Practice Exam English21

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PRACTICE EXAMINATION,2021

ENGLISH CORE
CLASS-XII TIME: 90 MINUTES
M.M : 40

General Instructions:
1. The question paper contains three sections.
2. Section A-READING has 18 questions. Attempt any 14
questions, as per specific instruction for each question.
3. Section B-WRITING SKILLS has 12 questions. Attempt any 10
questions, as per specification for each question.
4. Section C-LITREATURE has 30 questions. Attempt any 26
questions,as per specific instructions for each question.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.
SECTION A (READING)

I Read the passage given below :


(1) It is popularly believed that wireless technology was created in the
year 1880 when Alexander Graham Bell and Charles Sumner Tainter
invented the telephone. In that moment they changed the very course
of human civilization. Today you would be hard pressed to find an
adult (or even a child) who doesn't have access to mobile technology.
(2) Wireless communication is the transfer of information or power
between two or more points that are connected by an electrical
conductor. The most common wireless technology uses radio waves.
With radio waves, distances can be short, such as a few meters for
Bluetooth, or as far as millions of kilometres for deep space radio
communications. It encompasses various types of fixed, mobile, and
portable applications, including two-way radios, cellular telephones,
personal digital assistants (PDAs) and the Wireless networking. In
fact, all other Wi-Fi devices also emit radio waves.
(3) Wireless networks are gaining popularity due to their
convenience. This ease of connectivity comes at a price. On-going
research has identified that signals from a wireless network are
potentially dangerous to humans. The constant proximity to wireless
signals can cause headaches, insomnia, cardiac arrest and other health
issues. Researches have established that Wi-Fi network signals
predominantly affect the lower half of the human body and can trigger
liver and pancreatic cancer.
(4) In 2011, the World Health Organisation’s International Agency
for Research on Cancer classified wireless radiations from cell
phones, baby monitors, tablets, cell towers, radar, Wi-Fi etc. as Class
2B carcinogens. This Class 2B carcinogens classification applies to
appliances with an operating frequency ranging from 30 kHz to 300
GHz. This means all this while, as we were scrolling through online
entertainment, we have been sitting on a ticking time bomb.
(5) With the Rapid growth of mobile phone devices in the market,
technology has developed in such a way that it has ended up creating
a horrifying situation for the human body. The normal biological
systems of the human body have not developed in any way to adapt to
or protect against harmful radio waves.
(6) This has led to a rise in serious ailments such as diseases of brain
like cancer, brain tumours, Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease
and so on. Not to forget the short-term effects like hormone
disruption, loss of concentration, impairment of cognitive function,
behavioural problems, attention deficit and long-term effects like
DNA damage, male infertility.
(7) For children, the wireless devices have even more grave
consequences because they have thinner bony skulls, more aqueous
bodies or brains, higher rate of cell turnover and, hence their neural
systems are not completely developed. Beyond physical impairments,
children are also vulnerable to stunted socio emotional, cognitive and
behavioural development.
(8) Given the ubiquity of technology in today's society and the
importance of this issue for policy and practice, it is essential to
understand the impacts of technology use on the developing brains
and bodies of children in the 21st century in order to guide policy
delineating safe and effective use. Parents and guardians should be
discerning when it comes to guidelines and research, while
governments and groups with policy influence should be cautious of
prescribing policy without exploring the evidence base in a holistic
and through manner.
(9) International exposure guidelines have been developed to provide
protection against establish effects from radio frequency fields by the
International Commission on Non- Ionizing Radiation Protection
(ICNIRP, 1998) and the Institute of electrical and electronic engineers
(IEEE, 2005). It is up to national authorities to adopt these
international standards to protect their citizens against adverse levels
of radio wave exposure. They should restrict access to areas where
exposure limits may be exceeded.
(10) France has banned all wireless devices, including cell phones
from all public schools in September 2018, and California Public
Health is actively educating their public regarding risk of harm from
wireless radiation. Even in India, several eminent scientists have
begun a crusade to caution the Government against the rollout of 5G
technology based services in the country.
(11) We can make smarter choices about the way we use technology
by making changes in our everyday usage patterns. For instance,
adults carrying cell phones (and other wireless devices) can either
turn off the device or convert device to ‘airplane mode’ when
servicing or interacting with children and pregnant mothers.
(12) Precautionary measures for adults include increasing the
distance, duration and frequency of wireless device use, reducing
multiple device use and reducing exposure to high wireless radiation
areas. By making minor modification to our daily routines and habits
we can try and minimize the harmful effects of wireless technology.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer any 8 out of
the 10 questions by choosing the correct option.

