cost factor, which bearing is preferred?

a) Hydrostatic
b) Hydrodynamic
c) Both are equally preferred
Answer: a
11. If fluid film pressure is high and surface rigidity is low than mode of lubrication is called as
elastohydrodynamic lubrication.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
7. Which of the following are not true for petroff’s equation?

a) Shaft is considered concentric with the bearing
b) Bearing is subjected to light load
c) Is used to find coefficient of friction
d) Frictional torque is given by fpr²l
Answer: d
8. In hydrodynamic lubrication, film thickness remains unaffected by change in speeds.

a) True
b) Increase with increase in speed
c) Decrease with increase in speed
d) Disappear as the speed tends to infinty
Answer: b
8. A single transverse weld is preferred over double transverse fillet weld.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
9. Transverse fillet weld can be designed using the same equations as of parallel fillet weld.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
12. In hydrostatic bearings
(A) The Oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
(B) The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
(C) Do not require external supply of lubricant
(D) Grease is used for lubrication
Answer: Option B
14. Oil in journal bearing should be applied at the point where load is
(A) Nil or lightest
(B) Maximum
(C) Average
(D) Any one of the above
15. The rated life of a bearing varies
(A) Directly as load
(B) Inversely as square of load
(C) Inversely as cube of load
(D) Inversely as fourth power of load
Answer: Option C
1. A zero film bearing is a bearing
(A) Where the surfaces of journal and the bearing are separated by a thick film of lubricant
(B) Where the surfaces of journal and the bearing are partially separated by a film of lubricant and there is partial metal
to metal contact
(C) Where the surfaces of journal and the bearing are separated by a film created by elastic deflection of parts
(D) Where there is no lubricant
2. The length to diameter ratio for a long bearing is
(A) More than 1
(B) Less than 1
(C) 8
(D) 1
3. Boundary lubricated bearing is
(A) Thick film bearing
(B) Thin film bearing
(C) Hydrodynamic bearing
(D) Hydrostatic bearing
4. Compared with Babbitt, bronze
(A) Is cheaper
(B) Has high strength
(C) Can withstand high pressure
(D) Has all three characteristics
5. Sommerfeld number is
(A) Similar to bearing characteristic number
(B) Similar to Reynold’s number
(C) Dimensionless parameter that contains all the design parameters
(D) Used to find out dynamic load carrying capacity of the hydrodynamic bearing
6. If µ = absolute viscosity, N= speed of the journal and p = unit bearing pressure, then the bearing characteristic number
is given by
(A) μN/p
(B) μp/N
(C) pN/μ
(D) μ/pN
7. The popular bearing material is Babbitt because it has
(A) Excellent conformability
(B) Excellent embeddability
(C) Ability to be used in form of thin strip
(D) All three characteristics
8. In hydrodynamic bearing, when the shaft begins to rotate in clockwise direction,
(A) The journal climbs to the right side of the bearing without metal to metal contact
(B) The journal climbs to the left side of the bearing without metal to metal contact
(C) The journal sinks down to the bottom of the bearing
(D) The journal is at the center of the bearing
9. In case of partial bearing, the angle of contact of the bushing with the journal is usually
(A) 120°
(B) 180°
(C) 45°
(D) 360°
10. The property of the bearing material to allow the dust and abrasive particles to get absorbed on the surface of the
lining is called
(A) Embeddability
(B) Conformability
(C) Viscosity
(D) Endurance limit stress
11. In case of full journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bushing with the journal is
(A) 60°
(B) 90°
(C) 180°
(D) 360°
12. The length to diameter ratio for a short bearing is
(A) More than 1
(B) Less than 1
(C) 8
(D) 1
13. Petroff’s equation is used to find out
(A) Load carrying capacity of the bearing
(B) Frictional losses in the bearing
(C) Unit bearing pressure on the bearing
(D) Pressure distribution around the periphery of the journal
14. A thin film bearing is a bearing
(A) Where the surfaces of journal and the bearing are completely separated by a film of lubricant
(B) Where the surfaces of journal and the bearing are partially separated by a film of lubricant and there is partial
metal to metal contact
15. In case of partial bearing, the angle of contact of the bushing with the journal is
(A) 270°
(B) More than 180°
(C) Less than 180°
(D) 360°
1. In hydrostatic bearing,
(A) The axis of journal is eccentric with respect to axis of bearing
(B) The axis of journal is concentric with respect to axis of bearing
(C) The axis can be either eccentric or concentric depending upon speed
2. The unit of viscosity is
(A) N/mm2
(B) N-mm
(C) N-s/mm2
(D) N-mm/s
3. The length to diameter ratio for a square bearing is
(A) More than 1
(B) Less than 1
(C) 8
(D) 1
4. For hydrodynamic lubrication
(A) There should be relative motion between the surfaces of the journal and the bearing and wedge shaped clearance
space
(B) There should be external source like pump to supply lubricant under pressure
(C) There should be elastic deformation of the parts in contact
(D) There should be metal to metal contact
5. For hydrostatic lubrication
space
6. For elasto-hydrodynamic lubrication
space
7. In Petroff’s equation, it assumed that the lubricant film is
(A) Converging
(B) Diverging
(C) Uniform
(D) Converging diverging
8. A thick film bearing is a bearing
(A) Where the surfaces of journal and the bearing are completely separated by a film of lubricant
(B) Where the surfaces of journal and the bearing are partially separated by a film of lubricant and there is partial metal
to metal contact
9. In hydrodynamic bearing,
(A) The axis of journal is eccentric with respect to axis of bearing
(B) The axis of journal is concentric with respect to axis of bearing
(C) The axis can be either eccentric or concentric depending upon speed
10. The property of the bearing material to yield and adopt its shape to that of journal is called
(A) Embeddability
(B) Conformability
(C) Viscosity
(D) Endurance limit stress
11. As compared with oil with VI=80, a lubricating oil with VI=90
(A) Has more viscosity
(B) Has less viscosity
(C) Has more rate of change of viscosity with respect to temperature
(D) Has less rate of change of viscosity with respect to temperature
12. When the bearing is subjected to fluctuating or impact load the bearing characteristic number should be ________
times its minimum value
(A) 5 times
(B) 10 times
(C) 15 times
(D) 20 times
Sliding Contact Bearings:

1. Which of the following are included in the finishing operations for porous bearing?
[IES-2005]
1. Infiltration 2.Sizing 3.Heat treatment 4.Coining
Select the using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans. (a)
Basic Modes of Lubrication:

2. In sliding contact bearings, a positive pressure can be built up and a load supported by a fluid only by the use of a:
[IES-2005]
(a) Diverging film (b) Converging-diverging film
(c) Converging film (d) Flat film
Ans. (c)
3. Which one of the following is correct? [IES-2008]

A hydrodynamic slider bearing develops load bearing capacity mainly because of-
(a) Slider velocity (b) wedge shaped oil film
(c) Oil compressibility (d) oil viscosity
Ans. (b)
4. Assertion (A): In steady rotating condition the journal inside a hydrodynamic journal bearing remains floating on the
oil film. [IES-2008]
Reason (R): The hydrodynamic pressure developed in steady rotating conditions in journal bearings balances the load on
the journal.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)
5. Increase in values of which of the following results in an increase of the coefficient of friction in a hydrodynamic
bearing? [IES 2007]
1. Viscosity of the oil. 2. Clearance between shaft and bearing.
3. Shaft speed.
Select the using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b) 2 is false Petroff’s law says
6. A journal bearing with hydrodynamic lubrication is running steadily with a certain amount of minimum film thickness.
When the load and speed are doubled, how does the minimum film thickness vary? [IES-2008]
(a) Remains unchanged
(b) Gets doubled
(c) Gets reduced to one-fourth of original value
(d) Gets reduced to half of original value
Ans. (a)
7. What is the main advantage of hydrodynamic bearing over roller bearing?

(a) Easy to assemble [IES-2005]
(b) Relatively low price
(c) Superior load carrying capacity at higher speeds
(d) Less frictional resistance
Ans. (c)
8. Consider tile following statements: [IES-1993; 2002; 2006]

Radius of friction circle for a journal bearing depends upon
1. Coefficient of friction
2. Radius of the journal
3. Angular speed of rotation of the shaft
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 3
Ans. (b) radius of friction circle = f × r
9. In a journal bearings, the radius of the friction circle increases with the increase in-
[IES-1997]
(a) Load (b) Radius of the journal
(c) Speed of the journal (d) Viscosity of the lubricant
Ans. (b)
10. Consider the following statements: [IES 2007]

For a journal rotating in a bearing under film lubrication conditions, the frictional resistance is-
1. Proportional to the area of contact
2. Proportional to the viscosity of lubricant
3. Proportional to the speed of rotation
4. Independent of the pressure
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (a) Viscous resistance (F) = T ×Area = (µπDN/60t) × π DL= µπ 2D2NL/60t
11. The bearing characteristic number in a hydrodynamic bearing depends on-

(a) Length, width and load (b) length, width and speed. [IES-1996]
(c) Viscosity, speed and load (d) viscosity, speed and bearing pressure.
Ans. (d)
12. It is seen from the curve that there is a minimum value of the coefficient of friction (μ) for a particular value of the
Bearing Characteristic Number denoted by α. What is this value of the Bearing Characteristic Number called? [IES-2004]
(a) McKee Number (b) Reynolds Number
(c) Bearing Modulus (d) Somerfield Number
Ans. (c)
13. Assertion (A): In equilibrium position, the journal inside a journal bearing remains floating on the oil film. [IES-1995]
Reason (R): In a journal bearing, the load on the bearing is perpendicular to the axis of the journal.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Ans. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation for A.
14. A full journal bearing having clearance to radius ratio of 1/100, using a lubricant with μ=28×10-3 Pa s supports the
shaft journal running at N = 2400 rpm If bearing pressure is 1.4 MPa, the Somerfield number is [IES-2001]
(a) 8×10-3 (b) 8×10-5 (c) 0.48 (d) 0.48×10
Ans. (a) S = (µNs/p) (r/c)2
15. A sliding contact bearing is operating under stable condition. The pressure developed in oil film is p when the journal
rotates at N rpm. The dynamic viscosity of lubricant is μ and effective coefficient of friction between bearing and journal
of diameter D is f. Which one of the following statements is correct for the bearing? [IES-2001]
(a) f is directly proportional to μ and p
(b) f is directly proportional to μ and N
(c) f is inversely proportional to p and f)
(d) f is directly proportional to μ and inversely proportional to N
Ans. (b) Petroff’s law f= 2π2µns/p (r/c) + k ---> 0.002
16. Which one of the following sets of parameters should be monitored for determining safe operation of journal
bearing? [IES-2000]
Oil pressure, bearing metal temperature and bearing vibration
(b) Bearing vibration, oil pressure and speed of shaft
(c) Bearing metal temperature and oil pressure
(d) Oil pressure and bearing vibration
Ans. (a)
17. Consider the following pairs of types of bearings and applications:

1. Partial Journal bearing………………. Rail wagon axles
2. Full journal bearing ………………….Diesel engine crank-shaft
3. Radial bearing ……………………….Combined radial and axial loads
Which of these pairs is/are correctly matched? [IES-2000]
(a) 1 alone (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
18. Match List I with List II and select the using the code given below the lists: [IES-1995]
List I (Requirement) List II (Type)
A. High temperature service 1. Teflon bearing
B. High load 2. Carbon bearing
C. No lubrication 3. Hydrodynamic bearing
D. Bushings 4. Sleeve bearing
Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (d)
19. Assertion (A): In anti-friction bearings, the frictional resistance is very low as the shaft held by it remains in floating
condition by the hydrodynamic pressure developed by the lubricant. [IES-2006]
Reason (R): In hydrodynamic journal bearings, hydrodynamic pressure is developed because of flow of lubricant in a
converging -diverging channel
Ans. (d)
20. Satisfactory hydrodynamic film in a journal bearing is formed when

(a) Journal speed is low; unit pressure on the bearing is high and viscosity of lubricant used is low [IES-2006]
(b) Journal speed is low; unit pressure on the bearing is low and viscosity of lubricant used is low
(c) Journal speed is high; unit pressure on the bearing is high and viscosity of lubricant used is high
(d) Appropriate combination of journal speed, unit pressure on bearing and lubricant viscosity exists resulting in low
coefficient of friction
Ans. (c)
21. In an oil-lubricated journal bearing, coefficient of friction between the journal and the bearing. [IES-1995]
(a) Remains constant at all speeds.
(b) is minimum at zero speed and increases monotonically with increase in speed.
(c) is maximum at zero speed and decreases monotonically with increase in speed.
(d) becomes minimum at an optimum speed and then increases with further increase in speed.
Ans. (d)
22. Match List I with List II and select the : [IES-2002]

List I (Bearings) List II (Load type)
A. Hydrodynamic Journal bearing 1. High radial and thrust load combined
B. Rectangular Hydrostatic bearing 2. Radial load only
C. Taper Roller bearing 3. Thrust load only
D. Angular contact ball bearing 4. Medium to low radial and thrust combined
ABCD ABCD
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (a)
23. Assertion (A): Oil as a cutting fluid result in a lower coefficient of friction.
Reason (R): Oil forms a thin liquid film between the tool face and chip, and it provides 'hydrodynamic lubrication'. [IES-
2000]
Ans. (c) Oil forms a thin liquid film between the tool face and chip, and it provides
'Boundary Lubrication’
24. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched? [IES-2000]
(a) Beauchamp tower ……………………First experiments on journal bearings
(b) Osborne Reynolds ……………………Antifriction bearings
(c) Somerfield number……………………Pivot and Collar bearings
(d) Ball bearings………………………….Hydrodynamic lubrication
Ans. (a)
25. Match List-I (Type of Anti-friction bearing) with List-II (Specific Use) and select the using the code given below the
Lists: [IES-2006]
List-I List -II
A. Self-aligning ball bearing 1. For pure axial load
B. Taper roller bearing 2. For hinged condition
C. Deep groove ball bearing 3. For pure radial load
D. Thrust ball bearing 4. For axial and radial load
ABCDABCD
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (c)
26. Which one of the following types of bearings is employed in shafts of gearboxes of automobiles? [IES-1999]
(a) Hydrodynamic journal bearings (b) Multi-lobed journal bearings
(c) Antifriction bearings (d) Hybrid journal bearings
Ans. (c)
27. Assertion (A): In hydrodynamic journal bearings, the rotating journal is held in floating condition by the
hydrodynamic pressure developed in the lubricant.
Reason (R): Lubricant flows in a converging-diverging channel. [IES-1994]
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R provides correct explanation for A
Hydrostatic Step Bearing

28. Assertion (A): Hydrostatic lubrication is more advantageous when compared to hydrodynamic lubrication during
starting and stopping the journal in its bearing.
Reason (R): In hydrodynamic lubrication, the fluid film pressure is generated by the rotation of the journal. [IES-1998]
Ans. (b)
29. The most suitable bearing for carrying very heavy loads with slow speed is
(a) Hydrodynamic bearing (b) ball bearing [IAS 1994]
(c) Roller bearing (d) hydrostatic bearing
Ans. (d)
Comparison of Rolling and Sliding Contact bearings
30. Match List -I (Bearings) with List-II (Applications) and select the using the codes given below the lists: [IAS-1998]
List –I List-II
A. Journal bearing 1. Electric motors
B. Thrust bearing 2. Watches
C. Conical pivot bearing 3. Marine engines
D. Ball bearing 4. Swivelling chairs
ABCD ABCD
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (c)
2.Antifriction bearings are

A. Sleeve bearings
B. Hydrodynamic bearings
C. Thin lubricated bearings
D. None of the above
Answer: Option D
2. A cotter joint is used to connect two __________ rods.