Q1 When the author mentions that the invention of wireless


technology changed the very course of human civilization, it means
that the invention has
a) changed the lifestyle of people
b) changed the science of which technology is created
c) created adverse health issues
d) made human more cautious and informed beings
Q2 Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option
that lists the correct sequence of the information delivered to the
reader about wireless technology
( A ) Such as diseases of brain like cancer, brain tumors, Alzheimer's
disease, Parkinson's disease and so on.
(B) It is up to notional authorities to adopt these international
standards to protect their citizens against adverse levels of radio wave
exposure.
(C) Radio waves are the most commonly used wireless technology.
(D) We can make smarter choices about the way we use technology
by mocking changes in our everyday usage patterns.
(E) The ease of connectivity is very convenient but causes health
issues to humans.
( F) Wireless technology was invented by Graham Bell and Sumner
Tainter in the year 1880
( a ) ( C ) , ( F ) , (E ) , ( A ) , (B ) , ( D )
(b)(C), (F),(E), (A),(D),(B)
(c)(F),(C),(E),(A),(D),(B)
( d ) ( F ) , ( C ) , (E). (A) , (B) , (D)
Q3 Author says that given the ubiquity of technology in today's
society, it is essential to understand the impacts of technology on
developing brains. " Ubiquity ' means , being
( a ) Somewhere
( b ) Rare
( c ) Everywhere
( d ) Nowhere
Q4 Choose the option that best captures the central idea of the
passage from the following:
( a ) The invention of wireless technology changed the very course of
human civilization.
(b) With the rapid growth of mobile phone devices in the market,
technology has developed in such a way that it has ended up creating
a horrifying situation for the human body.
(c) With wireless technology being ubiquitous, health issues have
increased but by making minor modifications to our daily routines
and habits, we can try and minimize the harmful effects of it.
(d) Many countries have banned the use of wireless technology. Even
in India, several eminent scientists have begun a crusade to caution
the Government against the roll - out of 5G technology - based
services in the country,
Q5 How can we make smarter choices about the way we use
technology?
( a ) By banning it
( b ) By making changes in our everyday usage patterns
(c) By adopting stringent international exposure guidelines
(d) By prescribing safe government policies and practices
Q6 According to the passage, the fact that wireless technology is one
of the most conveniently and universally used invention, however
potentially very dangerous to human life; shows that wireless
technology is
( c) favourable but unhealthy
(b ) advantageous but risky
( c ) beneficial but unthreatening
( d) accessible but hazardous
Q7 Pick the option showing the CORRECT use of the word
“discerning”
( a ) Most chefs have very discerning sense of taste.
( b ) In the judiciary , discerning critical judgements are based on
evidences.
( c ) His Championship was perhaps not the most discerning , but it
was honest.
( d ) He made very discerning decision when the question of buying a
new house arose.
Q8 Pick the option which correctly states what DOES NOT happen
due to wireless technology
(a) Medical issues
(b) Easy accessibility
(c) Health benefits
(d) High radiations
Q9 The precautionary measures recommended by the author are
(a) Impractical and unreasonable
(b) Practical and easily adaptable
( c ) Practical with little modifications in daily routine
( d ) Practical with no modifications in daily routine
Q10 Pick the option that CORRECTLY lists the final feelings of the
author with reference to the use of wireless technology.
( A ) Mindful
( B ) Frustrated
( C ) Aware
( D ) Cautious
( E ) Scared
( F) Annoyed
(a)(A)&(E)
(b)(D)&(E)
(c)(A) &(C)
( d ) (C ) & ( F )