A. Co-axial
B. Perpendicular
C. Parallel
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
3. The rated life of a bearing varies

A. Directly as load
B. Inversely as square of load
C. Inversely as cube of load
D. Inversely as fourth power of load
Answer: Option C
1. The bending stress in a curved beam is

A. Zero at the centroidal axis
B. Zero at the point other than centroidal axis
C. Maximum at the neutral axis
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
2. MCQ: Antifriction bearings are__________________?
A. sleeve bearings
B. hydrodynamic bearings
C. thin lubricated bearings
D. ball and roller bearings
E. none of the above
Answer: E
1.Which of the following is an antifriction bearing?
(a) journal bearing

(b) collar bearing
(c) needle bearing
(d) pivot bearing
Answer:
Option (c)
2.The rolling contact bearings are known as
(a) thick lubricated bearings

(b) plastic bearings
(c) thin lubricated bearings
(d) antifriction bearings
Answer:
Option (d)
3.The ball bearings are provided with a cage
(a) to reduce friction

(b) to facilitate slipping of balls
(c) to prevent the lubricant from flowing out
(d) to maintain the balls at a fixed distance apart
Answer:
Option (d)
4.The rolling contact bearings as compared to sliding contact bearings have
(a) small overall dimensions

(b) accuracy of shaft alignment
(c) low starting and low running friction except at very high speeds
(d) all the mentioned
Answer:
Option (d)
5.If a bearing is designated by the number 305, it means that the bearing is of
(a) light series whose bore is 5 mm

(b) light series whose bore is 25 mm
(c) medium series whose bore is 5 mm
(d) medium series whose bore is 25 mm
Answer: Option (d)
6.The antifriction bearings
(a) have low starting and low running friction at moderate speeds
(b) have a high initial cost
(c) can carry both radial and thrust loads
(d) all the mentioned
Answer:
Option (d)
7.Which of the following bearing is preferred for oscillating conditions?
(a) Double row roller bearing

(b) Taper roller bearing
(c) Needle roller bearing
(d) Angular contact single row ball bearing
Answer:
Option (c)
8.The tapered roller bearings can take
(a) radial load only

(b) axial load only
(c) both radial and axial loads
(d) none of the mentioned
Answer:
Option (c)
9.The listed life of a rolling bearing, in a catalog is the,
(a) minimum expected life

(b) maximum expected life
(c) average life
Answer:
Option (a)
(a) sleeve bearings

(b) hydrodynamic bearings
(c) thin lubricated bearings
Answer:
Option (d)
1. Rolling contact bearing is also called as
A. Plastic bearing
B. Thin lubrication bearing
C. Thick lubrication bearing
D. Antifriction bearing.
Ans - D
2. Life of bearing is expressed in a..

A. Billions of revolution
B. Lacks of revolution
C. Hundreds of revolution
D. None of these
Ans - A
3. Load acting on bearing in its plane of rotation is called as a...

A. Radial load
B. Axial load
C. Perpendicular load
D. Thrust load
Ans - A
4. Which bearing is Antifriction bearing

A. Thick lubrication bearing
B. Thin lubrication bearing
C. Rolling or ball bearing
D. None
Ans – C
(a) thick lubricated bearings

(b) plastic bearings
(c) ball and roller bearings
(d) thin lubricated bearings
Answer:
Option (c)
12.Different types of bearings are designed to operate at different operating speeds.
Speed is specified as the maximum
(a) rpm
(b) metres/second
(c) metres/minute
(d) metres/hour
Answer:Option (b)
13.Deep groove ball bearings create a lot of noise.
(a) Yes
(b) Depends on the application
(c) They create very less noise
(d) No reference frame for comparison is mentioned
Answer:
Option (c)
14.There is a problem of alignment in deep groove ball bearings.
(a) Yes
(b) No, it is self-aligning
(c) It aligns itself only in some particular cases
(d) Can’t be determined
Answer:
Option (a)
15.The deep groove ball bearing has immense rigidity.
(a) True
(b) No, it has point contact and hence low rigidity
(c) It has surface contact
(d) It has line contact
Answer:
Option (b)
16.Deep groove ball bearings are used for
(a) heavy thrust load only

(b) the small angular displacement of shafts
(c) radial load at high speed
(d) combined thrust and radial loads at high speed
Answer:
Option (d)
17.Cylindrical roller bearing has a lower load capacity as compared to deep groove ball bearing.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
Option (b)
18.Angular contact bearing can take thrust as well as radial loads.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
Option (a)
19.In angular contact bearings, ____ bearings are required to take thrust load in both directions.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
Option (b)
20.In standard taper roller bearings, the angle of taper of the outer raceway is
(a) 5°
(b) 8°
(c) 15°
(d) 25°
Answer:
Option (d)
21.Which of the following bearings carry thrust load in one direction?

(a) Spherical roller thrust bearings
(b) Taper roller bearings
(c) Spherical roller thrust bearings and taper roller bearings
Answer:
Option (c)
22.Which of the bearings given below SHOULD NOT be subjected to a thrust load?
(a) Deep groove ball bearing
(b) Angular contact ball bearing
(c) Cylindrical (straight) roller bearing
(d) Single row tapered roller bearing
Answer:
Option (c)
23.The angular play bearing must be mounted without axial play.
(a) Yes
(b) Little tolerance is adjusted
(c) Little tolerance is necessary
(d) Can’t be stated
Answer:
Option (a)
24.Tapered roller bearings can take

(a) radial load only
(b) axial load only
(c) both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being greater than unity
(d) both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being less than unity
Answer:
Option (c)
25.Which of the following isn’t the property of a taper roller bearing?
(a) High rigidity
(b) Easy dismantling
(c) Take low radial and heavy loads
(d) It is unsuitable for high speed applications
Answer:
Option (c)
26.The construction feature which makes tapered roller bearings unique in that races are
(a) attachable
(b) separable
(c) self-aligning
Answer:
Option (b)
27.Which of the following cannot take the radial load?
(a) Cylindrical Roller bearing
(b) Taper roller bearing
(c) Thrust ball bearing
(d) Spherical roller bearing
Answer:
Option (c)
28.Which one of the following bearing is intended for a very heavy radial load?
(a) Ball bearing
(b) Self-aligning roller bearing
(c) Roller bearing
(d) Thrust bearing
Answer: Option (b)
29.Which of the following cannot tolerate misalignment?
(a) Angular contact bearing
(b) Cylinder roller bearing
(c) Thrust ball bearings
(d) All of the listed
Answer:
Option (d)
30. A cylinder roller creates lesser noise than a deep groove ball bearing.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
Option (b)
31. The needle rollers are a maximum of _______ millimeter in diameter.
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer:
Option (b)
33.The piston pin bearings in heavy-duty diesel engines are
(a) needle roller bearings

(b) tapered roller bearings
(c) spherical roller bearings
(d) cylindrical roller bearings
Answer:
Option (a)
34.What type of bearing will you recommend for use in the conveyor belt roller?
(a) Ball-bearing
(b) Roller bearing
(c) Magnetic bearing
(d) None of the mentioned
Answer: Option (b)
35.Which of the following elements is not used as a roller in roller bearings?
(a) Cylindrical
(b) Taper
(c) Spherical
(d) None of the mentioned
Answer:
Option (d)
36.Needles bearing consist of rollers of small diameter and very small length.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
Option (b)
37.The bearings of heavy series have capacity __________ over the medium series.
(a) 10 to 20%
(b) 20 to 30%
(c) 30 to 40%
(d) 40 to 50%
Answer:
Option (b)
38.The bearings of medium series have capacity __________ over the light series.
(a) 10 to 20%
(b) 20 to 30%
(c) 30 to 40%
(d) 40 to 50%
Answer:
Option (c)
39.A rolling contact bearing is specified as X307. Calculate the bearing diameter.
(a) 35 mm
(b) 28 mm
(c) 21 mm
(d) 7 mm
Answer:
Option (a)
40.A rolling contact bearing is specified as X307. Determine the series.
(a) Extra light series
(b) Light series
(c) Medium series
(d) Heavy series
Answer:
Option (c)
41.Which one of the following parts of a ball bearing is mounted on the rotating shafts and tends to rotate the shaft?
(a) Inner race

(b) Outer race
(c) Rolling element
(d) Cage
Answer:
Option (a)
42.Which one of the following parts of a ball bearing is mounted to the housing and is stationary?
(a) Inner race

(b) Outer race
(c) Rolling element
(d) Cage
Answer:
Option (b)
43.Which one of the following parts of a ball bearing acts as a barrier between the
balls preventing them from bumping into each other?
(a) Inner race

(b) Outer race
(c) Rolling element
(d) Cage
Answer:
Option (d)
44.An antifriction bearing consists of
(a) rolling elements

(b) races
(c) cages
(d) all of the listed
Answer:
Option (d)
45.The static load is defined as the load acting on the bearing when the shaft is _____.
(a) stationary
(b) rotating at rpm<5
(c) rotating at rpm<10
(d) rotating at rpm<15
Answer:
Option (a)
46.A total permanent deformation of 0.0001 of the ball diameter is taken for considering the static load capacity of the sh
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
Option (a)
47.Stribeck equation gives the dynamic load capacity of the bearing.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
Option (b)
48.Which of the following is an expression for the Stribeck equation? (Number of balls=z)
(a) C=kd²z/5
(b) C=kd²z/10
(c) C=kd²z/15
(d) C=kd²z/20
Answer:
Option (a)
49.The life of an individual ball bearing is the time period for which it works without any signs of failures.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
Option (b)
50.The rated life of a bearing varies
(a) directly as load

(b) inversely as the square of the load
(c) inversely as the cube of the load
(d) inversely as fourth power of load
Answer:
Option (c)
51.For the majority of bearings, actual life is considerably greater than rated life.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
Option (a)
52.The dynamic load-carrying capacity of a bearing is defined as the radial load in radial bearings that
can be carried for a minimum life of 1000 revolutions.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
Option (b)
53.In the expression of dynamic load capacity P=XVFr + YFa, V stands for?
(a) Race rotation factor

(b) Radial load factor
(c) Thrust load factor
(d) Service factor
Answer:
Option (a)
54.In the expression of dynamic load capacity P=XVFr + YFa, X stands for?

(d) Service factor
Answer:
Option (b)
55.In the expression of dynamic load capacity P=XVFr + YFa, Y stands for?

(d) Service factor
Answer:
Option (c)
56.Calculate the bearing life if expected life for 90% bearings is 9000 hr and the shaft is rotating at 1500 rpm.
(a) 850 million rev

(b) 810 million rev
(c) 810 hr
(d) 850 hr
Answer:
Option (b)
57.The ball bearing is subjected to a radial load of 4000 N. Expected life for 90% bearings is 9000 hr and the shaft is rot
(a) 42.21 kN
(b) 37.29 kN
(c) 26.33 kN
(d) 35.22 kN
Answer:
Option (b)
58.Extreme Pressure (EP) additives cause ______ wear in the bearing parts.
(a) abrasive
(b) corrosive
(c) pitting
(d) fatigue
Answer:
Option (b)
59.Scoring is a ________ phenomenon.
(a) stick-slip
(b) fracture
(c) fatigue
(d) in-out
Answer:
Option (a)
60._______ is a surface fatigue failure which occurs when the load on the bearing part exceeds the
surface endurance strength of the material.
(a) Scoring
(b) Pitting
(c) Corrosion
(d) Abrasive wear
Answer:
Option (b)
61.Ball bearings are, usually, made from
(a) low carbon steel