II Read the passage given below:


(1) Cricket in a passion for people around the globe. It is played
everywhere from the match arenas to village greens, tropical beaches
and dusty backlots. Cricket is the world's second most popular
spectator sport after soccer.
( 2 ) The origin of cricket can be traced back to the Dark Ages . All
research concedes that the game is derived from a very old popular,
and uncomplicated pastime by which one player served up an object,
be it a small piece of wood or a ball, and another hit it with a suitably
fashioned club. The game of cricket was first recorded in 16th-
century England, and it was played in grammar schools, farming
communities, and everywhere in between. But things really took off
when 18th century nobles realized it was a great sport.
( 3 ) The oldest surviving set of cricket laws dates to 1744 , which
was printed on a handkerchief. Naturally, it's now in the MCC
Museum at Lord 's in London. The oldest permanent fixture is the
annual Eton Vs Harrow match, played since 1805. A young Lord
Byron turned out for Harrow in the first match, though history
doesn't record how poetic - or " mad, bad, and dangerous” - his
bowling was.
(4) The first international match was held in 1877 when Australia
beat England in Melbourne. The match was dubbed a " Test”, since
the grueling nature of playing over five days was deemed the
ultimate test for any side. However, it was Australia's first win on
the English soil in 1882 at The Oval in London that led to matches
between the two nations being christened as the “Ashes”. Following
the defeat, newspapers published an obituary mourning " the death
of English cricket, " adding that " the body will be cremated and the
ashes taken to Australia."
(5) A One Day International (ODI) is a form of limited overs cricket
played between two teams with international status, in which each
team faces a fixed number of overs, usually 50. The Cricket World
Cup is played in this format. The international one - day game is a
late twentieth-century development. The first ODI was played on 5
January 1971 between Australia and England at the Melbourne
Cricket Ground.
(6) Table represents the list of Cricket world cup winning countries
as well as the runners - up for every Cricket World Cup played until
2015.
Year Winner Runner-up

2015 Australia New Zealand

2011 India Sri Lanka


2007 Australia Sri Lanka

2003 Australia India

1999 Australia Pakistan

1996 Sri Lanka Australia

1992 Pakistan England

1987 Australia England

1983 India West Indies

1979 West Indies England

1975 West Indies Australia

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer any six out


of eight questions by choosing the correct options.
Q11 According to the passage, cricket is played everywhere as it is
( a ) Passion for people around the globe
( b ) Logistically feasible
( c ) Second most spectacular sport
( d ) Very old popular pastime
Q12 Pick the option that lists statements that are NOT TRUE
according to the passage.
(A) The game of cricket was first recorded in 18th-century England,
and it was played in grammar schools, farming communities, and
everywhere in between.
(B) The first international match was held in 1877 when Australia
beat England in Melbourne.
(C) The first ODI was played on 5 January 1971 between Australia
and England at the Melbourne Cricket Ground.
(D) The origin of cricket can be traced back to the Old Ages.
(a)(A)&(C)
(b)(A)&(D)
( c ) (B) & (D)
(d)(C)&(D)
Q13 The word " grueling " used in paragraph 3 , means the same as
( a ) Dedicating
(b) Luminary
(c) Exhausting
(d) Exploring
Q14 According to the passage, " Following the defeat, newspapers
published an obituary mourning " the death of English cricket "
because
( a ) Cricket is an English sport .
( b ) Cricket is the national sport of England .
( c ) Cricket was first recorded on English land .
( d ) The defeat happened on the English land.
Q15 Based on the data in the Table 1, choose the option that lists the
statements that are TRUE
( A ) England won the runners - up trophy for thrice between 1975 to
2015 during Cricket World Cup .
(B) The Table 1 records all the countries who participated in the
Cricket World Cup from the year 1975 to 2015.
(C) Australia was the winning country for five consecutive Cricket
World Cups.
(D) The most recent Cricket World Cup was played in the year 2015.
(a)(A)&(B)
(b)(B)&(C)
(c)(C)&(D)
( d ) ( D) & ( A )
Q16 Based on the information in Table 1, pick the year in which
both the winning country as well as the runner - up country were
Asian countries.
( a )1983
(b) 2011
(c ) 1996
(d ) 2007