(b) high carbon steel
(c) medium carbon steel
(d) chrome steel
Answer:
Option (d)
62.The purpose of lubrication in an antifriction bearing is
(a) to reduce the friction between balls and races

(b) dissipation of frictional heat prevention of corrosion
(c) protection of the bearing from dirt and other foreign particles
(d) all of the mentioned
Answer:
Option (d)
63._________is suitable as a lubricant for low and moderate loads applications of rolling contact bearing.
(a) Grease
(b) Lubricating oil
(c) Graphite
(d) Air
Answer:
Option (a)
64._________is suitable as a lubricant for heavy-duty applications of rolling contact bearing.
(a) Grease
(b) Lubricating oil
(c) Graphite
(d) Air
Answer:
Option (b)
32. Which bearing is available both with or without an inner ring?

(a) Deep groove ball
(b) Cylindrical roller
(c) Needle roller
(d) Spherical roller
Answer:
Option (c)
1. Is use of a flywheel recommended when a large motor is required only for a small instant of time?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
2. Flywheels are used in punching and shear operation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
3. Which of the following are functions of flywheel?

a) Store and release energy during work cycle
b) Reduce power capacity of the electric motor
c) Reduce amplitude of speed fluctuations
View Answer
Answer: d
4. When comes down to stress reduction, which one is preferred?

a) Solid flywheel
b) Split flywheel
c) Both have equal stresses
View Answer
Answer: b
5. Flywheel and governor can be interchanged.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
6. If load on the engine is constant, the mean speed will be constant and ___ will not operate.
a) Flywheel
b) Governor
c) Both flywheel and governor
View Answer
Answer: b
7. The operation of flywheel is continuous.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
8. Which of the following doesn’t waste energy?

a) Flywheel
b) Governor
c) Both flywheel and governor
d) Neither flywheel nor governor
View Answer
Answer: a
9. Which of the following is not true for cast iron flywheels?

a) Excellent damping
b) Cheap
c) Given complex shape
d) Sudden failure
Answer: d
10. When the driving torque is more than load torque, flywheel is ______
a) Accelerated
b) Decelerated
c) Constant velocity
Answer: a
14. Feather key can be used to prevent axial motion between two elements.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
15. Keyed joints never lead to stress concentration on shafts.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1. The maximum fluctuation of energy of flywheel is,
(A) Difference between maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
(B) Difference between maximum and mean kinetic energy during the cycle
(C) Difference between mean and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
(D) Mean of maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
2. For finding out the bending moment for the arm (spoke) of flywheel, the arm is assumed as,
(A) A cantilever beam fixed at the rim and subjected to tangential force at the hub
(B) A simply supported beam fixed at hub and rim and carrying uniformly distributed load
(C) A cantilever beam fixed at the hub and subjected to tangential force at the rim
(D) A fixed beam fixed at hub and rim and carrying uniformly distributed load
3. The maximum fluctuation of speed of flywheel is,

(A) Difference between maximum and minimum speeds during the cycle
(B) Difference between maximum and mean speeds during the cycle
(C) Difference between mean and minimum speeds during the cycle
(D) Mean of maximum and minimum speeds during the cycle
4. The coefficient of fluctuation of speed of flywheel is given by,

(A) (ωmax - ωmin)/ω
(B) 2 (ωmax - ωmin)/ (ωmax + ωmin)
(C) 2 (nmax - nmin)/ (nmax + nmin)
(D) Any one of the above
5. A flywheel is used,
(A) To store and release energy when required during the work cycle
(B) To reduce the power capacity of electric motor
(C) To reduce the amplitude of speed fluctuations
(D) Any one of above functions
6. The coefficient of fluctuation of energy of flywheel is,

(A) Ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to work done per cycle
(B) Ratio of to work done per cycle to maximum fluctuation of energy
(C) Difference between maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
(D) Ratio of maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
7. The cross-section of the flywheel arm is,

(A) I section
(B) Rectangular
(C) Elliptical
(D) Circular
8. The rim of the flywheel is subjected to,

(A) Direct tensile stress and bending stress
(B) Torsional shear stress and bending stress
(C) Direct shear stress and bending stress
(D) Compressive stress and bending stress
9. The spokes of the flywheel are subjected to,

(C) Tensile stress
10. The coefficient of fluctuation of speed of flywheel is,

(A) Ratio of maximum and minimum speeds during the cycle
(B) Ratio of maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed
(C) Ratio of mean speed to maximum fluctuation of speed during the cycle
(D) Sum of maximum fluctuation of speed and the mean speed
11. The hub diameter of the flywheel is taken as,

(A) 2.5 (shaft diameter)
(B) 1.5 (shaft diameter)
(C) 4 (shaft diameter)
(D) 2 (shaft diameter)
12. The tensile stress in the rim of the flywheel is given by,
Where, ρ is mass density and v is linear velocity at the mean radius of the rim.
(A) ρv2/2
(B) πρv2
(C) ρv2
(D) 2 ρv2
13. A flywheel is used,

(A) To limit the fluctuations of speed during each cycle
(B) To control the mean speed of the engine
(C) To maintain a constant speed
(D) To come into action when the speed varies
1-Energy is stored in a flywheel in the form of
(A) Heat energy

(B) Solar energy
(C) Kinetic energy
(D) Potential energy
2-In vehicles, flywheel is placed in between
(A) Engine and clutch