Q17 How did newspapers react to the defeat of England by Australia


in Cricket World Cup in the year 1882?
( a ) Mourned the death of England Cricket team
(b) Published the obituary
( c ) Mourned the death of English Cricket
( d ) Published the obituary of English
Q18 According to Table 1, which is the option that correctly
represents the performance of
i) Australia as a winning country in Cricket World Cup
ii) England as a runners - up country in Cricket World Cup
A E A E

V V V V
V V V V
V V V V
V V V V
A A A A

A E A E

a) ImageV 1 V V V
V V V V
b) ImageV 2 V V V
c) ImageV 3 V V V
A A A A
d) Image 4
SECTION B WRITING
III Answer any four out of the five given questions,
with reference to the context below:

The Sports Captain of St. Paul’s School, Gwalior has to


put up a notice to inform the students about the Inter
school Basketball Match to be played in the school.
Q19 Select the appropriate title for the notice.
(a) Basketball competition
(b) Basketball Match
(c) Inter – School Basketball Match
(d) All the above
Q20 Would the notice reflect the name of the school?
( a ) No, it makes it informal
( b ) Yes, it is the issuing body
( c ) not required
( d ) it is understood through the signature
Q21 Where is the salutation placed in the notice?
( a ) Just above the date
( b ) Just below the date
( c ) Along with the date
( d ) not required
Q22 Which is the most suitable way to start the body of the notice?
( a ) Through the column of …..
( b ) This is to inform you ……
( c ) This is to threaten ………
( d ) I am the Sports Captain ……
Q23 Which of the following questions should be answered while
writing the notice?
( a ) What
( b ) When
( c ) Where
( d ) all the above
IV Answer any six of the seven questions given, with reference to
the context below:
National Book Trust organized a week long book fair. You visited the
fair and bought a few books. You were pleased with the
arrangements, enthusiasm of the visitors and the fact that books have
not yet lost their relevance in the world of internet. You are expected
to write aletter to the Editor to express your feelings.
Q24 Select the option that lists an appropriate subject for the letter
( a) Appreciation and joy to be at the Book Fair
( b ) Internet and Books
( c ) Books are our best friends
( d ) all are suitable
Q25 Which suggestion would be appropriate for the readers?
( a ) promotion of e-books
(b ) promote importance of book reading
( c ) more such book fairs to be organised to enhance the importance
of books
( d ) share the experience of book reading
Q26 How will you sign off the letter?
( a ) A concerned citizen
(b ) Yours truly
( c ) Yours obediently
( d ) With love
Q27 Who is an editor ?
( a ) One who lodges an FIR
( b ) Investigating officer
( c ) One who publishes your views in a newspaper
( d ) One who edits you FIR
Q28 What is the motive of writing a letter to the editor?
( a) To ask him to take an action
( b ) To threaten him to take action
( c ) To order him to take action
( d ) To request him to give space to your views in his column that
can help in sorting out the problem
Q29 Which of the following is the most suitable salutation of a letter
to the editor?
( a) Dear Sir / Madam

( b ) Hellow Sir/ Madam


( c ) Mr. Editor / Mrs. Editor
( d) All of these
Q30 The subject of the letter to the editor should be
( a ) As long as possible
( b ) Brief, clear and relevant
( c ) exaggerated and irrelevant
( d ) none of these
SECTION – C LITERATURE

This section has sub-sections: V, VI, VII, VIII, IX. There


are a total of 30 questions in the section. Attempt any 26
questions from the sub- sections V to IX.

V Read the given extract to attempt questions that


follow:
I started for school very late that morning and was in
great dread of scolding, especially because M Hamel had
said that he would question us on participles, and I did
not know the first word about them. For a moment I
thought of running away and spending the day out of
doors. It was so warm, so bright! The birds were chirping
at the edge of the wood; and in the open field back of the
sawmill the Prussian soldiers were drilling. It was all
much more tempting than the rule for participles, but I had
the strength to resist, and hurried off to school.

Q31. Franz was scared about going to school because he


would be quizzed on ........................ participles.
(a) English
(b) Prussian
(c) French
(d) German
Q32. From the extract, it can be inferred that the days in
Alsace were …….. warm and bright.
( a ) often
( b ) never

( c ) rarely
( d ) all the time
Q33 Choose the two meanings of the word ‘drill’ from the
options.
( 1 ) a sharp sound or noise that is unpleasant
( 2 ) to make a hole in something using a tool
( 3 ) to practice something again and again
( 4 ) a state of feeling extreme excitement
(a)(1)&(2)
(b)(1)&(4)
(c)(3)&(4)
(d)(2)&(3)
Q34 From the passage which adjective best describes
Franz?
(a) carefree
(b) studious
(c) diligent
(d) bookish
Q 35 How did Franz feel about attending school that day?
(a) Energetic and calm
(b) Scared and anxious
(c) Happy and eager
(d) Thoughtful and reflective

VI Read the given extract to attempt questions that follow:


" I sometimes find a rupee, even a ten - rupee note, " Saheb says,
his eyes lighting up. When you can find a silver coin in a heap of
garbage, you don't stop scrounging, for there is hope of finding more.
It seems that for children, garbage has a meaning different from what
it means to their parents. For the children it is wrapped in wonder,
for the elders it is a means of survival.
Q36 What does the phrase ' lighting up ' imply here

( a ) bright with excitement


( b ) dark with sadness
( c ) glowing with pride
( d ) simmering with anger
Q37 Choose the option that best summarizes the relationship
between what adults and children think of the garbage dump.
(a) rural and urban
(b) theory and practice
( c ) reality and fantasy
( d ) tradition and modernity
Q38 Choose the synonym of “survival”
( a) extinction
( b ) annihilation
( c ) demise
( d ) endurance
Q39 The mood conveyed in this extract :
(a) humorous
(b) melancholy
(c ) mysterious
( d ) gloomy
Q 40 According to the author what was garbage for the children?
(a ) Means of entertainment
( b ) Means of time pass
( c ) Means of playing
( d ) a wonder
VII Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow:
If we were not so single-minded
About keeping our lives moving
And for once could do nothing
Perhaps a huge silence
Might interrupt this sadness
Of never understanding ourselves
And of threatening ourselves with death

Q41 Which sets of opposites are explored in these lines?