(B) Clutch and Propeller shaft
(C) Propeller shaft and Differential
(D) Before engine
3-Following is (are) the function(s) of Flywheel.
(A) To store and release energy when needed during the work cycle
(B) To reduce the amplitude of speed fluctuations
(C) To reduce the power capacity of motor
(D) All of the above
4-Flywheel is used in
(A) Punch press

(B) Drilling machine
(C) Surface grinder
(D) Milling machine
5-Flywheel are generally made from

(A) Cast Iron
(B) High strength steel
(C) Ceramics
6-Split flywheel is made to
(A) Avoid cooling stresses

(B) Minimize large centrifugal forces
(C) Reduce weight
7-If the load on the engine is constant, the mean speed will be constant from the cycle, then
(A) The governor will not operate but flywheel will be acting
(B) The flywheel will be acting but governor will not operate
(C) Both flywheel and governor will be acting
(D) Both flywheel and governor will not be acting
8-When the torque required by the machine is more than the torque supplied by the motor, the flywheel is
(A) Accelerated
(B) Retarded
(C) Rotating with constant speed
(D) Any of the above
9-The difference the maximum and minimum speeds during a cycle is called
(A) Fluctuation of speed

(B) Maximum fluctuation of speed
(C) Coefficient of fluctuation of speed
10-The ratio of maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed is called

(B) Maximum fluctuation of speed
(C) Coefficient of fluctuation of speed
ANSWERS:
1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(A), 5-(D), 6-(A), 7-(A), 8-(B), 9-(B), 10-(C)
1-Reciprocal of Coefficient of fluctuation of speed is called

(B) Coefficient of steadiness
(C) Maximum fluctuation of speed
12-For four stroke engine, work done/cycle is

(where Tm is the mean torque)
(A) πTm
(B) 2πTm
(C) 3πTm
(D) 4πTm
13-The mass moment of inertia of a solid circular disk is given by

(A) mR2/2
(B) mR2/3
(C) 2mR2/3
(D) mR2/4
14-The coefficient of fluctuation of energy =

(A) Maximum fluctuation of energy / work done per cycle
(B) Fluctuation of energy / Work done per cycle
(C) Maximum fluctuation of energy / Mean speed
(D) Fluctuation of energy / Mean speed
15-The coefficient of fluctuation of speed, when the maximum and minimum speeds are 300rpm and 290 rpm
(A) 0.034
(B) 0.017
(C) 0.008
(D) 0/004
16-Maximum fluctuation of energy =

(A) Max. KE – Min. KE
(B) Max. KE + Min. KE
(C) (Max. KE – Min. KE)/2
(D) (Max. KE + Min. KE)/2
17-In case of solid disk flywheel, the mass (m) of disk is given by
(A) πR2tρ
(B) (π/2)R2tρ
(C) 3πR2tρ
(D) (3/2)πR2tρ
18-For two stroke engine, work done/cycle is

(where Tm is the mean torque)
(A) πTm
(B) 2πTm
(C) 3πTm
(D) 4πTm
19-The flywheel is accelerated when

(A) Driving torque > Load torque
(B) Driving torque < Load torque
(C) Driving torque = Load torque
(D) Any of the above
20-Which of the following is (are) true?

(A) Cast iron has poor tensile strength compared to steel
(B) Failure of cast iron flywheel is sudden and total
(C) Machinability of cast iron flywheel is poor compared to steel flywheel
ANSWERS:
11-(B), 12-(D), 13-(A), 14-(A), 15-(A), 16-(A), 17-(A), 18-(B), 19-(A), 20-(D)
Q1 – A flywheel is used
1. to limit the fluctuation of speed during each cycle
2. to control the mean speed of the engine
3. to maintain a constant speed
4. to come into action when the speed varies
Q2 – A flywheel is made of
1. cast iron
2. high strength steels
3. graphic fiber reinforced polymer
4. any one of the above materials
Q3 – The maximum fluctuation of energy of flywheel is
1. difference between maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
2. difference between maximum and mean kinetic energy during the cycle
3. difference between mean and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
4. mean of maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
Q4 – The rim of the flywheel is subjected to,
1. direct tensile stress and bending stress
2. torsional shear stress and bending stress
3. direct shear stress and bending stress
4. compressive stress and bending stress
Q5 -The spokes of the flywheel are subjected to
1. direct shear stress
2. torsional shear stress
3. tensile stress
4. compressive stress
Q7 – The hub diameter of the flywheel is taken as