1. Nothing and everything
2. Sadness and happiness
3. Silence and speech
4. Movement and stillness
(a) 1. & 4.
(b) 2. & 3.
(c) 1. & 3.
(d) 3. & 4.
Q42 According to the poet, to what extent do humans understand
themselves?
(a) Not at all
(b) Partially
(c) To some extent
(d) Completely
Q43 Which of the following can be inferred to lead to “threatening
ourselves with death”
( a) constantly being silent
( b) constantly rushing about
( c) constantly being sad
( d ) constantly doing nothing
Q44 According to the poet, it can be inferred that silence can help
humans ……………….
( a) understand the earth
( b) understand each other
( c ) understand themselves
( d ) understand stillness
Q45 What is the “sadness” the poet refers to ?
( a) selfishness of the man
( b ) unhappiness
( c ) rush hours
( d ) death
VIII Read the given extract to attempt questions that follow:
The man moaned with pain in his stupor but he did not awaken
"The best thing that we could do would be to put him back in the
sea, " Sadao said, answering himself. Now that the bleeding was
stopped for the moment he stood up and dusted the sand from his
hands " Yes, undoubtedly that would be best, " Hana said steadily.
But she continued to stare down at the motionless man. " If we
sheltered a white man in our house we should be arrested and if
we turned him over as a prisoner, he would certainly die " Sadao
said. " The kindest thing would be to put him back into the sea, "
Hana said. But neither of them moved. They were staringwith
curious repulsion upon the inert figure.
Q46 In which of the following options can the underlined words
NOT be replaced with ' stupor '?
(a) She hung up the phone feeling as though she had woken up
from a slumber.
(b) The manager complained about the employee's sluggishness.
(c) He seemed to be in a trance when the doctor called upon him
last week.
( d ) Seeing him in a daze , the lawyer decided not to place him in
the witness box.
Q47 Pick the option that best describes Sadao and Hana in the
passage:
(a ) Sadao : Scrupulous , Hana : Wary
( b ) Sadao : daring , Hana : prudent
( c ) Sadao : prudent , Hana : suspicious
(d ) Sadao : Wary , Hana : daring
Q48 Pick the idiom that describes the situation in which Sadao and
Hana were in:
( a ) to be like a fish out of water
( b ) like water off a duck's back
( c ) to be dead in the water
( d ) to be in hot water
Q49 Choose the correct option with reference to the two
statements given below :
Statement ( 1 ) : Sadao and Hana cared about the soldier but were
worried about the consequences of being considerate. Statement
(2) : Sadao and Hana wanted to shirk their responsibilities of
looking after an injured soldier , who could be an American
( a ) Statement ( 1 ) is true but Statement ( 2 ) is false .
( b ) Statement ( 1 ) is false but Statement ( 2 ) is true.
( c ) Both Statement ( 1 ) and Statement ( 2 ) are true .
( d ) Both Statement ( 1 ) and Statement ( 2 ) are false .
Q50 What kind of dilemma were Sadao and Hana put through in
the story ?
(a ) a social dilemma
( b ) a military dilemma
( c ) an individual dilemma
( d ) a moral dilemma
IX ATTEMPT THE FOLLOWING :
Q51 How would you describe Charley?
( a) confused , happy – go – lucky
(b ) escapist, adventurous
( c ) imaginative , nostalgic
( d ) friendly , responsible
Q52 Why didn’t Charley tell his psychiatrist friend about this idea?
( a) he was afraid that his job would be at stake if he shared these
thoughts.
( b ) he was afraid that his friend would not approve of his
imaginings.
( c ) he was afraid that his wife Louisa would not like these
thoughts.
( d ) he was afraid that his psychiatrist friend would find this
interesting.
Q53 In the poem, “My mother at sixty six”, why did the poet used
the image of merry children?
( a ) to sketch a wholesome picture of life.
( b ) to create a merry and fun atmosphere.
( c ) to compliment the idea of loss and separation.
( d ) to contrast with the idea of an aged person.
Q54 The phrase ‘old familiar ache’ has been used to refer to a fear,
in the extract. This phrase can also be used to :
( a ) compare physical pain with mental agony.
( b ) elicit someone’s unanswered queries.
( c ) substantiate reasons for aches and pain.
( d ) describe a longing one has been aware of.
Q55 ‘Shakespeare is wicked,’ said the poet. Why? Which of the
following can be inferred as the meaning?
( a ) Because he borrowed many ideas from others.
( b ) Because he attempted children to write like him.
( c ) Because they are wicked people in his works.
( d ) Because his workers are not read by the children.
Q56 Which of the following can be inferred to be fundamentally
lacking in society for there to be elementary school classrooms in a
slum as the poet has described.
( a ) a lack of political will to change
( b ) a lack of good infrastructure
( c ) a lack of good teaching method
( d ) a lack of financial investment
Q57 Which poetic device is used in the line :
‘far far from rivers’
( a ) antithesis
(b ) alliteration
( c ) analogy
( d ) apostrophe
Q58 What kind of boy was Douglas before his misadventure?
( a ) He was a bold and brash boy.
( b ) He was a timid and shy boy.
( c ) He was loud and naughty boy.
( d ) He was an anxious and stressed boy.
Q59 Which body part did Douglas feel insecure about?
( a ) his feet
( b ) his arms
( c ) his legs
( d ) his hair
Q60 Which kind of problem would the terror that haunted Douglas
be?
( a ) psychological
( b ) sociological
( c ) geographical
( d ) physical

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