1. 2.5(shaft diameter)
2. 1.5(shaft diameter)
3. 4(shaft diameter)
4. 2(shaft diameter)
Q8 – For finding out the bending moment for the arm (spoke) of flywheel the arm is
assumed as
1. a cantilever beam fixed at the rim and subjected to tangential force at the hub
2. a simply supported beam fixed at hub and rim and carrying uniformly distributed load
3. a cantilever hub fixed at the rim and subjected to tangential force at the rim
4. a fixed beam fixed at hub and rim and carrying uniformly distributed load
Q9 – The cross section of flywheel arm is
1. I section
2. Rectangular
3. Elliptical
4. Circular
Q10 – The coefficient of fluctuation of energy of flywheel is
1. ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to work done per cycle
2. ratio of to work done per cycle to maximum fluctuation of energy
3. difference between maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
4. ratio of maximum and minimum kinetic energy during the cycle
Q11 – The coefficient of fluctuation of speed of flywheel is
1. ratio of maximum and minimum speeds during the cycle
2. ratio of maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed
3. ratio of mean speed to maximum fluctuation of speed during the cycle
4. sum of maximum fluctuation of speed and the mean speed
Q12 – In vehicle flywheel is place between
1. clutch and propeller shaft
2. engine and clutch
3. before engine
4. propeller shaft and differential
Q13 – Energy stored in flywheel in the form of
1. heat energy
2. kinetic energy
3. solar energy
4. thermal energy
Q14 – Flywheel is used in
1. drilling machine
2. milling machine
3. surface grinder
4. punch press
Q15 – The flywheel is accelerate when
1. driving torque > load torque
2. driving torque < load torque
3. driving torque = load torque
4. driving torque / load torque
Q16 – Maximum fluctuation of energy =
1. Max KE – Min KE
2. Max KE + Min KE
3. Max KE > Min KE
4. Max KE < Min KE
Q17 – Reciprocal of coefficient of fluctuation of speed is called
1. fluctuation of energy
2. fluctuation of speed
3. maximum fluctuation of speed
4. coefficient of fluctuation of speed
Q18 – Split flywheel is made to
1. avoid cooling stress
2. reduce weight
3. increase weight
4. maximize large centrifugal force
Q19 – A flywheel connected to a punching machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm while running at a mean angular
speed of 20 rad/s. If the total fluctuation of speed is not exceed to the mass moment of inertia of the flywheel
in kgm2 is
1. 25
2. 50
3. 100
4. 125
Q20 – A circular solid of uniform thickness 20 mm, radius 200 mm and mass 20 kg, is used as a flywheel. If it rotates at
600 rpm, the kinetic energy of the flywheel, in joules is
1. 395
2. 790
3. 1580
4. 3160
Q21 – Which of the following is used to control the speed variations of the engine caused by the fluctuations of the
engine turning moment?
1. D-slide valve
2. Governor
3. Flywheel
4. Meyer’s expansion valve
Q22 – The radius of Gyration (k) for Rim Type Flywheel having radius ‘r’ is given by
1. k = 2r
2. k = r/2
3. k = r
4. k = r/3
Q23 -The coefficient of fluctuation of speed of Flywheel is given by
1. (N1-N2)/N
2. (N1+N2)/N
3. (N1-N2) x N
4. (N1+N2) x N
Where N1 =Maximum speed, N2 = Minimum speed, N = Mean speed.
Q24 – . When the driving torque is more than load torque, flywheel is ______
1. Accelerated
2. Decelerated
3. Constant velocity
4. Can’t be determined
Q25 – Calculate the coefficient of fluctuation of speed if maximum speed is 2500rpm and minimum speed is 1800rpm.
1. 1.44
2. 1.33
3. 0.33
4. 0.44
Q26 – In a flywheel the safe stress is 25.2MN/m2 and the density is 7 g/cm3. Then what is the maximum peripheral
velocity ?
1. 30m/s
2. 45m/s
3. 60m/s
4. 120m/s
Q27 – Flywheel absorbs energy during those periods of crank rotation when
1. The twisting moment is greater than the resisting moment
2. The twisting moment is equal to the resisting moment
3. The twisting moment is less than resisting moment
4. The load on engine falls
Q28 – A flywheel of moment of inertia 9.8kgm 2 fluctuates by 30 rpm for a fluctuation in energy of 1936 joules. The
means speed of flywheel is (in rpm)
1. 600
2. 900
3. 968
4. 2940

MCQ Dom

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

MCQ Dom

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

MCQ Dom

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1. Stressed parts are always kept in tension.

2. Shot blasting process improves the endurance limit of the component.

3. Which process allows controlling grain structure of the product?

5. Cast surfaces have good finishing.

6. In forging, metal is in which of the following stage?

7. Forged components can be held between close limits.

10. Maximum carbon content in welding is usually limited to

1. The helix angle for double helical gears may be made up to

(A) Varies linearly

(B) Is uniform throughout

(C) Varies exponentially, being more near the torque-input end

(D) Varies exponentially, being less near the torque-input end

4. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that

(A) (Kf + 1)/ (Kt + 1)

(B) (Kf - 1)/ (Kt - 1)

(C) (Kt + 1)/ (Kf + 1)

(D) (Kt - 1)/ (Kf - 1)

(C) Remains unchanged

(D) None of these

9. A type of brake commonly used in motor cars is a

(A) Shoe brake

(B) Band and block brake

(C) Band brake

(D) Internal expanding brake

10. Which of the following property is essential for spring materials?

11. The objective of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint

(A) Free from corrosion

(B) Stronger in tension

(C) Free from stress

12. The bending stress in a curved beam is

(A) Zero at the centroidal axis

(B) Zero at the point other than centroidal axis

(C) Maximum at the neutral axis

(D) None of these

(A) Long column

(B) Short column

(C) Short and long column

(D) Very long column

(A) Less than

(C) More than

(D) None of these

15. The maximum efficiency of a square threaded screw is

(A) (1 - sinφ)/ (1 + sinφ)

(B) (1 + sinφ)/ (1 - sinφ)s

(C) (1 - sinφ)/ (1 + cosφ)

(D) (1 + cosφ)/ (1 - sinφ)

View All Answers

2. How is Young’s modulus of elasticity defined?

3. The permanent mode of deformation of a material known as _____________

5. What is the unit of tensile strength of a material?

7. The ability of a material to resist plastic deformation known as _____________

8. The ability of a material to be formed by hammering or rolling is known as _________

A. Copper and zinc

B. Copper and tin

C. Copper, tin and zinc

A. Make the steel tougher and harder

B. Raise the yield point

C. Make the steel ductile and of good bending qualities